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    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>240</NO>
    <DATE>Wednesday, December 17, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Contents</UNITNAME>
    <CNTNTS>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Agency Health
                <PRTPAGE P="iii"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>58562-58566</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23094</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23096</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Agriculture</EAR>
            <HD>Agriculture Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Food and Nutrition Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>58542</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23114</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Centers Medicare</EAR>
            <HD>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Medicare Program:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility Prospective Payment System for Federal Fiscal Year 2026 and Updates to the IRF Quality Reporting Program; Correction, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58509-58511</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23081</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>58566</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23116</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Children</EAR>
            <HD>Children and Families Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>58567-58568</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23078</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Civil Rights</EAR>
            <HD>Civil Rights Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Maryland Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58543-58544</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23112</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Montana Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58543</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23110</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Puerto Rico Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58544</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23109</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Tennessee Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58542-58543</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23130</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Coast Guard</EAR>
            <HD>Coast Guard</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Safety Zone:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>San Francisco New Year's Eve Fireworks; San Francisco, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58508-58509</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23125</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Special Local Regulation:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Milwaukee River, Milwaukee, WI, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58539-58541</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23085</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Commerce</EAR>
            <HD>Commerce Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Industry and Security Bureau</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Commodity Futures</EAR>
            <HD>Commodity Futures Trading Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Exemptive Relief to Facilitate Cross-Margining of Customer Positions Cleared at Chicago Mercantile Exchange, Inc. and Fixed Income Clearing Corp., </DOC>
                    <PGS>58525-58539</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23150</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Education Department</EAR>
            <HD>Education Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Application for Approval to Participate in Federal Student Aid Programs, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58551</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23135</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Employment and Training</EAR>
            <HD>Employment and Training Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>H-2A Temporary Agricultural Labor Certification Program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58622</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23127</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Aviation</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Aviation Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Airworthiness Directives:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Airbus Helicopters, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58512-58521</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23100</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23101</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23103</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Modernization of Pilot Schools, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58523-58525</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23113</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23115</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Restricted Area:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Fort Drum, NY, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58522-58523</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23090</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Airport Property:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Mason County Airport, Point Pleasant, WV, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58802</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23097</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Petition for Exemption; Summary:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>FlightSafety International, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58803-58804</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23107</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Galaxy Unmanned Systems, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58801-58802</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23106</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Pratt and Whitney, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58803</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23104</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Communications</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Communications Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Debarment:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Federal Lifeline Program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58551-58556</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23018</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Privacy Act; Matching Program, </DOC>
                    <PGS>58556</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23140</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Motor</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Exemption Application:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Hours of Service of Drivers; Hulcher Services, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58804-58805</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23063</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Reserve</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Reserve System</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Change in Bank Control:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58556-58557</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23108</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Trade</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Trade Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>58557-58559</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23079</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Food and Nutrition</EAR>
            <HD>Food and Nutrition Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Implementation of the Access to Baby Formula Act of 2022 and Related Provisions; Correcting Amendments, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58507-58508</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23089</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Foreign Assets</EAR>
            <HD>Foreign Assets Control Office</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Sanctions Actions, </DOC>
                    <PGS>58807-58808</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23129</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>General Services</EAR>
            <HD>General Services Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Construction Manager as Constructor, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58559-58560</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23084</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="iv"/>
                    <SJDOC>Federal Supply Schedule Pricing Disclosures and Sales Reporting, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58559</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23082</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Transactional Data Reporting, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58560-58562</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23083</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Health and Human</EAR>
            <HD>Health and Human Services Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Children and Families Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Health Resources and Services Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Health Resources</EAR>
            <HD>Health Resources and Services Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Countermeasures Injury Compensation Program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58568-58569</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23043</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Shortage Designation Management System, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58569-58571</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23065</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Homeland</EAR>
            <HD>Homeland Security Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Coast Guard</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Industry</EAR>
            <HD>Industry and Security Bureau</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Denial of Export Privileges:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Arthur Ching-Fu Gau, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58544-58545</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23123</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Jose Raul Paredes Arispe, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58545-58546</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23117</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Marco Antonio Santillan Valencia, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58549-58550</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23118</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Marco Santillan, Jr., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58546-58547</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23119</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nikolay Goltsev, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58548-58549</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23122</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Richard G. Shih, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58547-58548</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23120</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Interior</EAR>
            <HD>Interior Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Land Management Bureau</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Park Service</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Internal Revenue</EAR>
            <HD>Internal Revenue Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>58808</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23138</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Com</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Complaint, </DOC>
                    <PGS>58619-58621</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23102</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23139</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Labor Department</EAR>
            <HD>Labor Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Employment and Training Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Workers Compensation Programs Office</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Award Closure Statement Documents, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58622</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23061</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Land</EAR>
            <HD>Land Management Bureau</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Licenses; Exemptions, Applications, Amendments, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Coal Exploration, License Application COCO106747627, Rio Blanco County, CO, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58572-58573</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23141</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>NASA</EAR>
            <HD>National Aeronautics and Space Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NASA Astronaut Candidate Selection Qualifications Inquiry, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58630-58631</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23105</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Highway</EAR>
            <HD>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Evenflo Co., Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58805-58807</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23086</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Oceanic</EAR>
            <HD>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Military Readiness Activities in the Hawaii-California Training and Testing Study Area, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58810-59040</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23088</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Surfclam/Ocean Quahog Individual Transfer Quota Administration, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58550-58551</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23080</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Park</EAR>
            <HD>National Park Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Intended Disposition:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Department of Agriculture, Forest Service, Ozark-St. Francis National Forest, Russellville, AR, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58611-58612</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23024</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Tulsa District, Tulsa, OK, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58609-58610</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23023</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Inventory Completion:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Allen County-Fort Wayne Historical Society, Fort Wayne, IN, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58603-58604</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23054</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Baylor University's Mayborn Museum Complex, Waco, TX, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58612-58613</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23025</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>California Department of Transportation, Oakland, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58580-58581, 58610-58611</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23027</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23036</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>California Department of Transportation, San Diego, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58574-58575</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23002</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>California State University, Long Beach, Long Beach, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58584-58585</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23050</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Claremont Colleges Services, Claremont, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58582-58583</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23010</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Kansas State Historical Society, Topeka, KS, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58579-58580, 58587, 58599-58600</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23032</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23033</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23051</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Lincoln University-Missouri, Jefferson City, MO, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58593</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23055</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Mercyhurst University, Erie, PA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58592-58593, 58617-58619</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23003</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23004</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23005</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Mississippi Department of Archives and History, Jackson, MS, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58575-58576</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-22998</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Missouri Historical Society, St. Louis, MO, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58594-58597</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23000</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23151</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>New Mexico Junior College, Hobbs, NM, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58578-58579</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-22997</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Office of the State Archaeologist, University of Iowa, Iowa City, IA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58594</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23011</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, Cambridge, MA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58596, 58610, 58613-58616</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23013</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23014</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23015</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Sam Noble Oklahoma Museum of Natural History, University of Oklahoma, Norman, OK, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58586-58587</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23031</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>San Jose State University, San Jose, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58585-58586</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23007</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History, Santa Barbara, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58616-58617</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23039</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation Division of Archaeology, Nashville, TN, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58607-58608</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23038</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The University of Tennessee, Department of Anthropology, Knoxville, TN, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58607</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23041</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>University of Alabama Museums, Tuscaloosa, AL, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58598-58599</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23026</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology, Athens, GA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58600-58603</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-22999</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>University of Michigan, Ann Arbor, MI, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58606-58609</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23047</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23048</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>University of Oregon Museum of Natural and Cultural History, Eugene, OR, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58595-58596</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23012</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="v"/>
                    <SJDOC>University of Wisconsin Oshkosh, Oshkosh, WI, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58577</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23016</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Western Kentucky University, Bowling Green, KY, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58589-58590</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23001</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Repatriation of Cultural Items:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Ball State University, Muncie, IN, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58573-58574</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23037</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>California State University, Los Angeles, Los Angeles, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58605</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23009</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>California State University, Sacramento, Sacramento, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58581-58582, 58588-58589</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23028</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23029</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Culver-Stockton College, Canton, MO, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58604</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23034</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Denver Museum of Nature and Science, Denver, CO, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58590-58591</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23049</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Fowler Museum at University of California Los Angeles, Los Angeles, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58597-58598</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23053</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Los Rios Community College District, Sacramento, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58578</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23030</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, Cambridge, MA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58588</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23006</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Placer County Museums Division, Auburn, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58580</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23040</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The University of Tennessee, Department of Anthropology, Knoxville, TN, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58585</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23042</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Turtle Bay Exploration Park, Redding, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58591-58592</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23035</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>University of California, Berkeley, Berkeley, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58583-58584</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23008</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>University of California, Davis, Davis, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58582</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23052</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>University of California, Santa Barbara, Art, Design and Architecture Museum, Santa Barbara, CA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58618</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23046</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Science</EAR>
            <HD>National Science Foundation</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>58633-58635</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23124</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Office of Civil Rights Civil Rights Case Management System, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58635-58636</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23121</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Permits; Applications, Issuances, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Antarctic Conservation Act, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58631-58633</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23056</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Nuclear Regulatory</EAR>
            <HD>Nuclear Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Environmental Assessments; Availability, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Independent Spent Fuel Storage Facilities Decommissioning Funding Plans, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58636-58637</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23099</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Occupational Safety Health Adm</EAR>
            <HD>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Construction Fall Protection Systems Criteria, Practices, and Training Requirements Standard, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58623-58624</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23057</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Crawler, Locomotive, and Truck Cranes Standard, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58626-58628</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23058</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Manlifts Standard, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58628-58629</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23060</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Respirable Crystalline Silica Standards for General Industry, Shipyards and Construction, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58625-58626</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23059</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The 1,3-Butadiene Standard, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58624-58625</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23045</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Postal Service</EAR>
            <HD>Postal Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Product Change:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, and USPS Ground Advantage Negotiated Service Agreements, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58637-58638</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23064</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Railroad Retirement</EAR>
            <HD>Railroad Retirement Board</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>58638-58639</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-22996</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Privacy Act; Matching Program, </DOC>
                    <PGS>58639-58641</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23137</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Securities</EAR>
            <HD>Securities and Exchange Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Application:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Oxford Square Capital Corp., et al.; Correction, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58659</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23126</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Proposed Rule Changes:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cboe BYX Exchange, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58659-58664</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23069</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>LCH SA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58657-58659</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23067</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Miami International Securities Exchange, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58641-58642</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23070</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nasdaq PHLX LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58650-58654</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23076</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Securities Clearing Corp., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58642-58646</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23068</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>New York Stock Exchange LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58654-58656, 58669-58671</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23072</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23074</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NYSE American LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58648-58650</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23075</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NYSE Arca, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58671-58677</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23071</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58646-58648</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23073</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The Options Clearing Corp., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58664-58669</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23077</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Selective</EAR>
            <HD>Selective Service System</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Privacy Act; Systems of Records, </DOC>
                    <PGS>58677-58678</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23111</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Social</EAR>
            <HD>Social Security Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>58678-58684</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23098</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>State Department</EAR>
            <HD>State Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Medical History and Examination, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58725</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23131</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Foreign Terrorist Organization Designation:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Clan del Golfo, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58775</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23133</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>International Maritime Organization SDC 12, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58800</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23062</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Sanctions Actions, </DOC>
                    <PGS>58684-58801</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23017</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23019</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23020</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23021</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23022</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Specially Designated Global Terrorist Designations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Clan del Golfo, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58775</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23144</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Transportation Department</EAR>
            <HD>Transportation Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Aviation Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Treasury</EAR>
            <HD>Treasury Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Foreign Assets Control Office</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Internal Revenue Service</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Immigration</EAR>
            <HD>U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Flight Manifest/Billing Agreement, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58571</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23087</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Suspicious/Criminal Activity Tip Reporting, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58572</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23095</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Workers'</EAR>
            <HD>Workers Compensation Programs Office</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Actuarial Attestation Regarding War Risk Hazard Provisions in Defense Base Act Premiums, WH-2, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>58629-58630</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-23134</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <PTS>
            <PRTPAGE P="vi"/>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Separate Parts In This Issue</HD>
            <HD>Part II</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Commerce Department, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, </DOC>
                <PGS>58810-59040</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2025-23088</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
        </PTS>
        <AIDS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Reader Aids</HD>
            <P>Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.</P>
            <P>To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.</P>
        </AIDS>
    </CNTNTS>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>240</NO>
    <DATE>Wednesday, December 17, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <RULES>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58507"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Nutrition Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>7 CFR Part 246</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[FNS-2023-0027]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0584-AE94</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC): Implementation of the Access to Baby Formula Act of 2022 and Related Provisions; Correcting Amendments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Nutrition Service (FNS), USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Correcting amendments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>On December 14, 2023, the U.S. Department of Agriculture's Food and Nutrition Service (FNS) published a final rule that went into effect on February 12, 2024. The rule amended the Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) regulations to implement the provisions of the Access to Baby Formula Act of 2022 (ABFA) and make related amendments. In reviewing the resulting changes to the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), FNS found that the final rule inadvertently omitted provisions from the CFR and contained several non-substantive errors. This document corrects those errors in the WIC regulations.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective on December 17, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Allison Post, Chief, WIC Administration, Benefits, and Certification Branch, Policy Division, Supplemental Nutrition and Safety Programs, Food and Nutrition Service, USDA, 1320 Braddock Place, Alexandria, Virginia, (703) 457-7708 or 
                        <E T="03">Allison.Post@usda.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    FNS published a final rule with request for comments in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on December 14, 2023 (88 FR 86545), titled 
                    <E T="03">Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC): Implementation of the Access to Baby Formula Act of 2022 and Related Provisions</E>
                    . The rule, which went into effect on February 12, 2024, revised the Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) regulations at 7 CFR part 246 to incorporate Access to Baby Formula Act of 2022 (ABFA; Pub. L. 117-129) provisions and to make related amendments. The rule included changes to the introductory text of § 246.16a(c)(5) to clarify terminology describing bidders for infant formula cost containment contracts. In making this change, subparagraphs (i) through (iii) of § 246.16a(c)(5) were inadvertently removed, leaving only the introductory text of § 246.16a(c)(5). This action reintroduces the inadvertently omitted provisions. Additionally, the rule introduced several non-substantive errors into the WIC regulations. This action corrects those errors by:
                </P>
                <P> Editing definitions at § 246.2 to spell out the acronym “FDA” in the definition of “recall” and to clarify phrasing in the definition of “supply chain disruption.”</P>
                <P> Standardizing a repeated list of program disruptions used throughout § 246.4(a)(30) and adding missing semi-colons to § 246.4(a)(30)(i)(B) and (C).</P>
                <P> Adding the word “transaction” to § 246.4(a)(30)(i)(F) to correct terminology. The word “redemption” is currently used incorrectly to refer to both participant transactions and vendor redemptions.</P>
                <P> Correcting capitalization in § 246.16a(n)(2) and § 246.29(a).</P>
                <P> Replacing “USDA” with “the Secretary” in § 246.29 to align with phrasing used throughout WIC regulations.</P>
                <P>This action incorporates all the corrections listed above into the final regulations. FNS does not expect these corrections to result in any policy or process changes.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 7 CFR Part 246</HD>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Civil rights, Food assistance programs, Grant programs—health, Grant programs—social programs, Indians, Infants and children, Maternal and child health, Nutrition, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Women.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, FNS corrects 7 CFR part 246 by making the following correcting amendments:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 246—SPECIAL SUPPLEMENTAL NUTRITION PROGRAM FOR WOMEN, INFANTS AND CHILDREN</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="246">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 246 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>42 U.S.C. 1786.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="246">
                    <AMDPAR>2. In § 246.2, revise the definitions of “Recall” and “Supply chain disruption” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 246.2 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Recall</E>
                             means recall as defined in 21 CFR 7.3(g) or any successor regulation. Recalls may be conducted voluntarily by a manufacturer or may be required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Supply chain disruption</E>
                             means a shortage of WIC supplemental foods that limits WIC participants' ability to reasonably purchase supplemental foods using WIC benefits within a State agency's jurisdiction, as determined, and declared by the Secretary for the purposes of WIC.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="246">
                    <AMDPAR>3. In § 246.4:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Revise paragraphs (a)(30)(i)(B), (C), and (F), and paragraphs (a)(30)(iii), (v), and (vii) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 246.4 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>State plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) * * *</P>
                        <P>(30) * * *</P>
                        <P>(i) * * *</P>
                        <P>(B) Alternate certification and benefit issuance;</P>
                        <P>(C) Verification of Certification (VOC) issuance;</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(F) Benefit transaction and redemption; and</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(iii) A designated emergency contact within the State agency for an emergency period, supplemental food recall, and other supply chain disruptions;</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (v) A plan to establish relationships with relief agencies responsible for disaster and public health emergency planning applicable to the State agency's jurisdiction and participants to support data-informed approaches when 
                            <PRTPAGE P="58508"/>
                            responding to an emergency period, supplemental food recall, and other supply chain disruptions;
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(vii) A communications plan to keep FNS, State and local agency staff, authorized WIC vendors, WIC participants, and the public informed during an emergency period, supplemental food recall, and other supply chain disruptions;</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="246">
                    <AMDPAR>4. In § 246.16a:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Add paragraphs (c)(5)(i) through (iii); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Revise paragraph (n)(2).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The addition and revision read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 246.16a </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Infant formula and authorized foods cost containment.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(c) * * *</P>
                        <P>(5) * * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Calculating the standardized number of units of infant formula.</E>
                             The State agency must specify a standardized number of units (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             cans) of infant formula by physical form (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             concentrated liquid, powdered, and ready-to-feed) to be bid upon. The standardized number of units must contain the equivalent of the total number of ounces by physical form needed to give the maximum allowance to the average monthly number of infants using each form. The number of infants does not include infant participants who are exclusively breastfed and those who are issued exempt infant formula. The average monthly number of infants using each physical form must be based on at least 6 months of the most recent participation and issuance data. In order to calculate the standardized number of units of infant formula by form to be bid upon, the average monthly number of infants using each physical form is multiplied by the maximum monthly allowable number of ounces for each form (as allowed under table 1 to § 246.10(e)(9)), and divided by the corresponding unit size (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             number of ounces per unit being bid). In order to compare bids, total cost is calculated by multiplying this standardized number of units by the net price for each physical form. Alternative calculations that arrive at a mathematically equivalent result are acceptable.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Determining the lowest total monthly net price or highest rebate.</E>
                             To determine the lowest total monthly net price a State agency must multiply the net price per unit by the established standardized amount of infant formula to be bid upon as calculated in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section. If the bid evaluation is based on highest rebate offered, the State agency must multiply the rebate offered by the established amount of infant formula to be bid upon as calculated in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Highest rebate limitation.</E>
                             Before issuing the bid solicitation, a State agency that elects to evaluate bids by highest rebate must demonstrate to FNS's satisfaction that the weighted average retail prices for different brands of infant formula in the State vary by 5 percent or less. The weighted average retail price must take into account the prices charged for each type and physical form of infant formula by authorized vendors or, if a State agency elects, it may include stores that do not participate in the WIC program in the State. The State agency must also base calculations on the proportion of each type and physical form of infant formula the State agency issues based on the data provided to bidders pursuant to paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(n) * * *</P>
                        <P>(2) Allow the issuance of non-contract brand infant formulas without medical documentation, with the exception of participants receiving Food Package III as defined in § 246.10(e)(3); and</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="246">
                    <AMDPAR>5. In § 246.29:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Revise the last sentence of the introductory text of paragraph (a); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Revise the introductory text of paragraph (c).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revisions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 246.29 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Waivers of program requirements.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) * * * To be considered, a waiver or modification issued under this section must meet the following requirements:</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">State agency waiver requests.</E>
                             State agencies shall submit requests for a modification or waiver for the Secretary's approval. Requests shall include but not necessarily be limited to:
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Patrick A. Penn,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Under Secretary, Food, Nutrition and Consumer Services.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23089 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-30-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2025-1098]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; San Francisco New Year's Eve Fireworks; San Francisco, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notification of enforcement of regulation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zone in the navigable waters of the San Francisco Bay near the San Francisco Ferry building for the San Francisco New Year's Eve Fireworks Display. The safety zone will be enforced from December 31, 2025, through January 1, 2026. This action is necessary to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from the dangers associated with pyrotechnics. During the enforcement period, unauthorized persons or vessels are prohibited from entering, transiting through, or remaining in the safety zone, unless authorized by the Patrol Commander or other Federal, State, or local law enforcement agencies.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The regulation in 33 CFR 165.1191 will be enforced for the location described in Table 1 to § 165.1191, Item number 24, from noon on December 31, 2025, through 12:45 a.m. on January 1, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this notification of enforcement, call or email MST2 Erik Nadal, U.S. Coast Guard Sector San Francisco, Waterways Management Division; telephone (415) 399-7440, email 
                        <E T="03">SFWaterways@uscg.mil</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zone regulations in 33 CFR 165.1191 for the event and location listed in Table 1 to § 165.1191, Item number 24, for the San Francisco New Year's Eve Fireworks Display from noon on December 31, 2025, through 12:45 a.m. on January 1, 2026. The Coast Guard will enforce a 100-foot safety zone around the fireworks barge during the loading, standby, transit, and arrival of the fireworks barge from the loading location to the display location and until the start of the fireworks display. On December 31, 2025, the fireworks barge will be loaded at Pier 68, Wharf 4 in San Francisco, CA, from approximately noon until approximately 6 p.m. The fireworks 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58509"/>
                    barge will remain on standby at the load location until the transit to the display location. From 10:45 p.m. to 11:15 p.m. on December 31, 2025, the loaded fireworks barge will transit from Pier 68, Wharf 4 to the launch site near the San Francisco Ferry Building in approximate position 37°47′45″ N, 122°23′15″ W (NAD 83), where the barge will remain until the conclusion of the fireworks display.
                </P>
                <P>At approximately 11:45 p.m. on December 31, 2025, 15 minutes prior to the fireworks display, the safety zone will expand to encompass all navigable waters, from surface to bottom, within a circle formed by connecting all points 1,000 feet out from the fireworks barge. The fireworks barge will be near the San Francisco Ferry Building in San Francisco, CA in approximate position 37°47′45″ N, 122°23′15″ W (NAD 83) as set forth in 33 CFR 165.1191, Table 1, Item number 24. The safety zone will be enforced until 12:45 a.m. on January 1, 2026, or as announced via Broadcast Notice to Mariners.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition to this notification of enforcement in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    <E T="03">,</E>
                     the Coast Guard plans to provide notification of this enforcement period via the Local Notice to Mariners and Broadcast Notice to Mariners.
                </P>
                <P>Under the provisions of 33 CFR 165.1191, unauthorized persons or vessels are prohibited from entering into, transiting through, or anchoring in the safety zone during all applicable effective dates and times, unless authorized to do so by the PATCOM or other Official Patrol defined as a federal, state, or local law enforcement agency on scene to assist the Coast Guard in enforcing the regulated area. Additionally, each person granted permission to enter the zone who receives notice of a lawful order or direction issued by the PATCOM or Official Patrol must obey the order or direction. The PATCOM or Official Patrol, may, upon request, allow the transit of commercial vessels through regulated areas when it is safe to do so.</P>
                <P>If the Captain of the Port determines that the regulated area need not be enforced for the full duration stated in this notice, a Broadcast Notice to Mariners may be used to grant general permission to enter the regulated area.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jordan M. Baldueza,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard,  Captain of the Port San Francisco.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23125 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>42 CFR Part 412</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[CMS-1829-CN]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0938-AV48</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Medicare Program; Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility Prospective Payment System for Federal Fiscal Year 2026 and Updates to the IRF Quality Reporting Program; Correction</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; correction.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This document corrects typographical and technical errors in the final rule that appeared in the August 5, 2025, 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         entitled “Medicare Program; Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility Prospective Payment System for Federal Fiscal Year 2026 and Updates to the IRF Quality Reporting Program” (hereinafter referred to as the “FY 2026 IRF final rule”). The effective date was October 1, 2025.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Effective date:</E>
                         This correction is effective December 17, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Applicability date:</E>
                         This correction is applicable to October 1, 2025.
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Kimberly Schwartz, (410) 786-2571; Patricia Taft (410) 786-4561.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>In FR Doc. 2025-14780 of August 5, 2025, the FY 2026 IRF final rule (90 FR 37678), there were typographical and technical errors that are identified and corrected in this correcting document.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Summary of Errors</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Summary of Errors in the Preamble</HD>
                <P>On pages 37678, 37681, 37698, 37699, 37718, 37719, 37720, 37721, and 37724, due to a technical error in the calculation of the final FY 2026 IRF PPS payment rates, we inadvertently excluded a provider from the FY 2026 payment rate analysis and impacts, which required recalculation of the payment rates and impact analysis.</P>
                <P>On page 37681, we included an incorrect section reference.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Summary of Errors and Corrections Posted on the CMS Website for the IRF Wage Index</HD>
                <P>After the FY 2026 IRF PPS final rule was published, we identified CMS Certification Numbers (CCNs) with more than 6 characters in the provider-specific file indicating there are providers with multiple records that have different provider characteristics. In the FY 2026 IRF PPS final rule, we inadvertently only included records with 6 character CCNs in our rate setting analysis resulting in one IRF provider being excluded from the rate setting data. Therefore, in this document we include that provider record with more than 6 characters with the most recent effective date. The inclusion of the 236 claims from this provider resulted in a change to the outlier threshold (section VI. of the FY 2026 IRF PPS final rule) and changes to the estimated payment impacts (section VII. of the FY 2026 IRF PPS final rule).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Waiver of Proposed Rulemaking and Delay in Effective Date</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 1871(b)(1) of the Social Security Act (the Act) requires the Secretary to provide for notice of a proposed rule in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and provide a period of not less than 60 days for public comment. In addition, section 1871(e)(1)(B)(i) of the Act mandates a 30-day delay in effective date after issuance or publication of a rule. Section 1871(b)(2)(C) of the Act provides an exception from the notice and 60-day comment period and delay in effective date requirements of the Act, under the good cause standard set forth in 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B). Section 1871(e)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act provides an exception from the delay in effective date requirements of the Act as well. Section 553(b)(B) authorizes an agency to dispense with normal notice and comment rulemaking procedures for good cause if the agency makes a finding that the notice and comment process is impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest, and includes a statement of the finding and the reasons for it in the rule. In addition, section 1871(e)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act allows the agency to avoid the 30-day delay in effective date where the waiver is necessary to comply with statutory requirements or such delay is contrary to the public interest and the agency includes in the rule a statement of the finding and the reasons for it. In our view, this correcting document does not constitute a rulemaking that would be subject to these requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This document merely corrects typographical and technical errors in the FY 2026 IRF final rule. The corrections contained in this document are consistent with, and do not make substantive changes to, the policies and payment methodologies that were proposed, subject to notice and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58510"/>
                    comment procedures, and adopted in the FY 2026 IRF final rule. As a result, the corrections made through this correcting document are intended to resolve inadvertent errors so that the rule accurately reflects the policies adopted in the final rule. Even if this were a rulemaking to which the notice and comment and delayed effective date requirements applied, we find that there is good cause to waive such requirements. Undertaking further notice and comment procedures to incorporate the corrections in this document into the FY 2026 IRF final rule or delaying the effective date of the corrections would be contrary to the public interest because it is in the public interest to ensure that the rule accurately reflects our policies as of the date they take effect. Further, such procedures would be unnecessary because we are not making any substantive revisions to the final rule, but rather, we are simply correcting the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     document to reflect the policies that we previously proposed, received public comment on, and subsequently finalized in the final rule. For these reasons, we believe there is good cause to waive the requirements for notice and comment and delay in effective date.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Correction of Errors</HD>
                <P>In FR Doc. 2025-14780 of August 5, 2025, make the following corrections:</P>
                <P>1. On page 37678, Table 1 titled “Cost and Transfers”, second row, second column, the figure that reads “$340 million” is corrected to read “$335 million”.</P>
                <P>2. On page 37681, second column,</P>
                <P>a. Second bulleted paragraph, the section reference that reads “VI” is corrected to read “VII”.</P>
                <P>b. Third bulleted paragraph, the section reference that reads “VI” is corrected to read “VII”.</P>
                <P>3. On page 37698, under Table 7, third column, last paragraph, line 9, the figure that reads “$10,062” is corrected to read “$10,141”.</P>
                <P>4. On page 37699, third column, first full paragraph,</P>
                <P>a. Line 5, the figure that reads “2.4” is corrected to read “2.5”.</P>
                <P>b. Line 8, the figure that reads “$10,062” is corrected to read “$10,141”.</P>
                <P>c. Line 17, the figure that reads “$10,062” is corrected to read “$10,141”.</P>
                <P>5. On page 37718,</P>
                <P>a. Second column, first full paragraph, line 10, the figure that reads “$340 million” is corrected to read “$335 million”.</P>
                <P>b. Third column,</P>
                <P>(1) First partial paragraph, line 5, the figure that reads “1,169” is corrected to read “1,170”.</P>
                <P>(2) First full paragraph, line 18, the figure that reads “1,169” is corrected to read “1,170”.</P>
                <P>6. On page 37719,</P>
                <P>a. First column, first paragraph under the heading “1. Impact on IRFs”, line 4, the figure that reads “$340 million” is corrected to read “$335 million”.</P>
                <P>b. Second column,</P>
                <P>(1) First full paragraph, line 13, the figure that reads “$340 million” is corrected to read “$335 million”.</P>
                <P>(2) Second full paragraph, line 14, the figure that reads “$340 million” is corrected to read “$335 million”.</P>
                <P>c. Third column, under the heading “2. Description of Table 14”,</P>
                <P>(1) Line 2, the figure that reads “1,169” is corrected to read “1,170”.</P>
                <P>(2) Line 15, the figure that reads “1,024” is corrected to read “1,025”.</P>
                <P>(3) Line 17, the figure that reads “646” is corrected to read “647”.</P>
                <P>(4) Line 29, the figure that reads “465” is corrected to read “466”.</P>
                <P>7. On pages 37720 and 37721, Table 14 titled “IRF Impact for FY 2026 (Columns 4 through 7 in percentages)”, is corrected to read as follows:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2(,0,),nj,i1" CDEF="s50,9,9,8,14,8,9">
                    <TTITLE>Table 14—IRF Impact for FY 2026</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Columns 4 through 7 in percentages]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Facility classification</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number
                            <LI>of IRFs</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number
                            <LI>of cases</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Outlier</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            FY 2026 CBSA
                            <LI>&amp; FY 2026</LI>
                            <LI>wage index</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            CMG
                            <LI>weights</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>percent</LI>
                            <LI>
                                change 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25">(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(5)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(6)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(7)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,170</ENT>
                        <ENT>447,256</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Urban unit</ENT>
                        <ENT>647</ENT>
                        <ENT>144,310</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>−0.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rural unit</ENT>
                        <ENT>131</ENT>
                        <ENT>18,147</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>−0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Urban hospital</ENT>
                        <ENT>378</ENT>
                        <ENT>277,797</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rural hospital</ENT>
                        <ENT>14</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,002</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Urban For-Profit</ENT>
                        <ENT>482</ENT>
                        <ENT>276,263</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rural For-Profit</ENT>
                        <ENT>39</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,714</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Urban Non-Profit</ENT>
                        <ENT>466</ENT>
                        <ENT>127,753</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>−0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rural Non-Profit</ENT>
                        <ENT>87</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,573</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>−0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Urban Government</ENT>
                        <ENT>77</ENT>
                        <ENT>18,091</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>−0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rural Government</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,862</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>−0.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Urban</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,025</ENT>
                        <ENT>422,107</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rural</ENT>
                        <ENT>145</ENT>
                        <ENT>25,149</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">
                            <E T="03">Urban by region:</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Urban New England</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                        <ENT>15,484</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Urban Middle Atlantic</ENT>
                        <ENT>113</ENT>
                        <ENT>42,826</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Urban South Atlantic</ENT>
                        <ENT>190</ENT>
                        <ENT>100,441</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Urban East North Central</ENT>
                        <ENT>165</ENT>
                        <ENT>50,402</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Urban East South Central</ENT>
                        <ENT>56</ENT>
                        <ENT>29,048</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Urban West North Central</ENT>
                        <ENT>80</ENT>
                        <ENT>25,558</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Urban West South Central</ENT>
                        <ENT>210</ENT>
                        <ENT>95,608</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>−0.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Urban Mountain</ENT>
                        <ENT>81</ENT>
                        <ENT>35,924</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>−0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Urban Pacific</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>26,816</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>−1.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">
                            <E T="03">Rural by region:</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Rural New England</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,104</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Rural Middle Atlantic</ENT>
                        <ENT>11</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,408</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>−1.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Rural South Atlantic</ENT>
                        <ENT>17</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,383</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Rural East North Central</ENT>
                        <ENT>23</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,022</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Rural East South Central</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,284</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>−1.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="58511"/>
                        <ENT I="03">Rural West North Central</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,310</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Rural West South Central</ENT>
                        <ENT>44</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,042</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Rural Mountain</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>322</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Rural Pacific</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>274</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">
                            <E T="03">Teaching status:</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Non-teaching</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,064</ENT>
                        <ENT>398,566</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Resident to ADC less than 10%</ENT>
                        <ENT>59</ENT>
                        <ENT>33,458</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Resident to ADC 10%-19%</ENT>
                        <ENT>34</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,761</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>−0.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Resident to ADC greater than 19%</ENT>
                        <ENT>13</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,471</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">
                            <E T="03">Disproportionate share patient percentage (DSH PP):</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">DSH PP = 0%</ENT>
                        <ENT>52</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,309</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>−0.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">DSH PP &lt;5%</ENT>
                        <ENT>194</ENT>
                        <ENT>98,674</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">DSH PP 5%-10%</ENT>
                        <ENT>252</ENT>
                        <ENT>110,048</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>−0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">DSH PP 10%-20%</ENT>
                        <ENT>404</ENT>
                        <ENT>150,145</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">DSH PP greater than 20%</ENT>
                        <ENT>268</ENT>
                        <ENT>76,080</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>−0.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         This column includes the impact of the updates in columns (4), (5), and (6) above, and of the IRF market basket update for FY 2026 of 3.3 percent, reduced by 0.7 percentage point for the productivity adjustment as required by section 1886(j)(3)(C)(ii)(I) of the Act. Note, the products of these impacts may be different from the percentage changes shown here due to rounding effects.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>8. On page 37721, under the heading “3. Impact of the Update to the Outlier Threshold Amount”, first column, second paragraph,</P>
                <P>a. Line 6, the figure that reads “2.4” is corrected to read “2.5”.</P>
                <P>b. Line 10, the figure that reads “$10,062” is corrected to read “$10,141”.</P>
                <P>c. Line 19, the figure that reads “2.4” is corrected to read “2.5”.</P>
                <P>9. On page 37724,</P>
                <P>a. Table 19 titled “Accounting Statement—Classification of Estimated Expenditure”, third column, the figure that reads “$340 million” is corrected to read “$335 million”.</P>
                <P>b. Under the heading, “G. Conclusion”, first column, third paragraph, line 5, the figure that reads “7.6” is corrected to read “7.5”.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Liesl I. Fowler,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Secretary to the Department, Department of Health and Human Services.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23081 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
    </RULES>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>240</NO>
    <DATE>Wednesday, December 17, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <PRORULES>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58512"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2025-5387; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00399-R]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA proposes to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2023-01-04, which applies to all Airbus Helicopters Model AS350B, AS350BA, AS350B1, AS350B2, AS350B3, AS350D, AS355E, AS355F, AS355F1, AS355F2, AS355N, and AS355NP helicopters. AD 2023-01-04 requires, for helicopters with certain part-numbered tail rotor head (TRH) spider pitch change units installed, inspecting the spider pitch change nut (nut) for correct installation; marking a 2 to 5 mm wide black paint index mark and repetitively inspecting the alignment of the marking; and performing additional inspections and corrective actions if necessary. Since the FAA issued AD 2023-01-04, new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations were issued, which terminated the requirement for the repetitive inspections of the black paint index marking. This proposed AD would require the same actions of AD 2023-01-04, except for the repetitive black paint index marking inspection and would prohibit installing certain parts unless certain requirements are met. The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this NPRM by February 2, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2025-5387; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this NPRM, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For Airbus Helicopters material identified in this proposed AD, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 North Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; phone: (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax: (972) 641-3775; website: 
                        <E T="03">airbus.com/en/products-services/helicopters/hcare-services/airbusworld.</E>
                         It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2025-5387.
                    </P>
                    <P>• You may view this material at the FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Room 6N 321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Matthew Williams, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (316) 946-4134; email: 
                        <E T="03">matthew.t.williams@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Include “Docket No. FAA-2025-5387; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00399-R” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend the proposal because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov,</E>
                     including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this NPRM.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Matthew Williams, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590. Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA issued AD 2023-01-04, Amendment 39-22298 (88 FR 6618, February 1, 2023) (AD 2023-01-04), for Airbus Helicopters Model AS350B, AS350BA, AS350B1, AS350B2, AS350B3, AS350D, AS355E, AS355F, AS355F1, AS355F2, AS355N, and AS355NP helicopters. AD 2023-01-04 was prompted by an MCAI originated by the European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union. EASA issued AD 2021-0282, dated December 17, 2021 (EASA AD 2021-0282), to address loss of the TRH pitch change control.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58513"/>
                </P>
                <P>AD 2023-01-04 requires, for helicopters with certain part-numbered TRH pitch change units installed, inspecting for correct installation of the nut; marking a 2 to 5 mm wide black paint index mark to identify the position of certain parts; and after the initial marking, repetitively inspecting the alignment of the marking; and additional inspections and corrective actions if necessary. Additionally, AD 2023-01-04 prohibits installing an affected part on a helicopter unless certain requirements are met. The FAA issued AD 2023-01-04 to detect improper installation of the nut and improper alignment of a black index marking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Actions Since AD 2023-01-04 Was Issued</HD>
                <P>Since the FAA issued AD 2023-01-04, EASA superseded AD 2021-0282 and issued EASA AD 2021-0282R1, Revision 1, dated July 10, 2024 (EASA AD 2021-0282R1) (also referred to as the MCAI), to address an unsafe condition on all Airbus Helicopters Model AS 350 B, AS 350 BA, AS 350 BB, AS 350 B1, AS 350 B2, AS 350 B3, AS 350 D, AS 355 E, AS 355 F, AS 355 F1, AS 355 F2, AS 355 N, and AS 355 NP helicopters. The MCAI states the manufacturer revised the Airworthiness Limitations Section (ALS), as applicable, which now includes the repetitive black index marking checks (inspections).</P>
                <P>Additionally, for this NPRM, the FAA is updating the name of the TRH spider pitch change unit to TRH pitch change unit as defined in the required material. The FAA is issuing this proposed AD to detect improper installation of the nut and improper alignment of a black index marking. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in loss of the TRH pitch change control and consequent loss of control of the helicopter.</P>
                <P>
                    You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2025-5387.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Relationship Between This Proposed AD and Other Relevant Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>EASA AD 2021-0282R1 specifies that the manufacturer revised the ALS, for Airbus Helicopters Model AS350 and AS355 helicopters as applicable. The revised ALS for each model now incorporates the periodic black index marking inspections. The FAA is evaluating this issue and may take further rulemaking action to accommodate these ALS amendments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) No. AS350-05.01.03, and Airbus Helicopters ASB No. AS355-05.00.86, both Revision 0 and dated July 8, 2024, which include Figure 1 that identifies the position of the TRH pitch change unit and of the bearing spacer to be marked with a 2 to 5 mm wide black paint index mark. This material also specifies procedures for inspecting the condition and installation of the nut; and inspecting the application and alignment of the black index mark on the TRH pitch change unit and the bearing spacer.</P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>These products have been approved by the civil aviation authority of another country and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and material referenced above. The FAA is issuing this NPRM after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed AD Requirements in This NPRM</HD>
                <P>This proposed AD would require the same actions as AD 2023-01-04 except it would only require the initial black paint index marking inspection, not the repetitive inspections. Additionally, this proposed AD would prohibit installing an affected part on a helicopter unless certain requirements are met.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Differences Between This Proposed AD and the MCAI</HD>
                <P>The MCAI applies to Airbus Helicopters Model AS350BB, whereas this proposed AD does not because that model does not have an FAA type certificate.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD, if adopted as proposed, would affect 972 helicopters of U.S. registry.</P>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this proposed AD.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,10,10,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per 
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost on U.S. 
                            <LI>operators</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inspect the nut</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 work-hour × $85 per hour = $85</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$85</ENT>
                        <ENT>$82,620</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inspect alignment of marking</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 work-hour × $85 per hour = $85</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>82,620</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Place black paint marking</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 work-hour × $85 per hour = $85</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>82,620</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to do any repairs/replacements that would be required based on the results of the inspection. The agency has no way of determining the number of helicopters that might need these repairs or replacements.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,10,xs100">
                    <TTITLE>On-Condition Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inspect the TRH pitch change unit</ENT>
                        <ENT>13 work-hours × $85 per hour = $1,105</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,105.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Replace bushes</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 work-hours × $85 per hour = $85</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,918</ENT>
                        <ENT>$6,003 per helicopter.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Replace a rotating plate</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 work-hours × $85 per hour = $85</ENT>
                        <ENT>27,375</ENT>
                        <ENT>$27,460 per helicopter.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="58514"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>The FAA determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that the proposed regulation:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Would not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Would not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by:</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>a. Removing Airworthiness Directive 2023-01-04, Amendment 39-22298 (88 FR 6618, February 1, 2023); and</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>b. Adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="04">Airbus Helicopters:</E>
                         Docket No. FAA-2025-5387; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00399-R.
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Comments Due Date</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this airworthiness directive (AD) by February 2, 2026.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                    <P>This AD replaces AD 2023-01-04, Amendment 39-22298 (88 FR 6618, February 1, 2023).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                    <P>This AD applies to Airbus Helicopters Model AS350B, AS350BA, AS350B1, AS350B2, AS350B3, AS350D, AS355E, AS355F, AS355F1, AS355F2, AS355N, and AS355NP helicopters, certificated in any category.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="04">Note 1 to paragraph (c):</E>
                         Helicopters with AS350B3e designation are Model AS350B3 helicopters.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                    <P>Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 6420, Tail rotor head.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                    <P>This AD was prompted by an occurrence reported where, during an inspection of a tail rotor head (TRH) pitch change unit, excessive play and excessive wear were detected, due to an unwanted rotating motion and updated airworthiness limitations and maintenance tasks. The FAA is issuing this AD to detect improper installation of the pitch change spider nut (nut) and improper alignment of a black index marking. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in loss of the TRH pitch change control and consequent loss of control of the helicopter.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                    <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Required Actions</HD>
                    <P>(1) For helicopters with TRH pitch change unit, part number (P/N) 350A33-2030-00, 350A33-2167-00, or 350A33-2167-01 installed, within 50 hours time-in-service (TIS) after the effective date of this AD, inspect the nut for correct installation. If the nut is missing or loose, before further flight, remove the bearing from the TRH pitch change unit and do the following:</P>
                    <P>(i) Inspect the TRH pitch change unit for corrosion. If there is any corrosion, before further flight, remove the affected part from service and replace with an airworthy part.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="04">Note 2 to paragraph (g)(1)(i):</E>
                         Airbus Helicopters Mechanical Repair Manual (MRM) AS350 65-20-00-713, dated March 29, 2017, also known as Work Card 65-20-00-713 MRM, and Airbus Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM) AS350 65-21-00, 4-9b, dated May 16, 2019, also known as Task 65-21-00, 4-9 AMM, specify disassembly and reassembly information for the TRH pitch change unit.
                    </P>
                    <P>(ii) Inspect for rotation and wear on the faces of the bushes. For the purposes of this AD, indications of rotation and wear include tearing, peening, metal pick-up, and hammering. If there is any rotation or any wear on the faces of the bushes, before further flight, remove the bushes from service and replace with airworthy bushes.</P>
                    <P>(iii) Using 5X or higher power magnification, visually inspect the rotating plate and the rotating plate threads for damage. For the purposes of this AD, indications of damage include wear, deformation, stripping, galling, and corrosion. If there is any damage on the rotating plate or the rotating plate threads, before further flight, remove the rotating plate from service and replace with an airworthy rotating plate.</P>
                    <P>(iv) Identify the position of the TRH pitch change unit (item a) and of bearing spacer (item b) by marking a 2 to 5 mm wide black paint index mark (item C) with black paint as depicted in Figure 1, Section B-B, of Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) No. AS350-05.01.03, (ASB AS350-05.01.03 Rev 1), or Airbus Helicopters ASB No. AS355-05.00.86 (ASB AS355-05.00.86 Rev 1), both Revision 1, and dated July 8, 2024, as applicable to the model helicopter.</P>
                    <P>(2) Within 10 hours TIS after the initial marking required by paragraph (g)(1)(iv) of this AD, visually inspect the alignment of the marking. An example of a properly aligned marking is depicted in Figure 1, Section B-B of ASB AS350-05.01.03 Rev 1 and ASB AS355-05.00.86 Rev 1, as applicable to the model helicopter. If the black paint index mark (item C) is misaligned, before further flight, inspect the TRH pitch change unit by accomplishing the actions required by paragraphs (g)(1)(i) and (ii) of this AD.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Parts Installation Limitations</HD>
                    <P>As of the effective date of this AD, do not install a TRH pitch change unit P/N 350A33-2030-00, 350A33-2167-00, or 350A33-2167-01 on any helicopter, unless you do the actions required by paragraphs (g)(1)(i) and (ii) of this AD before further flight after installation, and thereafter do the actions required by paragraph (g)(1)(iii) of this AD at the times specified in paragraph (g)(1)(iii) of this AD</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Credit for Previous Actions</HD>
                    <P>This paragraph provides credit for the initial inspections and actions required by paragraph (g)(1) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Airbus Helicopters ASB No. AS350-05.01.03, or ASB No. AS355-05.00.86, both Revision 0, and dated December 16, 2021.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                    <P>
                        (1) The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58515"/>
                        to the manager of the International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k)(1) of this AD and email to: 
                        <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Additional Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        (1) For more information about this AD, contact Matthew Williams, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (316) 946-4134; email: 
                        <E T="03">matthew.t.williams@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) Material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the address specified in paragraph (l)(3) of this AD.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                    <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                    <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                    <P>(i) Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) No. AS350-05.01.03, Revision 1, dated July 8, 2024.</P>
                    <P>(ii) Airbus Helicopters ASB No. AS355-05.00.86 Revision 1, dated July 8, 2024.</P>
                    <P>
                        (3) For Airbus Helicopters material identified in this AD, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 North Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; phone: (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax: (972) 641-3775; website: 
                        <E T="03">airbus.com/en/products-services/helicopters/hcare-services/airbusworld</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Room 6N 321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.</P>
                    <P>
                        (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                        <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                         or email 
                        <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on December 12, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Steven W. Thompson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23100 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2025-5389; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00716-R]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA proposes to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2020-09-15, which applies to certain Airbus Helicopters Model AS332C, AS332C1, AS332L, and AS332L1 helicopters. AD 2020-09-15 requires removing the removable parts of the dual hoist installation or removing the de-icing system and allows, for certain helicopters, revising the rotorcraft flight manual (RFM) for the helicopter and installing a placard as an optional method of compliance. Since the FAA issued AD 2020-09-15, analysis revealed that additional vibration level measurements are necessary. This proposed AD would retain all the requirements of AD 2020-09-15 and would require for certain helicopters repetitively measuring vibration levels in-flight, and depending on the results, performing corrective actions. The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this NPRM by February 2, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2025-5389; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this NPRM, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For Airbus Helicopters material identified in this AD, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 North Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; phone: (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax: (972) 641-3775; or at 
                        <E T="03">airbus.com/en/products-services/helicopters/hcare-services/airbusworld.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this material at the FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2025-5389.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Matthew Williams, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (316) 946-4134; email: 
                        <E T="03">matthew.t.williams@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2025-5389; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00716-R” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend the proposal because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov,</E>
                     including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this NPRM.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58516"/>
                    private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Matthew Williams, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590. Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The FAA issued AD 2020-09-15, Amendment 39-19911 (85 FR 30589, May 20, 2020) (AD 2020-09-15), for Airbus Helicopters Model AS332C, AS332C1, AS332L, and AS332L1 helicopters equipped with a dual hoist installation and de-icing system, except those that have Airbus Helicopters modification 0722907 installed in production. AD 2020-09-15 was prompted by an MCAI originated by the European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union. EASA issued AD 2018-0142R1, dated December 9, 2019 (EASA AD 2018-0142R1) to address vibrations around the 12Hz frequency. EASA AD 2018-0142R1 states that during the first flight of an Airbus Helicopters Model AS332L helicopter after a retrofit that re-installed the deicing system, vibrations around the 12Hz frequency were observed. Subsequent flight tests and analysis determined that this vibration is due to the specific helicopter configuration. Factors that contributed to the vibration included simultaneous installation of riveted main frames X3855 and X5295 (pre-Airbus Helicopter modification 0722907), additional weight created by parts of the rotor de-icing system on the main rotor head (the distributor and de-icing harnesses), and removable parts (hoist arm and hoists) of the dual hoist installation.</P>
                <P>AD 2020-09-15 requires removing the removable parts of the dual hoist installation or removing the de-icing system, and allows, for certain helicopters, revising the RFM for the helicopter and installing a placard as an optional method of compliance. The FAA issued AD 2020-09-15 to address vibrations around the 12Hz frequency. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could generate divergent aeromechanic coupling between the helicopter structure and the rotor, possibly resulting in mechanical failure of structural parts and loss of control of the helicopter.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Actions Since AD 2020-09-15 Was Issued</HD>
                <P>Since the FAA issued AD 2020-09-15, EASA issued EASA AD 2024-0100, dated May 10, 2024 (EASA AD 2024-0100), which superseded EASA AD 2018-0142R1. EASA AD 2024-0100 stated that the same occurrence of the 12Hz vibratory condition was reported on a helicopter with Airbus Helicopters modification 0722907 embodied and that it was necessary for all helicopters with this modification to measure vibrations in-flight, interpret the results, and depending on the results, send the vibration levels to Airbus Helicopters or modify the helicopter configuration.</P>
                <P>After EASA issued EASA AD 2024-0100, EASA superseded EASA AD 2024-0100 and issued EASA AD 2024-0233, dated December 5, 2024 (EASA AD 2024-0233) (also referred to as the MCAI). The MCAI states that since EASA AD 2024-0100 was issued, it was determined that further vibration level measurements were necessary after performing certain maintenance tasks. The MCAI further states that EASA AD 2024-0233 is considered to be an interim action.</P>
                <P>This condition, if not addressed, could generate divergent aeromechanic coupling between the helicopter structure and the rotor, possibly resulting in mechanical failure of structural parts and loss of control of the helicopter.</P>
                <P>
                    You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2025-5389.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin AS332-04-00-0001 Issue 002, dated December 4, 2024 (ASB AS332-04-00-0001), which specifies procedures for installing the accelerometer in the cockpit of the helicopter, repetitively inspecting the vibration level at 12 Hz each time a specific maintenance task is completed, and interpreting the results. Depending on the results of this inspection, ASB AS332-04-00-0001 specifies procedures for corrective actions, which include changing the configuration by either removing the dual hoist system or removing the de-icing harness and contacting Airbus Helicopters for further instructions.</P>
                <P>This proposed AD would also require Airbus Helicopters Emergency Alert Service Bulletin (EASB) No. 01.00.91 Revision 1 (EASB 01.00.91 Rev 1) for Model AS332C, and AS332C1 helicopters, and EASB No. 01.00.96 Revision 0 (EASB 01.00.96) for Model AS332L and AS332L1 helicopters, both dated December 4, 2019. EASB 01.00.91 Rev 1 specifies procedures for removing parts of the dual hoist installation or removing the de-icing system. EASB 01.00.96 describes procedures for amending the RFM of Airbus Helicopters Model AS332L and AS332L1 helicopters to limit the flight envelope and the Vne and installing a placard. EASB 01.00.96 also describes procedures for removing parts of the dual hoist installation or removing the de-icing system. The Director of the Federal Register approved EASB 01.00.91 Rev 1 and EASB 01.00.96 for incorporation by reference as of May 20, 2020 (85 FR 30589, May 20, 2020).</P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>These products have been approved by the aviation authority of another country and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA is issuing this NPRM after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed AD Requirements in This NPRM</HD>
                <P>This proposed AD would retain all the requirements of AD 2020-09-15 and would require repetitively measuring the vibration level, interpreting the results, and depending on the results, removing certain parts and further inspections. This proposed AD would also allow an alternative to removing parts by placing a placard and revising the RFM for the helicopter.</P>
                <P>
                    Measuring the vibration levels in-flight and revising the existing RFM for the helicopter may be performed by the owner/operator (pilot) holding at least a private pilot certificate and must be entered into the aircraft records showing compliance with this action in accordance with 14 CFR 43.9(a) and 91.417(a)(2)(v). The pilot may perform these actions because they only involve recording data in-flight and revising the existing RFM by inserting pages, which are not considered maintenance actions. This proposed AD would also prohibit installing the de-icing system and the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58517"/>
                    dual hoist unless certain requirements are accomplished.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Interim Action</HD>
                <P>The FAA considers that this proposed AD would be an interim action. If final action is later identified, the FAA might consider further rulemaking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD, if adopted as proposed, would affect five helicopters of U.S. registry.</P>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this proposed AD.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,10,xs70,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost on U.S.
                            <LI>operators</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Remove the removable parts of the dual hoist</ENT>
                        <ENT>12 work-hours × $85 per hour = $1,020 per helicopter</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,020</ENT>
                        <ENT>$5,100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Remove the de-icing system</ENT>
                        <ENT>12 work-hours × $85 per hour = $1,020 per helicopter</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,020</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Measure vibrations to include interpreting results</ENT>
                        <ENT>7 work-hours × $85 per hour = $595</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$595 per cycle</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,975</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to do any repairs/replacements that would be required based on the results of the inspection. The agency has no way of determining the number of helicopters that might need these repairs or replacements:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r100,10,16">
                    <TTITLE>On-Condition Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Revise the RFM</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 work-hour × $85 per hour = $85</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$85</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Install a placard</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 work-hour × $85 per hour = $85</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>The FAA determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that the proposed regulation:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Would not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Would not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by:</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>a. Removing Airworthiness Directive 2020-09-15, Amendment 39-19911 (85 FR 30589, May 20, 2020); and</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>b. Adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="04">Airbus Helicopters:</E>
                         Docket No. FAA-2025-5389; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00716-R.
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Comments Due Date</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this airworthiness directive (AD) by February 2, 2026.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                    <P>This AD replaces AD 2020-09-15, Amendment 39-19911 (85 FR 30589, May 20, 2020).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                    <P>This AD applies to Airbus Helicopters Model AS332C, AS332C1, AS332L, and AS332L1 helicopters, certificated in any category, equipped with a dual hoist installation and de-icing system.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                    <P>Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 1810, Helicopter vibration analysis.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                    <P>This AD was prompted by a report of vibrations around the 12 Hz frequency due to the specific helicopter configuration and determination that additional vibration level measurements are necessary. The FAA is issuing this AD to prevent divergent aeromechanic coupling between the helicopter structure and rotor. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in mechanical failure of structural parts and consequent loss of control of the helicopter.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
                        <PRTPAGE P="58518"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Required Actions</HD>
                    <P>(1) For helicopters without Airbus Helicopters modification 0722907 installed, within 7 days after May 20, 2020 (the effective date of AD 2020-09-15): Remove the removable parts of the dual hoist installation or remove the de-icing system in accordance with the instructions of section 3.B of Airbus Helicopters Emergency Alert Service Bulletin (EASB) AS332 01.00.91, Revision 1, dated December 4, 2019 (EASB AS32 01.00.91 Rev 1), or Section 3.B.2 of Airbus Helicopters EASB AS332 01.00.96, Revision 0, dated December 4, 2019 (EASB AS332 01.00.96), as applicable to the helicopter, except you are not required to contact Airbus Helicopters.</P>
                    <P>(2) For helicopters with Airbus Helicopters modification 0722907 installed, within 110 hours time-in-service (TIS) or 30 days whichever occurs first after the effective date of this AD and thereafter, during the first flight after each time any of the maintenance tasks identified in the COMPLIANCE: MANDATORY section of Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) AS332-04-00-0001 Issue 002, dated December 4, 2024 (ASB AS332-04-00-0001) is accomplished, perform a vibration level measurement.</P>
                    <P>(i) With the accelerometer already installed, check the measurement of the vibration level in-flight, at 12 Hz by following figure 1 to paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this AD. The owner/operator (pilot) holding at least a private pilot certificate may perform this check and must enter compliance with these paragraphs into the helicopter maintenance records in accordance with 14 CFR 43.9(a) and 91.417(a)(2)(v). The record must be maintained as required by 14 CFR 91.417, 121.380, or 135.439.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Figure 1 to Paragraph (g)(2)(i)—Method of Measurement</HD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="169">
                        <GID>EP17DE25.076</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>(ii) Interpret the results in accordance with the instructions in Section 4.4 of ASB AS332-04-00-0001 except you are not required to send any information to Airbus Helicopters. If the vibration level between 11.7 Hz and 12.7 Hz is more than 0.08g (0.40 IPS), before further flight, revise the helicopter configuration by removing the dual hoist system or removing the blade de-icing harnesses in accordance with instructions of section 4.5 through 4.5.2.1 of ASB AS332-04-00-0001.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Optional Method of Compliance</HD>
                    <P>For helicopters without Airbus Helicopters modification 0722907 installed: Revising the rotorcraft flight manual for your helicopter by inserting the information specified in Appendix 4A, 4B, or 4C of EASB AS332 01-00.96, as applicable to your helicopter model and configuration, and installing a locally made placard on the instrument panel, in accordance with the instructions of section 3.B.1 of EASB AS332 01-00.96, is an acceptable method for compliance with the requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of this AD.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                    <P>
                        (1) The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j) of this AD and email to: 
                        <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Additional Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        For more information about this AD, contact Matthew Williams, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (316) 946-4134; email: 
                        <E T="03">matthew.t.williams@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                    <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                    <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                    <P>(3) The following material was approved for IBR on [DATE 35 DAYS AFTER PUBLICATION OF THE FINAL RULE].</P>
                    <P>(i) Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin AS332-04-00-0001 Issue 002, dated December 4, 2024.</P>
                    <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                    <P>(4) The following material was approved for IBR on May 20, 2020, (85 FR 30589, May 20, 2020).</P>
                    <P>(i) Airbus Helicopters Emergency Alert Service Bulletin No. 01.00.91 Revision 1, dated December 4, 2019.</P>
                    <P>(ii) Airbus Helicopters Emergency Alert Service Bulletin No. 01.00.96 Revision 0, dated December 4, 2019.</P>
                    <P>
                        (5) For Airbus material identified in this AD, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 North Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; phone: (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax: (972) 641-3775; or at 
                        <E T="03">airbus.com/en/products-services/helicopters/hcare-services/airbusworld.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(6) You may view this material at the FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.</P>
                    <P>
                        (7) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                        <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                         or email 
                        <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on December 12, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Steven W. Thompson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23103 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58519"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2025-5039; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00426-R]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA proposes to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Airbus Helicopters Model AS355E, AS 355-F, AS 355-F1, AS355F2, AS355N, and AS355NP helicopters. This proposed AD was prompted by a report of a structural crack in the vertical attachment spar of the tail fin. This proposed AD would require repetitive inspections of certain vertical upper fin spars and, depending on the results, corrective action. This proposed AD would also prohibit installing certain upper fin assemblies. The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this NPRM by February 2, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                        . Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2025-5039; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this NPRM, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; phone: +49 221 8999 000; email: 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                         website: 
                        <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find the EASA material on the EASA website at 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>• You may view this material at the FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Yves Petiote, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (202) 975-4867; email: 
                        <E T="03">yves.petiote@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments using a method listed under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2025-5039; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00426-R” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this proposal because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov,</E>
                     including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this NPRM.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Yves Petiote, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590. Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued a series of ADs, the most recent being EASA AD 2023-0154R1, dated July 19, 2024 (EASA AD 2023-0154R1) (also referred to as “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition on all Airbus Helicopters Model AS 355 E, AS 355 F, AS 355 F1, AS355 F2, AS355 N, and AS 355 NP helicopters. The MCAI advises of a report of a structural crack (not a complete failure) in the vertical attachment spar of the tail fin.</P>
                <P>The MCAI states that the unsafe condition, if not addressed, may lead to in-flight separation of the upper part of the vertical fin, which could result in loss of control of the helicopter. The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                <P>EASA has issued related EASA AD 2024-0139, dated July 12, 2024 (EASA AD 2024-0139), for these same model helicopters as well as certain Model AS350B3 helicopters, to address cracking in a different area of the upper fin spar as well as the fin's front attachment screws. The FAA issued AD 2025-24-04, Amendment 39-23199 (90 FR 56679, December 8, 2025) (AD 2025-24-04), to address EASA AD 2024-0139. This proposed AD includes actions that would be contingent on some of the required actions in AD 2025-24-04.</P>
                <P>
                    You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2025-5039.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>
                    FAA reviewed EASA AD 2023-0154R1, which specifies procedures for removing the tail gear box (TGB) fairing and the rear fairing from the tail boom, cleaning, and inspecting the right-hand external side around the two top screws of certain upper fin spars for a crack. EASA AD 2023-0154R1 also specifies procedures for conducting repetitive borescope inspections of that upper fin spar area for a crack or repeating the initial inspection as an alternative. Additionally, EASA AD 2023-0154R1 specifies accomplishing the inspections prior to and after maintenance flights that exceed the reduced V
                    <E T="52">NE</E>
                     (Velocity Never Exceed) required by EASA AD 2024-0139 and after each other flight that exceeds the reduced V
                    <E T="52">NE</E>
                     required 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58520"/>
                    by EASA AD 2024-0139. Depending on the results of an inspection, EASA AD 2023-0154R1 specifies procedures for marking the two top right-hand screw ends or replacing the upper fin. EASA AD 2023-0154R1 further specifies that installing an upper fin assembly part number (P/N) 355A14-0522-1751 constitutes terminating action for its repetitive inspection requirements and prohibits installing certain upper fin assemblies on any helicopter. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>These products have been approved by the aviation authority of another country and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA is proposing this AD after evaluating all known relevant information and determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed AD Requirements in This NPRM</HD>
                <P>This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in EASA AD 2023-0154R1, described previously, as incorporated by reference, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this proposed AD. See “Differences Between this AD and the MCAI” for a discussion of these differences.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Differences Between This Proposed AD and the MCAI</HD>
                <P>Where the MCAI defines an affected part as those listed in any revision of the manufacturer's service information, this proposed AD would define an affected part as those listed in specific versions of the manufacturer's service information and would include upper fin assemblies for which the P/N cannot be determined.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Required Compliance Information</HD>
                <P>
                    In the FAA's ongoing efforts to improve the efficiency of the AD process, the FAA developed a process to use some civil aviation authority (CAA) ADs as the primary source of information for compliance with requirements for corresponding FAA ADs. The FAA has been coordinating this process with manufacturers and CAAs. As a result, the FAA proposes to incorporate EASA AD 2023-0154R1 by reference in the FAA final rule. This proposed AD would, therefore, require compliance with EASA AD 2023-0154R1 in its entirety through that incorporation, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this proposed AD. Using common terms that are the same as the heading of a particular section in EASA AD 2023-0154R1 does not mean that operators need comply only with that section. For example, where the AD requirement refers to “all required actions and compliance times,” compliance with this AD requirement is not limited to the section titled “Required Action(s) and Compliance Time(s)” in EASA AD 2023-0154R1. Material referenced in EASA AD 2023-0154R1 for compliance will be available at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2025-5039 after the FAA final rule is published.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD, if adopted as proposed, would affect 177 helicopters of U.S. registry. Labor rates are estimated at $85 per hour. Based on these numbers, the FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this proposed AD.</P>
                <P>Initial cleaning and inspection of the vertical fin spar and, if necessary, application of a paint mark on the top two right-hand screw ends would take 2.5 work-hours for an estimated cost of $213 per helicopter and $37,701 for the U.S. fleet.</P>
                <P>Repetitive borescope inspection of the upper fin spar would take 0.5 work-hour for an estimated cost of $43 per helicopter and up to $7,611 for the U.S. fleet, per inspection cycle. Alternatively, repeating the initial inspection would take 2.5 work-hours for an estimated cost of $213 per helicopter and up to $37,701 for the U.S. fleet, per inspection cycle.</P>
                <P>If required, removing the upper fin from service and installing upper fin assembly P/N 355A14-0522-1751 to modify the upper fin would take 40 work-hours and parts would cost $25,360 for an estimated cost of $28,760 per helicopter.</P>
                <P>The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to the manufacturer, however, some of the costs of this proposed AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected operators.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>The FAA determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Would not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Would not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                    <P>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</P>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 39.13 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                        <P>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</P>
                        <EXTRACT>
                            <PRTPAGE P="58521"/>
                            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                <E T="04">Airbus Helicopters:</E>
                                 Docket No. FAA-2025-5039; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00426-R.
                            </FP>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Comments Due Date</HD>
                            <P>The FAA must receive comments on this airworthiness directive (AD) by February 2, 2026.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                            <P>This AD affects AD 2025-24-04, Amendment 39-23199 (90 FR 56679, December 8, 2025) (AD 2025-24-04).</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                            <P>This AD applies to Airbus Helicopters Model AS355E, AS 355-F, AS 355-F1, AS355F2, AS355N, and AS355NP helicopters, certificated in any category.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                            <P>Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 5531, Vertical Stabilizer, Spar/Rib Structure.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                            <P>This AD was prompted by a report of a structural crack in the vertical attachment spar of the tail fin. The FAA is issuing this AD to address cracking in the upper fin spar. This condition could lead to in-flight separation of the upper part of the vertical fin, which could result in loss of control of the helicopter.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                            <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Requirements</HD>
                            <P>Except as specified in paragraphs (h) and (i) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, European Union Aviation Safety Agency AD 2023-0154R1, dated July 19, 2024 (EASA AD 2023-0154R1).</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to EASA AD 2023-0154R1</HD>
                            <P>(1) Where EASA AD 2023-0154R1 defines an “affected part,” this AD requires replacing that text with “an upper fin assembly having a part number (P/N) identified in the Applicability, Accomplishment Procedure, of Airbus Helicopters Emergency Alert Service Bulletin EASB AS355-05-00-0001, Issue 001, dated July 25, 2023, or Issue 002, dated July 9, 2024, or an upper fin assembly having a P/N that cannot be determined.</P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="04">Note 1 to paragraph (h)(1):</E>
                                 MOD 0720098 involves installing a new upper fin that has a reinforced fin spar (P/N 355A14-0522-1751) that is not affected by this AD. Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin No. AS355-55.00.18, Revision 1, dated June 6, 2024, contains information regarding MOD 0720098.
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) Where EASA AD 2023-0154R1 refers to August 3, 2023 (the effective date of EASA AD 2023-0154, dated July 27, 2023), this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                            <P>(3) Where EASA AD 2023-0154R1 requires compliance in terms of flight hours, this AD requires using hours time-in-service.</P>
                            <P>
                                (4) Where paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2023-0154R1 specifies “following the Rotorcraft Flight Manual (RFM) amendment as required by paragraph (1) or (2) of EASA AD 2024-0139, as applicable, it is allowed to exceed the temporary reduced Vne during a maintenance flight”, this AD requires replacing that text with “following the Rotorcraft Flight Manual (RFM) amendment required by AD 2025-24-04, it is allowed to exceed the temporary reduced V
                                <E T="52">NE</E>
                                 during a flight to perform an operational check as specified in 14 CFR 91.407”.
                            </P>
                            <P>(5) Where paragraphs (3.1), (3.2), and (3.3) of EASA AD 2023-0154R1 specify “maintenance flight”, this AD requires replacing that text with “flight to perform an operational check as specified in 14 CFR 91.407”.</P>
                            <P>
                                (6) Where paragraph (4) of EASA AD 2023-0154R1 specifies “if, following the RFM amendment as required by paragraph (1) or (2) of EASA AD 2024-0139, as applicable, the temporary reduced Vne is exceeded on a helicopter”, this AD requires replacing that text with “if, following the RFM amendment required by AD 2025-24-04, the temporary reduced V
                                <E T="52">NE</E>
                                 is exceeded on a helicopter”.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (7) Where Note 1 of EASA AD 2023-0154R1 specifies “It is allowed to temporarily remove the RFM amendment and the placard, as required by paragraph (1) or (2) of EASA AD 2024-0139, as applicable, to allow maintenance flight(s) during which the temporarily reduced Vne may be exceeded”, this AD requires replacing that text with “It is allowed to temporarily remove the RFM amendment and the placard required by AD 2025-24-04 to allow flight(s) to perform an operational check as specified in 14 CFR 91.407, during which the temporarily reduced V
                                <E T="52">NE</E>
                                 may be exceeded”.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="04">Note 2 to paragraph (h)(7):</E>
                                 Refer to AD 2025-24-04 for requirements pertaining to exceeding V
                                <E T="52">NE</E>
                                 110 kts. Airbus Helicopters Emergency Alert Service Bulletin EASB AS355-05-00-0001, Issue 002, dated July 9, 2024, also contains information regarding exceeding Vne 110 kts.
                            </P>
                            <P>(8) Instead of complying with paragraph (6) of EASA AD 2023-0154R1, if there is a crack as a result of the inspections required by paragraphs (1) through (4) of EASA AD 2023-0154R1, this AD requires, before further flight, removing the upper fin from service and installing upper fin assembly P/N 355A14-0522-1751 in accordance with paragraph (7) and Note 2 of EASA AD 2023-0154R1.</P>
                            <P>(9) Where Note 2 of EASA AD 2023-0154R1 specifies “paragraph (12) of EASA AD 2024-0139”, this AD requires replacing that text with “AD 2025-24-04”.</P>
                            <P>(10) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2023-0154R1.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) No Reporting Requirement</HD>
                            <P>Although the material referenced in EASA AD 2023-0154R1 specifies to submit certain information to the manufacturer, this AD does not include that requirement.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Special Flight Permits</HD>
                            <P>Special flight permits are prohibited.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                            <P>
                                (1) The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (l)(1) of this AD and email to: 
                                <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Related Information</HD>
                            <P>
                                (1) For more information about this AD, contact Yves Petiote, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (202) 975-4867; email: 
                                <E T="03">yves.petiote@faa.gov</E>
                                .
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) Airbus Helicopters material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the address specified in paragraph (m)(3) of this AD.</P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">(m) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                            <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                            <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                            <P>(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2023-0154R1, dated July 19, 2024.</P>
                            <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                            <P>
                                (3) For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; phone: +49 221 8999 000; email: 
                                <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu</E>
                                ; website: 
                                <E T="03">easa.europa.eu</E>
                                . You may find the EASA material on the EASA website at 
                                <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu</E>
                                .
                            </P>
                            <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.</P>
                            <P>
                                (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                                <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                                 or email 
                                <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov</E>
                                .
                            </P>
                        </EXTRACT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SIG>
                        <DATED>Issued on December 12, 2025.</DATED>
                        <NAME>Steven W. Thompson,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </PART>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23101 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58522"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 73</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2025-2645; Airspace Docket No. 25-AEA-9]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Amendment of Restricted Area R-5201; Fort Drum, NY</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action proposes to amend restricted area R-5201, Fort Drum, NY. The purpose of this proposal is to modify the time of designation for restricted area R-5201 from “Continuous April 1 through September 30 and 0600 through 1800 hours local time, October 1 through March 31; other times by Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) 48 hours in advance” to be “continuous” to align with actual usage. This change does not add additional designated restricted area airspace.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before February 2, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by FAA Docket No. FAA-2025-2645 and Airspace Docket No. 25-AEA-9 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Brian Vidis, Rules and Regulations Group, Policy Directorate, Federal Aviation Administration, 600 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20597; telephone: (202) 267-8783.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of the airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it amends restricted area airspace at Fort Drum, NY, to enhance aviation safety and accommodate essential United States (U.S.) Army training activities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>The FAA invites interested persons to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should submit only one time if comments are filed electronically, or commenters should send only one copy of written comments if comments are filed in writing.</P>
                <P>The FAA will file in the docket all comments it receives, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, the FAA will consider all comments it receives on or before the closing date for comments. The FAA will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. The FAA may change this proposal in light of the comments it receives.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                     In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of Rulemaking Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Recently published rulemaking documents can also be accessed through the FAA's web page at 
                    <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/airspace_amendments/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section for address and phone number) between 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. An informal docket may also be examined during normal business hours at the office of the Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, Room 210, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The Department of the Army, Fort Drum, NY submitted a proposal, in concurrence with Boston Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC), to the FAA to modify the time of designation for restricted area R-5201, Fort Drum, NY. Restricted area R-5201 has a time of designation of “Continuous April 1 through September 30 and 0600 through 1800 hours local time, October 1 through March 31; other times by NOTAM 48 hours in advance.” Actual usage of restricted area R-5201 over the past two years shows near continuous activation year-round via issuance of a NOTAM. Restricted area R-5201 was utilized 356 days in fiscal year (FY) 2023, and 355 days in FY 2024. This action proposes to modify the time of designation of restricted area R-5201 to “continuous” which would alleviate any confusion due to constantly issuing NOTAMS to activate the restricted area airspace and align with actual usage.</P>
                <P>These changes do not represent any changes in lateral or vertical boundaries, operations, or new equipment being utilized in the airspace; nor does it reflect any increase in the number of operations that would be conducted.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposal</HD>
                <P>The FAA is proposing an amendment to 14 CFR part 73 by amending the time of designation for restricted area R-5201, Fort Drum, NY, to “continuous” to align with actual usage and support Army training requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    The FAA proposes to update the using agency for restricted area R-5201 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58523"/>
                    from “Commanding Officer, Fort Drum, NY” to “U.S. Army, Commanding Officer, Fort Drum, NY.” This change follows the FAA's current airspace description format guidance.
                </P>
                <P>Additionally, the FAA proposes to make a minor technical amendment by adding two geographic coordinates to the description of restricted area R-5201. Adding these coordinates to the description of restricted area R-5201 does not change the boundaries of the restricted area, but rather ensures coincident boundary alignment with the adjacent restricted areas R-5202A and R-5202B. The geographic coordinates “lat. 44°09′34″ N, long. 75°40′00″ W” and “lat. 44°06′00″ N , long. 75°28′49″ W” are added to the description of restricted area R-5201.</P>
                <P>The full description of the above restricted area is set forth below in the proposed amendments to part 73.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1G, “FAA National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 73</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Prohibited areas, Restricted areas.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 73 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 73—SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 73 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 73.52 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>New York (NY) [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. Section 73.52 is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <STARS/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">R-5201 Fort Drum, NY [Amended]</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Boundaries.</E>
                     Beginning at lat. 44°01′05″ N, long. 75°37′14″ W; to lat. 44°03′20″ N, long. 75°40′49″ W; to lat. 44°06′55″ N, long. 75°42′09″ W; to lat. 44°09′34″ N, long. 75°40′00″ W; to lat. 44°10′50″ N, long. 75°38′59″ W; to lat. 44°16′07″ N, long. 75°32′41″ W;  to lat. 44°11′24″ N, long. 75°22′59″ W; to lat. 44°07′10″ N, long. 75°26′49″ W; to lat. 44°06′00″ N, long. 75°28′49″ W; thence to the point of beginning.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Designated altitudes.</E>
                     Surface to 23,000 feet MSL.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Time of designation.</E>
                     Continuous.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Controlling agency.</E>
                     FAA, Boston ARTCC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Using agency.</E>
                     U.S. Army, Commanding Officer, Fort Drum, NY.
                </P>
                <STARS/>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on December 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Alex W. Nelson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Manager, Rules and Regulations Group.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23090 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2024-2531]</DEPDOC>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 141</CFR>
                <SUBJECT>Notification of Public Meetings and Request for Comment on the Modernization of Pilot Schools</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notification of public meetings for proposed rulemaking; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) announces public meetings to solicit input on the modernization of pilot school regulations.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA will hold a hybrid of virtual and in-person public meetings on Wednesday, January 7, 2026, and Thursday, January 8, 2026, from 9:00 a.m.-4:00 p.m. Central Time. The FAA must receive requests to attend the in-person meeting no later than Monday, December 22, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The in-person meetings will be held at the Southwest Regional Office, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177, and virtually on Zoom. See website for registration information link for both virtual and in-person meetings: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/about/office_org/headquarters_offices/avs/offices/afx/afs/afs800/afs810/modernization_of_part-141_initiative.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         Written comments are requested no later than Wednesday, December 31, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2024-2531 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT), 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, 20590 between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                         In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2008-01-17/pdf/E8-785.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590 between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Lyndsay Carlson with the Part 141 Modernization Initiative Team, Office of Safety Standards, General Aviation and Commercial Division, Training and Certification Group (AFS-810), Federal Aviation Administration; telephone (202) 267-1100; email 
                        <E T="03">9-AFS-Modernization-Part141-Comments@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <PRTPAGE P="58524"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 141 (Pilot Schools) prescribes the requirements for issuing pilot school air agency certificates, provisional pilot school air agency certificates, and associated ratings, and the general operating rules applicable to a holder of a certificate or rating issued under part 141. Through a part 141 pilot school, a student may obtain equivalent levels of aeronautical experience in fewer hours than required by 14 CFR part 61 (Certification: Pilots, Flight Instructors, and Ground Instructors). Part 141 schools are required to have FAA certification and supplementary oversight. Specifically, part 141 includes curricula standards for training and procedures to ensure a training course used by a school is adequate, appropriate, and administered by qualified personnel.</P>
                <P>The process of licensing or certification of pilot schools in the United States is approaching 100 years of existence. Although the FAA has revised certain regulatory requirements pertaining to pilot schools during this time, part 141 still has many foundational ties to Civil Air Regulations (CAR) part 50, which was implemented in the 1940s. Regulations for pilot schools are typically promulgated to improve safety, reduce aircraft accidents, and embrace changes such as advances in technology and the need for data collection and analysis. Modernizing part 141 is essential for addressing challenges pertaining to certification, certification management, examining authority, and evolving technology and learning methods. The objective of modernizing part 141 is to increase safety and create a foundation for a more structured and robust training environment to aid in the reduction of general aviation fatal accidents.</P>
                <P>Therefore, part 141 must be analyzed to determine how it can evolve with the changing aviation industry. Over the course of the project, the FAA is seeking engagement from the flight training industry through participation in public meetings. Collaboration is encouraged to stimulate the innovation of a modern part 141 that will serve the needs of current and future pilot schools, as well as provide a robust and safe training environment that instills the necessary knowledge, skills, critical thinking, and aeronautical decision making in its pilots to create a safer national airspace system.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Meetings</HD>
                <P>
                    Information concerning the public meetings, including topics and meeting times will be posted at the following website: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/about/office_org/headquarters_offices/avs/offices/afx/afs/afs800/afs810/modernization_of_part-141_initiative.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Each meeting will be open to the public for virtual or in-person attendance on a first-come, first-served basis, as there is limited space. Please confirm your attendance with the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section and provide the following information: full legal name and name of your industry association or applicable affiliation. If you wish to attend the meetings in-person, you must register before the scheduled deadline in the 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     section. We will not have on-site registration. The FAA will email registrants the meeting access information in a timely manner prior to the start of the meetings.
                </P>
                <P>
                    DOT is committed to providing equal access to these meetings for all participants. If you require an alternative version of files provided or alternative accommodations, such as sign language, interpretation, or other ancillary aids, please contact the Part 141 Modernization Initiative Team, at 
                    <E T="03">9-AFS-Modernization-Part141-Comments@faa.gov</E>
                     no later than Monday, December 22, 2025.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Encouraged</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA encourages the public to submit comments to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     Docket No.: FAA-2024-2531. Comments that the FAA would find helpful include validated data and reports, unique discussion topics or scenarios, and/or feedback specific to modernizing part 141. The public is encouraged to provide feedback regarding innovative ideas; methods; solutions; products; and/or services that have, or could have, a significant impact on pilot school training. We encourage you to submit comments during these public meetings or electronically to Docket No.: FAA-2024-2531. If you submit your comments electronically, it is not necessary to also submit a hard copy.
                </P>
                <P>The submission of public comments is encouraged but not required for meeting participation. The FAA will consider public feedback to determine the need for future considerations to the CFR. The FAA will review comments that are post-marked, or submitted electronically, on or before the comment closing date of Wednesday, December 31, 2025. Comments made after the closing date may be reviewed as time and resources permit.</P>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>14 CFR 11.53</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on December 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Everette C. Rochon, Jr.,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, Training and Certification Group, General Aviation and Commercial Division, Office of Safety Standards, Flight Standards Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23115 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2024-2531]</DEPDOC>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 141</CFR>
                <SUBJECT>Notification of Public Meeting and Request for Comment on the Modernization of Pilot Schools</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notification of public meeting for proposed rulemaking; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) announces a public meeting to solicit input on the modernization of pilot school regulations.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA will hold a hybrid of virtual and in-person public meeting on Thursday, February 5, 2026, from 9:00 a.m.-4:00 p.m. Central Time. The FAA must receive requests to attend the in-person meeting no later than January 22, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The in-person meeting will be held at the Southwest Regional Office, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177, and virtually on Zoom. See website for registration information link for the meeting: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/about/office_org/headquarters_offices/avs/offices/afx/afs/afs800/afs810/modernization_of_part-141_initiative.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         Written comments are requested no later than January 29, 2026. Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2024-2531 using any of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT), 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58525"/>
                        Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590 between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                         In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2008-01-17/pdf/E8-785.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590 between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Lyndsay Carlson with the Part 141 Modernization Initiative Team, Office of Safety Standards, General Aviation and Commercial Division, Training and Certification Group (AFS-810), Federal Aviation Administration; telephone (202) 267-1100; email 
                        <E T="03">9-AFS-Modernization-Part141-Comments@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 141 (Pilot Schools) prescribes the requirements for issuing pilot school air agency certificates, provisional pilot school air agency certificates, and associated ratings, and the general operating rules applicable to a holder of a certificate or rating issued under part 141. Through a part 141 pilot school, a student may obtain equivalent levels of aeronautical experience in fewer hours than required by 14 CFR part 61 (Certification: Pilots, Flight Instructors, and Ground Instructors). Part 141 schools are required to have FAA certification and supplementary oversight. Specifically, part 141 includes curricula standards for training and procedures to ensure a training course used by a school is adequate, appropriate, and administered by qualified personnel.</P>
                <P>The process of licensing or certification of pilot schools in the United States is approaching 100 years of existence. Although the FAA has revised certain regulatory requirements pertaining to pilot schools during this time, part 141 still has many foundational ties to Civil Air Regulations (CAR) part 50, which was implemented in the 1940s. Regulations for pilot schools are typically promulgated to improve safety, reduce aircraft accidents, and embrace changes such as advances in technology and the need for data collection and analysis. Modernizing part 141 is essential for addressing challenges pertaining to certification, certification management, examining authority, and evolving technology and learning methods. The objective of modernizing part 141 is to increase safety and create a foundation for a more structured and robust training environment to aid in the reduction of general aviation fatal accidents.</P>
                <P>Therefore, part 141 must be analyzed to determine how it can evolve with the changing aviation industry. Over the course of the project, the FAA is seeking engagement from the flight training industry through participation in public meetings. Collaboration is encouraged to stimulate the innovation of a modern part 141 that will serve the needs of current and future pilot schools, as well as provide a robust and safe training environment that instills the necessary knowledge, skills, critical thinking, and aeronautical decision making in its pilots to create a safer national airspace system.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Meeting</HD>
                <P>
                    Information concerning the upcoming public meeting, including topics and previous meetings will be posted at the following website: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/about/office_org/headquarters_offices/avs/offices/afx/afs/afs800/afs810/modernization_of_part-141_initiative.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The meeting is open to the public for virtual or in-person attendance on a first-come, first-served basis, as there is limited space. Please confirm your attendance with the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section and provide the following information: full legal name and name of your industry association or applicable affiliation. If you wish to attend the meeting in-person, you must register before the scheduled deadline in the 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     section. We will not have on-site registration. The FAA will email registrants the meeting access information in a timely manner prior to the start of the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    DOT is committed to providing equal access to the meeting for all participants. If you require an alternative version of files provided or alternative accommodations, such as sign language, interpretation, or other ancillary aids, please contact the Part 141 Modernization Initiative Team, at 
                    <E T="03">9-AFS-Modernization-Part141-Comments@faa.gov</E>
                     no later than January 22, 2026.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Encouraged</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA encourages the public to submit comments to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     Docket No.: FAA-2024-2531. Comments that the FAA would find helpful include validated data and reports, unique discussion topics or scenarios, and/or feedback specific to modernizing part 141. The public is encouraged to provide feedback regarding innovative ideas; methods; solutions; products; and/or services that have, or could have, a significant impact on pilot school training. We encourage you to submit comments during these public meetings or electronically to Docket No.: FAA-2024-2531. If you submit your comments electronically, it is not necessary to also submit a hard copy.
                </P>
                <P>The submission of public comments is encouraged but not required for meeting participation. The FAA will consider public feedback to determine the need for future considerations to the CFR. The FAA will review comments that are post-marked, or submitted electronically, on or before the comment closing date of January 29, 2026. Comments made after the closing date may be reviewed as time and resources permit.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     14 CFR 11.53.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on December 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Everette C. Rochon, Jr.,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, Training and Certification Group, General Aviation and Commercial Division, Office of Safety Standards, Flight Standards Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23113 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">COMMODITY FUTURES TRADING COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>17 CFR Chapter I</CFR>
                <SUBJECT>Proposal To Provide Exemptive Relief To Facilitate Cross-Margining of Customer Positions Cleared at Chicago Mercantile Exchange, Inc. and Fixed Income Clearing Corporation</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Commodity Futures Trading Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed order and request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“CFTC” or “Commission”) is proposing to issue an order pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act (“CEA”) that would 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58526"/>
                        provide exemptive relief from the CEA and Commission regulations related to segregation and protection of futures customer funds. The order would permit joint clearing members of the Chicago Mercantile Exchange, Inc. (“CME”) and the Fixed Income Clearing Corporation (“FICC”) that are dually registered as broker-dealers with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“SEC”) and futures commission merchants (“FCMs”) with the Commission (“BD-FCMs”) to hold futures customer funds in a commingled customer account at FICC.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received by January 16, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">CFTC Comments Portal: https://comments.cftc.gov.</E>
                         Select the “Submit Comments” link for this proposed order and follow the instructions on the Public Comment Form.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send to Christopher Kirkpatrick, Secretary of the Commission, Commodity Futures Trading Commission, Three Lafayette Centre, 1155 21st Street NW, Washington, DC 20581.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery/Courier:</E>
                         Follow the same instructions as for Mail, above.
                    </P>
                    <P>Please submit your comments using only one of these methods. Submissions through the CFTC Comments Portal are encouraged.</P>
                    <P>
                        All comments must be submitted in English, or if not, accompanied by an English translation. Comments will be posted as received to 
                        <E T="03">https://comments.cftc.gov.</E>
                         You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. If you wish the Commission to consider information that you believe is exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), a petition for confidential treatment of the exempt information may be submitted according to the procedures established in § 145.9 of the Commission's regulations.
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             17 CFR 145.9. Commission regulations referred to herein are found at 17 CFR chapter 1 (2025) and are accessible on the Commission's website at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cftc.gov/LawRegulation/CommodityExchangeAct/index.htm.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Commission reserves the right, but shall have no obligation, to review, pre-screen, filter, redact, refuse, or remove any or all of your submission from 
                        <E T="03">https://comments.cftc.gov</E>
                         that it may deem to be inappropriate for publication, such as obscene language. All submissions that have been redacted or removed that contain comments on the merits of the rulemaking will be retained in the public comment file and will be considered as required under the Administrative Procedure Act and other applicable laws, and may be accessible under the FOIA.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Eileen A. Donovan, Deputy Director, 202-418-5096, 
                        <E T="03">edonovan@cftc.gov,</E>
                         Robert B. Wasserman, Deputy Director, 202-418-5092, 
                        <E T="03">rwasserman@cftc.gov,</E>
                         Division of Clearing and Risk, Commodity Futures Trading Commission, Three Lafayette Centre, 1155 21st Street NW, Washington, DC 20581; or Elizabeth Arumilli, Special Counsel, 312-596-0632, 
                        <E T="03">earumilli@cftc.gov,</E>
                         Division of Clearing and Risk, Commodity Futures Trading Commission, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Suite 800, Chicago, IL 60604.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Introduction</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. The Petition</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Background</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Section 4(c) of the CEA</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Segregation of Customer Funds</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Commingling</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Protection for the Margin of Cross-Margining Participants in the Event of a BD-FCM Bankruptcy</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Protection for the Collateral Posted by Cross-Margining Customers in the Event of a FICC Bankruptcy or a Proceeding Under Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Protection for Customers Not Participating in Cross-Margining</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Customer Protection—Permitted Depository</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Proposed Partial and Conditional Exemption From Section 4d of the CEA and Commission Regulations 1.20 and 1.49</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Related Matters</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Regulatory Flexibility Act</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Paperwork Reduction Act</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Cost and Benefit Considerations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Section 15(a) Factors</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Request for Comment</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VIII. Proposed Order of Exemption</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. The Petition</HD>
                <P>
                    CME and FICC (“Petitioners”) have petitioned the Commission to grant an exemptive order pursuant to section 4(c) of the CEA. The exemptive order would provide relief necessary for Petitioners to make their existing cross-margining arrangement available to certain customers, as described below.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The petition is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cftc.gov/sites/default/files/filings/documents/2025/CME_FICC_XM_4c_Request_(Final_5.14.2025).pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Commission is proposing to issue an order granting Petitioners the relief sought, subject to certain conditions discussed below (the “Proposed Order”).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On January 16, 2024, the SEC promulgated a rule that, when effective, will mandate the central clearing of most U.S. Treasury cash and repurchase transactions (“Treasury Clearing Requirement”).
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Treasury Clearing Requirement is designed to reduce risk and increase operational efficiency by requiring clearing of specified U.S. Treasury security transactions through a central counterparty. Centralized clearing reduces the risk of default by imposing a central counterparty between buyers and sellers. A central counterparty can lower the potential for a single market participant's failure to destabilize other market participants or the financial system more broadly by substituting its own creditworthiness and liquidity for the creditworthiness and liquidity of the initial counterparties.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Standards for Covered Clearing Agencies for U.S. Treasury Securities and Application of the Broker-Dealer Customer Protection Rule With Respect to U.S. Treasury Securities, 89 FR 2714 (Jan. 16, 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Currently, only one central counterparty, FICC, provides centralized clearing services for cash market transactions in U.S. Treasury securities, and for repurchase and reverse purchase transactions involving U.S. Treasury securities. FICC is registered as a clearing agency with the SEC under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and is subject to regulation under section 17A of the Exchange Act, SEC Rule 17ad-22 (as a “covered clearing agency”),
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and other SEC rules. FICC is designated by the Financial Stability Oversight Council (“FSOC”) as a systemically important financial market utility (“SIFMU”).
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78a 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17ad-22.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         12 U.S.C. 5463.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Increasing clearing efficiency will decrease the cost to market participants of the Treasury Clearing Requirement. One way to increase clearing efficiency is through cross-margining arrangements that allow for cross-margining of U.S. Treasury security positions with positions in related products with correlated price risks held at another clearing organization. Cross-margining arrangements allow joint members or affiliated members of two clearing organizations to have their initial margin requirements reduced by accounting for risk offsets between positions held at each of the clearing organizations.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Efficiencies gained through the ability to net off-setting risks within cross-margining arrangements may be affected by existing rules and regulations for 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        other, related resource requirements. As one example, staff is aware that market participants have raised potential concerns related to cross product netting benefits under applicable capital rules.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="58527"/>
                <P>
                    Petitioners have an existing cross-margining arrangement.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     CME clears a variety of U.S. Treasury futures contracts and other interest rate futures contracts that have price risks that are correlated with U.S. Treasury security products cleared at FICC. CME is registered as a derivatives clearing organization (“DCO”) with the Commission and is subject to regulation under the Commodity Exchange Act (“CEA”) 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Commission regulations. As a DCO, CME clears transactions in futures contracts and options on futures contracts listed for trading on the CME Group exchanges (and transactions in other types of derivatives). CME is also designated by the FSOC as a SIFMU.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         The Amended and Restated Cross-Margining Agreement between FICC and CME dated January 22, 2024 (the “FICC-CME XM Agreement”) available at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.dtcc.com/~/media/Files/Downloads/legal/rules/ficc_cme_crossmargin_agreement.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         7 U.S.C. 1 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The current cross-margining arrangement between the Petitioners is offered to their joint clearing members and pairs of affiliated clearing members for proprietary (non-customer) positions. The cross-margining arrangement permits a participating joint clearing member or pair of affiliated clearing members to have initial margin requirements at FICC and CME reduced in response to risk offsets across positions in futures on U.S. Treasury securities and other interest rate futures cleared at CME and eligible Treasury market transactions cleared at FICC. The arrangement has been approved by the Commission and the SEC.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Under the cross-margining arrangement, eligible positions of a participating clearing member are identified and treated as a combined portfolio for margin calculation purposes. Both FICC and CME use their own margin models to calculate initial margin requirements for the combined portfolio, then use the more conservative result to determine the margin savings percentage to be applied to the portfolio. Each of FICC and CME then requires the participating clearing member to post initial margin in an amount calculated using its independent margin model reduced by that margin savings percentage.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See,</E>
                         most recently, CFTC, Request for Approval of Amended and Restated Cross-margining Agreement and Service Level Agreement between CME and FICC, (Sept. 1, 2023) available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cftc.gov/IndustryOversight/IndustryFilings/ClearingOrganizationRules/51167;</E>
                         SEC, Self-Regulatory Organizations, Fixed Income Clearing Corporation, Order Approving Proposed Rule Change to Amend and Restate the Cross-Margining Agreement Between FICC and CME, 90 FR 31043 (Jul. 11, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This current cross-margining arrangement is only available for the proprietary positions of clearing members, and not for the positions of customers who clear through an intermediary. Excluding customer positions may increase the costs of central clearing for customers clearing both Treasury securities transactions and certain Treasury and interest rate futures, by setting margin requirements that do not account for the risk offsets of their combined portfolio and are thus higher than those of clearing members who have access to cross-margining.</P>
                <P>
                    Industry experts have called for expanded access to cross-margining. The CFTC's Global Markets Advisory Committee (“GMAC”) recommended that the Commission allow CME and FICC to make the benefits of cross-margining available to a broad range of customers, including customers subject to the new Treasury Clearing Requirement. The GMAC's recommendation covered specific topics such as structure, customer protection, and implementation.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Group of Thirty Working Group on Treasury Market Liquidity also highlighted the need for expansion of cross-margining to the customer level. In their report related to Treasury market resilience, they suggested a review be conducted to “examine impediments to the use of the cross-margining service that FICC and [CME] have had in place since 2004” and further opined that “[w]ider use of cross-margining would reduce the risk that increases in initial margin requirements on the futures leg of cash-futures basis trades result in forced sales of Treasury securities . . . .” 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         CFTC Global Markets Advisory Committee Advances Key Recommendations, CFTC Release No. 8860-24 (Feb. 8, 2024). The “GMAC Recommendation” is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cftc.gov/media/9591/gmac_FICC_CME110623/download.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Group of Thirty Working Group on Treasury Market Liquidity, U.S. Treasury Markets: Steps Toward Increased Resilience (July 2021), available at: 
                        <E T="03">https://group30.org/publications/detail/4950.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Accordingly, CME and FICC seek to expand their existing cross-margining program to make it available to certain customers. Specifically, the cross-margining program would be available to customers of joint clearing members of FICC and CME that are BD-FCMs. The cross-margined positions and associated margin would be carried in a futures customer account on the books and records of an eligible BD-FCM and generally subject to the regulations and protections of the CEA and Commission regulations, including CEA section 4d and the Commission's regulations for segregation and protection of futures customer funds.</P>
                <P>
                    This cross-margining expansion to customers, however, would conflict with applicable legal requirements. Section 4d of the CEA requires that futures customer funds be segregated and prohibits the commingling of futures customer funds and futures customer positions with any other positions and funds. However, section 4d further provides that, “in accordance with such terms and conditions as the Commission may prescribe by rule, regulation, or order,” futures customer funds may be commingled with other customer funds.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The contemplated cross-margining arrangement would require that BD-FCMs hold securities positions and associated funds in their futures customer accounts.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         7 U.S.C. 6d.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In addition, section 4d requires that futures customer funds be held with a bank or trust company, and section 5b(c)(2)(F) of the CEA requires, in part, that a DCO hold member and participant funds in a manner by which to minimize the risk of loss or of delay in the access by the DCO to the assets and funds. Commission Regulations 1.20 and 1.49(d) implement these statutory requirements in part by limiting the depositories that may hold futures customer funds to a bank or trust company, an FCM, or a DCO. In the contemplated cross-margining arrangement, futures customer funds would be held by FICC, a clearing organization that is not a DCO, and is not a permitted depository for futures customer funds.</P>
                <P>Petitioners have consequently petitioned the Commission to grant an exemptive order pursuant to section 4(c) of the CEA to provide relief necessary for them to make their customer cross-margining arrangement available to certain customers. Specifically, Petitioners seek exemptive relief to:</P>
                <P>
                    • Permit BD-FCMs 
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to deposit at FICC, and permit FICC to hold, customer funds and margin associated with futures positions, notwithstanding that FICC is not a permitted depository under section 4d of the CEA and Commission Regulations 1.20 and 1.49(d), and to permit CME to treat FICC as a permissible location to hold customer funds and margin even though FICC is not a permitted depository 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58528"/>
                    under section 4d of the CEA and Commission Regulations 1.20 and 1.49(d); and
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         Section 4(c) of the CEA provides that the Commission may provide an exemption “on its own initiative or on application of any person,” so parties receiving exemptive relief are not limited to those who directly petition the Commission. 7 U.S.C. 6(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>• Permit BD-FCMs to hold in the futures account, as defined in Commission Regulation 1.3, of the BD-FCM, securities positions and associated funds together with the futures customer positions and funds held by the BD-FCM.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Section 4(c) of the CEA</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 4(c)(1) of the CEA empowers the Commission to “promote responsible economic or financial innovation and fair competition” by exempting any transaction or class of transactions (including any person or class of persons offering, entering into, rendering advice or rendering other services with respect to, the agreement, contract, or transaction), from any of the provisions of the CEA, subject to exceptions not relevant here.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In enacting section 4(c), Congress noted that its goal “is to give the Commission a means of providing certainty and stability to existing and emerging markets so that financial innovation and market development can proceed in an effective and competitive manner.” 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission may grant such an exemption by rule, regulation, or order, after notice and opportunity for hearing, and may do so on application of any person or on its own initiative.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         7 U.S.C. 6(c)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         House Conf. Report No. 102-978, 1992 U.S.C.C.A.N. 3179, 3213.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Section 4(c)(2) of the CEA provides that the Commission may grant exemptions to section 4(a) under section 4(c)(1) only when it determines that the requirements for which an exemption is being provided should not be applied to the agreements, contracts, or transactions at issue; that the exemption is consistent with the public interest and the purposes of the CEA; that the agreements, contracts, or transactions will be entered into solely between appropriate persons; and that the exemption will not have a material adverse effect on the ability of the Commission or any contract market or derivatives transaction execution facility to discharge its regulatory or self-regulatory responsibilities under the CEA.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         7 U.S.C. 6(c)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Commission preliminarily believes that issuing the Proposed Order which grants the exemption sought by Petitioners is in the public interest and would promote responsible economic and financial innovation and fair competition. While not concluding section 4(c)(2) applies to the proposed order, the Commission also preliminarily believes that the proposed order would meet the standards in section 4(c)(2) of the CEA. The discussion below describes why the Commission has reached this preliminary conclusion.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Segregation of Customer Funds</HD>
                <P>The protection of customers—and the safeguarding of money, securities, or other property deposited by customers—is a fundamental component of the regulatory and oversight framework of the futures and swaps markets. Section 4d(a)(2) of the CEA requires an FCM to segregate from its own assets all money, securities, and other property deposited by futures or cleared swaps customers to margin, secure, or guarantee their futures, options on futures, or cleared swaps positions. Section 4d(a)(2) further requires an FCM to treat customer funds as belonging to the customer and prohibits an FCM from using the funds deposited by a customer to margin or extend credit to any person other than the customer that deposited the funds. Similarly, section 4d(b) of the CEA prohibits a DCO and any depository that has received such funds from holding, disposing of, or using such funds as belonging to the depositing FCM or any person other than the customers of such FCM. Customer segregation is an essential protection to ensure funds are held exclusively as the property of customers, even during an FCM insolvency.</P>
                <P>CEA section 4d(a)(2) prohibits commingling futures customer positions executed on a contract market, and futures customer funds supporting such positions, with any property not required to be so segregated. Commingling of futures customer funds with other funds may take place only in accordance with such terms as the Commission may provide by rule, regulation, or order. Further, Commission Regulation 1.20 requires FCMs and DCOs to separately account for all futures customer funds and segregate such funds as belonging to futures customers, and it requires FCMs and DCOs to deposit futures customer funds in a manner that identifies them as futures customer funds.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Commingling</HD>
                <P>The customer cross-margining arrangement under the Proposed Order would allow a BD-FCM to commingle cross-margined securities positions and associated margin with cross-margined futures positions and associated margin. Permitting this commingling would allow for provision of risk offsets for customer positions in futures and securities cleared at CME and FICC through BD-FCMs.</P>
                <P>CME and FICC detail in their petition the structure of the arrangement they would implement under the Proposed Order and the way it is designed to protect customer funds. At a high level, a customer wishing to cross-margin its futures positions cleared at CME with its securities positions cleared at FICC would elect to have its FICC-cleared U.S. Treasury securities positions and associated funds held in a commingled futures account at the BD-FCM, to facilitate margining all of the positions as a portfolio. The BD-FCM would post funds to support cross-margined futures positions with CME and funds to support cross-margined securities positions with FICC. FICC would record cross-margined securities positions and associated funds (“XM Securities Customer Property”) in accounts on FICC's books and records, the margin being recorded on FICC's books and records in margin accounts in the name of the BD-FCM for the benefit of its cross-margining customers (“FICC XM Customer Margin Accounts”). FICC would hold the margin in either a Federal Reserve Bank of New York (“FRBNY”) account (the “FICC FRBNY Segregated Account”) or at a commercial bank that is insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (a “FICC Segregated Bank Account”).</P>
                <P>More specifically, the Proposed Order would permit, subject to relevant terms and conditions, the following structure:</P>
                <P>1. The BD-FCM would be required to carry all of a cross-margining customer's positions and associated margin, including XM Securities Customer Property held at FICC, in a futures account as defined in Commission Regulation 1.3, subject to CEA section 4d(a) and related Commission regulations as modified by the Proposed Order. This would apply to both required collateral and any excess collateral.</P>
                <P>
                    2. The cross-margining customer would be required to: (a) agree to have its XM Securities Customer Property carried in a futures account; and (b) enter into a subordination agreement pursuant to which it would agree that its claim for the return of XM Securities Customer Property will not receive customer treatment under the Exchange Act or the Securities Investor Protection Act of 1970 (“SIPA”) 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and that such property will not be treated as “customer property” as defined in section 741, subchapter III (stock broker liquidation) of chapter 7 of the U.S. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58529"/>
                    Bankruptcy Code in a liquidation of the BD-FCM.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78aaa-78lll.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>3. FICC would record a cross-margining customer's cross-margined securities positions in an account on its books and records for recording a BD-FCM's cross-margining customers' transactions (“FICC XM Customer Position Account”).</P>
                <P>
                    4. FICC would credit margin it collects from a BD-FCM for the BD-FCM's cross-margining customers to an account on its books and records in the name of the BD-FCM for the benefit of its customers (“FICC XM Customer Margin Account”). FICC would hold all funds credited to the FICC XM Customer Margin Accounts either in: (a) the FICC FRBNY Segregated Account; 
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or (b) a FICC Segregated Bank Account, each of which would be opened in the name of FICC and clearly labeled, and for accounts at a commercial bank, acknowledged as held for the benefit of cross-margining customers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         The CFTC has recognized important benefits to a clearing organization of using Federal Reserve bank accounts. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         81 FR 53467, 53468 (noting the lower credit and liquidity risks with a deposit at a Federal Reserve Bank than a deposit at a commercial bank). As a SIFMU, FICC is permitted to have an account at a Federal Reserve Bank, subject to requirements of the Federal Reserve, particularly 12 CFR 234.5. FICC has an existing FRBNY bank account currently used to maintain securities customer collateral that is not associated with cross-margining (“Treasury Securities Segregated Margin”).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FICC represents it is unable to obtain another separate Federal Reserve account to hold cross-margining customer collateral. In order to hold cross-margining customer collateral in an account at a Federal Reserve Bank, FICC will need to, if permitted to do so, co-locate securities customer collateral and cross-margining customer collateral in the same FRBNY bank account to deposit both types of collateral in a Federal Reserve Bank. As discussed further below in section III.C, because FICC is not a registered DCO, and thus a FICC bankruptcy would not be governed by subchapter IV of chapter 7 of the Bankruptcy Code, 11 U.S.C. 761 
                        <E T="03">et. seq.,</E>
                         the implications of such co-location of customer collateral are different than if FICC were a registered DCO.
                    </P>
                    <P>In connection with the customer cross-margining framework under the Proposed Order, FICC would (if permitted by the Federal Reserve to hold cash cross-margining customer collateral in the FRBNY Segregated Account) amend its rules to provide that the FICC FRBNY Segregated Account may hold cash cross-margining customer margin in addition to (SEC regulated) segregated customer margin (but no other assets) and the FRBNY account notice would be amended to specify that the cash in the FICC FRBNY Segregated Account is also held pursuant to the Proposed Order and the corresponding related SEC order. Otherwise, FICC will hold such cash cross-margining customer collateral in a Segregated Bank Account that would only hold cross-margining customer collateral and would be at a commercial bank.</P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    5. FICC's accounts referred to in A.4 above would be separate accounts from the accounts holding (a) FICC's own assets, (b) margin for the BD-FCM's proprietary positions, and (c) except as discussed in footnote 19 above, margin for positions of the BD-FCM's customers that do not participate in cross-margining. Although FICC itself is not a registered DCO and is not a permitted depository under Commission Regulation 1.49(d), as discussed in more detail below, FICC would hold cross-margining customer margin (“XM Customer Margin”) consistently with all requirements under Commission Regulations 1.20 and 1.49 as applicable to DCOs 
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     as well as with the requirements of Commission Regulations 39.15(b)(1) and (c) and 39.36(g).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         Funds held in the FICC FRBNY Segregated Account will be held subject to the exception for FICC Treasury Securities Segregated Margin discussed in footnote 14 above.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    6. FICC would amend its rules 
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     so that: (a) all assets credited to the FICC XM Customer Margin Accounts will be treated as “financial assets” 
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     credited to a “securities account;” (b) FICC will be a “securities intermediary” for that margin account and each BD-FCM, acting on behalf of its customers, will be an “entitlement holder” and have a “security entitlement” with respect to assets it deposits in such margin account; (c) the FICC XM Customer Margin Accounts and the account(s) holding Treasury Securities Segregated Margin discussed in footnote 19 above will be the only types of securities accounts, as that term is defined in section 8-501(a) of the NYUCC, that FICC maintains, and FICC will not establish any additional such securities accounts without obtaining the permission of both the CFTC and the SEC.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         Pursuant to section 19(b) of the Securities Exchange Act, 15 U.S.C. 78s(b), a self-regulatory organization such as FICC must submit any proposed change in its rules to the SEC for approval. The Proposed Order requires FICC to, consistent with section 19(b), amend its rulebook as necessary to implement the undertakings set forth in the petition. Thus, the relief set forth in the Proposed Order can only become effective if FICC proposes, and the SEC approves, such amendments to the FICC rulebook.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         All quoted terms in this paragraph refer to such terms as defined in Article 8 of the New York Uniform Commercial Code (“NYUCC”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>7. CME would continue to hold margin posted to CME as required by CEA section 4d and Commission Regulations 1.20, 1.49, 39.15(b)(1) and (c), and 39.36(g) in the same manner as it treats all other futures customer margin.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                    B. Protection for the Margin of Cross-Margining Participants in the Event of a BD-FCM Bankruptcy 
                    <E T="51">24</E>
                    <FTREF/>
                </HD>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         As a technical matter, an insolvency of a broker-dealer (including a BD-FCM) that has customers that are neither insiders nor a broker-dealer or bank that is not trading on behalf of customers that are themselves neither a broker-dealer or a bank, would proceed under the Securities Investors Protection Act, 15 U.S.C. 78aaa 
                        <E T="03">et. seq.</E>
                         (“SIPA”). 
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                         sections 5(a)(3), 9(a), 15 U.S.C. 78eee(a)(3), 78fff-3(a). However, a trustee under SIPA is subject to the same duties as a trustee under chapter 7 of the Bankruptcy Code, including (in the case of a BD-FCM), subchapter IV of chapter 7, the commodity broker liquidation provisions. SIPA section 7(b), 15 U.S.C. 78fff-1(b). Accordingly, such a proceeding is referred to herein as a “BD-FCM bankruptcy.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The cross-margining framework under the Proposed Order would seek to protect cross-margined customer funds in the event of the bankruptcy of a participating BD-FCM. Participating customers' funds would be protected by ensuring that claims for cross-margined positions and related collateral are treated as customer claims under subchapter IV of chapter 7 of the Bankruptcy Code and Part 190 of the Commission's regulations (“Part 190”) regarding bankruptcy. For the reasons discussed below, the Commission preliminarily concludes that the cross-margining customers would thus have the same priority right to receive distribution on their allowed claims against the customer property as other customers of the insolvent BD-FCM in the futures account class.</P>
                <P>Futures customers of each participating BD-FCM are protected as a group by ensuring, consistent with the Proposed Order, that commingled customer funds, including those held by FICC, are treated as “customer property” held by the BD-FCM in its capacity as an FCM, thus supporting the goal that all claims for customer property are paid in full.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. FICC-Held Customer Property as Futures Customer Property Under Part 190</HD>
                <P>
                    Three points support the treatment of FICC-held customer property as futures customer property under part 190. First, part 190 includes within the scope of customer property any property held by or for the account of the debtor, from or for the account of a customer, including property received, acquired, or held to margin, guarantee, secure, purchase or sell a commodity contract.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As discussed above, and required by the Proposed Order, FICC will credit margin it collects in connection with a cross-margining customer's positions to a FICC XM Customer Margin Account in the name of the BD-FCM for the benefit of its cross-margining customers, which are futures customers. Similarly, FICC would record a cross-margining customer's positions in a FICC XM Customer Position Account, which would be an account of the BD-FCM that is established for the purpose of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58530"/>
                    recording the transactions of cross-margining customers. The BD-FCM will also record on its books and records the XM Securities Customer Property as being held in the BD-FCM's futures customer account, and such property will be intended to serve as collateral for futures positions.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         Commission Regulation 190.09(a)(1)(i)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Moreover, pursuant to section 7 of the FICC-CME XM Agreement (“Agreement”), if the BD-FCM defaults, and its cross-margined customer positions at both CME and FICC are liquidated, under circumstances where CME is “worse-off” (as such term is defined in the Agreement) than FICC, some or all of the margin at FICC will be payable to CME. Thus, the collateral in a FICC XM Customer Margin Account in fact is held by or for the account of the BD-FCM, from or for the account of the BD-FCM's cross-margining customers as property received, acquired, or held to margin, guarantee, secure, purchase or sell the commodity contracts in the BD-FCM's cross-margining customer accounts at CME.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         Also, as required by the Proposed Order, a BD-FCM would be required to pledge its interest in the XM Securities Customer Property to CME to secure the obligations of the BD-FCM with respect to the customer's futures positions cleared by CME. The BD-FCM would likewise require each cross-margining customer to pledge XM Securities Customer Property to the BD-FCM to collateralize the cross-margining customer's obligations arising under its CME-cleared customer positions. Accordingly, this provides further basis for the XM Securities Customer Property to constitute customer property on account of being “property received, acquired, or held to margin, guarantee, secure, purchase or sell a commodity contract.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>For these reasons, the Commission preliminarily concludes that, because of this structure, the XM Securities Customer Property would be appropriately viewed as customer property pursuant to Commission Regulation 190.09(a)(1)(i)(A).</P>
                <P>
                    Second, pursuant to paragraph (2)(ii) of part 190's definition of “account class,” the securities positions and associated collateral held in a BD-FCM's futures account pursuant to this (presumptively Commission-approved) cross-margining program will be treated as being held in the futures account class.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Moreover, the XM Securities Customer Property would also constitute “customer property” under part 190 to the extent it consists of securities held in a portfolio margining account carried as a futures account.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         Commission Regulation 190.01.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         Commission Regulation 190.09(a)(1)(i)(G).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Third, XM Securities Customer Property held at FICC would also qualify as “customer property” under part 190 by virtue of being cash, securities, or other property that would be segregated for customers on the filing date.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As described above, FICC would credit margin posted for cross-margining customers' positions to a FICC XM Customer Margin Account on its books and records. This account would hold exclusively margin for cross-margining customers, and (as noted above) would also serve as collateral for associated futures positions at CME. XM Customer Margin would also be segregated in terms of its custody. Lastly, the BD-FCM would be required, consistent with Commission Regulation 1.20, to separately account for all cross-margining customers' margin and positions. As a result of this consistent segregation, the Commission preliminarily concludes that XM Securities Customer Property would be appropriately considered segregated for customers on the filing date and therefore “customer property” under part 190.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         Commission Regulation 190.09(a)(1)(ii)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Customer Claims for the FICC-Held Customer Positions and Margin at FICC as Allowable Claims Under Part 190</HD>
                <P>
                    Property is allocated in bankruptcy to the customers of a bankrupt FCM based on account and customer class and based on net equity claims.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For the reasons discussed below, the Commission preliminarily concludes that a cross-margining customer's claims for XM Securities Customer Property would be allowable claims under part 190 against customer property in the futures account class because they would be within the scope of the “net equity” definition of the Bankruptcy Code, and also because they would be incorporated into step 1 of the “net equity” calculation set out in Commission Regulation 190.08(b).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         Commission Regulation 190.09.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A customer's “net equity” is defined in the Bankruptcy Code to include the balance remaining in such customer's accounts immediately after the transfer, liquidation, or identification for delivery of the customer's positions and offset of the customer's obligations.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Under the cross-margining framework permitted by the Proposed Order, the BD-FCM would be required to credit XM Securities Customer Property to a futures customer account within the meaning of Commission Regulation 1.3. Accordingly, the Commission preliminarily concludes that independent of part 190 of the Commission's regulations, such amounts would give rise to cross-margining customer net equity claims under section 761(17) of the Bankruptcy Code, since such amounts would constitute part of the balance remaining in such customers' accounts.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         11 U.S.C. 761(17).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In addition, the definition of “net equity” in section 761(17) of the Bankruptcy Code states that it is subject to such rules and regulations as the Commission promulgates under the CEA. Moreover, section 20(a)(5) of the CEA 
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     provides that, notwithstanding the Bankruptcy Code, the Commission may provide, with respect to a commodity broker that is a debtor under chapter 7 of the Bankruptcy Code, by rule or regulation, how the net equity of a customer is to be determined.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         7 U.S.C. 24(a)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Commission Regulation 190.08 prescribes a five-step process for calculating a customer's net equity based on the customer property, including any commodity contracts, held by the debtor for or on behalf of such customer less any indebtedness of the customer to the debtor. The first step of that process, set out in Commission Regulation 190.08(b)(1), requires consideration of the sum of: the ledger balance; the open trade balance; and the realizable market value, determined as of the close of the market on the last preceding market day, of any securities or other property held by or for the debtor from or for such account, plus accrued interest, if any.</P>
                <P>
                    The “ledger balance” is calculated by (A) adding, among other things, (1) cash deposited to purchase, margin, guarantee, secure, or settle a commodity contract, (2) cash proceeds of liquidations of any securities or other property held by or for the debtor from or for the futures account plus accrued interest, and (3) gains realized on trades; and (B) subtracting, among other things, losses realized on trades.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The “open trade balance” is calculated by subtracting the unrealized loss in value of the open commodity contracts held by or for the customer's futures account from the unrealized gain in value of the open commodity contracts held by or for such account.
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         Commission Regulation 190.08(b)(1)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         Commission Regulation 190.08(b)(1)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For purposes of these calculations, securities positions and associated collateral held in a futures account pursuant to a Commission-approved cross-margining program are treated as customer property held in a futures account class.
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, under part 190, cross-margining customers' claims with respect to cash margin held at FICC would form part of the ledger balance because they are for cash deposited to margin and secure commodity 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58531"/>
                    contracts,
                    <SU>36</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     while the securities margin and in-the-money securities positions would be property held by the insolvent BD-FCM for the cross-margining customers' futures account. The cross-margining customers' securities positions could also be viewed as part of the open trade balance because they would be securities positions held in a futures account pursuant to a Commission-approved cross-margining program. To the extent open securities transactions were liquidated or otherwise resulted in realized gains, those amounts would form part of the ledger balance. Therefore, under both section 761 of the Bankruptcy Code and Part 190, cross-margining customers would have allowable net equity claims for XM Securities Customer Property and the Commission preliminarily concludes that they would receive adequate protection in bankruptcy.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         Commission Regulation 190.01 (paragraph (2)(ii) of the definition of “account class”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         Commission Regulation 190.08(b)(1)(ii)(A)(
                        <E T="03">1</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. FICC Would Make Customer Positions Portable</HD>
                <P>
                    Commission Regulation 190.07(a) provides, 
                    <E T="03">inter alia,</E>
                     that a DCO may not have rules that interfere with the acceptance by its clearing members of transfers of commodity contracts, and the property margining or securing such contracts, from an FCM that is a debtor, if such transfers have been approved by the Commission, subject to certain provisos. FICC intends to amend its current rules to expressly allow the porting of cleared positions and associated margin at FICC in the event a clearing member becomes insolvent.
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Pursuant to section (e)(viii) of the Proposed Order, FICC would be required to amend its rules to provide that, as required under Commission Regulation 190.07(a), FICC would not interfere with transfers of XM Securities Customer Property that are approved by the Commission pursuant to part 190 (subject to FICC's right to liquidate positions and manage risk).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Letter from Laura Klimpel, Managing Director, Head of Fixed Income and Financing Solutions, The Depository Trust &amp; Clearing Corporation (Aug. 1, 2024) at 25, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/comments/sr-ficc-2024-007/srficc2024007-500915-1465682.pdf.</E>
                         Changes to FICC's rules must be approved by the SEC. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 19(b) of the Securities Exchange Act, 15 U.S.C. 78s(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Protection for the Collateral Posted by Cross-Margining Customers in the Event of a FICC Bankruptcy or a Proceeding Under Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act</HD>
                <P>
                    FCM customer funds that are held at a registered DCO, such as CME, would be protected in the unlikely event of the bankruptcy of that DCO under subchapter IV of chapter 7 of the Bankruptcy Code, pertaining to commodity brokers.
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The term “commodity broker” includes both FCMs and DCOs.
                    <SU>39</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Subchapter IV, and the Commission's part 190 regulations implementing those statutory provisions, provide a reticulated and comprehensive set of protections for customer funds in the context of futures accounts, cleared swaps accounts, and foreign futures accounts, each of which falls under an account class. However, FICC is not a DCO, and so customer funds held at FICC would not be protected under subchapter IV in the event of FICC's bankruptcy. Nor are funds held at FICC protected under the Securities Investor Protection Act 
                    <SU>40</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or subchapter III of chapter 7 of the Bankruptcy Code,
                    <SU>41</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     both of which apply only to broker-dealers, and not to securities clearing agencies.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         11 U.S.C. 761 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         11 U.S.C. 101(6), 761(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78aaa 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>41</SU>
                         11 U.S.C. 741 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>For the reasons discussed below, the Commission preliminarily concludes that cross-margining customers' margin held at FICC would nonetheless be protected and not available to creditors in the unlikely event of a FICC bankruptcy, except for margining or settling eligible customer positions, and would not form part of FICC's estate.</P>
                <P>
                    This protection would be implemented using NYUCC 
                    <SU>42</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Article 8, as applied to FICC's rulebook as it would be amended. Specifically, the Proposed Order would require FICC to take steps that the Commission preliminarily concludes would ensure that participating BD-FCMs, on behalf of their customers, would be “entitlement holders” within the meaning of Article 8, with respect to all components of the cross-margining margin. Moreover, the only other entitlement holders would be BD-FCM members of FICC with respect to (non-cross-margined) segregated customer margin deposited by a BD-FCM (on behalf of securities customers). As explained further below, entitlement holders with respect to a particular type (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     issue) of financial asset have priority claims with respect to all interests in that financial asset held by FICC.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See generally</E>
                         NY CLS UCC, Art. 8. FICC is located in New York.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As an SEC-registered clearing agency, FICC is a “clearing corporation,” and thus falls within the definition of a “securities intermediary” in the NYUCC.
                    <SU>43</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>43</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         NYUCC 8-102(a)(5)(i) (definition of “clearing corporation”), 8-102(14)(i) (definition of “securities intermediary”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Under the NYUCC, a “securities account” means an account to which a financial asset is or may be credited in accordance with an agreement under which the person maintaining the account undertakes to treat the person for whom the account is maintained as entitled to exercise the rights that comprise the financial asset. Section (e)(v) of the Proposed Order requires that FICC shall, consistent with section 19(b) of the Securities Exchange Act,
                    <SU>44</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     amend FICC's rules to provide that any assets credited to a FICC XM Customer Margin Account will be used exclusively to settle and margin the customer positions and for no other purpose. Further, section (e)(iv) requires FICC to amend FICC's rules to provide that all assets credited to a FICC XM Customer Margin Account would be treated as “financial assets” 
                    <SU>45</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     credited to a “securities account.” 
                    <SU>46</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>45</SU>
                         FICC Rule 4, section 1a, currently provides in relevant part that “[a]ll assets credited to each Segregated Customer Margin Custody Account shall be treated as ‘financial assets’ within the meaning of Article 8 of the NYUCC.” The Commission preliminarily concludes that this would include both securities and cash—while securities are included within the term “financial assets” by statute, NYUCC 8-102(9)(a)(i), that term also includes any property that is held by a securities intermediary for another person in a securities account “if the securities intermediary has expressly agreed with the other person that the property is to be treated as a financial asset under this Article.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>46</SU>
                         The Commission preliminarily concludes that treatment of the FICC XM Customer Margin Account as a “securities account” under the NYUCC does not depend on, nor affect, the treatment of such account as a futures account for purposes of the proposed customer cross-margining framework. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         NYUCC 8-101, legislative intent (“Except as otherwise expressly provided in this act, the provisions of this act are not intended to change or to control the definitions of the terms `security' and `commodity' contained in any other laws[.]”); 8-501, cmt 1 (“A securities account is a consensual arrangement in which the intermediary undertakes to treat the customer as entitled to exercise the rights that comprise the financial asset” and “[t]he effect of concluding that an arrangement is a securities account is that the rules of [the NYUCC] apply.”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Under the NYUCC, with exceptions not relevant here, a person acquires a security entitlement if a securities intermediary either (1) indicates by book entry that a financial asset has been credited to the person's securities account, or (2) receives a financial asset from the person and accepts it for credit to the person's securities account.
                    <SU>47</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     A person who is either identified in the records of a securities intermediary as having a security entitlement against the securities intermediary, or acquires a securities entitlement by virtue of section 8-501(b)(2), is an entitlement holder. The Commission preliminarily 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58532"/>
                    concludes that, in each case, both prongs would apply and the BD-FCM, acting on behalf of its customers, would be the entitlement holder and would have a security entitlement with respect to the assets credited to the FICC XM Customer Margin Account.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>47</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         NYUCC 8-501(b)(1) and (2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Among the entitlement holder's rights is the right to have financial assets held by the securities intermediary returned and not be subject to the claims of general creditors. Per NYUCC section 8-503(a), to the extent necessary for a securities intermediary to satisfy all security entitlements 
                    <E T="03">with respect to a particular financial asset,</E>
                     all interests in that financial asset held by the securities intermediary are held by the securities intermediary for the entitlement holders, are not property of the securities intermediary, and are not subject to claims of creditors of the securities intermediary, except as otherwise provided in section 8-511. The relevant exception under NYUCC section 8-511(c) for “a creditor of the clearing corporation who has a security interest in that financial asset” would not be inconsistent with this approach, since FICC would be required by section (e)(vi) of the Proposed Order to amend its rules to provide that FICC shall not grant a security interest in either XM Customer Margin (except with respect to CME's security interest discussed below) or FICC Treasury securities customer margin. Thus, the Commission preliminarily concludes that, under the NYUCC, the assets credited to the FICC XM Customer Margin Account would not form part of FICC's estate but would instead be reserved for BD-FCMs for the benefit of their futures customers, subject to CME's security interest as discussed in more detail below.
                    <SU>48</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>48</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         NYUCC 8-102. The Bankruptcy Code points to otherwise applicable non-bankruptcy law (such as the NYUCC) to determine whether the debtor has an interest in an asset such that the asset forms part of the debtor's estate. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Butner</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">U.S.,</E>
                         440 U.S. 48, 54-55 (1979), Collier on Bankruptcy § 541.03. Under Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010, the FDIC as receiver of a covered financial company is bound to respect security entitlements in a number of relevant ways. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         12 U.S.C. 5390 (a)(1)(D) (FDIC resolution subject to legally enforceable securities entitlements), (b)(5) (“This section shall not affect secured claims or security entitlements in respect of assets or property held by the covered financial company, except to the extent that the security is insufficient to satisfy the claim, and then only with regard to the difference between the claim and the amount realized from the security”), (c)(12)(B) (security entitlements not avoidable).
                    </P>
                    <P>As a result, the Commission preliminarily concludes that NYUCC 8-503 would ensure that margin posted to FICC by BD-FCMs to secure cross-margining customer positions would not form part of FICC's estate in a bankruptcy, and the rights of the BD-FCM on behalf of its cross-margining customers with respect to such margin would not be disturbed in a resolution under Title II of Dodd-Frank. Petitioners note that Article 8 of the NYUCC is also the basis on which the Depository Trust Company, banks that hold securities for customers, and numerous other custodians depend to ensure that securities and other assets they hold for their clients will not form part of their respective estates.</P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Because FICC would not use XM Customer Margin or Treasury Securities Segregated Margin other than for purposes of securing or settling cross-margining customer cross-margined positions or the positions of customers that posted segregated customer margin, respectively, it is less likely there would ever be a shortfall in the particular financial assets (here, individual issues of Treasury securities or cash) needed to satisfy the security entitlements related to either type of margin.
                    <SU>49</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Moreover, FICC has represented that the FICC XM Customer Margin Accounts and the account(s) holding FICC Treasury Securities Segregated Margin will be the only types of securities accounts that FICC maintains and, as a result, the only entitlement holders that FICC would have would be Netting Members 
                    <SU>50</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     acting on behalf of customers who posted XM Customer Margin in relation to the FICC XM Customer Margin Accounts or Treasury Securities Segregated Margin in relation to the account(s) holding Treasury Securities Segregated Margin.
                    <SU>51</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section (i)(1) of the Proposed Order provides that FICC shall not establish any additional securities accounts without obtaining the consent of the Commission and the SEC. The Commission preliminarily concludes that, under NYUCC section 8-501, only a person with a securities account at a securities intermediary can have a security entitlement with respect to that intermediary.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>49</SU>
                         The rights of entitlement holders under Article 8 work differently than the rights of customers of an FCM or DCO under subchapter IV. In the latter case, the customers have a pro rata interest in customer property considered on an omnibus basis. By contrast, an entitlement holder's property interest under NYUCC 8-503 is an interest with respect to a specific issue of securities or financial assets. NYUCC 8-503 comment 1. The Commission is preliminarily of the view that, in light of the overall structure of the program, this distinction does not entail a materially increased degree of risk to futures customers.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>50</SU>
                         “Netting Member” is used herein as defined in FICC's Government Securities Division Rulebook. A Netting Member is a FICC member that is a member of FICC's Comparison System and Netting System.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>51</SU>
                         Petition at 14.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Because the rights of entitlement holders are tied to particular issues of securities (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     CUSIPs) or financial assets (here, pursuant to FICC rules, including cash) rather than particular accounts, it would appear that if there were a shortfall in respect of a particular security or cash in either the FICC XM Customer Margin Accounts or the account(s) holding Treasury Securities Segregated Margin, the rights of customers who posted XM Customer Margin or Treasury Securities Segregated Margin would apply to any of those particular securities (or cash) held by FICC.
                    <SU>52</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This would include those particular securities (or cash) which might otherwise be traceable to FICC members that are not entitlement holders. This further reduces the likelihood of any deficit.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>52</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         NYUCC 8-503(b) (“An entitlement holder's property interest with respect to a particular financial asset under subsection (a) is a pro rata property interest in all interests in that financial asset held by the securities intermediary, without regard to the time the entitlement holder acquired the security entitlement or the time the securities intermediary acquired the interest in that financial asset.”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>If, despite the foregoing, any such deficit were to arise with respect to a particular financial asset, NYUCC section 8-503(b) provides for all entitlement holders of a securities intermediary with respect to that particular financial asset to share such deficit on a pro rata basis.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Protection for Customers Not Participating in Cross-Margining</HD>
                <P>The Commission preliminarily believes that the cross-margining arrangement permitted by the Proposed Order does not present unacceptable risk to customers not participating in cross-margining. The Commission preliminarily believes that a variety of protections, described by Petitioners and detailed below, would mitigate the risk of a shortfall of available assets for distribution resulting from customers' participation in cross-margining.</P>
                <P>
                    The first protection is Petitioners' cross-margining margin calculation methodology. Under the cross-margining arrangement permitted by the Proposed Order, eligible positions of a participating customer would be identified and considered as a combined portfolio. Each of CME and FICC would use its own margin model to determine the amount of margin savings percentage resulting from combining the portfolio and then would jointly apply the more conservative result. Thus, under the framework, both CME and FICC would use, as part of calculating the margin requirement, the same methodology developed by CME under the supervision of the Commission for non-cross-margined positions, unless the margin methodology developed by FICC under the supervision of the SEC provides a more conservative result. The margin the BD-FCM would collect after cross-margining would at no time be less than what would be required by 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58533"/>
                    CME's margin methodology, because the margin requirement applied would be the more conservative of the requirement calculated by either FICC or CME's margin model. Thus, the risk that the BD-FCM would hold inadequate margin for cross-margining positions is no different in kind, and no greater, than the risk that the BD-FCM would hold inadequate margin for other types of positions.
                </P>
                <P>Second, the Commission preliminarily believes that futures customers of each participating BD-FCM would be protected from a loss during a BD-FCM bankruptcy because, as discussed above, all customer funds, including cross-margining customer funds held by FICC, would be treated as “customer property” for purposes of applying subchapter IV of chapter 7 of the Bankruptcy Code and part 190 of the Commission's regulations regarding bankruptcy. This ensures that during a BD-FCM bankruptcy, all commingled customer funds in the futures account would receive similar protections, and non-participating customers would not experience a shortfall of the commingled customer funds caused by different treatment of cross-margining futures customer funds in bankruptcy.</P>
                <P>Third, as described above, the risk that in the event of FICC's bankruptcy there would be any shortfall in the funds needed to satisfy the entitlements of cross-margining customers is low, given the protections provided under NYUCC Article 8 and the rule changes that FICC has undertaken to make, in particular, the fact that only the segregated accounts (for cross-margining customers and securities customers) would be entitlement holders. In addition, in order to allow the Commission to confirm that FICC would be at all times holding sufficient funds in its segregated accounts to satisfy all security entitlements, FICC would provide the Commission and the SEC each business day with reporting on the cash and, by CUSIP, securities (a) owed to BD-FCMs on behalf of their cross-margining customers or securities customers and (b) maintained in such accounts. This constitutes an additional protection that would minimize the risk FICC would pose to customers not participating in cross-margining.</P>
                <P>Fourth, CME would have a security interest in the FICC customer property, and CME and FICC cross-guaranty to pay the other amounts owing by a defaulted clearing member in accordance with an agreed calculation methodology. In the event that CME faces a deficit based on amounts owed to CME by a defaulted BD-FCM with respect to its cross-margining customers' positions cleared at CME, FICC would guarantee those obligations up to the value of the relevant customers' FICC customer property. Petitioners designed these features to allow CME to look to the FICC customer property to satisfy deficits owing to CME by the cross-margining customers, reducing the risk of a shortfall that could adversely impact non-participating customers.</P>
                <P>
                    Finally, the Commission preliminarily believes that the availability of customer-level cross-margining under the customer cross-margining framework should not adversely affect the portability of non-participating futures customers. The part 190 regulations permit a bankruptcy or SIPA trustee of a failed BD-FCM to transfer the margin and positions of a non-participant customer even if it cannot similarly transfer a cross-margining customer's positions and margin.
                    <SU>53</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>53</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Commission Regulation 190.07(d)(2) (“if all eligible commodity contract accounts held by a debtor cannot be transferred under this section, a partial transfer may nonetheless be made.”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission preliminarily accepts that, given the protections described above, CME and FICC should not be required to subordinate the claims of cross-margining customers relative to other futures customers pursuant to the special distribution framework in framework 1 of appendix B to the Commission's part 190 regulations.
                    <SU>54</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     That framework would effectively subordinate the claims of cross-margining customers relative to other customers.
                    <SU>55</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In light of the foregoing, the Commission preliminarily concludes that the risks posed to the BD-FCM futures customer account from the proposed cross-margining program are not materially greater in degree or kind than the risks posed by other futures positions and portfolio margining. Accordingly, under the Proposed Order, the special distribution framework would not be applied to the cross-margining framework thereunder, and BD-FCMs would be permitted to hold cross-margining customers' assets commingled with non-cross-margining futures customers' assets.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>54</SU>
                         This is consistent with the approach set forth in the GMAC Recommendation, III.2, at p. 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>55</SU>
                         Under that framework, if the percentage shortfall for cross-margining customers, considered alone, would be greater than that for non-cross-margining customers, considered alone, then the cross-margining customers would be treated separately from non-cross-margining customers, thus protecting the non-cross-margining customers. If, instead, the percentage shortfall for non-cross-margining customers is equal to or greater than the percentage shortfall for cross-margining customers, then the cross-margining customers and the non-cross-margining customers will be paid 
                        <E T="03">pro rata</E>
                         over the same pool, to the disadvantage of the cross-margining customers.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Customer Protection—Permitted Depository</HD>
                <P>The CEA and Commission regulations also protect futures customer funds by requiring that the funds be held only at a permitted depository. Pursuant to Commission Regulation 1.20(b), FCMs are only permitted to hold futures customer funds with a bank or trust company, a DCO, or another FCM. Similarly, under Commission Regulation 1.20(g), DCOs are only permitted to hold futures customer funds with a bank or trust company, which may include a Federal Reserve Bank with respect to deposits by DCOs that have been designated as SIFMUs by the FSOC. Moreover, pursuant to Commission Regulation 1.49(d), a depository in the United States holding customer funds required to be segregated pursuant to the CEA and Commission regulations must: (A) be a bank or trust company, a DCO, or an FCM; and (B) provide appropriate written acknowledgment as required under Commission Regulations 1.20 and 1.26. Because FICC is not a bank, trust company, DCO, or FCM, it is not a permitted depository under Commission Regulations 1.20 and 1.49.</P>
                <P>
                    As discussed above, the customer cross-margining framework under the Proposed Order would require BD-FCMs to post to FICC, and FICC to hold, XM Customer Margin. The Commission preliminarily agrees with Petitioners that it is consistent with the public interest to permit FICC to hold XM Customer Margin subject to the terms and conditions of the Proposed Order. As a designated SIFMU and an SEC covered clearing agency,
                    <SU>56</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     FICC is subject to requirements and safeguards, including in relation to capital requirements and risk management, pursuant to SEC regulations, that are broadly similar to those that apply under the CFTC's regulations to a systemically important DCO.
                    <SU>57</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Furthermore, the Commission preliminarily agrees with Petitioners that FICC would hold XM Customer Margin in a manner that is consistent with how DCOs are required to hold futures customer funds under CEA section 4d(b).
                    <SU>58</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Further, as required by section (e)(vii) of the Proposed Order, FICC would deposit cross-margining customer funds in accounts at the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58534"/>
                    FRBNY, or at a commercial bank, with names that clearly identify the accounts as holding futures customer funds. Moreover, the Commission preliminarily believes that the design and safeguards of the customer cross-margining framework under the Proposed Order is intended, as described above,
                    <SU>59</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     will leverage both part 190 and commercial law, and in particular the NYUCC, effectively to ensure that XM Customer Margin held at FICC is available either to CME to satisfy shortfalls in its futures customer account and/or returned to customers regardless of the solvency of FICC. Thus, the Commission preliminarily concludes that FICC as a depository offers similar safeguards and financial security as a DCO registered with the Commission, which is a permitted depository under Commission Regulations 1.20 and 1.49. Accordingly, the Commission is preliminarily persuaded that allowing BD-FCMs to deposit customer funds with FICC, and FICC to hold such funds in the manner described herein, is consistent with the objectives of the CEA and Commission regulations promulgated thereunder.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>56</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Section 3(a)(23)(A) of the Exchange Act, 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(23)(A); SEC Rule 17Ab2-1.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>57</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Compare, e.g.,</E>
                         17 CFR 39.33(a)(1) and 240.17ad-22(e)(4)(ii); 17 CFR 39.11(e), 39.33(c), and 240.17ad-22(e)(7)(i) and (ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>58</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section III.A., 
                        <E T="03">supra,</E>
                         Commingling.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>59</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section III.B, 
                        <E T="03">supra,</E>
                         BD-FCM Bankruptcy Protection for Cross-Margining Participants.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Proposed Partial and Conditional Exemption From Section 4d of the CEA and Commission Regulations 1.20 and 1.49</HD>
                <P>In light of the foregoing, the Commission proposes to exempt CME, FICC, and BD-FCM members of CME and FICC from section 4d of the CEA and Commission Regulations 1.20 and 1.49, subject to the conditions detailed above, to the extent necessary to permit the customer cross-margining framework described herein. The Commission proposes to allow the commingling of futures customer funds and futures customer positions with cross-margined securities assets held at BD-FCMs, for the purpose of customer cross-margining between positions held at CME and FICC. Further, the Commission proposes to permit CME and the BD-FCM members to deposit with FICC, and FICC to receive and hold, such futures customer funds even though FICC is not a permitted depository under Commission regulations.</P>
                <P>
                    The Commission has in the past permitted FCMs to commingle customer futures or swap positions with cleared positions in other products for the purposes of achieving risk offsets and portfolio margining, subject to specific terms and conditions designed to protect both participating and non-participating customers.
                    <SU>60</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As discussed above, the Commission preliminarily believes that CME and FICC would hold the commingled customer funds in a manner consistent with the customer protections intended by the CEA and Commission regulations. Customer assets would be segregated from other assets, and other customer protections in Commission regulations, such as the written acknowledgement from a depository regarding its obligations with regard to customer funds, would apply.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>60</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Order, Treatment of Funds Held in Connection with Clearing by ICE Clear Credit of Credit Default Swaps (Jan. 14, 2013); Order, Treatment of Funds Held in Connection with Clearing by ICE Clear Europe Limited of Contracts Traded on ICE Futures Europe, ICE Futures US, and ICE Endex (Mar. 26, 2015).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission preliminarily believes the Proposed Order contains the terms necessary to ensure adequate protection for futures customer funds. The Proposed Order provides for the safe treatment of cross-margining customer funds through terms requiring FICC and CME to carry cross-margining customer assets separately and treat them as belonging to the customers of the BD-FCM.
                    <SU>61</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Proposed Order also contains terms supporting the bankruptcy treatment for cross-margining customer funds described above, including a term requiring BD-FCMs to enter into agreements with participating customers acknowledging their assets' bankruptcy treatment; terms on FICC holding customer margin segregated in a “securities account” at appropriate depositories and agreeing to treat such margin as “financial assets,” as such terms are defined under NYUCC Article 8; and a term requiring FICC to permit the porting of customer property.
                    <SU>62</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Proposed Order further requires Petitioners to have the rules and agreements necessary to ensure customer cross-margining functions as described above, by having rules on customer and position eligibility and on the granting of security interests in cross-margining customer property.
                    <SU>63</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Proposed Order also contains terms to ensure adequate margin is collected under the customer cross-margining program and to ensure adequate regulatory oversight.
                    <SU>64</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>61</SU>
                         Proposed Order, sections (b), (d) and (e)(v).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>62</SU>
                         Proposed Order, sections (c), (e)(iv), (e)(vii) and (e)(viii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>63</SU>
                         Proposed Order, sections (e)(i)-(iii) and (e)(vi).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>64</SU>
                         Proposed Order, sections (f)-(k).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Commission preliminarily believes that the cross-margining framework under the Proposed Order would make it likely that customer funds will receive adequate protection during a BD-FCM bankruptcy. As described above, the customer funds held by FICC would constitute “customer property” held by the BD-FCM in its capacity as an FCM for the purposes of distribution in bankruptcy and would be available to customers. This is designed to ensure that cross-margining customers would have the same priority right to receive distribution on their allowed claims against the customer property as other customers of the insolvent BD-FCM in the futures account class. In addition, FICC and CME would provide for the porting of the commingled cross-margined positions in the event of a clearing member default.</P>
                <P>As described in section III.B above, the risks to cross-margining customers posed by a FICC bankruptcy would be addressed. FICC would, consistent with the Proposed Order, take steps to ensure any assets credited to a FICC XM Customer Margin Account would be available for distribution to customers in a FICC bankruptcy or a proceeding under Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act. For the reasons discussed in section III.C above, under applicable law, customer property would not be used to satisfy the claims of FICC's creditors, except for margining or settling customer positions, and would not form part of FICC's estate. Accordingly, the Commission preliminarily believes cross-margining customer funds would be adequately protected in a FICC bankruptcy or Title II proceeding.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in section III.D above, the Commission also preliminarily believes customers who do not participate in cross-margining are unlikely to be impacted by the cross-margining arrangement. As described above, the more conservative cross-margining margin methodology of either CME or FICC would be applied. Also, customer funds are likely to be effectively protected in the unlikely event of a FICC bankruptcy, making it unlikely non-participating customers would experience losses in that case. Further, portability for non-participating customers is not adversely affected by other customers participating in cross-margining. The Commission preliminarily does not believe the risks posed to the BD-FCM futures customer account from the cross-margining program under the Proposed Order are materially greater in degree or kind than the risks posed by other futures positions and portfolio margining. Thus, the Commission does not propose to impose via its order the special distribution framework in framework 1 of appendix B to the Commission's part 190 regulations.</P>
                <P>
                    The Commission also preliminarily believes, for the reasons discussed in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58535"/>
                    section IV above, that customers would not be harmed by allowing FICC to act as a depository for customer funds. As discussed above, FICC would offer similar safeguards and financial security as a DCO registered with the Commission, because it is a designated SIFMU and an SEC covered clearing agency. BD-FCMs depositing customer funds with FICC, and FICC holding such funds, is consistent with safety and security purposes of the Commission regulations requiring that only certain depositories hold customer funds.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission preliminarily believes the participants will be appropriate persons. The definition of “appropriate person” under section 4(c)(3) of the CEA includes specified categories of persons as well as “other persons that the Commission determines to be appropriate in light of their financial or other qualifications, or 
                    <E T="03">the applicability of appropriate regulatory protections</E>
                    ” (emphasis added).
                </P>
                <P>Each of FICC, CME, and the eligible BD-FCMs is an appropriate person under prong (F), (I), or (J) of the definition.</P>
                <P>The Commission determines cross-margining customers should be treated as appropriate persons for purposes of section 4(c)(3) of the CEA in light of the existing and appropriate regulatory protections for eligible customers under the CEA and Commission regulations as well as the safeguards under the proposed customer cross-margining framework. Specifically, the Commissioner preliminarily accepts Petitioners' assertion that each eligible customer would be a person that is permitted to transact through a BD-FCM. In other words, such customers are already persons that Congress and regulators have determined to be appropriate to engage in such transactions. Allowing eligible customers to opt into cross-margining under the proposed customer cross-margining framework would not unduly expose such customers to additional risk. Additionally, the customer cross-margining framework under the Proposed Order and the Proposed Order itself include the customer protection and risk management safeguards discussed above to ensure that the requested relief would not cause any material adverse effect on the Commission's or CME's ability to fulfill its regulatory or self-regulatory duties.</P>
                <P>Finally, the Commission preliminarily concludes that, in light of the risk mitigants and customer protections discussed above, customer cross-margining under the Proposed Order would support the stability of the broader financial system. Cross-margining would lower the cost of central clearing for Treasury securities transactions and certain Treasury and interest rate futures, by decreasing customers' initial margin requirements to reflect the risk of a combined portfolio. Lowering clearing costs would support the implementation, and lower the financial burden, of the Treasury Clearing Requirement, which itself supports financial stability by increasing central clearing. In light of the foregoing, the Commission preliminarily believes the Proposed Order would promote responsible economic and financial innovation and fair competition, and would be consistent with the public interest, as that term is used in section 4(c) of the CEA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Related Matters</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The Regulatory Flexibility Act (“RFA”) 
                    <SU>65</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requires that agencies consider whether the proposed exemption will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities and, if so, provide a regulatory flexibility analysis respecting the impact. The Commission believes that the proposed exemption will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>65</SU>
                         5 U.S.C. 601 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Proposed Order will directly impact three categories of entities: CME (a DCO), FICC (a clearing agency registered with the SEC) and BD-FCM members of both CME and FICC. The Commission has previously established certain definitions of “small entities” to be used by the Commission in evaluating the impact of its actions on small entities in accordance with the RFA.
                    <SU>66</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission has previously determined that DCOs, are not small entities for purposes of the RFA.
                    <SU>67</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Further, the Commission has previously determined that registered FCMs are not small entities for the purpose of the RFA,
                    <SU>68</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and BD-FCMs are, by definition, FCMs.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>66</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         47 FR 18618, 18618-18621 (Apr. 30, 1982).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>67</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         66 FR 45604, 45609 (Aug. 29, 2001).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>68</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         47 FR 18618, 18619 (Apr. 30, 1982).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With respect to FICC, the SEC has established threshold definitions in its regulations governing when clearing agencies registered with the SEC qualify as small entities. Specifically, the SEC's regulations provide that, when used with reference to a clearing agency, the terms “small business” or “small organization” shall include a clearing agency that: (i) compared, cleared, and settled less than $500 million in securities transactions during the preceding fiscal year; (ii) had less than $200 million of funds and securities in its custody or control at all times during the preceding fiscal year (or at any time that it has been in business, if shorter); and (iii) is not affiliated with any person (other than a natural person) that is not a small business or small organization.
                    <SU>69</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission notes that FICC processed $11.8 trillion on a single day, June 30, 2025,
                    <SU>70</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and, as of December 31, 2024, held in excess of $76 billion in post-haircut clearing fund contributions from its participants.
                    <SU>71</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>69</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.0-10(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>70</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.dtcc.com/news/2025/july/02/ficc-successfully-processes.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>71</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.dtcc.com/-/media/Files/Downloads/legal/policy-and-compliance/CPMI-IOSCO-Public-Quantitative-Disclosures---Q4-2024.pdf</E>
                         at 8.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Commission also believes the exemption will not have a substantial impact on a substantial number of small entity customers. Participation in cross-margining is voluntary. Further, the exemption proposed by the Commission will lower costs for customers with positions at both CME and FICC, reducing the cost of clearing to reflect that of the total portfolio. As discussed above, the Commission expects that under the proposed cross-margining framework, participating cross-margining customers' funds will still receive the level of protection mandated by the CEA and Commission regulations. Finally, as discussed above, non-participating customers will not be meaningfully impacted by the other customers participating in cross-margining.</P>
                <P>Accordingly, the Commission does not expect the proposed exemption to have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. Therefore, the Acting Chairman, on behalf of the Commission, hereby certifies, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 605(b), that the proposed exemption would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The Commission invites the public to comment on whether there is a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) 
                    <SU>72</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     are, among other things, to minimize the paperwork burden to the private sector, ensure that any collection of information by a government agency is put to the greatest possible uses, and minimize duplicative information 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58536"/>
                    collections across the government. The PRA applies to all information, “regardless of form or format,” whenever the government is “obtaining, causing to be obtained [or] soliciting” information, and requires “disclosure to third parties or the public, of facts or opinions,” when the information collection calls for “answers to identical questions posed to, or identical reporting or recordkeeping requirements imposed on, ten or more persons.” The PRA would not apply in this case given that the exemption would not impose any new recordkeeping or information collection requirements, or other collections of information, on ten or more persons that require approval of the Office of Management and Budget.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>72</SU>
                         44 U.S.C. 3501 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Cost and Benefit Considerations</HD>
                <P>The Commission recognizes that the proposed order may impose costs. The Commission has endeavored to assess the expected costs and benefits of the proposed order in quantitative terms, where possible. In situations where the Commission is unable to quantify the costs and benefits, the Commission identifies and considers the costs and benefits of the applicable proposed amendments in qualitative terms.</P>
                <P>The Commission generally requests comment on all aspects of its cost-benefit considerations, including the identification and assessment of any costs and benefits not discussed herein; data and any other information to assist or otherwise inform the Commission's ability to quantify or qualitatively describe the costs and benefits of the proposed order; and substantiating data, statistics, and any other information to support positions posited by commenters with respect to the Commission's discussion.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Baseline</HD>
                <P>
                    The Commission identifies and considers the benefits and costs of the proposed order relative to a baseline standard of those generated by the current statutory and regulatory framework applicable to futures contracts, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the status quo. This framework includes the provisions in section 4d of the CEA and current Commission Regulations 1.20 and 1.49(d). The specific elements of the baseline that would be impacted by the proposed amendments are discussed in more detail below.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Costs</HD>
                <P>The proposed exemption would conditionally exempt CME and FICC from limited aspects of sections 4d of the CEA and from the permitted depository requirements in Commission Regulations 1.20 and 1.49. While complying with the Commission's order would entail compliance costs for CME, FICC, and eligible BD-FCMs, the order would not mandate participation in cross-margining and the assumption of these costs. To the extent CME, eligible BD-FCMs, and futures customers elect to participate in cross-margining, they are electing to assume any associated costs. Moreover, the conditions to the order are consistent with the design of the cross-margining program proposed by the Petitioners and are necessary to achieve the risk mitigants and customer protections that are the basis of that program.</P>
                <P>The cross-margining program that would be permitted under the Proposed Order is an instance of a portfolio margining system. Portfolio margining is widely used throughout the futures industry, both within individual DCOs and in cross-margining programs between clearing organizations (such as the existing proprietary cross-margining program between the Petitioners).</P>
                <P>
                    Portfolio margining establishes margin levels by assessing the market risk of a “portfolio” of positions in securities or commodities. Under a portfolio margining system, the amount of required margin is determined by analyzing the risk of each component position in a customer account (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     a class of option with the same expiration date) and by recognizing any risk offsets in an overall portfolio of positions (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     across options and futures on the same underlying instrument). So that adequate margin is deposited to cover extraordinary market events, one or more additional adjustments may be applied in calculating a customer's required margin.
                    <SU>73</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>73</SU>
                         Customer Margin Rules Relating to Security Futures, 67 FR 53146, 53148 (Aug. 14, 2002).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The calculation of the risk offsets that are recognized in a portfolio margining system is based on a combination of statistical analysis of the correlation between the components of the portfolio and judgment, and is subject to rigorous risk management, including through back-testing.</P>
                <P>Nonetheless, inherent in any portfolio margining system is the possibility that, during a particular stressed market movement, the losses experienced on the combined position will exceed the margin requirement remaining after including those risk offsets, leading to a margin deficiency that is greater than would have been the case had the risk offset not been recognized.</P>
                <P>If such an event were to occur within the context of the cross-margining program that is the subject of the Proposed Order, and the margin deficiency within the futures or securities customer accounts of a participating BD-FCM were to exceed the capital and other resources available to that BD-FCM, leading to bankruptcy, then customers might suffer losses in the bankruptcy of that BD-FCM that would be larger than if that cross-margining program were not enabled. This possibility is a cost of granting the Proposed Order.</P>
                <P>However, the likelihood of such losses is low if the risks are well managed as required in the proposed customer cross-margining framework. Given the highly regulated and resilient natures of CME as a DCO and FICC as a securities clearing agency, the experience the two clearing organizations have in implementing portfolio margining and in particular cross-margining programs, the risk management requirements described in section III.D, and the protections included in the proposed customer cross-margining framework, the Commission estimates that the circumstances that may give rise to such costs would be very remote. The costs associated with these risks are difficult to quantify because they depend on unknown and unlikely future events to materialize, but the Commission acknowledges some residual risk remains that could impose costs on Petitioners, clearing members and customers.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Benefits</HD>
                <P>The proposed exemption would benefit market participants by reducing the costs of clearing Treasury securities transactions in a manner that aligns the margin required for a portfolio of risk-related positions, involving positions cleared at CME and positions cleared at FICC, with the risk of the portfolio considered as a whole. Individual market participants participating in cross-margining will benefit from the reduced margin costs for their overall portfolio. BD-FCMs will also benefit from more efficient clearing, as they, and in turn FICC and CME, will reduce their risk exposure to the cross-margining customer.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed exemption will also benefit the broader financial system. By making Treasury security clearing less costly, the proposed exemption is expected to incentivize clearing of Treasury security transactions. As discussed above, centralized clearing reduces the risk of default by imposing a central counterparty between buyers and sellers, and can lower the potential for a single market participant's failure to destabilize other market participants 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58537"/>
                    or the financial system more broadly. The Commission considers central clearing through a highly regulated clearing organization to be highly supportive of financial stability. Thus, the proposed customer cross-margining framework benefits the public interest because it will support the stability of the broader financial system.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Section 15(a) Factors</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 15(a) of the CEA requires the Commission to consider the costs and benefits of its action before issuing an order under the CEA.
                    <SU>74</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section 15(a) requires the Commission to consider the costs and benefits of its action in light of five broad areas of market and public concern: (1) protection of market participants and the public; (2) efficiency, competitiveness, and financial integrity of futures markets; (3) price discovery; (4) sound risk management practices; and (5) other public interest considerations. The Commission considers the costs and benefits resulting from its discretionary determinations with respect to the section 15(a) factors. The Commission may in its discretion give greater weight to any one of the five enumerated areas and could in its discretion determine that, notwithstanding its costs, a particular order is necessary or appropriate to protect the public interest or to effectuate any of the provisions or to accomplish any of the purposes of the CEA.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>74</SU>
                         7 U.S.C. 19(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Protection of Market Participants and the Public</HD>
                <P>The Commission believes the proposed exemption will benefit the public and market participants while not adversely affecting protections. The proposed exemption would serve the public by encouraging the clearing of Treasury securities transactions, thus increasing financial stability, which serves the public's interest generally. Market participants' individual financial interests are also served by making clearing less expensive and more efficient.</P>
                <P>The Commission does not believe that the exemption would adversely impact the security of market participants' assets. As discussed above, the conditions to the proposed order that would permit the proposed cross-margining framework implement safeguards to protect futures customer funds. The cross-margined funds will be segregated from any proprietary funds and will still receive the protections found in the CEA and Commission regulations. The futures customer funds will be subject to the CEA's protections in a potential bankruptcy of a participating BD-FCM (or CME) and will be protected under NYUCC Article 8 in a potential bankruptcy of FICC. In addition, the Commission believes the risks to non-participating customers, such as clearing in an account class in which other participants have margin set through portfolio margining incorporating Treasury securities, are similar to the risks posed by customers clearing in a class where others hold futures positions and have their positions portfolio margined. Finally, FICC, as a depository regulated as a covered clearing agency and a SIFMU by the SEC, is comparable as a matter of safety to other permitted depositories, so no material additional risk is added for market participants by the Commission permitting FICC as a depository.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Efficiency, Competitiveness, and Financial Integrity</HD>
                <P>The Commission believes that the proposed exemption will benefit the efficiency, competitiveness, and financial integrity of the derivatives markets. The proposed exemption will make clearing more efficient by permitting cross-margining of Treasury futures with Treasury securities. Cross-margining enables CME and FICC to lower margin requirements to reflect the risk of the total portfolio instead of the separate futures and securities positions, increasing the competitiveness of their offering.</P>
                <P>The proposed exemption also benefits financial integrity. The proposed exemption will support the implementation of the Treasury Clearing Requirement, a mandate implemented to increase the financial integrity of the Treasury securities market through expanded use of central clearing. A more stable Treasury securities market also benefits the financial integrity of the financial system (including the derivatives markets) more broadly.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Price Discovery</HD>
                <P>The Commission does not anticipate the proposed exemption to have an impact on price discovery.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Sound Risk Management Practices</HD>
                <P>The Commission believes that the proposed exemptive order, in light of the conditions included, reflects sound risk management practices. Encouraging central clearing supports sound risk management. As stated above, centralized clearing through a highly regulated clearing agency decreases the risk of default and risk of market destabilization. Additionally, cross-margining reflects sound risk management because margin costs will represent the risks for futures customers' overall portfolios.</P>
                <P>The Commission further notes that, notwithstanding the proposed exemption, cross-margining futures customers would receive protections comparable to what they would have received absent the exemption. Risks to customer funds will be managed and minimized according to the standards set forth in the CEA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Other Public Interest Considerations</HD>
                <P>The Commission believes the relevant public interest considerations are already discussed in the foregoing.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Request for Comment</HD>
                <P>The Commission requests comment on all aspects of the proposed exemption, including, without limitation, the Commission's determination that the proposed exemption is consistent with the public interest, and the Commission's consideration of the costs and benefits of the proposed exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Proposed Order of Exemption</HD>
                <P>After considering the above factors, the Commission proposes to issue the following:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Order</HD>
                <P>The Commission, pursuant to its authority under section 4(c) of the CEA, 7 U.S.C. 6(c), and subject to the conditions below, hereby grants (A) a limited exemption to Commission Regulations 1.20 and 1.49 to permit dually-registered BD-FCMs that are clearing members at both CME and FICC to deposit at FICC, and to permit FICC to hold, customer funds and margin associated with customer cross-margining, and to permit CME to treat FICC as a permissible location to hold the foregoing; and (B) a limited exemption to section 4d(a)(2) of the CEA and Commission regulations thereunder to permit eligible BD-FCMs to hold, in a futures account, eligible securities positions and associated money, securities, and property of eligible customers, together with the futures positions and futures customer funds held by the eligible BD-FCM.</P>
                <P>The relief granted above is subject to FICC, CME, and the relevant Eligible BD-FCMs complying with the requirements set forth below as applicable to each:</P>
                <P>
                    (a) 
                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                </P>
                <P>i. “Customer” has the meaning set forth in Commission Regulation 1.3.</P>
                <P>
                    ii. “Eligible BD-FCM” means an entity that is (1) a Netting Member (as 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58538"/>
                    such term is defined in FICC Rule 1 of the FICC Government Securities Division Rulebook); (2) a clearing member of CME; (3) registered with the Commission as a futures commission merchant; and (4) registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission as a broker-dealer.
                </P>
                <P>iii. “Eligible Customer Positions” means Eligible Futures Positions and Eligible Securities Positions.</P>
                <P>iv. “Eligible Futures Positions” means Customer positions in the CME products listed as “CME Eligible Products” in Exhibit A to the Amended and Restated Cross-Margining Agreement between FICC and CME dated January 22, 2024, as that exhibit may be amended from time to time.</P>
                <P>v. “Eligible Securities Positions” means Customer positions in U.S. Treasury Notes and Bonds held in a cross-margining account at FICC.</P>
                <P>vi. “FRBNY” means the Federal Reserve Bank of New York.</P>
                <P>vii. “NYUCC” means the New York Uniform Commercial Code.</P>
                <P>viii. “Segregated Customer Margin” means margin deposited by a BD-FCM pursuant to Item 15 of 17 CFR 240.15c3-3a.</P>
                <P>ix. “XM Securities Customer Property” means Eligible Securities Positions and associated margin held in a cross-margining account at FICC.</P>
                <P>x. “XM Customer Margin” means customer property deposited to margin, secure, or guarantee Eligible Customer Positions.</P>
                <P>
                    (b) 
                    <E T="03">BD-FCM Treatment of Customer Positions and Margin.</E>
                     All assets received by an BD-FCM to margin, guarantee, or secure Eligible Customer Positions, or accruing as a result of such trades or contracts, and held subject to the terms of the Order shall be carried by the BD-FCM in a futures account for or on behalf of the cross-margining customers and shall be deemed to have been received by the Eligible BD-FCM and be accounted for and treated and dealt with as belonging to the cross-margining customers of the eligible BD-FCM consistent with section 4d(a)(2) of the Commodity Exchange Act and the Commission's regulations thereunder.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) 
                    <E T="03">BD-FCM Cross-Margining Customer Agreements.</E>
                     Each Eligible BD-FCM shall enter into a participation agreement with each cross-margining customer prior to the cross-margining customer's participation in cross-margining under the customer cross-margining framework, pursuant to which the cross-margining customer shall specifically agree and acknowledge that:
                </P>
                <P>i. Its XM Securities Customer Property will not receive customer treatment under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 or SIPA or be treated as “customer property” as defined in 11 U.S.C. 741 in a liquidation of the Eligible BD-FCM;</P>
                <P>
                    ii. Its Eligible Securities Positions and associated margin held in a cross-margining account at FICC (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     XM Securities Customer Property) will be subject to any applicable protections under subchapter IV of chapter 7 of Title 11 of the United States Code and rules and regulations thereunder; and
                </P>
                <P>iii. Claims to “customer property” as defined in SIPA or 11 U.S.C. 741 against the Eligible BD-FCM with respect to its Eligible Securities Positions and associated FICC-held margin will be subordinated to the claims of all other customers, as the term “customer” is defined in 11 U.S.C. 741 or SIPA.</P>
                <P>
                    (d) 
                    <E T="03">FICC Operations.</E>
                     FICC shall operate the cross-margining program in accordance with the following:
                </P>
                <P>i. FICC will record all of a BD-FCM's customers' Eligible Securities Positions in an account on its books and records for recording the BD-FCM's cross-margining customers' transactions.</P>
                <P>ii. FICC will credit margin it collects to collateralize a BD-FCM's customers' Eligible Securities Positions to an account as specified in section (e) below.</P>
                <P>
                    (e) 
                    <E T="03">FICC and DCO Rules.</E>
                     FICC shall, consistent with section 19(b) of the Securities Exchange Act, 15 U.S.C. 78s(b), and CME shall, consistent with section 5c(c) of the Commodity Exchange Act, 7 U.S.C. 7a-2(c) and part 40 of the Commission's Regulations, 17 CFR part 40, amend their rulebooks (and shall comply with the relevant portions of such rulebooks), and the two organizations shall amend their proprietary cross-margining agreement, as may be necessary to effect the customer cross-margining framework as described in CME and FICC's petition and the terms of this Order. This specifically includes addressing the following:
                </P>
                <P>i. Cross-margining is available to Eligible Customer Positions only if both the eligible customer and its Eligible BD-FCM agree to participate;</P>
                <P>ii. Positions of an eligible customer shall be eligible for cross-margining if and only if such positions are otherwise eligible positions under the existing proprietary cross-margining arrangement;</P>
                <P>iii. Each BD-FCM shall grant to CME a security interest in the value of each cross-margining customer's Eligible Securities Positions and associated margin held in a cross-margining account at FICC;</P>
                <P>iv. FICC shall credit margin received in connection with Eligible Securities Positions to a “securities account” and agree in its rules to treat such margin as “financial assets,” as such terms are defined under NYUCC Article 8;</P>
                <P>v. FICC rules will provide that any collateral received from a BD-FCM as XM Securities Customer Property and credited to a FICC cross-margining customer margin account will be used exclusively to settle and margin the Eligible Securities Positions of the BD-FCM and for no other purpose;</P>
                <P>vi. FICC rules will provide that FICC shall not grant a security interest in either XM Securities Customer Property (subject in this case to the proviso that the BD-FCM can grant CME and FICC a lien to implement the cross-margining program) or FICC Treasury securities customer margin;</P>
                <P>vii. FICC rules will provide that it shall hold all XM Customer Margin in an account of FICC at either a bank that is insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or at the FRBNY. Such account shall be:</P>
                <P>1. Segregated from any other account of FICC and shall be used exclusively to hold XM Customer Margin, except that the account at the FRBNY may also hold Segregated Customer Margin.</P>
                <P>2. In the case of a bank other than the FRBNY, subject to a written notice by the bank, provided to and retained by FICC, that the Segregated Customer Margin in the account is being held by the bank pursuant to the order of the Commission under section 4(c) of the Commodity Exchange Act and is being kept separate from and not commingled with any other accounts maintained by FICC or any other person at the bank.</P>
                <P>3. In the case of FRBNY, subject to a written notice provided to and retained by FICC that the Segregated Customer Margin in the account is being held by the bank pursuant to SEC Rule 15c3-3 and the order of the Commission under section 4(c) of the Commodity Exchange Act and is being kept separate from and not commingled with any other accounts maintained by FICC or any other person at the bank.</P>
                <P>4. Each such account shall also be subject to a written contract between FICC and the bank or FRBNY which provides that the Segregated Customer Margin in the account is subject to no right, charge, security interest, lien, or claim of any kind in favor of the bank or FRBNY or any person claiming through the bank or FRBNY.</P>
                <P>
                    viii. FICC rules will provide that, consistent with the requirement applied to registered derivatives clearing organizations under Commission Regulation 190.07(a), FICC would not interfere with the acceptance by a BD-FCM of transfers of XM Securities 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58539"/>
                    Customer Property from a BD-FCM that is either required to transfer accounts pursuant to 17 CFR 1.17(a)(4) or from a BD-FCM that is a debtor as defined in 17 CFR 190.01 (in the latter case if the transfer has been approved by the Commission pursuant to Commission Regulation 190.07(a)(3)), in either case subject to FICC's contractual right to liquidate or transfer positions and ability adequately to manage risk.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (f) 
                    <E T="03">Margin Requirements.</E>
                     Each of FICC and CME shall calculate initial margin requirements for Eligible Customer Positions on a gross (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     customer-by-customer) basis using a Commission reviewed methodology (in the case of CME) or a methodology reviewed by the Securities and Exchange Commission (in the case of FICC), and hold such initial margin collected from the Eligible BD-FCMs in a manner generally consistent with Commission Regulation 1.20(g), notwithstanding that FICC is not a permitted depository under Commission Regulations 1.20 and 1.49, provided that, with respect to FICC, the requirements with respect to acknowledgement letters set out in Commission Regulation 1.20(g)(4) shall be replaced with those set forth in paragraph (e)(vii) above.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (g) 
                    <E T="03">BD-FCM Margin Collection.</E>
                     Each Eligible BD-FCM shall collect from each of its cross-margining customers, at a minimum, the aggregate amount of initial margin required by each of FICC and CME in respect of the cross-margining customer's Eligible Customer Positions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (h) 
                    <E T="03">FICC's Regulatory Status.</E>
                     FICC shall maintain its status as a covered clearing agency registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (i) 
                    <E T="03">FICC Article 8 Securities Accounts.</E>
                </P>
                <P>1. FICC shall not establish any additional “securities accounts” (beyond those for Segregated Customer Margin and XM Customer Margin) for purposes of the NYUCC without obtaining the consent of the Commission and the Securities and Exchange Commission.</P>
                <P>2. The Commission delegates its authority under paragraph (i)(1) of this Order to the Director of the Division of Clearing and Risk in consultation with the General Counsel.</P>
                <P>
                    (j) 
                    <E T="03">FICC Reporting of Financial Assets Held and Owed.</E>
                     FICC shall, on every business day, report to the staff of the Division of Clearing and Risk and to the Securities and Exchange Commission, the amount of cash and, by CUSIP, securities that are:
                </P>
                <P>1. Held in its accounts for Segregated Customer Margin or XM Customer Margin at (i) FRBNY and (ii) any bank insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation in which such margin is deposited or custodied; and</P>
                <P>2. Owed to BD-FCMs on behalf of their cross-margining customers or securities customers.</P>
                <P>
                    (k) 
                    <E T="03">General Compliance.</E>
                     CME and each Eligible BD-FCM must continue to comply with all other applicable requirements under the CEA and Commission regulations.
                </P>
                <P>This order is based upon the analysis set forth above and the information contained in the petition. Any material change in law or circumstances pursuant to which this order is granted might require the Commission to reconsider its finding that the exemption contained herein is appropriate and/or consistent with the public interest and purposes of the CEA. Further, the Commission reserves the right, in its discretion, to revisit any of the terms and conditions of the relief provided herein, including but not limited to, making a determination that certain entities described herein should be subject to the Commission's full jurisdiction, and to condition, suspend, terminate, or otherwise modify or restrict the exemption granted in this order, as appropriate, upon its own motion.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on December 15, 2025, by the Commission.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Christopher Kirkpatrick,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary of the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P>The following appendix will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix to Proposal To Provide Exemptive Relief To Facilitate Cross-Margining of Customer Positions Cleared at Chicago Mercantile Exchange, Inc. and Fixed Income Clearing Corporation—Commission Voting Summary</HD>
                <P>On this matter, Acting Chairman Pham voted in the affirmative. No Commissioner voted in the negative.</P>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23150 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6351-01-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 100</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2025-0936]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA08</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Special Local Regulation; Milwaukee River, Milwaukee, WI</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is proposing to update special local regulations (SLR) for certain navigable waters of the Milwaukee River. The SLR update is needed to make the regulations more accurate and to continue to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards created by a boat race. This proposed rulemaking would delete an outdated SLR for the Milwaukee Open Water Swim and update the Milwaukee River Challenge to change the date from “1 day; the third Saturday of September.” to “1 day; on or around early October.” We invite your comments on this proposed rulemaking.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard on or before January 16, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To submit comments and view available documents, go to the Federal Docket Management System at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2025-0936.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this proposed rule, contact LCDR Lynn Schrayshuen, Sector Lake Michigan Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 414-378-0111, or email 
                        <E T="03">Lynn.M.Schrayshuen@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    On September 24, 2025, the Coast Guard met with the event sponsors for the Milwaukee River Challenge and confirmed that their event, which is in its 24th year, will occur annually on or around the beginning of October due to reduced conflict with recreational and commercial vessels during that timeframe. The Captain of the Port Sector Lake Michigan (COTP) is proposing to update the Special Local Regulations in Table 1 to 33 CFR 100.903 for recurring marine events in the COTP Zone to reflect this change and to eliminate outdated regulations. The COTP is proposing these updates under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70041 and 33 CFR 1.05-1, as they are needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the regulated area. The regulatory text we are proposing appears at the end of this document.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58540"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule would update the date for an established special regulated area in Table 1 to 33 CFR 100.903, the Milwaukee River Challenge, from “1 day; the third Saturday of September.” to “1 day; on or around early October.” The event title and the location of the regulated area would remain the same. No vessel or person would be permitted to enter the regulated area without obtaining permission from the COTP or their designated representative. The proposed rule also would delete the Milwaukee Open Water Swim from the regulatory text in Table 1 (currently Item 6), as this event no longer occurs. The regulatory text we are proposing appears at the end of this document.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities for the following reasons.</P>
                <P>This regulation would only impact the Milwaukee River for less than 8 hours. The enforcement period would be during a time when vessel traffic is normally low. In addition, the Coast Guard would issue a Broadcast Notice to Marines via VHF FM marine channel 16, which would allow small entities to adjust their transit plans, and the rule would allow vessels to request permission to enter the regulated area from the COTP.</P>
                <P>
                    If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this proposed rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) explaining why you think it qualifies and how and to what degree this proposed rule would economically affect it.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this proposed rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section. Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this proposed rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this proposed rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this proposed rule would not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this proposed rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.</P>
                <P>This proposed rule is an update to a special regulated area. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L61.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Public Participation and Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Submitting comments.</E>
                     We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal Docket Management System at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     To do so, go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     type USCG-2025-0936 in the search box and click “Search.” Next, look for this document in the Search Results column, and click on it. Then click on the Comment option. If you cannot submit your material by using 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     call or email the person in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this proposed rule for alternate instructions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Viewing material in the docket.</E>
                     To view available documents, find the docket as described in the previous paragraph, and then select “Supporting &amp; Related Material” in the Document Type column. We will post public comments in our online docket. Additional information is on the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     Frequently Asked Questions web page.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Personal information.</E>
                     We accept anonymous comments. Comments we post to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     will include any personal information you have provided. For more about privacy and submissions to the docket in response to this document, see DHS's eRulemaking System of Records notice (85 FR 14226, March 11, 2020).
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 100</HD>
                    <P>Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard is proposing to amend 33 CFR part 100 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 100—SAFETY OF LIFE ON NAVIGABLE WATERS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 100 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>46 U.S.C. 70041, 33 CFR 1.05-1.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>2. Revise § 100.903 Table 1 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58541"/>
                    <SECTNO>§ 100.903 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Recurring marine events in the Lake Michigan Captain of the Port Zone.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,r150,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 1 to § 100.903—Sector Lake Michigan Special Local Regulations</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Event</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Location 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Enforcement date 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">(1) Harborfest Dragon Boat Race</ENT>
                            <ENT>South Haven, MI: All waters of the Black River, within an area bound by the following coordinates: 42°24.227′ N, 086°16.683′ W, then southeast to 42°24.210′ N, 086°16.667′ W, then northeast to 42°24.320′ N, 086°16.442′ W, then northwest to 42°24.337′ N, 086°16.457′ W, then returning to the point of origin</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 days; in mid-to-late June.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">(2) Summer in the City Waterski Show</ENT>
                            <ENT>Green Bay, WI: All waters of the Fox River from the Main Street Bridge to the West Walnut Street Bridge between coordinates: 44°31.089′ N, 088°00.904′ W, then southwest to 44°30.900′ N, 088°01.091′ W</ENT>
                            <ENT>Each Wednesday of July and August.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">(3) Celebrate Americafest Ski Show</ENT>
                            <ENT>Green Bay, WI: All waters of the Fox River from the West Walnut Street Bridge to the mouth of the East River between coordinates: 44°30.912′ N, 088°01.100′ W, then northeast to 44°31.337′ N, 088°00.640′ W</ENT>
                            <ENT>1 day; on or around July 4.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">(4) Grand Haven Coast Guard Festival</ENT>
                            <ENT>Grand Haven, MI: All waters of the Grand River, within an area bound by the following coordinates: 43°04.000′ N, 086°14.200′ W, then east to 43°03.933′ N, 086°14.067′ W, then south to 43°03.750′ N, 086°14.167′ W, then west to 43°03.800′ N, 086°14.283′ W, then returning to the point of origin</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 weeks; in late July and/or early August.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">(5) Milwaukee Venetian Boat Parade</ENT>
                            <ENT>Milwaukee, WI: All waters of Lake Michigan within the Milwaukee Harbor and the Milwaukee River from McKinley Marina, along the Veteran's Park shoreline, to the Milwaukee Art Museum between coordinates: 43°02.066′ N, 087°52.966′ W, then southwest to 43°02.483′ N, 087°53.683′ W, then south to 43°02.366′ N, 087°53.700′ W</ENT>
                            <ENT>1 day; the third Saturday of August.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">(6) Sister Bay Marinafest Ski Show</ENT>
                            <ENT>Sister Bay, WI: All waters of Sister Bay within an 800 foot radius of the following coordinates: 45°11.585′ N, 087°07.392′ W</ENT>
                            <ENT>1 day; the last week of August or first week of September.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">(7) Milwaukee Harborfest Boat Parade</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Milwaukee, WI: All waters of the Milwaukee River from the North Holton Street Bridge to the confluence with the Kinnickinnic River between coordinates: 43°03.284′ N, 087°54.267′ W, then south to 43°01.524′ N, 087°54.173′ W 
                                <E T="03">and</E>
                                 All water of the Kinnickinnic River from the confluence with the Milwaukee River to the Municipal Mooring Basin between coordinates: 43°01.524′ N, 087°54.173′ W, then south to 43°00.829′ N, 087°54.075′ W
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>1 day; the first or second weekend of September.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">(8) Milwaukee River Challenge</ENT>
                            <ENT>Milwaukee, WI: All waters of the Milwaukee River from the confluence with the Menomonee River and the East Pleasant Street Bridge between coordinates: 43°04.451′ N, 087°50.503′ W; then northwest to 43°04.738′ N, 087°51.445′ W; then southwest to 43°02.848′ N, 087°52.772′ W; then returning to the point of origin</ENT>
                            <ENT>1 day; on or around early October.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">(9) Chinatown Chamber of Commerce Dragon Boat Race</ENT>
                            <ENT>Chicago, IL: All waters of the South Branch of the Chicago River from the West 18th Street Bridge to the Amtrak Bridge between coordinates: 41°51.467′ N, 087°38.100′ W, then southwest to 41°51.333′ N, 087°38.217′ W</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 days; the second Friday and Saturday of July.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">(10) Southland Regatta</ENT>
                            <ENT>Blue Island, IL: All waters of the Calumet Sag Channel from the South Halstead Street Bridge to the Crawford Avenue Bridge between coordinates: 41°39.450′ N, 087°38.483′ W, then southwest to 41°39.083′ N, 087°43.483′ W and All waters of the Little Calumet River from the Ashland Avenue Bridge to the junction of the Calumet Sag Channel between coordinates: 41°39.117′ N, 087°39.633′ W, then northeast to 41°39.374′ N, 087°39.001′ W</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 days; the first Sunday of November and the Saturday prior to it.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             All coordinates listed in Table 1 of this section reference Datum NAD 1983.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             As noted in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the enforcement dates and times for each of the listed safety zones are subject to change.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                </SECTION>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Rhianna. N. Macon,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port, Sector Lake Michigan.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23085 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
    </PRORULES>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>240</NO>
    <DATE>Wednesday, December 17, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Notices</UNITNAME>
    <NOTICES>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58542"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <P>The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    Comments regarding this information collection received by January 16, 2026 will be considered. Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                </P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Food Safety and Inspection Service</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Electronic Import Inspection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0583-0159.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Summary of Collection:</E>
                     The Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) has been delegated the authority to exercise the functions of the Secretary as provided in the Federal Meat Inspection Act (FMIA) (21 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), the Poultry Products Inspection Act (PPIA) (21 U.S.C. 451 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and the Egg Products Inspection Act (EPIA) (21 U.S.C. 1031 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). These statutes mandate that FSIS protect the public by verifying that meat, poultry, and egg products are safe, wholesome, and properly labeled.
                </P>
                <P>The Federal Meat Inspection Act (FMIA) (21 U.S.C. 620) and the Poultry Products Inspection Act (PPIA) (21 U.S.C. 466) prohibit the importation of meat and poultry products into the United States if such products are adulterated or misbranded and unless they comply with all the inspection and other requirements of the Acts and regulations as are applied to domestic products. The Egg Products Inspection Act (EPIA) (21 U.S.C. 1046) prohibits the importation of egg products unless they were processed under an approved continuous inspection system of the government of the foreign country of origin and comply with the other pertinent requirements of the Act and regulations as they are applied to domestic products.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Need and Use of the Information:</E>
                     FSIS requires foreign governments to submit additional information when submitting both the foreign establishment certificate and the foreign inspection certificate to FSIS for foreign establishments to be permitted to import product to the United States.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The information that is required with the Foreign Establishment Certificate includes: the type of operation(s) conducted at the establishment (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     slaughter, processing, storage, exporting warehouse); the establishment's eligibility status (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     new or relisted (if previously delisted)); and, slaughter and processing establishment certifications that address the species and type of product(s) produced at the establishment and the process category.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description of Respondents:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     939.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Responses:</E>
                     Recordkeeping; Reporting: On occasion; Annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     49,385.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Levi S. Harrell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Departmental Information Collection Clearance Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23114 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-DM-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting of the Tennessee Advisory Committee</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Announcement of virtual business meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) that the Tennessee Advisory Committee (Committee) to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a virtual business meeting via Zoom on Monday, January 12, 2026, from 3:00 p.m.-4:00 p.m. CT. For the purpose of beginning their term and to discuss their first project topics.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will take place on Monday, January 12, 2026, from 3:00 p.m.-4:00 p.m. CT.</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Registration Link (Audio/Visual): https://www.zoomgov.com/j/1615787841</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Join by Phone (Audio Only):</E>
                         1-833-435-1820 USA Toll Free; Webinar ID: #161 578 7841.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Brooke Peery, Designated Federal Officer (DFO) at 
                        <E T="03">bpeery@usccr.gov</E>
                         or by phone at (202) 701-1376.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Committee meetings are available to the public through the videoconference link above. Any interested member of the public may listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Per the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58543"/>
                    Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Closed captioning will be available for individuals who are deaf, hard of hearing, or who have certain cognitive or learning impairments. To request additional accommodations, please email Corrine Sanders, Support Services Specialist, 
                    <E T="03">csanders@usccr.gov</E>
                     at least 10 business days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments can be sent via email to Brooke Peery (DFO) at 
                    <E T="03">bpeery@usccr.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meetings will be available via 
                    <E T="03">www.facadatabase.gov</E>
                     under the Commission on Civil Rights, Tennessee Advisory Committee link. Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">http://www.usccr.gov,</E>
                     or may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at 
                    <E T="03">csanders@usccr.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">I. Welcome &amp; Roll Call</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">II. Committee Discussion</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">III. Public Comment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IV. Adjournment</FP>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23130 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meetings of the Montana Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public meetings.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, that the Montana Advisory Committee (Committee) to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a public business meeting every second Thursday of the month (January 2026 through March 2026) via Zoom at 3:00 p.m. MT. The purpose of these meetings is to discuss the Committee's project, Civil Rights Violations Resulting from Diversity, Equity, and Inclusion Policies at Montana Public Universities.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>Thursday, January 8, 2026, from 3:00 p.m. to 4:30 p.m. Mountain Time.</P>
                    <P>Thursday, February 12, 2026, from 3:00 p.m. to 4:30 p.m. Mountain Time.</P>
                    <P>Thursday, March 12, 2026, from 3:00 p.m. to 4:30 p.m. Mountain Time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The meetings will be held via Zoom Webinar. Members of the public only need to register once.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Registration Link (Audio/Visual) for All Meetings: https://www.zoomgov.com/webinar/register/WN_L9qc_6NuRKO9Gna77RAB7w</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Join by Phone (Audio Only) for All Meetings:</E>
                         (833) 435-1820 USA Toll-Free; Meeting ID: 161 755 7609.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ana Victoria Fortes, Designated Federal Officer, at 
                        <E T="03">afortes@usccr.gov</E>
                         or (202) 681-0857.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This committee meeting is available to the public through the registration link above. Any interested member of the public may listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Per the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any charges incurred. Callers will incur no charge for calls initiated over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Closed captioning will be available for individuals who are deaf, hard of hearing, or who have certain cognitive or learning impairments. To request additional accommodations, please email Liliana Schiller, Support Services Specialist, at 
                    <E T="03">lschiller@usccr.gov</E>
                     at least 10 business days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public are entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Ana Victoria Fortes at 
                    <E T="03">afortes@usccr.gov</E>
                    . Persons who desire additional information may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at (202) 681-0857.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meetings will be available via this file sharing website. Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">http://www.usccr.gov,</E>
                     or may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at the above phone number.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Welcome &amp; Roll Call</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Discussion: Civil Rights in Montana</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Public Comment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Next Steps</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Adjournment</FP>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: December 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23110 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6335-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting of the Maryland Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Announcement of meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, that the Maryland Advisory Committee (Committee) to the Commission will hold a public meeting via Zoom. The purpose is for the committee to discuss possible topics of study.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Wednesday, January 21, 2026, at 11:00 a.m. ET.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Registration Link (Audio/Visual):</E>
                         The meeting will be held via Zoom. 
                        <E T="03">https://www.zoomgov.com/webinar/register/WN_s84A3awBSoG10Hrl6I09zQ.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Join by Phone (Audio Only):</E>
                         1-833-435-1820 USA Toll Free; Webinar ID: 160 877 1160 #.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda: https://usccr.box.com/s/txhvcbqut24vawu8or5hro165x6sbt7m (note: a final meeting agenda will be available prior to the meeting date).</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Brooke Peery, Designated Federal Officer, at 
                        <E T="03">bpeery@usccr.gov</E>
                         or 1-202-701-1376.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This virtual committee meeting is available to the public through the registration link above. Any interested member of the public may join at the link to listen to this meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Pursuant to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58544"/>
                    the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Closed captioning is available by selecting “CC” in the Zoom meeting platform. To request additional accommodations, please email 
                    <E T="03">ebohor@usccr.gov</E>
                     at least 10 business days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public are entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the scheduled meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Evelyn Bohor at 
                    <E T="03">ebohor@usccr.gov.</E>
                     Persons who desire additional information may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at (202) 809-9618.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meetings will be available via the file sharing website: 
                    <E T="03">https://tinyurl.com/mnshz8n9</E>
                     as well as at: 
                    <E T="03">www.facadatabase.gov</E>
                     under the Commission on Civil Rights, selecting the Advisory Committee of interest. Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">http://www.usccr.gov,</E>
                     or may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at 
                    <E T="03">ebohor@usccr.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23112 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6335-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting of the Puerto Rico Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Announcement of meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission), and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), that a meeting of the Puerto Rico Advisory Committee to the Commission will convene by virtual web conference. The purpose is to discuss and vote on their final report regarding their project on the civil rights impacts of the Insular Cases in Puerto Rico.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Wednesday, January 14, 2026, at 3:30 p.m. Atlantic Time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Meeting will be held via Zoom.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Registration Link (Audio/Visual): https://www.zoomgov.com/webinar/register/WN_AuXERLn8QuKQ38s5vhn3DA.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Join by Phone (Audio Only):</E>
                         1-833 435 1820 USA Toll Free; Meeting ID: 161 956 0692 #.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda: https://usccr.box.com/s/lp5yxf2l0wrzjrzg7obu04g7wphdglwx (note: final agenda will be available prior to the meeting date).</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Email Victoria Moreno, Designated Federal Officer at 
                        <E T="03">vmoreno@usccr.gov,</E>
                         or by phone at 434-515-0204.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This meeting will take place in English. This committee meeting is available to the public through the registration link above. Any interested member of the public may listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Per the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Closed captioning will be available for individuals who are deaf, hard of hearing, or who have certain cognitive or learning impairments. To request additional accommodations, please email 
                    <E T="03">ebohor@usccr.gov</E>
                     at least 10 business days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public are entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Victoria Moreno at 
                    <E T="03">vmoreno@usccr.gov.</E>
                     Persons who desire additional information may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at 1-312-353-8311.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meetings will be available via 
                    <E T="03">www.facadatabase.gov</E>
                     under the Commission on Civil Rights, Puerto Rico Advisory Committee link. Committee documents can also be found at the following file sharing website: 
                    <E T="03">https://usccr.box.com/s/fukc86iegef918ivu53td5rc6uyxpl8e.</E>
                     Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">http://www.usccr.gov,</E>
                     or may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at 
                    <E T="03">ebohor@usccr.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23109 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6335-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Industry and Security</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>In the Matter of: Arthur Ching-Fu Gau, 8802 South Feliz Drive, Tempe, AZ 85284; Order Denying Export Privileges</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    On March 10, 2022, in the U.S. District Court for the District of Arizona, Arthur Ching-Fu Gau (“Gau”) was convicted of violating the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (50 U.S.C. 1701, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) (“IEEPA”). Specifically, Gau was convicted of knowingly and willfully exporting and causing to exported from the United States to China technical data related to the electronic control unit of the legacy aircraft auxiliary power units, without having first obtaining the required license from the U.S. Department of Commerce. As a result of his conviction, the court sentenced him to 36 months of probation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 1760(e) of the Export Control Reform Act (“ECRA”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the export privileges of any person who has been convicted of certain offenses, including, but not limited to IEEPA may be denied for a period of up to ten (10) years from the date of his/her conviction. 50 U.S.C. 4819(e). In addition, any Bureau of Industry and Security (“BIS”) licenses or other authorizations issued under ECRA, in which the person had an interest at the time of the conviction, may be revoked. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         ECRA was enacted on August 13, 2018, as part of the John S. McCain National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2019, and as amended is codified at 50 U.S.C. 4801-4852.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    BIS received notice of Gau's conviction for violating IEEPA. As provided in Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulations (“EAR” or the “Regulations”), BIS provided notice and opportunity for Gau to make a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58545"/>
                    written submission to BIS. 15 CFR 766.25.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     BIS received and considered written submissions from Gau.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The Regulations are currently codified in the Code of Federal Regulations at 15 CFR Parts 730-774 (2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Based upon my review of the record and consultations with BIS's Office of Exporter Services, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Gau's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of 4 years from the date of Gau's conviction. The Office of Exporter Services has also decided to revoke any BIS-issued licenses in which Gau had an interest at the time of his conviction.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The Director, Office of Export Enforcement, is the authorizing official for issuance of denial orders pursuant to amendments to the Regulations (85 FR 73411, November 18, 2020).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, it is hereby 
                    <E T="03">ordered:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">First,</E>
                     from the date of this Order until March 10, 2026, Arthur Ching-Fu Gau with a last known address of: 8802 South Feliz Drive, Tempe, AZ 85284 and when acting for or on his behalf, his successors, assigns, employees, agents or representatives (“the Denied Person”), may not directly or indirectly participate in any way in any transaction involving any commodity, software or technology (hereinafter collectively referred to as “item”) exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, including, but not limited to:
                </P>
                <P>A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, license exception, or export control document;</P>
                <P>B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or engaging in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or</P>
                <P>C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or from any other activity subject to the Regulations.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Second,</E>
                     no person may, directly or indirectly, do any of the following:
                </P>
                <P>A. Export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;</P>
                <P>B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession, or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;</P>
                <P>C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;</P>
                <P>D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or</P>
                <P>E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Third,</E>
                     pursuant to Section 1760(e) of ECRA and Sections 766.23 and 766.25 of the Regulations, any other person, firm, corporation, or business organization related to Gau by ownership, control, position of responsibility, affiliation, or other connection in the conduct of trade or business may also be made subject to the provisions of this Order in order to prevent evasion of this Order.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Fourth,</E>
                     in accordance with Part 756 of the Regulations, Gau may file an appeal of this Order with the Under Secretary of Commerce for Industry and Security. The appeal must be filed within 45 days from the date of this Order and must comply with the provisions of Part 756 of the Regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Fifth,</E>
                     a copy of this Order shall be delivered to Gau and shall be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Sixth,</E>
                     this Order is effective immediately and shall remain in effect until March 10, 2026.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Steven Fisher,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Export Enforcement.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23123 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DT-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Industry and Security</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Order Denying Export Privileges</SUBJECT>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">In the Matter of:</E>
                     Jose Raul Paredes Arispe, Inmate Number: 51063-510, FCI Jesup, Federal Correctional Institution, 2680 301 South, Jesup, GA 31599 
                </FP>
                <P>On October 31, 2023, in the U.S. District Court for the Southern District of Florida, Jose Raul Paredes Arispe (“Arispe”) was convicted of violating 18 U.S.C. 371 and 50 U.S.C. 4819. Specifically, Arispe was convicted of conspiring to smuggle and knowingly and willfully attempting to export and attempting to cause the export of firearms parts and firearms accessories from the U.S. to Bolivia without first having obtained the required license from the U.S. Department of Commerce. As a result of his conviction, the Court sentenced Arispe to 46 months of imprisonment and three years of supervised release.</P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 1760(e) of the Export Control Reform Act (“ECRA”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the export privileges of any person who has been convicted of certain offenses, including, but not limited to, 18 U.S.C. 371 and 50 U.S.C. 4819, may be denied for a period of up to ten (10) years from the date of his/her conviction. 50 U.S.C. 4819(e). In addition, any Bureau of Industry and Security (“BIS”) licenses or other authorizations issued under ECRA, in which the person had an interest at the time of the conviction, may be revoked. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         ECRA was enacted on August 13, 2018, as part of the John S. McCain National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2019, and as amended is codified at 50 U.S.C. 4801-4852.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    BIS received notice of Arispe's conviction for violating 18 U.S.C. 371 and 50 U.S.C. 4819. As provided in Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulations (“EAR” or the “Regulations”), BIS provided notice and opportunity for Arispe to make a written submission to BIS. 15 CFR 766.25.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     BIS has not received a written submission from Arispe.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The Regulations are currently codified in the Code of Federal Regulations at 15 CFR Parts 730-774 (2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Based upon my review of the record and consultations with BIS's Office of Exporter Services, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Arispe's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of 10 years from the date of Arispe's conviction. The Office of Exporter Services has also decided to revoke any BIS-issued licenses in which 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58546"/>
                    Arispe had an interest at the time of his conviction.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The Director, Office of Export Enforcement, is the authorizing official for issuance of denial orders pursuant to amendments to the Regulations (85 FR 73411, November 18, 2020).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, it is hereby 
                    <E T="03">ordered:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">First</E>
                    , from the date of this Order until October 31, 2033, Jose Raul Paredes Arispe, with a last known address of Inmate Number: 51063-510, FCI Jesup, Federal Correctional Institution, 2680 301 South, Jesup, GA 31599, and when acting for or on his behalf, his successors, assigns, employees, agents or representatives (“the Denied Person”), may not directly or indirectly participate in any way in any transaction involving any commodity, software or technology (hereinafter collectively referred to as “item”) exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, including, but not limited to:
                </P>
                <P>A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, license exception, or export control document;</P>
                <P>B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or engaging in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or</P>
                <P>C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or from any other activity subject to the Regulations.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Second</E>
                    , no person may, directly or indirectly, do any of the following:
                </P>
                <P>A. Export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;</P>
                <P>B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession, or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;</P>
                <P>C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;</P>
                <P>D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or</P>
                <P>E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Third</E>
                    , pursuant to Section 1760(e) of ECRA and Sections 766.23 and 766.25 of the Regulations, any other person, firm, corporation, or business organization related to Arispe by ownership, control, position of responsibility, affiliation, or other connection in the conduct of trade or business may also be made subject to the provisions of this Order in order to prevent evasion of this Order.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Fourth</E>
                    , in accordance with Part 756 of the Regulations, Arispe may file an appeal of this Order with the Under Secretary of Commerce for Industry and Security. The appeal must be filed within 45 days from the date of this Order and must comply with the provisions of Part 756 of the Regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Fifth</E>
                    , a copy of this Order shall be delivered to Arispe and shall be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Sixth</E>
                    , this Order is effective immediately and shall remain in effect until October 31, 2033.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Steven Fisher,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Export Enforcement.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23117 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DT-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau Of Industry and Security</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Order Denying Export Privileges</SUBJECT>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">In the Matter of:</E>
                     Marco Santillan, Jr., currently incarcerated at: Inmate Number: 82364-509, FCI Phoenix, Federal Correctional Institution, 37910 N 45th Ave., Phoenix, AZ 85086, and with an address at: 4945 Sagewood Lane, Hemet, CA 92545 
                </FP>
                <P>
                    On August 1, 2022, in the U.S. District Court for the Central District of California, Marco Santillan, Jr. (“Santillan, Jr.”) was convicted of violating 50 U.S.C. 4819. Specifically, Santillan, Jr. was convicted of conspiring to violate the Export Administration Regulations by conspiring to export firearms and ammunition to Mexico. As a result of his conviction,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Court sentenced Santillan, Jr. to 57 months of imprisonment and three years of supervised release.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Santillan, Jr. was also convicted of conspiracy to commit money laundering in violation of 18 U.S.C. 1956(h).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 1760(e) of the Export Control Reform Act (“ECRA”),
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the export privileges of any person who has been convicted of certain offenses, including, but not limited to, 50 U.S.C. 4819, may be denied for a period of up to ten (10) years from the date of his/her conviction. 50 U.S.C. 4819(e). In addition, any Bureau of Industry and Security (“BIS”) licenses or other authorizations issued under ECRA, in which the person had an interest at the time of the conviction, may be revoked. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         ECRA was enacted on August 13, 2018, as part of the John S. McCain National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2019, and as amended is codified at 50 U.S.C. 4801-4852.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    BIS received notice of Santillan, Jr.'s conviction for violating 50 U.S.C. 4819. As provided in Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulations (“EAR” or the “Regulations”), BIS provided notice and opportunity for Santillan, Jr. to make a written submission to BIS. 15 CFR 766.25.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     BIS has not received a written submission from Santillan, Jr..
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The Regulations are currently codified in the Code of Federal Regulations at 15 CFR Parts 730-774 (2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Based upon my review of the record and consultations with BIS's Office of Exporter Services, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Santillan, Jr.'s export privileges under the Regulations for a period of 10 years from the date of Santillan, Jr.'s conviction. The Office of Exporter Services has also decided to revoke any BIS-issued licenses in which Santillan, Jr. had an interest at the time of his conviction.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The Director, Office of Export Enforcement, is the authorizing official for issuance of denial orders pursuant to amendments to the Regulations (85 FR 73411, November 18, 2020).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, it is hereby 
                    <E T="03">ordered:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">First</E>
                    , from the date of this Order until August 1, 2032, Marco Santillan, Jr., with last known addresses of Inmate Number: 82364-509, FCI Phoenix, Federal Correctional Institution, 37910 N 45th Ave., Phoenix, AZ 85086 and 4945 Sagewood Lane, Hemet, CA 92545, and when acting for or on his behalf, his 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58547"/>
                    successors, assigns, employees, agents or representatives (“the Denied Person”), may not directly or indirectly participate in any way in any transaction involving any commodity, software or technology (hereinafter collectively referred to as “item”) exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, including, but not limited to:
                </P>
                <P>A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, license exception, or export control document;</P>
                <P>B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or engaging in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or</P>
                <P>C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or from any other activity subject to the Regulations.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Second</E>
                    , no person may, directly or indirectly, do any of the following:
                </P>
                <P>A. Export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;</P>
                <P>B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession, or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;</P>
                <P>C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;</P>
                <P>D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or</P>
                <P>E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Third</E>
                    , pursuant to Section 1760(e) of ECRA and Sections 766.23 and 766.25 of the Regulations, any other person, firm, corporation, or business organization related to Santillan, Jr. by ownership, control, position of responsibility, affiliation, or other connection in the conduct of trade or business may also be made subject to the provisions of this Order in order to prevent evasion of this Order.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Fourth</E>
                    , in accordance with Part 756 of the Regulations, Santillan, Jr. may file an appeal of this Order with the Under Secretary of Commerce for Industry and Security. The appeal must be filed within 45 days from the date of this Order and must comply with the provisions of Part 756 of the Regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Fifth</E>
                    , a copy of this Order shall be delivered to Santillan, Jr. and shall be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Sixth</E>
                    , this Order is effective immediately and shall remain in effect until August 1, 2032.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Steven Fisher, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Export Enforcement.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23119 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DT-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Industry and Security</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>In the Matter of: Richard G. Shih, 26 Buggy Whip Drive, Rolling Hills, CA 90274; Order Denying Export Privileges</SUBJECT>
                <P>On March 13, 2025, in the U.S. District Court for the Northern District of Texas, Richard Shih (“Shih”), was convicted of violating 18 U.S.C. 371. Specifically, Shih conspired to illegally export U.S. goods from the United States to Chinese companies on the U.S. Department of Commerce's Entity List without required authorization. As a result of Shih's conviction, the Court sentenced Shih to 60 months of probation.</P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 1760(e) of the Export Control Reform Act (“ECRA”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the export privileges of any person who has been convicted of certain offenses, including, but not limited to, 18 U.S.C. 371, may be denied for a period of up to ten (10) years from the date of his/her conviction. 50 U.S.C. 4819(e). In addition, any Bureau of Industry and Security (“BIS”) licenses or other authorizations issued under ECRA, in which the person had an interest at the time of the conviction, may be revoked. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         ECRA was enacted on August 13, 2018, as part of the John S. McCain National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2019, and as amended is codified at 50 U.S.C. 4801-4852.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    BIS received notice of Shih's conviction for violating 18 U.S.C. 371. As provided in Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulations (“EAR” or the “Regulations”), BIS provided notice and opportunity for Shih to make a written submission to BIS. 15 CFR 766.25.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     BIS has not received a written submission from Shih.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The Regulations are currently codified in the Code of Federal Regulations at 15 CFR Parts 730-774 (2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Based upon my review of the record and consultations with BIS's Office of Exporter Services, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Shih's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of 10 years from the date of Shih's conviction. The Office of Exporter Services has also decided to revoke any BIS-issued licenses in which Shih had an interest at the time of his conviction.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The Director, Office of Export Enforcement, is the authorizing official for issuance of denial orders pursuant to amendments to the Regulations (85 FR 73411, November 18, 2020).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, it is hereby 
                    <E T="03">ordered:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">First,</E>
                     from the date of this Order until March 13, 2035, Richard G. Shih, with a last known address of 26 Buggy Whip Drive, Rolling Hills, CA 90274, and when acting for or on his behalf, his successors, assigns, employees, agents or representatives (“the Denied Person”), may not directly or indirectly participate in any way in any transaction involving any commodity, software or technology (hereinafter collectively referred to as “item”) exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, including, but not limited to:
                </P>
                <P>A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, license exception, or export control document;</P>
                <P>
                    B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or engaging in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or
                    <PRTPAGE P="58548"/>
                </P>
                <P>C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or from any other activity subject to the Regulations.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Second,</E>
                     no person may, directly or indirectly, do any of the following:
                </P>
                <P>A. Export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;</P>
                <P>B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession, or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;</P>
                <P>C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;</P>
                <P>D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or</P>
                <P>E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Third,</E>
                     pursuant to Section 1760(e) of ECRA and Sections 766.23 and 766.25 of the Regulations, any other person, firm, corporation, or business organization related to Shih by ownership, control, position of responsibility, affiliation, or other connection in the conduct of trade or business may also be made subject to the provisions of this Order in order to prevent evasion of this Order.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Fourth,</E>
                     in accordance with Part 756 of the Regulations, Shih may file an appeal of this Order with the Under Secretary of Commerce for Industry and Security. The appeal must be filed within 45 days from the date of this Order and must comply with the provisions of Part 756 of the Regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Fifth,</E>
                     a copy of this Order shall be delivered to Shih and shall be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Sixth,</E>
                     this Order is effective immediately and shall remain in effect until March 13, 2035.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Steven Fisher,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Export Enforcement. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23120 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DT-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Industry and Security</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Order Denying Export Privileges</SUBJECT>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">In the Matter of:</E>
                     Nikolay Goltsev, Inmate Number: 84619-510, FCI Forrest City Low, Federal Correctional Institution, P.O. Box 9000, Forrest City, AR 72336 
                </FP>
                <P>
                    On January 8, 2025, in the U.S. District Court for the Eastern District of New York, Nikolay Goltsev (“Goltsev”) was convicted of violating 50 U.S.C. 4819. Specifically, Goltsev was convicted of exporting and causing to be exported from the United States to Russia dual-use electronic components, items on the Commerce Control List and Common High Priority List, without having first obtained a license for such export from the U.S. Department of Commerce. Over the course of a year, Goltsev coordinated the export of over 300 shipments valued at over $7 million USD to Russian military-end users designated on BIS' Entity List and OFAC's SDN list.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As a result of his conviction, the Court sentenced Goltsev to 40 months of imprisonment and one year of supervised release.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">United States</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Nikolay Goltsev,</E>
                         et al., Indictment, No. 1:23-CR-00452, at 2-3 (E.D.N.Y. filed Nov. 6, 2023); 
                        <E T="03">New York Man and Canadian National Plead Guilty to Multimillion-Dollar Export Control Scheme,</E>
                         U.S. Department of Justice (July 9, 2024), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/archives/opa/pr/new-york-man-and-canadian-national-plead-guilty-multi-million-dollar-export-control-scheme.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 1760(e) of the Export Control Reform Act (“ECRA”),
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the export privileges of any person who has been convicted of certain offenses, including, but not limited to, 50 U.S.C. 4819, may be denied for a period of up to ten (10) years from the date of his/her conviction. 50 U.S.C. 4819(e). In addition, any Bureau of Industry and Security (“BIS”) licenses or other authorizations issued under ECRA, in which the person had an interest at the time of the conviction, may be revoked. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         ECRA was enacted on August 13, 2018, as part of the John S. McCain National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2019, and as amended is codified at 50 U.S.C. 4801-4852.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    BIS received notice of Goltsev's conviction for violating 50 U.S.C. 4819. As provided in Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulations (“EAR” or the “Regulations”), BIS provided notice and opportunity for Goltsev to make a written submission to BIS. 15 CFR 766.25.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     BIS has not received a written submission from Goltsev.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The Regulations are currently codified in the Code of Federal Regulations at 15 CFR Parts 730-774 (2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Based upon my review of the record and consultations with BIS's Office of Exporter Services, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Goltsev's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of 10 years from the date of Goltsev's conviction. The Office of Exporter Services has also decided to revoke any BIS-issued licenses in which Goltsev had an interest at the time of his conviction.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The Director, Office of Export Enforcement, is the authorizing official for issuance of denial orders pursuant to amendments to the Regulations (85 FR 73411, November 18, 2020).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, it is hereby 
                    <E T="03">ordered:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">First</E>
                    , from the date of this Order until January 8, 2035, Nikolay Goltsev, with a last known address of Inmate Number: 84619-510, FCI Forrest City Low, Federal Correctional Institution, P.O. Box 9000, Forrest City, AR 72336, and when acting for or on his behalf, his successors, assigns, employees, agents or representatives (“the Denied Person”), may not directly or indirectly participate in any way in any transaction involving any commodity, software or technology (hereinafter collectively referred to as “item”) exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, including, but not limited to:
                </P>
                <P>A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, license exception, or export control document;</P>
                <P>B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or engaging in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or</P>
                <P>
                    C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58549"/>
                    from any other activity subject to the Regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Second</E>
                    , no person may, directly or indirectly, do any of the following:
                </P>
                <P>A. Export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;</P>
                <P>B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession, or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;</P>
                <P>C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;</P>
                <P>D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or</P>
                <P>E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Third</E>
                    , pursuant to Section 1760(e) of ECRA and Sections 766.23 and 766.25 of the Regulations, any other person, firm, corporation, or business organization related to Goltsev by ownership, control, position of responsibility, affiliation, or other connection in the conduct of trade or business may also be made subject to the provisions of this Order in order to prevent evasion of this Order.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Fourth</E>
                    , in accordance with Part 756 of the Regulations, Goltsev may file an appeal of this Order with the Under Secretary of Commerce for Industry and Security. The appeal must be filed within 45 days from the date of this Order and must comply with the provisions of Part 756 of the Regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Fifth</E>
                    , a copy of this Order shall be delivered to Goltsev and shall be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Sixth</E>
                    , this Order is effective immediately and shall remain in effect until January 8, 2035.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Steven Fisher, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Export Enforcement.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23122 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DT-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Industry and Security</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>In the Matter of Marco Antonio Santillan Valencia, 12904 Foxley Drive, Whittier, CA 90602; Order Denying Export Privileges</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    On January 8, 2024, in the U.S. District Court for the Central District of California, Marco Antonio Santillan Valencia (“Santillan”) was convicted of violating 50 U.S.C. 4819. Specifically, Santillan was convicted of conspiring to violate the Export Administration Regulations by conspiring to export firearms and ammunition to Mexico. As a result of his conviction,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Court sentenced Santillan to eight months of imprisonment and three years of supervised release.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Santillan was also convicted of conspiracy to commit money laundering in violation of 18 U.S.C. 1956(h).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 1760(e) of the Export Control Reform Act (“ECRA”),
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the export privileges of any person who has been convicted of certain offenses, including, but not limited to, 50 U.S.C. 4819, may be denied for a period of up to ten (10) years from the date of his/her conviction. 50 U.S.C. 4819(e). In addition, any Bureau of Industry and Security (“BIS”) licenses or other authorizations issued under ECRA, in which the person had an interest at the time of the conviction, may be revoked. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         ECRA was enacted on August 13, 2018, as part of the John S. McCain National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2019, and as amended is codified at 50 U.S.C. 4801-4852.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    BIS received notice of Santillan's conviction for violating 50 U.S.C. 4819. As provided in Section 766.25 of the Export Administration Regulations (“EAR” or the “Regulations”), BIS provided notice and opportunity for Santillan to make a written submission to BIS. 15 CFR 766.25.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     BIS has not received a written submission from Santillan.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The Regulations are currently codified in the Code of Federal Regulations at 15 CFR Parts 730-774 (2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Based upon my review of the record and consultations with BIS's Office of Exporter Services, including its Director, and the facts available to BIS, I have decided to deny Santillan's export privileges under the Regulations for a period of 10 years from the date of Santillan's conviction. The Office of Exporter Services has also decided to revoke any BIS-issued licenses in which Santillan had an interest at the time of his conviction.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The Director, Office of Export Enforcement, is the authorizing official for issuance of denial orders pursuant to amendments to the Regulations (85 FR 73411, November 18, 2020).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, it is hereby 
                    <E T="03">ordered:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">First</E>
                    , from the date of this Order until January 8, 2034, Marco Antonio Santillan Valencia, with a last known address of 12904 Foxley Drive, Whittier, CA 90602, and when acting for or on his behalf, his successors, assigns, employees, agents or representatives (“the Denied Person”), may not directly or indirectly participate in any way in any transaction involving any commodity, software or technology (hereinafter collectively referred to as “item”) exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, including, but not limited to:
                </P>
                <P>A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, license exception, or export control document;</P>
                <P>B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or engaging in any other activity subject to the Regulations; or</P>
                <P>C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the Regulations, or from any other activity subject to the Regulations.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Second</E>
                    , no person may, directly or indirectly, do any of the following:
                </P>
                <P>A. Export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) to or on behalf of the Denied Person any item subject to the Regulations;</P>
                <P>B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by the Denied Person of the ownership, possession, or control of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby the Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;</P>
                <P>
                    C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from the Denied Person of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58550"/>
                    any item subject to the Regulations that has been exported from the United States;
                </P>
                <P>D. Obtain from the Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the Regulations with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or</P>
                <P>E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person, or service any item, of whatever origin, that is owned, possessed or controlled by the Denied Person if such service involves the use of any item subject to the Regulations that has been or will be exported from the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, servicing means installation, maintenance, repair, modification or testing.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Third</E>
                    , pursuant to Section 1760(e) of ECRA and Sections 766.23 and 766.25 of the Regulations, any other person, firm, corporation, or business organization related to Santillan by ownership, control, position of responsibility, affiliation, or other connection in the conduct of trade or business may also be made subject to the provisions of this Order in order to prevent evasion of this Order.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Fourth</E>
                    , in accordance with Part 756 of the Regulations, Santillan may file an appeal of this Order with the Under Secretary of Commerce for Industry and Security. The appeal must be filed within 45 days from the date of this Order and must comply with the provisions of Part 756 of the Regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Fifth</E>
                    , a copy of this Order shall be delivered to Santillan and shall be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Sixth</E>
                    , this Order is effective immediately and shall remain in effect until January 8, 2034.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Steven Fisher, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Export Enforcement. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23118 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DT-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Surfclam/Ocean Quahog Individual Transfer Quota (ITQ) Administration</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    The Department of Commerce will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. We invite the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed and continuing information collections, which helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. Public comments were previously requested via the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on July 14, 2025, during a 60-day comment period. This notice allows for an additional 30 days for public comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Surfclam/Ocean Quahog Individual Transfer Quota (ITQ) Administration.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0648-0240.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number(s):</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Regular submission [extension of a current information collection].
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     180 unique respondents.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     ITQ permit application form, review of a pre-filled form for renewing entities, ITQ transfer form, 5 minutes each; 1 hour to complete the ITQ ownership form for new applicants and 30 minutes for the application to shuck Surfclams and ocean quahogs at sea. The requirements under the paralytic shellfish poisoning (PSP) protocol are based on the number of vessels that land Surfclams or ocean quahogs and the number of trips taken into the area.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     194 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     This request is for an extension of a currently approved collection associated with the Atlantic surfclam and ocean quahog fisheries. National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) Greater Atlantic Region manages these fisheries in the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of the Northeastern United States through the Atlantic Surfclam and Ocean Quahog Fishery Management Plan (FMP). The Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council prepared the FMP pursuant to the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act). The regulations implementing the FMP are specified at 50 CFR part 648.
                </P>
                <P>The recordkeeping and reporting requirements at §§ 648.74, 648.75, and 648.76 form the basis for this collection of information. We request information from surfclam and ocean quahog individual transferable quota (ITQ) permit holders to issue ITQ permits and to process and track requests from permit holders to transfer quota share or cage tags. We also request information from surfclam and ocean quahog ITQ permit holders to track and properly account for surfclam and ocean quahog harvest shucked at sea. Because there is not a standard conversion factor for estimating unshucked product from shucked product, NMFS requires vessels that shuck product at sea to carry a NMFS-approved observer on board the vessel to certify the amount of these clams harvested. This information, upon receipt, results in an efficient and accurate database for management and monitoring of fisheries of the Northeastern U.S. EEZ.</P>
                <P>Georges Bank has been closed to the harvest of Surfclams and ocean quahogs since 1990 due to red tide blooms that cause paralytic shellfish poisoning (PSP). We reopened a portion of the Georges Bank Closed Area starting in 2012 under certain conditions. We request information from surfclam and ocean quahog ITQ permit holders who fish in the reopened area to ensure compliance with the Protocol for Onboard Screening and Dockside Testing in Molluscan Shellfish. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration, the commercial fishing industry, and NMFS developed the PSP protocol to test and verify that clams harvested from Georges Bank continue to be safe for human consumption. The National Shellfish Sanitation Program adopted the PSP protocol at the October 2011 Interstate Shellfish Sanitation Conference.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals and Business or other for-profit organizations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Frequency varies from collection to collection (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     annual, per trip, as requested by the public).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Mandatory.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Legal Authority:</E>
                     Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     Section 303).
                    <PRTPAGE P="58551"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    This information collection request may be viewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov.</E>
                     Follow the instructions to view the Department of Commerce collections currently under review by OMB.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function and entering either the title of the collection or the OMB Control Number 0648-0240.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sheleen Dumas,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Departmental PRA Compliance Officer, Office of the Under Secretary for Economic Affairs, Commerce Department.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23080 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: ED-2025-SCC-0514]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Application for Approval to Participate in Federal Student Aid Programs</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Department is proposing a revision of a currently approved information collection request (ICR).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for proposed information collection requests should be submitted within 30 days of publication of this notice. Click on this link 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                         to access the site. Find this information collection request (ICR) by selecting “Department of Education” under “Currently Under Review,” then check the “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox. 
                        <E T="03">Reginfo.gov</E>
                         provides two links to view documents related to this information collection request. Information collection forms and instructions may be found by clicking on the “View Information Collection (IC) List” link. Supporting statements and other supporting documentation may be found by clicking on the “View Supporting Statement and Other Documents” link.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Carolyn Rose, 202-453-5967.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Application for Approval to Participate in Federal Student Aid Programs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1845-0012.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     A revision of a currently approved ICR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     State, Local, and Tribal Governments; Private Sector 
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     4,248.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     16,097.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Section 487(c) of the Higher Education Act (HEA) of 1965, as amended, requires that the Secretary of Education prescribe regulations to ensure that any funds postsecondary institutions receive under the HEA are used solely for the purposes specified in and in accordance with the provision of the applicable programs.
                </P>
                <P>Part H, Subpart 3, Section 498 of the HEA of 1965, as amended, gives the Secretary the responsibility for determining qualifications of institutions of higher education to participate in programs under the HEA. To comply with this requirement Section 498(b) of the HEA specified that the Secretary prepare and prescribe a single application form. The Department of Education (the Department) developed the Application for Approval to Participate in the Federal Student Financial Aid Programs to comply with the statutory requirements of collecting necessary information under the HEA. An institution must use this Application to apply for approval to be determined to be eligible and if the institution wishes, to participate; to expand its eligibility; or to continue to participate in the Title IV programs. An institution must also use the Application to report certain required data as part of its recordkeeping requirements contained in the regulations under 34 CFR part 600 (Institutional Eligibility under the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended).</P>
                <P>The Department uses the information reported on the Application in its determination of whether an institution meets the statutory and regulatory requirements. This request is for a revision of the current information collection.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Brian Fu,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program and Management Analyst, Office of the Chief Data Officer, Office of Planning, Evaluation and Policy Development.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23135 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[DA 25-1008; FR ID 322147]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice Debarment; Federal Lifeline Program</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Enforcement Bureau (the “Bureau”) permanently debars Issa Asad from the federal Lifeline program (Lifeline Program) and all federal universal service support mechanisms.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Debarment commences on the date Mr. Issa Asad receives the debarment letter or December 17, 2025, whichever date comes first.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission, Enforcement Bureau, Investigations and Hearings Division, 45 L Street NE, Washington, DC 20554.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Christopher Sova, Federal Communications Commission, Enforcement Bureau, Investigations and Hearings Division, 45 L Street NE, Washington, DC 20554. Christopher Sova may be contacted by phone at (202) 418-1868 or by email at 
                        <E T="03">Christopher.Sova@fcc.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Bureau debars Mr. Asad from the federal Lifeline Program and all federal universal service support mechanisms pursuant to 47 CFR 54.8. Attached is the debarment letter, DA 25-1008, which was mailed to Mr. Asad and released on December 17, 2025. The complete text of the notice of debarment is available on the FCC's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://docs.fcc.gov/public/attachments/DA-25-1008A1.pdf.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58552"/>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <NAME>Christopher Sova,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief, Investigations and Hearings Division, Enforcement Bureau.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58553"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.077</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58554"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.078</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58555"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.079</GID>
                </GPH>
                <PRTPAGE P="58556"/>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23018 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-C</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[FR ID 294179]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Privacy Act of 1974; Matching Program</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (“Privacy Act”), this document announces a new computer matching program the Federal Communications Commission (“FCC” or “Commission” or “Agency”) and the Universal Service Administrative Company (USAC) will conduct with the Florida Department of Children and Families. The purpose of this matching program is to verify the eligibility of applicants to and subscribers of Lifeline, and the Affordable Connectivity Program (ACP), both of which are administered by USAC under the direction of the FCC.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments are due on or before January 16, 2026. This computer matching program will commence on January 16, 2026, and will conclude after 18 months.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send comments to Shana Yates, Federal Communications Commission, 45 L Street NE, Washington, DC 20554, or to 
                        <E T="03">Privacy@fcc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Shana Yates at (202) 418-0683 or 
                        <E T="03">Privacy@fcc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Lifeline program provides support for discounted broadband and voice services to low-income consumers. Lifeline is administered by the Universal Service Administrative Company (USAC) under FCC direction. Consumers qualify for Lifeline through proof of income or participation in a qualifying program, such as Medicaid, the Supplemental Nutritional Assistance Program (SNAP), Federal Public Housing Assistance, Supplemental Security Income (SSI), Veterans and Survivors Pension Benefit, or various Tribal-specific federal assistance programs.</P>
                <P>In the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021, Public Law 116-260, 134 Stat. 1182, 2129-36 (2020), Congress created the Emergency Broadband Benefit Program, and directed use of the National Verifier to determine eligibility based on various criteria, including the qualifications for Lifeline (Medicaid, SNAP, etc.). EBBP provided $3.2 billion in monthly consumer discounts for broadband service and one-time provider reimbursement for a connected device (laptop, desktop computer or tablet). In the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act, Public Law 117-58, 135 Stat. 429, 1238-44 (2021) (codified at 47 U.S.C. 1751-52), Congress modified and extended EBBP, provided an additional $14.2 billion, and renamed it the Affordable Connectivity Program (ACP). A household may qualify for the ACP benefit under various criteria, including an individual qualifying for the FCC's Lifeline program.</P>
                <P>
                    In a Report and Order adopted on March 31, 2016, (81 FR 33026, May 24, 2016) (
                    <E T="03">2016 Lifeline Modernization Order</E>
                    ), the Commission ordered USAC to create a National Lifeline Eligibility Verifier (“National Verifier”), including the National Lifeline Eligibility Database (LED), that would match data about Lifeline applicants and subscribers with other data sources to verify the eligibility of an applicant or subscriber. The Commission found that the National Verifier would reduce compliance costs for Lifeline service providers, improve service for Lifeline subscribers, and reduce waste, fraud, and abuse in the program.
                </P>
                <P>The Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2021 directs the FCC to leverage the National Verifier to verify applicants' eligibility for ACP. The purpose of this matching program is to verify the eligibility of Lifeline and ACP applicants and subscribers by determining whether they receive SNAP and Medicaid benefits administered by the Florida Department of Children and Families.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Participating Agencies</HD>
                <P>Florida Department of Children and Families (source agency); Federal Communications Commission (recipient agency); and Universal Service Administrative Company.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for Conducting the Matching Program</HD>
                <P>The authority to conduct the matching program for the FCC's ACP is 47 U.S.C. 1752(a) and (b). The authority to conduct the matching program for the FCC's Lifeline program is 47 U.S.C. 254(a) through (c), (j).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Purpose(s)</HD>
                <P>The purpose of this new matching agreement is to verify the eligibility of applicants and subscribers to Lifeline, as well as to ACP and other Federal programs that use qualification for Lifeline as an eligibility criterion. This new agreement will permit eligibility verification for the Lifeline program and ACP by checking an applicant's/subscriber's participation in SNAP and Medicaid in Florida. Under FCC rules, consumers receiving these benefits qualify for Lifeline discounts and also for ACP benefits.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Categories of Individuals</HD>
                <P>The categories of individuals whose information is involved in the matching program include, but are not limited to, those individuals who have applied for Lifeline and/or ACP benefits; are currently receiving Lifeline and/or ACP benefits; are individuals who enable another individual in their household to qualify for Lifeline and/or ACP benefits; are minors whose status qualifies a parent or guardian for Lifeline and/or ACP benefits; or are individuals who have received Lifeline and/or ACP benefits.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Categories of Records</HD>
                <P>The categories of records involved in the matching program include the last four digits of the applicant's Social Security Number, date of birth, first and last name. The National Verifier will transfer these data elements to the Florida Department of Children and Families which will respond either “yes” or “no” that the individual is enrolled in a qualifying assistance program: SNAP and Medicaid administered by the Florida Department of Children and Families.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">System(s) of Records</HD>
                <P>
                    The records shared as part of this matching program reside in the Lifeline system of records, FCC/WCB-1, Lifeline, which was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     at 89 FR 28777 (Apr. 19, 2024).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The records shared as part of this matching program reside in the ACP system of records, FCC/WCB-3, Affordable Connectivity Program, which was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     at 89 FR 28780 (Apr. 19, 2024).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23140 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (Act) (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58557"/>
                    CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the applications are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The public portions of the applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, if any, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank(s) indicated below and at the offices of the Board of Governors. This information may also be obtained on an expedited basis, upon request, by contacting the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank and from the Board's Freedom of Information Office at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.federalreserve.gov/foia/request.htm.</E>
                     Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in paragraph 7 of the Act.
                </P>
                <P>Comments received are subject to public disclosure. In general, comments received will be made available without change and will not be modified to remove personal or business information including confidential, contact, or other identifying information. Comments should not include any information such as confidential information that would not be appropriate for public disclosure.</P>
                <P>Comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors, Benjamin W. McDonough, Deputy Secretary of the Board, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551-0001, not later than January 2, 2026.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">A. Federal Reserve Bank of Minneapolis</E>
                     (Mark Nagle, Assistant Vice President) 90 Hennepin Avenue, Minneapolis, Minnesota 55480-0291. Comments can also be sent electronically to 
                    <E T="03">MA@mpls.frb.org:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Brianna Klegstad, Hallock, Minnesota; John A. Schumacher, West Fargo, North Dakota; and Jeffrey A. Schumacher, Grand Forks, North Dakota;</E>
                     as a group acting in concert, to retain voting shares of American Federal Corporation, and thereby indirectly retain voting shares of American Federal Bank, both of Fargo, North Dakota.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.</P>
                    <NAME>Michele Taylor Fennell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Secretary of the Board.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23108 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Extension</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Federal Trade Commission (FTC or Commission) is seeking public comment on its proposal to extend for an additional three years the current Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) clearance for information collection requirements contained in the FTC's Consumer Product Warranty Rule (Warranty Rule or Rule). The current clearance expires on April 30, 2026.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before February 17, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Interested parties may file a comment online or on paper, by following the instructions in the Request for Comment part of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section below. Write “Consumer Product Warranty Rule; PRA Comment, P044403,” on your comment, and file your comment online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         by following the instructions on the web-based form. If you prefer to file your comment on paper, mail your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Mail Stop H-144 (Annex E), Washington, DC 20580.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sung W. Kim, Attorney, Division of Marketing Practices, Bureau of Consumer Protection, Federal Trade Commission, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20580, (202) 326-2211; 
                        <E T="03">skim6@ftc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Rule Concerning Disclosure of Written Consumer Product Warranty Terms and Conditions, 16 CFR part 701.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3084-0111.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Warranty Rule is one of three rules 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that the FTC implemented pursuant to requirements of the Magnuson-Moss Warranty Act, 15 U.S.C. 2301 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                     (Warranty Act or Act).
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Warranty Rule specifies the information that must appear in a written warranty on a consumer product 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     costing more than $15. The Rule tracks Section 102(a) of the Warranty Act,
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     specifying information that must appear in the written warranty and, for certain disclosures, mandates the exact language that must be used.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Neither the Warranty Rule nor the Act requires that a manufacturer or retailer warrant a consumer product in writing, but if they choose to do so, the warranty must comply with the Rule.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The other two rules relate to the pre-sale availability of warranty terms and minimum standards for informal dispute settlement mechanisms that are incorporated into a written warranty.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         40 FR 60168 (Dec. 31, 1975).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The definition of 
                        <E T="03">consumer product</E>
                         excludes products purchased solely for commercial or industrial use. 16 CFR 701.1(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 2302(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         40 FR 60168, 60169-60170.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Hours Burden:</E>
                     209,048 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Labor Cost Burden:</E>
                     $28,977,188.
                </P>
                <P>As required by Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A), the FTC is providing this opportunity for public comment before requesting that OMB extend the existing clearance for the information collection requirements contained in the Warranty Rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Burden Statement</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total annual hours burden:</E>
                     209,048 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In its 2022 submission to OMB, the FTC estimated that the information collection burden of including the disclosures required by the Warranty Rule was 216,752 hours per year. Although the Rule's information collection requirements have not changed, the current estimate decreases the number of manufacturers subject to the Rule based on recent Census data.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Further, because most warrantors likely would continue to disclose the information required by the Rule, even if there were no statute or rule requiring them to do so, staff's estimates likely overstate the PRA-related burden attributable to the Rule. Moreover, the Warranty Rule has been in effect since 1976, and warrantors have long since modified their warranties to include the information the Rule requires.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The Number of Firms and Establishments, Employment, and Annual Payroll by State, Industry, and Enterprise Employment Size: 2022, release date: 4/10/2025, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.census.gov/data/tables/2022/econ/susb/2022-susb-annual.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Based on conversations with various warrantors' representatives over the years, staff has concluded that eight hours per year is a reasonable estimate of warrantors' PRA-related burden attributable to the Warranty Rule. This estimate includes the number of hours warrantors may need to ensure new warranties and any changes to existing warranties comply with the Rule. Based on recent Census data, staff now estimates that there are 26,131 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58558"/>
                    manufacturers covered by the Rule.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This results in an annual burden estimate of approximately 209,048 hours (26,131 manufacturers × 8 hours of burden per year).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Because some manufacturers likely make products that are not priced above $15 or not intended for household use—and thus would not be subject to the Rule—this figure is likely an overstatement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total annual labor costs:</E>
                     $28,977,188.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Labor costs are derived by applying appropriate hourly cost figures to the burden hours described above. The work required to comply with the Warranty Rule—ensuring that new warranties and changes to existing warranties comply with the Rule—requires a mix of legal analysis (50%), legal support (paralegals) (25%) and clerical help (25%). Staff estimates that half of the total burden hours (104,524 hours) requires legal analysis at an average hourly wage of $250 for legal professionals,
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     resulting in a labor cost of $26,131,000. Assuming that 25% of the total burden hours requires legal support at the average hourly wage of $32.60, and that the remaining 25% requires clerical work at an average hourly wage of $21.86, the resulting labor cost is approximately $2,846,188 ($1,703,741 + $1,142,447). Thus, the total annual labor cost is approximately $28,977,188 ($26,131,000 for legal professionals + $1,703,741 for legal support + $1,142,447 for clerical workers).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Staff has derived an hourly wage rate for legal professionals based upon industry knowledge. The hourly wage rates for legal support workers and for clerical support are based on mean hourly wages available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/news.release/ocwage.htm</E>
                         (“Occupational Employment and Wages—May 2024,” U.S. Department of Labor, released April 2, 2025, Table 1 (“National employment and wage data from the Occupational Employment Statistics survey by occupation, May 2024”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Total Capital and Start-Up Costs</HD>
                <P>The Rule imposes no appreciable current capital or start-up costs that businesses do not already spend in the normal course of business. To comply with the Warranty Rule, warrantors need only the ordinary office equipment to draft new warranties and to change the wording of existing warranties to include the required disclosures. Thus, compliance requires no capital equipment or special technology apart from what the manufacturer or seller would already be using as part of the normal course of business, such as computer or other word processing equipment, and photocopying equipment. Similarly, distribution of the warranty does not impose any special capital costs apart from the packaging and printing equipment already in use by the business. It is not possible to state with any precision what fraction of the cost of that equipment could be attributed to distributing the warranty.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Total Operation/Maintenance/Purchase of Services Costs</HD>
                <P>The only ongoing costs involved with compliance are those costs associated with maintenance and repair of computer word processing and photocopying equipment used to generate the warranty document that contains the required disclosures. These are costs that the seller or manufacturer already bears in the normal cost of business; it is unlikely that Warranty Rule compliance would impose significant incremental costs. Likewise, the cost of distributing warranty information involves such things as the purchase of supplies (such as paper), the maintenance of equipment, or the purchase of services to print, package, and distribute the warranty. These are costs that would be already built into the packaging and distribution of the product itself and which are already assumed as part of the normal course of business.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, the FTC invites comments on: (1) whether the information collection requirements are necessary, including whether the information will be practically useful; (2) the accuracy of our burden estimates, including whether the methodology and assumptions used are valid; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information.</P>
                <P>
                    For the FTC to consider a comment, we must receive it on or before February 17, 2026. Your comment, including your name and your state, will be placed on the public record of this proceeding, including the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     website.
                </P>
                <P>
                    You can file a comment online or on paper. Due to heightened security screening, postal mail addressed to the Commission will be subject to delay. We encourage you to submit your comments online through the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     website.
                </P>
                <P>If you file your comment on paper, write “Regulation V, subpart N; PRA Comment, P085405,” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail it to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Mail Stop H-144 (Annex E), Washington, DC 20580.</P>
                <P>
                    Because your comment will become publicly available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     you are solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive or confidential information. In particular, your comment should not include any sensitive personal information, such as your or anyone else's Social Security number; date of birth; driver's license number or other state identification number, or foreign country equivalent; passport number; financial account number; or credit or debit card number. You are also solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive health information, such as medical records or other individually identifiable health information. In addition, your comment should not include any “trade secret or any commercial or financial information which . . . is privileged or confidential”—as provided by Section 6(f) of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 4.10(a)(2), 16 CFR 4.10(a)(2)—including, in particular, competitively sensitive information, such as costs, sales statistics, inventories, formulas, patterns, devices, manufacturing processes, or customer names.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Comments containing material for which confidential treatment is requested must (1) be filed in paper form, (2) be clearly labeled “Confidential,” and (3) comply with FTC Rule 4.9(c). In particular, the written request for confidential treatment that accompanies the comment must include the factual and legal basis for the request, and must identify the specific portions of the comment to be withheld from the public record. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     FTC Rule 4.9(c). Your comment will be kept confidential only if the General Counsel grants your request in accordance with the law and the public interest. Once your comment has been posted publicly at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     we cannot redact or remove your comment unless you submit a confidentiality request that meets the requirements for such treatment under FTC Rule 4.9(c), and the General Counsel grants that request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The FTC Act and other laws that the Commission administers permit the collection of public comments to consider and use in this proceeding as appropriate. The Commission will consider all timely and responsive public comments that it receives on or before February 17, 2026. For information on the Commission's privacy policy, including routine uses permitted by the Privacy Act, see 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58559"/>
                    <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/site-information/privacy-policy.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Josephine Liu,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant General Counsel for Legal Counsel. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23079 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6750-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">GENERAL SERVICES ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 3090-0235; Docket No. 2025-0001; Sequence No. 16]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation; Federal Supply Schedule Pricing Disclosures and Sales Reporting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Acquisition Policy, General Services Administration (GSA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division is submitting a request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement regarding OMB Control No. 3090-0235, Federal Supply Schedule Pricing Disclosures and Sales Reporting.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments on or before: January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for this information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                        . Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mr. Thomas O'Linn, Procurement Analyst, General Services Acquisition Policy Division, GSA, 202-445-0390 or email 
                        <E T="03">gsarpolicy@gsa.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    This information collection is for GSA Federal Supply Schedules (FSS) offerors and contractors subject to certain pricing disclosures and sales reporting requirements (
                    <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                     referred to as CSP/PRC requirements). CSP/PRC requirements are found within the basic version of General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation (GSAR) clause 552.238-80, Industrial Funding Fee and Sales Reporting and the basic version of GSAR clause 552.238-81, Price Reductions; GSAR section 515.408(b) and (c); GSAR clause 552.238-83 Examination of Records by GSA; GSAR clause 552.238-85, Contractor's Billing Responsibilities; and GSAR clause 552.238-120, Economic Price Adjustment—Federal Supply Schedule Contracts. This information collection does not apply to GSA FSS offerors and contractors subject to Transactional Data Reporting (TDR) requirements. The burden associated with TDR requirements is covered under information collection OMB control number 3090-0306, Transactional Data Reporting.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Annual Reporting Burden</HD>
                <P>The total estimated annual public cost burden and total estimated annual public burden hours for this information collection is estimated to be:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="xl25,xl25,xl25">
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Year 1</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Year 2</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Year 3</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            $84,629,455 
                            <LI>935,622</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            $0 Cost
                            <LI>0 hours</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            $0 Cost
                            <LI>0 hours</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>These estimates are calculated by adding up the total estimated annual burden cost/hour for each of the GSAR clauses covered by this information collection. Additionally, these estimates take into account the following impacts:</P>
                <P>
                    1. During the renewal period of this information collection FSS offerors and contractors will no longer be subject to the aforementioned CSP/PRC requirements and instead will be covered by TDR requirements. The transition to TDR is based on Class Deviation CD-2025-13, 
                    <E T="03">Revised Transactional Data Reporting (TDR) Requirements for the Federal Supply Schedule (FSS) Program,</E>
                     which was issued on June 26, 2025. The class deviation (CD) amends the GSAR to remove CSP/PRC and make TDR requirements mandatory for the FSS program. 
                </P>
                <P>As a result of this CD—</P>
                <P>a. The FSS solicitation will be amended to remove CSP/PRC requirements.</P>
                <P>b. Existing FSS contractors will need to transition to TDR. GSA anticipates the transition to be completed by the end of Year 1 of this renewal period.</P>
                <P>2. Alternate I of GSAR clause 552.216-70, Economic Price Adjustment—FSS Multiple Award Schedule Contract, was replaced by GSAR clause 552.238-120, Economic Price Adjustment—Federal Supply Schedule Contracts. This new clause is less burdensome than the prior clause and provides more flexibility.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Public Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    A 60-day notice was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     at 90 FR 47307 on October 1, 2025. No public comments were received.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey A. Koses,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Senior Procurement Executive, Office of Acquisition Policy, Office of Government-wide Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23082 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6820-61-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">GENERAL SERVICES ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 3090-0320; Docket No. 2025-0001; Sequence No. 18]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation; Construction Manager as Constructor (CMc)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Acquisition Policy, General Services Administration (GSA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) regulations, GSA invites the public to comment on an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement regarding OMB Control No. 3090-0320 Construction Manager as Constructor (CMc).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments on or before January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for this information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Amy Lara, 816-589-3783, General Services Acquisition Policy Division, by email at 
                        <E T="03">gsarpolicy@gsa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation (GSAR) 552.236-79, Construction-Contractor-as-Constructor, requires the contractor to submit a proposal to establish the final estimated cost of the work, to convert the contract to a firm-fixed-price, and to determine the final settlement for construction-manager-as-constructor (CMc) projects.</P>
                <P>
                    The CMc refers to a project management and contracting technique that is one of three predominant methods used for acquiring construction services by GSA. The other two methods are design-bid-build and design-build. The private sector commonly uses a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58560"/>
                    similar construction project delivery method, which allows for early industry engagement by the construction contractor to enable reduced cost growth, reduced schedule growth, and administrative savings.
                </P>
                <P>The information is used by contracting officers to evaluate proposals and negotiate contract modifications during contract administration. This collection supports the Government's shift toward category management by providing a more robust playbook framework for efficient procurement of construction services.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Annual Reporting Burden</HD>
                <P>Total public reporting burden for this collection of information is estimated to average 400 total hours ($33,300) annually, including the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering, and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information. The estimated burden hours to the public for the below clauses are as follows:</P>
                <P>GSAR 552.236-79, Construction-Contractor-as-Constructor, requires the contractor to submit a proposal to establish the final estimated cost of the work, to convert the contract to a firm-fixed-price, and to determine the final settlement.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     10.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     10.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Hours per Response:</E>
                     40.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Response Burden Hours:</E>
                     400.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Cost per Hour:</E>
                     $83.25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Cost Burden to the Public:</E>
                     $33,300.
                </P>
                <P>
                    GSAR 552.236-80, Accounting Records, contains a recordkeeping requirement that is subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). The clause requires the contractor to keep all relevant documents for a period of three years after the final payment. However, the clause does not add burden to what is already estimated for the existing FAR clause at 52.215-2, Audit and Records by a previous information collection (see OMB Control Number 9000-0034).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Public Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    A 60-day notice published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     at 90 FR 42410 on September 2, 2025. No public comments were received.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey A. Koses,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Senior Procurement Executive, Office of Acquisition Policy, Office of Government-wide Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23084 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6820-61-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">GENERAL SERVICES ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 3090-0306; Docket No. 2025-0001; Sequence No. 17]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation; Transactional Data Reporting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Acquisition Policy, General Services Administration (GSA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division is submitting a request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement regarding OMB Control No. 3090-0306, Transactional Data Reporting.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments on or before: January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for this information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mr. Thomas O'Linn, Procurement Analyst, General Services Acquisition Policy, Division, GSA, 202-445-0390 or email 
                        <E T="03">gsarpolicy@gsa.gov</E>
                        . 
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Purpose</HD>
                <P>This information collection is for GSA Federal Supply Schedules (FSS) and non-FSS offerors and contractors subject to transactional data report (TDR) requirements. Transactional data encompasses the historical details of the products or services delivered by a contractor during the performance of task or delivery orders issued against a contract subject to TDR requirements. TDR requirements are found within Alternate I of General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation (GSAR) clause 552.238-80, Industrial Funding Fee and Sales Reporting; 552.216-75, Transactional Data Reporting; Alternate I of 552.238-81, Price Reductions; 552.238-83 Examination of Records by GSA; 552.238-85, Contractor's Billing Responsibilities; and 552.238-120, Economic Price Adjustment—Federal Supply Schedule Contracts. This information collection does not apply to GSA FSS offerors and contractors subject to pricing disclosures and sales reporting requirements. The burden associated with pricing disclosures and sales reporting requirements is covered under information collection OMB control number 3090-0235, Federal Supply Schedule Pricing Disclosures and Sales Reporting.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Annual Reporting Burden</HD>
                <P>The total estimated annual public cost burden and total estimated annual public burden hours for this information collection is estimated to be:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="xl50,xl50">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Year 1</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Years 2 &amp; 3</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            $121,766,340 Cost
                            <LI>1,553,495 hour</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            $69,731,624 Cost
                            <LI>1,044,217 hours</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The reason Year 1 numbers are higher than Years 2 &amp; 3 numbers is due to the transition of existing FSS non-TDR contracts to TDR during Year 1 of this renewal period.</P>
                <P>These estimates are calculated by adding up the total estimated annual burden cost/hour for each of the GSAR clauses covered by this information collection. Additionally, these estimates take into account the following impacts:</P>
                <P>
                    1. During the renewal period of this information collection, all FSS offerors and contractors will fall under TDR (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     FSS offerors and contractors will no longer be subject to the aforementioned pricing disclosures and sales reporting requirements). The transition to TDR is based on Class Deviation CD-2025-13, 
                    <E T="03">Revised Transactional Data Reporting (TDR) Requirements for the Federal Supply Schedule (FSS) Program,</E>
                     which was issued on June 26, 2025. The class deviation (CD) amends the GSAR to remove certain pricing disclosures and sales reporting requirements and makes TDR requirements mandatory for the FSS program. As a result of this CD,
                </P>
                <P>a. The FSS solicitation will be amended to remove pricing disclosures and sales reporting requirements.</P>
                <P>b. Existing FSS contractors will need to transition to TDR. GSA anticipates the transition to be completed by the end of Year 1 of this renewal period.</P>
                <P>2. Alternate I of GSAR clause 552.216-70, Economic Price Adjustment—FSS Multiple Award Schedule Contract, was replaced by GSAR clause 552.238-120, Economic Price Adjustment—Federal Supply Schedule Contracts. This new clause is less burdensome than the prior clause and provides more flexibility.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Burden Cost/Hour Calculation</HD>
                <P>
                    The following provides the basis for calculating the burden cost/hour for GSA clauses 552.216-75, and Alternate 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58561"/>
                    I of GSAR clause 552.238-80. These calculations account for the aforementioned transition to TDR during this renewal period.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Initial Setup:</E>
                </P>
                <P>○ Estimated hourly rate &amp; job position equivalency. The estimated hourly cost associated with this task is based on the task being accomplished by senior level personnel equivalent to a GS-14, Step 5 employee. A GS-14, Step 5 employee hourly rate for 2025 is $92.15 (“Rest of U.S.” locality using OPM Salary Table 2025-RUS, Effective January 2025).</P>
                <P>
                    ○ Estimated hours by system for initial set-up. A contractor complying with TDR requirements will absorb a one-time setup burden for purposes of establishing a reporting system (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     automated reporting system vs. manual reporting system). The estimated setup time varies between automated and manual reporting systems. GSA estimates the average one-time initial setup burden is 10 hours for a manual system and 245 hours for an automated system.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Monthly Reporting:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    ○ Estimated hourly rate &amp; job position equivalency. The estimated hourly cost associated with this task is based on the task being accomplished by mid-level personnel equivalent to a GS-12, Step 5 employee. A GS-12, Step 5 employee hourly rate for 2022 is $65.58 (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     using “Rest of U.S.” locality within the OPM Salary Table for 2022-RUS, Effective January 2025).
                </P>
                <P>○ Categorization of contractors by sales revenue. GSA estimates the likelihood of contractors with lower to no reportable sales will spend relatively little time on reporting. In contrast, contractors with more reportable sales will face a higher reporting burden. To account for this difference, GSA is using the below sales revenue categories:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    Category 1: No sales activity/revenue (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     $0.00)
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Category 2: Sales between $0.01 and $25,000.00</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Category 3: Sales between $25,000.01 and $250,000.00</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Category 4: Sales between $250,000.01 and $1 million</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Category 5: Sales over $1 million</FP>
                <P>○ Automated system vs. manual reporting system. GSA estimates the likelihood of a contractor creating an automated reporting system increases with a contractor's sales revenue. In contrast, contractors with little to no sales revenue are unlikely to expend the effort needed to establish an automated reporting system. To account for this difference, GSA is using the below table. The below table shows by sales revenue category the estimated percentage of the likelihood of a contractor using a manual reporting system vs automated reporting system:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Percentage of Contractors by Type of Reporting System</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Sales revenue category</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Manual 
                            <LI>system</LI>
                            <LI>(%)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Automated system
                            <LI>(%)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 2</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 3</ENT>
                        <ENT>90</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 4</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 5</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>90</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    ○ Estimated monthly reporting time (hours)—by reporting system and sales revenue category. GSA estimates that the monthly reporting time varies by type of reporting system (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     manual or automated) and by respective sales revenue category. The below table shows GSA's estimated monthly reporting times per sales revenue category and system type:
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Monthly Hours by Type of Reporting System and Sales Revenue Category</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Manual 
                            <LI>systems</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Automated systems</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 2</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 3</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 4</ENT>
                        <ENT>18</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Category 5</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">GSAR Clause 552.216-75, Transactional Data Reporting</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Initial Setup</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual burden hours:</E>
                     1,610
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual cost burden:</E>
                     $148,355
                </FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Monthly Reporting</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual burden hours:</E>
                     222,018
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual cost burden:</E>
                     $14,559,302
                </FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Alternate I of GSAR Clause 552.238-80, Industrial Funding Fee and Sales Reporting</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Initial SetUp (New Awardees)(Both Manual and Automated)</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual burden hours:</E>
                     35,485
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual cost burden:</E>
                     $3,269,796
                </FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Initial Setup (One Time Burden To Account for Existing Non-TDR FSS Contracts Transition to TDR)(Both Manual and Automated)</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual burden hours:</E>
                     706,695
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual cost burden:</E>
                     $65,119,029
                </FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Monthly Reporting</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Year 1 (Both Manual and Automated)</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual burden hours:</E>
                     582,756
                    <PRTPAGE P="58562"/>
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual cost burden:</E>
                     $38,215,463
                </FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Years 2 &amp; 3 (Both Manual and Automated)</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual burden hours:</E>
                     774,966
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual cost burden:</E>
                     $50,820,042
                </FP>
                <P>The total estimated burden (hours/cost) for the remaining clauses covered by this information collection are as follows. These calculations account for the aforementioned transition to TDR during this renewal period as well.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">552.238-120, Economic Price Adjustment—Federal Supply Schedule Contracts</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Year 1</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Estimated # of responses per year:</E>
                     600
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Estimated burden hours per response:</E>
                     × 4.25
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual burden hours:</E>
                     2,550
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Estimated cost per hour **:</E>
                     × $92.15
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimate annual cost burden:</E>
                     $234,972
                </FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Years 2 &amp; 3</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Estimated # of responses per year:</E>
                     1800
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Estimated burden hours per response:</E>
                     × 4.25
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual burden hours:</E>
                     7,650
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Estimated cost per hour **:</E>
                     × $92.15
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimate annual cost burden:</E>
                     $704,916
                </FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Alternate I of GSAR Clause 552.238-81, Price Reductions</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Year 1</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Estimated # of responses per year:</E>
                     25
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Estimated burden hours per response:</E>
                     × 4.25
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual burden hours:</E>
                     106
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Estimated cost per hour **:</E>
                     × $92.15
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimate annual cost burden:</E>
                     $9,790
                </FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Years 2 &amp; 3</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Estimated # of responses per year:</E>
                     50
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Estimated burden hours per response:</E>
                     × 4.25
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual burden hours:</E>
                     213
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Estimated cost per hour **:</E>
                     × $92.15
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimate annual cost burden:</E>
                     $19,581
                </FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">552.238-83, Examination of Records by GSA</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Year 1 Through Year 3</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Estimated # of respondents per year:</E>
                     5
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Estimated burden hours per respondent:</E>
                     × 455
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual burden hours:</E>
                     2,275
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Estimated cost per hour **:</E>
                     × $92.15
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Total estimated annual cost burden:</E>
                     $209,632
                </FP>
                <P>552.238-85, Contractor's Billing Responsibilities, is 0 burden hours/$0.00 burden cost for Years 1 through 3. The reason for zero burden being associated with this clause is because the record keeping requirement contained in this clause does not add any additional burden to what is already captured by Alternate I of GSAR clause 552.238-80, which is covered by this information collection.</P>
                <P>** The estimated cost per hour is based on the task being accomplished by personnel equivalent to a GS-14, Step 5. A GSA-14, Step 5 employee hourly rate for 2025 is $92.15.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Public Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    A 60-day notice was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     at 90 FR 47308 on October 1, 2025. One comment was received; however, the comment did not change the estimate of the burden. The respondents' comment supports the importance of the information collection and included information about an automated solution for purposes of assisting contractors with reporting. The respondents' input is appreciated.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey A. Koses, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Senior Procurement Executive, Office of Acquisition Policy, Office of Government-wide Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23083 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6820-61-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This notice announces the intention of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) to request that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approve the reinstatement without change of the previously approved information collection project “Online Submission Form for Supplemental Evidence and Data for Systematic Reviews for the Evidence-based Practice Center Program.” (OMB No. 0935-0231). This information collection was previously published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on September 19, 2025, and allowed 60 days for public comment. AHRQ did not receive any comments. The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comment.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this notice must be received by January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                    <P>Copies of the proposed collection plans, data collection instruments, and specific details on the estimated burden can be obtained from the AHRQ Reports Clearance Officer.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Margie Shofer, AHRQ Reports Clearance Officer, 301-427-1696 or by email at 
                        <E T="03">REPORTSCLEARANCEOFFICER@ahrq.hhs.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Project</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Online Submission Form for Supplemental Evidence and Data for Systematic Reviews for the Evidence-Based Practice</HD>
                <P>
                    AHRQ's EPC Program develops evidence reports on topics relevant to clinical and other health care organization and delivery issues—specifically those that are common, expensive, and/or significant for the Medicare and Medicaid populations. For example, recent reviews have focused on clinical conditions, such as “Cervical Degenerative Disease Treatment: A Systematic Review”; health delivery topics such as “Postpartum Care up to 1 Year After Pregnancy: A Systematic Review and Meta-Analysis”; and specific technologies such as “Blood-Based Tests for Multiple Cancer Screening: A Systematic Review.” These evidence reports include systematic reviews, technical briefs, and rapid reviews, and provide an essential foundation from which to understand what we know from existing research and what critical research gaps remain. These reports and reviews are based on rigorous, comprehensive syntheses and analyses of the scientific literature on topics. EPC reports and assessments emphasize explicit and detailed documentation of methods, rationale, and assumptions. EPC reports are conducted in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58563"/>
                    accordance with an established policy on financial and nonfinancial interests. These scientific syntheses may include meta-analyses.
                </P>
                <P>The EPC Program supports AHRQ's mission by synthesizing and disseminating the available research as a “science partner” with private and public organizations in their efforts to improve the quality, effectiveness, and appropriateness of health care. The EPC Program is a trusted source of rigorous, comprehensive, and unbiased evidence reviews for stakeholders. The resulting evidence reports are used by Federal and State agencies, private-sector professional societies, health delivery systems, providers, payers, and others committed to evidence-based health care. These end-users may use EPC Program evidence reports to inform policy decisions, clinical practice guidelines, and other healthcare decisions.</P>
                <P>AHRQ requests that OMB approve the renewal, without change, of the “Online Submission Form for Supplemental Evidence and Data for Systematic Reviews for the Evidence-based Practice” (OMB No. 0935-0231, last approved on November 22, 2022).</P>
                <P>This activity, Online Submission Form for Supplemental Evidence and Data for Systematic Reviews for the Evidence-based Practice Center Program, seeks to answer the following research question:</P>
                <P>1. Are there research studies or other information that can promote the comprehensiveness of AHRQ Evidence-based Practice Center Program evidence reviews?</P>
                <P>This research has the following goals:</P>
                <P>1. Use research methods to gather knowledge on the effectiveness and harms of certain treatments and healthcare delivery processes and models for medical conditions, both published and unpublished, to evaluate the quality of research studies and the evidence from these studies.</P>
                <P>2. Promote the use of evidence in healthcare decision making to improve healthcare and health.</P>
                <P>3. Identify research gaps to inform future research investments.</P>
                <P>This study is being conducted by AHRQ through its contractor, Portland VA Research Foundation, with website assistance from another contractor, Riva Solutions, pursuant to AHRQ's statutory authority to conduct and support research on health care and on systems for the delivery of such care, including activities with respect to the quality, effectiveness, efficiency, appropriateness and value of healthcare services and with respect to quality measurement and improvement [42 U.S.C 299a(a)(1) and (2)].</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Method of Collection</HD>
                <P>To achieve the goals of this project the following data collection will be implemented:</P>
                <P>
                    • Online Submission Form. This information is collected for the purposes of providing supplemental evidence and data for systematic reviews (SEADS). The online submission form (OSF) collects data from respondents on their name, organization name, description of the submission, medical condition, intervention, and email address. For the purposes of meta-analyses, trial summary data from missing and unidentified studies are sought. For the purposes of constructing evidence tables and quality ratings (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     on public reporting of cost measures or health information exchange), data can vary (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     URLs, study designs, and consumer-mediated exchange forms). Information on both completed and ongoing studies are requested. Submitters may alternatively email their submission to the AHRQ EPC mailbox at 
                    <E T="03">epc@ahrq.hhs.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The EPC Program currently uses broad-based email announcement to stakeholders and through AHRQ listservs, and in some cases an additional 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice to allow the public to know about each topic, and the opportunity to submit scientific information. AHRQ plans to conduct one SEADS collection per topic. Up to twenty-four topics per year with SEADS portals are anticipated; over the past 3 years the number of SEADS portals has ranged from 10-19; with an average range of 0-11 potential respondents per topic. The EPC Program does not anticipate more than 40 topics per year with SEADS portals.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Estimated Annual Respondent Burden</HD>
                <P>Exhibit 1 presents estimates of the reporting burden hours for the data collection efforts. Time estimates are based on pilot testing of materials and what can reasonably be requested of respondents. The number of respondents listed in “Number of respondents” of Exhibit 1 reflects a projected upper range response rate per SEADS portal multiplied by the anticipated upper limit of number of SEADS portals per year, based on historical information over the past 3 years. The total burden is estimated to be 50 hours.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,13,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Exhibit 1—Estimated Annualized Burden Hours</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Form name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Hours per
                            <LI>response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Online Submission Form (OSF)</ENT>
                        <ENT>200</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>15/60</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>200</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>15/60</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Exhibit 2 shows the annualized cost burden to submit the Online Submission Form. The cost burden is estimated to be $7,449.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Exhibit 2—Estimated Annualized Cost Burden</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Form name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>hourly</LI>
                            <LI>wage rate *</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Adjusted
                            <LI>hourly</LI>
                            <LI>wage rate **</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total cost
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">OSF</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>$74.49</ENT>
                        <ENT>$148.98</ENT>
                        <ENT>$7,449</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="58564"/>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,449</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        * Occupational Employment Statistics, May 2024 National Occupational Employment and Wage Estimates United States, U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics. Based on the mean wages for 
                        <E T="03">Public Relations and Fundraising Managers, 11-2030,</E>
                         the occupational group most likely tasked with completing the OSF. 
                        <E T="03">http://www.bls.gov/oes/current/oes_nat.htm#b29-0000.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>** The Adjusted Hourly Rate was estimated at 200% of the hourly wage.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520, comments on AHRQ's information collection are requested with regard to any of the following: (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of AHRQ's health care research and health care information dissemination functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of AHRQ's estimate of burden (including hours and costs) of the proposed collection(s) of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information upon the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the Agency's subsequent request for OMB approval of the proposed information collection. All comments will become a matter of public record.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey Toven,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23094 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4160-90-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This notice announces the intention of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) to request that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approve the reinstatement without change of the previously approved information collection project “Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality's (AHRQ) Child Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (Child HCAHPS) Survey Database.” (OMB No. 0935-0243) This information collection was previously published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on September 25, 2025, and allowed 60 days for public comment. No comments were received by AHRQ. The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comment.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this notice must be received by January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function. Copies of the proposed collection plans, data collection instruments, and specific details on the estimated burden can be obtained from the AHRQ Reports Clearance Officer.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Margie Shofer, AHRQ Reports Clearance Officer, 301-427-1696 or by email at 
                        <E T="03">REPORTSCLEARANCEOFFICER@ahrq.hhs.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Project</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality's (AHRQ) Child Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (Child HCAHPS) Survey Database</HD>
                <P>The Child HCAHPS survey assesses the experiences of pediatric patients (less than 18 years old) and their parents or guardians with inpatient care. It complements the CAHPS Adult Hospital Survey (HCAHPS), which asks adult inpatients about their experiences. The Child HCAHPS Survey Database is a voluntary database available to all Child HCAHPS users to support both quality improvement and research to enhance the patient-centeredness of care delivered to pediatric hospital patients. AHRQ requests that OMB approve the reinstatement, without change, of AHRQ's collection of information for the Child HCAHPS Survey Database (OMB Control number 0935-0243, last approved on October 12, 2022).</P>
                <P>Like the survey instrument itself and related toolkit materials to support survey implementation, aggregated Child HCAHPS Survey Database results will be made publicly available on AHRQ's CAHPS website. Technical assistance will be provided by AHRQ through its contractor at no charge to hospitals to facilitate the access and use of these materials for quality improvement and research. Technical assistance is also provided to support Child HCAHPS data submission.</P>
                <P>The Child HCAHPS Survey Database supports AHRQ's goals of promoting improvements in the quality and patient-centeredness of health care in pediatric hospital settings.</P>
                <P>This research seeks to answer the following research questions:</P>
                <P>1. What are the key drivers of patient experience in pediatric settings?</P>
                <P>2. How do pediatric patients experience of care vary across the West, Midwest, South, and Northeast regions?</P>
                <P>3. What are the highest and lowest scoring measures in specific areas of care for pediatric hospitals?</P>
                <P>This research has the following goals:</P>
                <P>1. Improve care provided by individual hospitals and hospital systems.</P>
                <P>2. Offer several products and services, including providing survey results presented through summary chartbooks, custom analyses, private reports and data for research purposes.</P>
                <P>3. Provides information to help identify strengths and areas with potential for improvement in patient care.</P>
                <P>Survey data from the Child HCAHPS Survey Database will be used to produce two types of reporting products:</P>
                <P>
                    • Hospital Feedback Reports. Hospitals that submit data will have access to a customized report that presents findings for their individual submission along with results from the database overall. These “private” 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58565"/>
                    hospital feedback reports will display sortable results for each of the Child HCAHPS core composite measures and for each individual survey item that forms the composite measure.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Child HCAHPS Chartbook. A summary-level Chartbook will be compiled to display top box and other proportional scores for the Child HCAHPS items and composite measures broken out by selected hospital characteristics (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     region, hospital size, ownership and affiliation, etc.).
                </P>
                <P>This study is being conducted by AHRQ through its contractor, Westat, pursuant to AHRQ's statutory authority to conduct and support research on health care and on systems for the delivery of such care, including activities with respect to the quality, effectiveness, efficiency, appropriateness and value of healthcare services; to quality measurement and improvement; and health surveys and database development [42 U.S.C 299a(a)(1), (2), and (8)].</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Method of Collection</HD>
                <P>To achieve the goals of this project, the following data collections will be implemented:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Registration with the submission website to obtain an account with a secure username and password:</E>
                     The point-of-contact (POC), often the hospital, completes a number of data submission steps and forms, beginning with the completion of the online registration form. The purpose of this form is to collect basic contact information about the organization and initiate the registration process;
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Submission of signed Data Use Agreements (DUAs) and survey questionnaires:</E>
                     The purpose of the data use agreement, completed by the participating hospital, is to state how data submitted by or on behalf of hospitals will be used and provide confidentiality assurances;
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Submission of hospital information form:</E>
                     The purpose of this form, completed by the participating organization, is to collect background characteristics of the hospital;
                </P>
                <P>• Submission of survey data files: POCs upload their data file using the Hospital data file specifications to ensure that users submit standardized and consistent data in the way variables are named, coded, and formatted.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Estimated Annual Respondent Burden</HD>
                <P>Exhibit 1 shows the estimated burden hours for the respondent to participate in the database. The 54 POCs in Exhibit 1 are a combination of an estimated 50 hospitals that currently administer the Child HCAHPS survey and the four survey vendors assisting them.</P>
                <P>Each hospital will register online for submission. The online Registration form will require about five minutes to complete. Each submitter will also complete a hospital information form. The online hospital information form takes on average five minutes to complete. The DUA will be completed by each of the 50 participating hospitals. Survey vendors do not sign or submit DUAs. The DUAs are submitted by the participating hospitals and requires about three minutes to sign and upload to the online submission system. Each submitter, which in most cases will be the survey vendor performing the data collection, will provide a copy of their questionnaire and the survey data file in the required file format. Survey data files must conform to the data file layout specifications provided by the Child HCAHPS Survey Database. Since the unit of analysis is at the hospital level, submitters will upload one data file per hospital. Once a data file is uploaded, the file will be automatically checked to ensure it conforms to the specifications, and a data file status report will be produced and made available to the submitter. Submitters will review each report and will be expected to correct any errors in their data file and resubmit if necessary. It will take about one hour to submit the data for each hospital. The total burden is estimated to be 61 hours annually.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Exhibit 1—Estimated Annualized Burden Hours</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Form name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents/POCs</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses per POC</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Hours per
                            <LI>response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Registration Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>5/60</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Hospital Information Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>5/60</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Data Use Agreement</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3/60</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Data Files Submission</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>NA</ENT>
                        <ENT>NA</ENT>
                        <ENT>NA</ENT>
                        <ENT>61</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Exhibit 2 shows the estimated annualized cost burden based on the respondents' time to complete one submission process. The cost burden is estimated to be $6,801 annually.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Exhibit 2—Estimated Annualized Cost Burden</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Form name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Average hourly wage rate *</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Adjusted
                            <LI>hourly wage rate **</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total cost
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Registration Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>a</SU>
                             $66.22
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>$132.44</ENT>
                        <ENT>$530</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Hospital Information Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>a</SU>
                             66.22
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>132.44</ENT>
                        <ENT>530</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Data Use Agreement</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>b</SU>
                             126.41
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>252.82</ENT>
                        <ENT>758</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Data Files Submission</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>c</SU>
                             49.83
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>99.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,983</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>61</ENT>
                        <ENT>NA</ENT>
                        <ENT>NA</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,801</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        * National Compensation Survey: Occupational wages in the United States May 2024, “U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics.” 
                        <E T="03">https://data.bls.gov/oes/#/industry/000000.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>** The Adjusted Hourly Rate was estimated at 200% of the hourly wage.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>a</SU>
                         Based on the mean hourly wage for Medical and Health Services Managers (11-9111).
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>b</SU>
                         Based on the mean hourly wage for Chief Executives (11-1011).
                        <PRTPAGE P="58566"/>
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>c</SU>
                         Based on the mean hourly wages for Computer Programmer (15-1251).
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520, comments on AHRQ's information collection are requested with regard to any of the following: (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of AHRQ's health care research and health care information dissemination functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of AHRQ's estimate of burden (including hours and costs) of the proposed collection(s) of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information upon the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the Agency's subsequent request for OMB approval of the proposed information collection. All comments will become a matter of public record.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 10, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey Toven,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23096 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4160-90-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Document Identifier: CMS-10834]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension or reinstatement of an existing collection of information, and to allow a second opportunity for public comment on the notice. Interested persons are invited to send comments regarding the burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, the accuracy of the estimated burden, ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on the collection(s) of information must be received by the OMB desk officer by January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                        . Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, please access the CMS PRA website by copying and pasting the following web address into your web browser: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Regulations-and-Guidance/Legislation/PaperworkReductionActof1995/PRA-Listing</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>William Parham at (410) 786-4669.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires federal agencies to publish a 30-day notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension or reinstatement of an existing collection of information, before submitting the collection to OMB for approval. To comply with this requirement, CMS is publishing this notice that summarizes the following proposed collection(s) of information for public comment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection Request:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection; 
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Requirement for Electronic Prescribing for Controlled Substances (EPCS) for a Covered Part D Drug Under a Prescription Drug Plan or an MA-PD Plan; 
                    <E T="03">Use:</E>
                     Section 2003 of the SUPPORT for Patients and Communities Act of 2018 requires that prescribing of a Schedule II, III, IV, and V controlled substance under Medicare Part D be done electronically in accordance with an electronic prescription drug program beginning January 1, 2021, subject to any exceptions, which HHS may specify. In the calendar year (CY) 2021 and 2022 Physician Fee Schedule (PFS) final rules, CMS finalized the electronic prescribing for controlled substances (EPCS) requirements and exceptions at 42 CFR 423.160(a)(5). Compliance for prescribers not in long-term care facilities begins in CY 2023. Compliance for prescribers in long-term care facilities begins in CY 2028.
                </P>
                <P>
                    EPCS requirements do not require prescribers or pharmacies to submit additional data to CMS; however, CMS did finalize one exception that requires data collection. The EPCS exception, at § 423.160(a)(5)(iii), requires a prescriber to apply for a waiver if the prescriber is unable to conduct EPCS due to circumstances beyond the prescriber's control. This collection of information is necessary to provide adequate and timely exception from the EPCS requirements if the prescriber is unable to conduct EPCS due to circumstances beyond the prescriber's control. 
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     CMS-10834 (OMB control number: 0938-1455); 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Annually; 
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Public sector (State, Local or Tribal Governments), Private sector (Business or other for-profits and Not-for-profit institutions); 
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     306; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     306; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Hours:</E>
                     52. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Carrie Sena at 410-786-8003.)
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>William N. Parham, III,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Division of Information Collections and Regulatory Impacts, Office of Strategic Operations and Regulatory Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23116 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58567"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Administration for Children and Families</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB #: 0970-0536]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Sexual Risk Avoidance Education Program Performance Analysis Study</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Planning, Research, and Evaluation, Administration for Children and Families, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for Public Comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Office of Planning, Research, and Evaluation (OPRE) and the Family and Youth Services Bureau (FYSB) in the Administration for Children and Families (ACF) request approval for a temporary extension of currently approved information collection activities and revisions to be implemented in 2026 for the Sexual Risk Avoidance Education (SRAE) Program Performance Analysis Study (PAS)(Office of Management and Budget (OMB) #: 0970-0536; expiration date December 31, 2025). The goal of the study is to collect, analyze and report on performance measures data for the SRAE program. The purpose of the request is to continue the ongoing data collection and submission of the performance measures by SRAE grant recipients. Revisions are proposed to the current performance measures, for implementation in July 2026, to address feedback from grant recipients to simplify and clarify participant surveys and to ensure the measures meet FYSB data needs.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments due</E>
                         January 16, 2026. OMB must decide about the collection of information between 30 and 60 days after publication of this document in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . Therefore, a comment is best assured of having its full effect if OMB receives it within 30 days of publication.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The public may view and comment on this information collection request at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAViewICR?ref_nbr=202512-0970-004.</E>
                         You can also obtain copies of the proposed collection of information by emailing 
                        <E T="03">OPREinfocollection@acf.hhs.gov.</E>
                         Identify all requests by the title of the information collection.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     The purpose of the SRAE program is to educate youth on how to voluntarily refrain from nonmarital sexual activity and prevent other youth risk behaviors. Data will continue to be used to determine if the SRAE grant recipients are meeting their programs' mission and priorities.
                </P>
                <P>The SRAE performance measures are collected from SRAE grant recipients, program providers, and participants. The data include information on program structure, cost, and support for implementation; program attendance, reach, and dosage; the characteristics of youth involved in programming; youth sexual and other risky behavior prior to program participation; and youth sexual and other risky behavior intentions at program exit. The performance measures help the ACF program office and grant recipients to monitor and report on progress in implementing SRAE programs and inform technical assistance.</P>
                <P>Some of the performance measures data come from youth participants through surveys SRAE grant recipients administer at program entry and exit. There are separate versions of the entry and exit surveys for middle school youth, which exclude some of the more sensitive items that are included in the versions for high school and older youth. There is also a shorter version of the entry survey for programs conducting impact studies, to reduce the burden on participants in those programs who are likely responding to other surveys as part of their impact study. Although there was a version of the exit survey for programs conducting impact studies in the past, it was removed through the previous OMB request, and youth in these programs now complete the same version of the exit survey as other youth.</P>
                <P>For continuity, ACF proposes to use the currently approved materials through June 2026, after which revised versions of the performance measures would be implemented. This phased in approach will ease the transition for grant recipients by providing them with ample time for implementation and will allow for data consistency by not changing measures in the middle of a data collection year. The proposed revisions to the current performance measures address feedback from grant recipients to simplify and clarify participant surveys and ensure the measures meet FYSB data needs. The proposed revisions to the participant surveys were cognitively tested with program participants for clarity and to check burden estimates. The changes reduce the burden for completing the participant entry survey from 8 minutes to 5 minutes per response and the participant exit survey from 10 to 7 minutes. Overall, we expect a 61 percent reduction in the annual burden hours under this request compared to the previously approved annual burden.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     General Departmental (GDSRAE), State (SSRAE), and Competitive (CSRAE) grant recipients, their subrecipients, and program participants.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,18,18,11,10">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Instrument</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of 
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                            <LI>(total over</LI>
                            <LI>request period)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of responses per respondent
                            <LI>(total over</LI>
                            <LI>request period)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average 
                            <LI>burden per </LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(in hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>(in hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Burden Estimates—Through June 2026</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">1. Participant Entry Survey</ENT>
                        <ENT>104,606</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1333</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,944</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2 Participant Exit Survey</ENT>
                        <ENT>81,854</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1667</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,645</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3. Performance Reporting Data Entry Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>190</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>16</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,040</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">4. Subrecipient Data Collection and Reporting Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>490</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>13</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,370</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="03">
                        <ENT I="03">Estimated total and annual burden hour estimates through June 2026</ENT>
                        <ENT>36,999</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="58568"/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2(0,),nj,ns,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,12,11,10">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Instrument</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of 
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                            <LI>(total over</LI>
                            <LI>request period)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of 
                            <LI>responses per </LI>
                            <LI>respondent </LI>
                            <LI>(total over</LI>
                            <LI>request period)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average 
                            <LI>burden per </LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(in hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>(in hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>(in hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Annual Burden Estimates—July 2026 Forward</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">1. Participant Entry Survey</ENT>
                        <ENT>523,030</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.0833</ENT>
                        <ENT>43,568</ENT>
                        <ENT>17,427</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2. Participant Exit Survey</ENT>
                        <ENT>409,270</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1167</ENT>
                        <ENT>47,762</ENT>
                        <ENT>19,105</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3. Performance Reporting Data Entry Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>190</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>16</ENT>
                        <ENT>15,200</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,080</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">4. Subrecipient Data Collection and Reporting Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>490</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>13</ENT>
                        <ENT>31,850</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,740</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="03">Estimated total and annual burden hours July 2026 forward</ENT>
                        <ENT>138,380</ENT>
                        <ENT>55,352</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Total Annual Burden Estimates</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="03">
                        <ENT I="03">Estimated total and annual burden hours</ENT>
                        <ENT>175,379</ENT>
                        <ENT>58,460</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     42 U.S.C. 710(b)(6).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Mary C. Jones,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>ACF/OPRE Certifying Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23078 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4184-83-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Health Resources and Services Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection: Public Comment Request; Information Collection Request Title: Countermeasures Injury Compensation Program—OMB No. 0915-0334—Revision</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the requirement of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 for opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects, HRSA announces plans to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Before submitting the ICR to OMB, HRSA seeks comments from the public regarding the burden estimate below or any other aspect of the ICR.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this ICR should be received no later than February 17, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments to 
                        <E T="03">paperwork@hrsa.gov</E>
                         or mail the HRSA Information Collection Clearance Officer, Room 13N82, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, Maryland 20857.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and draft instruments, email 
                        <E T="03">paperwork@hrsa.gov</E>
                         or call Samantha Miller, the HRSA Information Collection Clearance Officer, at (301) 443-3983.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the ICR title for reference.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Information Collection Request Title:</E>
                     Countermeasures Injury Compensation Program—OMB No. 0915-0334—Revision
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     This is a request for continued OMB approval of the information collection requirements for the Countermeasures Injury Compensation Program (CICP or Program). This request includes revisions to improve the efficiency of the information collection process and the quality of the information collected. The revisions streamline questions on the information collection documents and update CICP contact information. HRSA administers CICP in accordance with the Public Readiness and Emergency Preparedness Act (PREP Act) and CICP regulations at 42 CFR part 110. CICP is requesting continued approval for this information collection, which includes documents specified in CICP's regulations (42 CFR part 110).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The PREP Act authorized the establishment of the CICP and provides liability immunity to covered persons for claims of loss caused by, arising out of, relating to, or resulting from the administration or use of covered countermeasures for diseases, threats, and conditions identified in PREP Act declarations. The immunity extended in the PREP Act encourages the development, manufacture, testing, distribution, and administration/use of countermeasures (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     vaccine, medication, device) when a disease, health condition, or other threat to health constitutes a public health emergency, or there is a credible risk that it may in the future constitute such an emergency.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Need and Proposed Use of the Information:</E>
                     CICP provides compensation to eligible individuals who suffer serious injuries or death directly caused by a covered countermeasure administered or used pursuant to a PREP Act Declaration or to their estates and/or to certain survivors. An individual who is an injured countermeasure recipient, the estate or survivor(s) of a deceased injured countermeasure recipient, or their representative is responsible for submitting the Request for Benefits (RFB) package, as well as the injured countermeasure recipient's medical records and supporting documentation. Individuals can apply at any time, but eligibility for compensation is subject to meeting applicable filing deadlines and other requirements.
                </P>
                <P>To determine whether a requester is eligible for Program benefits (compensation) for a countermeasure injury, CICP staff must review the RFB package, which includes the following:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(1) RFB Form and Supporting Medical Documentation:</E>
                     Submission of this RFB form and supporting medical documentation initiate the CICP claims review process. CICP assesses the RFB form and supporting medical documentation to gather required information about the requester, document the use or administration of a countermeasure, and obtain medical information about the countermeasure recipient.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(2) Authorization for Use or Disclosure of Health Information Form (Authorization Form):</E>
                     The requester or representative, if applicable, completes the Authorization Form and gives medical providers permission to disclose the countermeasure recipient's health information via medical records to CICP for the purpose of determining eligibility for CICP benefits.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58569"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(3) Additional Medical Documentation and Certification:</E>
                     During the eligibility review, CICP provides requesters with the opportunity to supplement their RFB package with additional medical records and supporting documentation before the Program makes a final decision. CICP may ask requesters and/or representatives to complete and sign a form indicating whether they intend to submit additional required documentation before the final determination of their case. After CICP makes a final decision on a case, there are no other opportunities for a requester or representative to submit additional medical records or supporting documents.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(4) Supporting Benefits Documentation:</E>
                     A requester who is an injured countermeasure recipient may be eligible to receive benefits for unreimbursed medical expenses and/or lost employment income. The estate of a deceased injured countermeasure recipient may also be eligible to receive payment for unreimbursed medical expenses and/or lost employment income accrued before the injured countermeasure recipient's death. Requesters seeking such benefits must submit documentation of the injured countermeasure recipient's unreimbursed medical expenses and lost employment income. If the administration or use of a covered countermeasure directly caused an individual's death, certain of the individual's survivors may be eligible to receive a death benefit, but not unreimbursed medical expenses or lost employment income benefits (42 CFR 110.33). Survivors or their representatives must submit additional information, such as a marriage license, to prove that they are a survivor of the deceased countermeasure recipient.
                </P>
                <P>The RFB package instructions outline the supporting documentation needed to determine the type and amount of benefits. This documentation is required under 42 CFR 110.60-110.63 to enable the Program to determine the type and amount of benefits the requester may be eligible to receive.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Likely Respondents:</E>
                     Countermeasure recipients, their estates, survivors, and/or their representatives, are the most likely respondents to this 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice regarding the CICP information collection request because CICP reviews and, if eligible, compensates countermeasure recipient injury claims.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Burden Statement:</E>
                     Burden in this context means the time expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose, or provide the information requested. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install, and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating, and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information; to search data sources; to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information. The total annual burden hours estimated for this ICR are summarized in the table below.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,11,12,10,10,7">
                    <TTITLE>Total Estimated Annualized Burden Hours</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Document name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(in hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">RFB Form and Supporting Medical Documentation</ENT>
                        <ENT>360</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>360</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,960</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Authorization for Use or Disclosure of Health Information Form (Authorization Form)</ENT>
                        <ENT>360</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>360</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>720</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Additional Medical Documentation and Certification</ENT>
                        <ENT>324</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>324</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.75</ENT>
                        <ENT>243</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Supporting Benefits Documentation</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,074</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,074</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>5,223</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">HRSA specifically requests comments on:</E>
                     (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden, (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Maria G. Button,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Executive Secretariat.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23043 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4165-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Health Resources and Services Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission to OMB for Review and Approval; Public Comment Request; Shortage Designation Management System, OMB No. 0906-0029—Extension</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA submitted an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. Comments submitted during the first public review of this ICR will be provided to OMB. OMB will accept further comments from the public during the review and approval period. OMB may act on HRSA's ICR only after the 30-day comment period for this notice has closed.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this ICR should be received no later than January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request a copy of the clearance requests submitted to OMB for review, email Samantha Miller, the HRSA Information 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58570"/>
                        Collection Clearance Officer, at 
                        <E T="03">paperwork@hrsa.gov</E>
                         or call (301) 443-3983.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the ICR title for reference.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Information Collection Request Title:</E>
                     Shortage Designation Management System OMB No. 0906-0029—Extension.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     HRSA is committed to improving the health of the Nation's underserved communities and vulnerable populations by developing, implementing, evaluating, and refining programs that strengthen the nation's health workforce. The Department of Health and Human Services relies on two federal shortage designations to identify and dedicate resources to areas and populations in greatest need of providers: Health Professional Shortage Area (HPSA) designations and Medically Underserved Area/Medically Underserved Population (MUA/P) designations. HPSA designations are geographic areas, population groups, and facilities that are experiencing a shortage of health professionals. The authorizing statute for the National Health Service Corps (NHSC) created HPSAs to fulfill the statutory requirement that NHSC personnel be directed to areas of greatest need. To further differentiate areas of greatest need, HRSA calculates a score for each HPSA. There are three categories of HPSAs based on health discipline: primary care, dental health, and mental health. Scores range from 1 to 25 for primary care and mental health and from 1 to 26 for dental health, with higher scores indicating greater need. They are used to prioritize applications for NHSC Loan Repayment Program award funding and determine service sites eligible to receive NHSC Scholarship and Students-to-Service participants.
                </P>
                <P>MUA/P designations are geographic areas, or population groups within geographic areas, that are experiencing a shortage of primary care health care services based on the Index of Medical Underservice. MUAs are designated for the entire population of a particular geographic area. MUP designations are limited to a particular subset of the population within a geographic area. Both designations were created to aid the federal government in identifying areas with healthcare workforce shortages.</P>
                <P>As part of HRSA's Bureau of Health Workforce's cooperative agreement with the state primary care offices (PCOs), the state PCOs conduct needs assessments in their states, determine what areas are eligible for designations, and submit designation applications for HRSA review via the Shortage Designation Management System (SDMS). Requests that come from other sources are referred to the PCOs for their review, concurrence, and submission via SDMS. To obtain a federal shortage designation for an area, population, or facility, PCOs must submit a shortage designation application through SDMS for review and approval by HRSA. Both HPSA and MUA/P applications request local, state, and national data on the population that is experiencing a shortage of health professionals and the number of health professionals relative to the population covered by the proposed designation. The information collected on the applications is used to determine which areas, populations, and facilities have qualifying shortages.</P>
                <P>In addition, interested parties, including the state's governor, primary care association, and professional associations are notified of each designation request submitted via SDMS for their comments and recommendations.</P>
                <P>HRSA reviews the HPSA applications submitted by the state PCOs, and—if they meet the designation eligibility criteria for the type of HPSA or MUA/P the application is for—designates the HPSA or MUA/P on behalf of the Secretary of Health and Human Services. HPSAs are statutorily required to be annually reviewed and revised as necessary after initial designation to reflect current data. HPSA scores, therefore, may and do change from time to time. MUA/Ps do not have a statutorily mandated review period.</P>
                <P>
                    The lists of designated HPSAs are published annually in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . In addition, lists of HPSAs are updated on the HRSA website (
                    <E T="03">https://data.hrsa.gov/</E>
                    ) so that interested parties can access the information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A 60-day notice was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on May 19, 2025, vol. 90, No. 95; pp. 21318-19. There were 51 public comments. Below is a summary of key themes raised in the comments and HRSA's response:
                </P>
                <P>The public comments HRSA received largely centered around two key themes: (1) the essential role of MUA/P and HPSA designations in supporting community health centers (CHCs), and (2) the administrative burden and data integrity challenges involved in shortage designation processes.</P>
                <P>• A total of 36 commenters—including CHCs, state associations, and national organizations emphasized that these designations are critical for funding, workforce recruitment (especially through the NHSC), expansion of services, and addressing broader impacts on health outcomes, such as food and pharmacy deserts. Many stressed that without these designations, CHCs would face severe operational and financial strain, leading to reduced access and worsened disparities. HRSA acknowledged these concerns, reaffirming the importance of these designations, and its recognition of their role in improving health outcomes and supporting safety-net providers.</P>
                <P>
                    • Another 12 commenters, especially from State Primary Care Offices, and technical organizations, focused on underestimation of administrative burden and technical challenges with the SDMS system. They highlighted that HRSA's estimated eight-hour workload was unrealistically low, pointing instead to much higher demands for provider updates, data acquisition, and reconciliation. Suggestions included integrating federal datasets (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Medicaid, CDC, NSDUH), improving SDMS functionality (geocoding, duplicate checks, provider exit tracking), and providing clearer federal guidance. HRSA acknowledged these concerns, agreed that accurate data and system performance are critical, and committed to reviewing burden estimates, pursuing automation and integration of federal datasets, and exploring system enhancements. However, HRSA also noted that certain structural changes (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     adjusting population thresholds or adopting new designation methodologies) would require regulatory action through formal rulemaking.
                </P>
                <P>• Finally, 3 commenters offered more targeted recommendations, such as adopting the ADA Dental Care Geographic Accessibility Dashboard, revising population thresholds, or grandfathering existing designations. HRSA expressed appreciation for these suggestions and noted that while it is open to considering alternatives, such changes would require formal regulatory updates before implementation.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Need and Proposed Use of the Information:</E>
                     The information obtained from the SDMS applications is used to determine which areas, populations, and facilities have critical shortages of health professionals per PCO application submission. The SDMS HPSA and MUA/P applications are used for these designation determinations. Applicants must have an SDMS application submitted to HRSA to obtain a federal shortage designation. In addition, the application must contain detailed information explaining how the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58571"/>
                    area, population, or facility faces a critical shortage of health professionals.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Likely Respondents:</E>
                     State primary care offices and or site points of contact interested in obtaining a primary care, dental health, or mental health HPSA designation or an MUA/P in their state.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Burden Statement:</E>
                     Burden in this context means the time expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose, or provide the information requested. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install, and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating, and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information; to search data sources; to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information. The total annual burden hours estimated for this ICR are summarized in the table below.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annualized Burden Hours:</E>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,12,14,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Form name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(in hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Designation Planning and Preparation</ENT>
                        <ENT>54</ENT>
                        <ENT>48</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,592</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>20,736</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">SDMS Application</ENT>
                        <ENT>54</ENT>
                        <ENT>83</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,482</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>17,928</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>54</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>7,074</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>38,664</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Maria G. Button,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Executive Secretariat.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23065 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4165-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control Number 1653-0055]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Extension of a Currently Approved Collection: Flight Manifest/Billing Agreement</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) will submit the following Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until February 17, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        All submissions received must include the OMB Control Number 1653-NEW in the body of the correspondence, the agency name and Docket ID ICEB 2021-0005. All comments received will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions related to this collection, call or email Vivian Davis, Office of the Chief Financial Officer, 802-683-4841, email: 
                        <E T="03">vivian.davis@ice.dhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
                <P>Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                <P>1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Extension of a Currently Approved Collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                     Flight Manifest/Billing Agreement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department of Homeland Security sponsoring the collection:</E>
                     U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as a brief abstract:</E>
                     Primary: Individuals or households. The Flight Manifest/Billing Agreement collects information for the purpose of confirming Space Available passengers on any ICE-chartered flight and to facilitate the effective billing of those passengers for the full coach fare of their seats on the flight.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond:</E>
                     The estimated total number of respondents for the information collection is 250 and the estimated hour burden per response is .25 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection:</E>
                     63 annual burden hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total public burden (in cost) associated with the collection:</E>
                     The estimated total annual cost burden associated with this collection of information is $2,391.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Scott Elmore,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>PRA Clearance Officer, Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23087 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-28-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58572"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB No. 1653-0049]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Emergency Revision of a Currently Approved Collection: Suspicious/Criminal Activity Tip Reporting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) of the U.S. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) submitted a request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for emergency clearance and review under 5 CFR 1320.13 for the information collection Suspicious/Criminal Activity Tip Reporting, OMB Control Number 1653-0049. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), (Pub. L. 104-13, 44 U.S.C. chapter 35) as amended by the Clinger-Cohen Act (Pub. L. 104-106), DHS is soliciting comments for this collection.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and must be submitted February 17, 2026 to be assured of consideration.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        All submissions received must include the OMB Control Number 1653-0049 in the body of the correspondence, the agency name and Docket ID ICEB-2019-0010. All comments received will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided. Submit comments via the Federal eRulemaking Portal website at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         under e-Docket ID number ICEB 2019-0010.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For specific question related to collection activities, please contact Jody C. Fasenmyer (802-662-8115), 
                        <E T="03">jody.c.fasenmyer@ice.dhs.gov,</E>
                         U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement. (This is not a toll-free number. Comments are not accepted via telephone message.)
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This collection was previously approved with changes on October 31, 2024. In the previous 60-day FRN ICE announced that it amended the Tip Line form with additional drop downs to make it easier for individuals to fill out the form. There was always a separate drop down for Law Enforcement Officers (LEOs), but it led to a free text box to supply the necessary information. With more LEOs providing information, ICE realized it needed more precise information to be able to process the tips provided. Therefore, ICE has added new fields that enables LEOs to provide all of the information needed by ICE without having to worry about remembering to put all that information into a free text field. ICE requested emergency approval of these changes from OMB on December 5, 2025, and received a temporary six-month approval, which expires June 30, 2026, during which time the agency can conduct the normal notice and comment PRA process. This notice is the first step in that process. The information is collected from members of the public and law enforcement partners who provide it using a fill-in-the-blank form available on the 
                    <E T="03">ICE.GOV</E>
                     (
                    <E T="03">https://www.ice.gov/webform/hsi-tip-form</E>
                    ) website. Once completed, the Tip Form is electronically transmitted to the appropriate agency with responsibility for researching the allegation. All other tips are transmitted to Intelligence Research Specialists (IRS) at the Homeland Security Investigations Tip-line unit. IRSs conduct queries in DHS, law enforcement, and immigration databases, analyze the results, write investigative reports, and then refer leads to the DHS office with geographic and programmatic responsibility for the reported allegation. Receiving offices use the information provided to conduct investigations and other enforcement actions in support of DHS goals and objectives. ICE also offers the public the option to speak directly with an IRS to report allegations through a toll-free phone (866-DHS-2-ICE).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comment</HD>
                <P>
                    You may access the information collection instrument with instructions or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and entering ICEB-2019-0010 in the search box. All submissions will be posted, without change, to the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     and will include any personal information you provide. Therefore, submitting this information makes it public. You may wish to consider limiting the amount of personal information that you provide in any voluntary submission you make. DHS may withhold information provided in comments from public viewing that it determines may impact the privacy of an individual or is offensive. For additional information, please read the Privacy Act notice that is available via the link in the footer of 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                <P>1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submissions of responses.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, U.S. Department of Homeland Security.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Suspicious/Criminal Activity Tip Reporting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     1653-0049.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     515,358.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     11 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     94,482.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Scott Elmore,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>PRA Clearance Officer, Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23095 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-28-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Land Management</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[A2407-014-004-065516, #O2509-014-004-125222]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Invitation To Participate; Coal Exploration License Application COCO106747627, Rio Blanco County, CO</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Land Management, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of invitation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to the Mineral Leasing Act of 1920, as amended by the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58573"/>
                        Federal Coal Leasing Amendments Act of 1976, and the Department of the Interior's regulations, all interested, qualified parties are hereby invited to participate with Blue Mountain Energy, Inc., on a pro rata cost-sharing basis, in this program for the exploration of coal deposits owned by the United States of America in Rio Blanco County, Colorado.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Blue Mountain Energy, Inc. published the notice of invitation to participate in this coal exploration license once each week for 2 consecutive weeks in the 
                        <E T="03">Rio Blanco Herald Times,</E>
                         on September 18, 2025, and September 25, 2025. With this notice, any party seeking to participate in this exploration program is notified that they must send written notice to the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) and Blue Mountain Energy, Inc., as provided in the 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                         section below, no later than January 16, 2026.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The BLM Colorado State Office, Leasable Minerals Program, has copies of the exploration license application and plan (serialized as COCO106747627) available for public review at the Denver Federal Center, Building 40, Lakewood, CO 80215. These documents may be reviewed Monday through Friday, excluding Federal holidays. Requests to review the materials should be directed to the Leasable Minerals Program via email at 
                        <E T="03">BLM_COSO_COAL_NEL@blm.gov.</E>
                         Any party seeking to participate in this exploration program must send written notice to the Leasable Mineral Program at 
                        <E T="03">BLM_COSO_COAL_NEL@blm.gov,</E>
                         and to Joel Riggins, Blue Mountain Energy, Inc., c/o Deserado Mine, 3607 County Road 65, Rangely, Colorado 81648.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Brad Stock, telephone: (307) 261-7671; email: 
                        <E T="03">bstock@blm.gov.</E>
                         Individuals in the United States who are deaf, blind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services for contacting the Leasable Minerals team. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Blue Mountain Energy, Inc. has applied to the BLM for a 2-year coal exploration license on public lands located adjacent to the existing Deserado Coal Mine near Rangely, Colorado. Coal exploration on lands not contained in a Federal coal lease is authorized under the Mineral Leasing Act of 1920, as amended. This provides the public with a methodology to gain additional geologic information of the coal underlying the exploration area to determine the viability of the coal resources. The BLM regulations at 43 CFR 3410.2 require the publication of an invitation for interested parties to participate in the coal exploration in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The BLM may require a modification to the exploration plan to accommodate the legitimate exploration needs of persons seeking to participate. The proposed exploration area includes the following described lands in Rio Blanco County, Colorado:
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Sixth Principal Meridian</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">T2N, R100 W, 6th P.M.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 6, Lots 9, 10, 11, 12, SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        .
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">T2N, R101 W, 6th P.M.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 1, E
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        .
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">T3N, R100 W, 6th P.M.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Sec. 19, Lot 8;</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Sec. 30, All;</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 31, Lots 5, 6, 7, 8, E
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        W
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        , and W
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        E
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        .
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">T3N, R101 W, 6th P.M.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 23, NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        ;
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 24, SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , and S
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        ;
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 25, N
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        ;
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec 36, E
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        .
                    </FP>
                    <P>The described lands consist of 1,991 acres, more or less, according to the official plat of the survey on file with the BLM. The proposed exploration program is fully described in an exploration plan that Blue Mountain Energy, Inc., has submitted to the BLM for approval, which is available for review upon request as stated above.</P>
                    <FP>(Authority: 43 CFR 3410.2-1(c)(1))</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Douglas Vilsack,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>BLM Colorado State Director.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23141 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4331-16-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6685; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041425; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Ball State University, Muncie, IN</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Ball State University intends to repatriate a certain cultural item that meets the definition of an object of cultural patrimony and that has a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural item in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural item in this notice to Chyan Gilaspy, Ball State University, Applied Anthropology Laboratories, 2000 W Riverside Avenue, Muncie, IN 47306, email 
                        <E T="03">NAGPRA@bsu.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Ball State University and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of one cultural item has been requested for repatriation. The one object of cultural patrimony is a beaded girl's dress. In 2018, the dress was bequeathed to BSU by a private donor who purchased the item in 1979 in South Dakota. A non-BSU tag found on the dress states, “Girl's Dress, Shoshone Tribe, Idaho, 1960”. There are no institutional records indicating the use of potentially hazardous substances used to treat this cultural item, however, requested XRF testing was positive for potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Ball State University has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The one object of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural item described in this notice and the Paiute-Shoshone Tribe of the Fallon Reservation and Colony, Nevada.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural item in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58574"/>
                    a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural item in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Ball State University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural item are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Ball State University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23037 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6657; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041394; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: California Department of Transportation, San Diego, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the California Department of Transportation (Caltrans) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Natalia Galeana, California Department of Transportation District 11, 4050 Taylor Street, San Diego, CA 92110, email 
                        <E T="03">natalia.galeana@dot.ca.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Caltrans, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, two individuals have been identified. Associated funerary objects have been identified totaling of 25 lots representing two lots of shell (worked and unworked), two lots of ground stone, two lots of chipped stone, two lots of non-human faunal remains worked, one lot of non-human faunal remains worked, two lots of vegetal samples, one lot of mineral samples, two lots of soil samples, one lot of charcoal samples, two lots of unworked stone, one lot of fire affected rock, two lots of ceramics, two lots of historic items and two lots of post-contact items. This shall also include any objects currently listed as missing but found at a later date; or uncatalogued objects found at a later date belonging to these collections.</P>
                <P>One ancestor and 15 lots consisting of 3,865 of cultural items were removed from CA-SDI-777, which is located in Cottonwood Creek, within Pine Valley, San Diego County, California. The collection is a result of a 1997 excavation report for a highway widening project and was accessioned at SDSU under Caltrans control as SDSU-0390. Catalog entries included in this notice have been identified as missing, and Caltrans and San Diego State University (SDSU) continue to look for them.</P>
                <P>One ancestor and 10 lots consisting of 11,000 of cultural items were removed from CA-SDI-4513, which is located between Interstate 5 and Sorrento Valley Road in, San Diego County, California. The collection is a result of a 1986 excavation report for a highway project and was accessioned at SDSU under Caltrans control as SDSU-0318. Catalog entries included in this notice have been identified as missing, and Caltrans and San Diego State University (SDSU) continue to look for them.</P>
                <P>There are no known/documented potentially hazardous substances used to treat any of the cultural items.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Caltrans has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of two individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 25 lots described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Capitan Grande Band of Diegueno Mission Indians of California (Barona Group of Capitan Grande Band of Mission Indians of the Barona Reservation, California; Viejas (Baron Long) Group of Capitan Grande Band of Mission Indians of the Viejas Reservation, California; Ewiiaapaayp Band of Kumeyaay Indians, California; Iipay Nation of Santa Ysabel, California; Inaja Band of Diegueno Mission Indians of the Inaja and Cosmit Reservation, California; Jamul Indian Village of California; La Posta Band of Diegueno Mission Indians of the La Posta Indian Reservation, California; Manzanita Band of Diegueno Mission Indians of the Manzanita Reservation, California; Mesa Grande Band of Diegueno Mission Indians of the Mesa Grande Reservation, California; San Pasqual Band of Diegueno Mission Indians of California; and the Sycuan Band of the Kumeyaay Nation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>
                    Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Caltrans must determine 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58575"/>
                    the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. Caltrans is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23002 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6653; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041390; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Mississippi Department of Archives and History, Jackson, MS</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Mississippi Department of Archives and History (MDAH) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Jaquelin Padilla, Mississippi Department of Archives and History, 100 South State Street, P.O. Box 571, Jackson, MS 39205, email 
                        <E T="03">jpadilla@mdah.ms.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Mississippi Department of Archives and History, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on the information available, in 2018 human remains from 22TU518 (Flowers #3) and 22TU519 (Norflett Mound) were listed in a Notice of Inventory Completion, published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on 4/13/18 (FR 2018-07699). Additional human remains and associated funerary objects from 22TU518 (Flowers #3) and 22TU519 (Norflett Mounds) were listed on a Notice of Inventory Completion, published on 1/22/21 (FR 2021-01340). These human remains and associated funerary objects were repatriated to the Chickasaw Nation. In 2021, human remains and associated funerary objects from 22TU513 (Beaverdam) and 22TU534 (Martin #2) were listed in a Notice of Inventory Completion, published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on 9/20/21 (FR 2021-20264), and were repatriated to the Chickasaw Nation. The current notice includes additional human remains and associated funerary objects not included in the previous repatriations by the Mississippi Department of Archives and History.
                </P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual has been identified from 22TU518 (Flowers #3). The seven lots of associated funerary objects consist of one lot matrix, one lot finescreen, one lot organic materials, one lot clay, one lot faunal remains, one lot lithics, and one lot Native American ceramics. The human remains and objects were removed during a salvage excavation by MDAH in 1974.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual has been identified from 22TU534 (Martin #2). The four lots of associated funerary objects are one lot lithics, one lot Native American ceramics, one lot faunal remains, and one lot ochre. The human remains and objects were likely removed during an excavation by MDAH in 1969 with additional collections from excavations in 1996 and from an unknown year.</P>
                <P>No human remains are present, the remaining lot from 22TU519 (Norflett Mounds) is one lot consisting of Native American ceramic (reconstructed vessel). The vessel was removed from the site by MDAH personnel in 1969.</P>
                <P>No human remains, are present, the remaining lots from 22TU513 (Beaverdam) are seven lots consisting of one lot lithics, one lot Native American ceramics, one lot clay, one lot faunal remains, one lot shell, one lot organic materials, and one lot matrix. Some of the collection may have been removed by MDAH personnel in 1971. Another collection was removed in 2010 however the history of the collection is unknown. An additional collection was removed as part of the Mississippi Mound Trail in 2013.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual has been identified from 22TU536 (Martin #3). The three lots of associated funerary objects are one lot Native American ceramics, one lot clay, and one lot lithics. These human remains and objects were collected by MDAH personnel in 1968, likely as part of a surface collection.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, three individuals have been identified from 22QU500 (Posey Mound). The six lots of associated funerary objects are one faunal remains, one lot shell, one lot lithics, one lot Native American ceramics, one lot clay, and one lot of fine screen samples. 22QU500 was excavated in 1986 as part of a salvage excavation. Most of this excavation took place around Mound B. There was also a collection donated to the C.H. Nash Museum at Chucalissa in 1983 by private collector H. Osborn in 1983. These collection was later transferred to MDAH from the Desoto County Museum in 2012.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual has been identified from 22QU511 (Whiting). The seven lots of associated funerary objects are one lot faunal remains, one lot Native American ceramics, one lot clay, one lot organic materials, one lot shell, one lot of fine screen sample, and one lot lithics. It is unknown what year the lots of AFO were collected from 22QU511, but these were collected through surface and pit excavations. Part of the human remains were removed from the site prior to 1970 and was returned to MDAH in 2017.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, eight individuals have been identified from 22QU516 (Garmon/Sabino). The six lots of associated funerary objects are one lot shell, one lot clay, one lot Native American ceramics, one lot faunal remains, one lot lithics, and one lot matrix. The site 22QU516 has a general surface collection with an unknown history. Also, a collection donated to MDAH by Burt Jaeger at an unknown date and with an unknown history.</P>
                <P>
                    Human remains representing, at least, three individuals have been identified from 22QU518 (Norman). The 11 lots of associated funerary objects are one lot Native American ceramics, one lot beads, one lot pendants, one lot gorgets, one lot lithics, one lot faunal remains, one lot clay, one lot shell, one lot fine 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58576"/>
                    screen, one lot ochre, and one lot organic materials. The site 22QU518 has been collected by several different individuals and groups over an unknown period of years. MDAH has a collection from a 1981 survey conducted by the institution. A collection from Ruth Cheirs was donated to MDAH by Dr. Burnham in 2003. Dr. Burnham also had his own personal collection from the site that was collected in the late 1970s and early 1980s that was donated to MDAH. Burt Jaegar also collected artifacts from the site in the 1980s which were donated to MDAH. Other individuals donated their collections from this site with most lacking provenience information. These individual collectors include Tom Davis, Ralph Baltzer, June Williams, Jas Mims; L.B. Jones, Larson, J.C. Mullins, C. Taylor, Robert Stancill, Billy Henderson, and Fair Hays Jr. An unprovenienced collection from the Museum of the Mississippi Delta was transferred to MDAH in 2015. Lastly, there is also a collection from a surface survey conducted by the Mississippi Department of Transportation (MDOT) personnel in the 1970s or 1980s. This collection was transferred from MDOT to MDAH in 2025.
                </P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, three individuals have been identified from 22QU523 (Longstreet). The eight lots of associated funerary objects are one lot Native American ceramics, one lot lithics, one lot matrix, one lot clay, one lot faunal remains, one lot shell, one lot organic material, and one lot ochre. The site 22QU523 was excavated twice by MDAH as a survey in 1972 and a salvage excavation in 1975. Most of the human remains were excavated as part of these two excavations. Objects were also taken from this site by collectors R. Baltzer, Dr. Burnham and Robert Stancill at unknown dates. MDAH also has a surface collection conducted by University of Memphis in 1972 that was donated to the C.H. Nash Museum at Chucalissa and transferred to MDAH in 2019 by way of the Desoto County Museum.</P>
                <P>
                    In 2021, human remains and AFO from 22QU525 (Shady Grove) were listed in a Notice of Inventory Completion, published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on 1/22/2021 (FR 2021-01340). These human remains and associated funerary objects were repatriated to the Chickasaw Nation. The current notice includes additional human remains and associated funerary objects not included in the previous repatriations by the Mississippi Department of Archives and History. Human remains representing, at least, 16 individuals have been identified at 22QU525 (Shady Grove). The 11 lots of associated funerary objects are one lot Native American ceramics, one lot faunal remains, one lot lithics, one lot fine screen, one lot shell, one lot clay, one lot soil sample, one lot organic materials, one lot matrix, one lot ochre, and one lot ceramic effigy. Some of the objects came from a 1972 surface collection. In 1975, MDAH personnel excavated test pits and a burial on a level mound at 22QU525. The human remains from a bundle burial and associated funerary objects from this excavation were curated at MDAH. Between 2007 through 2010, the University of Southern Mississippi and MDAH personnel returned to 22QU525 and performed a surface collection and excavation and located additional burials. The human remains from the burial and associated funerary objects from this excavation were curated at MDAH. A collection was donated by J. Buster at an unknown date with an unknown history. A surface collection by Memphis State University and from a private collector H. Osborn was transferred to the Desoto County Museum in 2013 and 2015 and then to MDAH in 2019.
                </P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual has been identified from 22QU568 (Opossum Bend). The six lots of associated funerary objects are one lot shell, one lot faunal remains, one lot clay, one lot lithics, one lot ochre and one lot Native American ceramics. 22QU568 consists of a surface collection.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, six individuals have been identified from 22QU569 (Drew Smith). The six lots of associated funerary objects are one lot Native American ceramics, one lot lithics, one lot faunal remains, one lot shell, one lot bead, and one lot clay. The majority of 22QU569 comes from a collection with an unknown history. Additional unprovenienced collections were donated to MDAH by two collectors Burt Jaeger in 2009 and Dr. Burnham.</P>
                <P>Through Tribal consultation, these 44 individuals and 83 lots of associated funerary objects were identified as culturally affiliated with the Chickasaw Nation. To our knowledge, no potentially hazardous substances were used to treat any of the human remains or associated funerary objects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Mississippi Department of Archives and History has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 44 individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 83 lots of objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and The Chickasaw Nation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Mississippi Department of Archives and History must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Mississippi Department of Archives and History is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-22998 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58577"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6671; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041410; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: University of Wisconsin Oshkosh, Oshkosh, WI</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of Wisconsin Oshkosh (UWO) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Adrienne Frie, University of Wisconsin Oshkosh, 800 Algoma Blvd., Oshkosh, WI 54901, email 
                        <E T="03">friea@uwosh.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of UWO, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. The individual was removed from a site listed as 47-WN-0086, Winnebago County, WI, which consists of a small cemetery associated with the Grignon trading post farmstead. The cemetery is known to contain the remains of Lieutenant Robert Grignon, his wife Mary, and her son. Robert Grignon was buried in this plot in 1861. Historical accounts also support that Robert Grignon shared this land with the Menominee so that they could rebury their dead from an endangered traditional cemetery. In 1936, Aurther Kannenberg, curator of the Oshkosh Public Museum, located the Grignon family plot and exhumed three burials identified as Robert Grignon, wife Mary, and Mary's father. Many of the remains appear to have ended up in private collections. In 1993, Mary Schneider donated the collection of her late husband, Dr. Clarence James Schneider, to the University of Wisconsin Oshkosh (UWO). At UWO, a small box was found in his collection with the label, “From the Grave of Robert Grignon.” It is likely that Schneider was one of the individuals who stole remains from these burials. While it is not possible to confirm the specific identity of these remains, it is highly likely they belonged to someone in this small cemetery.The two associated funerary objects are one lot of coffin wood with nails and one lot of coffin nails.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, four individuals have been identified. The individuals were removed from the site of Gruwell (47-WN-0130), Winnebago County, WI in the summer of 1969. The landowner discovered Ancestral remains and gave them to the Winneconne Historical Society. The landowner notified James D. Volkman, an archaeologist associated with UWO, and in fall 1969 Volkman visited the site and recovered artifacts from the same location of the burials. A large portion of the artifacts found date to the Late Historic Period (post-1760 CE). In 1972, a field crew led by UWO Assistant Professor Alaric Faulkner also collected artifacts from the surface of the site. UWO was able to relocate the Ancestors removed from the Gruwell site at the Winneconne Historical Society and following Tribal guidance, transferred legal control of the remains to UWO in 2025 to be repatriated with their associated funerary objects. Historical records indicate that in the later part of the 18th century into the early 19th century there was a Menominee village and cemetery on the shores of the Wolf River, where the modern village of Winneconne sits. Euroamerican settlement on the east shore of the river forced Menominee groups to the west shore. By 1850, the west shore consisted of a few Euroamerican houses and an “Indian” cemetery, shortly before the village of Winneconne incorporated the west bank into the village boundaries. The 16 associated funerary objects are two lots of lithics; one lot of faunal bone; two lots of post contact pottery; one lot of bottle glass; one lot of iron nails and fastener; two lots of soil; one stone pipe; one Kaolin pipe; one lot of glass beads; one lot of bronze buttons; one bronze thimble; one lot of silver brooches; and one copper arm band.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>UWO has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of five individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 18 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Menominee Indian Tribe of Wisconsin.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, UWO must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. UWO is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23016 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58578"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6678; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041419; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Los Rios Community College District, Sacramento, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Los Rios Community College District (LRCCD) intends to repatriate a certain cultural item that meets the definition of an unassociated funerary object and that has a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural item in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Jamey Nye, Los Rios Community College District, 1919 Spanos Ct., Arden-Arcade, CA 95825, email 
                        <E T="03">nagpra@losrios.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of LRCCD, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of one cultural item has been requested for repatriation. The one unassociated funerary object is a perforated dog tooth removed from Windmiller Mound (CA-SAC-107), Sacramento County, CA. The cultural item was likely removed during excavations at the site by William Purves, Jeremiah B. Lillard, and Sacramento Junior College in 1936. Between 1923 and 1940, Lillard was president of the Sacramento Junior College, now named Sacramento City College, which is one of four campuses in LRCCD. In April 2023, the item was located on the American River College campus, another campus within LRCCD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>LRCCD has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The one unassociated funerary object described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near human remains, and are connected, either at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony of a Native American culture according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization. The unassociated funerary objects have been identified by a preponderance of the evidence as related to human remains, specific individuals, or families, or removed from a specific burial site or burial area of an individual or individuals with cultural affiliation to an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a reasonable connection between the cultural item described in this notice and the Ione Band of Miwok Indians of California and the Wilton Rancheria, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural item in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural item in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, LRCCD must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural item are considered a single request and not competing requests. LRCCD is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23030 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6652; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041385; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: New Mexico Junior College, Hobbs, NM</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the New Mexico Junior College has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is no lineal descendant and no Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Upon request, repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Ben Kimball, New Mexico Junior College, 1 Thunderbird Circle, Hobbs, NM 88240, email 
                        <E T="03">bkimball@nmjc.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the New Mexico Junior College, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. While surveying New Mexico Junior College departments for all NAGPRA-related material in June of 2024, an individual was located in the Arts and Sciences Department. Records indicate the individual was acquired from the Carolina Biological Supply Company in the late 1970s to early 1980s. No geographic location information about this individual is available. New Mexico Junior College has no knowledge or record of any potentially hazardous substances used to treat the human remains.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Consultation</HD>
                <P>
                    Invitations to consult were sent to the Apache Tribe of Oklahoma; Comanche Nation, Oklahoma; Fort McDowell 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58579"/>
                    Yavapai Nation, Arizona; Fort Sill Apache Tribe of Oklahoma; Hopi Tribe of Arizona; Jicarilla Apache Nation, New Mexico; Kiowa Indian Tribe of Oklahoma; Mescalero Apache Tribe of the Mescalero Reservation, New Mexico; Ohkay Owingeh, New Mexico; Pueblo of Acoma, New Mexico; Pueblo of Cochiti, New Mexico; Pueblo of Isleta, New Mexico; Pueblo of Jemez, New Mexico; Pueblo of Laguna, New Mexico; Pueblo of Nambe, New Mexico; Pueblo of Picuris, New Mexico; Pueblo of Pojoaque, New Mexico; Pueblo of San Felipe, New Mexico; Pueblo of San Ildefonso, New Mexico; Pueblo of Sandia, New Mexico; Pueblo of Santa Ana, New Mexico; Pueblo of Santa Clara, New Mexico; Pueblo of Taos, New Mexico; Pueblo of Tesuque, New Mexico; Pueblo of Zia, New Mexico; San Carlos Apache Tribe of the San Carlos Reservation, Arizona; Santo Domingo Pueblo; Tonto Apache Tribe of Arizona; White Mountain Apache Tribe of the Fort Apache Reservation, Arizona; Yavapai-Apache Nation of the Camp Verde Indian Reservation, Arizona; Ysleta del Sur Pueblo; and the Zuni Tribe of the Zuni Reservation, New Mexico. In May of 2025, New Mexico Junior College conducted outreach phone calls, and the following Tribes provided guidance: Pueblo of Acoma, New Mexico; Pueblo of San Ildefonso, New Mexico; Pueblo of Santa Clara, New Mexico; and the Pueblo of Zia, New Mexico.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>The following types of information about the cultural affiliation of the human remains in this notice are available: biological. The information, including the results of consultation, identified:</P>
                <P>1. No earlier group connected to the human remains.</P>
                <P>2. No Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization is connected to the human remains.</P>
                <P>3. No relationship of shared group identity between the earlier group and the Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization can be reasonably traced through time.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The New Mexico Junior College has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• No known lineal descendant who can trace ancestry to the human remains in this notice has been identified.</P>
                <P>• No Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation to the human remains described in this notice has been clearly or reasonably identified.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requester is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.
                </P>
                <P>Upon request, repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the New Mexico Junior College must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The New Mexico Junior College is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 20, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-22997 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6695; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041442; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Kansas State Historical Society, Topeka, KS</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Kansas State Historical Society (KSHS) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Dr. Nicole Klarmann, Kansas State Historical Society, 6425 SW 6th Avenue, Topeka, KS 66615-1099, email 
                        <E T="03">kshs.nagpra@ks.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the KSHS, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified from site 14LV381 in Leavenworth County, KS (UBS 2000-26). The 30 associated funerary objects are iron square nails, wire nails, strap iron, bottle fragments, ceramic sherds, and chert flakes. The landowner encountered the human remains and funerary objects while plowing. The record notes that some of the remains were reconstructed using glue.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, two individuals have been identified in Leavenworth County, KS (UBS 1996-06, UBS 2016-10). No associated funerary objects are present. These remains were found in or along the Kansas River and have no other provenience information.</P>
                <P>Unless noted above, no known hazardous substances were used to treat any of the human remains or associated funerary objects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The KSHS has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of three individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>
                    • The 30 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58580"/>
                    death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
                </P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Kaw Nation, Oklahoma and the Nez Perce Tribe.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the KSHS must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The KSHS is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23051 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6688; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041428; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Placer County Museums Division, Auburn, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Placer County Museums Division intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Bryanna Ryan, Placer County Museums Division, 101 Maple Street, Auburn, CA 95603, email 
                        <E T="03">bryan@placer.ca.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Placer County Museums Division, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of four cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The four objects of cultural patrimony are one bow with three arrows made by Jack Suehead (Object Numbers 1986.67.318.1-.4). The objects were acquired by the Placer County Museums Division by donation in 1986. Information about how the donor, Bernice Pate, acquired the objects is unknown. Pate's husband, Waldo Pate, was a physician who treated local Indians. He often received baskets as payment for medical services and the couple continued collecting through purchases and gifts. In the 1960s, Bernice Pate served as the executive director of the California Indian Commission. The four objects of cultural patrimony are culturally affiliated with the Southern Maidu (Nisenan) and originated within their aboriginal territory in the vicinity of Placer County. The objects have not been exposed to any potentially hazardous substances while in the possession of the Placer County Museums Division. There is no visible evidence of prior treatment and no information indicating prior treatment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Placer County Museums Division has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The four objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the United Auburn Indian Community of the Auburn Rancheria of California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Placer County Museums Division must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Placer County Museums Division is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23040 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6675; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041415; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: California Department of Transportation, Oakland, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58581"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the California Department of Transportation (Caltrans) has completed an inventory of associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the associated funerary objects in this notice to Lindsay Busse and Althea Asaro, California Department of Transportation, District 4, 111 Grand Avenue, Oakland, CA 94612, email 
                        <E T="03">lindsay.busse@dot.ca.gov</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">althea.asaro@dot.ca.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Caltrans, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Associated funerary objects have been identified totaling 6,500 catalog entries representing lithics, faunal remains, shell, beads, and ground stone artifacts. Of the 6,500 associated funerary objects, 36 catalog numbers are missing. These eight collections are from Marin County along Highway 101 between Petaluma and Novato and are housed at Sonoma State University (SSU). The collections are the result of Caltrans project-delivery related excavations at the following sites between 2005 and 2019: CA-MRN-195 (2013-20; 2019-71; 2005-5), CA-MRN-196 (2005-06), CA-MRN-327 (2005-8), CA-MRN-507 (2012-04), CA-MRN-526 (2012-17; 2012-5). There are no known/documented potentially hazardous substances used to treat any of the cultural items.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>Caltrans has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 6,500 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Caltrans must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. Caltrans is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23027 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6676; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041416; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: California State University, Sacramento, Sacramento, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the California State University, Sacramento intends to repatriate a certain cultural item that meets the definition of an object of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural item in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural item in this notice to Dr. Mark R. Wheeler, California State University, Sacramento, 6000 J Street Sacramento, CA 95819, email 
                        <E T="03">mark.wheeler@csus.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the California State University, Sacramento, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of one cultural item has been requested for repatriation. The object of cultural patrimony is a coiled gathering basket. The basket was purchased in Murphy's, California at an unknown date by Mark Grady. Documentation at the University states it was made by the inhabitants of Murphy's and identifies the basket as both Miwok and Washoe. Consulting tribes have identified the basket as both Miwok and Washoe. Mr. Grady donated the basket to the University at an unknown date, likely in the 1970s, where it has since been curated under accession number 1974-18-30.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The California State University, Sacramento has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The one object of cultural patrimony described in this notice has ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>
                    • There is a connection between the cultural item described in this notice and the California Valley Miwok Tribe, California and the Tuolumne Band of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58582"/>
                    Me-Wuk Indians of the Tuolumne Rancheria of California.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural item in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural item in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the California State University, Sacramento must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural item are considered a single request and not competing requests. The California State University, Sacramento is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23028 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6697; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041443; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: University of California, Davis, Davis, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of California, Davis (UC Davis) intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of sacred objects and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Megon Noble, University of California, Davis, 412 Mrak Hall, One Shields Avenue, Davis, CA 95616, email 
                        <E T="03">mnoble@ucdavis.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of UC Davis, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>
                    A total of six cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The sacred objects are six baskets. The University is unaware of any specific treatment of the individual sacred objects with pesticides, preservatives, or other substances that represent a potential hazard to the objects or to persons handling the objects. However, records located in the Anthropology Museum indicate that approximately 
                    <FR>1/3</FR>
                     of the Merriam collection had been treated with Berlou, a dry mothproofing substance used as an insecticide, in 1964. It is unknown which baskets were treated.
                </P>
                <P>One of the sacred objects originates from Humboldt County—CHM-46 was purchased by Frank J. Hittell near Dyerville in August 1903 and is assumed to have been later gifted to or purchased by C. Hart Merriam. Two of the sacred objects originate from Mendocino County—CHM-97 and CHM-98 were purchased by C. Hart Merriam from Sally Bell at her home near Needle Rock Crossroads in August 1923. Three sacred objects originate from Trinity County—CHM-47, CHM-48, and CHM-49 were purchased by C. Hart Merriam from “an old Indian Woman,” possibly Mrs. Lucy Young near Hettenshaw Valley in June 1922.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>UC Davis has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The six sacred objects described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a reasonable connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Bear River Band of the Rohnerville Rancheria, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the UC Davis must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The UC Davis is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 25, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23052 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6692; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041402; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Claremont Colleges Services, Claremont, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Claremont Colleges Services has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58583"/>
                        Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Stig Lanesskog, Claremont Colleges Services, Administrative Campus Center, 101 South Mills Avenue, Claremont, CA 91711, email 
                        <E T="03">stig.lanesskog@claremont.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Claremont Colleges Services and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. In 1968, construction workers uncovered a burial site in Ganesha Park, Pomona, CA. The Los Angeles County coroner determined the remains to be Native American. Following this inadvertent discovery, two professors, Thomas Blackburn of Cal Poly Pomona and John S. Belmont of Pitzer College, Claremont, excavated the site. Later that year, Professor Belmont asked the coroner to release the remains to the Claremont Colleges Museum “in order that all material from this site be brought together in one institution for study.” The following year, Professor Belmont left Pitzer College, and the remains were lost until discovered in a hidden cabinet in the Professor's former office in June of 2025.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Claremont Colleges Services has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>
                    • There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Yuhaaviatam of San Manuel Nation (
                    <E T="03">previously</E>
                     listed as San Manuel Band of Mission Indians, California).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Claremont Colleges Services must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Claremont Colleges Services is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23010 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6663; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041400; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: University of California, Berkeley, Berkeley, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of California, Berkeley intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Alexandra Lucas, Government and Community Relations, Office of the Chancellor. University of California, Berkeley, 200 California Hall, Berkeley, CA 94720, email 
                        <E T="03">nagpra-ucb@berkeley.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the University of California, Berkeley, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of 30 cultural items in the Phoebe A Hearst Museum of Anthropology at the University of California, Berkeley have been requested for repatriation.</P>
                <P>In 1949, Albert Mohr via the University of California Archaeological Survey removed 15 lots of objects of cultural patrimony from the following sites in San Bernardino County, California: CA-SBR-74, CA-SBR-75, CA-SBR-77, CA-SBR-78, CA-SBR-79, and CA-SBR-80. The objects of cultural patrimony include ground stone and worked stone.</P>
                <P>A total of 14 objects of cultural patrimony were removed from the Troy Lake area, CA-SBR-146, and CA-SBR-317 in San Bernardino County, California in or around 1965 by Scott Ryerson. The objects of cultural patrimony include worked stone.</P>
                <P>Harry Godwin removed one object of cultural patrimony from the Sheep Hole Mountains in San Bernardino County, California in 1948. The object of cultural patrimony is a seed.</P>
                <P>Collections and collection spaces at the Phoebe A Hearst Museum of Anthropology were treated with substances for preservation and pest control, some potentially hazardous. No records have been found to date at the Museum to indicate whether or not chemicals or natural substances were used prior to 1960.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>
                    The University of California, Berkeley has determined that:
                    <PRTPAGE P="58584"/>
                </P>
                <P>• The 30 lots of objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>
                    • There is a reasonable connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Yuhaaviatam of San Manuel Nation (
                    <E T="03">previously</E>
                     listed as San Manuel Band of Mission Indians, California).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the University of California, Berkeley must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The University of California, Berkeley is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23008 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6708; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041436; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: California State University, Long Beach, Long Beach, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), California State University, Long Beach has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Miztlayolxochitl Aguilera, California State University Long Beach, 1250 Bellflower Blvd., Long Beach, CA 90840, email 
                        <E T="03">Miztla.Aguilera@csulb.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of California State University, Long Beach and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing at least three individuals have been identified. The one associated funerary object is one bobcat skull. At an unknown date, the remains and associated funerary object were disinterred in Bakersfield, in Kern County, California by an individual who was “digging in the hills” and kept them in his possession. Upon his death, at an unknown date, his family recovered them and released them the Southern California Indian Center (SCIC). On October 29, 2019, SCIC transferred the possession of the remains to California State University, Long Beach (CSULB) for curation and assistance with the NAGPRA process. Since 2019, attempts to uncover more information had been unsuccessful due, in part to the closing of the SCIC. The ancestors were held at CSULB with a note: “Southern California Indian Center—now defunct.” In 2023 the remains were confirmed to be Native American. In June 2025, due to defunct status of the controlling organization, CSULB, with the support of the CSU Chancellor's Office, made the decision to assume control of the remains in good faith to ensure repatriation of the ancestors. There is no record of the human remains or AFO being treated with potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location and acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>California State University, Long Beach has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of three individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The one object described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Tejon Indian Tribe.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>
                    Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, California State University, Long Beach must determine the most 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58585"/>
                    appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. California State University, Long Beach is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23050 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6690; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041430; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: The University of Tennessee, Department of Anthropology, Knoxville, TN</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of Tennessee, Knoxville, Department of Anthropology (UTK), intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Dr. Ellen Lofaro, University of Tennessee (UTK), Office of Repatriation, 5723 Middlebrook Pike, Knoxville, TN 37996, email 
                        <E T="03">nagpra@utk.edu</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of UTK, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of three cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The three lots of unassociated funerary objects are one lot of ceramics, one lot of shell, and one lot of faunal. These objects were recovered from a Mississippian period cemetery at an unknown site in Montgomery County, TN, by an unknown person on an unknown date. These cultural items were discovered during a search for sites from Montgomery County, TN, in UTK collections. No additional information has been discovered related to these cultural materials. To our knowledge, no potentially hazardous substances have been used to treat any of the objects in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>UTK has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The three unassociated funerary objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near human remains, and are connected, either at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony of a Native American culture according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization. The unassociated funerary objects have been identified by a preponderance of the evidence as related to human remains, specific individuals, or families, or removed from a specific burial site or burial area of an individual or individuals with cultural affiliation to an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Cherokee Nation; Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians; The Muscogee (Creek) Nation; Thlopthlocco Tribal Town; and the United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, UTK must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. UTK is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23042 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6662; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041399; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: San José State University, San José, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), San José State University has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is no lineal descendant and no Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Upon request, repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Alisha Marie Ragland, San José State University, One Washington Square, San Jose, CA 95192, email 
                        <E T="03">alisha.ragland@sjsu.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of San José State University, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58586"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, 13 individuals have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects included in this collection. The individuals associated with this collected were part of a former osteological teaching collection for which no acquisition history or associated provenience documentation exists. No known potentially hazardous substances have been used to treat any of the human remains or associated funerary objects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Consultation</HD>
                <P>Invitations to consult were sent to Big Sandy Rancheria of Western Mono Indians of California; Cold Springs Rancheria of Mono Indians of California; Dry Creek Rancheria Band of Pomo Indians, California; Elem Indian Colony of Pomo Indians of the Sulphur Bank Rancheria, California; Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria, California; Kashia Band of Pomo Indians of the Stewarts Point Rancheria, California; Koi Nation of Northern California; Lytton Rancheria of California; Northfork Rancheria of Mono Indians of California; Picayune Rancheria of Chukchansi Indians of California; Santa Rosa Indian Community of the Santa Rosa Rancheria, California; Shingle Springs Band of Miwok Indians, Shingle Springs Rancheria (Verona Tract), California; Table Mountain Rancheria; Tule River Indian Tribe of the Tule River Reservation, California; and the Tuolumne Band of Me-Wuk Indians of the Tuolumne Rancheria of California.</P>
                <P>Invitations were also sent to the following non-federally recognized Indian groups: the Amah Mutsun Tribal Band; Amah Mutsun Tribal Band of Mission San Juan Bautista; Costanoan Rumsen Carmel Tribe; Indian Canyon Mutsun Band of Costanoan; Muwekma Ohlone Tribe of the SF Bay Area; Northern Valley Yokut/Ohlone Tribe; Tamien Nation; The Ohlone Indian Tribe; and the Wuksache Indian Tribe/Eshom Valley Band.</P>
                <P>The Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria, California; Indian Canyon Mutsun Band of Costanoan; Muwekma Ohlone Tribe of the SF Bay Area; and the Tamien Nation responded to requests and participated in ongoing consultations with San José State University for this collection.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>The following types of information about the cultural affiliation of the human remains in this notice are available: geographical, and Native American traditional knowledge.</P>
                <P>The information, including the results of consultation, identified:</P>
                <P>1. No known groups connected to the human remains.</P>
                <P>2. No known Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization is connected to the human remains.</P>
                <P>3. No relationship of shared group identity between the earlier group and an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization that can be reasonably traced through time.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>San José State University has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of at least 13 individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• No known lineal descendant who can trace ancestry to the human remains in this notice has been identified.</P>
                <P>• No Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation to the human remains described in this notice has been clearly or reasonably identified.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.
                </P>
                <P>Upon request, repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, San José State University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. San José State University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23007 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6676; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041418; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Sam Noble Oklahoma Museum of Natural History, University of Oklahoma, Norman, OK</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Sam Noble Oklahoma Museum of Natural History (SNOMNH), has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Zachary Garrett, NAGPRA Program Coordinator, Sam Noble Oklahoma Museum of Natural History, University of Oklahoma, 2401 Chautauqua Avenue, Norman, OK 73072-7029, email 
                        <E T="03">zacgarrett@ou.edu</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of SNOMNH, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>
                    Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. The seven associated funerary objects are historic medicine bundles. In 1996, this individual and their associated funerary objects were transferred from Gordon Yellowman, then-NAGPRA Coordinator for the Cheyenne and Arapaho Tribes, Oklahoma (hereafter “the Tribes”), to SNOMNH representatives at the Oklahoma Medical Examiner's Office in Oklahoma City, OK. This transfer was documented as an “indefinite NAGPRA loan”. The only additional documentation on this 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58587"/>
                    individual is that they came from Blaine County, Oklahoma (Blaine County is within the area of the old reservation of the Tribes). NAGPRA representatives from the Tribes reviewed the bundles and identified them as being in the style of the Tribes and sacred in nature.
                </P>
                <P>To our knowledge, no potentially hazardous substances were used to treat any of the human remains or associated funerary objects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>SNOMNH has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The seven objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Cheyenne and Arapaho Tribes, Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, SNOMNH must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. SNOMNH is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23031 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6680; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041420; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Kansas State Historical Society, Topeka, KS</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Kansas State Historical Society (KSHS) has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Dr. Nicole Klarmann, Kansas State Historical Society, 6425 SW 6th Avenue, Topeka, KS 66615-1099, email 
                        <E T="03">kshs.nagpra@ks.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the KSHS, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, two individuals have been identified from Coffey County, KS (UBS 1989-27, UBS 2022-07). No associated funerary objects are present. The remains were found along the Neosho River, but their exact provenience is unknown. Glue was used with UBS 1989-27 to reconstruct the mandible. Otherwise, no known substances were used to treat these human remains.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The KSHS has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of two individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Kaw Nation, Oklahoma; Nez Perce Tribe; and the Wichita and Affiliated Tribes (Wichita, Keechi, Waco, &amp; Tawakonie), Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the KSHS must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The KSHS is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23032 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58588"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6661; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041398; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, Cambridge, MA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University (PMAE) intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of sacred objects and objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Jane Pickering, Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, 11 Divinity Avenue, Cambridge, MA 02138, email 
                        <E T="03">jpickering@fas.harvard.edu</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the PMAE, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of 30 cultural items has been requested for repatriation.</P>
                <P>The four sacred objects collected from an unknown location in the United States are described as follows:</P>
                <P>The one sacred object is one lot of pouches collected by Mrs. S.T. Satterthwaite and donated to the PMAE in 1939.</P>
                <P>The two sacred objects are one lot of a pipe bag and one lot of a tobacco bag collected by William Radcliff Morris that were previously owned by Chief Washakie and Mrs. William R. Morris, and donated by William H. Claflin, Jr.</P>
                <P>The one sacred object is one lot of a medicine necklace collected by William Wildschut and donated by William H. Claflin, Jr.</P>
                <P>The 26 objects of cultural patrimony are described as follows:</P>
                <P>The two objects of cultural patrimony collected from an unknown location in North America are one lot of a parfleche case collected by Mrs. E.T. Horitz and received by the PMAE as part of an exchange with the Smithsonian Institution in 1903 and one lot of moccasins collected by Ernest T. Jackson and donated by Ernest T. Jackson and Patrick T. Jackson to the PMAE in 1940.</P>
                <P>The 13 objects of cultural patrimony collected from an unknown location in the United States and donated to the PMAE by William H. Claflin, Jr. are one lot of a painted skin robe collected by Donald C. Scott by purchase in 1913 and donated in 1947; one lot of a shirt collected by Jacob Paxson Temple; one lot of a doll, one lot of a quirt, one lot of a tomahawk, one lot of eagle feather headdresses, one lot of a coup stick, one lot of a double dance staff collected by William Radcliff Morris; one lot of a bone needle, one lot of a quirt, one lot of an awl, one lot of bags, and one lot of a knife and sheath collected by William Wildschut.</P>
                <P>The four objects of cultural patrimony collected from an unknown location in Nevada are one lot of a woman's belt, one lot of leggings, one lot of moccasins, and one lot of quill leg ornaments collected by Grace Nicholson and Mrs. L. Cushman and donated by Lewis Hobart Farlow in 1904.</P>
                <P>The one object of cultural patrimony from Utah is one lot of a necklace collected by Dr. Theodore Jewett Eastman and donated by Mrs. Henry H. Richardson in 1938.</P>
                <P>The four objects of cultural patrimony from Wyoming are one lot of a war bonnet, one lot of a feather bustle, one lot of moccasins, and one lot of a man's roach headpiece collected and donated by Henry Seton in 1950.</P>
                <P>The two objects of cultural patrimony from Fremont County, Wyoming are one lot of a wooden saddle and one lot of a large drum collected and donated by Henry Seton in 1958.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The PMAE has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The four sacred objects described in this notice are specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• The 26 objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Eastern Shoshone Tribe of the Wind River Reservation, Wyoming.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the PMAE must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The PMAE is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23006 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6679; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041417; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: California State University, Sacramento, Sacramento, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58589"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the California State University, Sacramento intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Dr. Mark R. Wheeler, Senior Advisor to President Luke Wood, California State University, Sacramento, 6000 J Street Sacramento, CA 95819, email 
                        <E T="03">mark.wheeler@csus.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the California State University, Sacramento, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of at least two cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The two objects of cultural patrimony include one lot each of faunal remains and modified shell. An unknown number of unidentified cultural items may be missing from the collections, which may include other categories of items. The faunal remains (accession 81-488) were collected by a student from a known location in Sacramento County and the modified shell (1974-30-80) came to the University through a donation and likely originates from Sacramento County. The California State University, Sacramento is unaware of any treatment of the objects of cultural patrimony with pesticides, preservatives, or other substances that represent a potential hazard to the objects or to persons handling the objects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The California State University, Sacramento has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The two objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Wilton Rancheria, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the California State University, Sacramento must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The California State University, Sacramento is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <TITLE>Dated: November 24, 2025.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23029 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6656; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041393; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Western Kentucky University, Bowling Green, KY</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Western Kentucky University has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Nikki A. Wilcox, Western Kentucky University, 1906 College Heights Blvd., Bowling Green, KY 42101, 
                        <E T="03">nikki.wilcox@wku.edu</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Western Kentucky University, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified on the campus of Western Kentucky University. No associated funerary objects are present.</P>
                <P>One Ancestor was identified in the summer of 2025 by a faculty member of the Department of Society, Culture, Crime, and Justice Studies, on the first floor of a building on campus.</P>
                <P>While sorting through a filing cabinet, one human skull was identified in the back of a filing cabinet, tucked behind a row of documents. These documents were various archaeological essays and reports. The remains are described as still having a layer of dirt covering the surface.</P>
                <P>There is no further provenience information for this individual, however due to the context information it is more than likely that the Ancestor is from the area. This is further supported by the fact that there was an active archaeologist who used to operate out of the building, and who excavated nearly exclusively within the state of Kentucky.</P>
                <P>There is no known exposure to hazardous substances.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58590"/>
                    affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location of the human remains described in this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>Western Kentucky University has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Cherokee Nation; Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians; The Chickasaw Nation; and the United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Western Kentucky University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. Western Kentucky University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23001 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6706; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041435; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Denver Museum of Nature and Science, Denver, CO</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Denver Museum of Nature and Science (DMNS) intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of sacred objects and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Michele Koons, Denver Museum of Nature &amp; Science, 2001 Colorado Blvd., Denver, CO 80205, email 
                        <E T="03">Michele.Koons@dmns.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Denver Museum of Nature and Science, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of eight cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The eight scared objects are one medicine bundle with herbs, one medicine tube, two medicine roots, and four prayer reeds. The eight sacred objects are: AC. 8234, a medicine bundle, collected by Howard B. Roloff in 1965 from an unknown medicine man at Brighton Reservation. The bundle is made of wool and cloth. The medicine bundle contains seven different herbs used in the “Black Drought”[sic] for purification rites in the Green Corn Dance. The same packet of herbs is usually used twice or even four times, and only at the time of the Green Corn Dance. AC.8235, a medicine tube, collected by Howard B. Roloff in 1965 from Ada Tommie at the Hollywood Reservation, Florida. The medicine tube is made of reeds. The bundle was donated to DMNS by Mary Crane on 27 May 1983. AC.8236, medicinal root, collected by Howard B. Roloff in 1965 from the Seminole in Florida. The root was donated to DMNS by Mary Crane on 27 May 1983. The root was used to treat wounds and carbuncles by an unknow medicine man from Immokalee, Florida. AC.8237, medicinal roots, collected by Howard B. Roloff in 1965 from a medicine woman, Ada Tommie, from the Hollywood Reservation. The roots are tied with blue cloth and are used to treat high blood pressure. The same roots are also found in medicine bundles. The roots were donated to DMNS by Mary Crane on 27 May 1983. AC.8396A-D, four prayer reeds, collected by Howard B. Roloff from Josie Billie in 1966. Bamboo reeds bored out and tied with red cloth in three places made by Josie Billie, the biggest medicine man at Big Cypress. AC. 8234, AC.8235. AC.8236, AC. 8237, and AC.8396A-D were formerly in the “Seminole Section” of DMNS North American Indigenous Cultures Hall, which has been closed to the public since June 2023.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Denver Museum of Nature and Science has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The eight sacred objects described in this notice are specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a reasonable connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Seminole Tribe of Florida and The Seminole Nation of Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Denver Museum of Nature and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58591"/>
                    Science must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Denver Museum of Nature and Science is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23049 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6683; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041423; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Turtle Bay Exploration Park, Redding, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), Turtle Bay Exploration Park (TBEP) intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Julia Cronin, Turtle Bay Exploration Park, 844 Sundial Bridge Drive, Redding, CA 96001, email 
                        <E T="03">jcronin@turtlebay.org</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Turtle Bay Exploration Park, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of 100 cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The 100 objects of cultural patrimony are 47 stone and mineral tools and fragments, 20 bone and antler tools and fragments (including bone fishing implements), 16 lots of animal remains including bones, five lots of stone net weights, four stone bowl fragments, three lots of vegetal remains, three baskets, one lot of bolas, and one steatite oil dish. These belongings have been identified as Wiyot in origin based on archaeological provenience or associated documentation. Most are from Tuluwat Island in Humboldt County, California. The Wiyot have lived on the island and lands surrounding Humboldt Bay since time immemorial.</P>
                <P>The Redding Museum League raised funds for the Redding Museum and Art Center (RMAC), now Turtle Bay Exploration Park, to purchase a steatite oil dish and six bolas from the Alice Dunaway collection through Fred Casebeer in 1971. Dunaway, a renowned basket collector from Happy Camp, CA, also collected other items, most of which reflect her Karuk heritage. These items, however, are documented in museum records as Wiyot.</P>
                <P>In 1972, the RMAC purchased a framed collection of bone fishing implements from Troy Crisp excavated from Gunther (now Tuluwat) Island in 1962. Crisp, a Texas-born collector, lived briefly in Oregon and Northern California. He acquired a large collection of Native American and Indigenous Mexican Belongings over his lifetime through hobby field collecting and trading with other collectors. He primarily added to his collection through his business operating heavy equipment to clear brush land. Given that he did not move to California until 1965, it is possible that the fishing implements were collected during a prior visit.</P>
                <P>In 1974, RMAC purchased a basalt maul attributed to the Wiyot from Geddes Harper of Eureka, CA. It was accessioned the same year.</P>
                <P>Under League President Mary Lou Lane, the Redding Museum League raised funds for the purchase of an open weave fish or sieve type basket of unpeeled willow and conifer root. It was accessioned in 1976. It is attributed to Wiyot, dated c.1930, and in excellent condition.</P>
                <P>In 1977, James “Jim” Dotta donated a sizable collection of archaeological materials to RMAC. In addition, a steatite bowl fragment was donated in 1983 from his estate after his passing. Jim Dotta was a local instructor at Shasta Community College in Redding, CA, a professional archaeologist, and heavily involved in the Redding Museum and Art Center. He was also an avid collector of books, historical objects, artworks, and Indigenous Belongings.</P>
                <P>His 1977 donation accounts for eighty-six (86) of the items in this Notice. They include stone and mineral tools and fragments, like scrapers, projectile points, and net weights, as well as bone and antler tools and fragments such as awls, wedges, and fishing barbs. The animal remains include fish scales and bones, bird beaks and bones, animal teeth, horns, bones, and a baculum. Vegetal remains include corn cobs, rinds, and squash stems. There are also steatite and sandstone stone bowl fragments.</P>
                <P>According to museum records, these items were excavated by Dotta on Tuluwat Island. While they share a site number, there is no archaeological report on file at this museum. There is no indication these items are from a burial context. Mr. Dotta was generally careful in noting the presence or absence of burials in relation to artifacts.</P>
                <P>In 1982, RMAC purchased two Wiyot baskets from the Clarke Museum in Eureka, CA which deaccessioned a portion of its Native American basketry to other nonprofit institutions in accordance with its bylaws. These include a twined willow spoon basket (c.1880) and a twined flour tray (c.1900) made of bear grass, pine root, and hazel shoots.</P>
                <P>Turtle Bay Exploration Park does not treat Indigenous belongings with hazardous materials. However, the documentation does not reflect whether these items received treatment prior to the care of the Redding Museum and Art Center.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>Turtle Bay Exploration Park has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 100 objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>
                    • There is a reasonable connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Wiyot Tribe, California.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58592"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Turtle Bay Exploration Park must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. Turtle Bay Exploration Park is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23035 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6658; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041395; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Mercyhurst University, Erie, PA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), Mercyhurst University has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Anne Marjenin, Mercyhurst University, 501 East 38th Street, Erie, PA 16546, email 
                        <E T="03">nagpra@mercyhurst.edu</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Mercyhurst University, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The individual (MT12-209) may have been removed from the Glover Farm, also referred to as the Glover Site, in Christian County, Kentucky, by Raymond C. Vietzen (1907-1995), likely between approximately 1941 and the mid-1960s. While there is no record regarding potentially hazardous substances having been used to treat the human remains, an unidentified adhesive is present. It is unknown when the adhesive was applied.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The individual (KY-CH-TIN-0004, V-MAN-0172) may have been removed from stone graves on the Glover Farm, also referred to as the Glover Site, in Christian County, Kentucky, by Raymond C. Vietzen (1907-1995), likely between approximately 1941 and the mid-1960s. While there is no record regarding potentially hazardous substances having been used to treat the human remains, an unidentified adhesive, and an unidentified plaster or similar type of substance are present. It is unknown when the adhesive and substance were applied. The human remains may have been treated with an unidentified preservative coating, consolidant, or sealant. It is unknown when this unidentified substance may have been applied.</P>
                <P>Vietzen, an avocational archaeologist, collector, and author, established the Indian Ridge Museum in Elyria, Ohio, and the Archaeological Society of Ohio (formerly the Ohio Indian Relic Collectors Society). The Indian Ridge Museum, founded in the 1930s, served as Vietzen's laboratory and repository, and it remained in operation until the mid-1990s. After Vietzen's death, the facility fell into disrepair, and most of the items he had acquired and housed at the museum were sold. In 1998, the Ohio Historical Society (presently the Ohio History Connection) removed ancestral human remains and some of the remaining items from the facility and temporarily housed them at the Ohio Historical Society. In October of 2003, these remains were transferred from the Ohio Historical Society to Mercyhurst College (presently Mercyhurst University).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>Mercyhurst University has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of two individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Absentee-Shawnee Tribe of Indians of Oklahoma; Cherokee Nation; Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians; Eastern Shawnee Tribe of Oklahoma; Shawnee Tribe; and the United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>
                    Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Mercyhurst University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. Mercyhurst University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58593"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23003 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6699; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041445; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Lincoln University—Missouri, Jefferson City, MO</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Lincoln University—Missouri has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Dr. Christine Elisabeth Boston, Lincoln University—Missouri,</P>
                    <P>
                        Frank Hall #13, 816 Chestnut Street Jefferson City, MO 65101, email 
                        <E T="03">BostonC@lincolnu.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Lincoln University of Missouri, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, two individuals have been identified. The 4,113 associated funerary objects are faunal materials, mussel shells, floral samples, charcoal, pottery, and lithics. The Algoa Site, 23CO156, is located in Cole County, Missouri and was excavated in 1976 by Craig Sturdevant and Lincoln University—Missouri students after road construction exposed archaeological materials and disturbed two burials.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The remain was found in the “Griffin Collection”, a collection of precontact materials from Missouri donated to Lincoln University—Missouri.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The remain was found in the “Display Material Up the Hill” collection, a collection of precontact Missouri materials donated to Lincoln University—Missouri mingled with artifacts pulled from Missouri archaeology collections.</P>
                <P>The 461 associated funerary objects are charcoal and lithics. The Huber Mounds site, 23OS147, is located in Osage County, Missouri. The burial mounds site was excavated in 1975 by Craig Sturdevant and Lincoln University—Missouri students. At least part of the collection has been stored at Lincoln University—Missouri for an unknown amount of time.</P>
                <P>The 31 associated funerary objects are lithics. Site 23MU13 is located in Moniteau County, Missouri. The burial mound site was first recorded by J.H. Stauffer at an unknown earlier date, then excavated by Terrell Martin during survey work conducted October 1984 to June 1985. The collection has been stored at Lincoln University—Missouri since that time.</P>
                <P>The three associated funerary objects are lithics. Site 23MU33 is located in Moniteau County, Missouri. The burial mound site was first recorded by Fred Heysell at an unknown date, then excavated by Terrell Martin during survey work conducted October 1984 to June 1985. The collection has been stored at Lincoln University—Missouri since that time.</P>
                <P>The 10 associated funerary objects are lithics and one pottery sherd. Site 23RN17 is located in Randolph County, Missouri. The rock and earth burial mound site was first recorded and excavated by Rolland E. Pangborn in 1965, revisited at an unknown date and collections stored at Lincoln University—Missouri.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Lincoln University of Missouri has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of four individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 4,618 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and The Osage Nation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Lincoln University of Missouri must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Lincoln University of Missouri is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 25, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23055 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58594"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6666; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041405; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Office of the State Archaeologist, University of Iowa, Iowa City, IA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Office of the State Archaeologist Bioarchaeology Program (OSA BP) has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Dr. Lara Noldner, Office of the State Archaeologist Bioarchaeology Program, University of Iowa, 700 S Clinton Street, Iowa City, IA 52242, 
                        <E T="03">lara-noldner@uiowa.edu</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the OSA BP and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available, human remains representing at least nine individuals have been reasonably identified. No associated funerary objects are present. These individuals were taken from what is now the Sioux City area by Terry Feret and his cousin (now deceased) in the 1970s. Feret took the human remains back to his residence in Fairplay, CO where they were stored at his residence and then transferred to History Colorado in Denver in 2020 when they were discovered by individuals cleaning out his barn. History Colorado arranged for the ancestors' transfer back to Iowa via the UI OSA in January 2025. Based on information provided by the Park County Coroner and Feret, the original burial location was determined and designated 13WD261 in the Iowa Site File in July 2025. Two adult females, two adult males, one adult of unknown sex and four juveniles including a neonate, a 1-2 year-old, a 3.5-4 year-old and an 8-10 year-old are represented (BP3923). No hazardous substances have been used to treat the human remains.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location and acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The OSA BP has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of nine individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a reasonable connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe of the Cheyenne River Reservation, South Dakota; Flandreau Santee Sioux Tribe of South Dakota; Iowa Tribe of Oklahoma; Lower Sioux Indian Community in the State of Minnesota; Prairie Island Indian Community in the State of Minnesota; Santee Sioux Nation, Nebraska; Sisseton-Wahpeton Oyate of the Lake Traverse Reservation, South Dakota; Spirit Lake Tribe, North Dakota; Upper Sioux Community, Minnesota; and the Yankton Sioux Tribe of South Dakota.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the OSA BP must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The OSA BP is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23011 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6701; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041447; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Missouri Historical Society, St. Louis, MO</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Missouri Historical Society (MHS) located in St. Louis, MO has completed an inventory of associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the associated funerary objects in this notice to Brady Wolf, Missouri Historical Society, 225 S Skinker Blvd., St. Louis, MO 63105, email 
                        <E T="03">bwolf@mohistory.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the MHS, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>The one lot of associated funerary objects is modified stones removed from a burial site.</P>
                <P>
                    At an unknown time prior to 1958, the one lot of associated funerary objects 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58595"/>
                    was disinterred from Lincoln Mound (CA-PLA-14) in Placer County, California. At an unknown time, these associated funerary objects were transferred, stored, and possibly displayed at the Central Institute for the Deaf. In 1958, the associated funerary objects were then transferred to the Missouri Historical Society.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The MHS has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The one lot of objects described in this notice is reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the associated funerary objects described in this notice and the United Auburn Indian Community of the Auburn Rancheria of California and the Wilton Rancheria, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the MHS must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The MHS is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 25, 2025</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23151 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6667; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041406; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: University of Oregon Museum of Natural and Cultural History, Eugene, OR</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of Oregon Museum of Natural and Cultural History has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Dr. Pamela Endzweig, Director of Anthropological Collections, University of Oregon Museum of Natural and Cultural History, 1224 University of Oregon, Eugene, OR 97403-1224, email 
                        <E T="03">endzweig@uoregon.edu</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the University of Oregon Museum of Natural and Cultural History, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. The 73 associated funerary objects are 41 glass beads, 18 bone disk beads, nine shell disk beads, one spherical bead of unknown material, three copper buttons, and one fragment of a likely bone tool. The fragmentary human remains consist of one child's deciduous canine. The human remains and associated funerary objects were excavated by University of Oregon archaeologists in 1960 at the site designated as YA-1 in Yamhill County, Oregon, approximately five miles southwest of the town of McMinnville. Additional human remains from the site were repatriated to the Confederated Tribes of Grand Ronde in 1999. The present remains and belongings were discovered during a subsequent collections move by the Museum. The Yamhill County area is in the historic territory of Kalapuya peoples.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The University of Oregon Museum of Natural and Cultural History has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 73 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Confederated Tribes of Siletz Indians of Oregon and the Confederated Tribes of the Grand Ronde Community of Oregon.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>
                    Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58596"/>
                    may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the University of Oregon Museum of Natural and Cultural History must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The University of Oregon Museum of Natural and Cultural History is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23012 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6669; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041408; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, Cambridge, MA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University (PMAE) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Jane Pickering, Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, 11 Divinity Avenue, Cambridge, MA 02138, email 
                        <E T="03">jpickering@fas.harvard.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the PMAE, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 52 individuals have been identified from unknown counties within the state of Florida. The 13 associated funerary objects are 13 lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items; faunal remains or faunal items; floral remains; lithics or stone items; ochre; shell or shell items. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following sites: Mound; Burial Mound near “Salt Lakes”; Grave Mound(s) at unknown locations in Florida; and other unknown locations in Florida. Collectors included: Charles C. Jones Jr. (unknown date); Dr. D.R.S. Warren (1876); Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1860-1873); Dr. Samuel Kneeland (1872); Dr. Thomas Barbour (1889? 1921?); Mr. Ober (unknown date); Peabody Museum of Salem (unknown date); W.F. Clapp (unknown date); William B. Nickerson (unknown date); possibly Clarence Bloomfield Moore (unknown date); and unknown collectors (unknown dates). Donors included: William H. Claflin Jr. (1895); Boston Society of Natural History (1886); Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expeditions (1869, 1874); Dr. Samuel Kneeland (1878); Dr. Thomas Barbour (1921); Ober Collection (1879); Peabody Museum of Salem (1950); Frederick H. Ringe (1894); W.F. Clapp (1911); William B. Nickerson (c.1990); and unknown donors (unknown dates).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The PMAE has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 52 individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 13 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this Notice and the Jena Band of Choctaw Indians; Miccosukee Tribe of Indians; Mississippi Band of Choctaw Indians; Seminole Tribe of Florida; The Choctaw Nation of Oklahoma; The Muscogee (Creek) Nation; The Seminole Nation of Oklahoma; and the Thlopthlocco Tribal Town.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the PMAE must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The PMAE is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 25, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23014 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6655; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041392; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Missouri Historical Society, St. Louis, MO</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58597"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Missouri Historical Society (MHS) intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Brady Wolf, Missouri Historical Society, 225 S Skinker Blvd., St. Louis, MO 63105, email 
                        <E T="03">bwolf@mohistory.org</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the MHS, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of eight cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The eight objects of cultural patrimony are four petroglyphs and four pictographs.</P>
                <P>At an unknown time prior to 1891 Dr. James Patrick of Belleville Illinois removed a carved stone petroglyph of a footprint from its original location in either Madison or St. Clair County, Illinois. He transferred it to the MHS in 1891.</P>
                <P>In 1905 George Dickson of Alton Illinois removed four pictographs from their original location at Levis Bluff. He sold the pictographs to the MHS in 1921 via a deal with Dr. Henry Milton Whelpley.</P>
                <P>At an unknown time, an unknown person or persons took one carved petroglyph of a footprint from an unknown site in Ste. Genevieve, Ste. Genvieve County, Missouri. This petroglyph was found and catalogued during a 1966 inventory of cultural heritage stewarded by the MHS performed by personnel at the University of Missouri, Columbia.</P>
                <P>At an unknown time prior to 1915 an unknown person or person took one carved petroglyph of a footprint from the Donnell Site in Jefferson County, Missouri. This petroglyph was found and catalogued during a 1993 internal inventory at the MHS.</P>
                <P>At an unknown time prior to 1915 an unknown person or person took one carved petroglyph of a footprint from an unknown locality in Illinois or Missouri. This petroglyph was found and catalogued during a 1993 internal inventory at the MHS.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The MHS has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The eight objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and The Osage Nation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the MHS must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The MHS is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23000 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6700; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041446; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Fowler Museum at University of California Los Angeles, Los Angeles, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Fowler Museum at University of California Los Angeles (UCLA) intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of sacred objects and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Allison Fischer-Olson, Fowler Museum at UCLA, Box 951549, Los Angeles, CA 90095-1549, email 
                        <E T="03">afischerolson@arts.ucla.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Fowler Museum at UCLA, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>
                    A total of 20 cultural items have been requested for repatriation. The 20 sacred objects are pāhoa (daggers), ko'i (adze heads), pōhaku ku'i 'ai (poi pounder), 'ihe (wood spear), ulumaika (bowling stones), kealaokama'a (sling stones), and a shark tooth weapon. In 1965, Sir Henry Wellcome gifted five pāhoa (daggers, swords, or knives) (X65.2400, X65.2401, X65.2402, X65.2403, X65.2194), documented as originating from Polynesia/Hawaii, to the Museum. In 1965, Sir Henry Wellcome gifted one pōhaku ku'i 'ai (poi pounder) (X65.10755), documented as originating from Honolulu/Hawaii, to the museum. In 1965, Sir Henry Wellcome gifted one 'ihe (wood spear) (X65.7252) and one shark tooth weapon (X65.5539), documented as originating from Hawaii, to the museum. In 1965, Mr. and Mrs. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58598"/>
                    Ralph C. Altman gifted five ulumaika (bowling stones) (X65.10208A-E) and three kealaokama'a (sling stones) (X65.10208F-H), documented as originating from Hawaii/Polynesia, to the museum. In 1967, Sir Henry Wellcome gifted three ko'i (adze heads) (X67.4914, X67.4915, X67.4918), documented as originating from Hawaii or Hawaii/Polynesia, to the museum. In 1968, Sir Henry Wellcome gifted one ko'i (adze head) (X68.467), documented as originating from Honolulu/Hawaii/Polynesia/Oceania, to the museum. There is no known use of potentially hazardous substances for treatment of the sacred objects.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Fowler Museum at UCLA has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 20 sacred objects described in this notice are specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Hui Iwi Kuamo'o.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Fowler Museum at UCLA must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Fowler Museum at UCLA is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 25, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23053 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6674; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041414; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: University of Alabama Museums, Tuscaloosa, AL</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of Alabama Museums has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to William Bomar, University of Alabama Museums, Box 870340, Tuscaloosa, AL 35487, email 
                        <E T="03">bbomar@ua.edu</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the University of Alabama Museums, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, 213 individuals have been identified. The 1,658 lots of associated funerary objects are ceramic vessels, ceramic sherds, rock, shell, celts, faunal bone, beads, lithics, axes, discoidal, debitage, daub, hairpin, and pigment.</P>
                <P>In 1932, human remains representing, at minimum, 84 individuals, were removed from site 3Ms3/3Ms4, Nodena Site. This collection was obtained during limited excavations at Middle Nodena, 3MS3, and more extensive excavations at Upper Nodena, 3MS4, in Mississippi County, Arkansas by the Alabama Museum of Natural History. A total of 799 burials were excavated, nearly half of these coming from a small area at Upper Nodena Mound C. Artifacts from the excavations were assigned a field specimen number with the prefix NOD followed by a number. The 875 lots of associated funerary objects include ceramic vessels, ceramic sherds, rock, shell, celts, faunal bone, beads, lithics, axes, discoidal, debitage, daub, hairpin, and pigment.</P>
                <P>In 1931, human remains representing, at minimum, 75 individuals, were removed from site 3Ms2, Walnut Mound Site. This collection was obtained during excavations conducted by the Alabama Museum of Natural History in 1931 along with excavations at the Nodena site. Limited investigations were conducted at a number of sites. Materials from the excavations were catalogued as field specimens with the prefix WAL followed by a number. The great majority of specimens are complete pottery vessels, partial vessels, or sherd lots. Chipped stone points, polished stone celts, axes, and discoidals, are included as are a number of bone, shell, and antler artifacts. The 525 lots of associated funerary objects include ceramic vessels, ceramic sherds, rock, shell, celts, faunal bone, beads, lithics, axes, discoidal, debitage, daub, hairpin, and pigment.</P>
                <P>In 1933, human remains representing, at minimum, 15 individuals, were removed from site 3Ms71, Higginbotham Farm Site. This collection was obtained during excavations conducted by the Alabama Museum of Natural History in 1933. This was one of several excavations conducted along with more major work at the Nodena site and Walnut Mound. The materials from the excavations include field specimens with the prefix HI followed by a number. Most of the artifacts are pottery vessels. There are seven boxes of specimens in this collection. The 63 lots of associated funerary objects include ceramic vessels, ceramic sherds, rock, shell, celt, and faunal bone.</P>
                <P>
                    In 1933, human remains representing, at minimum, 39 individuals, were removed from site 3Po23, Potter's Farm Site. This collection was obtained during excavations conducted by the Alabama Museum of Natural History in 1933. This was one of several excavations conducted along with more major work at the Nodena site and the Walnut Mound. The materials from the excavations include field specimens 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58599"/>
                    with the prefix PO followed by a number. Most of the artifacts are pottery vessels, along with various chipped and ground stone tools, bone awls and needles, and other materials. The 195 lots of associated funerary objects include ceramic vessels, ceramic sherds, shell, faunal bone, ground stone, lithic, beads, and charcoal.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The University of Alabama Museums has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 213 individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 1,658 lots of associated funerary objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Quapaw Nation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the University of Alabama Museums must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The University of Alabama Museums is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23026 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6681; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041421; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Kansas State Historical Society, Topeka, KS</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Kansas State Historical Society (KSHS) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Dr. Nicole Klarmann, Kansas State Historical Society, 6425 SW 6th Avenue, Topeka, KS 66615-1099, email 
                        <E T="03">kshs.nagpra@ks.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the KSHS, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, four individuals have been identified from the Calovich Mound site (14WY7) in Wyandotte County, KS (UBS 1991-72). The seven associated funerary objects include a bone bead, shell fragments, a rock, and animal bone. This Middle Ceramic village and burial site among the Missouri River bluffs was excavated in 1960 and then later assessed by KSHS in the 1970s. Human remains and funerary objects were removed from backdirt piles left by looter pits. Around this time, a nearby landowner removed teeth and a bone bead from the site and gave them to KSHS. To our knowledge, no hazardous substances were used to treat the human remains or associated funerary objects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The KSHS has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of four individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The seven objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Kaw Nation, Oklahoma and the Pawnee Nation of Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>
                    Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the KSHS must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58600"/>
                    repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The KSHS is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23033 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6654; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041391; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology, Athens, GA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Amanda Roberts Thompson, University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology, 1125 E Whitehall Rd., Athens, GA 30602, email 
                        <E T="03">arobthom@uga.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from the Lower Coastal Plain Physiographic Province of Georgia, including Bryan County sites 9BN7 Seven Mile Bend, 9BN9 Red Bird Creek, 9BN10 Kilkenny; Chatham County sites 9CH_, 9CH14 Oemler Mound, 9CH15 Haven Home (Indian Kings Tomb), 9CH61 Pagan Plum, 9CH71 Groves Creek, 9CH119, 9CH683 Habersham Mounds; Glynn County sites 9GN1 Airport, 9GN3 Charlie King Mound, 9GN6 Evelyn, 9GN22 Kelvin Grove Plantation, 9GN34 Sea Island Point, 9GN40 Belle Point, 9GN51 Kent Mound, 9GN54 Goodyear Mound, 9GN55 Taylor Mound, 9GN56 Oatland Mound, 9GN74 Sea Palms, 9GN88 Kutwick; Liberty County sites LI Shoreline Survey, 9LI8 Fallen Tree, 9LI21 Meeting House Field, 9LI207 Back Creek Village, 9LI231 St. Catherines Shell Ring, 9LI274 Mission Santa Catalina de Guale, 9LI648, McQueen Shell Ring, 9LI2111 Hope Mound, 9LI2117 Pueblo North; McIntosh County sites 9MC_Site 147, 9MC_Harris Neck, 9MC4 Townsend Mound, 9MC64 Pine Harbor Mound, 9MC404 The Thicket, 9MC414 Little Pine Island and from unprovenienced areas in Chatham County, Liberty County, Glynn County, and McIntosh County.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 24 individuals have been identified. The approximately 496 associated funerary objects include faunal bone, shell, charcoal, shell and bone mix, shell beads, ceramics. These ancestors and objects were recovered in excavations by Fred Cook in 1971 at 9BN7, Seven Mile Bend in Bryan County, Georgia. Cook likely brought the collection to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology after the project but the date is not known. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least five individuals have been identified. The approximately 183 associated funerary objects include faunal bone, lithic, and ceramics. These ancestors and objects were excavated by Charles Pearson and Chester DePratter in 1973 at 9BN9, Red Bird Creek in Bryan County, Georgia. Pearson and DePratter likely brought the collection to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology after the project but the date is not known. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least three individuals have been identified. The approximately 47 associated funerary objects include shell beads. These ancestors and objects were recovered in excavations by Fred Cook in 1968 at 9BN10, Kilkenny Mound in Bryan County, Georgia. Cook likely brought the collection to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology after the project but the date is not known. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. The approximately 26 associated funerary objects include ceramics, clay, nail, lithic, shell, faunal bone, and charcoal/burnt wood. The ancestor and objects were recovered in excavations from an unknown location in Chatham County, Georgia. Howard and DePratter's names are written on other bags in this box (from other sites). So, it is probable that this unknown site was part of the NSF surface survey they were conducting in the 1970s. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology after the project but the date is not known. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. Chester DePratter and Pennington collected at 9CH14 Oemler Marsh Mound in Chatham County, Georgia in 1978. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology after the project but the date is not known. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least four individuals have been identified. The approximately 364 associated funerary objects include ceramics. These ancestors and objects were excavated from 9CH15, Haven Home in Chatham County, Georgia. The collection history is somewhat unclear, but it is known that excavations occurred at the site in the late 1930s. At some point in 1972, 1 associated funerary object was transferred to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology. Ancestors and associated funerary objects were transferred from the University of West Georgia and Fernbank Natural History Museum in 2025. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>
                    Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. Chester DePratter and Don Crusoe excavated at 9CH61, Pagan Plum Point in Chatham County, Georgia in early 1970s. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology after the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58601"/>
                    project but the date is not known. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.
                </P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least seven individuals have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. Erv Garrison excavated at 9CH71, Grove's Creek in Chatham County, Georgia between 1985 and 2009. There was also an earlier excavation in 1970. It is unclear when the ancestors were removed from the site but based on the label on the box, it was before 1993. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology after this date. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. The approximately 16 associated funerary objects include ceramics, soil, charcoal, and sandstone concretions. Chester DePratter collected at 9CH119, in Chatham County, Georgia around 1974. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology after this date. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. The approximately 22 associated funerary objects include lithics, burnt wood, burnt shell, burnt clay, and ceramics. Fred Cook collected at 9CH683, Habersham Mounds in Chatham County, Georgia around 1981. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology after this date. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least three individuals have been identified. The approximately 26 associated funerary objects include faunal bone. Fred Cook collected at 9GN1, Airport in Glynn County, Georgia during an unknown year. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology with other collections excavated by Cook but the year is unknown. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. Fred Cook collected at 9GN3, Charlie King Mound in Glynn County, Georgia during an unknown year. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology with other collections excavated by Cook but the year is unknown. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. The approximately two associated funerary objects include ochre sand/clay. Chester DePratter and Bill Steed excavated at 9GN6, Evelyn in Glynn County, Georgia in 1968. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology after this date. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least two individuals have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. Fred Cook collected at 9GN22, Kelvin Grove Plantation in Glynn County, Georgia during an unknown year. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology with other collections excavated by Cook but the year is unknown. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. Chester DePratter and Don Crusoe collected an eroding burial at 9GN34, Sea Island Point in Glynn County, Georgia in approximately 1971. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology after this date. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. Chester DePratter and Don Crusoe collected at 9GN40, Belle Point in Glynn County, Georgia in approximately 1971. It is likely that the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology after this date. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 84 individuals have been identified. The approximately 896 associated funerary objects include shell/bone/charcoal mix, shell, shell pins, carved bone, shell beads, pearl beads, glass beads, ceramics, lithics, mica and galena, faunal bone, and charcoal. Fred Cook excavated at 9GN51, Kent Mound in Glynn County Georgia around 1965. It is likely that part of the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology with other collections excavated by Cook but the year is unknown. Part of the collection was also brought to Skidaway Institute before it was transferred to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology in approximately 2018. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least three individuals have been identified. The approximately four associated funerary objects include charcoal and faunal bone. Fred Cook and Charles Pearson collected at a previously looted portion of 9GN54, Goodyear Mound in Glynn County, Georgia during an unknown year. It is likely that the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology with other collections excavated by Cook but the year is unknown. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 12 individuals have been identified. The approximately 3,283 associated funerary objects include shell beads, crab claw, faunal bone, lithics, ceramics, possible pearl beads, copper rivet, botanicals, unidentified iron, nails, iron axe, coins, and shell ear pins. Fred Cook excavated at 9GN55, Taylor Mound in Glynn County Georgia between 1968 to 1972. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology with other collections excavated by Cook but the year is unknown. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least two individuals have been identified. The approximately 159 associated funerary objects include shell beads, shell ear plug, faunal bone, antler, and ceramics. Charles Pearson and Fred Cook excavated at 9GN56, Oatland Mound in Glynn County, Georgia between 1968 and 1972. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology with other collections excavated by Cook but the year is unknown. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 17 individuals have been identified. The approximately 10 associated funerary objects include ceramics and faunal bone from burial fill. Fred Cook conducted excavations and surface collecting at 9GN74, Sea Palms in Glynn County, Georgia in 1972. It is likely that the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology with other collections excavated by Cook but the year is unknown. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. Fred Cook collected at 9GN88, Kutwick in Glynn County, Georgia on an unknown date. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology with other collections excavated by Cook but the year is unknown. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>
                    Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58602"/>
                    There are no associated funerary objects. The ancestor identified here was surface collected along the shoreline of St. Catherines Island in Liberty County, Georgia by the American Museum of Natural History. The collection was transferred by the American Museum of Natural History to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology in 2017. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.
                </P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 97 individuals have been identified. There are approximately 5,722 associated funerary objects including ochre, daub, fired clay, lithics, shell, ceramics, ceramic bead, ceramic disc, shell beads, shell gorgets, worked shell, pearl, tabby, sandstone, petrified wood, faunal bone, bone tools, unidentified metal, metal scale, lead shot, nails, mica, gunflints, coprolite, pipe, fired clay, flotation samples, carbon 14 samples, botanicals, and soil. The American Museum of Natural History excavated at 9LI8, Fallen Tree in Liberty County, Georgia between 2013 and 2015. The collection was transferred by the American Museum of Natural History to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology in 2022. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least six individuals have been identified. The approximately 217 associated funerary objects include lithics, mica, dog burial, faunal bone, bone tools, and ceramics. Joseph Caldwell excavated at 9LI18, Johns Mound in Liberty County, Georgia between approximately 1969 and 1970. The collection was transferred to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology after this time. In approximately 2004, the majority of the collection was transferred by the American Museum of Natural History to the Fernbank Museum of Natural History. The ancestors and objects in this notice were missed during this transfer. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. The 82 associated funerary objects include ceramics, pipe fragments, and ochre. The American Museum of Natural History excavated at 9LI21, Meeting House Field in Liberty County, Georgia between 2009 and 2015. The entire collection was transferred by the American Museum of Natural History to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology in 2017. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. American Museum of Natural History initially identified 9LI207, Back Creek Village in Liberty County, Georgia in 1977 and excavations were conducted there between 1991 and 2008. The entire collection was transferred by the American Museum of Natural History to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology in 2017. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least two individuals have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. American Museum of Natural History excavated at 9LI231, St. Catherines Shell Ring in Liberty County between 2006 and 2007. The entire collection was transferred by the American Museum of Natural History to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology in 2017. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 16 individuals have been identified. There are approximately 20 associated funerary remains including copper arm band and copper fragments. The American Museum of Natural History excavated at 9LI648, McQueen Shell Ring in 2007 and 2008. The collection was transferred by the American Museum of Natural History to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology in 2022. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least three individuals have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. American Museum of Natural History excavated at 9LI2111, Hope Mound in Liberty County in approximately 2012. The entire collection was transferred by the American Museum of Natural History to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology in 2017. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. American Museum of Natural History excavated at 9LI2117, Pueblo North in Liberty County in 2005 and 2011. The entire collection was transferred by the American Museum of Natural History to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology in 2017. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. There are approximately seven associated funerary objects including ceramics. The University of Georgia conducted a survey for the Soil Conservation Service in 1975. The ancestor and objects from this excavation are from an unknown site (only identified as Site 147) in McIntosh County, Georgia. It is likely that the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology after this date. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. Fred Cook collected from on unknown site (only identified as Harris Neck) in McIntosh County, Georgia at an unknown date. It is likely that the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology with other collections excavated by Cook but the year is unknown. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. There are approximately 24 associated funerary objects including charcoal/burnt wood, shell necklace, stone discs, nails, shell, faunal bone, and ceramics. Fred Cook excavated at 9MC4, Townsend Mound in McIntosh County, Georgia in 1970. It is likely that the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology with other collections excavated by Cook but the year is unknown. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 148 individuals have been identified. There are approximately 3,591 associated funerary objects including shell, faunal bone, shell/faunal bone/ceramic mix, burnt clay, charcoal, lithics, wood, ceramics, unmodified rocks, shell gorgets, shell beads, shell ear pin, pearl beads, shell pendant, metal/copper rings, nails, ochre/ferrous oxide, pipe fragments, glass beads, and botanicals. Fred Cook excavated at 9MC64, Pine Harbor in McIntosh County, Georgia in the 1970s. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology with other collections excavated by Cook but the year is unknown. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>
                    Human remains representing at least 43 individuals have been identified. There are approximately 422 associated funerary objects including ceramics, lithics, carbon 14 samples, charcoal, soil, pipe fragments, shell, faunal bone, burnt clay, botanicals, bead, burnt wood, and shell. Fred Cook excavated at 9MC414, Little Pine Island in McIntosh County, Georgia in 1987-1988. It is likely the collection was brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology with other collections excavated by Cook but the year is unknown. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58603"/>
                </P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. This ancestor was only labeled CN 1443/Spec 808. Due to limited information on the labels and bags in which they were found, the provenience of the ancestor is uncertain but likely from Glynn County, Georgia. It is unknown when the ancestors were brought to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 6 individuals have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. The ancestors were labeled as “Unprovenienced Georgia Coast Burial 1 and 2.” They were transferred from the Marine Research Extension Service Museum on Skidaway Island to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology by Elizabeth Misner in 1993. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least three individuals have been identified. There are no associated funerary objects. The ancestors were labeled as being from Ogeechee, which is located along the coast of Georgia. Based on available information, the ancestors were transferred from the Marine Research Extension Service Museum on Skidaway Island to the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology on an unknown date. There is no record of any potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by geographic location and acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 508 individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 15,619 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Seminole Tribe of Florida and The Muscogee (Creek) Nation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The University of Georgia, Laboratory of Archaeology is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-22999 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6698; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041444; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Allen County-Fort Wayne Historical Society, Fort Wayne, IN</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Allen County-Fort Wayne Historical Society has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Todd Maxwell Pelfery, Executive Director, Allen County-Fort Wayne Historical Society, 302 E Berry Street, Fort Wayne, IN 46802, email 
                        <E T="03">tpelfrey@fwhistorycenter.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Allen County-Fort Wayne Historical Society and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>
                    Human remains representing, at least, two individuals have been identified. The 172 associated funerary objects are potsherds, projectile points, stone tools, and blades. The remains of the first reasonably culturally identifiable individual were found in Milan Township, Allen County, Indiana, in 1936 as part of county-wide archaeological survey. There are at 4 mandible fragments, and other smaller fragments likely belong to the same mandible, and three human teeth are attributed to this one individual. Forty-four of the associated funerary objects are attributed to the same excavation site as the human remains. The remains of the second reasonably culturally identifiable individual were found in St. Joseph Township, Allen County, Indiana, in 1936 as part of the same county-wide archaeological survey. There is one grooved bone fragment that is believed to belong to one individual. There are 128 associated funerary objects that are attributed to the same excavation site as the human remains of the second individual. The human remains of these two individuals and the associated funerary objects arrived at the Allen County-Fort Wayne Historical Society in1972 and were originally part of the 1936 Archaeological Survey of Allen County, led by Professor Glen A. Black. Professor Black was most prominently 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58604"/>
                    known for his excavation of burial mounds.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Allen County-Fort Wayne Historical Society has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of two individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 172 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Miami Tribe of Oklahoma and the Shawnee Tribe.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Allen County-Fort Wayne Historical Society must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Allen County-Fort Wayne Historical Society is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 25, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23054 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6682; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041422; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: Culver-Stockton College, Canton, MO</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Culver-Stockton College intends to repatriate a certain cultural item that meets the definition of an unassociated funerary object and that has a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural item in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural item in this notice to C. Patrick Hotle, Culver-Stockton College, No, 1 College Hill, Canton, MO 63435, email 
                        <E T="03">photle@culver.edu</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Culver-Stockton College, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of one cultural item has been requested for repatriation. The unassociated funerary object is a birdstone. The popeye, pink granite birdstone taken from an unknown site in Sussex, New Jersey was part of a collection given to the college sometime in the mid 1970's by Paul Cory.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Culver-Stockton College has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The one unassociated funerary objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near human remains, and are connected, either at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony of a Native American culture according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization. The unassociated funerary objects have been identified by a preponderance of the evidence as related to human remains, specific individuals, or families, or removed from a specific burial site or burial area of an individual or individuals with cultural affiliation to an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural item described in this notice and the Delaware Nation, Oklahoma; Delaware Tribe of Indians; and the Stockbridge Munsee Community, Wisconsin.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural item in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural item in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Culver-Stockton College must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural item are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Culver-Stockton College is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23034 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58605"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6664; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041401; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: California State University, Los Angeles, Los Angeles, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the California State University, Los Angeles intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to Gregorio Pacheco, California State University, Los Angeles, 5151 State University Drive, Los Angeles, CA 90032, email 
                        <E T="03">gpache15@calstatela.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the California State University, Los Angeles, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of 753 cultural items have been requested for repatriation. All 753 cultural items have been identified and requested as objects of cultural patrimony by the Tribe.</P>
                <P>A total of 371 items identified as objects of cultural patrimony by the Tribe includes groundstone tools, hammerstones, flaked stone tools, pottery fragments, fire affected rock fragment, unmodified faunal bone fragment, soil samples and lithic debitage. The items are associated with sites CA-LAN-166 and CA-LAN-518. The surface collection and test excavations that resulted in collection of these items occurred in the spring of 1973 under the direction of Hal Eberhardt assisted by Warren Wasson. Eberhardt was a professor at Cal State LA and brought the collection to campus. Analysis was completed and an article describing the artifacts was published in 1978 in the Pacific Coast Archaeological Society Quarterly (Volume 14, Issue 2). No known hazardous substances were utilized to treat the items.</P>
                <P>A total of 37 items identified as objects of cultural patrimony by the Tribe includes groundstone tools, flaked stone tools and lithic debitage. The items are associated with site CA-LAN-173. These items appear to be from a surface collection conducted by Hal Eberhardt when he was faculty at Cal State LA in the early 1970s. No known hazardous substances were utilized to treat these items.</P>
                <P>
                    A total of 10 items identified as objects of cultural patrimony by the Tribe includes groundstone tools, flaked stone tools and rock fragments. The items are associated with sites CA-LAN-75 and CA-LAN-338. It is unclear exactly how these items came to campus. 
                    <E T="7601">Not sure.</E>
                     An archaeological site record was filled out by Hal Eberhardt in 1951 when he was faculty at Cal State LA, so it is assumed that Eberhardt brought these 10 items to Cal State LA sometime during the 1950s-1970s. No documentation has been found on how these items were collected. The small size and type of collection (10 items) suggest they were surface collected and not from excavations. No known hazardous substances were utilized to treat the items.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A total of 335 items identified as objects of cultural patrimony by the Tribe includes groundstone tools, hammerstones, cores, flaked stone tools, unmodified faunal bone, wood (
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    C sample), and lithic debitage. The items are associated with site CA-LAN-399. Excavations were conducted by Hal Eberhardt between April 1966 and June 1967 on the Glendora property of Mr. and Mrs. Sassone. A report for this excavation authored by Hal Eberhardt and Warren Wasson and titled 
                    <E T="03">The Sassone Site (Lan-339): A Milling Stone Horizon Station in the San Gabriel Valley, California Report</E>
                     indicates that that items were retained by the landowners with “a small type selection” being left with the Department of Anthropology, Cal State LA. This “type selection” are the items described here. No known hazardous substances were utilized to treat the items.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>California State University, Los Angeles has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 753 items identified and characterized by the tribe as objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>
                    • There is a connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Yuhaaviatam of San Manuel Nation (
                    <E T="03">previously</E>
                     listed as San Manuel Band of Mission Indians, California).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the California State University, Los Angeles must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The California State University, Los Angeles is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23009 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58606"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6693; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041433; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: University of Michigan, Ann Arbor, MI</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of Michigan has completed an inventory of associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the associated funerary objects in this notice to Dr. Ben Secunda, NAGPRA Office Managing Director, University of Michigan, Office of Research, Suite G269, Lane Hall, Ann Arbor, MI 48109-1274, email 
                        <E T="03">bsecunda@umich.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the University of Michigan, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Based on information available, five associated funerary objects were removed from the Bedford site (11PK7) in Pike Co., Illinois on multiple dates by multiple individuals. The five associated funerary objects are two lots of earthenware sherds; one lot of unworked wood; one lot of lithic flakes; and one lot lithic. Through Consultation, dating for the site was determined to be the Middle to Late Woodland period.</P>
                <P>Based on the information available, 15 associated funerary objects were removed from the Blue Creek site (11PK5) in Pike Co., Illinois on multiple dates by multiple individuals. The 15 associated funerary objects are two lots of earthenware sherds; one lot of bone awls; one lot of shell; seven lots of lithics; one lot of animal bones; one lot of large lithic; one lot of flat piece of stone; and one lot of galena/lead. Through Consultation, dating for the site was determined to be the Middle to Late Woodland period.</P>
                <P>Based on the information available, seven associated funerary objects were removed from the Montezuma site (11PK41) in Pike Co., Illinois prior to 1950. The seven associated funerary objects are two lots of earthenware sherds; one lot of lithic bannerstone; one lot of lithic projectile point; one lot of worked stone; one lot of worked flint flakes; and one lot of mammal bone fragments. Through Consultation, dating for the site was determined to be to the Middle to Late Woodland period.</P>
                <P>Based on information available, 47 associated funerary objects were removed from the Manker site (11PK3) in Pike Co., Illinois on multiple dates by multiple individuals. The 47 associated funerary objects are eight lots of earthenware sherds; one lot of bone awls; four lots of lithic bifaces; two lots of shell; one lot of lithic scrapers; one lot of projectile points and projectile point fragments; six lots of various stone tools; one lot of projectile point fragments; two lots of lithic blades and blade fragments; one lot of lithic drill; one lot of stone hoe; one lot of stone celt fragments; one lot of grooved stone axe; one lot of various archaeological materials; two lots of stone tools; one lot of stone celts; two lots of projectile points; one lot of lithic flakes; three lots of lithic blades; one lot of stone disc; one lot of unworked animal bone fragment; one lot of groundstone axes; one lot of grooved stone pendant; one lot of worked stone; one lot of unfired clay fragment; one lot of unworked stones. Through Consultation, dating for the site was determined to be to the Middle to Late Woodland period.</P>
                <P>The University of Michigan has no record of, nor do its officials have any knowledge of, any treatment of items with pesticides, preservatives, or other substances that represent a potential hazard to the collection(s) or to persons handling the collection(s).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The University of Michigan has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 74 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual Ancestral remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Citizen Potawatomi Nation, Oklahoma; Eastern Shawnee Tribe of Oklahoma; Forest County Potawatomi Community, Wisconsin; Iowa Tribe of Kansas and Nebraska; Kaw Nation, Oklahoma; Match-e-be-nash-she-wish Band of Pottawatomi Indians of Michigan; Miami Tribe of Oklahoma; Omaha Tribe of Nebraska; Otoe-Missouria Tribe of Indians, Oklahoma; Peoria Tribe of Indians of Oklahoma; Pokagon Band of Potawatomi Indians, Michigan and Indiana; Ponca Tribe of Indians of Oklahoma; Ponca Tribe of Nebraska; Prairie Band Potawatomi Nation; Quapaw Nation; Sac &amp; Fox Nation, Oklahoma; Sac &amp; Fox Tribe of the Mississippi in Iowa; Shawnee Tribe; and the Winnebago Tribe of Nebraska</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the University of Michigan must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Join requests for repatriation of the associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The University of Michigan is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58607"/>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 2, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23047 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6689; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041429; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: The University of Tennessee, Department of Anthropology, Knoxville, TN</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), The University of Tennessee, Knoxville, Department of Anthropology (UTK), has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Dr. Ellen Lofaro, University of Tennessee (UTK), Office of Repatriation, 5723 Middlebrook Pike, Knoxville, TN 37996, email 
                        <E T="03">nagpra@utk.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of UTK, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, 100 individuals have been identified. The four lots of associated funerary objects are one lot of ceramic sherds, one lot of fauna and shell, one lot of lithics, and one lot of objects placed with or near human remains. These individuals and objects were recovered from the Carrigan or Gigen's Cemetery site (40MT33) in Montgomery County, TN, by Paul Eden and H.C. “Buddy” Brehm with Southeastern Indian Antiquities Survey (SIAS) in September 1974. This site dates to the Mississippian Period, ~1000-1450 CE. These individuals and objects were transferred to UTK in 1975 for examination and retained.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual has been identified. The two lots of associated funerary objects are two lots of objects placed with or near human remains. This individual and objects were recovered from Coleman Cave (40MT16) in Montgomery County, TN. One individual and one lot of objects were discovered at UTK as part of the McIlhaney Collection in July 2024. The circumstances of recovery and what brought this individual and objects to UTK are currently unknown. The second lot of objects were donated by an unknown caver to the Cave Archaeology Reasearch Team project directed by Jan Simek at UTK likely in the 1990s. This cave site dates from the Archaic to Mississippian periods.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual has been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. This individual was recovered by the Montgomery County Sheriff's Office from an unknown location in Montgomery County and sent to the UTK Forensic Anthropology Center (FAC) in August of 1983 for examination. After FAC staff determined that the individual was Native American, and not of medicolegal concern, they were retained by the FAC as case 83-18. They remained at the FAC until they were recently transferred to the UTK Office of Repatriation.</P>
                <P>To our knowledge, no potentially hazardous substances have been used to treat any of the Ancestral remains or associated funerary objects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>UTK has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 102 individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The six lots of objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Cherokee Nation; Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians; The Muscogee (Creek) Nation; Thlopthlocco Tribal Town; and the United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, UTK must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. UTK are responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23041 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6686; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041426; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation Division of Archaeology, Nashville, TN</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58608"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation, Division of Archaeology (TDEC-DOA) has completed an inventory of human remains from Morgan County, Alabama and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Phillip R. Hodge, Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation, Division of Archaeology (TDEC-DOA), 1216 Foster Avenue, Cole Building #3, Nashville, TN 37243, email 
                        <E T="03">phil.hodge@tn.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the TDEC-DOA, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unknown Site, Morgan County, AL</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual. These ancestral remains were recovered from the Tennessee River shoreline approximately three miles from Decatur, Alabama in 1955. No additional information is available on how these materials entered TDOA care. There is no known exposure to hazardous substances or treatments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The TDEC-DOA has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Cherokee Nation; Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians; Poarch Band of Creek Indians; The Chickasaw Nation; and the United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the TDEC-DOA must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The TDEC-DOA is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23038 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6694; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041434; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: University of Michigan, Ann Arbor, MI</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of Michigan has completed an inventory of human remains (hereinafter referred to as “Ancestral remains” or “Ancestors”) and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the Ancestral remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the Ancestral remains in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the Ancestral remains in this notice to Dr. Ben Secunda, University of Michigan, Office of the Vice President for Research, Suite G269, Lane Hall, Ann Arbor, MI 48109-1274, email 
                        <E T="03">bsecunda@umich.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the University of Michigan, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Ancestral remains representing, at least, two individuals have been identified. On an unknown date prior to 1951, the Ancestors were removed from an unspecified location on the shore of Lake Champlain west of Orwell Village in Vermont. W.A. Dewey donated the Ancestral remains to the U-M Museum of Anthropological Archaeology (UMMAA). The year of acquisition is uncertain, but the sequence of UMMAA's accession records may suggest the donation was made in the 1920s. No time period has been determined for the burial. There are no associated funerary objects present. Although early records indicated the presence of animal bone fragments, no animal bone fragments have been located among the UMMAA's holdings, and it is believed that this may have been a mis-notation of Ancestral remains. Consultation occurred with representatives of the Stockbridge Munsee Community, Wisconsin; as well as the W8banaki First Nation of Wôlinak and Odanak, Canada.</P>
                <P>The University of Michigan has no record of, nor do its officials have any knowledge of, any treatment of the Ancestors with pesticides, preservatives, or other substances that represent a potential hazard to the collection(s) or to persons handling the collection(s).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58609"/>
                    history of the Ancestral remains described in this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The University of Michigan has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The Ancestral remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of two individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the Ancestral remains described in this notice and the Stockbridge Munsee Community, Wisconsin.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the Ancestral remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the Ancestral remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the University of Michigan must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the Ancestral remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The University of Michigan is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 2, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23048 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6672; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041411; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Disposition: U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Tulsa District, Tulsa, OK</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Tulsa District (USACE Tulsa) intends to carry out the disposition of human remains and associated funerary objects removed from Federal or Tribal lands to the lineal descendants, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization with priority for disposition in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If no claim for disposition is received by December 17, 2026, the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice will become unclaimed human remains and associated funerary objects.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written claims for disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Jacqueline Rodgers, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Tulsa District, 2488 East 81st Street, Tulsa, OK 74137, email 
                        <E T="03">jacqueline.rodgers@usace.army.mil</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the USACE Tulsa, and additional information on the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the identifications in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available, human remains representing, at least, one individual have been reasonably identified. The 90 associated funerary objects are one lot of unidentified metal, six cutlery fragments, one iron buckle, two gunflints, three metal tools, one lot of lead ammunition, two lots of plain whiteware, one lot of transferprint whiteware, one lot of blue hand-painted whiteware, one lot of flow blue feather-edged whiteware, one lot of annularware, one ceramic toy doll plate, one lot of green hand-blown glass, one lot of aqua hand-blown glass, one transferprint whiteware child's cup, one clay ball, three pieces of petrified wood, one lot of worked glass, one lot of iron nails, two metal buttons, two pipe fragments, two arrow shaft straighteners, three pieces of burned slate, one lot of biface fragments, four scrapers, three lots of flakes, one lot of cores, four lots of non-cultural stone, one lot of grinding stones, one chopper, one lot of daub, one lot of shell, eight lots of faunal remains, 15 lots of plain Native ceramics, one lot of incised Native ceramics, and ten lots of McIntosh Roughened Native ceramics. On May 28, 1993, human remains representing one individual were recovered with a large surface scatter of artifacts along the shoreline of Eufaula Lake in McIntosh County, Oklahoma. All human remains and objects were recovered from the surface and no subsurface investigations were attempted. No additional information was recorded about this recovery. This location lies within the Muscogee (Creek) Nation reservation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The USACE Tulsa has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 90 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• The Muscogee (Creek) Nation has priority for disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Claims for Disposition</HD>
                <P>
                    Written claims for disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the appropriate official identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . If no claim for disposition is received by December 17, 2026, the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice will become unclaimed human remains and associated funerary objects. Claims for disposition may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that they have priority for disposition.</P>
                <P>
                    Disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58610"/>
                    may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing claims for disposition are received, the USACE Tulsa must determine the most appropriate claimant prior to disposition. Requests for joint disposition of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The USACE Tulsa is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the lineal descendants, Indian Tribes, and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3002, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.7.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23023 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6668; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041407; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, Cambridge, MA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University (PMAE) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Jane Pickering, Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, 11 Divinity Avenue, Cambridge, MA 02138, 
                        <E T="03">jpickering@fas.harvard.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the PMAE, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified from unknown locations, likely from the state of Florida. The two associated funerary objects are two lots representing ceramic vessels or vessel fragments and ochre. The collectors and donors are unknown. The ancestor was accessioned to the PMAE in 1929. The two funerary objects were accessioned to the PMAE in 1999.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the information available about the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The PMAE has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The two objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this and the Jena Band of Choctaw Indians; Miccosukee Tribe of Indians; Mississippi Band of Choctaw Indians; Seminole Tribe of Florida; The Choctaw Nation of Oklahoma; The Muscogee (Creek) Nation; The Seminole Nation of Oklahoma; and the Thlopthlocco Tribal Town.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the PMAE must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The PMAE is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 25, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23013 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6684; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041424; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: California Department of Transportation, Oakland, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the California Department of Transportation (Caltrans) has completed an inventory of associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the associated funerary objects in this notice to Lindsay Busse and Althea Asaro, California Department of Transportation, District 4, 111 Grand Avenue, Oakland, CA 94612, email 
                        <E T="03">lindsay.busse@dot.ca.gov</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">althea.asaro@dot.ca.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58611"/>
                    responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Caltrans, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Associated funerary objects have been identified totaling 73 lots representing lithics, charcoal, seeds, historic-era artifacts, faunal remains, and ground stone artifacts. Of the 73 associated funerary objects, none are missing. This collection is from Marin County along Highway 101 between Petaluma and Novato and are housed at Sonoma State University (SSU). The unaccessioned collection is the result of Caltrans project-delivery related excavations at the following sites in 2005: CA-MRN-192, CA-MRN-194, CA-MRN-195, CA-MRN-196, CA-MRN-197, CA-MRN-327, CA-MRN-507, and CA-MRN-526. There are no known/documented potentially hazardous substances used to treat any of the cultural items.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>Caltrans has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 73 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Federated Indians of Graton Rancheria, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Caltrans must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. Caltrans is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23036 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6604; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041412; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Disposition: U.S Department of Agriculture, Forest Service, Ozark-St. Francis National Forest, Russellville, AR</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S Department of Agriculture, Forest Service, Ozark-St. Francis National Forest intends to carry out the disposition of human remains and the associated funerary object removed from Federal or Tribal lands to the lineal descendants, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization with priority for disposition in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Disposition of the human remains and the associated funerary object in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If no claim for disposition is received by December 17, 2026, the human remains and associated funerary object in this notice will become unclaimed human remains and an unclaimed associated funerary object.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written claims for disposition of the human remains and associated funerary object in this notice to Dan Olsen, Forest Supervisor, Ozark-St. Francis National Forest, 605 W Main Street, Russellville, AR 72801, email 
                        <E T="03">daniel.olsen@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Ozark-St. Francis National Forest and additional information on the human remains and associated funerary object in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the identifications in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available, human remains representing, at least, six individuals have been reasonably identified.</P>
                <P>In 1993, the remains of one individual were removed from site 3BA0270, in Baxter County, Arkansas. No associated funerary objects were identified.</P>
                <P>
                    In 1994, one funerary object was removed from site 3NW0623 in Newton County, Arkansas. This funerary object, a large stone, is associated with human remains that were previously reported in a Notice of Inventory Completion published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on November 16, 2012 (77 FR 68822). Additional human remains belonging to these previously reported individuals were also located will be returned under the terms of that notice.
                </P>
                <P>In 1993, the remains of one individual were recovered during an Archaeological Resources Protection Act investigation in Pope County, Arkansas at site 3PP0402. No associated funerary objects were identified.</P>
                <P>In 1996, the remains of one individual were removed from site 3PP0450 in Pope County, Arkansas. No associated funerary objects were identified.</P>
                <P>In 1999, a minimum of one individual was removed from site 3SE0364 in Searcy County, Arkansas. No associated funerary objects were identified.</P>
                <P>In 1993, a minimum of one individual was removed from site 3ST0068 in Stone County, Arkansas. No associated funerary objects were identified.</P>
                <P>In 2002, the remains of one individual were removed from site 3ST0194 in Stone County, Arkansas. No associated funerary objects were identified.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Ozark-St. Francis National Forest has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of six individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>
                    • The one object described in this notice is reasonably believed to have 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58612"/>
                    been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
                </P>
                <P>• The Osage Nation has priority for disposition of the human remains and associated funerary object described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Claims for Disposition</HD>
                <P>
                    Written claims for disposition of the human remains and associated funerary object in this notice must be sent to the appropriate official identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . If no claim for disposition is received by December 17, 2026, the human remains and associated funerary object in this notice will become unclaimed human remains and an unclaimed associated funerary object. Claims for disposition may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that they have priority for disposition.</P>
                <P>Disposition of the human remains and associated funerary object in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing claims for disposition are received, the Ozark-St. Francis National Forest must determine the most appropriate claimant prior to disposition. Requests for joint disposition of the human remains and associated funerary object are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Ozark-St. Francis National Forest is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the lineal descendants, Indian Tribes, and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3002, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.7.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23024 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6673; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041413; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Baylor University's Mayborn Museum Complex, Waco, TX</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), Baylor University's Mayborn Museum Complex (formerly Baylor University's Strecker Museum; formerly Baylor University Museum) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is no lineal descendant and no Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Upon request, repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Anita L. Benedict, Baylor University's Mayborn Museum Complex, One Bear Place #97154, Waco, TX 76798-7154, email 
                        <E T="03">anita_benedict@baylor.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Baylor University's Mayborn Museum Complex, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. The five associated funerary objects are one animal tooth; one mussel valve; one (possibly pumice) rock; one lot of snail shells; and one small black, cone-shaped piece of wood. The human remains were removed from Valley Mills, Coryell County, Texas, on an unknown date and donated to Baylor University's Mayborn Museum Complex (formerly the Strecker Museum) in 1995. Baylor University's Mayborn Museum Complex has no knowledge or record of the presence of any potentially hazardous substances used to treat the human remains and associated funerary objects.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. The 19 associated funerary objects are one possible toe or small animal bone; one fossil bivalve shell; one modern bivalve shell; one calcite mineral; one animal cranium and mandible (small mammal); one gypsum mineral; one piece of petrified wood; one lot of smoky quartz crystals; eight stone tools; one boar tusk; one unknown mineral; and one worked rock. The human remains were removed from an unknown location in Texas on an unknown date and donated to Baylor University's Mayborn Museum Complex (formerly the Strecker Museum) in 1995. Baylor University's Mayborn Museum Complex has no knowledge or record of the presence of any potentially hazardous substances used to treat the human remains and associated funerary objects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Consultation</HD>
                <P>
                    Invitations to consult were sent to the Absentee-Shawnee Tribe of Indians of Oklahoma; Alabama-Coushatta Tribe of Texas; Alabama-Quassarte Tribal Town; Apache Tribe of Oklahoma; Caddo Nation of Oklahoma; Cherokee Nation; Cheyenne and Arapaho Tribes, Oklahoma; Comanche Nation, Oklahoma; Coushatta Tribe of Louisiana; Delaware Nation, Oklahoma; Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians; Eastern Shawnee Tribe of Oklahoma; Fort McDowell Yavapai Nation, Arizona; Fort Sill Apache Tribe of Oklahoma; Jena Band of Choctaw Indians; Jicarilla Apache Nation, New Mexico; Kialegee Tribal Town; Kickapoo Traditional Tribe of Texas; Kickapoo Tribe of Indians of the Kickapoo Reservation in Kansas; Kickapoo Tribe of Oklahoma; Kiowa Indian Tribe of Oklahoma; Mescalero Apache Tribe of the Mescalero Reservation, New Mexico; Mississippi Band of Choctaw Indians; Northern Arapaho Tribe of the Wind River Reservation, Wyoming; Northern Cheyenne Tribe of the Northern Cheyenne Indian Reservation, Montana; Poarch Band of Creek Indians; San Carlos Apache Tribe of the San Carlos Reservation, Arizona; Shawnee Tribe; The Chickasaw Nation; The Choctaw Nation of Oklahoma; The Muscogee (Creek) Nation; The Osage Nation; Thlopthlocco Tribal Town; Tonkawa Tribe of Indians of Oklahoma; Tonto Apache Tribe of Arizona; Tunica-Biloxi Indian Tribe; United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma; White Mountain Apache Tribe of the Fort Apache Reservation, Arizona; Wichita 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58613"/>
                    and Affiliated Tribes (Wichita, Keechi, Waco, &amp; Tawakonie), Oklahoma; Yavapai-Apache Nation of the Camp Verde Indian Reservation, Arizona; and the Ysleta del Sur Pueblo.
                </P>
                <P>The following Indian Tribes responded to the invitation but did not participate in consultation: the Caddo Nation of Oklahoma; Cherokee Nation; Delaware Nation, Oklahoma; Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians; Jicarilla Apache Nation, New Mexico; Kickapoo Tribe of Oklahoma; Mississippi Band of Choctaw Indians; Northern Cheyenne Tribe of the Northern Cheyenne Indian Reservation, Montana; Shawnee Tribe; The Choctaw Nation of Oklahoma; The Muscogee (Creek) Nation; White Mountain Apache Tribe of the Fort Apache Reservation, Arizona; Yavapai-Apache Nation of the Camp Verde Indian Reservation, Arizona; and the Ysleta del Sur Pueblo.</P>
                <P>The Indian Tribes who participated in consultations include: the Cheyenne and Arapaho Tribes, Oklahoma; Comanche Nation, Oklahoma; Kiowa Indian Tribe of Oklahoma; and the Tonkawa Tribe of Indians of Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>The following types of information about the cultural affiliation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice are available: geographical. The information, including the results of consultation, identified:</P>
                <P>1. No earlier group connected to the human remains or associated funerary object.</P>
                <P>2. No Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization connected to the human remains or associated funerary objects.</P>
                <P>3. No relationship of shared group identity between the earlier group and the Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization that can be reasonably traced through time.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>Baylor University's Mayborn Museum Complex has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of two individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 24 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• No known lineal descendant who can trace ancestry to the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice has been identified.</P>
                <P>• No Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation to the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice has been clearly or reasonably identified.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.
                </P>
                <P>Upon request, repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Baylor University's Mayborn Museum Complex must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. Baylor University's Mayborn Museum Complex is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23025 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6670; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041409; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, Cambridge, MA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University (PMAE) has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Jane Pickering, Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, 11 Divinity Avenue, Cambridge, MA 02138, email 
                        <E T="03">jpickering@fas.harvard.edu</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the PMAE, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">North Central and Northeast Florida Counties</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 34 individuals have been identified from Alachua County. The 21 associated funerary objects are 21 lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items; charcoal; faunal remains or faunal items; and lithics or stone items. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following sites: Cade's Pond Burial Mound (8BF83); Hickory Pond Mound (8AL107); Burial Mound near Santa Fe Lake; and Grave Mounds near Santa Fe Island. In all instances, the collector and donor was Henry Gillman as part of a PMAE Expeditions (1878).</P>
                <P>
                    Seven associated funerary objects were defined during consultation from Duval County, in which either the location of the human remains is known but they are not present at the PMAE and/or the objects were made exclusively for burial purposes, according to Native American traditional knowledge. The seven associated funerary objects are seven lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items; and lithics or stone items. These funerary objects were removed from the following sites: Fort George Island Midden (8Du5); Grant Mound (8Du14); Large mound near Beauclerc; and Mandarin Point Mound C (8DU50). 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58614"/>
                    Collectors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1893-1896), and H.A. Ward and Professor Orton (unknown date). Donors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1894, 1896) and Ward and Howell (1881).
                </P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 76 individuals have been identified from Levy County. The 21 associated funerary objects are 21 lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items; and shell or shell items. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following sites: Ancient Burial Mound; Culpepper Site (8Lv5); Way Key Mound (8Lv6); Mound near Fowler's Landing (8Lv1 or 8Lv14); and Mound near Gigger Point (8Lv3). Collectors and donors included Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1901-1903; donated 1942) and Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1860-1873; donated 1969, 1974).</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least five individuals have been identified from Nassau County. The nine associated funerary objects are nine lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items; faunal remains or faunal items; and shell or shell items. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following sites: Fernandina Midden (8NA5) and Lighthouse Mound (8NA3). Collectors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1897); Dr. C. Jackson and Samuel Hubbard Scudder (unknown date); and Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1860-1873). Donors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1897); Boston Society of Natural History (1916, 1943); Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1974).</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least four individuals have been identified from Putnam County. The 49 associated funerary objects are 49 lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items; faunal remains or faunal items; glass items; lithics or stone items; metal or metal items; shell or shell items; and other natural materials. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following sites: Dunn's Creek Mound near Horse Landing (8Pu14); Pomona Mound (8Pu15); Shell Heap (8Pu4); Mount Royal (8Pu35A); Murphy's Island Midden A (8Pu18); Burial mound near East Palatka; and Palatka Midden (8DU8). Collectors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1894-1898); Dr. James D. Wyeth (unknown date); Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1860-1873); Frances LeBaron (1879); and an unknown collector (unknown date). Donors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1978, 1893, 1894, 1896); Dr. James D. Wyeth (1881); Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1874); Frances LeBaron (1879); and an unknown donor (unknown date).</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least seven individuals have been identified from St. Johns County. The one associated funerary object is one lot of lithics or stone items. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following sites: near St. Johns and Matanzas Rivers; and Deep Creek Burial Mound (8SJ26). Collectors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1893-1894) and an unknown collector (unknown date). Donors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1894) and Frederick H. Rindge (1894).</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least seven individuals have been identified from unknown counties within north central or northeast Florida. The three associated funerary objects are three lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items; faunal remains or faunal items; floral remains; lithics or stone items; ochre; shell or shell items. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following sites: Magnolia Mound in “Eastern Florida”; Mound in “Eastern Florida”; Sand Mound on St. John's River. Collectors included: Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1871, 1872); and H.A.Ward and Professor Orton (unknown date). Donors included: Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1871, 1874) and Ward and Howell (1881).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Central West, Central, and Central East Florida Counties</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 113 individuals have been identified from Brevard County. The 24 associated funerary objects are 24 lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items; faunal remains or faunal items; lithics or stone items; metal or metal items; shell or shell items; and other natural materials. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following sites: “Burial 1,” near Cape Canaveral; “Burial 2,” near Dayton[a]; Fuller Mound (8BR90); Gleason Mound (8Br99); Hammock Mounds (8Br88); Holmes Mound (8Br86); Norris Mound (8Br89); Shell mound; near Cape Canaveral; Burial Mound in the Canaveral Mound Region; Burns shell mound (8Br85); and “Indian Fields” (8BR5). Collectors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1891); Dr. Thomas Barbour (1911); and Samuel J. Mixter (1925, unknown date). Donors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1891); Dr. Thomas Barbour (1911); Samuel J. Mixter (1925); and Dr. Thomas Barbour (1934).</P>
                <P>One associated funerary object was defined during consultation from Citrus County, in which either the location of the human remains is known but they are not present at the PMAE and/or the objects were made exclusively for burial purposes, according to Native American traditional knowledge. The one associated funerary object is one lot consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following site: Mound near Crystal River. The collector was Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1901-1903; donated 1942).</P>
                <P>Three associated funerary objects were defined during consultation from Hernando County, in which either the location of the human remains is known but they are not present at the PMAE and/or the objects were made exclusively for burial purposes, according to Native American traditional knowledge. The three associated funerary objects are three lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items. These funerary objects were removed from the following site: Mound near Bayport. The collector and donor was Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1901-1903; donated 1903, 1942).</P>
                <P>Three associated funerary objects were defined during consultation from Hillsborough County, in which either the location of the human remains is known but they are not present at the PMAE and/or the objects were made exclusively for burial purposes, according to Native American traditional knowledge. The three associated funerary objects are 3 lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items. These funerary objects were removed from the following site: Mound near John's Pass, Tampa Bay. The collector and donor was Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1901-1903; donated 1942).</P>
                <P>
                    Human remains representing at least 22 individuals have been identified from Lake County. The 76 associated funerary objects are 76 lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items; charcoal; faunal remains or faunal items; lithics or stone items; metal or metal items; and shell or shell items. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following sites: Bartram's Mound; Little Orange Mound (8La24); Hawkinsville Mound (8LA34); Old Town Midden [St. Francis] (8La29); Osceola Mound; Sand Mound (8La9); Burial Mound Opposite Huntoon Island; Shell heap near Old Town, St. Johns River. Collectors 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58615"/>
                    included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1891-1892); and Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1860-1873); John E. Harris. Donors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1891, 1892); Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1873, 1874).
                </P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified from Lake/Volusia County. No associated funerary objects were present or have not been identified. These ancestors were removed from the following site: “East Florida, near Blue Spring”. Collectors included: Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE expedition (1872). Donors included: Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE expedition (1873).</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 32 individuals have been identified from Orange County. The 55 associated funerary objects are 55 lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items; faunal remains or faunal items; glass items; lithics or stone items; metal or metal items; shell or shell items. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following sites: Burial Mound; Red Land Hammock, Mound 1; Red Land Hammock, Mound 2; Red Land Hammock, Mound VI; Mulberry Mound (8OR9); Raulerson's Mound 2 (8Vo136). Collectors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1891, 1901-1903); Dr. David Mack, Jr. as part of a PMAE Expedition (1880); and an unknown collector (unknown date). Donors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1891, 1842); Dr. David Mack Jr. as part of a PMAE Expedition (1880); and an unknown donor (unknown date).</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least five individuals have been identified from Pinellas County. The one associated funerary object is one lot consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following sites: Sound mound near St. Petersburg; Tarpon Springs, Safford Mound (8Pi3); “water washed burial mound.” Collectors included: John Wilhelm (1938); V.P. Stevens (unknown date); and an unknown collector (unknown date). Donors included: John Wilhelm (1939); Mary G. Safford (1889); and V.P. Stevens (2000).</P>
                <P>Nine associated funerary objects were defined during consultation from Polk County, in which either the location of the human remains is known but they are not present at the PMAE and/or the objects were made exclusively for burial purposes, according to Native American traditional knowledge. The nine associated funerary objects are nine lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items; faunal remains or faunal items; shell or shell items. These funerary objects were removed from the following site: Shell heap. The collector and doner was Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE expedition (1860-1873, donated 1974).</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified from Sarasota County. No associated funerary objects were present or have not been identified. These ancestors were removed from the following site: Osprey (8So2), collected by John G. Webb (1868) and donated by the Smithsonian Institution (1872).</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 11 individuals have been identified from Seminole County. The 15 associated funerary objects are 15 lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items; faunal remains or faunal items; glass items; lithics or stone items; metal or metal items; shell or shell items. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following sites: Bear Hammock Mound; Ginns Grove Mound; Speers or Spears Landing Mound (8Se4); Sand Mound (8Se13); Burial Mound at Black Hammock (8SE9); Burial Mound at Black Hammock (probable). Collectors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1891); Dr. Jeffries D. Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1860-1873); and an unknown collector (unknown date). Donors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1891); Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1867, 1869, 1874); and an unknown donor (unknown date).</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 63 individuals have been identified from Volusia County. The 181 associated funerary objects are 181 lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items; faunal remains or faunal items; fiber; glass items; lithics or stone items; metal or metal items; shell or shell items; other natural materials. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following sites: Blue Springs Midden A (8Vo42); Blue Springs Midden B (8Vo43); Blue Springs Shell Heap; Bluffton Mound; Orange Bluff (8Vo22); Bluffton Mound; De Leon Springs Mound (8Vo31); Huntoon Island Midden (8Vo202); Indian Mound near Jacksonville; Ropes Island Midden (8Vo3); Shell heap, Old Enterprise; Enterprise Midden (8Vo55); Tick Island (8Vo25); Tick Island Burial Mound?; Thursby Mound (8Vo35); Volusia Sand Mound I (8Vo14); Volusia Bar (8Vo02); Hitchens Creek Mound (8Vo05); “Low sand mounds” near St. John's River; Spruce Creek Mound (8Vo99); Volusia Sand Mound II (8Vo15); and Mound near Halifax River. Collectors included: Charles H. Curtis (1891); Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1868, 1879, 1892, 1896, unknown date); Dr. Jeffries D. Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1860-1873); J.C. Weld (unknown date); L. Agassiz (1859); and unknown collectors (unknown dates). Donors included: Charles H. Curtis (1891); Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1878, 1879, 1892, 1894, 1896); Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1872, 1873, 1874); J.C. Weld (1878); Museum of Comparative Zoology (1872); Dr. W. H. Babcock (c. 1897); The Pilgrim Society (1965).</P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 5 individuals have been identified from unknown counties within Central Florida. The 40 associated funerary objects are 40 lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items; faunal remains or faunal items; floral remains; lithics or stone items; ochre; shell or shell items. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following sites: Mound(s) on the Northwest Coast; “Eastern Florida”; Burial Mound on St. Johns River; Grave Mound(s) on St. Johns River; Grave mound near Lake Okeechobee; Low Mound on St. John's River; Shell heap or burial mound near Cane Lake or Lake Harney; “near Sanford”. Collectors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1891, 1901); Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (18971); Mr. Ober (unknown date); Charles C. Jones Jr. (unknown date); and an unknown collector (unknown date). Donors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1891, 1901); Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (18971); Ober Collection (1879); William H. Claflin, Jr. (1895); and an unknown collector (unknown date).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Southwestern and Southeastern Florida Counties</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified from Broward County. No associated funerary objects were present or have not been identified. These ancestors were removed from the following sites: the Everglades near Fort Lauderdale. Collectors included: George H. McConnaughay, Broward Grain &amp; Supply Company (unknown date). Donors included: George H. McConnaughay (1952).</P>
                <P>
                    Human remains representing at least one individual have been identified from Dade County. No associated funerary objects were present or have not been identified. These ancestors 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58616"/>
                    were removed from the following sites: Miami Ship Channel. Collectors included: “Workmen on channel” (unknown date). Donors included: Dr. Robert Spicer (1936).
                </P>
                <P>Human remains representing at least 95 individuals have been identified from Lee County. The 17 associated funerary objects are 17 lots consisting of ceramic vessels, vessel fragments, or other clay/ceramic items; glass items; lithics or stone items; and shell or shell items. These ancestors and funerary objects were removed from the following sites: “along the Caloosahatchee River”; Burial Mound on the South Point of Foster Bay, Captiva Island/Pine Island Sound; La Costa Island in Charlotte Harbor; Pine Island in Charlotte Harbor; Chokoloskee Island (8CR01). Collectors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1891, 1899-1900); Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1869); Mr. AR. Daloz (1937); and Mr. Francis B. Crowninshield (1919). Donors included: Clarence Bloomfield Moore (1891, 1900); Dr. Jeffries Wyman as part of a PMAE Expedition (1969); Mr. A.R. Daloz (1938); and Mr. Francis B. Crowninshield (1949).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The PMAE has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 483 individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 536 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>
                    • There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice from 
                    <E T="03">North Central and Northeast Florida Counties</E>
                     and the Miccosukee Tribe of Indians; Seminole Tribe of Florida; The Muscogee (Creek) Nation; and The Seminole Nation of Oklahoma.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice from 
                    <E T="03">Central West, Central, Central East, Southwest, and Southeastern Florida Counties</E>
                     and the Miccosukee Tribe of Indians; Seminole Tribe of Florida; and The Seminole Nation of Oklahoma.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the PMAE must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The PMAE is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 25, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23015 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6687; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041427; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History, Santa Barbara, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History, Santa Barbara, CA has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written claims for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Luke Swetland, Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History, 2559 Puesta del Sol, Santa Barbara, CA 93105, email 
                        <E T="03">lswetland@sbnature2.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. At least 20,667 associated funerary objects are present. The human remains include 127 bone fragments, teeth, and tooth fragments discovered among faunal remains. This accession, originally 35 boxes of archaeological material excavated from CA-SBA-28 (Burton Mound) under the direction of Dr. Claude N. Warren in 1968-69, is now comprised of 10 trays of faunal remains, eight trays of stone debitage, two trays of asphaltum, one tray of charcoal and ocher, five trays of shell and shell midden, one tray of historic artifacts, two trays of prehistoric artifacts, two boxes of groundstone, two shelves of soil samples, and the abovementioned human remains. Control of this collection was transferred from the Repository for Archaeological and Ethnographic Collections, University of California, Santa Barbara, to the Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History in 2018.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History has determined that:</P>
                <P>
                    • The human remains described in this notice represent the physical 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58617"/>
                    remains of at least one individual of Native American ancestry.
                </P>
                <P>• The 20,667 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Santa Ynez Band of Chumash Mission Indians of the Santa Ynez Reservation, California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23039 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6660; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041397; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Mercyhurst University, Erie, PA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), Mercyhurst University has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice to Anne Marjenin, Mercyhurst University, 501 East 38th Street, Erie, PA 16546, email 
                        <E T="03">nagpra@mercyhurst.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Mercyhurst University, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. On April 16, 1961, the individual (VM-071) was removed from Adairville Cave located near the town of Adairville, Logan County, Kentucky. The individual was removed by Raymond C. Vietzen (1907-1995). While there is no record regarding potentially hazardous substances having been used to treat the human remains, an unidentified adhesive is present. It is unknown when the adhesive was applied. A residue, likely from tape, is also present.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The individual (KY-LO-TIN-0001) was removed from a rockshelter at “Lost City” in Lewisburg, Logan County, Kentucky, by Raymond C. Vietzen (1907-1995). The individual was likely removed in the late 1930s or the 1940s. While there is no record regarding potentially hazardous substances having been used to treat the human remains, an unidentified adhesive is present. It is unknown when the adhesive was applied.</P>
                <P>Vietzen, an avocational archaeologist, collector, and author, established the Indian Ridge Museum in Elyria, Ohio, and the Archaeological Society of Ohio (formerly the Ohio Indian Relic Collectors Society). The Indian Ridge Museum, founded in the 1930s, served as Vietzen's laboratory and repository, and it remained in operation until the mid-1990s. After Vietzen's death, the facility fell into disrepair, and most of the items he had acquired and housed at the museum were sold. In 1998, the Ohio Historical Society (presently the Ohio History Connection) removed ancestral human remains and some of the remaining items from the facility and temporarily housed them at the Ohio Historical Society. In October of 2003, these remains were transferred from the Ohio Historical Society to Mercyhurst College (presently Mercyhurst University).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>Mercyhurst University has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of two individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Absentee-Shawnee Tribe of Indians of Oklahoma; Cherokee Nation; Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians; Eastern Shawnee Tribe of Oklahoma; Miami Tribe of Oklahoma; Shawnee Tribe; The Osage Nation; and the United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58618"/>
                </P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Mercyhurst University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. Mercyhurst University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23005 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6691; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041431; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intended Repatriation: University of California, Santa Barbara, Art, Design &amp; Architecture Museum, Santa Barbara, CA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of California, Santa Barbara (UCSB), Art, Design &amp; Architecture Museum intends to repatriate a certain cultural item that meet the definition of an object of cultural patrimony and that has a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural item in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural item in this notice to Hugh Radde, University of California, Santa Barbara, UC Santa Barbara, Santa Barbara, CA 93106, email 
                        <E T="03">nagpra@ucsb.edu</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the UCSB Art, Design &amp; Architecture Museum, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>A total of one cultural item has been requested for repatriation. The one object of cultural patrimony is a woven water basket made from willow, sapwood stem and inner bark (Accession 1965.49). The object was collected by F. May Young on an unknown date, and was later gifted to the University of California, Santa Barbara in 1965 by Mrs. Luella D. Saxby. The maker and precise source location are unknown; however, the basket is believed to originate from Nevada. It is unknown whether the object was treated with preservatives or other potentially hazardous substances.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The UCSB Art, Design &amp; Architecture Museum has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The one object of cultural patrimony described in this notice has ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the cultural item described in this notice and the Paiute-Shoshone Tribe of the Fallon Reservation and Colony, Nevada.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural item in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural item in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the UCSB Art, Design, &amp; Architecture Museum must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural item are considered a single request and not competing requests. The UCSB Art, Design &amp; Architecture Museum is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004 and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 24, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23046 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[N6659; NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0041396; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Mercyhurst University, Erie, PA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), Mercyhurst University has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to Anne Marjenin, Mercyhurst University, 501 East 38th Street, Erie, PA 16546, email 
                        <E T="03">nagpra@mercyhurst.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Mercyhurst University, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58619"/>
                    can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Information Available</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, one individual have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The individual was removed from Buzzard Cave likely located on the Glover Farm, also referred to as the Glover Site, in Christian County, Kentucky. The individual was removed by Raymond C. Vietzen (1907-1995), likely in 1962. While there is no record regarding potentially hazardous substances having been used to treat the human remains, tape and an unidentified adhesive are present. It is unknown when the tape and adhesive were applied.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, two individuals have been identified. The five associated funerary objects are modified faunal remains and unmodified faunal remains. The individuals and associated funerary objects were removed from Dry Cave located on the Glover Farm, also referred to as the Glover Site, in Christian County, Kentucky. The individuals and associated funerary objects were removed by Raymond C. Vietzen (1907-1995), likely in the 1950s, probably 1953 and 1955. While there is no record regarding potentially hazardous substances having been used to treat the human remains and associated funerary objects, an unidentified adhesive is present. It is unknown when the adhesive was applied.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at least, 14 individuals have been identified. The 14 associated funerary objects are a lithic, modified faunal remains, possible shell, shell, and unmodified faunal remains. The individuals and associated funerary objects were removed from Glover's Cave located on the Glover Farm, also referred to as the Glover Site, in Christian County, Kentucky, by Raymond C. Vietzen (1907-1995), likely between approximately 1941 and the mid-1960s. While there is no record regarding potentially hazardous substances having been used to treat the human remains, unidentified adhesives, an unidentified plaster or similar type of substance, and an unidentified preservative coating, consolidant, or sealant are present. An unidentified adhesive was used to attach a small piece of fabric to some of the human remains. It is unknown when these materials and substances were applied. A residue, likely from tape, is present on some of the human remains. An unidentified adhesive was applied to some of the associated funerary objects. It is unknown when the adhesive was applied.</P>
                <P>Vietzen, an avocational archaeologist, collector, and author, established the Indian Ridge Museum in Elyria, Ohio, and the Archaeological Society of Ohio (formerly the Ohio Indian Relic Collectors Society). The Indian Ridge Museum, founded in the 1930s, served as Vietzen's laboratory and repository, and it remained in operation until the mid-1990s. After Vietzen's death, the facility fell into disrepair, and most of the items he had acquired and housed at the museum were sold. In 1998, the Ohio Historical Society (presently the Ohio History Connection) removed ancestral human remains and some of the remaining items from the facility and temporarily housed them at the Ohio Historical Society. In October of 2003, these remains were transferred from the Ohio Historical Society to Mercyhurst College (presently Mercyhurst University).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>Mercyhurst University has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 17 individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 19 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Absentee-Shawnee Tribe of Indians of Oklahoma; Cherokee Nation; Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians; Eastern Shawnee Tribe of Oklahoma; Shawnee Tribe; The Osage Nation; and the United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after January 16, 2026. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Mercyhurst University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. Mercyhurst University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and any other consulting parties.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: November 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23004 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Receipt of Complaint; Solicitation of Comments Relating to the Public Interest</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has received a complaint entitled 
                        <E T="03">Certain Wearable Devices, DN 3866;</E>
                         the Commission is soliciting comments on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or complainant's filing pursuant to the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Lisa R. Barton, Secretary to the Commission, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. The public version of the complaint can be accessed on the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                          
                        <PRTPAGE P="58620"/>
                        For help accessing EDIS, please email 
                        <E T="03">EDIS3Help@usitc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server at United States International Trade Commission (USITC) at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov</E>
                        . The public record for this investigation may be viewed on the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                         Hearing-impaired persons are advised that information on this matter can be obtained by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on (202) 205-1810.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Commission has received a complaint and a submission pursuant to § 210.8(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure filed on behalf Samsung Electronics Co., Ltd. on December 15, 2025. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1337) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain wearable devices. The complaint names as respondents: Ouraring Inc. of San Francisco, CA; and Oura Health Oy of Finland. The complainant requests that the Commission issue a limited exclusion order, cease and desist orders, and impose a bond upon respondents' alleged infringing articles during the 60-day Presidential review period pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1337(j).</P>
                <P>Proposed respondents, other interested parties, members of the public, and interested government agencies are invited to file comments on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or § 210.8(b) filing. Comments should address whether issuance of the relief specifically requested by the complainant in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.</P>
                <P>In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:</P>
                <P>(i) explain how the articles potentially subject to the requested remedial orders are used in the United States;</P>
                <P>(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the requested remedial orders;</P>
                <P>(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;</P>
                <P>(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the requested exclusion order and/or a cease and desist order within a commercially reasonable time; and</P>
                <P>(v) explain how the requested remedial orders would impact United States consumers.</P>
                <P>
                    Written submissions on the public interest must be filed no later than by close of business, eight calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . There will be further opportunities for comment on the public interest after the issuance of any final initial determination in this investigation. Any written submissions on other issues must also be filed by no later than the close of business, eight calendar days after publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Complainant may file replies to any written submissions no later than three calendar days after the date on which any initial submissions were due, notwithstanding § 201.14(a) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure. No other submissions will be accepted, unless requested by the Commission. Any submissions and replies filed in response to this Notice are limited to five (5) pages in length, inclusive of attachments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above. Submissions should refer to the docket number (“Docket No. 3866”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Handbook for Electronic Filing Procedures, Electronic Filing Procedures 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    ). Please note the Secretary's Office will accept only electronic filings during this time. Filings must be made through the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS, 
                    <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                    ) No in-person paper-based filings or paper copies of any electronic filings will be accepted until further notice. Persons with questions regarding filing should contact the Secretary at 
                    <E T="03">EDIS3Help@usitc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Handbook for Electronic Filing Procedures: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     19 CFR 201.6. Documents for which confidential treatment by the Commission is properly sought will be treated accordingly. All information, including confidential business information and documents for which confidential treatment is properly sought, submitted to the Commission for purposes of this Investigation may be disclosed to and used: (i) by the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract personnel,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     solely for cybersecurity purposes. All nonconfidential written submissions will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Secretary and on EDIS.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         All contract personnel will sign appropriate nondisclosure agreements.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Electronic Document Information System (EDIS): 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and of §§ 201.10 and 210.8(c) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 201.10, 210.8(c)).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: December 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23139 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Receipt of Complaint; Solicitation of Comments Relating to the Public Interest</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has received a complaint entitled 
                        <E T="03">Certain Wearable Devices with Fall Detection and Components Thereof, DN 3865;</E>
                         the Commission is soliciting comments on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or complainant's filing pursuant to the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Lisa R. Barton, Secretary to the Commission, U.S. International Trade Commission, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58621"/>
                        500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. The public version of the complaint can be accessed on the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                         For help accessing EDIS, please email 
                        <E T="03">EDIS3Help@usitc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server at United States International Trade Commission (USITC) at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov</E>
                         . The public record for this investigation may be viewed on the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                         Hearing-impaired persons are advised that information on this matter can be obtained by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on (202) 205-1810.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Commission has received a complaint and a submission pursuant to § 210.8(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure filed on behalf UnaliWear, Inc. on December 12, 2025. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1337) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain wearable devices with fall detection and components thereof. The complaint names as respondents: Apple, Inc. of Cupertino, CA; Samsung Electronics Co., Ltd. of South Korea; Samsung Electronics America, Inc. of Ridgefield Park, NJ; Google LLC of Mountain View, CA; Garmin Ltd. of Switzerland; Garmin International, Inc. of Olathe, KS; and Garmin USA, Inc. of Olathe, KS. The complainant requests that the Commission issue a limited exclusion order, cease and desist orders, and impose a bond upon respondents' alleged infringing articles during the 60-day Presidential review period pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1337(j).</P>
                <P>Proposed respondents, other interested parties, members of the public, and interested government agencies are invited to file comments on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or § 210.8(b) filing. Comments should address whether issuance of the relief specifically requested by the complainant in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.</P>
                <P>In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:</P>
                <P>(i) explain how the articles potentially subject to the requested remedial orders are used in the United States;</P>
                <P>(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the requested remedial orders;</P>
                <P>(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;</P>
                <P>(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the requested exclusion order and/or a cease and desist order within a commercially reasonable time; and</P>
                <P>(v) explain how the requested remedial orders would impact United States consumers.</P>
                <P>
                    Written submissions on the public interest must be filed no later than by close of business, eight calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . There will be further opportunities for comment on the public interest after the issuance of any final initial determination in this investigation. Any written submissions on other issues must also be filed by no later than the close of business, eight calendar days after publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Complainant may file replies to any written submissions no later than three calendar days after the date on which any initial submissions were due, notwithstanding § 201.14(a) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure. No other submissions will be accepted, unless requested by the Commission. Any submissions and replies filed in response to this Notice are limited to five (5) pages in length, inclusive of attachments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above. Submissions should refer to the docket number (“Docket No. 3865”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Handbook for Electronic Filing Procedures, Electronic Filing Procedures 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    ). Please note the Secretary's Office will accept only electronic filings during this time. Filings must be made through the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS, 
                    <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                    ) No in-person paper-based filings or paper copies of any electronic filings will be accepted until further notice. Persons with questions regarding filing should contact the Secretary at 
                    <E T="03">EDIS3Help@usitc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Handbook for Electronic Filing Procedures: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     19 CFR 201.6. Documents for which confidential treatment by the Commission is properly sought will be treated accordingly. All information, including confidential business information and documents for which confidential treatment is properly sought, submitted to the Commission for purposes of this Investigation may be disclosed to and used: (i) by the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract personnel,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     solely for cybersecurity purposes. All nonconfidential written submissions will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Secretary and on EDIS.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         All contract personnel will sign appropriate nondisclosure agreements.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Electronic Document Information System (EDIS): 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and of §§ 201.10 and 210.8(c) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 201.10, 210.8(c)).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: December 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23102 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58622"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Employment and Training Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment request; Revision of H-2A Temporary Agricultural Labor Certification Program</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Employment and Training Administration, Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; reopening of comment period.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of Labor (Department) is reopening the comment period for the Notice, “Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment request; Revision of H-2A Temporary Agricultural Labor Certification Program”, published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on September 10, 2025. The Department is taking this action to allow interested persons additional time to submit comments.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The comment period for the Notice published September 10, 2025, at 90 FR 43640, is reopened. Consideration will be given to all written comments received by January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You may submit comments on this information request, identified by OMB Control Number 1205-0466, by emailing Brian Pasternak at 
                        <E T="03">ETA.OFLC.Forms@dol.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Brian Pasternak, Administrator, Office of Foreign Labor Certification (OFLC), by email at 
                        <E T="03">ETA.OFLC.Forms@dol.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    On September 10, 2025, the Employment and Training Administration published a 60-day 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice at 90 FR 43640 for the public to comment on proposed revisions to the ICR covered under 
                    <E T="03">H-2A Temporary Agricultural Labor Certification Program</E>
                     OMB Control Number 1205-0466 based on changes proposed through the notice of proposed rulemaking “Recission of Final Rule: Improving Protections for Workers in Temporary Agricultural Employment in the United States.” The notice of proposed rulemaking proposed to rescind provisions of the H-2A final rule published by the Department on April 29, 2024. Due to the government shutdown, the public could not request copies of all associated forms and materials and review those materials to inform potential comments on the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice because OFLC staff were not available to provide those documents during a significant portion of the 60-day comment period, which concluded on November 10, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This notice ensures the public has the opportunity to request the supporting documents with the proposed changes to the ICR covered under 1205-0466, in order to make fully informed comments about the changes proposed through the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice. Therefore, the Department is reopening the 60-day comment period until January 16, 2026 to allow the public additional time to request the support documents and provide comments related to the ICR covered under 1205-0466.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Susan Frazier,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Assistant Secretary for Employment and Training, Labor.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23127 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-FP-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Award Closure Statement Documents</SUBJECT>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting this Employment and Training Administration (ETA)-sponsored information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The OMB will consider all written comments that the agency receives on or before January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                        . Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Michael Howell by telephone at 202-693-6782, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">DOL_PRA_PUBLIC@dol.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This ICR supports the collection of Award Closure Statement Documents, which are necessary to evaluate grants that have reached a period of performance end date. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on May 13, 2025 (90 FR 20319).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments are invited on:</E>
                     (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimates of the burden and cost of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid OMB Control Number. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     5 CFR 1320.5(a) and 1320.6.
                </P>
                <P>DOL seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOL notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     DOL-ETA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Award Closure Statement Documents.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1205-0555.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     State, Local and Tribal Government.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     1,100.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     3,300.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Time Burden:</E>
                     1,100 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Other Costs Burden:</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D))</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Michael Howell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Senior Paperwork Reduction Act Analyst.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23061 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-FN-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58623"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. OSHA-2010-0008]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Construction Fall Protection Systems Criteria, Practices, and Training Requirements Standard; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>OSHA solicits public comments concerning the proposal to extend the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Construction Fall Protection Systems Criteria, Practices, and Training Requirements Standard.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by February 17, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronically:</E>
                         You may submit comments and attachments electronically at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         which is the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Follow the instructions online for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         To read or download comments or other material in the docket, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Documents in the docket are listed in the 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         index; however, some information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download through the websites. All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection through the OSHA Docket Office. Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350 (TTY (877) 889-5627) for assistance in locating docket submissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions must include the agency name and OSHA docket number (OSHA-2010-0008) for the Information Collection Request (ICR). OSHA will place all comments, including any personal information, in the public docket, which may be made available online. Therefore, OSHA cautions interested parties about submitting personal information such as social security numbers and birthdates.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For further information on submitting comments, see the “Public Participation” heading in the section of this notice titled 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Belinda Cannon, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor; telephone (202) 693-2222.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department of Labor, as part of the continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     employer) burden, conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the public with an opportunity to comment on proposed and continuing information collection requirements in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This program ensures that information is in the desired format, reporting burden (time and costs) is minimal, the collection instruments are clearly understood, and OSHA's estimate of the information collection burden is accurate. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (OSH Act) (29 U.S.C. 651 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) authorizes information collection by employers as necessary or appropriate for enforcement of the OSH Act or for developing information regarding the causes and prevention of occupational injuries, illnesses, and accidents (29 U.S.C. 657). The OSH Act also requires that OSHA obtain such information with minimum burden upon employers, especially those operating small businesses, and to reduce to the maximum extent feasible unnecessary duplication of effort in obtaining information (29 U.S.C. 657).
                </P>
                <P>The following sections describe who uses the information collected under each requirement, as well as how they use it. The Construction Fall Protection Systems Criteria, Practices, and Training Requirements Standard requires employers to certify safety nets and develop fall protection plans, respectively, and prepare worker training certification records. These standards ensure that employers provide the required fall protection for their workers and provide the required training.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Special Issues for Comment</HD>
                <P>OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:</P>
                <P>• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the agency's functions to protect workers, including whether the information is useful;</P>
                <P>• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and</P>
                <P>• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information, and transmission techniques.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Proposed Actions</HD>
                <P>OSHA is requesting that OMB extend the approval of the information collection requirements contained in the Construction Fall Protection Systems Criteria, Practices, and Training Requirements Standard. The agency is requesting an adjustment increase in burden going from 506,903 to 560,607 hours, a total increase of 53,704 hours. The adjustment increase is primarily the result of an increase in the number of affected establishments going from 406,714 to 449,782 establishments. Also, the total number of responses increased going from 6,072,808 to 6,715,846.</P>
                <P>OSHA will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice and will include this summary in the request to OMB to extend the approval of the information collection requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Construction Fall Protection Systems Criteria, Practices (29 CFR 1926.502), and Training Requirements (29 CFR 1926.503) Standard.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1218-0197.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     449,782.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Responses:</E>
                     6,715,846.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Responses:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Time per Response:</E>
                     Varies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     560,607.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Cost (Operation and Maintenance):</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Public Participation—Submission of Comments on This Notice and Internet Access to Comments and Submissions</HD>
                <P>
                    You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) electronically at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     which is the Federal eRulemaking Portal; or (2) by facsimile (fax), if your comments, including attachments, are not longer than 10 pages you may fax them to the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-1648. All comments, attachments, and other material must identify the agency name and the OSHA docket number for the ICR (Docket No. OSHA-2010-0008). You may supplement electronic submission by uploading document files electronically.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58624"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Comments and submissions are posted without change at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Therefore, OSHA cautions commenters about submitting personal information such as social security numbers and dates of birth. Although all submissions are listed in the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     index, some information (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download from this website. All submission, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection and copying at the OSHA Docket Office. Information on using the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     website to submit comments and access the docket is available at the website's “User Tips” link.
                </P>
                <P>Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627) for information about materials not available from the website, and for assistance in using the internet to locate docket submissions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Authority and Signature</HD>
                <P>
                    Amanda Laihow, Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 8-2020 (85 FR 58393).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed at Washington, DC, on December 11, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Amanda Laihow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23057 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. OSHA-2012-0027]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>The 1,3-Butadiene Standard; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>OSHA solicits public comments concerning the proposal to extend the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the information collection requirements specified in the 1,3-Butadiene Standard.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by February 17, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronically:</E>
                         You may submit comments and attachments electronically at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         which is the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Follow the instructions online for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         To read or download comments or other material in the docket, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        .  Documents in the docket are listed in the 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         index; however, some information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download through the website. All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection through the OSHA Docket Office. Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350 (TTY (877) 889-5627) for assistance in locating docket submissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions must include the agency name and OSHA docket number (OSHA-2012-0027) for the Information Collection Request (ICR). OSHA will place all comments, including any personal information, in the public docket, which may be made available online. Therefore, OSHA cautions interested parties about submitting personal information such as social security numbers and birthdates.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For further information on submitting comments, see the “Public Participation” heading in the section of this notice titled 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Belinda Cannon, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor; telephone (202) 693-2222.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department of Labor, as part of the continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     employer) burden, conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the public with an opportunity to comment on proposed and continuing information collection requirements in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This program ensures that information is in the desired format, reporting burden (time and costs) is minimal, the collection instruments are clearly understood, and OSHA's estimate of the information collection burden is accurate. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (OSH Act) (29 U.S.C. 651 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) authorizes information collection by employers as necessary or appropriate for enforcement of the OSH Act or for developing information regarding the causes and prevention of occupational injuries, illnesses, and accidents (29 U.S.C. 657). The OSH Act also requires that OSHA obtain such information with minimum burden upon employers, especially those operating small businesses, and to reduce to the maximum extent feasible unnecessary duplication of effort in obtaining information (29 U.S.C. 657).
                </P>
                <P>The following sections describe who uses the information collected under each requirement, as well as how they use it. The 1,3-Butadiene standard requires employers to monitor employee exposure to 1,3-Butadiene, develop and maintain compliance and exposure goal programs if employee exposures to 1,3-Butadiene are above the standard's permissible exposure limits or action level, label respirator filter elements to indicate the date and time it is first installed on the respirator, establish medical surveillance programs to monitor employee health and to provide employees with information about their exposures, and the health effects of exposure to 1,3-Butadiene.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Special Issues for Comment</HD>
                <P>OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:</P>
                <P>• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the agency's functions to protect workers, including whether the information is useful;</P>
                <P>• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and</P>
                <P>• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information, and transmission techniques.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Proposed Actions</HD>
                <P>OSHA is requesting that OMB extend the approval of the information collection requirements contained in the 1,3-Butadiene Standard. The agency is requesting that the burden of 887 hours remains the same.</P>
                <P>
                    OSHA will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice and will include this summary in the request to OMB to extend the approval 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58625"/>
                    of the information collection requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     The 1,3 Butadiene Standard (29 CFR 1910.1051).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1218-0170.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     57.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Responses:</E>
                     3,610.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Responses:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Time per Response:</E>
                     Varies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     887.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Cost (Operation and Maintenance):</E>
                     $103,550.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Public Participation—Submission of Comments on This Notice and Internet Access to Comments and Submissions</HD>
                <P>
                    You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) electronically at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     which is the Federal eRulemaking Portal; or (2) by facsimile (fax), if your comments, including attachments, are not longer than 10 pages you may fax them to the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-1648. All comments, attachments, and other material must identify the agency name and the OSHA docket number for the ICR (OSHA-2012-0027). You may supplement electronic submission by uploading document files electronically.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Comments and submissions are posted without change at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                    . Therefore, OSHA cautions commenters about submitting personal information such as social security numbers and dates of birth. Although all submissions are listed in the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     index, some information (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download from this website. All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection and copying at the OSHA Docket Office. Information on using the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     website to submit comments and access the docket is available at the website's “User Tips” link.
                </P>
                <P>Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627) for information about materials not available from the website, and for assistance in using the internet to locate docket submissions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Authority and Signature</HD>
                <P>
                    Amanda Laihow, Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 8-2020 (85 FR 58393).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed at Washington, DC, on December 11, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Amanda Laihow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23045 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. OSHA-2019-0002]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Respirable Crystalline Silica Standards for General Industry, Shipyards and Construction; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>OSHA solicits public comments concerning the proposal to extend OMB approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Respirable Crystalline Silica Standards for General Industry, Shipyards, and Construction.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by February 17, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronically:</E>
                         You may submit comments and attachments electronically at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         which is the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Follow the instructions online for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         To read or download comments or other material in the docket, go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Documents in the docket are listed on the 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         index; however, some information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download through the website. All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection through the OSHA Docket Office. Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350 (TTY (877) 889-5627) for assistance in locating docket submissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions must include the agency name and the OSHA docket number (OSHA-2019-0002) for the Information Collection Request (ICR). OSHA will place all comments, including any personal information, in the public docket, which may be made available online. Therefore, OSHA cautions interested parties about submitting personal information such as social security numbers and birthdates.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For further information on submitting comments, see the “Public Participation” heading in the section of this notice titled 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Belinda Cannon, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, telephone (202) 693-2222.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department of Labor, as part of a continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     employer) burden, conducts a preclearance process to provide the public with an opportunity to comment on proposed and continuing information collection requirements in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This program ensures that information is in the desired format, the reporting burden (time and costs) is minimal, the collection instruments are clearly understood, and OSHA's estimate of the information collection burden is accurate. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (the OSH Act) (29 U.S.C. 651 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) authorizes information collection by employers as necessary or appropriate for enforcement of the OSH Act or for developing information regarding the causes and prevention of occupational injuries, illnesses, and accidents (see 29 U.S.C. 657). The OSH Act also requires that OSHA obtain such information with a minimum burden upon employers, especially those operating small businesses, and to reduce to the maximum extent feasible unnecessary duplication of effort in obtaining information (see 29 U.S.C. 657).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Respirable Crystalline Silica Standards for general industry (29 CFR 1910.1053), shipyards (29 CFR 1915.1053) and construction (29 CFR 1926.1153) contain the following information collection requirements: conducting worker exposure assessments and notifying workers of the assessment results and any corrective actions being taken; establishing, implementing, reviewing, evaluating, and updating a written exposure control plan and making the plan available to workers and designated representatives; creating and submitting air quality permit notifications; establishing a respiratory 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58626"/>
                    protection program; providing qualitative fit-testing and maintaining records; providing medical surveillance to workers; providing the physician or other licensed health care provider (PLHCP), or the specialist, with specific information; ensuring that the PLHCP, or specialist, explains the results of the medical examination to the employee and provides each employee with a copy of their written medical report; obtaining a written medical opinion from the PLHCP, or specialist, and ensuring that each employee receives a copy of the opinion; and making and maintaining air monitoring data, objective data, and medical surveillance records; and providing workers and designated representatives with access to these records. The records are used by workers, employers, and OSHA to determine the effectiveness of the employer's compliance efforts.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Special Issues for Comment</HD>
                <P>OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:</P>
                <P>• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the agency's functions, including whether the information is useful;</P>
                <P>• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and</P>
                <P>• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Proposed Actions</HD>
                <P>OSHA is requesting that OMB extend its approval of the information collection requirements contained in the Respirable Crystalline Silica Standards for General Industry, Shipyards and Construction. The agency is requesting an adjustment increase of 390,697 in burden going from 7,796,128 to 8,186,825 hours. The increase is largely due to an increase in the estimated number of construction establishments due to an increased business formation rate, resulting in increased burden hours requirements to develop and implement the written access control plan and a change to the estimation method for determining the number of employees undergoing periodic medical examinations. Also, the agency is requesting an adjustment decrease of $40,884,305 for operation and maintenance costs going from $261,709,625 to $220,825,320. This reduction is mainly due to updated unit cost estimates for direct medical costs (using the 2025 CMS Physician Fee schedule) for the medical examinations given to employees under the medical surveillance provisions.</P>
                <P>OSHA will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice and will include this summary in the request to OMB to extend the approval of the information collection requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Respirable Crystalline Silica Standards for General Industry (29 CFR 1910.1053), Shipyards (29 CFR 1915.1053) and Construction (29 CFR 1926.1153).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1218-0266.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     818,438.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Biennially, Once, On occasion, Quarterly, Semi-annually, Annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Time per Response:</E>
                     Various.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     18,175,280.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     8,186,825.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Cost (Operation and Maintenance):</E>
                     $220,825,320.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Public Participation—Submission of Comments on This Notice and Internet Access to Comments and Submissions</HD>
                <P>
                    You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) electronically at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     which is the Federal eRulemaking Portal; (2) by facsimile (fax); if your comments, including attachments, are not longer than 10 pages you may fax them to the OSHA Docket Office at 202-693-1648. All comments, attachments, and other material must identify the agency name and the OSHA docket number for the ICR (Docket No. OSHA-2019-0002). You may supplement electronic submissions by uploading document files electronically.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Comments and submissions are posted without change at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Therefore, OSHA cautions commenters about submitting personal information such as social security numbers and dates of birth. Although all submissions are listed in the 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     index, some information (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download through this website. All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection and copying at the OSHA Docket Office. Information on using the 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     website to submit comments and access the docket is available at the website's “User Tips” link.
                </P>
                <P>Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627) for information about materials not available from the website, and for assistance in using the internet to locate docket submissions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Authority and Signature</HD>
                <P>
                    Amanda Laihow, Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 8-2020 (85 FR 58393).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed at Washington, DC, on December 11, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Amanda Laihow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23059 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. OSHA-2010-0015]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Crawler, Locomotive, and Truck Cranes Standard; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>OSHA solicits public comments concerning the proposal to extend the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Crawler, Locomotive, and Truck Cranes Standard.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by February 17, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronically:</E>
                         You may submit comments and attachments electronically at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         which is the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Follow the instructions online for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         To read or download comments or other material in the docket, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Documents in the docket are listed in the 
                        <E T="03">
                            https://
                            <PRTPAGE P="58627"/>
                            www.regulations.gov
                        </E>
                         index; however, some information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download through the websites. All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection through the OSHA Docket Office. Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350 (TTY (877) 889-5627) for assistance in locating docket submissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions</E>
                        : All submissions must include the agency name and OSHA docket number (OSHA-2010-0015) for the Information Collection Request (ICR). OSHA will place all comments, including any personal information, in the public docket, which may be made available online. Therefore, OSHA cautions interested parties about submitting personal information such as social security numbers and birthdates.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For further information on submitting comments, see the “Public Participation” heading in the section of this notice titled 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Belinda Cannon, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor; telephone (202) 693-2222.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department of Labor, as part of the continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     employer) burden, conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the public with an opportunity to comment on proposed and continuing information collection requirements in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This program ensures that information is in the desired format, reporting burden (time and costs) is minimal, the collection instruments are clearly understood, and OSHA's estimate of the information collection burden is accurate. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (OSH Act) (29 U.S.C. 651 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) authorizes information collection by employers as necessary or appropriate for enforcement of the OSH Act or for developing information regarding the causes and prevention of occupational injuries, illnesses, and accidents (29 U.S.C. 657). The OSH Act also requires that OSHA obtain such information with minimum burden upon employers, especially those operating small businesses, and to reduce to the maximum extent feasible unnecessary duplication of effort in obtaining information (29 U.S.C. 657).
                </P>
                <P>The Standard specifies several paperwork requirements. The following sections describe who uses the information collected under each requirement, as well as how they use it. The purpose of each of these requirements is to prevent workers from using unsafe cranes and ropes, thereby reducing their risk of death or serious injury caused by a crane or rope failure during material handling.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(A) Inspection of and Certification Records for Cranes (§ 1910.180(d)(4),(6))</HD>
                <P>Paragraph 1910.180(d) specifies that employers must prepare a written record to certify that the monthly inspection of critical items in use on cranes (such as brakes, crane hooks, and ropes) has been performed. The certification record must include the inspection date, the signature of the person who conducted the inspection, and the serial number (or other identifier) of the inspected crane. Employers must keep the certificate readily available. The certification record provides employers, workers, and OSHA compliance officers with assurance that critical items on cranes have been inspected, and that the equipment is in good operating condition so that the crane and rope will not fail during material handling. These records also enable OSHA to determine that an employer is complying with the Standard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(B) Rated Load Tests (§ 1910.180(e)(2))</HD>
                <P>This provision requires employers to make available written reports of load-rating tests showing test procedures and confirming the adequacy of repairs or alterations, and to make readily available any rerating test reports. These reports inform the employer, workers, and OSHA compliance officers of a crane's lifting limitations, and provide information to crane operators to prevent them from exceeding these limits and thereby causing crane failure.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(C) Inspection and Certification Records for Ropes (§ 1910.180(g)(1), (g)(2)(ii))</HD>
                <P>Paragraph (g)(1) requires employers to thoroughly inspect any rope in use at least once a month. The authorized person conducting the inspection must observe any deterioration resulting in appreciable loss of original strength and determine whether or not the condition is hazardous. Before reusing a rope that has not been used for at least a month because the crane housing the rope is shut down or in storage, paragraph (g)(2)(ii) specifies that employers must have an appointed or authorized person inspect the rope for all types of deterioration. Employers must prepare a certification record for the inspections required by paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2)(ii). These certification records must include the inspection date, the signature of the person conducting the inspection, and the identifier for the inspected rope; paragraph (g)(1) states that employers must keep the certificates “on file where readily available,” while paragraph (g)(2)(ii) requires that certificates “be . . . kept readily available.” The certification records assure employers, workers, and OSHA that the inspected ropes are in good condition.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Special Issues for Comment</HD>
                <P>OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:</P>
                <P>• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the agency's functions to protect workers, including whether the information is useful;</P>
                <P>• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and</P>
                <P>• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information, and transmission techniques.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Proposed Actions</HD>
                <P>OSHA is requesting that OMB extend its approval of the information collection requirements contained in the Crawler, Locomotive, and Truck Cranes Standard. The agency is seeking an adjustment decrease in its current burden of 2,048 hours, going from 29,639 to 27,591 hours. This decrease in burden is due to the decrease of operational cranes used in general industry by 2,343, going from 33,986 to 31,643 cranes.</P>
                <P>OSHA will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice and will include this summary in the request to OMB to extend the approval of the information collection requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Crawler, Locomotive, and Truck Cranes Standard (29 CFR 1910.180).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1218-0221.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     3,164.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Responses:</E>
                     73,155.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Responses:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Time per Response:</E>
                     Varies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     27,591.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58628"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Cost (Operation and Maintenance):</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Public Participation—Submission of Comments on This Notice and Internet Access to Comments and Submissions</HD>
                <P>
                    You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) electronically at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     which is the Federal eRulemaking Portal; or (2) by facsimile (fax), if your comments, including attachments, are not longer than 10 pages you may fax them to the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-1648. All comments, attachments, and other material must identify the agency's name and the OSHA docket number for the ICR (Docket No. OSHA-2010-0015). You may supplement electronic submission by uploading document files electronically.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Comments and submissions are posted without change at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Therefore, OSHA cautions commenters about submitting personal information such as social security numbers and dates of birth. Although all submissions are listed in the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     index, some information (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download from this website. All submission, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection and copying at the OSHA Docket Office. Information on using the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     website to submit comments and access the docket is available at the website's “User Tips” link.
                </P>
                <P>Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627) for information about materials not available from the website, and for assistance in using the internet to locate docket submissions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Authority and Signature</HD>
                <P>
                    Amanda Laihow, Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 8-2020 (85 FR 58393).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed at Washington, DC, on December 11, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Amanda Laihow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23058 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. OSHA-2010-0051]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Manlifts Standard; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>OSHA solicits public comments concerning the proposal to extend the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Manlifts Standard.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by February 17, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronically:</E>
                         You may submit comments and attachments electronically at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         which is the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Follow the instructions online for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         To read or download comments or other material in the docket, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Documents in the docket are listed in the 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         index; however, some information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download through the websites. All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection through the OSHA Docket Office. Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350 (TTY (877) 889-5627) for assistance in locating docket submissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions must include the agency name and OSHA docket number (OSHA-2010-0051) for the Information Collection Request (ICR). OSHA will place all comments, including any personal information, in the public docket, which may be made available online. Therefore, OSHA cautions interested parties about submitting personal information such as social security numbers and birthdates.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For further information on submitting comments, see the “Public Participation” heading in the section of this notice titled 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Belinda Cannon, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor; telephone (202) 693-2222.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department of Labor, as part of the continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     employer) burden, conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the public with an opportunity to comment on proposed and continuing information collection requirements in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This program ensures that information is in the desired format, reporting burden (time and costs) is minimal, the collection instruments are clearly understood, and OSHA's estimate of the information collection burden is accurate. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (OSH Act) (29 U.S.C. 651 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) authorizes information collection by employers as necessary or appropriate for enforcement of the OSH Act or for developing information regarding the causes and prevention of occupational injuries, illnesses, and accidents (29 U.S.C. 657). The OSH Act also requires that OSHA obtain such information with minimum burden upon employers, especially those operating small businesses, and to reduce to the maximum extent feasible unnecessary duplication of effort in obtaining information (29 U.S.C. 657).
                </P>
                <P>The Manlifts Standard (29 CFR 1910.68(e)) specifies two paperwork requirements. The following sections describe who uses the information collected under each requirement, as well as how they use it. The purpose of these requirements is to reduce workers' risk of death or serious injury by ensuring that manlifts are in safe operating condition.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Periodic Inspection and Records (Paragraph (e))</HD>
                <P>
                    This provision requires that each manlift be inspected at least once every 30 days and it also requires that limit switches shall be checked weekly. The manlift inspection is to cover at least the following items: steps; step fastenings; rails; rail supports and fastenings; rollers and slides; belt and belt tension; handholds and fastenings; floor landings; guardrails; lubrication; limit switches; warning signs and lights; illumination; drive pulley; bottom (boot) pulley and clearance; pulley supports; motor; driving mechanism; brake; electrical switches; vibration and misalignment; and any “skip” on the up or down run when mounting a step (indicating worn gears). A certification record of the inspection must be prepared upon completion of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58629"/>
                    inspection. The record must contain the date of inspection, the signature of the person who performed the inspection, and the serial number or other identifier of the inspected manlift.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Disclosure of Inspection Certification Records</HD>
                <P>Employers are to maintain the certification record and make it available to OSHA compliance officers. This record provides assurance to employers, workers, and compliance officers that manlifts were inspected as required by the Standard. The inspections are made to keep equipment in safe operating condition thereby preventing manlift failure while carrying workers to elevated worksites. These records also provide the most efficient means for the compliance officers to determine that an employer is complying with the Standard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Special Issues for Comment</HD>
                <P>OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:</P>
                <P>• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the agency's functions to protect workers, including whether the information is useful;</P>
                <P>• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and</P>
                <P>• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information, and transmission techniques.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Proposed Actions</HD>
                <P>OSHA is requesting that OMB extend its approval of the information collection requirements contained in the Manlifts Standard. The agency is seeking to retain the estimated burden of 37,800 hours. The total number of responses remains the same at 36,000 for the number of inspections certifications maintained annually.</P>
                <P>OSHA will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice and will include this summary in the request to OMB to extend the approval of the information collection requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Manlifts Standard (29 CFR 1910.68(e)).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1218-0226.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     3,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Responses:</E>
                     36,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Responses:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Time per Response:</E>
                     Varies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     37,800.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Cost (Operation and Maintenance):</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Public Participation—Submission of Comments on This Notice and Internet Access to Comments and Submissions</HD>
                <P>
                    You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) electronically at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     which is the Federal eRulemaking Portal; or (2) by facsimile (fax), if your comments, including attachments, are not longer than 10 pages you may fax them to the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-1648. All comments, attachments, and other material must identify the agency name and the OSHA docket number for the ICR (Docket No. OSHA-2010-0051). You may supplement electronic submission by uploading document files electronically.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Comments and submissions are posted without change at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                    . Therefore, OSHA cautions commenters about submitting personal information such as social security numbers and dates of birth. Although all submissions are listed in the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     index, some information (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download from this website. All submission, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection and copying at the OSHA Docket Office. Information on using the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     website to submit comments and access the docket is available at the website's “User Tips” link.
                </P>
                <P>Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627) for information about materials not available from the website, and for assistance in using the internet to locate docket submissions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Authority and Signature</HD>
                <P>
                    Amanda Laihow, Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 8-2020 (85 FR 58393).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed at Washington, DC, on December 11, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Amanda Laihow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23060 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Workers' Compensation Programs</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 1240-0NEW]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed New Information Collection: Actuarial Attestation Regarding War Risk Hazard Provisions in Defense Base Act Premiums, WH-2</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Division of Federal Employees' Compensation, (OWCP/DFEC) Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance request for comment to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This request helps to ensure that: requested data can be provided in the desired format; reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized; collection instruments are clearly understood; and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. Currently, the Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Division of Federal Employees' Compensation, (OWCP/DFEC) is soliciting comments on the information collection for the Actuarial Attestation Regarding War Risk Hazard Provisions in Defense Base Act Premiums, WH-2.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>All comments must be received on or before February 17, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comment as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronic Submissions:</E>
                         Submit electronic comments in the following way: 
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments for WCPO-2025-0105. Comments submitted electronically, including attachments, to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         will be posted to the docket, with no changes. Because your comment will be made public, you are responsible for ensuring that your 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58630"/>
                        comment does not include any confidential information that you or a third party may not wish to be posted, such as your or anyone else's Social Security number or confidential business information.
                    </P>
                    <P>• If your comment includes confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Written/Paper Submissions:</E>
                         Submit written/paper submissions in the following way:
                    </P>
                    <P>• Mail or visit DOL-OWCP/DFEC, Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Division of Federal Employees' Compensation, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Ave. NW, Room S-3323, Washington, DC 20210.</P>
                    <P>
                        • OWCP will post your comment as well as any attachments, except for information submitted and marked as confidential, in the docket at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Anjanette Suggs, Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, OWCP/DFEC, at 
                        <E T="03">suggs.anjanette@dol.gov</E>
                         (email); (202) 354-9660 (voice).
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The War Hazards Compensation Act (WHCA), 
                    <E T="03">42 U.S.C. 1701 et seq.,</E>
                     provides reimbursement to insurance carriers and self-insured employers for workers' compensation benefits paid under the Defense Base Act (DBA) (an extension of the Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act (LHWCA)) due to injuries or death resulting from a war risk hazard.
                </P>
                <P>Currently, OWCP utilizes the CA-278 form for insurance carriers and self-insured employers to request reimbursement. The form is used for submission of reimbursement requests. There is currently no adequate form for an Actuarial Attestation under the WHCA. The insurance carriers and self-insured are required to verify that no additional premium was charged for war-risk hazard claims.</P>
                <P>
                    Under Section 104 of the WHCA, private insurance carriers or self-insured employers may seek reimbursement for payments made in conjunctions with a WHCA-covered injury. 
                    <E T="03">20 CFR 61.100</E>
                     states:
                </P>
                <P>Under 20 CFR 61.100: (a) The Office shall reimburse any carrier that pays benefits under the Defense Base Act or other applicable workers' compensation law due to the injury, disability or death of any person specified in Sec. 61.1(a), if the injury or death for which the benefits are paid arose from a war-risk hazard. The amount to be reimbursed includes disability and death payments, funeral and burial expenses, medical expenses, and the reasonable and necessary claims expense incurred in processing the request.” (b) The Office shall not provide reimbursement in any case in which an additional premium for war-risk hazard was charged, or in which the carrier has been reimbursed, paid, or compensated for the loss for which reimbursement is requested.</P>
                <P>
                    See: 
                    <E T="03">USCODE-2023-title42-chap12-subchapI-sec1701.pdf.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">War Hazards Compensation Act | U.S. Department of Labor.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">eCFR:: 20 CFR 61.100—General reimbursement provisions.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Desired Focus of Comments</HD>
                <P>OWCP/DFEC is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection related to the Actuarial Attestation Regarding War Risk Hazard Provisions in Defense Base Act Premiums. OWCP/DFEC is particularly interested in comments that:</P>
                <P>• Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information has practical utility;</P>
                <P>• Evaluate the accuracy of OWCP/DFEC's estimate of the burden related to the information collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used in the estimate;</P>
                <P>• Suggest methods to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    • Minimize the burden of the information collection on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Documents related to this information collection request are available at 
                    <E T="03">https://regulations.gov</E>
                     and at DOL-OWCP/DFEC located at 200 Constitution Ave. NW, Room S-3323, Washington, DC 20210. Questions about the information collection requirements may be directed to the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION</E>
                     section of this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Current Actions</HD>
                <P>This information collection request concerns the Actuarial Attestation Regarding War Risk Hazard Provisions in Defense Base Act Premiums, WH-2. OWCP/DFEC has updated the data with respect to the number of respondents, responses, burden hours, and burden costs supporting this information collection request from the previous information collection request.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     New collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Division. of Federal Employees' Compensation, OWCP/DFEC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     1240-0NEW.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for profit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Once per year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Responses:</E>
                     12.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     12 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Respondent or Recordkeeper Cost:</E>
                     $671.00.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OWCP/DFEC Form: 1240-ONEW:</E>
                     Form WH-2, Actuarial Attestation Regarding War Risk Hazard Provisions in Defense Base Act Premiums.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the proposed information collection request; they will become a matter of public record and will be available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Anjanette Suggs,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Certifying Officer. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23134 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-CH-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NATIONAL AERONAUTICS AND SPACE ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[NASA Document Number: 25-047; NASA Docket Number: NASA-2025-0267]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Name of Information Collection: NASA Astronaut Candidate Selection (ASCAN) Qualifications Inquiry</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Renewal of Information Collection.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>NASA, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are due by February 17, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for this information collection should be sent within 60 days of publication of this notice at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for NASA Docket NASA-2025-0267.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Requests for additional information or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58631"/>
                        copies of the information collection instrument(s) and instructions should be directed to NASA PRA Clearance Officer, Stayce Hoult, NASA Headquarters, 300 E Street SW, JC0000, Washington, DC 20546, phone 256-714-8575, or email 
                        <E T="03">stayce.d.hoult@nasa.gov</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">hq-ocio-pra-program@mail.nasa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Abstract</HD>
                <P>This collection of information supports the National Aeronautics and Space Act of 1958, as amended, to create opportunities to improve processes associated with the evaluation and selection of individuals to participate in the NASA Astronaut Candidate Selection Program. The NASA Astronaut Selection Office (ASO) located at the Lyndon B. Johnson Space Center (JSC) in Houston, Texas is responsible for selecting astronauts for the various United States Space Exploration programs. In evaluating an applicant for the Astronaut Candidate Program, it is important that the ASO have the benefit of qualitative and quantitative information and recommendations from persons who have been directly associated with the applicant over the course of their career.</P>
                <P>This information will be used by the NASA ASO and Human Resources (HR) personnel, during the candidate selection process (approx. 2-year duration), to gain insight into the candidates' work ethic and professionalism as demonstrated in previous related employment activities. Respondents may include the astronaut candidate's previous employer(s)/direct-reporting manager, as well as co-workers and other references provided by the candidate. NASA is committed to effectively performing the Agency's communication function in accordance with the Space Act Section 203 (a)(3) to “provide for the widest practicable and appropriate dissemination of information concerning its activities and the results thereof,” and to enhance public understanding of, and participation in, the nation's aeronautical and space program in accordance with the NASA Strategic Plan.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Methods of Collection</HD>
                <P>Electronic and optionally by paper.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Data</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     NASA Astronaut Candidate Selection (ASCAN) Qualifications Inquiry.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     2700-0156.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of review:</E>
                     Renewal of Existing Information Collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Number of Activities:</E>
                     900.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents per Activity:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Responses:</E>
                     900.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     20 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     300.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>Comments are invited on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of NASA, including whether the information collected has practical utility; (2) the accuracy of NASA's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection. They will also become a matter of public record.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Stayce Hoult,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>PRA Clearance Officer, National Aeronautics and Space Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23105 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7510-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NATIONAL SCIENCE FOUNDATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Permit Applications Received Under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Science Foundation.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of permit applications received.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The National Science Foundation (NSF) is required to publish a notice of permit applications received to conduct activities regulated under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978. NSF has published regulations under the Antarctic Conservation Act in the Code of Federal Regulations. This is the required notice of permit applications received.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested parties are invited to submit written data, comments, or views with respect to this permit application by January 16, 2026. This application may be inspected by interested parties at the Permit Office, address below.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments should be addressed to Permit Office, Office of Polar Programs, National Science Foundation, 2415 Eisenhower Avenue, Alexandria, Virginia 22314 or 
                        <E T="03">ACApermits@nsf.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Andrew Titmus, ACA Permit Officer, at the above address, 703-292-4479.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The National Science Foundation, as directed by the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-541, 16 U.S.C. 2401 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), as amended by the Antarctic Science, Tourism and Conservation Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-227), has developed regulations (45 CFR parts 670 to 674) for the establishment of a permit system for various activities in Antarctica related to the designation of certain animals and certain geographic areas as requiring special protection, among other purposes.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Application Details</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Permit Application: 2026-011</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant:</E>
                     Daniel Villa, Sea Shepherd Global, 1217 S 9th St., Tacoma, WA 98405
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Activity for Which Permit Is Requested:</E>
                     Waste Management (45 CFR 671). The applicant seeks an Antarctic Conservation Permit for waste management activities associated with use of remotely piloted aircraft systems (RPAS) in Antarctica. RPAS will be used for documenting krill fishery activities only. RPAS will not be flown over any concentrations of wildlife, Antarctic Specially Protected or Managed Areas or Historic Sites and Monuments without appropriate authorization. Several measures would be taken to prevent loss of the aircraft, including that aircraft are only to be flown by experienced, pre-approved pilots in fair weather conditions and in the presence of an observer, who will always maintain visual line of sight with the aircraft during operation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Location:</E>
                     Antarctic Peninsula region.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Dates of Permitted Activities:</E>
                     1 January 2026-1 May 2026.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Permit Application: 2026-012</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant:</E>
                     Ricardo Kramer, Oceanwide Sail Expeditions Inc. (OSEI), 222 Pennbright Drive, Suite 109A, Houston TX 77090
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Activity for Which Permit Is Requested:</E>
                     Waste Management (45 CFR 671). The applicant seeks an Antarctic Conservation Act permit for waste management activities associated with helicopter operations in the Antarctic peninsula region during up to four tourism cruises aboard the Dutch vessel M/V Ortelius. OSEI proposes to charter 4 helicopters and certified experienced pilots from DAP Helicópteros (Punta 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58632"/>
                    Arenas, Chile). OSEI will be the operator of record and will oversee all activities undertaken by DAP Helicópteros as part of M/V Ortelius' activities in Antarctica.
                </P>
                <P>Helicopters will be used for aerial sightseeing and landings away from the ship. Helicopter landings are planned on both land and sea ice. Local conditions will in part determine the final itinerary. Helicopter activities will take place in a way that does not disturb wildlife and will not result in harmful interference with native animals and plants. Trips will be of short duration and will be conducted in good to acceptable weather conditions and will not enter any Antarctic Special Protected Areas.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Location:</E>
                     Antarctic Peninsula region and the Weddell Sea.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Dates of Permitted Activities:</E>
                     December 2025-February 2027.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Permit Application: 2026-013</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant:</E>
                     Zhongwen Zhan, California Institute of Technology, 1200 East California Blvd., Pasadena, CA 91125
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Activity for Which Permit Is Requested:</E>
                     Waste Management (45 CFR 671). The applicant seeks an Antarctic Conservation Act permit for waste management activities associated with research on critical processes that control glacier dynamics at Union Glacier in the vicinity of Constellation Inlet. To accomplish the research, the project will deploy a number of different instruments over the course of the permit period. The applicants will contract with Antarctic Logistics &amp; Expeditions LLC (ALE) for services including communications and medical evacuation support, flight provisioning, field support such as snowmobiles, accommodations, guides, fuel and equipment. All participants in the project will receive environmental and safety training prior to deployment as well as on-site training at Union Glacier Base camp before relocating to the Constellation Inlet field camp with a total anticipated time in the field of 20 days. Glacial dynamics will be measured in the vicinity of the Constellation Inlet. This work requires the installation of up to 20 km of thin single strand fiberoptic cables weighing a total of less than 10 kg to provide a backbone for a Distributed Acoustic Sensor (DAS) to detect seismic stress. The cables will be placed in narrow ice trenches, and the trenches will then be backfilled and compressed. The subsequent sintering will prevent removal of the cables at the conclusion of the study but also protects them from redistribution in the environment. In addition, up to 500 accelerometers and 20 Geophones will be deployed along the DAS array and will be removed at project completion by ALE employees. Stationary and towed ground penetrating radar systems will also be employed along with a 10 antenna Global Navigation Satellite System array and removed after use.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Location:</E>
                     Union Glacier.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Dates of Permitted Activities:</E>
                     5 January 2025-28 February 2027.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Permit Application: 2026-015</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant:</E>
                     Benjamin Couturier, P.O. Box 2174, Seward, AK 99664 USA
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Activity for Which Permit Is Requested:</E>
                     Waste Management (45 CFR 671). The applicant seeks an Antarctic Conservation Act permit for waste management activities associated with operating the motor yacht Kalista and using Remotely Piloted Aircraft Systems (RPAS) in Antarctic waters. Operations would include shore excursions by dinghy. The yacht would carry up to 4,226 gallons of diesel fuel in internal tanks. In addition, up to 165 gallons of gasoline will be stored in external storage tanks for use in dinghy operation. Transfer of fuel from external tanks would be conducted in a contained and controlled environment. A spill kit and absorbent pads would be available during all fueling and fuel transfers. Solid waste will be contained and stored on the vessel and disposed of outside of the Antarctic Treaty area. The applicant would operate small, battery-operated RPAS consisting, in part, of a quadcopter equipped with cameras to aid in navigation and to collect footage of the Antarctic. The RPAS would not be flown over wildlife, or over Antarctic Specially Protected Areas or Historic Sites and Monuments. Several measures would be taken to prevent against loss of the RPAS including terminating flights with at least 40% battery life remaining; having an observer on the lookout for wildlife, people, and other hazards; maintaining flights below 400 ft above ground level and ensuring that the separation between the operator and quadcopter does not exceed visual line of sight. The applicant is seeking a Waste Permit to cover any accidental releases that may result from operating the vessel, conducting shore excursions, or operating the RPAS.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Location:</E>
                     Antarctic Peninsula region.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Dates of Permitted Activities:</E>
                     20 January 2026-6 March 2030.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Permit Application: 2026-018</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant:</E>
                     Ona Hahs, U.S. Department of State, Bureau of Oceans and International Environmental and Scientific Affairs, Office of Ocean and Polar Affairs, 2201 C St. NW, Washington, DC 20520
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Activity for Which Permit Is Requested:</E>
                     Enter Antarctic Specially Protected Area (45 CFR 670). The applicant seeks an ACA permit to enter Antarctic Specially Protected Areas (ASPAs). The U.S. Department of State will lead an interagency team of U.S. inspectors into protected areas to verify compliance with the provisions and values of the Antarctic Treaty and its Environmental Protocol and to review the appropriateness and effectiveness of current management provisions for protecting and preserving Antarctica.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Location:</E>
                     ASPA 101—Taylor Rookery, Mac. Robertson Land; ASPA 102—Rookery Islands, Holme Bay, Mac. Robertson Land; ASPA 103—Ardery Island and Odbert Island, Budd Coast, Wilkes Land, East Antarctica; ASPA 104—Sabrina Island, Balleny Islands; ASPA 105—Beaufort Island, McMurdo Sound, Ross Sea; ASPA 106—Cape Hallett, Northern Victoria Land, Ross Sea; ASPA 107—Emperor Island, Dion Islands, Marguerite Bay, Antarctic Peninsula; ASPA 108—Green Island, Berthelot Islands, Antarctic Peninsula; ASPA 109—Moe Island, South Orkney Islands; ASPA 110—Lynch Island, South Orkney Islands; ASPA 111—Southern Powell Island and adjacent islands, South Orkney Islands; ASPA 112—Coppermine Peninsula, Robert Island, South Shetland Islands; ASPA 113—Litchfield Island, Arthur Harbor, Anvers Island, Palmer Archipelago; ASPA 115—Lagotellerie Island, Marguerite Bay, Graham Land; ASPA 116—New College Valley, Caughley Beach, Cape Bird, Ross Island; ASPA 117—Avian Island, Marguerite Bay, Antarctic Peninsula; ASPA 119—Davis Valley and Forlidas Pond, Dufek Massif, Pensacola Mountains; ASPA 120—Pointe-Géologie Archipelago, Terre Adélie; ASPA 121—Cape Royds, Ross Island; ASPA 122—Arrival Heights, Hut Point Peninsula, Ross Island; ASPA 123—Barwick and Balham Valleys, Southern Victoria Land; ASPA 124—Cape Crozier, Ross Island; ASPA 125—Fildes Peninsula, King George Island (25 de Mayo); ASPA 126—Byers Peninsula, Livingston Island, South Shetland Islands; ASPA 127—Haswell Island; ASPA 128—Western shore of Admiralty Bay, King George Island, South Shetland Islands; ASPA 129—Rothera Point, Adelaide Island; ASPA 131—Canada Glacier, Lake Fryxell, Taylor Valley, Victoria Land; ASPA 132—Potter Peninsula, King George Island (Isla 25 de Mayo), South Shetland Islands; 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58633"/>
                    ASPA 133—Harmony Point, Nelson Island, South Shetland Islands; ASPA 134—Cierva Point and offshore islands, Danco Coast, Antarctic Peninsula; ASPA 135—North-east Bailey Peninsula, Budd Coast, Wilkes Land; ASPA 136—Clark Peninsula, Budd Coast, Wilkes Land, East Antarctica; ASPA 137—Northwest White Island, McMurdo Sound; ASPA 138—Linnaeus Terrace, Asgard Range, Victoria Land; ASPA 139—Biscoe Point, Anvers Island, Palmer Archipelago; ASPA 140—Parts of Deception Island, South Shetland Islands; ASPA 141—Yukidori Valley, Langhovde, Lützow-Holm Bay; ASPA 142—Svarthamaren; ASPA 143—Marine Plain, Mule Peninsula, Vestfold Hills, Princess Elizabeth Land; ASPA 145—Port Foster, Deception Island, South Shetland Islands; ASPA 146—South Bay, Doumer Island, Palmer Archipelago; ASPA 147—Ablation Valley and Ganymede Heights, Alexander Island; ASPA 148—Mount Flora, Hope Bay, Antarctic Peninsula; ASPA 149—Cape Shirreff and San Telmo Island, Livingston Island, South Shetland Islands; ASPA 150—Ardley Island, Maxwell Bay, King George Island (25 de Mayo); ASPA 151—Lions Rump, King George Island, South Shetland Islands; ASPA 154—Botany Bay, Cape Geology, Victoria Land; ASPA 155—Cape Evans, Ross Island; ASPA 156—Lewis Bay, Mount Erebus, Ross Island; ASPA 157—Backdoor Bay, Cape Royds, Ross Island; ASPA 158—Hut Point, Ross Island; ASPA 159—Cape Adare, Borchgrevink Coast; ASPA 160—Frazier Islands, Windmill Islands, Wilkes Land, East Antarctica; ASPA 161—Terra Nova Bay, Ross Sea; ASPA 162—Mawson's Huts, Cape Denison, Commonwealth Bay, George VLand, East Antarctica; ASPA 163—Dakshin Gangotri Glacier, Dronning Maud Land; ASPA 164—Scullin and Murray Monoliths, Mac.Robertson Land; ASPA 165—Edmonson Point, Wood Bay, Ross Sea; ASPA 166—Port-Martin, Terre-Adélie; ASPA 167—Hawker Island, Princess Elizabeth Land; ASPA 168—Mount Harding, Grove Mountains, East Antarctica; ASPA 169—Amanda Bay, Ingrid Christensen Coast, Princess Elizabeth Land, East Antarctica; ASPA 170—Marion Nunataks, Charcot Island, Antarctic Peninsula; ASPA 171—Narebski Point, Barton Peninsula, King George Island; ASPA 172—Lower Taylor Glacier and Blood Falls, McMurdo Dry Valleys, Victoria Land; ASPA 173—Cape Washington and Silverfish Bay, Terra Nova Bay, Ross Sea; ASPA 174—Stornes, Larsemann Hills, Princess Elizabeth Land; ASPA 175—High Altitude Geothermal sites of the Ross Sea region; ASPA 176—Rosenthal Islands, Anvers Island, Palmer Archipelago; ASPA 177—Léonie Islands and South-East Adelaide Island, Antarctic Peninsula; ASPA 178—Inexpressible Island and Seaview Bay, Ross Sea; ASPA 179—Parts of Western Sør Rondane Mountains, Dronning Maud Land, East Antarctica; ASPA 180—Danger Islands Archipelago, North-eastern Antarctic Peninsula; ASPA 181—Farrier Col, Horseshoe Island, Marguerite Bay; ASPA 182—Western Bransfield Strait and Eastern Dallman Bay.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Dates of Permitted Activities:</E>
                     1 January 2026-31 December 2030.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Permit Application: 2026-019</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant:</E>
                     Jan Helge Pile, Vice President Marine &amp; Technical Operations, ROW Management LTD, 1551 Sawgrass Corporate Parkway, Suite 200, Fort Lauderdale, FL 33323
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Activity for Which Permit Is Requested:</E>
                     Waste Management (45 CFR 671). The applicant seeks an Antarctic Conservation Act permit for waste management activities associated with operation of small Remotely Piloted Aircraft Systems (RPAS) for use in commercial filming and ice reconnaissance aboard M/V The World. EYOS Expeditions Ltd. of Vashon Island, Washington, has been contracted by ROW management to oversee expedition operations. Commercial marketing footage will include broad sea-, land- and icescapes, and the vessel underway and at anchor, to capture portraiture of the expedition. The activity will be conducted by EYOS Expeditions staff experienced with RPAS filming and under the EYOS expedition leader's supervision. Only trained and experienced pilots will be used for piloting RPAS. RPAS will not be operated in the vicinity of concentrations of wildlife and will not disrupt wildlife. RPAS will not be flown over Antarctic Specially Protected Areas, Historic Sites and Monuments, or Antarctic Specially Managed Areas. Several measures would be taken to prevent loss of the RPAS including the use of high visibility coloration and flotation devices.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Location:</E>
                     Antarctic Peninsula and Ross Sea regions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Dates of Permitted Activities:</E>
                     29 January-17 February 2026.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Permit Application: 2026-020</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant:</E>
                     Sibrand Hassing, Holland America Line Limited, 450 3rd Avenue West, Seattle, WA 98119
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Activity for Which Permit Is Requested:</E>
                     Waste Management (45 CFR 671). The applicant requests an ACA permit for waste management activities associated with operation of small, battery operated, remotely piloted aircraft systems (RPAS) equipped with cameras to take scenic photos and film of the Antarctic. The RPAS would not be flown over concentrations of birds or mammals or over Antarctic Specially Protected Areas. The RPAS would only be flown by operators with extensive experience, who are pre-approved by the expedition leader. Several measures would be taken to prevent loss of the RPAS including painting them a highly visible color; only flying when the wind is less than 12 m/s; having prop guards on propeller tips, a flotation device if operated over water, and a “go home” feature in case of loss of control link or low battery; having an observer on the lookout for wildlife, people, and other hazards; and ensuring that the separation between the operator and RPAS does not exceed an operational range of 500 meters.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jean C. Allen,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>CORF Division Director for Polar Programs, Office of Polar Programs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23056 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7555-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">NATIONAL SCIENCE FOUNDATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Science Foundation</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Submission for OMB review; comment request.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The National Science Foundation (NSF) has submitted the following information collection requirement to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This is the second notice for public comment; the first was published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         and no comments were received. NSF is forwarding the proposed renewal submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance simultaneously with the publication of this second notice.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAmain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58634"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                         Suzanne H. Plimpton, Reports Clearance Officer, National Science Foundation, 2415 Eisenhower Avenue, Alexandria, VA 22314, or send email to 
                        <E T="03">splimpto@nsf.gov.</E>
                         Individuals who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339, which is accessible 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, 365 days a year (including federal holidays). Comments regarding this information collection are best assured of having their full effect if received within 30 days of this notification. Copies of the submission(s) may be obtained by calling 703-292-7556.
                    </P>
                    <P>NSF may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number, and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Program Monitoring Data Collections for the National Science Foundation (NSF) Innovation Corps (I-Corps) Program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     3145-0267.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Intent to renew an information collection for post-award output and outcome monitoring system.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The National Science Foundation (NSF) Innovation Corps (I-Corps) Program was started in 2011 to develop and nurture a national innovation ecosystem built upon fundamental research that guides the output of scientific and engineering discoveries closer to the development of technologies, products, and services that benefit society.
                </P>
                <P>The goal of the I-Corps Program is to use experiential education to help entrepreneurial researchers reduce the time necessary to translate promising ideas from the laboratory bench to widespread implementation. In addition to accelerating technology translation, the NSF I-Corps program also seeks to reduce the risk associated with technology development conducted without insight into industry requirements and challenges.</P>
                <P>The NSF I-Corps Program is designed to support the commercialization of “deep technologies,” those revolving around fundamental discoveries in science and engineering. The program addresses the skill and knowledge gaps associated with the transformation of basic research into deep technology ventures. The program enables entrepreneurial researchers in deep technologies to receive support in the form of entrepreneurial education, industry mentoring, and funding to accelerate the translation of knowledge derived from fundamental research into emerging products and services that may attract subsequent third-party funding. I-Corps training and infrastructure together represent an important investment for NSF and the Nation, as directed by the American Innovation and Competitiveness Act (AICA), Public Law 114-329, Section 601.</P>
                <P>These selected researchers form teams and participate in the I-Corps Teams Program Curriculum. An I-Corps team includes the Entrepreneurial Lead (EL), Technical Lead (TL) or the Principal Investigator (PI), and the Industrial Mentor (IM). During the training program, the team is expected to spend significant time conducting active customer discovery, including interviewing potential customers and potential partners. The outcomes of I-Corps Teams projects will be threefold: (1) a decision on a clear path forward based on an assessment of the business model, (2) substantial first-hand evidence for or against product-market fit, with the identification of customer segments and corresponding value propositions, and (3) a narrative of a compelling technology demonstration for potential partners.</P>
                <P>The NSF I-Corps program requests the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval of this clearance that will allow the programs to improve the rigor of our surveys for evaluations and program monitoring, as well as to initiate new data collections to monitor the immediate, intermediate, and long-term outcomes of our investments by periodically surveying the I-Corps teams and their members. The clearance will allow the program to rigorously develop, test, and implement survey instruments and methodologies.</P>
                <P>
                    The primary objective of this clearance is to allow the NSF I-Corps program to collect characteristics, inputs, outputs, and outcomes information from the I-Corps teams funded by the program. This collection will enable the evaluation of the impacts on the four themes as outlined in the FY 2021 Biennial Report to Congress (
                    <E T="03">https://www.nsf.gov/news/special_reports/i-corps/pdf/NSFI-Corps2021BiennialReport.pdf</E>
                    ): 
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">1. Training an Entrepreneurial Workforce</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">2. Translating Technologies</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">3. Nurturing an Innovation Ecosystem</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">4. Enabling Economic Impact </FP>
                <P>The second, related objective is to improve our questionnaires and/or data collection procedures through pilot tests and other survey methods used in these activities. Under this clearance a variety of surveys could be pre-tested, modified, and used.</P>
                <P>Following standard OMB requirements, NSF will submit to OMB an individual request for each survey project we undertake under this clearance. NSF will request OMB approval in advance and provide OMB with a copy of the questionnaire and materials describing the project.</P>
                <P>Data collected will be used for planning, management, evaluation, and audit purposes. Summaries of output and outcome monitoring data are used to respond to queries from Congress, the public, NSF's external merit reviewers who serve as advisors, including Committees of Visitors (COVs), NSF's Office of the Inspector General, and other pertinent stakeholders. These data are needed for effective administration, program monitoring, evaluation, outreach/marketing roadmaps, and for strategic reviews and measuring attainment of NSF's program and strategic goals, as identified by the President's Accountable Government Initiative, the Government Performance and Results Act Modernization Act of 2010, Evidence-Based Policymaking Act of 2018, and NSF's Strategic Plan.</P>
                <P>All questions asked in the data collection are questions that are NOT included in the annual, final or outcomes reports, and the intention is to ask the grantees even beyond the period of performance on voluntary basis in order to capture impacts of the research that occur during and beyond the life of the award.</P>
                <P>Grantees will be invited to submit information on a periodic basis to support the management of the NSF I-Corps investment portfolio. Once the survey tool is tested, grantees will be invited to submit these indicators to NSF via data collection methods that include, but are not limited to, online surveys, interviews, focus groups, phone interviews, etc. These indicators are both quantitative and descriptive and may include, for example, the characteristics of project personnel, sources of funding and support, knowledge transfer and technology translation activities, patents, licenses, publications, descriptions of significant advances, and other outcomes of the funded efforts.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Use of the Information</HD>
                <P>
                    The data collected is used for NSF internal and external reports, historical 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58635"/>
                    data, program level studies and evaluations, and for securing future funding for the maintenance and growth of the NSF I-Corps program. Evaluation designs could make use of metadata associated with the award and other characteristics to identify a comparison group to evaluate the impact of the program funding and other relevant research questions.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s150,r75,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimate of Public Burden</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Collection title</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Number of respondents</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>responses/</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Annual hour burden</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Program Monitoring Data Collections for the National Science Foundation (NSF) Innovation Corps (I-Corps) Program</ENT>
                        <ENT>400 I-Corps Teams (1,200 program participants) per year</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>900</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>13 I-Corps Hubs (3,900 program participants) per year</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,925</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,100 participants</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>3,825</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>For life-of-award monitoring, the data collection burden to awardees will be limited to no more than 15 minutes of the respondents' time in each instance.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Respondents</HD>
                <P>The respondents consist of Technical Lead (TL) of the I-Corps Project or Principal Investigator (PI) of NSF I-Corps Program awards, Entrepreneurial Lead (EL), and Industry Mentor (IM).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Suzanne H. Plimpton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Reports Clearance Officer, National Science Foundation.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23124 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7555-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">NATIONAL SCIENCE FOUNDATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Comment Request; Office of Civil Rights Civil Rights Case Management System</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Science Foundation.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Submission for OMB review; comment request.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The National Science Foundation (NSF) has submitted the following information collection requirement to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This is the second notice for public comment; the first was published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , and no comments were received. NSF is forwarding the proposed submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance simultaneously with the publication of this second notice.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAmain</E>
                        . Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Suzanne H. Plimpton, Reports Clearance Officer, National Science Foundation, 2415 Eisenhower Avenue, Alexandria, Virginia 22314; telephone (703) 292-7556; or send email to 
                        <E T="03">splimpto@nsf.gov</E>
                        . Individuals who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339, which is accessible 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, 365 days a year (including Federal holidays).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         Comments regarding (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the NSF, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the NSF's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, use, and clarity of the information on respondents; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology should be addressed to the points of contact in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section.
                    </P>
                    <P>Copies of the submission may be obtained by calling 703-292-7556. NSF may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number, and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Office of Civil Rights—Civil Rights Case Management System.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control No.:</E>
                     3145-New.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The U.S. National Science Foundation (NSF) Office of Civil Rights (OCR) processes discrimination complaints under various federal civil rights laws and regulations. Organizations that receive funding awards from NSF are prohibited from discriminating against individuals who participate in any NSF-funded programs, services, and activities. To ensure awardee organizations follow civil rights laws, OCR's Awardee Compliance Branch (ACB) receives and considers complaints for investigation of unlawful discrimination, harassment, and retaliation in NSF-funded programs, services, and activities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    OCR ACB is establishing an electronic case management system to receive, evaluate, process, investigate, and resolve allegations of discrimination, harassment, or retaliation. Complainants submit their complaint information into the case management system. Information collected and maintained by the system includes: name and contact information for the complainant; impacted party (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     complainant or other individual), witnesses, respondent, awardee organization; complaint information (which includes basis of discrimination or harassment, complaint description, remedies, and whether the complaint is filed in any other forum); any additional documentation; and a consent form for investigation and sharing of information with the relevant organization(s). If the complaint is accepted for investigation, additional information may be collected that is relevant to the case. This information is collected to help OCR staff determine if there is jurisdiction to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58636"/>
                    accept complaints for investigation by OCR or if the complaint should be referred to NSF's Office of the Inspector General (OIG), to the institution, or another federal agency. Information is only used and shared on a need-to-know basis.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Those who experienced or witnessed harassment or discrimination within an NSF program or activity.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     100.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Burden on the Public:</E>
                     Estimated 30 minutes to fill out the information to submit a complaint. The time varies by complaint. The estimated burden time is 50 hours a year.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: December 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Suzanne H. Plimpton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Reports Clearance Officer, National Science Foundation.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23121 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7555-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 72-1041; NRC-2025-1535]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Environmental Assessment and Finding of No Significant Impact of Independent Spent Fuel Storage Facilities Decommissioning Funding Plans</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; issuance.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is publishing this notice regarding the issuance of a final environmental assessment (EA) and a finding of no significant impact (FONSI) for its review and approval of the initial and updated decommissioning funding plans (DFPs) submitted for the independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) at South Texas Project Electric Generating Station, Unit 1 and 2 (STP 1 and 2).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The EA and FONSI referenced in this document are available on December 17, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2025-1535 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly available information related to this document using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal Rulemaking Website:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for Docket ID NRC-2025-1535. Address questions about Docket IDs in 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                         to Bridget Curran; telephone: 301-415-1003; email: 
                        <E T="03">Bridget.Curran@nrc.gov.</E>
                         For technical questions, contact the individual(s) listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section of this document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS):</E>
                         You may obtain publicly available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html.</E>
                         To begin the search, select “Begin ADAMS Public Search.” For problems with ADAMS, please contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, at 301-415-4737, or by email to 
                        <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov.</E>
                         The ADAMS accession number for each document referenced (if it is available in ADAMS) is provided the first time that it is mentioned in this document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">NRC's PDR:</E>
                         The PDR, where you may examine and order copies of publicly available documents, is open by appointment. To make an appointment to visit the PDR, please send an email to 
                        <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov</E>
                         or call 1-800-397-4209 or 301-415-4737, between 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. eastern time (ET), Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Daneira Meléndez-Colón, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-7295, email: 
                        <E T="03">Daneira.Melendez-Colon@nrc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    The NRC is considering the approval of the initial and updated DFPs submitted by the STP 1 and 2 ISFSI licensee, and the NRC staff has prepared a final EA and FONSI determination for the initial and updated STP 1 and 2 ISFSI DFPs in accordance with the NRC regulations in part 51 of title 10 of the 
                    <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations</E>
                     (10 CFR), “Environmental Protection Regulations for Domestic Licensing and Related Regulatory Functions,” which implement the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The NRC requires its licensees to plan for the eventual decommissioning of their licensed facilities prior to license termination. On June 17, 2011, the NRC published a final rule in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     amending its decommissioning planning regulations (76 FR 35512). The final rule amended the NRC regulation, 10 CFR 72.30, “Financial assurance and recordkeeping for decommissioning,” which concerns financial assurance and decommissioning for ISFSIs. This regulation requires each holder of, or applicant for, a license under 10 CFR part 72 to submit a DFP for the NRC's review and approval. The purpose of the DFP is to demonstrate the licensee's financial assurance, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     that funds will be available to decommission the ISFSI. The NRC staff will later publish its financial analyses of the DFP submittals which will be available for public inspection in ADAMS.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Discussion</HD>
                <P>
                    The table in this notice includes the plant name, docket number, licensee, and ADAMS accession number for the final EA and FONSI determination for the STP 1 and 2 ISFSI. The table also includes the ADAMS accession numbers for other relevant documents, including the initial and updated DFP submittals. For further details with respect to these actions, see the NRC staff's final EA and FONSI determinations which are available for public inspection in ADAMS and at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket ID NRC-2025-1535. For additional direction on accessing information related to this document, see the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Finding of No Significant Impact</HD>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r300">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Facility</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">South Texas Project, Unit 1 and 2</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Docket No.</ENT>
                        <ENT>72-1041.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Licensee</ENT>
                        <ENT>South Texas Project Nuclear Operating Company (STPNOC).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Proposed Action</ENT>
                        <ENT>The NRC's review and approval of STPNOC's initial and updated decommissioning funding plans (DFPs) submitted in accordance with 10 CFR 72.30(b) and (c), respectively.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="58637"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Environmental Impact of Proposed Action</ENT>
                        <ENT>The NRC staff has determined that the proposed action, the review and approval of STPNOC's initial and updated DFPs, submitted in accordance with 10 CFR 72.30(b) and (c), will not authorize changes to licensed operations or maintenance activities, or result in changes in the types, characteristics, or quantities of radiological or non-radiological effluents released into the environment from the independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI), or result in the creation of solid waste. Moreover, the approval of the initial and updated DFPs will not authorize any construction activity, facility modification, or other land-disturbing activity. The NRC staff has concluded that the proposed action is a procedural and administrative action that will not have a significant impact on the environment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Finding of No Significant Impact</ENT>
                        <ENT>The proposed action does not require changes to the ISFSI's licensed routine operations, maintenance activities, or monitoring programs, nor does it require new construction or land-disturbing activities. The scope of the proposed action concerns only the NRC's review and approval of STPNOC's initial and updated DFPs. The scope of the proposed action does not include, and will not result in, the review and approval of decontamination or decommissioning activities or license termination for the ISFSI or for other parts of STP 1 and 2. Therefore, the NRC staff determined that approval of the initial and updated DFPs for the STP 1 and 2 ISFSI will not significantly affect the quality of the human environment, and accordingly, the staff has concluded that a FONSI is appropriate. The NRC staff further finds that preparation of an environmental impact statement is not required.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Available Documents</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                             notice. Final Rule “Environmental Protection Regulations for Domestic Licensing and Related Regulatory Functions and Related Conforming Amendments,” published March 12, 1984 (49 FR 9381).
                            <LI>
                                <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                 notice. Final Rule “Decommissioning Planning,” published June 17, 2011 (76 FR 35512).
                            </LI>
                            <LI>U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission. 2003/08/31-NUREG-1748, “Environmental Review Guidance for Licensing Actions Associated with NMSS Programs, Final Report.” August 2003 (ML032540811).</LI>
                            <LI>U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission. “Environmental Assessment for Final Rule: Decommissioning Planning” (10 CFR parts 20, 30, 40, 50, 70, and 72; RIN 3150-AI55). February 2009 (ML090500648).</LI>
                            <LI>U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission. ESA Section 7 No Effect Determination for ISFSI DFP Reviews (Note to File), dated May 15, 2017 (ML17135A062).</LI>
                            <LI>U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission. “Final Environmental Assessment and Finding of No Significant Impact Related to the South Texas Project Nuclear Operating Company Initial and Updated Decommissioning Funding Plans Submitted in Accordance with 10 CFR 72.30(b) and 10 CFR 72.30(c) for South Texas Project Electric Generating Station Unit 1 and 2 Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation,” dated December 4, 2025 (ML25258A170).</LI>
                            <LI>U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission. “Review of the Draft Environmental Assessment and Finding of No Significant Impact for South Texas Project Electric Generating Station Unit 1 and 2 Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation Initial and Updated Decommissioning Funding Plans,” dated August 1, 2025 (ML25085A350).</LI>
                            <LI>South Texas Project, Unit 1 and 2 ISFSI—Decommissioning Funding Plan for the Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation, dated September 26, 2018 (ML18269A258).</LI>
                            <LI>South Texas Project ISFSI—Decommissioning Funding Plan for the Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation, dated September 27, 2021 (ML21270A142).</LI>
                            <LI>South Texas Project ISFSI, Decommissioning Funding Plan for the Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation, dated September 25, 2024 (ML24270A273).</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 12, 2025.</DATED>
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>Yoira Diaz-Sanabria, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief, Storage and Transportation Licensing Branch, Division of Fuel Management, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23099 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">POSTAL SERVICE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Product Change—Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, and USPS Ground Advantage Negotiated Service Agreements</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Postal Service.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date of required notice:</E>
                         December 17, 2025.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Sean C. Robinson, 202-268-8405.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The United States Postal Service hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission the following requests:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Date filed with Postal Regulatory Commission</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Negotiated Service Agreement product category
                            <LI>and No.</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">MC docket No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">K docket No.</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">12/10/25</ENT>
                        <ENT>PME-PM-GA 1465</ENT>
                        <ENT>MC2026-131</ENT>
                        <ENT>K2026-131</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">12/11/25</ENT>
                        <ENT>PME-PM-GA 1466</ENT>
                        <ENT>MC2026-132</ENT>
                        <ENT>K2026-132</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">12/11/25</ENT>
                        <ENT>PME-PM-GA 1467</ENT>
                        <ENT>MC2026-133</ENT>
                        <ENT>K2026-133</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">12/11/25</ENT>
                        <ENT>PME-PM-GA 1468</ENT>
                        <ENT>MC2026-134</ENT>
                        <ENT>K2026-134</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="58638"/>
                <P>
                    Documents are available at 
                    <E T="03">www.prc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sean C. Robinson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Attorney, Corporate and Postal Business Law.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23064 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-12-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">RAILROAD RETIREMENT BOARD</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed Collection; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Summary:</E>
                     In accordance with the requirement of Section 3506 (c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 which provides opportunity for public comment on new or revised data collections, the Railroad Retirement Board (RRB) will publish periodic summaries of proposed data collections.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments are invited on:</E>
                     (a) Whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the RRB's estimate of the burden of the collection of the information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden related to the collection of information on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Title and purpose of information collection:</E>
                     Evidence of Marital Relationship—Living with Requirements; OMB 3220-0021.
                </P>
                <P>To support an application for a spouse or widow(er)'s annuity under Sections 2(c) or 2(d) (45 U.S.C. 231a) of the Railroad Retirement Act, an applicant must submit proof of a valid marriage to a railroad employee. In some cases, the existence of a marital relationship is not formalized by a civil or religious ceremony. In other cases, questions may arise about the legal termination of a prior marriage of the employee, spouse, or widow(er). In these instances, the RRB must secure additional information to resolve questionable marital relationships. The circumstances requiring an applicant to submit documentary evidence of marriage are prescribed in 20 CFR 219.30.</P>
                <P>In the absence of documentary evidence, the RRB needs to determine if a valid marriage existed between a spouse or widow(er) annuity applicant and a railroad employee. The RRB utilizes Forms G-124, Individual Statement of Marital Relationship; G-124a, Certification of Marriage Information; G-237, Statement Regarding Marital Status; G-238, Statement of Residence; and G-238a, Statement Regarding Divorce or Annulment, to secure the needed information. Forms G-124, G-237, G-238, and G-238a can be completed either with assistance from RRB personnel during an in-office interview or by mail. One response is requested of each respondent. Completion is required to obtain benefits. The RRB proposes no changes to Forms G-124, G-124a, G-237, G-238 and G-238a.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="04" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,16,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimate of Annual Respondent Burden</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Form No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Annual responses</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Time 
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Burden 
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G-124 (in person)</ENT>
                        <ENT>125</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>31</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G-124 (by mail)</ENT>
                        <ENT>75</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G-124a</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G-237 (in person)</ENT>
                        <ENT>75</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G-237 (by mail)</ENT>
                        <ENT>75</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G-238 (in person)</ENT>
                        <ENT>150</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G-238 (by mail)</ENT>
                        <ENT>150</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>13</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">G-238a</ENT>
                        <ENT>150</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,100</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>196</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Title and purpose of information collection:</E>
                     Employer Service and Compensation Reports; OMB 3220-0070.
                </P>
                <P>Section 2(c) of the Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act (RUIA) (45 U.S.C.352) specifies the maximum normal unemployment and sickness benefits that may be paid in a benefit year. Section 2(c) further provides for extended benefits for certain employees and for beginning a benefit year early for other employees. The conditions for these actions are prescribed in 20 CFR 302.</P>
                <P>All information about creditable railroad service and compensation needed by the RRB to administer Section 2(c) is not always available from annual reports filed by railroad employers with the RRB (OMB 3220-0008). When this occurs, the RRB must obtain supplemental information about service and compensation.</P>
                <P>
                    The RRB utilizes Form UI-41, 
                    <E T="03">Supplemental Report of Service and Compensation,</E>
                     and Form UI-41a, 
                    <E T="03">Supplemental Report of Compensation,</E>
                     to obtain the additional information about service and compensation from railroad employers. Completion of the forms is mandatory. One response is required of each respondent. The RRB proposes the following changes to Form UI-41:
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Changed last sentence in the Paperwork Reduction Act Notice to “If you wish, send comments regarding the accuracy of our estimate or any other aspect of this form, including suggestions for reducing completion time, to: Railroad Retirement Board, ATTN: Bureau of Information Services/Policy &amp; Compliance, 844 N Rush St., Chicago, IL 60611-1275.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Changed “Return THIS FORM TO:” section at the bottom left-hand corner of the form to “RAILROAD RETIREMENT BOARD, OFFICE OF PROGRAMS, SICKNESS AND UNEMPLOYMENT BENEFITS SECTION, P.O. BOX 10695, CHICAGO, ILLINOIS 60610-0695, FAX: (312) 751-7185, PHONE: (312) 751-4820”.</E>
                </P>
                <P>The RRB proposes the following changes to Form UI-41:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Changed second sentence at top of the form to “Completed forms can either be mailed to Railroad Retirement Board, Office of Programs, Sickness and Unemployment Benefits Section, P.O. Box 10695, Chicago, IL 60610-0695 or faxed to (312) 751-7185”.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">
                        Changed last sentence in the Paperwork Reduction Act Notice to “If you wish, send comments regarding the accuracy of our estimate or any other aspect of this form, including suggestions for reducing completion time, to: Railroad Retirement Board, ATTN: Bureau of Information Services/
                        <PRTPAGE P="58639"/>
                        Policy &amp; Compliance, 844 N Rush St., Chicago, IL 60611-1275.”
                    </E>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="04" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,16,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimate of Annual Respondent Burden</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Form No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Annual responses</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Time 
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Burden 
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">UI-41</ENT>
                        <ENT>328</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>44</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">UI-41a</ENT>
                        <ENT>52</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>380</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>51</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">3. Title and purpose of information collection:</E>
                     Customer Satisfaction Monitoring; OMB 3220-0192.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In accordance with Executive Order 12862, the Railroad Retirement Board (RRB) conducts a number of customer surveys designed to determine the kinds and quality of services our beneficiaries, claimants, employers and members of the public want and expect, as well as their satisfaction with existing RRB services. The information collected is used by RRB management to monitor customer satisfaction by determining to what extent services are satisfactory and where and to what extent services can be improved. The surveys are limited to data collections that solicit strictly voluntary opinions, and do not collect information which is required or regulated. The information collection, which was first approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in 1997, provides the RRB with a generic clearance authority. This generic authority allows the RRB to submit a variety of new or revised customer survey instruments (needed to timely implement customer monitoring activities) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for expedited review and approval. 
                    <E T="03">The RRB proposes no changes to Form G-201</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="04" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,16,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimate of Annual Respondent Burden</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Form No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Annual responses</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Time 
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Burden 
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">G-201</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Web-Site Survey</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Periodic Survey</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,020</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>204</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Focus Groups</ENT>
                        <ENT>250</ENT>
                        <ENT>120</ENT>
                        <ENT>500</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,620</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>731</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Additional Information or Comments:</E>
                     To request more information or to obtain a copy of the information collection justification, forms, and/or supporting material or comments regarding the information collection should be addressed to Brian Foster, Railroad Retirement Board, 844 North Rush Street, Chicago, Illinois 60611-1275 or emailed to 
                    <E T="03">Brian.Foster@rrb.gov</E>
                    . Written comments should be received within 60 days of this notice.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Brian Foster,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Clearance Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-22996 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7905-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">RAILROAD RETIREMENT BOARD</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Privacy Act of 1974, as Amended; Notice of Computer Matching Program (Railroad Retirement Board and Social Security Administration, Match Number 1007)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Railroad Retirement Board (RRB).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of a new matching program.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the provisions of the Privacy Act, as amended, this notice announces a new matching program between RRB and the Social Security Administration (SSA). Under this two-way matching program, RRB and SSA both serve as source and recipient. RRB will use the information received from SSA in the administration of benefits under the Railroad Retirement Act. SSA will use the information received from RRB to administer its Retirement, Survivors and Disability Insurance program.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This matching program becomes effective as proposed without further notice on January 16, 2026. The matching program will continue for 18 months after the effective date and may be extended for an additional 12 months if the conditions specified in 5 U.S.C. 552a(o)(2)(D) have been met. We have submitted a report of this computer-matching program with the Committee on Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs of the Senate; the Committee on Oversight and Government Reform of the House of Representatives; and the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB).</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested parties may comment on this publication by writing to Ms. Stephanie Hillyard, Secretary to the Board, Railroad Retirement Board, 844 North Rush Street, Chicago, Illinois 60611-1275.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mr. Chad Peek, Chief Privacy Officer, Railroad Retirement Board, 844 North Rush Street, Chicago, Illinois 60611-1275, telephone 312-751-3389 or email at 
                        <E T="03">chad.peek@rrb.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. General</HD>
                <P>
                    The Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, as amended by the Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988 (Pub. L. 100-503), requires a federal agency participating in a computer matching program to publish a notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     for all matching programs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Privacy Act, as amended, regulates the use of computer matching by federal agencies when records contained in a Privacy Act System of Records are matched with other federal, state, or local government records. It 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58640"/>
                    requires federal agencies involved in computer matching programs to:
                </P>
                <P>(1) Negotiate written agreements with the other agency or agencies participating in the matching programs;</P>
                <P>(2) Obtain the approval of the matching agreement by the Data Integrity Boards (DIB) of the participating federal agencies;</P>
                <P>
                    (3) Publish notice of the computer matching program in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    ;
                </P>
                <P>(4) Furnish detailed reports about matching programs to Congress and OMB;</P>
                <P>(5) Notify applicants and beneficiaries that their records are subject to matching; and</P>
                <P>(6) Verify match findings before reducing, suspending, terminating, or denying a person's benefits or payments. The last notice for this matching program was published at 88 FR 8921 (February 10, 2023).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. RRB Computer Matches Subject to the Privacy Act</HD>
                <P>We have taken appropriate action to ensure that all of our computer matching programs comply with the requirements of the Privacy Act, as amended.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Participating Agencies</HD>
                <P>Railroad Retirement Board (RRB) and the Social Security Administration (SSA), Match #1007.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for Conducting the Matching Program</HD>
                <P>45 U.S.C. 231f(b)(7) requires SSA to provide wage, self-employment income, and other records pertinent to the administration of the Railroad Retirement Act (RRA); 45 U.S.C. 231f(b)(4)(B)(i) provides that RRB is required to certify Social Security benefits to the Department of Treasury on SSA's behalf for the agencies' mutual retirees; 26 U.S.C. 6103(l)(1)(C) provides authority for RRB to have access to tax return information with respect to taxes imposed under chapter 22 of the Internal Revenue Code (IRC) for purposes of administering the RRA; 42 U.S.C. 402(x)(3)(B)(iv) provides authority for SSA to disclose prisoner data to any agency administering a federal or federally-assisted cash, food, or medical assistance program; 45 U.S.C. 231q(2) provides that earnings considered as compensation under the RRA will be considered as wages under the Social Security Act (Act); and the responsibilities of RRB and SSA with respect to the information obtained under this agreement are in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 402, 405(o) and 415(f); 45 U.S.C. 231f(b)(2)(D).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Purpose</HD>
                <P>The RRB will, on a daily basis, obtain from SSA a record of the wages reported to SSA for persons who have applied for benefits under the Railroad Retirement Act and a record of the amount of benefits paid by that agency to persons who are receiving or have applied for benefits under the Railroad Retirement Act. The wage information is needed to compute the amount of the tier I annuity component provided by sections 3(a), 4(a) and 4(f) of the Railroad Retirement Act (45 U.S.C. 231b(a), 45 U.S.C. 231c(a) and 45 U.S.C. 231c(f)). The benefit information is needed to adjust the tier I annuity component for the receipt of the Social Security benefit. This information is available from no other source.</P>
                <P>Second, the RRB will receive from SSA the amount of certain social security benefits which the RRB pays on behalf of SSA. Section 7(b)(2) of the Railroad Retirement Act (45 U.S.C. 231f(b)(2)) provides that the RRB shall make the payment of certain social security benefits. The RRB also requires this information in order to adjust the amount of any annuity due to the receipt of a social security benefit. Section 10(a) of the Railroad Retirement Act (45 U.S.C. 231i(a)) permits the RRB to recover any overpayment from the accrual of social security benefits. This information is not available from any other source.</P>
                <P>Third, once a year the RRB will receive from SSA a copy of SSA's Master Benefit Record for earmarked RRB annuitants. Section 7(b)(7) of the Railroad Retirement Act (45 U.S.C. 231f(b)(7)) requires that SSA provide the requested information. The RRB needs this information to make the necessary cost-of-living computation adjustments quickly and accurately for those RRB annuitants who are also SSA beneficiaries.</P>
                <P>SSA will receive weekly from RRB earnings information for all railroad employees. SSA will match the identifying information of the records furnished by the RRB against the identifying information contained in its Master Benefit Record and its Master Earnings File. If there is a match, SSA will use the RRB earnings to adjust the amount of Social Security benefits in its Annual Earnings Reappraisal Operation. This information is available from no other source.</P>
                <P>The SSA will also receive daily from RRB earnings information on selected individuals. The transfer of information may be initiated either by RRB or by SSA. SSA needs this information to determine eligibility to Social Security benefits and, if eligibility is met, to determine the benefit amount payable. Section 18 of the Railroad Retirement Act (45 U.S.C. 231q(2)) requires that earnings considered as compensation under the Railroad Retirement Act be considered as wages under the Social Security Act for the purposes of determining entitlement under the Social Security Act if the person has less than 10 years of railroad service or has 10 or more years of service but does not have a current connection with the railroad industry at the time of his/her death.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Categories of Individuals</HD>
                <P>All applicants for benefits under the Railroad Retirement Act and current beneficiaries will have a record of any social security wages and the amount of any social security benefits furnished to the RRB by SSA. In addition, all persons who ever worked in the railroad industry after 1936 will have a record of their service and compensation furnished to SSA by RRB.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Categories of Records</HD>
                <P>1. Name, social security number, RRB claim number, annuity beginning date, date of birth, sex, last employer identification number, amount of daily pay rate, separation allowance or severance payment, creditable service and compensation after 1937, home address, date of death, and electronic mail address.</P>
                <P>
                    2. Information pertaining to the payment or denial of an individual's claim for benefits under the Railroad Retirement Act: name, address, social security number, claim number, proofs of age, marriage, relationship, death, military service, creditable earnings and service months (including military service), entitlement to benefits under the Social Security Act, programs administered by the Veterans Administration, or other benefit systems, rates, effective dates, medical reports, correspondence and telephone inquiries to and about the beneficiary, suspension and termination dates, health insurance effective date, option, premium rate and deduction, direct deposit data, employer pension information, citizenship status and legal residency status (for annuitants living outside the United States), and tax withholding information (instructions of annuitants regarding number of exemptions claimed and additional amounts to be withheld, as well as actual amounts withheld for tax purposes).
                    <PRTPAGE P="58641"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Systems of Records</HD>
                <P>
                    The applicable RRB Privacy Act Systems of Records and their 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     citation used in the matching program are:
                </P>
                <P>1. RRB-5, Master File of Railroad Employees' Creditable Compensation, September 30, 2014 (79 FR 58877)</P>
                <P>2. RRB-22, Railroad Retirement, Survivor, Pensioner Benefit System, December 5, 2025 (90 FR 56201)</P>
                <P>
                    The applicable SSA Privacy Act Systems of Records used and their 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     citation used in the matching program are:
                </P>
                <P>1. SSA Master Files of SSN Holders and SSN Applications (Enumeration System) (60-0058), last fully published at 90 FR 50879 (November 12, 2025).</P>
                <P>2. SSA Earnings Recording and Self-Employment Income System, (60-0059), last fully published at 71 FR 1819 (January 11, 2006) and updated at 78 FR 40542 (July 5, 2013), 83 FR 54969 (November 1, 2018), and 89 FR 825 (January 5, 2024), and 90 FR 53413 (November 25, 2025).</P>
                <P>3. SSA Master Beneficiary Record (MBR) (60 0090), last fully published at 71 FR 1826 (January 11, 2006) and updated at 72 FR 69723 (December 10, 2007), 78 FR 40542 (July 5, 2013), 83 FR 31250-31251 (July 3, 2018), 83 FR 54969 (November 1, 2018), 89 FR 825 (January 5, 2024), and 89 FR 14554 (February 27, 2024), and 90 FR 53413 (November 25, 2025).</P>
                <P>4. SSA Supplemental Security Income Record and Special Veterans Benefits (SSR) (60-0103), last fully published at 71 FR 1830 (January 11, 2006) and updated at 72 FR 69723 (December 10, 2007), 83 FR 31250-31251 (July 3, 2018), 83 FR 54969 (November 1, 2018), 89 FR 825 (January 5, 2024), and 89 FR 14554 (February 27, 2024), and 90 FR 53413 (November 25, 2025).</P>
                <P>5. SSA Prisoner Update Processing System (PUPS), (60-0269), last fully published at 64 FR 11076 (March 8, 1999), and updated at 72 FR 69723 (December 10, 2007), 78 FR 40542 (July 5, 2013), and 83 FR 54969 (November 1, 2018), and 90 FR 53413 (November 25, 2025).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <P>By Authority of the Board.</P>
                    <NAME>Stephanie Hillyard,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Board.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23137 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7905-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-104380; File No. SR-MIAX-2025-48]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Miami International Securities Exchange, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Delay Implementation of the Change To Amend the Administrative Information Subscriber Market Data Feed</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>December 12, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on December 2, 2025, Miami International Securities Exchange, LLC (“MIAX” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to delay implementation of the change to amend the Administrative Information Subscriber market data feed to include the origin code on liquidity seeking event notifications.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.miaxglobal.com/markets/us-options/all-options-exchanges/rule-filings,</E>
                     and at the Exchange's principal office.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    On September 11, 2025, the Exchange filed a proposal to amend the Administrative Information Subscriber market data feed (“AIS Feed”) to include the origin code in liquidity seeking event notifications.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed rule change indicated that the Exchange would announce the implementation date of the proposed rule change by Regulatory Circular to be published no later than 90 days following the operative date of the proposed rule. Additionally, the proposed rule change provided that the implementation date would be no later than 90 days following the issuance of the Regulatory Circular. The Exchange has not issued a Regulatory Circular and now proposes to delay the implementation of this functionality until the second quarter of 2026.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 104011 (September 22, 2025), 90 FR 46295 (September 25, 2025) (SR-MIAX-2025-43).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange proposes this delay in order to allow the Exchange and its Members ample time to complete the necessary technical changes prior to the implementation of the change to the AIS Feed. The Exchange proposes to issue a Regulatory Circular notifying market participants at least 45 days prior to implementing this functionality.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in, securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanisms of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest by allowing the Exchange and its Members additional time to implement the proposed change.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58642"/>
                    necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange's proposal to delay the implementation of the proposed functionality does not impose an undue burden on competition. Delaying the implementation will simply allow the Exchange and its Members additional time to properly prepare for, and implement, the proposed functionality.
                </P>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intramarket competition as the delay will apply equally to all Members of the Exchange.</P>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intermarket competition as the proposal is to delay the implementation of approved functionality which affects MIAX Members only and does not impact intermarket competition.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>Written comments were neither solicited nor received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because the proposed rule change does not: (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative prior to 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, if consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         Rule 19b-4(f)(6). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change, along with a brief description and text of the proposed rule change, at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-MIAX-2025-48 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090. </P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-MIAX-2025-48. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-MIAX-2025-48 and should be submitted on or before January 7, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23070 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-104376; File No. SR-NSCC-2025-017]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; National Securities Clearing Corporation; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Modify Addendum A (Fee Structure) of the NSCC Rules</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>December 12, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on December 9, 2025, National Securities Clearing Corporation (“NSCC”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II and III below, which Items have been prepared by the clearing agency. NSCC filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(2) thereunder.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Clearing Agency's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule change consists of amendments to Addendum A (Fee Structure) (“Addendum A”) of NSCC's Rules &amp; Procedures (“NSCC Rules”) to modify NSCC's “value into the net” fee, Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee, and Long Broker late protect instruction submission fee (“Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee”).
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Capitalized terms not defined herein are defined in the NSCC Rules, 
                        <E T="03">available at www.dtcc.com/legal/rules-and-procedures.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Clearing Agency's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    In its filing with the Commission, the clearing agency included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The clearing agency has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58643"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(A) Clearing Agency's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The purpose of this proposed rule change is to modify Addendum A (Fee Structure) of the NSCC Rules to (i) reduce the “value into the net” fee; (ii) exclude Supplemental Liquidity Deposits (“SLD”) from the calculation of the Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee; and (iii) eliminate the Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee. The proposed changes to the Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee would be implemented upon filing. The proposed changes to the “value into the net” fee and Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee would be implemented on January 1, 2026. The proposed fee changes are discussed in detail below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Background</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Value Into the Net Fee</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section II.A. of Addendum A, NSCC charges Clearance Activity Fees for Securities Financing Transactions (“SFT”) and non-SFT transactions. For transactions excluding SFTs, NSCC charges a (i) “value into the net” fee of $0.46 per million of processed value (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     for CNS 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Balance Order netting, the sum of the contract amount and any CNS fail value) and (ii) “value out of the net” fee of $ 2.16 per million of settling value (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the absolute value of the CNS Long and Short Positions). The “value into the net” fee is the value of transactions for which a broker is buyer or seller (excluding non-DTCC settling trades, non-CNS municipal bond transactions, flip trades, and foreign security trades) and is calculated as the gross cleared value prior to netting. The “value into the net” fee also includes any fails re-entered into CNS. The into the net value reflects the aggregate of each opening CNS security position multiplied by the current market price for each security.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         CNS is NSCC's core netting, allotting and fail-control engine for securities transactions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         NSCC Rule 11 and Procedure VII, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Additional details regarding NSCC's equity trade capture fees, including the “value into the net” and “value out of the net” fees, can be found on the DTCC Learning Center website, 
                        <E T="03">available at https://dtcclearning.com/products-and-services/equities-clearing/utc/utc-users.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section V.F. of Addendum A, NSCC charges a Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee, which is a monthly fee calculated, in arrears, as the product of (A) 0.35% and (B) the average of each Member's cash deposit balance in the Clearing Fund (excluding cash deposit balances in any SFT Accounts), as of the end of each day, for the month, multiplied by the number of days for that month and divided by 360. The Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee was adopted in 2016 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and has been amended several times since its adoption.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 78525 (Aug. 9, 2016), 81 FR 54146 (Aug. 15, 2016) (SR-NSCC-2016-002).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    NSCC's Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee is primarily designed to (i) diversify NSCC's revenue sources, mitigating NSCC's dependence on revenues driven by trading volumes, and (ii) add a stable revenue source that would contribute to NSCC's operating margin by offsetting increasing costs and expenses.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The fee is charged to all NSCC Members that are required to make deposits to the NSCC Clearing Fund in proportion to the Member's average monthly cash deposit to the Clearing Fund. The calculation of the Clearing Fund Maintenance fee currently excludes any cash deposit balances in any SFT Accounts.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 101949 (Dec. 17, 2024), 89 FR 104582 (Dec. 23, 2024) (SR-NSCC-2024-011).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    NSCC collects Clearing Fund deposits from its Members using a risk-based margin methodology.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These amounts operate, individually, as the Member's margin, and the aggregate of all such Members' deposits is referred to, collectively, as the Clearing Fund, which operates as NSCC's default fund. All full-service NSCC Members are required to maintain at least a minimum Required Fund Deposit to the Clearing Fund of $250,000 at all times.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         NSCC Rule 4 and Procedure XV, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         NSCC Rule 4, Section 1, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Under NSCC Rule 4A, NSCC may also collect additional cash deposits to the Clearing Fund in the form of SLD 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to cover the liquidity exposures presented by certain Members (whether individually or as part of an affiliated Member family) whose activity generates liquidity needs in excess of NSCC's qualifying liquid resources.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Unlike Required Fund Deposits, SLD is only required from those certain Members that present heightened liquidity needs at NSCC, and only for the duration of such liquidity exposure. These heightened liquidity needs typically occur for a limited period, such as those associated with large options expiry periods or exchange-trade fund index rebalancing periods. There is no ongoing minimum requirement for SLD.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         NSCC Rule 4A, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         “Qualifying liquid resources” is defined in Rule 17ad-22(a) under the Act. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 CFR 240.17ad-22(a). NSCC's qualifying liquid resources include, for example: (1) the cash in the Clearing Fund; (2) the cash that would be obtained from NSCC's committed 364-day credit facility with a consortium of lenders; (3) cash proceeds from NSCC's commercial paper and extendable note program; and (4) cash proceeds from NSCC's Senior Unsecured Notes.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section II.F.2. of Addendum A, NSCC charges fees to Members for submitting instructions in connection with voluntary reorganizations. NSCC Members holding long obligations in CNS for securities undergoing a voluntary corporate action may submit “protect” instructions to participate in an upcoming corporate action or to add shares to a voluntary corporate action.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These protect instructions move the Member's long positions into a CNS Reorganization Sub-Account, which provides for a higher priority in NSCC's long position allocation algorithm. To be included in night cycle processing, long Members (or Long Brokers) must submit their instructions between 9:45 p.m. and 10:45 p.m. Eastern Time on the day prior to the cover protect date.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This one-hour window ensures that instructions are prioritized for allocation at the highest level. The Long Broker fee for submitting instructions during this initial window is $15 per instruction submitted.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         Section H of Procedure VII describes the timeline of actions that must occur in connection with the processing of eligible corporate reorganization events. The processing of mandatory reorganizations occurs automatically; however, the processing of voluntary reorganizations through the CNS Reorganization Processing System requires certain actions to be taken by both NSCC and by Members with positions in the subject security during the period of time leading up to and following the expiration of the event. This period of time is referred to in the NSCC Rules as the “protect period” and is defined by reference to the expiration date, or “E,” of a voluntary reorganization (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         “E+1” is one day past the expiration date of the event). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         NSCC Procedure VII, Section H.4(b), 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         The CNS automatic delivery process occurs in two cycles: the “night cycle,” which typically begins the night before settlement date, and the “day cycle,” which occurs on settlement date. NSCC employs an algorithm for each cycle to determine the order in which Members with long allocations receive positions from CNS. Members can also submit priority requests that override NSCC's algorithm when they have special needs to receive securities owed to them (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the security is undergoing a corporate action, or the Member has an urgent customer delivery).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For long Members who miss this window, an additional submission period is available on the cover protect date between 7:00 a.m. and 2:30 p.m. Eastern Time. Instructions submitted during this extended window incur a higher fee, the Long Broker Late Protect 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58644"/>
                    Submission Fee, designed to incentivize timely submission during the initial window on the prior day. Members that submit during the initial window not only avoid the higher Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee but also ensure the highest priority for allocation of their protected long positions. The Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee is $500 per instruction submitted.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposed Fee Changes</HD>
                <P>
                    As part of the annual budgeting process, NSCC reviews price levels against its cost of operations and evaluates potential expense reductions and/or fee changes to correct any misalignment of costs and fees. NSCC's fees are cost-based plus a markup as approved by the Board of Directors or management (pursuant to authority delegated by the Board), as applicable. This markup is applied to recover development costs and operating expenses and to accumulate capital sufficient to meet regulatory and economic requirements.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         NSCC maintains procedures to control costs and regularly reviews pricing levels against costs of operation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         NSCC Disclosure Framework for Covered Clearing Agencies and Financial Market Infrastructures, June 2025, page 118 
                        <E T="03">available at www.dtcc.com/legal/policy-and-compliance.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>During the 2026 budgeting process, NSCC identified opportunities to better align fees and costs for NSCC and its Members. This includes (i) a proposed reduction of the “value into the net” fee; (ii) the removal of SLD from the Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee calculation; and (iii) the elimination of the Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee. The proposed fee changes are discussed in further detail below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Value Into the Net Fee</HD>
                <P>Based on its annal budgeting review, NSCC proposes to decrease its “value into the net” fee from $0.46 to $0.44 per million of processed value. The “value into the net” fee is the largest fee type for NSCC and affects all participants using NSCC's trade capture and CNS Accounting Operation services. As a result, the proposed reduction in this fee from $0.46 to $0.44 is expected to result in the largest portion of the aggregate fee reduction. The proposed fee change is intended to reduce costs for NSCC's Members while continuing to maintain sufficient revenues to cover NSCC's development costs and operating expenses and to accumulate sufficient capital to meet NSCC's regulatory and economic requirements.</P>
                <P>To effectuate the proposed fee change, NSCC would amend Section II.A. of Addendum A concerning Clearance Activity Fees for transactions other than SFTs to reflect the new “value into the net” fee of $0.44 per million.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee</HD>
                <P>
                    NSCC proposes to exclude SLD from the Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee calculation. As noted above, the Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee was adopted to provide a diversified and stable revenue source for NSCC and is designed to be proportional to the average monthly cash deposit of the member to the Clearing Fund.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee is primarily based on the Clearing Fund deposits that NSCC collects from its Members pursuant to NSCC Rule 4 and Procedure XV. As noted above, all full-service NSCC Members are required to maintain at least a minimum Required Fund Deposit to the Clearing Fund of $250,000 at all times. However, pursuant to NSCC Rule 4A, NSCC may also collect additional cash deposits to the Clearing Fund in the form of SLD from Members whose activity generates liquidity needs in excess of NSCC's qualifying liquid resources. Unlike Required Fund Deposits, there is no ongoing minimum requirement for SLD. SLD is only required from those Members that present heightened liquidity needs at NSCC, and only for the duration of such liquidity exposure, which is typically limited and occurs during large options expiry periods or exchange-trade fund index rebalancing periods. Given the unique and intermittent nature of SLD, NSCC proposes to remove SLD balances from the Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee calculation. NSCC believes that it is reasonable and appropriate to calculate the Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee for its Members based on the Clearing Fund deposits that NSCC collects from all Members on an ongoing basis pursuant to NSCC Rule 4 and Procedure XV.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 8.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To effectuate the proposed fee change, NSCC would amend Section V.F. of Addendum A concerning the Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee to clarify that the calculation of the average of each Member's cash deposit balance in the Clearing Fund would exclude any cash deposit balances deposited to satisfy Supplemental Liquidity Deposit obligations (in addition to cash deposit balances in any SFT Accounts).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee</HD>
                <P>
                    Finally, NSCC proposes to eliminate the Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee. Historically, Members had a longer timeframe to submit instructions prior to the cover protect date to participate in an upcoming corporate action. However, with the transition to the T+1 settlement in May 2024,
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     this window was reduced to one hour (between 9:45 p.m. and 10:45 p.m. Eastern Time on the day prior to the cover protect date) prompting concerns from certain Members regarding the shortened timeframe and their ability to submit instructions without incurring the higher Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee. In response to this feedback, NSCC is eliminating the Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee. NSCC notes that Members are still strongly encouraged to submit instructions during the initial one-hour window on the day prior to the cover protect date to benefit from night cycle processing and priority allocation.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 96930 (Feb. 15, 2023), 88 FR 13872 (Mar. 6, 2023) (S7-05-22) (Shortening the Securities Transaction Settlement Cycle). 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 100048 (May 2, 2024), 89 FR 38929 (May 8, 2024) (SR-NSCC-2024-002).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To effectuate the proposed fee change, NSCC would amend Section II.F.2. of Addendum A to remove the Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee in Section II.F.2.b. and modify the standard Long Broker protect fee to reflect that all input or add instructions, regardless of submission window, would be subject to a fee of $15 each. NSCC would also make conforming changes to renumber remaining fees in Section II.F.2. of Addendum A.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Expected Impact</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule change will result in lower fees for NSCC's Members. Based on an analysis of annualized 2025 data, the proposed change in the “value into the net” fee is expected to decrease NSCC's overall annual fee revenue by approximately $14 million, and individual Member impacts are estimated to be approximately 4 percent. However, each Member's individual fee impact would be proportionate to their use of NSCC's guaranteed services (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     trade capture and CNS). The proposed change in the Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee calculation would result in a reduction in fees for those Members that may be subject to SLD obligations at NSCC. The impact of this fee change would be dependent on the liquidity needs generated by each Member; however, based on an analysis of 2024 data, NSCC estimates that the inclusion of SLD in the Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee impacts fewer than ten Members and resulted in additional aggregate charges of around $1.83 million. The proposed change to the Long Broker Late Protect 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58645"/>
                    Submission Fee would also reduce fees for Members by eliminating the higher late submission fee and applying the standard Long Broker protect fee to all input or add instructions, regardless of submission window. Based on an analysis of annualized 2025 data, the Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee applied to fewer than ten Members for an aggregate total of less than $25,000.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Member Outreach</HD>
                <P>NSCC has conducted ongoing outreach to Members in connection with the proposed fee changes. As of the date of this filing, no written comments relating to the proposed rule change have been received in response to this outreach. The Commission will be notified of any written comments received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Implementation Timeframe</HD>
                <P>The proposed changes to the Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee would be implemented upon filing. NSCC would implement the proposed changes to the “value into the net” fee and Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee on January 1, 2026.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    NSCC believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a registered clearing agency. Specifically, NSCC believes the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(D) of the Act 
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 17ad-22(e)(23)(ii) 
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder for the reasons set forth below.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)(3)(D).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17ad-22(e)(23)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Section 17A(b)(3)(D) of the Act 
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requires that the rules of a clearing agency provide for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees, and other charges among its participants. NSCC believes the proposed fee changes are reasonable and would be allocated equitably among its full-service Members.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)(3)(D).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>First, the proposed rule change would result in reduced “value into the net” fees for NSCC Members. The proposed “value into the net” fee would be fairly applied to all Members using NSCC's guaranteed services. While the impact of the proposed fees would vary based on Members' usage of the underlying NSCC services, the proposed rule change would not alter how the Clearance Activity Fees are calculated or how such fees are allocated to Members. As mentioned above, the “value into the net” component of the Clearance Activity Fee is based on the Member's gross cleared value prior to netting. As such, and as is currently the case, Members that make greater use of NSCC's guaranteed services would generally be subject to larger “value into the net” fees and therefore would see a greater reduction in fees as a result of the proposed fee change, because such Members would typically have a higher value of gross positions prior to netting. Conversely, Members that use NSCC's guaranteed services less would generally be subject to smaller “value into the net” fees, and therefore would see smaller fee reductions, because such Members would typically have a lower value of gross positions. The proposed change to the “value into the net” component of the Clearance Activity Fee would not adjust these allocations or the manner in which the fees are applied. As a result, NSCC believes the proposed fee would continue to be reasonable and allocated equitably among its Members.</P>
                <P>Second, the proposed rule change would exclude SLD from the Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee calculation. Members that are required to deposit SLD are already subject to the Clearance Fund Maintenance Fee for all cash balances in their full-service accounts, which constitute the vast majority of NSCC's Clearing Fund cash balances, similar to all other full-service Members. Given the unique and intermittent nature of SLD, NSCC proposes to remove SLD balances from the Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee calculation. NSCC believes that it is reasonable and appropriate to calculate the Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee for its Members based on the Clearing Fund deposits that NSCC collects from all Members on an ongoing basis pursuant to NSCC Rule 4 and Procedure XV. As a result, NSCC believes the proposed fee would result in Clearing Fund Maintenance Fees that are reasonable and allocated equitably among its Members.</P>
                <P>Third, the proposed rule change would eliminate the Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee. The Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee applies to any Members submitting late protect instructions during the additional submission period on the cover protect date. By eliminating this higher late submission fee, NSCC would apply one standard Long Broker protect fee to all input or add instructions, regardless of submission window. As a result, NSCC believes the proposed fee change would result in Long Broker protect fees that are reasonable and allocated equitably among its Members.</P>
                <P>
                    Rule 17ad-22(e)(23)(ii) under the Act 
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requires NSCC to establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to provide sufficient information to enable participants to identify and evaluate the risks, fees, and other material costs they incur by participating in the covered clearing agency. The proposed fees would be clearly and transparently published in Addendum A of the NSCC Rules, which are available on a public website,
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereby enabling Members to identify the fees and costs associated with participating in NSCC. As such, NSCC believes the proposed rule change is consistent with Rule 17ad-22(e)(23)(ii) under the Act.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17ad-22(e)(23)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17ad-22(e)(23)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(B) Clearing Agency's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 17A(b)(3)(I) of the Act 
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requires that the rules of the clearing agency do not impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the Act. NSCC does not believe the proposed rule change would have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition. First, the proposed change to the “value into the net” fee would result in an overall fee reduction for Members. The “value into the net” fee would continue to be charged ratably based on the activity that each Member brings to NSCC. The proposed rule change would not adjust manner in which the fee is allocated or applied. Second, the proposed rule change would remove SLD balances from the Clearing Fund Maintenance Fee calculation. Members who are required to post SLD are already subject to the Clearance Fund Maintenance Fee for all cash balances in their full-service accounts, which constitute the vast majority of NSCC's Clearing Fund cash balances, similar to all other full-service Members. The proposed change would result in NSCC calculating Clearing Fund Maintenance Fees based on the Clearing Fund deposits that NSCC collects from all Members on an ongoing basis pursuant to NSCC Rule 4 and Procedure XV. Finally, the proposed rule change would eliminate the Long Broker Late Protect Submission Fee and apply one standard Long Broker protect fee to all input or add instructions for all Members regardless of submission window. As a result, NSCC believes the proposed fee changes would apply equally to all Members and would not disadvantage 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58646"/>
                    or favor any particular Member in relationship to another Member or unfairly inhibit access to NSCC's services. NSCC therefore does not believe the proposed rule change would have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)(3)(I).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(C) Clearing Agency's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>NSCC has not received or solicited any written comments relating to this proposal. If any written comments are received, NSCC will amend this filing to publicly file such comments as an Exhibit 2 to this filing, as required by Form 19b-4 and the General Instructions thereto.</P>
                <P>Persons submitting comments are cautioned that, according to Section IV (Solicitation of Comments) of the Exhibit 1A in the General Instructions to Form 19b-4, the Commission does not edit personal identifying information from comment submissions. Commenters should submit only information that they wish to make available publicly, including their name, email address, and any other identifying information.</P>
                <P>
                    All prospective commenters should follow the Commission's instructions on how to submit comments, 
                    <E T="03">available at www.sec.gov/rules-regulations/how-submit-comment.</E>
                     General questions regarding the rule filing process or logistical questions regarding this filing should be directed to the Main Office of the Commission's Division of Trading and Markets at 
                    <E T="03">tradingandmarkets@sec.gov</E>
                     or 202-551-5777.
                </P>
                <P>NSCC reserves the right not to respond to any comments received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change, and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) 
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act and paragraph (f) 
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of Rule 19b-4 thereunder. At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NSCC-2025-017 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NSCC-2025-017. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of NSCC and on DTCC's website (
                    <E T="03">www.dtcc.com/legal/sec-rule-filings</E>
                    ). Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-NSCC-2025-017 and should be submitted on or before January 7, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>29</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23068 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release 34-104384; File No. SR-NASDAQ-2025-072]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC; Order Instituting Proceedings To Determine Whether To Approve or Disapprove a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Exchange's Rules To Enable the Trading of Securities on the Exchange in Tokenized Form</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>December 12, 2025.</DATE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    On September 8, 2025, The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC (“Nasdaq” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     a proposed rule change to amend the Exchange's rules to enable the trading of securities on the Exchange in tokenized form. The proposed rule change was published for comment in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on September 22, 2025.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On November 3, 2025, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Commission designated a longer period within which to approve the proposed rule change, disapprove the proposed rule change, or institute proceedings to determine whether to disapprove the proposed rule change.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This order institutes proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to determine whether to approve or disapprove the proposed rule change.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 103989 (September 16, 2025), 90 FR 45426 (“Notice”). Comments received on the proposed rule change are available at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/comments/sr-nasdaq-2025-072/srnasdaq2025072.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 104173, 90 FR 51424 (November 17, 2025). The Commission designated December 21, 2025, as the date by which the Commission shall approve, disapprove, or institute proceedings to determine whether to disapprove the proposed rule change.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Summary of the Proposal</HD>
                <P>
                    As described in more detail in the Notice,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange is proposing to amend its rules to enable the trading of equity securities and exchange traded products on the Exchange in tokenized form.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, proposed rules Equity 1, Section 1, and Equity 4, Rules 4756, 4757, and 4758 would specify 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58647"/>
                    how Nasdaq proposes to trade tokenized securities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 3. Capitalized terms not defined in this order are defined in the Exchange's rules.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                         at 45427.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    First, the Exchange is proposing to amend its definition of a security, at Equity 1, Section 1, to include tokenized securities.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed rule change specifies that the term “tokenized” in this instance refers to digital representations of paper securities that utilize digital ledger or blockchain technology, as opposed to “traditional” securities, which are also digital representations of paper securities, but do not utilize blockchain technology.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     According to the Exchange, as long as tokenized securities are fungible with, have the same CUSIP number as, and afford their holders the same material rights and privileges as do traditional securities of an equivalent class, the Exchange would trade tokenized securities together with traditional securities on the same Order Book and according to the same execution priority rules.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     A tokenized equity security would be deemed to provide the same material rights and privileges as a traditional security if, among other things, it conveys an equity interest in an underlying company, a right to receive any dividends that the company issues to its shareholders, a right to exercise any voting rights that shareholders are due, and a right to receive a share of the residual assets of the company upon liquidation.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange would not treat tokenized instruments to be equivalent to their traditional counterparts if they do not convey such rights, in whole or in material part, or share the same CUSIP, but instead the Exchange would treat these instruments as distinct (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     derivative securities or ADRs).
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                         at 45429.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                         Nasdaq believes that tokenizing securities should not occur in a manner that deprives issuers of their ability to determine where and how their shares trade. However, according to Nasdaq, it is limited in its ability to afford issuers a choice as to whether their shares are or become tokenized by other markets. Nevertheless, Nasdaq encourage the Commission to consider the issue as it develops a new regulatory regime for tokenized securities. 
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                         at 45428 n. 8.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                         at 45429. The rule proposal does not address whether and how Nasdaq may choose to trade these non-fungible tokenized instruments in the future.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Second, the Exchange is proposing to amend its Order Entry Rule, at Equity 4, Rule 4756, to describe how a Participant 
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     can communicate its desire to clear and settle a security in tokenized form.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed amended Rule states that a Participant that wishes for its order to clear and settle in tokenized form must notate its preference upon entry of the order in the System 
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     by selecting a flag that the Exchange designates for this purpose, in accordance with the Exchange's procedures.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     When a Participant enters an order with the tokenization flag selected, the Exchange will communicate the Participant's order handling instruction to The Depository Trust Company (“DTC”) on a post-trade basis.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     DTC would then carry out the Participant's instruction in accordance with DTC's rules, policies, and procedures, or if it is unable to do so, it would make alternative clearing and settlement arrangements with the Participant.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Nasdaq Rules Equity 1, Section 1(a)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 3, at 45429.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         Nasdaq Rules Equity 1, Section 1(a)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 3, at 45429.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Third, the Exchange is proposing to amend its Book Processing Rule, at Equity 4, Rule 4757, to specify that if an order contains tokenized securities or indicates a preference to clear and settle securities in token form, it would not affect the priority in which the Exchange executes that order.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Fourth, the Exchange is proposing to amend its Order Routing Rule, at Equity 4, Rule 4758, to state that when the Exchange routes orders that Participants have designated for clearing and settlement in token form, in accordance with the Exchange's order entry rules and procedures, then the Exchange will communicate this tokenization instruction to DTC upon receiving an execution for an order that was routed to another trading venue.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Nasdaq represents that apart from the above, as far as Nasdaq's systems and matching engine are concerned, the Exchange's trading procedures and behavior will be the same regardless of whether a member opts to trade tokenized or traditional shares of a stock.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed rule change to offer trading in tokenized securities would become effective once the requisite infrastructure and post-trade settlement services have been established by DTC, with any required regulatory approvals having been obtained.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     It is Nasdaq's understanding that DTC is working to develop the necessary infrastructure, services, and procedures to facilitate such tokenization and the related post-trade settlement infrastructure and services.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The post-trade settlement services, including the eligibility of a member's orders to be settled in tokenized form, would be determined by DTC's policies and procedures.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                         Nasdaq's pricing structure and rates will not vary depending upon whether a transaction involves a share of a tokenized stock.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                         at 45430.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Proceedings To Determine Whether To Approve or Disapprove SR-NASDAQ-2025-072 and Grounds for Disapproval Under Consideration</HD>
                <P>
                    The Commission is instituting proceedings pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act 
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved. Institution of proceedings is appropriate at this time in view of the legal and policy issues raised by the proposed rule change. Institution of proceedings does not indicate that the Commission has reached any conclusions with respect to any of the issues involved. Rather, the Commission seeks and encourages interested persons to provide comments on the proposed rule change.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act,
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Commission is providing notice of the grounds for disapproval under consideration. The Commission is instituting proceedings to allow for additional analysis of the proposed rule change's consistency with the Act and, in particular, with (1) Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which requires, among other things, that the rules of a national securities exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest, and (2) Section 6(b)(8) of the Act, which requires that the Exchange's rules do not impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(8).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission asks that commenters address the sufficiency of the Exchange's statements in support of the proposal, which are set forth in the Notice, in addition to any other comments they may wish to submit about the proposed rule change. In particular, the Commission seeks comment on whether the proposal to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58648"/>
                    trade securities in tokenized form is designed to be consistent with the Act or raises any new or novel concerns not previously contemplated by the Commission.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Procedure: Request for Written Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    The Commission requests that interested persons provide written submissions of their views, data and arguments with respect to the issues identified above, as well as any other concerns they may have with the proposal. In particular, the Commission invites the written views of interested persons concerning whether the proposal is consistent with Sections 6(b)(5) and 6(b)(8) or any other provision of the Act, and the rules and regulations thereunder. Although there do not appear to be any issues relevant to approval or disapproval that would be facilitated by an oral presentation of views, data, and arguments, the Commission will consider, pursuant to Rule 19b-4,
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     any request for an opportunity to make an oral presentation.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         Section 19(b)(2) of the Act, as amended by the Securities Acts Amendments of 1975, Pub. L. 94-29 (June 4, 1975), grants the Commission flexibility to determine what type of proceeding—either oral or notice and opportunity for written comments—is appropriate for consideration of a particular proposal by a self-regulatory organization. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Acts Amendments of 1975, Senate Comm. on Banking, Housing &amp; Urban Affairs, S. Rep. No. 75, 94th Cong., 1st Sess. 30 (1975).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments regarding whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved by January 7, 2026. Any person who wishes to file a rebuttal to any other person's submission must file that rebuttal by January 21, 2026.</P>
                <P>Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NASDAQ-2025-072 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NASDAQ-2025-072. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NASDAQ-2025-072 and should be submitted on or before January 7, 2026. Rebuttal comments should be submitted by January 21, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(57).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23073 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-104386; File No. SR-NYSEAMER-2025-72]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE American LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Section 1003 of the NYSE American Company Guide</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>December 12, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that, on December 3, 2025, NYSE American LLC (“NYSE American” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the self-regulatory organization. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78a.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Section 1003 of the NYSE American Company Guide (the “Company Guide”) to establish that an issuer must maintain a certain global market capitalization and trading price per share in order to remain listed on the Exchange. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com,</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 1003 of the Company Guide sets forth minimum quantitative and qualitative continued listing standards for securities listed on the Exchange. Issuers of common stock are required to maintain certain quantitative minimum standards related to stockholders' equity,
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     publicly held shares,
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     public shareholders 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and aggregate market value of publicly held shares.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, Section 1003 also sets forth qualitative continued listing standards related to, among other things, operations contrary to public interest 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and reduction of operations.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         See Section 1003(a) of the Company Guide.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         See Section 1003(b)(i)(A) of the Company Guide.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         See Section 1003(b)(i)(B) of the Company Guide.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         See Section 1003(b)(i)(C) of the Company Guide.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         See Section 1003(f)(iii) of the Company Guide.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         See Section 1003(c) of the Company Guide.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    While the Exchange believes that its existing rules provide meaningful assurance that only financially sound and quality issuers remain listed on the Exchange, it has noticed a recent increase in companies that have either a (i) very small market capitalization, or (ii) very low trading price per share. The Exchange believes that an issuer having one or both of these characteristics is potentially susceptible to manipulation and more likely to experience trading volatility in its shares. As such, the Exchange now proposes to amend Section 1003 to specify that an issuer must maintain a certain global market capitalization and trading price per 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58649"/>
                    share in order to remain listed on the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Minimum Market Capitalization</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 1003(b)(i) of the Company Guide enumerates circumstances where a class of common stock has sufficiently limited distribution of shares so as to warrant suspension and delisting. While reduced value of publicly held shares is grounds for suspension and delisting,
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section 1003(b)(i) does not contain a minimum market capitalization requirement. The Exchange now proposes to adopt new rule 1003(b)(i)(D) to specify that a company's class of common stock will be subject to immediate suspension and delisting if it has an average global market capitalization over a consecutive 30 trading-day period is less than $5,000,000. The Exchange further proposes that a company falling below this standard will not be eligible to submit a compliance plan pursuant to Section 1009 of the Company Guide.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Section 1003(b)(i)(C) states that a class of common stock will be subject to suspension and delisting if its aggregate market value of shares publicly held is less than $1,000,000 for more than 90 consecutive days.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes it is appropriate to adopt a minimum market capitalization standard for continued listing because, in its experience, a company with a sustained market capitalization below $5,000,000 is likely to be financially distressed and is increasingly susceptible to manipulation due to its small size. Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe that a company fitting this profile is appropriate for continued listing on the Exchange. The Exchange proposes to specify that a company subject to suspension and delisting for falling below proposed Section 1003(b)(i)(D) will not be eligible to follow the procedures to regain compliance set forth in Section 1009. In the Exchange's experience, a company trading at a sustained market capitalization below $5,000,000 is unlikely to regain financial stability and it is therefore appropriate to subject it to immediate suspension and delisting.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Minimum Trading Price</HD>
                <P>Section 1003(f)(v) of the Company Guide states that the Exchange will consider initiating suspension and delisting procedures when a class of common stock is selling for a substantial period of time at a low price per share and its issuer fails to effect a reverse stock split to raise the per share trading price. In applying this rule, Exchange staff seeks to have proactive discussions with any issuer whose stock is trading below $1.00 and initiates suspension and delisting when a stock trades below $0.10 per share. Recently, the Exchange has become aware of an increasing industry-wide trend of low-priced stocks trading on national securities exchanges. The Exchange believes that low priced stocks have a greater chance of being manipulated or experiencing trading volatility. Accordingly, the Exchange believes it is appropriate to establish a minimum trading price for a security to remain listed on the Exchange.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Section 1003(f)(v) to specify that if a security's close price per share is less than $0.25 (the “Minimum Trading Price”) on any trading day, the Exchange will immediately suspend trading and commence delisting proceedings. In the Exchange's experience securities that trade at abnormally low prices are typically unable to recover to any meaningful degree. Accordingly, the Exchange proposes to specify in Section 1003(f)(v) that a security that closes below the Minimum Trading Price will not be entitled to submit a plan to regain compliance pursuant to Section 1009 of the Company Guide. The Exchange proposes to make this change effective October 1, 2026. Providing a transition period before the rule is effective will afford issuers time to implement reverse stock splits to increase their share price before the new requirement is in place. The Exchange notes that its rules prohibiting one or more reverse stock splits with a cumulative ratio of 200 shares or more to one in a two-year period will remain in place.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         See Section 1003(f)(vi) of the Company Guide.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange also proposes to clarify that, consistent with its general authority under Section 1002(e) of the Company Guide to suspend trading in the event of any condition that makes further dealings on the Exchange unwarranted, it may suspend trading in a security that has experienced a precipitous decline and is at an abnormally low level even if such security has not fallen below the Minimum Trading Price at the market close. In the Exchange's experience, under those conditions a security's trading price is generally unable to recover and it is appropriate for the Exchange to take action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) generally 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and in general to protect investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In particular, the Exchange believes that establishing a minimum market capitalization and Minimum Trading Price for securities listed on the Exchange is designed to protect investors and the public interest and to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because the Exchange believes that companies with small market capitalization or with a very low price per share are more susceptible to trading volatility and market manipulation. By adopting clear standards that prohibit such companies from remaining listed on the Exchange, the Exchange is therefore protecting investors and the public interest.</P>
                <P>The Exchange has observed that the challenges facing companies with market capitalizations below $5 million generally are not temporary and therefore immediate suspension from trading is warranted as a compliance period is unlikely to provide a sustained path to regaining compliance with Exchange rules. Further, a market capitalization below $5 million can be a leading indicator of other financial concerns.</P>
                <P>As discussed above, the Exchange believes that securities that trade below the Minimum Trading Price are more susceptible to trading volatility and market manipulation. The Exchange believes it is appropriate to establish a clear continued listing standard in this regard to limit the likelihood of problematic trading and provide clarity to listed issuers. Further, the Exchange believes it is appropriate to provide issuers with a transition period before effectiveness of the Minimum Trading Price requirement to afford time to implement a reverse stock split in anticipation of the new requirement.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed amendments would establish minimum market capitalization and trading price standards for issuers listed on the Exchange. The Exchange believes that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58650"/>
                    issuers with very small market capitalization and securities that trade at very low prices are more likely to experience trading volatility and potentially be the subject of manipulation. The Exchange believes it is appropriate to address these concerns with the adoption of clear continued listing standards. The Exchange does not believe its proposed rules would impose any burden on competition as all exchanges that list equity securities maintain a set of continued listing standards appropriate for companies listed on their respective exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     or within such longer period up to 90 days (i) as the Commission may designate if it finds such longer period to be appropriate and publishes its reasons for so finding or (ii) as to which the self-regulatory organization consents, the Commission will:
                </P>
                <P>(A) by order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or</P>
                <P>(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSEAMER-2025-72  on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEAMER-2025-72. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEAMER-2025-72 and should be submitted on or before January 7, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23075 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-104387; File No. SR-Phlx-2025-67]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Adopt Fees for the Trades and Spread Feeds</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>December 12, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on December 5, 2025, Nasdaq PHLX LLC (“Phlx” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III, below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to adopt fees for two newly established data feeds, the Trades Feed and the Spread Feed.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/phlx/rulefilings,</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The purpose of the proposal is to adopt fees for two data feeds, the Trades Feed and the Spread Feed. While these amendments are effective upon filing, the Exchange has designated the proposed amendments to be operative on January 1, 2026.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         This proposal was initially filed as SR-Phlx-2025-62. On December 5, 2025, that filing was withdrawn and replaced with the instant filing.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Trades Feed and the Spread Feed are recently established data feeds for the Phlx exchange.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These two new feeds, together with changes to three existing feeds—the Nasdaq Phlx Top of Market Feed, the Nasdaq Phlx Order Feed, and the Nasdaq Phlx Depth of Market Feed—are designed to harmonize the market data feed structure of the Phlx exchange with those of its affiliates ISE and MRX.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 104049 (September 25, 2025), 90 FR 47096 (September 30, 2025) (SR-Phlx-2025-53) (proposal to amend certain market data feed descriptions and fees).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Nasdaq believes that this harmonization will allow customers to ingest data more efficiently and to tailor their purchase to only the data they need.</P>
                <P>
                    Ingestion of data will become more efficient because customers will be able to transition from multiple exchange formats to a single format for all Nasdaq exchanges, resulting in more efficient ingestion of data and possible cost savings. This is a change from current practice, in which each exchange offers its own unique set of market data feeds, requiring subscribers to separately program their systems to ingest information from each market. The new format also allows customers to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58651"/>
                    configure hardware to balance system loads more efficiently.
                </P>
                <P>The new feed structure will also allow customers to tailor their purchase to only the data they need. A customer that only needs last sale information, for example, would be able to purchase the Trades Feed as a standalone feed without being required to also purchase a best bid and offer feed. This is more efficient and cost effective than requiring customers to purchase a bundled feed with multiple types of information, possibly including information that the customer neither wants nor needs.</P>
                <P>The new Phlx format is the same as that used for the ISE and MRX exchanges. Nasdaq is planning to submit future proposals to conform the BX Exchange and the Nasdaq Options Market to this format.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Trades Feed</HD>
                <P>Nasdaq Phlx Trades Feed (“Trades Feed”) displays last trade information. The data provided for each option series includes the symbols (series and underlying security), put or call indicator, expiration date, the strike price of the series, whether the option series is available for trading on Phlx, and identifies whether the series is available for closing transactions only. Prior to the harmonization of market data feeds across the Phlx, ISE, GEMX and MRX markets, last sale information had been offered in the Nasdaq Phlx Top of Market (“TOPO”) data feed.</P>
                <P>The Exchange currently offers the Trades Feed for no additional cost with the purchase of TOPO.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to establish a fee for the Trades Feed of $1,000 per month for unlimited internal and/or external distribution. This will allow the customer to choose whether or not to purchase last sale information on a standalone basis or together with TOPO.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Nasdaq noted in its product filing for the Trades Feed that it intended to propose a separate fee for the Trades Feed at a later date. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 104049 (September 25, 2025), 90 FR 47096 (September 30, 2025) (SR-Phlx-2025-53).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Spread Feed</HD>
                <P>
                    Nasdaq Phlx Spread Feed (“Spread Feed”) provides information on complex orders. It consists of: (1) options orders for all Complex Orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     spreads, buy-writes, delta neutral strategies, etc.); (2) full Complex Order depth information, including prices, side, size, capacity, Attributable Complex Order tags when provided by a member or member organization, and order attributes (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     OCC account number, give-up information, CMTA information), for individual Complex Orders on the Exchange book; (3) last trades information; and (4) a calculation of Phlx's complex best bid and offer position, with aggregated size (including total size in aggregate, for Professional Order size in the aggregate and Public Customer Order size in the aggregate), based on displayable Complex Order interest in the System. The feed also provides Complex Order auction notifications.
                </P>
                <P>While some of the information on the Spread Feed was included in the Order Feed prior to harmonization, the new Spread Feed also includes additional information not previously distributed by the Exchange. The old Order Feed had provided some information on complex orders (option order comprising of one or more legs), such as order messages, updates on resting orders, and auction notification messages. The new Spread Feed includes this information, but also significantly enhances customer insight into complex orders by associating top of market, order, depth of market and trade information with a unique strategy identification number that will allow customers to identify different stages of a trade as elements of a single complex order, providing market participants with much greater transparency into complex order activity. Such information is already an integral part of the feeds available on the MRX and ISE exchanges.</P>
                <P>The Exchange currently offers the Spread Feed for no additional cost with the purchase of the Order Feed.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to charge $3,100 per month per distributor for unlimited internal and/or external distribution of the Phlx Spread Feed.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This fee will allow the customer to choose whether or not to purchase the complex order information available on the Spread Feed together with the simple order information on the Order Feed or as a standalone feed.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         “A `distributor' of Exchange data is any entity that receives a feed or data file of Exchange data directly from the Exchange or indirectly through another entity and then distributes it either internally (within that entity) or externally (outside that entity). All distributors shall execute an Exchange distributor agreement. The Exchange itself is a vendor of its data feed(s) and has executed an Exchange distributor agreement and pays the distributor charge.” Equity 7, Section 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Nasdaq noted in its product filing for the Spread Feed that it intended to propose a separate fee for the Spread Feed at a later date. 
                        <E T="03">See Supra</E>
                         n.4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Sections 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges among members and issuers and other persons using any facility, and is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers. This belief is based on the fact that the proposal will enhance our market data products while at the same time maintaining fees that are comparable to those charged by similarly situated options exchanges.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The experience of other exchanges show that many customers will take advantage of the ability to purchase the TOPO feed and the Trades Feed separately. Our experience with the ISE Exchange—which already offers a trades feed that is distinct from its top of book feed—shows that nearly a third of customers take either take the top of market feed only (approximately 17%) or the trades feed only (about 14%), while the remaining customers take both. We expect the same pattern to hold true for Phlx—about a third of customers will take one feed or the other, ingesting less data than would be required for a combined feed, and the remaining customers to take both feeds.</P>
                <P>We also expect customers to take advantage of the opportunity to purchase the Order Feed and the Spread feed separately, rather than bundled as part of a single product. The ISE exchange currently offers an Order Feed and a Spread Feed configured in a similar manner. Our experience with the ISE Exchange shows that approximately 45% of customers take either the Spread Feed only (approximately 39%) or the Order Feed only (about 7%), while the remaining customers take both. We expect the same pattern to hold true for Phlx—somewhat less than half the customers will take one feed or the other, while the remaining customers will take both.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comparability Analysis</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Calculation of Market Share</HD>
                <P>
                    For the comparability analysis, the Exchange assessed market share 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for each of the eighteen options markets 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58652"/>
                    based on total options contracts traded in 2025 through October 20, 2025, as set forth in the graph below.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Market share is the percentage of volume on a particular exchange relative to the total volume across all exchanges and indicates the amount of order flow directed to that exchange. High levels of market share enhance the value of trading and ports. Total contracts include both multi-list options and proprietary options products. Proprietary options products are products with intellectual property rights that are not multi-listed. Phlx lists proprietary products.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="354">
                    <GID>EN17DE25.017</GID>
                </GPH>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-C</BILCOD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Trades Feed</HD>
                <P>The data feed formats used by Phlx, ISE, and MRX, composed of five different feeds—TOPO, the Order Feed, the Depth of Market Feed, the Trades Feed, and the Spread Feed—are unique to the Nasdaq options exchanges. In particular, no exchange unaffiliated with Nasdaq offers a Trades Feed, and therefore no comparison with exchanges not affiliated with Nasdaq is possible.</P>
                <P>Comparing the proposed Trades Feed fees to those of the Nasdaq affiliates offering this feed shows that the proposed fees are comparable to, or less than, the fees charged by the Nasdaq affiliates for that product, based on market share.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s30,12,r100">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Exchange</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Market share
                            <LI>(%)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Trades Feed</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Phlx</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,000/month internal and external distribution.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">ISE</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,040/month internal and external distribution.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">MRX</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>$757/month internal distribution, $1,010/month external distribution.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">GEMX</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>$520/month internal and external distribution.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">ISE:</E>
                     The proposed fees for the Phlx Trades Feed of $1,000 per month for internal and external distribution are less than the current ISE fees of $1,040 per month for internal and external distribution.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The difference is even larger relative to market share, as Phlx has a market share of 9.7% as compared to ISE's market share of 6.8%.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         ISE Rulebook, Options 7, Section 10(J) (Nasdaq ISE Trade Feed). These are fees for 2025. As noted above, fees for the ISE Trade Feed are scheduled to be adjusted in 2026 and 2027 to account for the impact of past inflation. The proposed Phlx fees will not be adjusted for past inflation, which would not be applicable to new fees proposed herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">MRX:</E>
                     The proposed fees for the Phlx Trades Feed of $1,000 per month for internal and external distribution are less than the combined MRX fees of $757 per month for internal distribution and $1,010 per month for external distribution, and also less than the MRX fee of $1,010 for external distribution.
                    <FTREF/>
                    <SU>12</SU>
                      
                    <PRTPAGE P="58653"/>
                    While MRX charges less than the proposed Phlx fee for internal distribution, fees are nevertheless comparable relative to market share because Phlx has a market share of 9.7% as compared to 3.2% for MRX).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         MRX Rulebook, Options 7, Distributor Fees, Section 7(4) (Trades Feed). These are fees for 2025. Fees for the MRX Trade Feed are scheduled to be 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        adjusted in 2026 and 2027 to account for the impact of past inflation. The proposed Phlx fees will not be adjusted for past inflation, which would not be applicable to the new fees proposed herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">GEMX:</E>
                     The proposed fees for the Trades Feed are comparable to those charged by GEMX based on relative market share. While the proposed Phlx fees of $1,000 per month for internal and external distribution are greater than GEMX's fees of $520 per month for internal and external distribution,
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     fees are nevertheless comparable relative to market share because Phlx has a market share (9.7% as compared to 3.8% for GEMX).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         GEMX Rulebook, Options 7, Section 7(H) (Nasdaq GEMX Trade Feed). These are fees for 2025. Fees for the GEMX Trade Feed are scheduled to be adjusted in 2026 and 2027 to account for the impact of past inflation. The proposed Phlx fees will not be adjusted for past inflation, which would not be applicable to the new fees proposed herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Spread Feed</HD>
                <P>The proposed fees for the Spread Feed are comparable to, or less than, the fees charged by Nasdaq affiliates ISE and MRX based on market share. No exchange unaffiliated with Nasdaq offers a Spread Feed, and neither does GEMX, and therefore no comparison with other exchanges is possible.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s30,12,r100">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Exchange</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Market share
                            <LI>(%)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Spread feed</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Phlx</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>$3,100/month internal and/or external distribution.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">ISE</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>$3,100/month internal and/or external distribution.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">MRX</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,010/month internal distribution, $1,515/month external distribution.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">ISE:</E>
                     The proposed fees for the Phlx Trades Feed of $3,100/month internal and/or external distribution are the same as current ISE fees.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Given that Phlx has a market share nearly 50 percent higher than that of ISE (9.7% for Phlx as compared to 6.8% for ISE), the proposed fees are lower than ISE fees relative to market share.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         ISE Rulebook, Options 7, Section 10(I) (Nasdaq ISE Spread Feed). These are fees for 2025. As noted above, fees for the ISE Trade Feed are scheduled to be adjusted in 2026 and 2027 to account for the impact of past inflation. The proposed Phlx fees will not be adjusted for past inflation, which would not be applicable to new fees proposed herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">MRX:</E>
                     The proposed fees for the Phlx Trades Feed of $3,100/month internal and/or external distribution are greater than the current MRX fees of $1,010 for internal distribution and $1,515 for external distribution ($2,525 for internal and external distribution).
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     However, Phlx has a market share nearly four times greater than that of MRX (9.7% for Phlx relative to 3.2% for MRX), much greater than the fee differential for the Trades Feed, and therefore the proposed fees are comparable to those of MRX relative to market share.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         MRX Rulebook, Options 7, Distributor Fees, Section 7(5) (Spread Feed). These are fees for 2025. Fees for the MRX Trade Feed are scheduled to be adjusted in 2026 and 2027 to account for the impact of past inflation. The proposed Phlx fees will not be adjusted for past inflation, which would not be applicable to the new fees proposed herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">No Unfair Discrimination</HD>
                <P>The Proposal is not unfairly discriminatory. The proposed feeds are optional data fees available to all market participants on a non-discriminatory basis.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.</P>
                <P>Nothing in the proposal burdens inter-market competition (the competition among self-regulatory organizations) because approval of the proposal does not impose any burden on the ability of other options exchanges to compete. The proposed fees for the Spread Feed and the Trades Feed are comparable to, and in some cases less than, those of the other exchanges that offer them relative to market share, as discussed above.</P>
                <P>Nothing in the Proposal burdens intra-market competition (the competition among consumers of exchange data), because the Spread Feed and the Trades Feed are available to any market participant at the same price and any market participant that elects to purchase either the Spread Feed or the Trades Feed may do so on a non-discriminatory basis.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were either solicited or received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-Phlx-2025-67  on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-Phlx-2025-67. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58654"/>
                    redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-Phlx-2025-67 and should be submitted on or before January 7, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>17</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23076 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-104383; File No. SR-NYSE-2025-41]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Price List</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>December 12, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on December 1, 2025, New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend its Price List to adopt an alternative requirement to qualify for the Non Display Tier 1 pricing. The Exchange proposes to implement the fee change effective December 1, 2025. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend its Price List to adopt an alternative requirement to qualify for the Non Display Tier 1 pricing.</P>
                <P>The proposed change responds to the current competitive environment by incentivizing submission of additional liquidity in Tapes A, B and C securities to a public exchange.</P>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to implement the fee change effective December 1, 2025.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Background</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Current Market and Competitive Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange operates in a highly competitive market. The Commission has repeatedly expressed its preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. In Regulation NMS, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.” 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 51808 (June 9, 2005), 70 FR 37496, 37499 (June 29, 2005) (File No. S7-10-04) (Final Rule) (“Regulation NMS”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    While Regulation NMS has enhanced competition, it has also fostered a “fragmented” market structure where trading in a single stock can occur across multiple trading centers. When multiple trading centers compete for order flow in the same stock, the Commission has recognized that “such competition can lead to the fragmentation of order flow in that stock.” 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Indeed, cash equity trading is currently dispersed across 17 exchanges,
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     numerous alternative trading systems,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and broker-dealer internalizers and wholesalers, all competing for order flow. Based on publicly-available information, no single exchange currently has more than 20% market share.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, no exchange possesses significant pricing power in the execution of cash equity order flow. More specifically, the Exchange's share of executed volume of equity trades in Tapes A, B and C securities is less than 12%.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 61358, 75 FR 3594, 3597 (January 21, 2010) (File No. S7-02-10) (Concept Release on Equity Market Structure).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe U.S. Equities Market Volume Summary, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://markets.cboe.com/us/equities/market_share. See generally</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/fast-answers/divisionsmarketregmrexchangesshtml.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         FINRA ATS Transparency Data, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://otctransparency.finra.org/otctransparency/AtsIssueData.</E>
                         A list of alternative trading systems registered with the Commission is 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.sec.gov/foia/docs/atslist.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Global Markets U.S. Equities Market Volume Summary, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://markets.cboe.com/us/equities/market_share/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the ever-shifting market share among the exchanges from month to month demonstrates that market participants can move order flow, or discontinue or reduce use of certain categories of products. While it is not possible to know a firm's reason for shifting order flow, the Exchange believes that one such reason is because of fee changes at any of the registered exchanges or non-exchange venues to which the firm routes order flow. Accordingly, competitive forces compel the Exchange to use exchange transaction fees and credits because market participants can readily trade on competing venues if they deem pricing levels at those other venues to be more favorable.</P>
                <P>In response to this competitive environment, the Exchange has established incentives for its member organizations who submit orders that add liquidity on the Exchange. The Exchange believes that the proposed change will incentivize submission of additional liquidity in Tape A, Tape B and Tape C securities to a public exchange, thereby promoting price discovery and transparency and enhancing order execution opportunities for member organizations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange currently provides a credit of $0.0018 per share to member organizations that send orders that add liquidity to the Exchange in Non-Displayed Limit Orders with a per share stock price of $1.00 or more and that have Adding ADV in Non-Displayed Limit Orders that is at least 0.15% of Tapes A, B, and C CADV combined, excluding any liquidity added by a DMM. Further, member organizations that send orders that add liquidity to the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58655"/>
                    Exchange in Non-Displayed Limit Orders and that have Adding ADV in Non-Displayed Limit Orders that is at least 0.15% of Tapes A, B and C CADV combined, excluding any liquidity added by a DMM, are provided a credit equal to 0.18% of the total dollar value of the transaction for securities with a per share stock price below $1.00.
                </P>
                <P>With this proposed rule change, the Exchange proposes to adopt an alternative requirement for member organizations to qualify for the Non Display Tier 1 credits. As proposed, member organizations that are also DMMs registered as a DMM in at least 500 Tape A issues would receive a credit of $0.0018 per share in securities with a per share stock price of $1.00 or more, or a credit equal to 0.18% of the total dollar value of the transaction for securities with a per share stock price below $1.00.</P>
                <P>
                    The purpose of this proposed change is to incentivize member organizations that are also DMMs to register as a DMM in a greater number of Tape A issues and thereby, qualify for the Non Display Tier 1 credit. The Exchange believes that it is reasonable to offer credits based on the member organizations that are also DMMs in a certain number of securities. The Exchange notes that other marketplaces offer incremental credits to members that are lead market makers registered in a minimum number of securities and that add a specified percentage of displayed liquidity.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange further believes that eligibility for the credit for member organizations that are also DMMs in a certain number of securities is not unfairly discriminatory because member organizations that are not DMMs can still qualify for the credit by sending adding liquidity to the Exchange and meeting the ADV requirements for all Tapes set out in the Non Display Tier 1 pricing table.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         For instance, Cboe BZX offers a higher tiered rebate based on a lower adding requirement if the member is enrolled in a minimum number of LMM securities. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe BZX Equities Fee Schedule, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cboe.com/us/equities/membership/fee_schedule/bzx/</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The proposed changes are not otherwise intended to address other issues, and the Exchange is not aware of any significant problems that market participants would have in complying with the proposed changes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Sections 6(b)(4) and (5) of the Act,
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, because it provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees, and other charges among its members, issuers and other persons using its facilities and does not unfairly discriminate between customers, issuers, brokers or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) &amp; (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposed Change Is Reasonable</HD>
                <P>
                    As discussed above, the Exchange operates in a highly competitive market. The Commission has repeatedly expressed its preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. In Regulation NMS, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.” 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     While Regulation NMS has enhanced competition, it has also fostered a “fragmented” market structure where trading in a single stock can occur across multiple trading centers. When multiple trading centers compete for order flow in the same stock, the Commission has recognized that “such competition can lead to the fragmentation of order flow in that stock.” 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 51808 (June 9, 2005), 70 FR 37495, 37499 (June 29, 2005) (S7-10-04) (Final Rule) (“Regulation NMS”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 61358, 75 FR 3594, 3597 (January 21, 2010) (File No. S7-02-10) (Concept Release on Equity Market Structure).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposal to offer the Non Display Tier 1 rebate to member organizations that are also DMMs registered as a DMM in at least 500 Tape A securities is a reasonable means to attract greater participation by member organizations that are also DMMs and to register as a DMM in a greater number of securities. The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is a reasonable means to improve market quality, attract additional order flow to a public market, and enhance execution opportunities for member organizations on the Exchange, to the benefit of all market participants. The Exchange notes that the proposal would also foster liquidity provision and stability in the marketplace. The proposal would also reward DMM units, who have greater risks and heightened quoting and other obligations than other market participants. The proposed change is also a reasonable attempt to potentially attract additional DMM units to the Exchange by providing financial incentives to register as DMMs in a greater number of securities. Moreover, offering credits to member organizations that are also DMMs registered as a DMM in 500 Tape A symbols is a reasonable method to incentivize greater participation by such member organizations, thereby contributing to depth and market quality on the Exchange. In light of the competitive environment in which the Exchange currently operates, the proposed rule change is a reasonable attempt to incentivize member organizations to increase their participation on the Exchange and provide meaningful added levels of liquidity in order to qualify for credits, thereby contributing to depth and market quality on the Exchange.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposal Is an Equitable Allocation of Fees</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes the proposal equitably allocates fees and credits among market participants because all member organizations that are also DMMs may qualify for the Non Display Tier 1 credits on an equal basis.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the proposal equitably allocates its fees among its market participants by fostering liquidity provision and stability in the marketplace. Moreover, the proposal is an equitable allocation of fees because it would reward DMM units for their increased risks and heightened quoting and other obligations. As such, it is equitable to offer qualifying member organizations that are also DMMs registered as a DMM a higher credit for Non-Displayed Limit Orders. The proposed rebate is also equitable because it would apply equally to any member organization that is also a DMM registered as a DMM in a minimum number of Tape A securities. The Exchange notes that at this time there are currently 3 member organizations that are also DMMs registered as a DMM in at least 500 Tape A issues that could qualify for the Non Display Tier 1 credits. The Exchange believes that the proposal would provide an equal incentive to any member organization that is a DMM to register as a DMM in a greater number of Tape A issues, and that the proposal constitutes an equitable allocation of fees because all similarly situated member organizations would be eligible for the same rebate. The Exchange notes that member organizations that are not a DMM registered in 500 Tape A issues can continue to qualify for Non Display Tier 1 credits pursuant to the current requirements.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58656"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposal Is Not Unfairly Discriminatory</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposal is not unfairly discriminatory. In the prevailing competitive environment, member organizations are free to disfavor the Exchange's pricing if they believe that alternatives offer them better value. The Exchange believes that offering a rebate to member organizations that are also a DMM registered as a DMM in at least 500 Tape A issues would provide a further incentive for member organizations that are also a DMM to register as a DMM in a greater number of securities to earn the Non Display Tier 1 credits. The Exchange also believes that the requirement of registering as a DMM in at least 500 Tape A issues to qualify for the credit is not unfairly discriminatory because it would apply equally to all existing and prospective member organizations that are also a DMM that choose to register as a DMM in Tape A securities on the Exchange. The Exchange does not believe that it is unfairly discriminatory to offer incentives based on a prescribed threshold. The Exchange believes that the proposal would provide an equal incentive to any member organization that is also a DMM to register as a DMM in a greater number of Tape A issues, and that the proposal would not be unfairly discriminatory because the threshold-based incentive would be offered on equal terms to all similarly situated member organizations.</P>
                <P>Finally, the Exchange believes that it is subject to significant competitive forces, as described below in the Exchange's statement regarding the burden on competition.</P>
                <P>For the foregoing reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Instead, as discussed above, the Exchange believes that the proposed changes would encourage the submission of additional liquidity to a public exchange, thereby promoting market depth, price discovery and transparency and enhancing order execution opportunities for member organizations. As a result, the Exchange believes that the proposed change furthers the Commission's goal in adopting Regulation NMS of fostering integrated competition among orders, which promotes “more efficient pricing of individual stocks for all types of orders, large and small.” 
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(8).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Regulation NMS, 70 FR at 37498-99.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intramarket Competition.</E>
                     The proposed change is designed to attract additional order flow and new potential DMMs to the Exchange. The Exchange believes that the proposal to offer a financial incentive should incentivize member organizations that are also a DMM to register as a DMM in a greater number of Tape A issues. Greater participation on the Exchange would result in greater liquidity for the benefit of all market participants on the Exchange. The Non Display Tier 1 credits would be available to all similarly-situated market participants, and, as such, the proposed changes would not impose a disparate burden on competition among market participants on the Exchange.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intermarket Competition.</E>
                     The Exchange operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily choose to send their orders to other exchange and off-exchange venues if they deem fee levels at those other venues to be more favorable. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees and rebates to remain competitive with other exchanges and with off-exchange venues. Because competitors are free to modify their own fees and credits in response, and because market participants may readily adjust their order routing practices, the Exchange does not believe its proposed fee change can impose any burden on intermarket competition
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(2) thereunder 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange has designated this proposal as establishing or changing a due, fee, or other charge imposed on any person, whether or not the person is a member of the self-regulatory organization, which renders the proposed rule change effective upon filing. At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSE-2025-41  on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSE-2025-41. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSE-2025-41 and should be submitted on or before January 7, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>18</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23072 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58657"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-104375; File No. SR-LCH SA-2025-008]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; LCH SA; Order Approving Proposed Rule Change Relating to Revisions to Terms of Reference of the Nomination Committee and Board of Directors</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>December 12, 2025.</DATE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    On September 2, 2025, Banque Centrale de Compensation, which conducts business under the name LCH SA (“LCH SA”), filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     a proposed rule change to amend the Terms of Reference of the Board of Directors of LCH SA (“Board ToR”) and the Terms of Reference of the Nomination Committee of the Board of Directors (“Nomination Committee ToR”) (together, the “Proposed Rule Change”). The Proposed Rule Change was published for comment in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on September 19, 2025.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On November 3, 2025, the Commission designated a longer period within which to approve, disapprove, or institute proceedings to determine whether to approve or disapprove the Proposed Rule Change.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission did not receive comments regarding the proposed rule change. For the reasons discussed below, the Commission is approving the proposed rule change.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 103975 (Sept. 16, 2025), 90 FR 45288 (Sep. 19, 2025) (File No. SR-LCH SA-2025-008) (“Notice”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 104173 (Nov. 3, 2025), 90 FR 51424 (Nov. 17, 2025) (File No. SR-LCH SA-2025-008).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Description of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    LCH SA is a clearing agency registered with the Commission for the purpose of clearing security-based swaps. LCH SA is managed by a board of directors (the “Board”). The Proposed Rule Change would modify the composition of the Board, as reflected in the Board ToR and Nomination Committee ToR. Specifically, the Proposed Rule Change would amend the provisions of both documents as they relate to directors that are nominated by (i) Euronext; (ii) Users of LCH SA; and (iii) the London Stock Exchange Group (“LSEG”).
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Proposed Rule Change also would make unrelated, minor updates to the Board ToR as it relates to the description of certain LCH SA personnel.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         LCH SA is a subsidiary of LCH Group Holdings Limited (“LCH Group”) and an indirect subsidiary of LSEG. Notice, 90 FR at 45288, n.3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Euronext Director</HD>
                <P>
                    LCH SA had a business relationship with Euronext pursuant to which LCH SA provided clearing services for certain trading facilities and markets operated by Euronext. LCH SA had agreements in place to document this relationship, and Euronext had an ownership stake in LCH SA. Recently, Euronext sold its ownership stake in LCH SA, and Euronext and LCH SA ended their clearing relationship.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Thus, LCH SA no longer offers clearing services to Euronext, and Euronext no longer has an ownership stake in LCH SA.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Euronext announces the sale of its 11.1% stake in LCH SA to LCH Group Holdings Limited, 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.euronext.com/en/about/media/euronext-press-releases/euronext-announces-sale-its-111-stake-lch-sa-lch-group-holdings</E>
                         and Successful expansion of Euronext Clearing to all Euronext financial derivatives markets, 
                        <E T="03">available at https://www.euronext.com/en/about/media/euronext-press-releases/successful-expansion-euronext-clearing-all-euronext-financial.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Currently, Article 3 of the Board ToR gives Euronext the right to nominate one director while certain agreements between LCH SA and Euronext are in effect. Due to the end of the business relationship between LCH SA and Euronext, these agreements are no longer in place. Accordingly, the Proposed Rule Change would delete this provision from Article 3 and otherwise remove references to a director nominated by Euronext from the Board ToR, thus eliminating the Euronext director.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         For example, the Proposed Rule Change would delete from Article 16 a provision that makes the Euronext director a part of the Audit Committee of the Board.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Proposed Rule Change would make similar updates to the Nomination Committee ToR. The Proposed Rule Change would delete Article 2.1.5, which requires the Nomination Committee recommend to the Board for appointment a director nominated by Euronext. The Proposed Rule Change also would delete in its entirety Article 4, which describes how Euronext may nominate a person to be a director and the criteria that a nominee must satisfy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. User Directors</HD>
                <P>
                    The Board ToR currently defines a User Director as a director who is nominated by a shareholder of LCH Group which is a User or who is otherwise connected to such User shareholder by virtue of employment or directorship. A User is defined as an Eligible Institution other than an Exchange, and Eligible Institution means, among things, inter-dealer brokers, clearing members, and indirect users.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Thus, as currently written, a User must be a shareholder of LCH Group to nominate directors to the Board.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         The term “Eligible Institution” is defined in the Articles of Association of LCH Group. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice, 90 FR at 45289, n.10.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Proposed Rule Change would amend the Board ToR to allow all Users, not just those who are shareholders of LCH Group, to nominate directors to the Board. Thus, the Proposed Rule Change would amend the definition of User Director in the Board ToR to mean a director who is nominated by a User or who is otherwise connected to such User by virtue of their employment or directorship, regardless of whether the User is a shareholder of LCH Group.</P>
                <P>In the Nomination Committee ToR, the Proposed Rule Change would make a similar amendment and increase the number of User Directors. Article 2.1.3 currently requires the Nomination Committee recommend to the Board for appointment up to two directors associated with or connected to “User Shareholders,” meaning Users that are shareholders of LCH Group. The Proposed Rule Change would amend Article 2.1.3 to increase the number to three from two, include any director associated with a User, and delete the term User Shareholder. Thus, under Article 2.1.3 as amended, the Nomination Committee would recommend to the Board for appointment up to three directors associated with a User.</P>
                <P>
                    The Proposed Rule Change would make other changes to the Nomination Committee ToR to reflect that a User no longer needs to be a shareholder of LCH Group to nominate a director. The Appendix to the Nomination Committee ToR outlines the process for appointing and removing User Directors to the Board. In the Appendix, the Proposed Rule Change would delete references to User Shareholders and any other references to a User being a shareholder of LCH Group.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         For example, under current Section 3(a)(iii) of the Appendix, the Nomination Committee must consider the size of a User's holding in LCH Group when determining whether to recommend the person nominated by that User. The Proposed Rule Change would delete this provision.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Proposed Rule Change also would update the Appendix as it relates to the criteria applicable to a User Director. Specifically, Section 2(b) of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58658"/>
                    Appendix currently requires the Nomination Committee to recommend a replacement for any User Director who is removed due to the User who nominated them ceasing to be an Eligible User.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Proposed Rule Change would simplify this requirement. Under the Proposed Rule Change, the Nomination Committee would recommend a replacement for any User Director who is removed due to the User who nominated them ceasing to be an Eligible Institution.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Eligible User is defined in the Appendix as a User who is not connected with an existing director and who has not served notice termination its clearing relationship with LCH SA or LCH Ltd.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         As noted above, the term Eligible Institution is defined in the Articles of Association of LCH Group and means, among things, inter-dealer brokers, clearing members, and indirect users. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice, 90 FR at 45289, n.10.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    LCH SA is making this change to reflect the current number of Users that are shareholders of LCH Group. Due to an increase in London Stock Exchange Group's ownership interest in LCH Group, only eleven financial firms remain as shareholders of LCH Group.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Of these remaining shareholders, five have not previously indicated a desire to nominate a User Director.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Thus, the pool of firms which are both shareholders of LCH Group and Users have decreased. To help ensure that a sufficient number of firms that are Users are interested in nominating directors to the Board, LCH SA is removing the requirement that a User Director be nominated by a User who is also a shareholder of LCH Group.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         Notice, 90 FR at 45289.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Finally, LCH SA is increasing the number of User Directors by one to maintain its current number of directors following the removal of the director previously nominated by Euronext.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. LSEG Director</HD>
                <P>Currently LSEG has the right to nominate one director to the Board. The Proposed Rule Change would increase the number of directors nominated by LSEG to three. The Proposed Rule Change would amend Article 2.1.4 of the Nomination Committee ToR to reflect the increase to three.</P>
                <P>The two additional directors nominated by LSEG would take the place of the LCH Group CEO and LSEG Chief Risk Officer (“CRO”). Article 2.3 of the Nomination Committee ToR currently states that the Board will include, as directors, the LCH SA CEO, LCH Group CEO, and the LSEG CRO. The Proposed Rule Change would amend Article 2.3 to remove references to the LCH Group CEO and the LSEG CRO.</P>
                <P>Elsewhere in the Nomination Committee ToR, the Proposed Rule Change would update references to LSEG directors to clarify that the directors nominated by LSEG will now be three rather than one. The Proposed Rule Change also would add a reference to LSEG directors in Article 7. As amended, Article 7 would provide that LSEG directors, as well as the LCH SA CEO, are not subject to term limits for service on the Board.</P>
                <P>
                    LCH SA is making this change for two reasons. First, the LCH Group CEO has stepped down as a member of the Board of LCH SA.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     To replace that individual as director on the Board, LCH SA is proposing to grant LSEG the ability to nominate an additional director. Second, revising Article 2.3 to remove specific references to the LSEG CRO simplifies the appointment of the LSEG directors by not limiting those directors to persons serving a specific role at LSEG. Thus, under the proposed rule change, LSEG could still appoint its CRO to serve on the LCH SA board, but LSEG would not be required to do so.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Notice, 90 FR at 45289.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Other Changes</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule change also would revise certain articles of the Board ToR to clarify that certain personnel, such as the LCH SA CEO, may be male or female.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion and Commission Findings</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 19(b)(2)(C) of the Act directs the Commission to approve a proposed rule change of a self-regulatory organization if it finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to such organization.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Under the Commission's Rules of Practice, the “burden to demonstrate that a proposed rule change is consistent with the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations issued thereunder . . . is on the self-regulatory organization [`SRO'] that proposed the rule change.” 
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(C).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         Rule 700(b)(3), Commission Rules of Practice, 17 CFR 201.700(b)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The description of a proposed rule change, its purpose and operation, its effect, and a legal analysis of its consistency with applicable requirements must all be sufficiently detailed and specific to support an affirmative Commission finding,
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and any failure of an SRO to provide this information may result in the Commission not having a sufficient basis to make an affirmative finding that a proposed rule change is consistent with the Exchange Act and the applicable rules and regulations.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Moreover, “unquestioning reliance” on an SRO's representations in a proposed rule change is not sufficient to justify Commission approval of a proposed rule change.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Susquehanna Int'l Group, LLP</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Securities and Exchange Commission,</E>
                         866 F.3d 442, 447 (D.C. Cir. 2017).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    After carefully considering the Proposed Rule Change, the Commission finds that the Proposed Rule Change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to LCH SA. More specifically, for the reasons given below, the Commission finds that the Proposed Rule Change is consistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(C) of the Act 
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 17ad-22(e)(2)(i).
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)(3)(C).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17ad-22(e)(2)(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Section 17A(b)(3)(C)</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 17A(b)(3)(C) of the Act requires, among other things, that the rules of LCH SA assure a fair representation of its shareholders (or members) and participants in the selection of its directors and administration of its affairs.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As noted above, the Proposed Rule Change would increase the number of directors nominated by Users from two to three and would remove the requirement that a User be a shareholder of LCH Group to nominate a director. Users could include among others, inter-dealer brokers, clearing members, and indirect users. By removing the requirement that a User be a shareholder of LCH Group, the Proposed Rule Change would expand the pool of Users that could nominate directors to the Board. This change, and increasing the number of User directors, would help assure a fair representation of LCH SA's participants in the selection of its directors, consistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(C) of the Act.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)(3)(C).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)(3)(C).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Moreover, the Proposed Rule Change would increase the number of directors nominated by LSEG. As noted above, LSEG is an indirect shareholder of LCH SA. By increasing the number of directors that LSEG can select, the Proposed Rule Change would help assure a fair representation of LCH SA's shareholders in the selection of its directors, consistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(C) of the Act.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)(3)(C).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="58659"/>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, the Commission finds that the Proposed Rule Change is consistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(C) of the Act.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)(3)(C).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Rule 17ad-22(e)(2)(i)</HD>
                <P>
                    Rule 17ad-22(e)(2)(i) requires that a covered clearing agency, such as LCH SA, establish, implement, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to provide for governance arrangements that, among other things, are clear and transparent.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17ad-22(e)(2)(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As noted above, the Proposed Rule Change would eliminate the Euronext director because of changes in the business relationship between Euronext and LCH SA. Articles of the Board ToR and Nomination Committee ToR that give Euronext the right to nominate a director are no longer relevant or applicable. Deleting these provisions and references to the Euronext director thus removes outdated and inapplicable provisions, thereby reducing confusion and increasing clarity.</P>
                <P>Moreover, the Proposed Rule Change would remove the requirement that a User be a shareholder of LCH Group to nominate a director. This change would clarify the governance arrangements of the Board by simplifying the conditions applicable to the selection of directors by Users. Going forward, the Nomination Committee will no longer need to consider if a User submitting a nominee is also a shareholder of LCH Group.</P>
                <P>The proposed changes to directors nominated by LSEG would also simplify and clarify the governance arrangements for selecting these directors. As noted above, the Proposed Rule Change would replace a requirement that the LCH Group CEO and the LSEG CRO be directors with a more general requirement that LSEG appoint three directors (including the one director LSEG already appoints). The Proposed Rule Change also would update references, as needed, to account for LSEG nominating additional directors. Again, these changes would make LCH SA's governance arrangements clearer by replacing a specific requirement with one that is more general and easier to apply.</P>
                <P>Finally, LCH SA's proposed changes also include amendments to reflect that certain personnel, such as the LCH SA CEO, may be male or female, which clarifies the previous iteration of these provisions.</P>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, the Commission finds that the Proposed Rule Change is consistent with the requirements of Rule 17ad-22(e)(2)(i).
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17ad-22(e)(2)(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Conclusion</HD>
                <P>
                    On the basis of the foregoing, the Commission finds that the Proposed Rule Change is consistent with the requirements of the Act, and in particular, with the requirements of Section 17A(b)(3)(C) of the Act 
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 17ad-22(e)(2)(i).
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)(3)(C).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17ad-22(e)(2)(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">It is therefore ordered</E>
                     pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act 
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that the proposed rule change (SR-LCH SA-2025-008) be, and hereby is, approved.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         In approving the proposed rule change, the Commission considered the proposal's impact on efficiency, competition, and capital formation. 15 U.S.C. 78c(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23067 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. IC-35820A; File No. 812-15840]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Oxford Square Capital Corp., et al. (Oxford Square Capital Corp., et al.); Correction</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>December 15, 2025</DATE>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Securities and Exchange Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; correction.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Securities and Exchange Commission published a document in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on December 15, 2025, concerning Oxford Square Capital Corp., et al. The document contained a typographical error.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Donna M. Willingham, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, (202) 551-5400.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Correction</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         of December 15, 2025, in FR Doc. 2025-22805, at 90 FR 58067, in the third column, under the heading “HEARING OR NOTIFICATION OF A HEARING:” correct the reference to “January 5, 2025” instead to “January 5, 2026.”
                    </P>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23126 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-104379; File No. SR-CboeBYX-2025-034]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe BYX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Exchange's Fee Schedule by Amending Certain Add/Remove Volume Tiers, Amending the Non-Displayed Tier, and Removing the Routing Tier</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>December 12, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on December 1, 2025, Cboe BYX Exchange, Inc. (the“Exchange” or “BYX”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>Cboe BYX Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “BYX”) proposes to amend its Fee Schedule by amending certain Add/Remove Volume Tiers, amending the Non-Displayed Tier, and removing the Routing Tier. The text of the proposed rule change is provided in Exhibit 5.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ), the Exchange's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.cboe.com/us/equities/regulation/rule_filings/bzx/</E>
                    ), and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58660"/>
                    concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend its Fee Schedule applicable to its equities trading platform (“BYX Equities”) by: (i) revising the volume component of Add/Remove Volume Tiers 1-2; (ii) removing the shares component of Add/Remove Volume Tiers 1-2 and replacing it with a component that excludes a Member's subdollar trading activity; (iii) adding a criteria that excludes a Member's subdollar trading activity to Add/Remove Volume Tiers 3-5; (iv) removing the shares component of the Non-Displayed Tier and replacing it with a TCV component; (v) and adding a criteria that excludes a Member's subdollar trading activity to the Non-Displayed Tier; and (vi) removing the Routing Tier. The Exchange proposes to implement these changes effective December 1, 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange first notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive or incentives to be insufficient. More specifically, the Exchange is only one of 17 registered equities exchanges, as well as a number of alternative trading systems and other off-exchange venues that do not have similar self-regulatory responsibilities under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”), to which market participants may direct their order flow. Based on publicly available information,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     no single registered equities exchange has more than 15% of the market share. Thus, in such a low-concentrated and highly competitive market, no single equities exchange possesses significant pricing power in the execution of order flow. The Exchange in particular operates a “Taker-Maker” model whereby it pays credits to members that remove liquidity and assesses fees to those that add liquidity. The Exchange's Fee Schedule sets forth the standard rebates and rates applied per share for orders that remove and provide liquidity, respectively. Currently, for orders in securities priced at or above $1.00, the Exchange provides a standard rebate of $0.00200 per share for orders that remove liquidity and assesses a fee of $0.00200 per share for orders that add liquidity.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For orders in securities priced below $1.00, the Exchange does not assess any fees for orders that add liquidity, and provides a rebate in the amount of 0.10% of the total dollar value for orders that remove liquidity.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Additionally, in response to the competitive environment, the Exchange also offers tiered pricing which provides Members opportunities to qualify for higher rebates or reduced fees where certain volume criteria and thresholds are met. Tiered pricing provides an incremental incentive for Members to strive for higher tier levels, which provides increasingly higher benefits or discounts for satisfying increasingly more stringent criteria.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Global Markets, U.S. Equities Market Volume Summary, Month-to-Date (November 21, 2025), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cboe.com/us/equities/market_statistics/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         BYX Equities Fee Schedule, Standard Rates.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Add/Remove Volume Tiers and Non-Displayed Tier</HD>
                <P>
                    Under footnote 1 of the Fee Schedule, the Exchange currently offers various Add/Remove Volume Tiers. In particular, the Exchange offers five Add/Remove Volume Tiers that each provide a reduced fee for Members' qualifying orders yielding fee codes B,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     V,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Y,
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and AD 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     where a Member reaches certain volume-based criteria. First, the Exchange proposes to (i) revise the volume component of Add/Remove Volume Tiers 1-2 and (ii) remove the shares component of Add/Remove Volume Tiers 1-2 and replace it with a component that excludes a Member's subdollar trading activity. The criteria for current Add/Remove Volume Tiers 1-2 is as follows:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Fee code B is appended to displayed orders that add liquidity to BYX in Tape B securities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Fee code V is appended to displayed orders that add liquidity to BYX in Tape A securities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Fee code Y is appended to displayed orders that add liquidity to BYX in Tape C securities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         Fee code AD is appended to displayed orders executed in a Periodic Auction.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • Add/Remove Volume Tier 1 assesses a reduced fee of $0.0016 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00 to qualifying orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     orders yielding fee codes B, V, Y, or AD) where (1) Member has a combined Auction ADV 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and ADAV 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     ≥ 0.10% of the TCV 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or (2) Member has a combined Auction ADV and ADAV ≥ 11,000,000 shares.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         “Auction ADV” means average daily auction volume calculated as the number of shares executed in an auction per day.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         “ADAV” means average daily added volume calculated as the number of shares added per day. ADAV is calculated on a monthly basis.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         “TCV” means total consolidated volume calculated as the volume reported by all exchanges and trade reporting facilities to a consolidated transaction reporting plan for the month for which the fees apply.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • Add/Remove Volume Tier 2 assesses a reduced fee of $0.0014 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00 to qualifying orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     orders yielding fee codes B, V, Y, or AD) where (1) Member has a combined Auction ADV and ADAV ≥ 0.15% of the TCV or (2) Member has a combined Auction ADV and ADAV ≥ 16,000,000 shares.
                </P>
                <P>The proposed criteria for current Add/Remove Volume Tiers 1-2 is as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    • Proposed Add/Remove Volume Tier 1 assesses a reduced fee of $0.0016 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00 to qualifying orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     orders yielding fee codes B, V, Y, or AD) where (1) Member has a combined Auction ADV and ADAV ≥ 0.075% of the TCV or (2) Member has a combined Ex-Subdollar Auction ADV 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Ex-Subdollar ADAV 
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     as a percentage of Ex-Subdollar TCV ≥ 0.075%.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         The Exchange proposes to introduce the term “Ex-Subdollar Auction ADV” to the Definitions section of the Fee Schedule. “Ex-Subdollar Auction ADV” means Auction ADV that excludes executions in securities priced below $1.00.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         The Exchange proposes to introduce the term “Ex-Subdollar ADAV” to the Definitions section of the Fee Schedule. “Ex-Subdollar ADAV” means ADAV that excludes executions in securities priced below $1.00.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The Exchange proposes to introduce the term “Ex-Subdollar TCV” to the Definitions section of the Fee Schedule. “Ex-Subdollar TCV” means TCV that excludes executions in securities that have an average daily price below $1.00.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • Proposed Add/Remove Volume Tier 1 assesses a reduced fee of $0.0016 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00 to qualifying orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     orders yielding fee codes B, V, Y, or AD) where (1) Member has a combined Auction ADV and ADAV ≥ 0.10% of the TCV or (2) Member has a combined Ex-Subdollar Auction ADV and Ex-Subdollar ADAV as a percentage of Ex-Subdollar TCV ≥ 0.10%.
                </P>
                <P>In addition, the Exchange proposes to introduce a second criteria that excludes a Member's subdollar trading activity to Add/Remove Volume Tiers 3-5. The criteria for current Add/Remove Volume Tiers 3-5 is as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    • Add/Remove Volume Tier 3 assesses a reduced fee of $0.0013 per 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58661"/>
                    share in securities priced at or above $1.00 to qualifying orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     orders yielding fee codes B, V, Y, or AD) where Member has a combined Auction ADV and ADAV ≥ 0.30% of the TCV.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Add/Remove Volume Tier 4 assesses a reduced fee of $0.0012 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00 to qualifying orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     orders yielding fee codes B, V, Y, or AD) where Member has a combined Auction ADV and ADAV ≥ 0.60% of the TCV.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Add/Remove Volume Tier 5 assesses a reduced fee of $0.0012 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00 to qualifying orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     orders yielding fee codes B, V, Y, or AD) where MPID has a combined Auction ADV and ADAV ≥ 0.55% of the TCV.
                </P>
                <P>The proposed criteria for Add/Remove Volume Tiers 3-5 is as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    • Proposed Add/Remove Volume Tier 3 assesses a reduced fee of $0.0013 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00 to qualifying orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     orders yielding fee codes B, V, Y, or AD) where (1) Member has a combined Auction ADV and ADAV ≥ 0.30% of the TCV or (2) Member has a combined Ex-Subdollar Auction ADV and Ex-Subdollar ADAV as a percentage of Ex-Subdollar TCV ≥ 0.30%.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Proposed Add/Remove Volume Tier 4 assesses a reduced fee of $0.0012 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00 to qualifying orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     orders yielding fee codes B, V, Y, or AD) where Member has a combined Auction ADV and ADAV ≥ 0.60% of the TCV or (2) Member has a combined Ex-Subdollar Auction ADV and Ex-Subdollar ADAV as a percentage of Ex-Subdollar TCV ≥ 0.60%.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Proposed Add/Remove Volume Tier 5 assesses a reduced fee of $0.0012 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00 to qualifying orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     orders yielding fee codes B, V, Y, or AD) where MPID has a combined Auction ADV and ADAV ≥ 0.55% of the TCV or (2) MPID has a combined Ex-Subdollar Auction ADV and Ex-Subdollar ADAV as a percentage of Ex-Subdollar TCV ≥ 0.55%.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, under footnote 1 of the Fee Schedule, the Exchange offers a Non-Displayed Tier that provides a reduced fee for Members' qualifying orders yielding fee codes AH 
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and MM 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     where a Member reaches certain volume-based criteria. First, the Exchange proposes to remove the shares component of the Non-Displayed Tier and replace it with a TCV component. In addition, the Exchange proposes to add a second prong of criteria that excludes a Member's subdollar trading activity to the Non-Displayed Tier. The criteria for the current Non-Displayed Tier is as follows:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         Fee code AH is appended to non-displayed orders executed in a Periodic Auction.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         Fee code MM is appended to non-displayed orders that add liquidity to BYX using Mid-Point Peg.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • The Non-Displayed Tier assesses a reduced fee of $0.0005 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00 to qualifying orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     orders yielding fee codes B, V, Y, or AD) where Member has a combined Auction ADV and ADAV ≥ 5,000,000.
                </P>
                <P>The proposed criteria for the Non-Displayed Tier is as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    • The proposed Non-Displayed Tier assesses a reduced fee of $0.0005 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00 to qualifying orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     orders yielding fee codes B, V, Y, or AD) where (1) Member has a combined Auction ADV and ADAV ≥ 0.03% of the TCV or (2) Member has a combined Ex-Subdollar Auction ADV and Ex-Subdollar ADAV as a percentage of Ex-Subdollar TCV ≥ 0.03%.
                </P>
                <P>The proposed modification to the volume component of the first prong of criteria of Add/Remove Volume Tiers 1-2 represents a modest decrease in difficulty of one prong of criteria to achieve the applicable tier threshold while maintaining the existing fee. Additionally, the proposed modification to the volume component of the first prong of criteria of the Non-Displayed Tier seeks to align the criteria of the Non-Displayed Tier with the first prong of criteria applicable to the Add/Remove Volume Tiers while maintaining the existing fee. In each instance, the revised first prong of criteria is designed to match the percentage requirement in the proposed second prong of criteria and is commensurate with the reduced fee assessed if the criteria is satisfied.</P>
                <P>
                    While Auction ADV or ADAV as a percentage of TCV is generally a reasonable baseline for determining tiered pricing for Members, the Exchange notes that in certain months where subdollar trading volume is significantly higher, TCV becomes inflated due to the higher levels of subdollar volume. During these months of high subdollar trading volume, if a Member does not increase its volume to account for the increased TCV, then the Member is disadvantaged when it comes to satisfying criteria requiring Auction ADV or ADAV as a percentage of TCV. The Exchange's proposed introduction of the Ex-Subdollar ADV and ADAV as a percentage of Ex-Subdollar TCV prong of criteria (the “Ex-Subdollar Criteria”) in Add Volume Tiers 1-3 and Add Volume Tiers 5-7 is designed to provide Members with an opportunity to earn an enhanced rebate during months when subdollar trading activity is high and the Exchange's calculation of ADAV inclusive of subdollar volume under the Tiers' existing criteria could potentially make it far more difficult for the Member to qualify, particularly when the Member's volume in securities priced at or above $1.00 remains relatively constant. The Exchange notes that its proposed Ex-Subdollar Criteria in Add Volume Tiers 1-3 and Add Volume Tiers 5-7 will introduce a new method of calculating ADAV as a percentage of TCV, exclusive of subdollar activity.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that its affiliate exchange, Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. (“BZX”) offers the same method of calculating total equity volume and TCV for certain tiers in order to determine the appropriate fees and rebates for its Members. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         BZX Equities Fee Schedule, Footnote 1, Add/Remove Volume Tiers. 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 34-103500 (July 18, 2025), 90 FR 34705 (July 23, 2025), SR-CboeBZX-2025-091 (“BZX Fee Filing”). NYSE Arca offers a similar method of calculating total equity volume and total equity CADV for certain tiers in order to determine the appropriate fees and credits for its ETP Holders. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         NYSE Arca Equities Fee and Charges, NYSE Arca Marketplace: Trade Related Fees and Credits, Footnote 1. 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 34-100506 (July 11, 2024), 89 FR 58215 (July 17, 2024), SR-NYSEArca-2024-58 (“NYSE Arca Fee Filing”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This change is intended to aid Members during months where subdollar volume is elevated, thus causing the TCV (used as the denominator when the Exchange calculates this prong of criteria) to be significantly higher while the Member's ADAV (used as the numerator for the Exchange's calculation of this prong of criteria) remains relatively stable if they are not actively trading in securities priced below $1.00. In months when subdollar trading activity is particularly high, the Exchange believes that it would be unfair to Members that execute significant volume in securities priced at or above $1.00 to potentially not be able to qualify for an enhanced rebate or lose existing incentives due to an increase in TCV due to a significant increase in the amount of volume in securities priced below $1.00. The Exchange believes that the proposed criteria continues to be commensurate with the rebate received for each tier and will encourage Members to grow their volume on the Exchange. Increased volume on the Exchange contributes to a deeper and more liquid market, which benefits all market participants and provides greater execution opportunities on the Exchange.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Routing Tier</HD>
                <P>
                    Under footnote 3 of the Fee Schedule, the Exchange currently offers a Routing 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58662"/>
                    Tier that provides an enhanced rebate for Members' qualifying orders yielding fee code C 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     where certain volume-based criteria is met. The Exchange now proposes to delete the Routing Tier as the Exchange does not wish to, nor is required to, maintain such tier. More specifically, the proposed change removes this tier as the Exchange would rather redirect future resources and funding into other programs and tiers intended to incentivize increased order flow.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         Fee code C is appended to orders routed to NASDAQ BX using Destination Specific, TRIM or SLIM routing strategy.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirements that the rules of an exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirement that the rules of an exchange not be designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers as well as Section 6(b)(4) 
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     as it is designed to provide for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges among its Members and other persons using its facilities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4)
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As described above, the Exchange operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive or incentives to be insufficient. The Exchange believes that its proposed changes to the Add/Volume Tiers and Non-Displayed Tier reflects a competitive pricing structure designed to incentivize market participants to direct their order flow to the Exchange, which the Exchange believes would enhance market quality to the benefit of all Members. Additionally, the Exchange notes that relative volume-based incentives and discounts have been widely adopted by exchanges,
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     including the Exchange,
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and are reasonable, equitable and non-discriminatory because they are open to all Members on an equal basis and provide additional benefits or discounts that are reasonably related to (i) the value to an exchange's market quality and (ii) associated higher levels of market activity, such as higher levels of liquidity provision and/or growth patterns. Competing equity exchanges offer similar tiered pricing structures, including schedules or rebates and fees that apply based upon members achieving certain volume and/or growth thresholds, as well as assess similar fees or rebates for similar types of orders, to that of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See e.g.</E>
                        <E T="03">,</E>
                         BZX Equities Fee Schedule, Footnote 1, Add/Remove Volume Tiers.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See e.g.</E>
                        <E T="03">,</E>
                         BYX Equities Fee Schedule, Footnote 1, Add/Remove Volume Tiers.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In particular, the Exchange believes its proposal to modify the Add/Remove Volume Tiers and Non-Displayed Tier is reasonable because the tiers will be available to all Members and provide all Members with an opportunity to receive a reduced fee should certain criteria be met. The Exchange further believes that the revised Add/Remove Volume Tiers and the revised Non-Displayed Tier will provide a reasonable means to encourage adding displayed and non-displayed orders in Members' order flow to the Exchange and to incentivize Members to continue to provide volume to the Exchange by offering them an additional opportunity to receive a reduced fee on qualifying orders. An overall increase in activity would deepen the Exchange's liquidity pool, offer additional cost savings, support the quality of price discovery, promote market transparency and improve market quality, for all investors.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes proposed modified Add/Remove Volume Tiers and modified Non-Displayed Tier are reasonable as they do not represent a significant departure from the criteria currently offered in the Fee Schedule. The Exchange also believes that the proposal represents an equitable allocation of fees and rebates and is not unfairly discriminatory because all Members will be eligible for the revised tiers and have the opportunity to meet the tiers' criteria and receive the corresponding reduced fee if such criteria are met. Without having a view of activity on other markets and off-exchange venues, the Exchange has no way of knowing whether these proposed rule changes would definitely result in any Members qualifying for the new proposed tiers. While the Exchange has no way of predicting with certainty how the proposed changes will impact Member activity, based on the prior months volume, the Exchange anticipates that at least three Members will be able to satisfy proposed Add/Remove Volume Tier 1, no Members will be able to satisfy proposed Add/Remove Volume Tier 2, no Members will be able to satisfy proposed Add/Remove Volume Tier 3, no Members will be able to satisfy proposed Add/Remove Volume Tier 4, no Members will be able to satisfy proposed Add/Remove Volume Tier 5, and at least nine Members will be able to satisfy the proposed Non-Displayed Tier. The Exchange also notes that the proposed changes will not adversely impact any Member's ability to qualify for reduced fees or enhanced rebates offered under other tiers. Should a Member not meet the proposed new criteria, the Member will merely not receive that corresponding reduced fee.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal to eliminate the Routing Tier is reasonable because the Exchange is not required to maintain this tier nor is it required to provide Members an opportunity to receive enhanced rebates. The Exchange believes its proposal to eliminate this tier is also equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it applies to all Members (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the tier will not be available for any Member). The Exchange also notes that the proposed rule change to remove this tier merely results in Members not receiving an enhanced rebate, which, as noted above, the Exchange is not required to offer or maintain. Furthermore, the proposed rule change to eliminate the tier enables the Exchange to redirect resources and funding into other programs and tiers intended to incentivize increased order flow.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Rather, as discussed above, the Exchange believes that the proposed change would encourage the submission of additional order flow to a public exchange, thereby promoting market depth, execution incentives and enhanced execution opportunities, as well as price discovery and transparency for all Members. As a result, the Exchange believes that the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58663"/>
                    proposed changes further the Commission's goal in adopting Regulation NMS of fostering competition among orders, which promotes “more efficient pricing of individual stocks for all types of orders, large and small.”
                </P>
                <P>The Exchange believes the proposed rule changes do not impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Particularly, the proposed modified Add/Remove Volume Tiers and modified Non-Displayed Tier will apply to all Members equally in that all Members are eligible for the tiers and reduced fees, have a reasonable opportunity to meet the proposed tiers' criteria and will receive the reduced fee on their qualifying orders if such criteria is met. The Exchange does not believe the proposed changes burden competition, but rather, enhance competition as they are intended to increase the competitiveness of BYX by amending existing pricing incentives in order to attract order flow and incentivize participants to increase their participation on the Exchange, providing for additional execution opportunities for market participants and improved price transparency. Greater overall order flow, trading opportunities, and pricing transparency benefits all market participants on the Exchange by enhancing market quality and continuing to encourage Members to send orders, thereby contributing towards a robust and well-balanced market ecosystem.</P>
                <P>Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed elimination of the current Routing Tier does not impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Specifically, the proposed change to eliminate the current Routing Tier will not impose any burden on intramarket competition because the changes apply to all Members uniformly, as in, the tier will no longer be available to any Member.</P>
                <P>
                    Next, the Exchange believes the proposed rule changes does not impose any burden on intermarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. As previously discussed, the Exchange operates in a highly competitive market. Members have numerous alternative venues that they may participate on and direct their order flow, including other equities exchanges, off-exchange venues, and alternative trading systems. Additionally, the Exchange represents a small percentage of the overall market. Based on publicly available information, no single equities exchange has more than 15% of the market share.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, no exchange possesses significant pricing power in the execution of order flow. Indeed, participants can readily choose to send their orders to other exchange and off-exchange venues if they deem fee levels at those other venues to be more favorable. Moreover, the Commission has repeatedly expressed its preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. Specifically, in Regulation NMS, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.” 
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The fact that this market is competitive has also long been recognized by the courts. In NetCoalition v. Securities and Exchange Commission, the D.C. Circuit stated as follows: “[n]o one disputes that competition for order flow is `fierce.' . . . As the SEC explained, `[i]n the U.S. national market system, buyers and sellers of securities, and the broker-dealers that act as their order-routing agents, have a wide range of choices of where to route orders for execution'; [and] `no exchange can afford to take its market share percentages for granted' because `no exchange possesses a monopoly, regulatory or otherwise, in the execution of order flow from broker dealers'. . . .”.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe its proposed fee change imposes any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Supra</E>
                         note 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 51808 (June 9, 2005), 70 FR 37496, 37499 (June 29, 2005).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         NetCoalition v. SEC, 615 F.3d 525, 539 (D.C. Cir. 2010) (quoting Securities Exchange Act Release No. 59039 (December 2, 2008), 73 FR 74770, 74782-83 (December 9, 2008) (SR-NYSEArca-2006-21)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received from Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and paragraph (f) of Rule 19b-4 
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder. At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission will institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-CboeBYX-2025-034 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-CboeBYX-2025-034. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-CboeBYX-2025-034 and should be submitted on or before January 7, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58664"/>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23069 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-104389; File No. SR-OCC-2025-017]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; the Options Clearing Corporation; Notice of Filing of Partial Amendment No. 1 and Order Granting Accelerated Approval of Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Partial Amendment No. 1, by the Options Clearing Corporation Concerning Adjustments to Cleared Contracts</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>December 12, 2025.</DATE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    On September 26, 2025, the Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change SR-OCC-2025-017, pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder, to revise and reorganize its rules pertaining to options contract adjustments.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed rule change was published for public comment in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on October 1, 2025.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On November 3, 2025, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Exchange Act,
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Commission designated a longer period within which to approve, disapprove, or institute proceedings to determine whether to approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, until December 30, 2025.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On December 5, 2025, OCC partially amended SR-OCC-2025-017 to (1) correct proposed rule text describing the current composition and governance of OCC's Securities Committee, as approved by the Commission in a prior proposed rule change; 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and (2) conform cross references found elsewhere in OCC's rules to the restatement of the contract adjustment rules proposed in the Notice of Filing (“Partial Amendment No. 1”).
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission has received no comments regarding the proposed rule change. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on Partial Amendment No. 1 from interested persons, and, for the reasons discussed below, is approving the proposed rule change as modified by Partial Amendment No. 1 (hereinafter defined as the “Proposed Rule Change”).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing 
                        <E T="03">infra</E>
                         note 4, at 90 FR 47470.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Exchange Act Release No. 104104 (Sept. 26, 2025), 90 FR 47470 (Oct. 1, 2025) (File No. SR-OCC-2025-017) (“Notice of Filing”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Exchange Act Release No. 104173 (Nov. 3, 2025), 90 FR 51424 (Nov. 17, 2025) (File No. SR-OCC-2025-017).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Exchange Act Release No. 93102 (Sept. 22, 2021), 86 FR 53718 (Sept. 28, 2021) (SR-OCC-2021-007).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Partial Amendment No. 1 consists of (1) updated rule text to clarify that the Notice of Filing did not intend to implement a change to the governance arrangement or composition of the Securities Committee, as described in current By-Laws; and (2) Exhibit 5, showing updated interpretive guidance to accurately reflect cross-references. Partial Amendment No. 1 does not change the purpose of or basis for SR-OCC-2025-017.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    OCC is a central counterparty (“CCP”), which means that, as part of its function as a clearing agency, it interposes itself as the buyer to every seller and the seller to every buyer for certain financial transactions. As the CCP for the listed options markets in the United States,
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     as well as for certain futures and stock loans, OCC has certain processing obligations during the life of the products it clears. For example, it may be necessary for OCC to adjust the terms of a contract it has cleared. A contract adjustment refers to the modification of terms of an overlying derivative, like the options that are cleared and settled by OCC, in response to certain corporate actions that affect an underlying security—such as declaration of dividends or distributions, stock splits, rights offerings, reorganizations, or the merger or liquidation of an issuer.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OCC states that it makes adjustments to maintain the economic value of existing positions by mirroring what occurs to the underlying security using determinative factors on a case-by-case basis.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Currently, OCC has broad authority to effect contract adjustments and, typically, makes a determination based on (a) fairness to holders and writers (or purchasers and sellers) of the affected contracts; (b) the maintenance of a fair and orderly market in the affected contracts; (c) consistency of interpretation and practice; (d) efficiency of exercise settlement procedures; and (e) the coordination with other clearing agencies of the clearance and settlement of transactions in the underlying interest.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         OCC describes itself as “the sole clearing agency for standardized equity options listed on a national securities exchange registered with the Commission (`listed options').” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Exchange Act Release No. 96533 (Dec. 19, 2022), 87 FR 79015 (Dec. 23, 2022) (File No. SR-OCC-2022-012).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47471.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         (“The future occurrence of corporate actions is not always foreseeable at the time parties enter a derivatives trade, and therefore the occurrence of such a corporate action is not priced into the economics of the trade. Because derivative contract positions of trading parties may exist for weeks, months or years after the position was established, corporate actions may occur during the life of the contract that affect the economic position of the parties.”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         OCC also maintains a Securities Committee, consisting of one designated representative of each Securities Exchange and OCC's Chief Executive Officer. This Securities Committee is authorized to adopt statements of policy or interpretations having general application to specified types of events or OCC cleared contracts to help guide adjustment policy for new or unusual situations, as needed. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As part of its contract adjustment risk management, OCC proposes to (1) adopt rules reflecting OCC's current practices in making adjustment determinations; and (2) relocate, consolidate, and update references to adjustment-related provisions within its By-Laws and Rules.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Regarding substantive revisions, OCC proposes to codify within its Rules the current practices related to adjustment determinations (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     by specifying additional circumstances when OCC will generally not make an adjustment or specifying additional factors guiding adjustment determinations).
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As to the non-substantive reorganization of adjustment-related provisions, OCC proposes to (i) relocate OCC's existing provisions from its By-Laws to the new Chapter XXVIII of the Rules, which would encompass Rules 2801 through 2805; 
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (ii) consolidate provisions regarding OCC's adjustment authority and practices for actively traded products with similar methods of adjustments 
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to eliminate duplicative provisions (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     consolidating provisions for adjustments to stock futures and stock options); and (iii) update references to current adjustment By-Laws sections contained in other adjustment provisions of the By-Laws for products not actively traded, and with regard to governance provisions for amendments to Rules and By-Laws. The 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58665"/>
                    proposed changes are described in more detail below.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47470.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47481-84.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         OCC also proposes certain non-substantive clarifying changes to the relocated language.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         OCC does not propose consolidating By-Law provisions into the Rules for products that do not currently trade. Specifically, Article XIV, Sections 3A and 3B (Adjustments for Binary Options), Article XV, Section 4 (Adjustments for Foreign Currency Options), Article XVI, Section 3 (Adjustments for Yield-Based Treasury Options), Article XXIV, Section 4 (Adjustments for BOUNDS), and Article XXVI (Adjustments for Packaged Spread Options) will remain in the By-Laws with updates to reflect references to other adjustment provisions relocated to OCC's Rules.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Codification of Current Practices</HD>
                <P>
                    OCC represents that the proposed provisions concerning its adjustment process result from and reflect longstanding practices that OCC developed under its existing adjustment authority but that have not been codified as rules.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OCC maintains that this codification is meant to provide more detail, transparency, and clarity around its adjustment process.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The provisions codifying OCC's current adjustment practices would be written into Chapter XXVIII of the Rules and are discussed at greater length below.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47481. To illustrate such longstanding practices, OCC points to past guidance that has been publicly released in the form of Information Memos. 
                        <E T="03">See generally</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47481-47483.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Applicability to Specific Types of Contracts</HD>
                <P>
                    Rule 2802(a)(1) would add a list of the types of cleared instruments for which OCC's Securities Committee may adopt statements of policy or interpretations regarding adjustments. The types of cleared instruments would be stock option contracts, Treasury securities option contracts, yield-based Treasury option contracts, debt securities option contracts, index option contracts, or other cash-settled option contracts. OCC states that listing the types of instruments would provide increased specificity.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47472-73.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Clarification of the Securities Committee's Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    Rule 2802(a)(2) would leave intact the composition and governance of the Securities Committee, but would update the description of its authority. The proposed language of Rule 2802(a)(2) would reflect almost all of the current text of Section 11(c) of Article VI of the By-Laws. However, the Proposed Rule Change would modify the applicable title from “Adjustment Policies and Procedures,” as is written in Section 11 of Article VI of the By-Laws, to “Statements of Adjustment Policies and Interpretations,” which would be the title for Rule 2802. Additionally, Rule 2802(a)(2) would delete text that describes the Securities Committee's authority as being able to “make certain determinations with respect to cleared contracts” and replace this language with “adopt statements of policy or interpretations” related to contract adjustments. OCC states that the proposed changes would more accurately describe the Securities Committee's authority and clarify that the Securities Committee's function is to issue such statements.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47473.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Events Not Ordinarily Resulting in Contract Adjustment</HD>
                <P>
                    OCC currently specifies the types of events not ordinarily resulting in a contract adjustment under Section 11A of Article VI of the By-Laws and would continue to do so under proposed Rule 2803(c). However, OCC proposes new subprovisions describing additional situations that would not result in contract adjustments regardless of the manner of payment. Rule 2803(c)(1)(iii)(B) would specify that a stock dividend or distribution by the issuer of the underlying security that is paid in lieu of a cash dividend or distribution that itself would have been an ordinary distribution would be considered an “ordinary” dividend or distribution and, therefore, would not ordinarily result in a contract adjustment.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Similarly, Rule 2803(c)(3)(v) would state that adjustments generally will not be made where a dividend or distribution is determined to be ordinary regardless of whether it is subject to a shareholder election regarding the form in which it will be paid, such as cash or stock. OCC asserts that these codifications are consistent with current rules as to what types of events are eligible for adjustment and that, generally, the determination of whether a dividend or distribution is considered ordinary will control whether OCC will make an adjustment, regardless of the form such dividends or distributions take.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         Generally, OCC will not make an adjustment to an options or futures contract with respect to ordinary dividends or distributions that are routinely made by the issuer because ordinary dividends or distributions may be factored into the economic expectations of the parties to an options or futures contract even though the event has not yet been formally announced or declared. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47471.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47481.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Likewise, Rule 2803(c)(3)(iv) would state that a distribution of non-transferrable property would be considered an event not ordinarily resulting in an adjustment. OCC asserts that, because distributions of non-transferable property cannot be traded on a national market or transferred through the facilities of a central securities depository clearing agency, there is no practical means to ascertain the trading price to provide a value, or to facilitate delivery of non-transferable distributions in fulfilment of option exercises and assignments.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OCC maintains that proposed Rule 2803(c)(3)(iv) reflects past practice and that OCC would, nevertheless, retain general authority to make adjustments to non-transferable property on a case-by-case where necessary.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47483.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Cash in Lieu of Fractional Entitlements</HD>
                <P>
                    The Proposed Rule Change would address adjustments in the context of cash in lieu of fractional entititlements.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     First, OCC proposes a clarification related to cash in lieu of fractional entitlements, which would be added at the end of Rule 2803(c)(2). Currently, OCC generally will not make an adjustment to a stock option contract for any cash dividend or distribution by the issuer of the underlying security if such dividend or distribution is less than $0.125 per share. OCC indicates that this general practice would not change.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     However, OCC would codify in a new, final sentence of Rule 2803(c)(2) that, this general rule would not apply to contract adjustment determinations involving cash paid in lieu of fractional share entitlements for a stock option contract (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     in respect of stock rights, contingent value rights, or other distributions). OCC states that this proposed text is consistent with longstanding practices and is necessary to clarify that adjustments in lieu of property are governed by other provisions of proposed Rule 2803.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47481-82. For example, OCC states that “[i]n certain circumstances, the terms of a corporate action on an underlying security of an option may result in a fractional entitlement per 100 shares of stock for which cash will be paid in lieu of the fractional shares. In such situations, a contract adjustment that is effective on the option in response to the corporate action on the underlying security may result in an adjusted option deliverable that includes a cash component in lieu of fractional shares.” Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47481.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47482.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Secondly, Rule 2803(k) would provide that cash amounts in lieu of fractional share entitlements included in adjusted deliverables will generally be made in a manner consistent with any determinations by a central securities depository clearing agency (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     Depository Trust Company). OCC represents that Rule 2803(k) would reflect an established practice and clarify that, where a stock dividend or distribution by an issuer involves some cash amount in lieu of fractional share entitlements and OCC determines that an adjustment is necessary pursuant to its By-Laws and Rules, OCC will generally seek to align its distribution with the approach taken by the central 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58666"/>
                    securities depository clearing agency so that an option's adjusted deliverable resulting from a corporate action reflects the amount of cash paid in lieu of fractional shares that the holder of 100 shares of the underlying security receives from the corporate action.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OCC notes that because it cannot facilitate settlement of fractional shares, it may be necessary for OCC, in rare circumstances, to independently determine a cash in lieu price for fractional shares because of the terms of the underlying corporate action.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OCC states that in such uncommon cases, Rule 2803(k) would work in conjunction with Rule 2803(j) in determining the cash value of any distributed property.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47481-82. OCC cited to past Information Memos #54176, #36262, and #20861 as examples where adjustments were made after the cash-in-lieu price was available from the central securities depository clearing agency. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         As an example, OCC pointed to Information Memo #23267, writing that “on July 13, 2007, options on CBOT Holdings, Inc. (“BOT”) were adjusted to reflect the merger between BOT and CME Group Inc. (“CME”). Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47482.The adjusted options deliverable became (1) 37 CME Group Inc. (“CME”) Common Shares and (2) cash in lieu of .5 fractional CME shares. However, pursuant to the terms of the corporate action, CME issued fractional shares instead of paying cash in lieu of fractional shares. Because OCC cannot facilitate settlement of fractional shares, it was determined that the closing price from the day prior to the consummation of the merger would be used to determine the cash-in-lieu amount.”) 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    OCC would retain its authority to determine the value of distributed property with respect to any adjustments, as currently laid out in Section 11A(e) of Article VI and the last sentence of Section 3(e) of Article XII of the By-Laws, and proposed to be consolidated and moved to Rule 2803(j). However, OCC proposes to add a second sentence to Rule 2803(j), explicitly providing that it may use this authority in circumstances that include but are not limited to cases in which OCC determines that the final amount or distribution resulting from a corporate action may not be determined for a long period. OCC maintains that the additional text would clarify that OCC would consider using its authority to determine the value of distributed property when OCC expects that it may take a long period of time to determine the final amount of a distribution resulting from a corporate action.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OCC states that if a lengthy delay to determine the distributed property value is expected, options or stock futures contracts may expire or mature prior to the time when the value is determined, which would leave such contract holders uncertain about the value of their position, and their positions subject to delayed settlement for an extended period of time.
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In such situations, OCC represents that it is appropriate to use its existing authority to determine the cash value of distributed property.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47483.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         As an example, OCC points to Information Memo #39462, which discussed the adjustment of options on Winthrop Realty Trust (“FUR”) on August 8, 2016, in response to the liquidation of the underlying security. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         OCC states that “assets and liabilities of the trust were transferred to a liquidating trust, and each FUR share would be converted into a nontransferable Unit of Beneficial Interest in the liquidating trust. Since the timing and amount of any liquidating distributions were unknown and because the Unit of Beneficial Interest could not be transferred, the adjustment determination was made to set a cash value equivalent for FUR Shares using a high and low price from the last day of trading, thereby allowing settlement to occur in a timely manner.” 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Other Scenarios Affecting Adjustments</HD>
                <P>
                    Rule 2803(i) would provide that the deliverable resulting from an adjustment in the case of an election merger or similar event involving shareolder elections, such as shareholder election of a non-ordinary dividend, will generally be based on the consideration accruing to a non-electing shareholder if OCC determines in its sole discretion that it is readily able to facilitate delivery of that consideration. OCC states that this provision makes explicit a longstanding practice and provides additional details regarding corporate action events involving shareholder elections to reflect, to the extent possible, what a shareholder who does not make an election will receive.
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OCC represents that there may be circumstances where it is not possible to determine an adjustment that aligns with the interest of a non-electing shareholder.
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47482.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47482, n. 24.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    OCC proposes to add Rule 2803(l), which would provide that, in general, all contract adjustments will be made net of any relevant foreign withholding taxes, with the exception of events for which local tax authorities issue rulings that exempt certain groups from the withholding tax and it is reasonable that U.S. investors collectively can be included in such groups. OCC maintains that Rule 2803(l) clarifies to market participants that OCC's contract adjustments will ordinarily include foreign withholding taxes, unless there is an exception from local tax authorities in the foreign jurisdiction of which OCC reasonably believes U.S. investors could avail themselves.
                    <SU>36</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Additionally, OCC represents that it routinely investigates withholding tax information on foreign securities and intends to adjust options taking withholding tax into account in the manner described above when such information is readily available.
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47483.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Rule 2803(m) would provide that all contract adjustments will be made on a per contract basis. OCC states that Rule 2803(m) would improve the clarity and consistency of its Rules by explicitly describing the practice of exercising and assigning options based on a single contract as the lowest possible holding of an option.
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OCC maintains that this existing practice is required for the proper functioning of the exercise and assignment process.
                    <SU>39</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47483-84.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Non-Substantive Reorganization of Adjustment-Related Provisions</HD>
                <P>
                    As stated above, OCC proposes to rearrange adjustment-related provisions in its By-Laws and Rules.
                    <SU>40</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Proposed Rule Change would (i) relocate OCC's existing adjustment-related provisions from its By-Laws to proposed Chapter XXVIII of the Rules, while making certain non-substantive clarifying changes to the relocated language; (ii) consolidate provisions regarding OCC's adjustment authority and practices for actively traded products with similar methods of adjustments 
                    <SU>41</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to eliminate duplicative provisions (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     consolidating provisions for adjustments to stock futures and stock options); and (iii) update references to current adjustment By-Laws sections contained in other adjustment provisions of the By-Laws for products not actively traded, and with regard to governance provisions for amendments to Rules and By-Laws.
                    <SU>42</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47470.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>41</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 16.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47470.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Relocation</HD>
                <P>
                    Provisions related to adjustments of contracts currently are set forth in various parts of OCC's By-Laws, including, for example, in Article VI, Section 11 and 11A, covering options contract adjustments, and in Article XII, Sections 3, 4, and 4A, covering futures contracts and futures options adjustments. The Proposed Rule Change would relocate these adjustment-related provisions from the By-Laws to a single location in OCC's Rules, the newly numbered Chapter XXVIII. OCC also proposes to make clarifying edits to certain text in these provisions, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58667"/>
                    including where the language pertaining to different instruments is similar.
                    <SU>43</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposal would update cross-references to corresponding Rules, as well as add italicized headers to most of the paragraphs and subparagraphs in Chapter XXVIII of the Rules to provide a brief preview and description of the provisions. OCC states that this relocation will improve readability, promote clarity and consistency, and increase understanding of the process governing adjustments for all instruments.
                    <SU>44</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Additionally, OCC represents that these adjustment-related provisions are more appropriately organized as Rules, rather than By-Laws, because the relocation would more accurately reflect typical corporate bylaws, which usually focus on governance and administrative matters of an entity, such as OCC.
                    <SU>45</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>43</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47472 (“[. . .] 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         where OCC's adjustment determinations are the same for options contracts and futures contracts.”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47471-72. OCC represents that “when OCC makes a determination to adjust an options or futures contract, all market participants holding options or futures contracts are uniformly subject to OCC's adjustment determination.” Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47471.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>45</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47471, n. 10.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Chapter XXVIII would be divided into five rules, numbering from 2801 to 2805. A summary of each rule follows, while further details and comparative charts are available in the Notice of Filing.
                    <SU>46</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Other than those changes described above in Section II.A., OCC is not proposing to make substantive changes to the rules that it propose to move. Rule 2801 would describe how OCC makes adjustment determinations, including the factors 
                    <SU>47</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     it takes into account in making these determinations, and would include the provision that every adjustment determination shall be within OCC's sole discretion and shall be conclusive and binding on all investors, and not subject to review. Rule 2802 primarily would discuss the Securities Committee's authority to adopt statements of policies and interpretations regarding contract adjustments, as well as its composition and governance. Rule 2803 would comprise provisions governing the details of the adjustments, including the subprovision stating that when a corporate action impacts an underlying security, OCC may adjust any or a combination of the following regarding all outstanding stock option contracts and stock futures in the underlying security: (1) the number of shares; (2) the unit of trading in the case of an options contract or the unit of trading (or settlement price) in the case of a stock future; (3) the exercise price in the case of an options contact; and (4) the underlying security. Rule 2803 also would identify events ordinarily and not ordinarily resulting in a contract adjustment, in addition to providing for other types of scenarios affecting adjustments, including the timing of cash value determinations and the determination of cash amounts in lieu of fractional share entitlements. Rule 2804 would pertain to the adjustment of index options and futures and certain other cash-settled options and futures. Rule 2805 would cover the adjustment of cash-settled foreign currency options and futures.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>46</SU>
                         See Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47471-47480.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>47</SU>
                         No substantive changes are being proposed to these factors, which are (i) fairness to holders and writers (or purchasers and sellers) of the affected contracts; (ii) the maintenance of a fair and orderly market in the affected contracts; (iii) consistency of interpretation and practice; (iv) efficiency of exercise settlement procedures; and (v) the coordination with other clearing agencies of the clearance and settlement of transactions in the underlying interest.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Consolidation</HD>
                <P>
                    Currently, the provisions related to contract adjustments for various types of instruments cleared by OCC are dispersed throughout the By-Laws, including, for example, those covering options contracts in Article VI; futures, futures options, and commodity options in Article XII; index options and certain other cash-settled options in Article XVII; and cash-settled foreign currency options in Article XXII. OCC represents that these adjustment-related provisions often are substantially similar or identical to one another.
                    <SU>48</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     To streamline these adjustment-related provisions currently found in the By-Laws, OCC proposes to consolidate their relevant text into Chapter XXVIII of the Rules, while ensuring the terminology applies to the specific product.
                    <SU>49</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For instance, proposed Rule 2803(h) would account for the fact that options contracts involve an exercise price while a stock future involves a settlement price. Accordingly, where OCC proposes to integrate text about stock futures into existing language in an options-related adjustment provision, OCC proposes to add a reference to a stock future's settlement price where the current provision references an exercise price.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>48</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47480-81 (“For example, Section 11(a) of Article VI of the By-Laws (regarding options), Section 3(b) of Article XII of the By-Laws (regarding futures), and Section 3(b) of Article XVII (regarding index options and certain other cash-settled options) each provide, among other things, that OCC shall determine whether to make adjustments to reflect particular events in respect of an underlying interest based on OCC's judgment as to what is appropriate for the protection of investors and the public interest, taking into account such factors as fairness to holders and writers (or purchasers and sellers) of the instruments, the maintenance of a fair and orderly market in the affected contracts, and consistency of interpretation and practice.”). 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47481, n. 13 (“The adjustment provisions for options contracts and futures contracts also specify two additional criteria to be considered: (i) the efficiency of exercise settlement procedures and (ii) the coordination with other clearing agencies of the clearance and settlement of transactions in the underlying interest. OCC proposes that all instruments would be subject to these two additional criteria pursuant to proposed Rule 2801, which OCC believes are also potentially relevant considerations for determining adjustments for index options and certain other cash-settled options.”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>49</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47481.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Updated References</HD>
                <P>
                    In light of the relocation and consolidation discussed above in Sections II.B.1.-2., OCC proposes to make non-substantive updates to adjustment-related references in the Rules and By-Laws. Certain provisions in OCC's By-Laws discuss products that are not actively traded and their related contract adjustments. Currently, these provisions state that, generally, adjustments for inactive products will be governed by Sections 11 and 11A of Article VI of the By-Laws or, in the case of Packaged Spread Options, Section 3 of Article XVII of the By-Laws. Since the Proposed Rule Change would relocate these adjustment-related provisions from the By-Laws to the Rules, cross-references to inactive products and their contract adjustments would be updated to correspond to the applicable provisions in Chapter XXVIII of the Rules. Specific modifications would cover cross-references to binary options and trade options, foreign currency options, yield-based Treasury options, BOUNDS, and packaged spread options.
                    <SU>50</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OCC represents that even though these proposed changes are not substantive, they are necessary to ensure consistency in the Rules.
                    <SU>51</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>50</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47484, for additional detail.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>51</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Filing, 90 FR at 47484.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Additionally, Article XI, Section 1 of the By-Laws states that amendment to certain provisions of the By-Laws, including Sections 11 and 11A of Article VI, requires approval of the holders of all outstanding Common Stock of OCC. However, OCC proposes to relocate the text of Sections 11 and 11A of Article VI of the By Laws to the Rules. As such, the Proposed Rule Change would add language to Section 2 of Article XI of the By-Laws cross-referencing the Rules and specifying that Chapter XXVIII of the Rules may not be amended by action of the Board of Directors without the approval of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58668"/>
                    holders of all OCC outstanding common stock.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion and Commission Findings</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 19(b)(2)(C) of the Exchange Act directs the Commission to approve a proposed rule change of a self-regulatory organization if it finds that such proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to such organization.
                    <SU>52</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Under the Commission's Rules of Practice, the “burden to demonstrate that a proposed rule change is consistent with the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations issued thereunder . . . is on the self-regulatory organization [`SRO'] that proposed the rule change.” 
                    <SU>53</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>52</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(C).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>53</SU>
                         Rule 700(b)(3), Commission Rules of Practice, 17 CFR 201.700(b)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The description of a proposed rule change, its purpose and operation, its effect, and a legal analysis of its consistency with applicable requirements must all be sufficiently detailed and specific to support an affirmative Commission finding,
                    <SU>54</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and any failure of an SRO to provide this information may result in the Commission not having a sufficient basis to make an affirmative finding that a proposed rule change is consistent with the Exchange Act and the applicable rules and regulations.
                    <SU>55</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Moreover, “unquestioning reliance” on an SRO's representations in a proposed rule change is not sufficient to justify Commission approval of a proposed rule change.
                    <SU>56</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>54</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>55</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>56</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Susquehanna Int'l Group, LLP</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Securities and Exchange Commission,</E>
                         866 F.3d 442, 447 (D.C. Cir. 2017).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    After carefully considering the Proposed Rule Change, the Commission finds that the Proposed Rule Change is consistent with the requirements of the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to OCC. More specifically, the Commission finds that the Proposed Rule Change is consistent with Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Exchange Act,
                    <SU>57</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and with Exchange Act Rule 17ad-22(e)(21) 
                    <SU>58</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     as described in detail below.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>57</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)(3)(F).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>58</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17ad-22(e)(21).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Consistency With Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Exchange Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Exchange Act requires, among other things, that a clearing agency's rules are designed to “promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions and, to the extent applicable, derivatives agreements, contracts, and transactions.” 
                    <SU>59</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Based on the Commission's review of the record, and for the reasons described below, the changes described above are consistent Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Exchange Act.
                    <SU>60</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>59</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)(3)(F).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>60</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As discussed above, the proposed changes would codify in OCC's Rules certain longstanding adjustment practices that previously had been outlined in non-consecutive, sporadically released Information Memos. These practices, although found in separate guidance documents, describe specific situations where OCC used a consistent process to make contract adjustments to preserve the economic value of the affected instruments. By transfering these practices out of guidance and codifying them as Rules, the Proposed Rule Change helps strengthen the practices' application to and impact on the instruments OCC clears and settles, and, as such, to promote the prompt and accurate settlement of such transactions. Additionally, the remaining adjustment-related text would be consolidated and relocated from OCC's By-Laws to a single location in OCC's Rules, leaving intact the factors behind adjustment determinations, detailed procedures for stock adjustments in cases of corporate actions affecting underlying stocks, and events ordinarily and not ordinarily resulting in contract adjustments, among other substantive provisions. Thus the existing adjustment process would remain unchanged, continuing to promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of transactions.</P>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, the Proposed Rule Change is consistent with the requirements of Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Exchange Act.
                    <SU>61</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>61</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Consistency With Rule 17ad-22(e)(21) Under the Exchange Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Rule 17ad-22(e)(21) under the Exchange Act requires, in part, that a covered clearing agency establish, implement, maintain, and enforce written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to be efficient and effective in meeting the requirements of its participants and the markets it serves.
                    <SU>62</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>62</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.17ad-22(e)(21).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As described above, OCC proposes to codify longstanding practices related to its contract adjustment process and reorganize adjustment-related provisions into a single chapter in the Rules, while consolidating similarly worded provisions and updating cross-references. The proposed Chapter XXVIII, which contains Rules 2801 through 2805, would list specific types of instruments subject to the adjustment-related rules; clarify the Securities Committee's authority; outline additional events not ordinarily resulting in contract adjustment; describe in greater detail the adjustment process concerning cash in lieu of fractional entitlements; and state in writing the adjustment practices related to election mergers, foreign withholding taxes, and per-contract basis treatment. The Proposed Rule Change also would relocate adjustment-related provisions from the By-Laws to the Rules, consolidate substantially similar or identical language from separately laid out provisions, and update cross-references to adjustment-related provisions across the Rules and By-Laws.</P>
                <P>
                    The Proposed Rule Change is consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(21) 
                    <SU>63</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     because it is designed as a continuation of established and publicly released practices related to contract adjustment. By codifying longstanding processes, as previously described in public but disparately released Information Memos, the Proposed Rule Change helps clarify such processes and bolster their impact as OCC Rules governing the adjustment process. This clarity and impact, in turn, leads to more effectiveness in meeting the requirements of OCC's participants, specifically, their need to understand the details behind the contract adjustment determinations by which they are bound. Similarly, the non-substantive reorganization of adjustment-related provisions streamlines substantially similar or identical text into a single location, and better reflects the typical scope and purpose of an entity's corporate by-laws. As a result, the non-substantive re-organization helps to increase the consistency, readability, and, thus, the efficiency of OCC's Rules and By-Laws.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>63</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, the Proposed Rule Change is consistent with Rule 17ad-22(e)(21) under the Exchange Act.
                    <SU>64</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>64</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments on Partial Amendment No. 1 to the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58669"/>
                    change, as modified by Partial Amendment No. 1, is consistent with the Exchange Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-OCC-2025-017  on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-OCC-2025-017. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method of submission. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">http://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-OCC-2025-017 and should be submitted on or before January 7, 2026.
                </FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Accelerated Approval of Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Partial Amendment No. 1</HD>
                <P>
                    The Commission finds good cause, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Exchange Act,
                    <SU>65</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to approve the proposed rule change prior to the 30th day after the date of publication of notice of the filing of Partial Amendment No. 1 in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . As discussed above, Partial Amendment No. 1 modified the original proposed rule change to (1) correct proposed rule text describing the current composition and governance of OCC's Securities Committee; 
                    <SU>66</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and (2) conform cross references in OCC's interpretive guidance to the restatement of the contract adjustment rules proposed in the Notice of Filing. Partial Amendment No. 1 does not change the purpose of or basis for the proposed changes.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>65</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>66</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Exchange Act Release No. 93102 (Sept. 22, 2021), 86 FR 53718 (Sept. 28, 2021) (SR-OCC-2021-007).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For similar reasons as discussed above, the Commission finds that Partial Amendment No. 1 is consistent with the requirement that OCC's rules be designed to promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions under Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Exchange Act.
                    <SU>67</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, the Commission finds good cause, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Exchange Act, to approve the proposed rule change, as modified by Partial Amendment No. 1, on an accelerated basis, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Exchange Act.
                    <SU>68</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>67</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)(3)(F).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>68</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Conclusion</HD>
                <P>
                    On the basis of the foregoing, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change, as modified by Partial Amendment No. 1, is consistent with the requirements of the Exchange Act, and in particular, the requirements of Section 17A of the Exchange Act 
                    <SU>69</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the rules and regulations thereunder.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>69</SU>
                         In approving the Proposed Rule Change, the Commission has considered the proposed rules' impact on efficiency, competition, and capital formation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         15 U.S.C. 78c(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">It is therefore ordered,</E>
                     pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Exchange Act,
                    <SU>70</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that the proposed rule change (SR-OCC-2025-017), as modified by Partial Amendment No. 1, be, and hereby is, approved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>70</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>71</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>71</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23077 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-104385; File No. SR-NYSE-2025-43]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Section 802.01C of the NYSE Listed Company Manual</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>December 12, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that, on December 3, 2025, New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the self-regulatory organization. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78a.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Section 802.01C of the NYSE Listed Company Manual (the “Manual”) to establish that an issuer must maintain a minimum trading price per share in order to remain listed on the Exchange. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com,</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 802.01 of the Manual sets forth minimum quantitative and qualitative continued listing standards for securities listed on the Exchange. Issuers of common stock are required to maintain certain quantitative minimum standards related to stockholders,
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     stockholders' equity and global market capitalization,
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and minimum global market capitalization.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, Section 802.01D of the Manual also sets forth qualitative continued listing standards related to, among other things, reduction in operating assets, change in primary business focus and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58670"/>
                    conduct not in keeping with sound public policy.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         See Section 802.01A of the Manual.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         See Section 802.01B of the Manual.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         See Section 1003(c) of the Company Guide [sic].
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>While the Exchange believes that its existing rules provide meaningful assurance that only financially sound and quality issuers remain listed on the Exchange, it has noticed a recent increase in companies trading on public markets that have a very low trading price per share. The Exchange believes that an issuer having this characteristic is potentially susceptible to manipulation and more likely to experience trading volatility in its shares. As such, the Exchange now proposes to amend Section 802.01C to specify that an issuer must maintain a certain minimum trading price per share in order to remain listed on the Exchange.</P>
                <P>Section 802.01C of the Manual states that a company will be considered to be below compliance standards if the average closing price of a security as reported on the consolidated tape is less than $1.00 over a consecutive 30 trading-day period (the “Price Criteria”). Once notified of its noncompliance with the Price Criteria, a company must bring its share price and average share price back above $1.00 by six months following receipt of the notification. A company must notify the Exchange of its intent to cure the Price Criteria deficiency and can regain compliance at any time during the six-month cure period if on the last trading day of any calendar month during the cure period the company has a closing share price of at least $1.00 and an average closing share price of at least $1.00 over the 30 trading-day period ending on the last trading day of that month. In the event that at the expiration of the six-month cure period, both a $1.00 closing share price on the last trading day of the cure period and a $1.00 average closing share price over the 30 trading-day period ending on the last trading day of the cure period are not attained, the Exchange will commence suspension and delisting procedures.</P>
                <P>The Exchange maintains an ongoing dialogue with companies approaching noncompliance with the Price Criteria as well as companies working through a cure period. Regardless of where an issuer stands in its cure period, in the event that a stock trades below $0.10 per share, the Exchange promptly initiates suspension and delisting procedures. Recently, the Exchange has become aware of an increasing industry-wide trend of low-priced stocks trading on national securities exchanges. The Exchange believes that low priced stocks have a greater chance of being manipulated or experiencing trading volatility. Accordingly, the Exchange believes it is appropriate to establish a minimum trading price for a security to remain listed on the Exchange.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Section 802.01C of the Manual to specify that if a security's close price per share is less than $0.25 (the “Minimum Trading Price”) on any trading day, the Exchange will immediately suspend trading and commence delisting proceedings. In the Exchange's experience securities that trade at abnormally low prices are typically unable to recover to any meaningful degree. Accordingly, the Exchange proposes to specify in Section 802.01C that a security that closes below the Minimum Trading Price will not be entitled to submit a plan to regain compliance pursuant to Sections 802.02 and 802.03 of the Company Guide. The Exchange proposes to make this change effective October 1, 2026. Providing a transition period before the rule is effective will afford issuers time to implement reverse stock splits to increase their share price before the new requirement is in place. The Exchange notes that its rules prohibiting one or more reverse stock splits with a cumulative ratio of 200 shares or more to one in a two-year period will remain in place.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         See Section 1003(f)(vi) of the Company Guide [sic].
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange also proposes to clarify that, consistent with its general authority under Section 802.1D of the Manual to suspend trading in the event of any condition that makes further dealings on the Exchange inadvisable or unwarranted, it may suspend trading in a security that has experienced a precipitous decline and is at an abnormally low level even if such security has not fallen below the Minimum Trading Price at the market close. In the Exchange's experience, under those conditions a security's trading price is generally unable to recover and it is appropriate for the Exchange to take action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) generally 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and in general to protect investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In particular, the Exchange believes that establishing a Minimum Trading Price for securities listed on the Exchange is designed to protect investors and the public interest and to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because the Exchange believes that companies with a very low price per share are more susceptible to trading volatility and market manipulation. By adopting clear standards that prohibit such companies from remaining listed on the Exchange, the Exchange is therefore protecting investors and the public interest.</P>
                <P>As discussed above, the Exchange believes that securities that trade below the Minimum Trading Price are more susceptible to trading volatility and market manipulation. The Exchange believes it is appropriate to establish a clear continued listing standard in this regard to limit the likelihood of problematic trading and provide clarity to listed issuers. Further, the Exchange believes it is appropriate to provide issuers with a transition period before effectiveness of the Minimum Trading Price requirement to afford time to implement a reverse stock split in anticipation of the new requirement.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed amendment would establish a minimum trading price standard for issuers listed on the Exchange. The Exchange believes that securities that trade at very low prices are more likely to experience trading volatility and potentially be the subject of manipulation. The Exchange believes it is appropriate to address these concerns with the adoption of clear continued listing standards. The Exchange does not believe its proposed rules would impose any burden on competition as all exchanges that list equity securities maintain a set of continued listing standards appropriate for companies listed on their respective exchange.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>
                    No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58671"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     or within such longer period 
                    <E T="03">up to 90 days</E>
                     (i) as the Commission may designate if it finds such longer period to be appropriate and publishes its reasons for so finding or (ii) as to which the self-regulatory organization consents, the Commission will:
                </P>
                <P>(A) by order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or</P>
                <P>(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSE-2025-43 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090. </P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSE-2025-43. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSE-2025-43 and should be submitted on or before January 7, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23074 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-104381; File No. SR-NYSEARCA-2025-84]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the NYSE Arca Equities Fees and Charges</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>December 12, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on December 1, 2025, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend the NYSE Arca Equities Fees and Charges (“Fee Schedule”) to (1) adopt a new pricing tier, Retail Tier 5, (2) eliminate current Retail Step-Up Tier and footnote (e) under the Retail Tiers pricing table, and (3) offer an alternative volume requirement to qualify for Retail Order rates. The Exchange proposes to implement the fee changes effective December 1, 2025. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule to (1) adopt a new pricing tier, Retail Tier 5, (2) eliminate current Retail Step-Up Tier and footnote (e) under the Retail Tiers pricing table, and (3) offer an alternative volume requirement to qualify for Retail Order rates.</P>
                <P>The proposed change responds to the current competitive environment where ETP Holders have a choice among both exchange and off-exchange venues of where to route marketable retail order flow.</P>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to implement the fee changes effective December 1, 2025.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange operates in a highly competitive market. The Commission has repeatedly expressed its preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. In Regulation NMS, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.” 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 51808 (June 9, 2005), 70 FR 37496, 37499 (June 29, 2005) (File No. S7-10-04) (Final Rule) (“Regulation NMS”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    While Regulation NMS has enhanced competition, it has also fostered a “fragmented” market structure where trading in a single stock can occur across multiple trading centers. When multiple trading centers compete for order flow in the same stock, the Commission has recognized that “such competition can lead to the fragmentation of order flow in that stock.” 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Indeed, equity trading is currently dispersed across 17 exchanges,
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     numerous alternative 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58672"/>
                    trading systems,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and broker-dealer internalizers and wholesalers, all competing for order flow. Based on publicly available information, no single exchange currently has more than 17% market share.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, no exchange possesses significant pricing power in the execution of equity order flow. More specifically, the Exchange currently has less than 12% market share of executed volume of equities trading.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 61358, 75 FR 3594, 3597 (January 21, 2010) (File No. S7-02-10) (Concept Release on Equity Market Structure).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe U.S Equities Market Volume Summary, available at 
                        <E T="03">
                            https://markets.cboe.com/us/
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            equities/market_share. See
                        </E>
                          
                        <E T="03">generally https://www.sec.gov/fast-answers/divisionsmarketregmrexchangesshtml.html</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         FINRA ATS Transparency Data, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://otctransparency.finra.org/otctransparency/AtsIssueData</E>
                        . A list of alternative trading systems registered with the Commission is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/foia/docs/atslist.htm</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Global Markets U.S. Equities Market Volume Summary, available at 
                        <E T="03">http://markets.cboe.com/us/equities/market_share/</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the ever-shifting market share among the exchanges from month to month demonstrates that market participants can move order flow, or discontinue or reduce use of certain categories of products. While it is not possible to know a firm's reason for shifting order flow, the Exchange believes that one such reason is because of fee changes at any of the registered exchanges or non-exchange venues to which a firm routes order flow. The competition for Retail Orders is even more stark, particularly as it relates to exchange versus off-exchange venues.</P>
                <P>The Exchange thus needs to compete in the first instance with non-exchange venues for Retail Order flow, and with the 16 other exchange venues for that Retail Order flow that is not directed off-exchange. Accordingly, competitive forces compel the Exchange to use exchange transaction fees and credits, particularly as they relate to competing for Retail Order flow, because market participants can readily trade on competing venues if they deem pricing levels at those other venues to be more favorable.</P>
                <P>To respond to this competitive environment, the Exchange has established a number of Retail Tiers that are designed to provide an incentive for ETP Holders to route Retail Orders to the Exchange by providing higher credits for adding liquidity correlated to an ETP Holder's higher trading volume in Retail Orders on the Exchange. Currently, under four of these five tiers, ETP Holders also do not pay a fee when such Retail Orders have a time-in-force of Day that remove liquidity from the Exchange.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Retail Tier 5</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule change is designed to be available to all ETP Holders on the Exchange and is intended to provide ETP Holders an opportunity to receive enhanced rebates by quoting and trading more on the Exchange.</P>
                <P>
                    As noted above, the Exchange currently provides tiered credits for Retail Orders that provide liquidity on the Exchange. Specifically, Section VI. Tier Rates—Round Lots and Odd Lots (Per Share Price $1.00 or Above), provides a credit of $0.0038 per share for Adding under Retail Tier 1, a credit of $0.0037 per share for Adding under Retail Tier 2, a credit of $0.0036 per share for Adding under Retail Tier 3, a credit of $0.0034 per share for Adding under Retail Tier 4, and a credit of $0.0035 per share for Adding under Retail Step-Up Tier.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Retail Tiers are designed to encourage ETP Holders that provide displayed liquidity in Retail Orders on the Exchange to increase that order flow, which would benefit all ETP Holders by providing greater execution opportunities on the Exchange. In order to provide an incentive for ETP Holders to direct providing displayed Retail Order flow to the Exchange, the credits increase in the various tiers based on increased levels of volume directed to the Exchange.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Fee Schedule, Retail Tiers table under Section VI. Tier Rates—Round Lots and Odd Lots (Per Share Price $1.00 or Above). As discussed below, this proposed rule change also proposes to eliminate the current Retail Step-Up Tier and the pricing established in footnote (e) in the Retail Tiers pricing table.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With this proposed rule change, the Exchange proposes to adopt a new pricing tier, Retail Tier 5, which would provide a credit of $0.0035 per share to ETP Holders that execute an ADV of Retail Orders with a time-in-force of Day that add or remove liquidity during the billing month that is equal to at least 0.15% of CADV. Under proposed Retail Tier 5, ETP Holders could alternatively qualify for the proposed credit if the ETP Holder executes an ADV of Retail Orders with a time-in-force of Day that add or remove liquidity during the billing month that is equal to at least 0.075% of CADV, combined with Customer and Professional Customer Posting Volume by an OTP Holder or OTP Firm affiliated with the ETP Holder that is equal to at least 0.40% of TCADV in all options classes. As with current Retail Tier 1, Retail Tier 2, Retail Tier 3 and Retail Step-Up Tier, ETP Holders that qualify for proposed Retail Tier 5 would also not be charged a fee for Retail Orders with a time-in-force of Day below a prescribed threshold that remove liquidity, and will be charged a fee of $0.0025 per share if trading by the ETP Holder in such orders exceeds the prescribed threshold.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Pursuant to footnote (d) under Retail Tiers, ETP Holders that qualify for proposed Retail Tier 5 will not be charged a fee or provided a credit for Retail Orders where each side of the executed order (1) shares the same MPID and (2) is a Retail Order.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The purpose of the proposed rule change is to encourage greater participation from ETP Holders, including on the Exchange's options platform, and promote additional liquidity in Retail Orders. As described above, ETP Holders with retail day orders have a choice of where to send those orders. The Exchange believes that the proposed new increased credit and lower fee to remove should encourage more ETP Holders to route their Retail Orders with a time-in-force of Day to the Exchange rather than to a competing exchange.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed new pricing tier will incentivize ETP Holders to route their liquidity-providing order flow to the Exchange in order to qualify for the tier, which provides a higher credit than that currently available under current Retail Tier 4. This in turn would support the quality of price discovery on the Exchange and provide additional price improvement opportunities for incoming orders. The Exchange believes that by correlating the amount of the credit and fee to the level of orders sent by an ETP Holder that add or remove liquidity, the Exchange's fee structure would continue to incentivize ETP Holders to submit more orders with a time-in-force of Day that add liquidity to or remove liquidity from the Exchange, thereby increasing the potential for price improvement to incoming marketable orders and higher fill rates to resting limit orders on the Exchange.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Retail Step-Up Tier</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange currently provides a credit of $0.0035 per share under the Retail Step-Up Tier if an ETP Holder executes an ADV of Retail Orders with a time-in-force of Day that add or remove liquidity during the billing month that is equal to at least 0.075% of CADV. ETP Holders that qualify for the Retail-Step Up Tier are also not charged a fee for Retail Orders with a time-in-force of Day below a prescribed threshold that remove liquidity, and are charged a fee of $0.0025 per share if trading by the ETP Holder in such orders exceeds the prescribed threshold.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange proposes to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58673"/>
                    eliminate current Retail Step-Up Tier and remove the tier from the Fee Schedule. The current Retail Step-Up Tier has begun to be underutilized by ETP Holders. The Exchange has therefore determined to eliminate the pricing tier from the Fee Schedule.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         Pursuant to footnote (d) under Retail Tiers, ETP Holders that qualify for the Retail Step-Up Tier are 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        not charged a fee or provided a credit for Retail Orders where each side of the executed order (1) shares the same MPID and (2) is a Retail Order.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>For the same reason, the Exchange also proposes to eliminate the pricing established in footnote (e) from the Retail Tiers pricing table. Footnote (e) currently provides that ETP Holders that increase Retail Orders with a time-in-force of Day that add and remove that is an increase over May 2022 of at least 0.05% of CADV qualify for no fee for Retail Removing with a time-in-force of Day for the first 170 million shares in the month, and a fee of $0.0025 for shares above 170 million shares in the month. With the elimination of footnote (e), ETP Holders would be charged a fee for Retail Orders with a time-in-force of Day unless qualifying for the Retail Tiers. The Exchange believes streamlining the Fee Schedule by removing underutilized pricing incentives, such as the one in footnote (e), would add clarity to the Fee Schedule and improve transparency for the benefit of all market participants.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Retail Order Rates</HD>
                <P>Currently, the Exchange offers a $0.0025 per share fee for Retail Orders with a time-in-force of Day that remove liquidity under Retail Tier 1, Retail Tier 2, Retail Tier 3 and Retail Step-Up Tier if an ETP Holder executes 170 million or more shares of such orders in a billing month, with the first 170 million shares of such orders not charged a fee.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to offer a $0.0025 per share fee for Retail Orders with a time-in-force of Day that remove liquidity under Retail Tier 1, Retail Tier 2, Retail Tier 3 and under proposed new Retail Tier 5 if an ETP Holder executes 170 million or more shares of such orders in a billing month or 0.055% of Dollar Plus Consolidated Volume,
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     up to 250 million shares a month, whichever is higher, where the first 170 million shares of such orders or 0.055% of Dollar Plus Consolidated Volume, up to 250 million shares, whichever is higher, would not be charged a fee.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         Dollar Plus Consolidated Volume means the full month equivalent of CADV in securities with a per share price $1.00 or Above. The Exchange proposes adopt a definition for the term “Dollar Plus Consolidated Volume” in Section I. Definitions, in the bullet that defines “CADV.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>For example, assume a month of 20 trading days where Dollar Plus Consolidated Volume is 40 billion shares each day.</P>
                <P>• On the first day, the cap based on Dollar Plus Consolidated Volume is 22 million shares (0.055% of 40 billion shares month to date).</P>
                <P>• On day 2, the cap based on Dollar Plus Consolidated Volume is 44 million shares (0.055% of 80 billion shares month to date).</P>
                <P>• On day 5, the cap based on Dollar Plus Consolidated Volume is 110 million shares (0.055% of 200 billion shares month to date).</P>
                <P>• By day 8, the cap based on Dollar Plus Consilidated Volume is 176 million shares (0.055% of 320 billion shares month to date). With this proposed rule change, the cap based on Dollar Plus Consolidated Volume is higher than the current 170 million shares cap, so ETP holders are not charged if their trading volume is under 176 million shares, versus the current 170 million shares cap.</P>
                <P>
                    • By day 12, the cap based on Dollar Plus Consolidated Volume is 264 million shares, thereby reaching the maximum cap of 250 million shares, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the greater of 170 million shares or 264 million shares based on Dollar Plus Consolidated Volume (0.055% of 480 billion shares month to date, subject to the maximum cap). In this example, once the 250 million shares cap is reached, Retail Orders with a time-in-force of Day submitted by an ETP Holder that remove liquidity would be charged the current fee of $0.0025 per share for the excess remove volume over the 250 million shares cap.
                </P>
                <P>The proposed rule change is designed to be available to all ETP Holders on the Exchange that qualify for the Retail Tiers and thus provide ETP Holders an opportunity to receive enhanced rebates by quoting and trading more on the Exchange. The Exchange notes that the current fee of $0.0025 per share for Retail Orders would not change as a result of this proposed rule change.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes the proposed rule change would continue to encourage additional liquidity on the Exchange by providing additional determinacy to the Fee Schedule to enable market participants to determine what fee or rebate level would be applicable to any submitted order at the time of execution.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that it is reasonable to charge ETP Holders a fee for Retail Orders with a time-in-force of Day that remove liquidity and exceed a specified monthly shares threshold. The Exchange notes that other marketplaces offer various incentives based on trading activity. For instance, pursuant to its Retail Order Process, Nasdaq Stock Market LLC (“Nasdaq”) charges a fee of $0.0025 per share for shares executed in excess of 8 million shares in the month that remove liquidity while not charging a fee for shares executed below 8 million shares in the month that remove liquidity.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         RFTY Strategies (Retail Order Process) at 
                        <E T="03">https://nasdaqtrader.com/Trader.aspx?id=PriceListTrading2</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Sections 6(b)(4) and (5) of the Act,
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, because it provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees, and other charges among its members, issuers and other persons using its facilities and does not unfairly discriminate between customers, issuers, brokers or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposal Is Reasonable</HD>
                <P>
                    As discussed above, the Exchange operates in a highly fragmented and competitive market. The Commission has repeatedly expressed its preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. Specifically, in Regulation NMS, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.” 
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Given this competitive environment, the proposal represents a reasonable attempt to attract additional order flow to the Exchange.</P>
                <P>
                    As noted above, the competition for Retail Order flow is stark given the amount of retail orders that are routed to non-exchange venues. The Exchange believes that the ever-shifting market share among the exchanges from month to month demonstrates that market participants can shift order flow, or discontinue or reduce use of certain categories of products, in response to fee changes. ETP Holders can choose from any one of the 17 currently operating registered exchanges, and numerous off-exchange venues, to route such order flow. Accordingly, competitive forces constrain exchange transaction fees, particularly as they relate to competing for retail orders. Stated otherwise, changes to exchange transaction fees 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58674"/>
                    can have a direct effect on the ability of an exchange to compete for order flow.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Retail Tier 5</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes the proposed change to adopt the Retail Tier 5 pricing tier is reasonable because it would provide ETP Holders with an additional incentive to route their retail orders to the Exchange, which would result in increased liquidity on the Exchange. All ETP Holders would benefit from the greater amounts of liquidity on the Exchange, which would represent a wider range of execution opportunities. The Exchange notes that market participants are free to shift their order flow to competing venues if they believe other markets offer more favorable fees and credits.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes the proposed change is also reasonable because the proposed credit would continue to encourage ETP Holders to send Retail Orders to the Exchange to qualify for the proposed pricing tier. As noted above, the Exchange operates in a highly competitive environment, particularly for attracting Retail Order flow that provides displayed liquidity on an exchange. The Exchange believes it is reasonable to continue to provide credits for adding liquidity and fees for removing liquidity, in general, and higher credits for Retail Orders that provide liquidity and lower fees for removing liquidity if an ETP Holder meets the requirement for the proposed pricing tier.</P>
                <P>
                    Further, given the competitive market for attracting Retail Orders, the Exchange notes that with this proposed rule change, the Exchange's pricing for Retail Orders would be comparable to credits currently in place on other exchanges that the Exchange competes with for order flow. For example, MEMX LLC (“MEMX”) provides its members with a credit of $0.0037 per share if the member has a Retail Order ADAV equal to or greater than 0.20% of the TCV, or if the member has a Retail Order ADAV equal to or greater than 1,000,000 share in the Pre-Market Session and/or Post-Market Session.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Additionally, MIAX PEARL, LLC (“MIAX”) provides is member with a credit of $0.0037 per share for Retail Orders that add liquidity to that market.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See,</E>
                         MEMX Fee Schedule, Retail Tier, at 
                        <E T="03">https://info.memxtrading.com/equities-trading-resources/us-equities-fee-schedule/</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See,</E>
                         MIAX Fee Schedule, Transaction Rebates/Fees, Standard rates, at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.miaxglobal.com/sites/default/files/fee_schedule-files/MIAX_Pearl_Equities_Fee_Schedule_10012025.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes the proposed change is also reasonable because it is designed to attract higher volumes of Retail Orders transacted on the Exchange by ETP Holders which would benefit all market participants.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Retail Step-Up Tier</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change to eliminate the Retail Step-Up Tier and footnote (e) from the Retail Tiers pricing table is reasonable because each of the pricing tiers proposed for deletion in this proposed rule change have become underutilized. The Exchange believes it is reasonable to eliminate requirements as well as fees and credits, and even entire pricing tiers, when such incentives fail to accomplish their stated goal of incentivizing ETP Holders to direct their orders to the Exchange. The Exchange believes eliminating underutilized incentive programs would also simplify the Fee Schedule. The Exchange further believes that removing reference to the pricing tiers that the Exchange proposes to eliminate from the Fee Schedule would also add clarity to the Fee Schedule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Retail Order Rates</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes it is reasonable to adopt an alternative volume threshold for the fees offered to ETP Holders executing Retail Orders. The Exchange believes that the new requirement will encourage increased participation from retail liquidity providers while maintaining a competitive and performance-based pricing structure that better reflects current market conditions and trading volumes. The Exchange believes the proposed fee change would continue to encourage increased participation from retail liquidity providers by providing greater flexibility and clarity as to what fee or rebate level would be applicable to any submitted order at the time of execution, thereby removing impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system. In general, the Exchange believes this proposed alternative threshold would result in lower fees for qualifying ETP Holders when trading volumes are higher or in months when there are more than 20 trading days.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes the proposed change is also reasonable because it is designed to attract higher volumes of Retail Orders transacted on the Exchange by ETP Holders which would benefit all market participants by offering greater price discovery, increased transparency, and an increased opportunity to trade on the Exchange. The Exchange believes that the proposal represents a reasonable effort to provide enhanced order execution opportunities for ETP Holders. All ETP Holders would benefit from the greater amounts of liquidity on the Exchange, which would represent a wider range of execution opportunities. The Exchange notes that market participants are free to shift their order flow to competing venues if they believe other markets offer more favorable fees and credits. On the backdrop of the competitive environment in which the Exchange currently operates, the proposed rule change is a reasonable attempt to increase liquidity on the Exchange.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposed Fee Change Is an Equitable Allocation of Fees and Credits</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes the proposal equitably allocates fees and credits among market participants because all ETP Holders that participate on the Exchange would be subject to the proposed rule change on an equal basis.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Retail Tier 5</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change to adopt new Retail Tier 5 equitably allocates fees and credits among its market participants because it is reasonably related to the value of the Exchange's market quality associated with higher volume in Retail Orders. The Exchange believes that pricing is just one of the factors that ETP Holders consider when determining where to direct their order flow. Among other things, factors such as execution quality, fill rates, and volatility, are important and deterministic to ETP Holders in deciding where to send their order flow.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed adoption of Retail Tier 5 is equitable because the magnitude of the proposed credit is not unreasonably high relative to credits paid by other exchanges for orders that provide additional liquidity in Retail Orders.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange believes the proposed rule change would improve market quality for all market participants on the Exchange and, as a consequence, attract more Retail Orders to the Exchange, thereby improving market-wide quality and price discovery.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra,</E>
                         notes 17-18.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change equitably allocates its fees and credits because maintaining the proportion of Retail Orders in exchange-listed securities that are executed on a registered national securities exchange (rather than relying on certain available off-exchange 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58675"/>
                    execution methods) would contribute to investors' confidence in the fairness of their transactions and would benefit all investors by deepening the Exchange's liquidity pool, supporting the quality of price discovery, promoting market transparency and improving investor protection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposal is equitable because all ETP Holders would be subject to the same fee structure. Moreover, the proposed alternative requirement to qualify for the proposed new pricing tier would be available to all ETP Holders to satisfy, including ETP Holders that are affiliated with an NYSE Arca Options OTP Holder or OTP Firm. ETP Holders that are not affiliated with an NYSE Arca Options OTP Holder or OTP Firm would still be eligible for fees and credits by means other than the proposed Retail Tier 5. Nasdaq similarly charges certain fees based on both equity and options volume.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Nasdaq Equity 7, Section 118. Nasdaq Market Center Order Execution and Routing, at 
                        <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/nasdaq/rules/Nasdaq%20Equity%207#section_118_nasdaq_market_center_order_execution_and_routing</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Retail Step-Up Tier</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes that eliminating requirements as well as fees and credits, and even entire pricing tiers, from the Fee Schedule when such incentives become ineffective is equitable because the requirements, as well as fees and credits, and even entire pricing tiers, would be eliminated in their entirety and would no longer be available to any ETP Holder. All ETP Holders would continue to be subject to the same fee structure, and access to the Exchange's market would continue to be offered on fair and nondiscriminatory terms. The Exchange also believes that the proposed change would protect investors and the public interest because the deletion of underutilized pricing tiers would make the Fee Schedule more accessible and transparent and facilitate market participants' understanding of the fees charged for services currently offered by the Exchange.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Retail Order Rates</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes its proposal equitably allocates fees and credits among its market participants by fostering liquidity provision and stability in the marketplace. The Exchange believes the proposed changes to Retail Orders are an equitable allocation of fees because the proposed changes, taken together, will further incentivize ETP Holders to continue to direct their retail order flow to the Exchange. The Exchange also believes that the proposed rule change is equitable because it would apply to all similarly situated ETP Holders. As previously noted, the Exchange operates in a competitive environment, particularly as it relates to attracting Retail Orders to the Exchange.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change equitably allocates its fees and credits because maintaining the proportion of Retail Orders in exchange-listed securities that are executed on a registered national securities exchange (rather than relying on certain available off-exchange execution methods) would contribute to investors' confidence in the fairness of their transactions and would benefit all investors by deepening the Exchange's liquidity pool, supporting the quality of price discovery, promoting market transparency and improving investor protection.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposed Fee Change Is Not Unfairly Discriminatory</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Retail Tier 5</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change to adopt proposed new Retail Tier 5 is not unfairly discriminatory. In the prevailing competitive environment, ETP Holders are free to disfavor the Exchange's pricing if they believe that alternatives offer them better value. Moreover, the proposal neither targets nor will it have a disparate impact on any particular category of market participant. The Exchange believes that the proposal does not permit unfair discrimination because the proposal would be applied to all similarly situated ETP Holders and all ETP Holders would be similarly subject to the proposed volume requirement to qualify for the proposed new Retail Tier 5. Accordingly, no ETP Holder already operating on the Exchange would be disadvantaged by the proposed allocation of fees. The Exchange further believes that the proposed change would not permit unfair discrimination among ETP Holders because the general and tiered rates are available equally to all ETP Holders.</P>
                <P>As described above, in today's competitive marketplace, order flow providers have a choice of where to direct order flow, and the Exchange believes the proposed adoption of an increased credit under the proposed new pricing tier will incentivize greater number of ETP Holders to direct their order flow to the Exchange. Lastly, the submission of Retail Orders is optional for ETP Holders in that they could choose whether to submit Retail Orders and, if they do, the extent of its activity in this regard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Retail Step Up Tier</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes that eliminating requirements as well as fees and credits, and even entire pricing tiers, from the Fee Schedule when such incentives become ineffective is not unfairly discriminatory because the requirements, as well as fees and credits, and even entire pricing tiers, would be eliminated in their entirety and would no longer be available to any ETP Holder. All ETP Holders would continue to be subject to the same fee structure, and access to the Exchange's market would continue to be offered on fair and nondiscriminatory terms. The Exchange also believes that the proposed change would protect investors and the public interest because the deletion of underutilized pricing tiers would make the Fee Schedule more accessible and transparent and facilitate market participants' understanding of the fees charged for services currently offered by the Exchange.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Retail Order Rates</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is not unfairly discriminatory. In the prevailing competitive environment, ETP Holders are free to disfavor the Exchange's pricing if they believe that alternatives offer them better value. Moreover, the proposal neither targets nor will it have a disparate impact on any particular category of market participant. The Exchange believes that the proposal does not permit unfair discrimination because the proposal would be applied to all similarly situated ETP Holders and all ETP Holders would be similarly subject to the proposed changes. The Exchange further believes that the proposed change would not permit unfair discrimination among ETP Holders because the general and tiered rates are available equally to all ETP Holders. As described above, in today's competitive marketplace, order flow providers have a choice of where to direct liquidity-providing order flow, in particular, Retail Orders. The Exchange notes that the submission of Retail Orders is optional for ETP Holders in that they could choose whether to submit Retail Orders and, if they do, the extent of its activity in this regard.</P>
                <P>
                    For the foregoing reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58676"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Instead, as discussed above, the Exchange believes that the proposed changes would encourage the submission of additional liquidity to a public exchange, thereby promoting market depth, price discovery and transparency and enhancing order execution opportunities for ETP Holders. As a result, the Exchange believes that the proposed change furthers the Commission's goal in adopting Regulation NMS of fostering integrated competition among orders, which promotes “more efficient pricing of individual stocks for all types of orders, large and small.” 
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(8).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intramarket Competition.</E>
                     The Exchange believes the proposed rule change does not impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In particular, the proposed change to adopt a new pricing tier would apply to all ETP Holders equally in that all ETP Holders would be eligible for the proposed pricing tier, have a reasonable opportunity to meet the proposed pricing tier's criteria and would all receive the proposed rebate if such criteria are met. In addition, the proposed change to adopt an alternative volume threshold for the fees offered to ETP Holders executing Retail Orders would not impose any burden on intramarket competition. The Exchange believes that the new requirement will encourage increased participation from retail liquidity providers while maintaining a competitive and performance-based pricing structure that better reflects current market conditions and trading volumes. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes represent a significant departure from previous pricing offered by the Exchange or its competitors. The proposed changes are designed to attract additional retail order flow to the Exchange. Greater overall order flow, trading opportunities, and pricing transparency would benefit all market participants on the Exchange by enhancing market quality and would continue to encourage ETP Holders to send their orders to the Exchange, thereby contributing towards a robust and well-balanced market ecosystem. The Exchange's proposal to eliminate requirements as well as fees and credits, and pricing tiers in their entirety, will not place any undue burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. To the extent the proposed rule change places a burden on competition, any such burden would be outweighed by the fact that each of the pricing tiers proposed for deletion have begun to be underutilized by ETP Holders.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intermarket Competition.</E>
                     The Exchange believes the proposed rule change does not impose any burden on intermarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily choose to send their orders to other exchanges and off-exchange venues if they deem fee levels at those other venues to be more favorable. As noted above, the Exchange's market share of intraday trading (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     excluding auctions) is currently less than 12%. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees and rebates to remain competitive with other exchanges and with off-exchange venues. Because competitors are free to modify their own fees and credits in response, and because market participants may readily adjust their order routing practices, the Exchange does not believe this proposed fee change would impose any burden on intermarket competition.
                </P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed change could promote competition between the Exchange and other execution venues, including those that currently offer similar order types and comparable transaction pricing, by encouraging additional orders to be sent to the Exchange for execution</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(2) thereunder 
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange has designated this proposal as establishing or changing a due, fee, or other charge imposed on any person, whether or not the person is a member of the self-regulatory organization, which renders the proposed rule change effective upon filing. At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov</E>
                    . Please include file number SR-NYSEARCA-2025-84 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEARCA-2025-84. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEARCA-2025-84 and should be submitted on or before January 7, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58677"/>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>25</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23071 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SELECTIVE SERVICE SYSTEM</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Selective Service System (SSS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of modified system of records.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The purpose of this notice is to meet the requirement of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, and OMB Circular No. A-108 to provide notice that the SSS is modifying three systems of records: (1) Registration, Compliance and Verification (RCV) provides a central repository for all data related to active registrants and potential violators; (2) Enterprise Content Management (ECM) manage the document workflow and processing automation of the Data Management Center (DMC); and  (3) Information Management Information System (IMIS) manages the daily operational needs for the agency, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         requests for reimbursements, financial records, and personnel data are processed by batch and transaction processing. SSS is adding two routine uses and removing two that are no longer applicable.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This SORN will become effective upon publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , except for the routine uses, which will become effective 1 February 2026 [30 DAYS AFTER PUBLICATION IN THE 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        ], unless they need to be changed as a result of public comment. SSS will publish any changes to the SORN resulting from public comment.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations should be sent to 
                        <E T="03">Alma.Cruz@sss.gov,</E>
                         Ms. Alma Cruz, Senior Agency Official for Privacy, 1501 Wilson Boulevard, Arlington, Virginia 22209-2425.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For further inquiries regarding this amendment, you may contact Mr. Jeffrey Steinlage, Acting Chief Information Officer. Email: 
                        <E T="03">JSteinlage@sss.gov,</E>
                         1501 Wilson Boulevard, Arlington, Virginia 22209-2425.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice serves to update and amend all three of the SSS' SORNs routine uses. The amended list of routine uses is consistent with OMB Circular No. A-108.</P>
                <PRIACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM NAME(S) AND NUMBER(S):</HD>
                    <P>(1) Registration, Compliance and Verification (RCV), SSS-19. (2) Integrated Mobilization Information Management System (IMIS) and Reserve and National Guard Personnel Records, SSS-5. (3) Enterprise Content Management System (ECM), SSS-50.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SECURITY CLASSIFICATION:</HD>
                    <P>Unclassified.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM LOCATION:</HD>
                    <P>National Headquarters, Selective Service System, 1501 Wilson Boulevard, Arlington, VA 22209-2425.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM MANAGER(S):</HD>
                    <P>Director of Selective Service, 1501 Wilson Boulevard, Arlington, VA 22209-2425, Attn: Records Manager.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ROUTINE USES OF RECORDS MAINTAINED IN THE SYSTEM, INCLUDING CATEGORIES OF USERS AND THE PURPOSES OF SUCH USES:</HD>
                    <P>In addition to the disclosures permitted under subsection (b) of the Privacy Act, the SSS may disclose information contained in this System of Records without the consent of the individuals to whom the records pertain if the disclosure is compatible with the purpose for which the record was collected under the following routine uses:</P>
                    <P>1. To the Department of Justice for the purpose of reviewing and processing suspected violations of the Military Selective Service Act (MSSA), for investigation or reviewing of perjury, and for defense of a civil action arising from administrative processing under such Act.</P>
                    <P>2. To the Department of State and U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services for collection and evaluation of data to determine an individual's eligibility for United States citizenship.</P>
                    <P>3. To the Department of Defense and U.S. Coast Guard to exchange data concerning registration, classification, induction, and examination of registrants and for identification of prospects for recruiting.</P>
                    <P>4. To the Department of Labor to assist veterans in need of data concerning reemployment rights, and for determination of eligibility for benefits under the Workforce Investment Act.</P>
                    <P>5. To all Federal Agencies to determine eligibility for employment.</P>
                    <P>6. To the U.S. Census Bureau for the purposes of planning or carrying out a census or survey or related activity pursuant to the provisions of Title 13.</P>
                    <P>7. To all U.S. Universities and colleges to determine eligibility for student aid, including grants and loans as required by state and local law.</P>
                    <P>8. To the Department of Health and Human Services to determine an individual's proper Social Security Account Number and for locating parents pursuant to the Child Support Enforcement Act.</P>
                    <P>9. To an appropriate Federal, state, local, territorial, tribal, or foreign law enforcement authority for investigation or prosecution where a record indicates a violation or potential violation of law.</P>
                    <P>10. To the Alternative Service Employers, during conscription, to exchange information with employers regarding a registrant who is a conscientious objector for the purpose of placement and supervision of performance of alternative service in lieu of induction into the military service.</P>
                    <P>11. To appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when (a) the SSS suspects or has confirmed that there has been a breach of the System of Records. (b) the SSS has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to an individual(s), the SSS (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security; and (c) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with the SSS efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed breach or to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.</P>
                    <P>12. To another Federal agency or Federal entity, when the SSS determines that information from this System of Records is necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in (a) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach, or (b) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the recipient agency or entity (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security, resulting from a suspected or confirmed breach.</P>
                    <P>
                        13. To the General Public for the purpose of retrieving a copy of their Selective Service Number for various purposes such as applying for employment, security background check, student grants and loans, and citizenship.
                        <PRTPAGE P="58678"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">HISTORY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Document Citations:</E>
                         90 FR 20734; 82 FR 29971; 90 FR 17680; 82 FR 29970.
                    </P>
                </PRIACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Alma Cruz,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Senior Agency Official for Privacy, Selective Service System.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23111 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8015-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SOCIAL SECURITY ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No: SSA-2025-0519]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Request and Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <P>The Social Security Administration (SSA) publishes a list of information collection packages requiring clearance by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in compliance with Public Law 104-13, the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, effective October 1, 1995. This notice includes revisions of OMB-approved information collections.</P>
                <P>SSA is soliciting comments on the accuracy of the agency's burden estimate; the need for the information; its practical utility; ways to enhance its quality, utility, and clarity; and ways to minimize burden on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Mail, email, or fax your comments and recommendations on the information collection(s) to the OMB Desk Officer and SSA Reports Clearance Officer at the following addresses or fax numbers.</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">(OMB) Office of Management and Budget, Attn: Desk Officer for SSA</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    (SSA) Social Security Administration, OLCA, Attn: Reports Clearance Director, Mail Stop 3253 Altmeyer, 6401 Security Blvd., Baltimore, MD 21235, Fax: 833-410-1631, Email address: 
                    <E T="03">OR.Reports.Clearance@ssa.gov</E>
                </FP>
                <P>
                    Or you may submit your comments online through 
                    <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAmain</E>
                     by clicking on Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments and choosing to click on one of SSA's published items. Please reference Docket ID Number [SSA-2025-0519] in your submitted response.
                </P>
                <P>I. The information collections below are pending at SSA. SSA will submit them to OMB within 60 days from the date of this notice. To be sure we consider your comments, we must receive them no later than February 17, 2026. Individuals can obtain copies of the collection instruments by writing to the above email address.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Application for Child's Insurance Benefits—20 CFR 404.350-404.368, 404.603, &amp; 416.350—0960-0010.</E>
                     Title II of the Social Security Act (Act) provides for the payment of monthly benefits to children of an insured worker who is retired, disabled, or deceased. Section 202(d) of the Act discloses the conditions and requirements SSA requires the applicant to meet when filing an application. SSA uses the information provided by applicants on Form SSA-4-BK to determine entitlement for children of living and deceased workers to monthly Social Security payments. The respondents are guardians completing the form on behalf of the children of retired, living or deceased workers.
                </P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note: </HD>
                    <P>We are making a minor revision by adding “or adoptive” to question #4 to clarify that adoptive children also may qualify to receive benefits. In addition, we are updating the Privacy Act Statement on this form to comply with current legal requirements.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Modality of completion</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Frequency of response</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated total annual burden
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>theoretical hourly cost amount</LI>
                            <LI>(dollars) *</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average wait time in field
                            <LI>office and</LI>
                            <LI>teleservice</LI>
                            <LI>centers</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes) ***</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual opportunity cost
                            <LI>(dollars) ***</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SSA-4-BK (Death Claim): Paper</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,702</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>340</ENT>
                        <ENT>* $32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 0</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** $11,104</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SSA-4-BK (Death Claim): MCS Interview</ENT>
                        <ENT>235,166</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>11</ENT>
                        <ENT>43,114</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 32</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 5,504,386</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SSA-4-BK (Life Claim): Paper</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,912</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>582</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 0</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 19,008</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">SSA-4-BK (Life Claim): MCS Interview</ENT>
                        <ENT>332,333</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>11</ENT>
                        <ENT>60,928</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 32</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 7,778,698</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>572,113</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>104,964</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>*** 13,313,196</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* We based this figure on average U.S. citizen's hourly salary, as reported by Bureau of Labor Statistics data (Occupational Employment and Wage Statistics).</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>** We based this figure on the average combined FY 2026 wait times for field offices (16 minutes) and for teleservice centers (47 minutes which includes the average speed of answer of 6 minutes as well as the average 41 minute wait time for a call back from an SSA technician), based on SSA's current management information data. This figure reflects both data from our systems and the data posted on our public facing website (800 number performance | SSA) on the date we drafted this notice. As the figures fluctuate daily, the wait times may be different on the publication date of this notice. We note that we combined these two figures for the purposes of this information collection, as SSA does not track whether the respondents who complete the MCS interview do so via telephone or in person. In addition, we did not calculate wait time for the respondents who use the paper form, as they submit the forms via mail.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        *** This figure does not represent actual costs that SSA is imposing on recipients of Social Security payments to complete this application; rather, these are theoretical opportunity costs for the additional time respondents will spend to complete the application. 
                        <E T="03">There is no actual charge to respondents to complete the application.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Help America Vote Act—0960-0706.</E>
                     Public Law 107-252, the Help America Vote Act of 2002, mandates that States verify the identities of newly registered voters. When newly registered voters do not have driver's licenses or State-issued ID cards, they must supply the last four digits of their Social Security number to their local State election agencies for verification. The election agencies forward this information to their State Motor Vehicle Administration (MVA), and the State MVA inputs the data into the American Association of MVAs (AAMVA), a central consolidation system that routes the voter data to SSA's Help America Vote Verification (HAVV) system. SSA's HAVV system returns the result (a “match” or “no match” of name, DOB, and last four digits of an SSN) to the AAMVA hub, which then routes the information back to the state MVA. The respondents are the State MVAs seeking to confirm voter identities.
                </P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P> We are updating the Privacy Act Statement.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58679"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12C,12C,12C,12C,12C,12C,12C">
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Modality of completion</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Number of respondents</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Frequency of response</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Number of responses</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average burden per response
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated total annual burden 
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average theoretical hourly cost amount
                            <LI>(dollars) *</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual opportunity cost
                            <LI>(dollars) **</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">HAVV</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>+</SU>
                             45
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>121,013</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,445,585</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>181,520</ENT>
                        <ENT>* $24.14</ENT>
                        <ENT>** $4,381,893</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>+</SU>
                         The 45 respondents here represent the number of states participating in HAVV. SSA has agreements with forty-four states and one territory (Puerto Rico) for the use of HAVV to support their states' voter registration process. Five States (
                        <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                         New Mexico, Kentucky, South Carolina, Tennessee, and Virginia) are permitted to use the 9-digit SSN on applications for voter registration; therefore, these States do not obtain SSN verifications from SSA through HAVV for voter registration (which requires states to use on the last four digits of the SSN for verification). North Dakota has no voter registration requirement and, therefore, does not use the HAVV system.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>* We based this figure on the average Information and Record Clerks, as reported by Bureau of Labor Statistics data (Occupational Employment and Wage Statistics).</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        ** This figure does not represent actual costs that SSA is imposing on recipients of Social Security payments to complete this application; rather, these are theoretical opportunity costs for the additional time respondents will spend to complete the application. 
                        <E T="03">There is no actual charge to respondents to complete the application.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Cost Burden:</E>
                     Per our current management information data, the 45 state MVAs participating in HAVA each pay an annual maintenance cost of $1,344.88. Additionally, states pay .30 per verification request. Therefore, the total annual cost to respondents is $60,520.
                </P>
                <P>
                    II. SSA submitted the information collections below to OMB for clearance. Your comments regarding these information collections would be most useful if OMB and SSA receive them 30 days from the date of this publication. To be sure we consider your comments, we must receive them no later than January 16, 2026. Individuals can obtain copies of these OMB clearance packages by writing to the 
                    <E T="03">OR.Reports.Clearance@ssa.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Report to United States Social Security Administration by Person Receiving Benefits for a Child or for an Adult Unable to Handle Funds/Report to the United States Social Security Administration—0960-0049.</E>
                     Section 203(c) of the Act requires the Commissioner of SSA to make benefit deductions and provides for the Commissioner to impose penalty deductions on benefits of individuals who fail to make timely reports of events, which are cause for deductions. SSA uses Forms SSA-7161-OCR-SM and SSA-7162-OCR-SM to: (1) determine continuing entitlement to Social Security benefits; (2) correct benefit amounts for beneficiaries outside the United States; and (3) monitor the performance of representative payees outside the United States (U.S.). This collection is mandatory as an annual (or every other year, depending on the country of residence) review for fraud prevention. In addition, the results can affect benefits by increasing or decreasing payment amount or by causing SSA to suspend or terminate benefits. The respondents are individuals living outside the United States who are receiving benefits on their own (or on behalf of someone else) under Title II of the Act.
                </P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P> SSA is making minor instructional changes to these forms in accordance with Public Law 115-165 which exempts certain representative payees from the annual accounting requirement. We are also updating the Privacy Act Statement on these forms to comply with current legal requirements.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,15">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Modality of completion</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Frequency of response</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated total annual burden
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>theoretical hourly cost amount</LI>
                            <LI>(dollars) *</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual
                            <LI>opportunity cost</LI>
                            <LI>(dollars) **</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SSA-7161-OCR-SM</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,077</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,519</ENT>
                        <ENT>* $32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** $49,611</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">SSA-7162-OCR-SM</ENT>
                        <ENT>352,956</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>29,413</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 960,629</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>359,033</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>30,932</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>** 1,010,240</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* We based this figure on average U.S. worker's hourly wages as reported by Bureau of Labor Statistics data (Occupational Employment and Wage Statistics).</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        ** This figure does not represent actual costs that SSA is imposing on recipients of Social Security payments to complete this application; rather, these are theoretical opportunity costs for the additional time respondents will spend to complete the application. 
                        <E T="03">There is no actual charge to respondents to complete the application.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Application for a Social Security Number (SSN) Card, the Social Security Number Application Process (SSNAP), and Online SSN Application Process (oSSNAP)—20 CFR 422.103-422.110—0960-0066.</E>
                     SSA collects information on the SS-5 (used in the U.S.) and SS-5-FS (used outside the U.S.) to issue original or replacement Social Security cards. SSA also enters the application data into the SSNAP application when issuing a card via telephone or in person. In addition, hospitals collect the same information on SSA's behalf for newborn children through the Enumeration at Birth (EAB) process. In this process, parents of newborns provide hospital birth registration clerks with information required to register these newborns. Hospitals send this information to State Bureaus of Vital Statistics (BVS), and they send the information to SSA's National Computer Center. SSA then uploads the data to the SSA mainframe along with all other enumeration data, and we assign the newborn a SSN and issue a Social Security card. The vast majority of applications for original SSN cards utilize EAB. Finally, oSSNAP collects information similar to that which we collect on the paper SS-5 for no change situations, with the exception of name change, new or replacement SSN cards for U.S. Citizens (adult and minor children), and replacement cards only for non-U.S. citizens. For certain applicants for SSN replacement cards, the modality allows respondents to complete the application using an internet application and submit the required evidence online rather than completing a paper Form SS-5 [formerly the internet SSN Replacement Card (iSSNRC) application]. oSSNAP also allows applicants for new or replacement SSN cards to start the application process online, receive a list of evidentiary documents, and then submit the application data to SSA for further processing by SSA employees. Applicants using oSSNAP in this way then visit a local SSA office to complete the application process.
                </P>
                <P>
                    SSA collects race and ethnicity information as part of the SSN card application process. Response to the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58680"/>
                    race and ethnicity questions is voluntary. The respondents for this information collection are applicants for original and replacement Social Security cards, or individuals who wish to change information in their SSN records, who use any of the modalities described above.
                </P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P> SSA is combining the iSSNRC and oSSNAP screens to streamline these processes for the respondents. Through combining the screens under one application (oSSNAP), respondents can more easily find the electronic process which works best for them to submit their request for a replacement SSN card.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,12,15">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Application scenario</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Frequency of
                            <LI>response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Estimated total annual burden (hours)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>theoretical</LI>
                            <LI>hourly cost</LI>
                            <LI>amount</LI>
                            <LI>(dollars) *</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average wait
                            <LI>time in field</LI>
                            <LI>office</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes) **</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual
                            <LI>opportunity cost</LI>
                            <LI>(dollars) ***</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">EAB Modality</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">Hospital staff who relay the State birth certificate information to the BVS and SSA through the EAB process</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,599,746</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>599,958</ENT>
                        <ENT>* $26.91</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 0</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** $16,144,870</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">oSSNAP Modality</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Adult U.S. Citizens requesting a replacement card with no changes using iSSNRC Webservices through oSSNAP</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,218,960</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>369,827</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 0</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 12,078,550</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Adult U.S. Citizens requesting a replacement card with a name change using iSSNRC Webservices through oSSNAP</ENT>
                        <ENT>37,820</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,303</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 0</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 205,856</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Adult U.S. Citizens providing information to receive a replacement card through the oSSNAP
                            <SU>+</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>2,334,386</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>389,064</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 16</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 33,037,778</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Adult U.S. Citizens providing information to receive an original card through the oSSNAP
                            <SU>+</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>90,952</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>15,159</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 16</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 1,287,229</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Adult Non-U.S. Citizens providing information to receive an original card through the oSSNAP
                            <SU>+</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>786,589</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>131,098</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 16</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 11,132,324</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Adult Non-U.S. Citizens providing information to receive a replacement card through the oSSNAP
                            <SU>+</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>214,286</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>35,714</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 16</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 3,032,710</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">SSNAP/SS-5 Modality</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Respondents who do not have to provide parents' SSNs</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,764,440</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,014,666</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 16</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 92,052,765</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Respondents whom we ask to provide parents' SSNs (when applying for original SSN cards for children under age 12)</ENT>
                        <ENT>221,751</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                        <ENT>33,263</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 16</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 3,017,686</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Applicants age 12 or older who need to answer additional questions so SSA can determine whether we previously assigned an SSN</ENT>
                        <ENT>796,688</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>132,781</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 16</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 11,275,244</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Applicants asking for a replacement SSN card beyond the allowable limits (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             who must provide additional documentation to accompany the application)
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>11,885</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>60</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,885</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 16</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 491,663</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Enumeration Quality Review</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Authorization to SSA to obtain personal information cover letter</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>+</SU>
                             1
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">Authorization to SSA to obtain personal information follow-up cover letter</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>+</SU>
                             1
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Grand Total</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>17,077,505</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>2,739,720</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>*** 183,756,677</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>+</SU>
                         We are not currently sending out these notices; however, we included a 1-hour placeholder burden for these notices in the event we need to send them out in the near future.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>* We based these figures on average Medical Records Specialist, and average U.S. worker's hourly wages as reported by the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics (Occupational Employment and Wage Statistics).</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>** We based this figure on the average FY 2026 wait times for field offices (16 minutes), based on SSA's current management information data. This figure reflects the data posted on our public facing website (800 number performance | SSA) on the date we drafted this notice. As the figures fluctuate daily, the wait times may be different on the publication date of this notice.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        *** This figure does not represent actual costs that SSA is imposing on recipients of Social Security payments to complete this application; rather, these are theoretical opportunity costs for the additional time respondents will spend to complete the application. 
                        <E T="03">There is no actual charge to respondents to complete the application.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    3. Continuing Disability Review Report—20 CFR 404.1589 &amp; 416.989—0960-0072. Sections 221(i), 1614(a)(3)(H)(ii)(I) and 1633(c)(1) of the Act requires SSA to periodically review the cases of individuals who receive 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58681"/>
                    benefits under Title II or Title XVI based on disability to determine if their disability continues. SSA considers adults eligible for disability payments if they continue to be unable to do substantial gainful activity because of their impairments, and we consider Title XVI children eligible for disability payment if they have marked and severe functional limitations because of their impairments. To assess claimants' ongoing disability payment eligibility, SSA uses the information gathered through the Continuing Disability Review Report to complete a mandatory review for the continue disability review (CDR).
                </P>
                <P>SSA also uses the Continuing Disability Review Report to obtain information on sources of medical treatment; participation in vocational rehabilitation programs (if any); attempts to work (if any); and recipients' assessments when they believe their conditions improved. Title II or Title XVI disability recipients can complete the Continuing Disability Review Report using one of three modalities:</P>
                <P>(1) a paper application or fillable PDF (using Form SSA-454-BK); (2) a field office interview, during which SSA employees enter claimant's data directly into the Electronic Disability Collection System (EDCS); or (3) using an online system (i454), which is a web-based modality that provides recipients a fully electronic platform for submitting information to increase accessibility and enhance automation. When SSA initiates a medical CDR, we send a mailed notice to the individual with a disability informing that individual that SSA requires a CDR. The mailed notice provides instructions to the recipient on how to assist the agency with initiating the CDR and gives the individual the option to complete a paper SSA-454 or an i454 for adult only disabled individuals. When an individual requires a CDR, a claims specialist (CS) mails the paper Form SSA-454-BK, and the respondent completes the form, and sends or brings it back to SSA; or the CS interviews the respondent and enters the information into the appropriate EDCS screens; or adult disabled individuals submit the information electronically using the i454 internet application. Regardless of the modality the respondent uses to complete the information (paper, EDCS, or internet versions), SSA electronically stores the information provided in EDCS. The respondents complete the SSA-454-BK by themselves with self-help information available, or a representative may complete the paper form or electronic application on their behalf. The respondents are Title II or Title XVI disability recipients or their representatives.</P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P>We are revising the burden for this information collection, making minor revisions to the language for clarification purposes, and updating the Privacy Act Statement to comply with current legal requirements.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,12,15">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Application scenario</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Frequency of
                            <LI>response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Estimated total annual burden (hours)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>theoretical</LI>
                            <LI>hourly cost</LI>
                            <LI>amount</LI>
                            <LI>(dollars) **</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average wait
                            <LI>time in field</LI>
                            <LI>office</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes) ***</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual
                            <LI>opportunity cost</LI>
                            <LI>(dollars) ****</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SSA-454-BK (paper version)</ENT>
                        <ENT>249,194</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 600</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,491,940</ENT>
                        <ENT>** $14.27</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 16</ENT>
                        <ENT>**** $36,508,254</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Electronic Disability Collect System (EDCS)</ENT>
                        <ENT>267,975</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 600</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,679,750</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 14.27</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 47</ENT>
                        <ENT>**** 41,235,505</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">i454 (Internet)</ENT>
                        <ENT>45,763</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 600</ENT>
                        <ENT>457,630</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 14.27</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 0</ENT>
                        <ENT>**** 6,530,380</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>562,932</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>5,629,320</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>**** 84,274,139</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* The estimated time of 600 minutes to complete Form SSA-454-BK is an average for the respondents, who are Title II or Title XVI disability recipients or their representatives. Some of these respondents may take longer to complete the forms and submit the information, while others will complete the forms faster, which is why we use average time estimates to calculate time burdens for these information collections. These estimates were originally developed, and are still based on, our current management information data.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>** We based this figure on the average DI payments based on SSA's current FY 2026 data (Effect of COLA on Average Social Security Benefits).</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>*** We based this figure on the average combined FY 2026 wait times for field offices (16 minutes) and for teleservice centers (47 minutes which includes the average speed of answer of 6 minutes as well as the average 41 minute wait time for a call back from an SSA technician), based on SSA's current management information data. This figure reflects both data from our systems and the data posted on our public facing website (800 number performance | SSA) on the date we drafted this notice. As the figures fluctuate daily, the wait times may be different on the publication date of this notice.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        **** This figure does not represent actual costs that SSA is imposing on recipients of Social Security payments to complete this application; rather, these are theoretical opportunity costs for the additional time respondents will spend to complete the application. 
                        <E T="03">There is no actual charge to respondents to complete the application.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>4. Certificate of Coverage Request—20 CFR 404.1913—0960-0554. The U.S, has agreements with 30 foreign countries to eliminate double Social Security coverage and taxation where, except for the provisions of the agreement, a worker would be subject to coverage and taxes in both countries. Each Agreement contains rules: (1) for determining which country's laws cover the period of work, and to which system the worker pays taxes; and (2) that assign a worker's coverage to the country where the worker has the greater economic attachment. The agreements further dictate that, upon the request of the worker or employer, the country under whose system the period of work is covered will issue a certificate of coverage. The certificate serves as proof of exemption from coverage and taxation under the system of the other country. The information we collect assists us in determining a worker's coverage and in issuing a U.S. certificate of coverage as appropriate. Per our agreements, we ask a set number of questions to the workers and employers prior to issuing a certificate of coverage; however, our agreements with thirteen of the countries (Denmark, Iceland, Netherlands, Norway, Sweden, Germany, Italy, Spain, Uraguay, Belgium, Poland, France, and Japan) require us to ask a few more questions in those countries. Respondents are workers and employers wishing to establish exemption from foreign Social Security taxes.</P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P>SSA is updating the Privacy Act and Paperwork Reduction Act Statements on these forms to comply with current legal requirements.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58682"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Modality of completion</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Frequency of response</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated total annual burden
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>theoretical</LI>
                            <LI>hourly cost</LI>
                            <LI>amount</LI>
                            <LI>(dollars) *</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual opportunity cost
                            <LI>(dollars) **</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Letter—Individuals (minus Denmark, Iceland, Netherlands, Norway, Sweden, Germany, Italy, Spain, Uruguay, France, Japan, Belgium, and Poland)</ENT>
                        <ENT>43</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>29</ENT>
                        <ENT>* $32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** $947</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Internet—Individuals (minus Denmark, Iceland, Netherlands, Norway, Sweden, Germany, Italy, Spain, Uruguay, France, Japan, Belgium, and Poland)</ENT>
                        <ENT>995</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>663</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 21,654</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Letter—Individuals in Denmark, Iceland, Netherlands, Norway, and Sweden</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>+</SU>
                             1
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Internet—Individuals in Denmark, Iceland, Netherlands, Norway, and Sweden</ENT>
                        <ENT>122</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>41</ENT>
                        <ENT>83</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,711</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Letter—Individuals in Germany, Italy, Spain, Uruguay</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>44</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>294</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Internet—Individuals in Germany, Italy, Spain, Uruguay</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,013</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>41</ENT>
                        <ENT>692</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>22,601</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Letter—Individuals in France and Japan</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>44</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>229</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Internet—Individuals in France and Japan</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,023</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>682</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>22,274</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Letter—Individuals in Belgium</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>41</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Internet—Individuals in Belgium</ENT>
                        <ENT>51</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>41</ENT>
                        <ENT>35</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,143</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Letter—Individuals in Poland</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>41</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>33</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Internet—Individuals in Poland</ENT>
                        <ENT>52</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>41</ENT>
                        <ENT>36</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,161</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Letter—Employer (minus Denmark, Iceland, Netherlands, Norway, Sweden, Germany, Italy, Spain, Uruguay, France, Japan, Belgium, and Poland)</ENT>
                        <ENT>76</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>51</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,666</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Internet—Employer (minus Denmark, Iceland, Netherlands, Norway, Sweden, Germany, Italy, Spain, Uruguay, France, Japan, Belgium, and Poland)</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,664</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>5109</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>166,860</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Letter—Employer in Denmark, Iceland, Netherlands, Norway, and Sweden</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>44</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>98</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Internet—Employer in Denmark, Iceland, Netherlands, Norway, and Sweden</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,347</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>44</ENT>
                        <ENT>988</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>32,268</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Letter—Employer in Germany, Italy, Spain, Uruguay</ENT>
                        <ENT>22</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>41</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>490</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Internet—Employer in Germany, Italy, Spain, Uruguay</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,601</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>41</ENT>
                        <ENT>2461</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>80,376</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Letter—Employer in France and Japan</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>41</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>261</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Internet—Employer in France and Japan</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,073</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>41</ENT>
                        <ENT>2783</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>90,893</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Letter—Employer in Belgium</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>44</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>33</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Internet—Employer in Belgium</ENT>
                        <ENT>434</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>41</ENT>
                        <ENT>297</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,700</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Letter—Employer in Poland</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>41</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>33</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Requests via Internet—Employer in Poland</ENT>
                        <ENT>210</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>41</ENT>
                        <ENT>144</ENT>
                        <ENT>32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,703</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>20,123</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>13,656</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>460,425</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>+</SU>
                         We are including a one-hour placeholder burden for the information collection for which we currently have no responses (mostly the mailed/faxed letters, as we do not receive these often, since we collect almost all responses via our internet-based forms). While respondents may use this modality if the system goes down, in general, they prefer to use the internet submission process.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>* We based this figure on average U.S. citizen's hourly salary, as reported by Bureau of Labor Statistics data (Occupational Employment and Wage Statistics).</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        ** This figure does not represent actual costs that SSA is imposing on recipients of Social Security payments to complete this application; rather, these are theoretical opportunity costs for the additional time respondents will spend to complete the application. 
                        <E T="03">There is no actual charge to respondents to complete the application.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>5. Disability Report-Child—20 CFR 416.912—0960-0577. Sections 223(d)(5)(A) and 1631(e)(1) of the Act require Supplemental Security Income (SSI) claimants to furnish medical and other evidence to prove they are disabled. SSA uses Form SSA-3820-BK to collect information regarding a child applying for SSI disability payments. The information we collect on the SSA-3820-BK then provides the State Disability Determination Services (DDS) adjudicators a detailed explanation of a child's medical history that is essential to the disability determination. SSA uses Form SSA-3820-BK to collect contact and biographic information about a child. It also includes details pertaining to the child's condition including medical treating sources, medications being taken, medical tests, educational background, and work history if relevant. The State (DDS) evaluators use the information from Form SSA-3820-BK, including its electronic versions, to request and develop medical and school evidence, and to assess the alleged disability. The information collected on the form, together with medical evidence and other sources of non-medical evidence, provides the evidentiary basis upon which SSA makes its initial disability evaluation. The respondents are the responsible adult(s) applying on behalf of the child, such as the parents, guardians, and other caretakers who petition SSI childhood disability for initial and reconsideration decisions.</P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P>SSA is updating the Privacy Act and Paperwork Reduction Act Statements on these forms to comply with current legal requirements.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Modality of completion</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Frequency of response</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated total annual burden
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>theoretical</LI>
                            <LI>hourly cost</LI>
                            <LI>amount</LI>
                            <LI>(dollars) *</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average wait time in field
                            <LI>office or teleservice center</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes) **</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual opportunity cost
                            <LI>(dollars) ***</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SSA-3820 Paper Version</ENT>
                        <ENT>771</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>90</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,157</ENT>
                        <ENT>$14.27</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 16</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** $19,450</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">EDCS Intranet Version</ENT>
                        <ENT>255,984</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>120</ENT>
                        <ENT>511,968</ENT>
                        <ENT>14.27</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 32</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 9,253,995</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58683"/>
                        <ENT I="01">i3820 Internet Version</ENT>
                        <ENT>96,481</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>120</ENT>
                        <ENT>192,962</ENT>
                        <ENT>14.27</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 0</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 2,753,568</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>353,236</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>706,087</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>*** 12,027,013</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* We based this figure on the average DI payments based on SSA's current FY 2026 data (Effect of COLA on Average Social Security Benefits).</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>** We based this figure on the average combined FY 2026 wait times for field offices (16 minutes) and for teleservice centers (47 minutes which includes the average speed of answer of 6 minutes as well as the average 41 minute wait time for a call back from an SSA technician), based on SSA's current management information data. This figure reflects both data from our systems and the data posted on our public facing website (800 number performance | SSA) on the date we drafted this notice. As the figures fluctuate daily, the wait times may be different on the publication date of this notice. We note that we combined these two figures for the purposes of this information collection, as SSA does not track whether the respondents who complete the EDCS interview do so via telephone or in person.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        *** This figure does not represent actual costs that SSA is imposing on recipients of Social Security payments to complete this application; rather, these are theoretical opportunity costs for the additional time respondents will spend to complete the application. 
                        <E T="03">There is no actual charge to respondents to complete the application.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>6. Consent Based Social Security Number Verification Process—20 CFR 400.100—0960-0760. The Consent Based Social Security Number Verification (CBSV) process is a fee-based automated Social Security number (SSN) verification service available to private businesses and other requesting parties. To use the system, private businesses and requesting parties must register with SSA and obtain valid consent from SSN holders prior to verification. We collect the information to verify if the submitted name and SSN match the information in SSA records. After completing a registration process and paying the fee, the requesting party can use the CBSV process to submit a file containing the names of number holders who gave valid consent, along with each number holder's accompanying SSN and date of birth (if available) to obtain real-time results using a web service application or SSA's Business Services Online (BSO) application. SSA matches the information against the SSA master file of SSNs, using SSN, name, date of birth, and gender code (if available). The requesting party retrieves the results file from SSA, which indicates only a match or no match for each SSN submitted.</P>
                <P>Under the CBSV process, the requesting party does not submit the consent forms of the number holders to SSA. SSA requires each requesting party to retain a valid consent form for each SSN verification request. The requesting party retains the consent forms in either electronic or paper format.</P>
                <P>SSA added a strong audit component to ensure the integrity of the CBSV process. At the discretion of the agency, we require audits (called “compliance reviews”) with the requesting party paying all audit costs. Independent certified public accounts (CPAs) conduct these reviews to ensure compliance with all the terms and conditions of the party's agreement with SSA, including a review of the consent forms. CPAs conduct the reviews at the requesting party's place of business to ensure the integrity of the process. In addition, SSA reserves the right to perform unannounced onsite inspections of the entire process, including review of the technical systems that maintain the data and transaction records. The respondents to the CBSV collection are the participating companies; members of the public who consent to the SSN verification; and CPAs who provide compliance review services.</P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P> We are revising the burden for this information collection.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Time Burden</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Requirement</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Frequency of response</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated total annual burden
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>theoretical</LI>
                            <LI>hourly cost</LI>
                            <LI>amount</LI>
                            <LI>(dollars) *</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual opportunity cost
                            <LI>(dollars) **</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Participating Companies</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Registration process for new participating companies</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 8</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>120</ENT>
                        <ENT>16</ENT>
                        <ENT>* $45.04</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** $721</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Creation of file with SSN holder identification data; maintaining required documentation/forms</ENT>
                        <ENT>52</ENT>
                        <ENT>**** 251</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,052</ENT>
                        <ENT>60</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,052</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 45.04</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 587,862</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Using the system to upload request file, check status, and download results file</ENT>
                        <ENT>52</ENT>
                        <ENT>251</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,052</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,088</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 45.04</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 49,004</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Storing Consent Forms</ENT>
                        <ENT>52</ENT>
                        <ENT>251</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,052</ENT>
                        <ENT>60</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,052</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 45.04</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 587,862</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Activities related to compliance review</ENT>
                        <ENT>52</ENT>
                        <ENT>251</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,052</ENT>
                        <ENT>60</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,052</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 45.04</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 587,862</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>216</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>52,213</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>52,224</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>** 1,813,311</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Participating Companies Who Opt for External Testing Environment (ETE)</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">ETE Registration Process (includes reviewing and completing ETE User Agreement)</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>180</ENT>
                        <ENT>57</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 45.04</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 2,567</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Web Service Transactions</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>950</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>16</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 45.04</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 721</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Reporting Issues Encountered on Web service testing (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             reports on application's reliability)
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>950</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>16</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 45.04</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 721</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Reporting changes in users' status (e.g., termination or changes in users' employment status; changes in duties of authorized users)</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>60</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 45.04</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 856</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Cancellation of Agreement</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 45.04</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 450</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58684"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Dispute Resolution</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>120</ENT>
                        <ENT>38</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 45.04</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 1,711</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>114</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>3,004</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>156</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>7,026</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">People Whose SSNs SSA Will Verify</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Reading and signing authorization for SSA to release SSN verification (Form SSA-89)</ENT>
                        <ENT>597,295</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>597,295</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>29,865</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 23.47</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 700,932</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Responding to CPA re-contact</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,074</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,074</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>256</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 45.04</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 11,530</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>600,369</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>600,369</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>30,121</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>** 712,462</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* We based this figure by averaging both the average DI payments based on SSA's current FY 2026 data (Effect of COLA on Average Social Security Benefits), and the average U.S. worker's hourly wages, as reported by Bureau of Labor Statistics data (Occupational Employment and Wage Statistics); and on the average Business and Financial operations occupations hourly salaries, as reported by Bureau of Labor Statistics data (Occupational Employment and Wage Statistics).</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        ** This figure does not represent actual costs that SSA is imposing on recipients of Social Security payments to complete this application; rather, these are theoretical opportunity costs for the additional time respondents will spend to complete the application. 
                        <E T="03">There is no actual charge to respondents to complete the application.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>*** One-time registration process approximately 10 new participating companies per year.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>**** Please note there are 251 Federal business days per year on which a requesting party could submit a file.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>There is one CPA respondent conducting compliance reviews and preparing written reports of findings. The average burden per the 52 responses is 3,120 minutes for a total burden of 6,400 hours annually.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>7. Statement for Determining Continuing Entitlement for Special Veterans Benefits (SVB)—0960-0782. Title VIII of the Act provides for the payment of Special Veterans benefits (SVB) to certain World War II veterans who reside outside of the United States. SSA regularly reviews individuals' claims for SVB to determine their continued eligibility and correct payment amounts. SSA requires individuals living outside the United States receiving SVB to report any changes to SSA that may affect their benefits. These include changes such as: (1) a change in mailing address or residence; (2) an increase or decrease in a pension, annuity, or other recurring benefit; (3) a return or visit to the United States for a calendar month or longer; or (4) an inability to manage benefits. SSA uses Form SSA-2010-F6, to collect this information. All beneficiaries have face-to-face interviews with the Federal Benefits Unit (FBU) every year who assist them in completing this form. Respondents are SVB beneficiaries living outside the United States.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">This is a correction notice:</E>
                     SSA published the incorrect burden information for this collection at 90 FR 34329, on 7/21/25. We are correcting this error here.
                </P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P> We are revising the burden for this information collection and updating the Privacy Act Statement to comply with current legal requirements.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,12C,12C,12C,12C,12C,12C,12C">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Modality of completion</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Frequency of response</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated total annual burden
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>theoretical</LI>
                            <LI>hourly cost</LI>
                            <LI>amount</LI>
                            <LI>(dollars) *</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Average wait time for a field office</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual opportunity cost
                            <LI>(dollars) ***</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SSA-2010</ENT>
                        <ENT>27</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                        <ENT>* $32.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 16</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** $523</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* We based this figure on average U.S. worker's hourly wages, as reported by Bureau of Labor Statistics data (Occupational Employment and Wage Statistics).</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>** We based this figure on the average FY 2026 wait times for field offices (16 minutes), based on SSA's current management information data. This figure reflects the data posted on our public facing website (800 number performance | SSA) on the date we drafted this notice. As the figures fluctuate daily, the wait times may be different on the publication date of this notice.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        *** This figure does not represent actual costs that SSA is imposing on recipients of Social Security payments to complete this application; rather, these are theoretical opportunity costs for the additional time respondents will spend to complete the application. 
                        <E T="03">There is no actual charge to respondents to complete the application.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Mark Steffensen,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>General Counsel, Chief of Law and Policy, Social Security Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23098 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4191-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 12857]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Department of State Sanctions Actions Pursuant to the Executive Order Regarding Blocking Property With Respect to Specified Harmful Foreign Activities of the Government of the Russian Federation</SUBJECT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of State is publishing the names of one or more persons that were placed on the Department of Treasury's List of Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons (SDN List) administered by the Office of Foreign Asset Control (OFAC) based on the Department of State's determination, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, that one or more applicable legal criteria of the Executive Order regarding blocking property with respect to specified harmful foreign activities of the Government of the Russian Federation were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58685"/>
                        persons are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        These actions were issued on January 10, 2025, and January 15, 2025, respectively. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for effective date(s) in 2025.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Office of Counterproliferation Initiatives, Bureau of Arms Control and Nonproliferation, Department of State, Washington, DC 20520, tel.: (202) 647 5193, email: 
                        <E T="03">ACN_Sanctions@state.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.treasury.gov/ofac</E>
                    ). The announcements for these actions are available on the Department of State's website (
                    <E T="03">https://2021-2025.state.gov/office-of-the-spokesperson/releases/2025/01/sanctions-to-degrade-russias-energy-sector; https://2021-2025.state.gov/office-of-the-spokesperson/releases/2025/01/sanctions-to-disrupt-russias-military-industrial-base-and-sanctions-evasion</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On January 10, 2025, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-27-P</BILCOD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58686"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.000</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58687"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.001</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58688"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.002</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58689"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.003</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58690"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.004</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58691"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.005</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58692"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.006</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58693"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.007</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58694"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.008</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58695"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.009</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58696"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.010</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58697"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.011</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58698"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.012</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58699"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.013</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58700"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.014</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58701"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.015</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="121">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58702"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.016</GID>
                </GPH>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Renee P. Sonderman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary, Bureau of Arms Control and Nonproliferation, Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23021 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-27-C</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 12855]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of 2023 Department of State Sanctions Actions Pursuant to the Executive Order Regarding Blocking Property With Respect to Specified Harmful Foreign Activities of the Government of the Russian Federation</SUBJECT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of State is publishing the names of one or more persons that were placed on the Department of Treasury's List of Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons (SDN List) administered by the Office of Foreign Asset Control (OFAC) in 2023 based on the Department of State's determination, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, that one or more applicable legal criteria of the Executive Order regarding blocking property with respect to specified harmful foreign activities of the Government of the Russian Federation were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these persons are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>These actions were issued on January 26, 2023, February 24, 2023, April 12, 2023, May 19, 2023, July 20, 2023, September 14, 2023, November 2, 2023, and December 12, 2023, respectively.</P>
                    <P>
                        See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for effective date(s) in 2023.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Office of Counterproliferation Initiatives, Bureau of Arms Control and Nonproliferation, Department of State, Washington, DC 20520, tel.: (202) 647 5193, email: 
                        <E T="03">ACN_Sanctions@state.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.treasury.gov/ofac</E>
                    ). The announcements for these actions are available on the Department of State's website (
                    <E T="03">https://2021-2025.state.gov/actions-to-counter-wagner-and-degrade-russias-war-efforts-in-ukraine/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/the-united-states-takes-sweeping-actions-on-the-one-year-anniversary-of-russias-war-against-ukraine/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/further-curbing-russias-efforts-to-evade-sanctions-and-perpetuate-its-war-against-ukraine-2/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/united-states-imposes-additional-sanctions-and-export-controls-on-russia/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/imposing-additional-sanctions-on-those-supporting-russias-war-against-ukraine/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/imposing-further-sanctions-in-response-to-russias-illegal-war-against-ukraine/; https://ofac.treasury.gov/recent-actions/20231102; https://2021-2025.state.gov/taking-additional-sweeping-measures-against-russia-3/</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On January 26, 2023, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <P>1. MALYAREVICH, Aleksei Alekseevich (a.k.a. MALYAREVICH, Aleksey), Russia; DOB 27 Aug 1965; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY CHARTER GREEN LIGHT MOSCOW).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of Executive Order 14024 of April 15, 2021 “Blocking Property With Respect To Specified Harmful Foreign Activities of the Government of the Russian Federation,” (E.O. 14024) for being owned or controlled by, or for having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY CHARTER GREEN LIGHT MOSCOW, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-27-P</BILCOD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="604">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58703"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.062</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="138">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58704"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.063</GID>
                </GPH>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-27-C</BILCOD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On February 24, 2023, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <P>1. ROMANENKO, Oleg Evgenievich (a.k.a. ROMANENKO, Oleg; a.k.a. ROMANENKO, Oleg Yegemyevich), 29/8 Heroev Ave, Apt 51, Balakovo, Saratov Region, Russia; DOB 05 Oct 1963; POB Soledar, Bakhmut District, Donetsk Region, Ukraine; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Passport 6308 264336 (Russia); Tax ID No. 643910675500 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for acting or purporting to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, JOINT STOCK COMPANY OPERATING ORGANIZATION OF ZAPORIZHZHYA NPP, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <P>1. RUSSIAN FEDERAL NUCLEAR CENTER—ZABABAKHIN ALL-RUSSIA RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF TECHNICAL PHYSICS (a.k.a. CHELYABINSK-70; a.k.a. FEDERAL STATE UNITARY ENTERPRISE RUSSIAN FEDERAL NUCLEAR CENTER-ACADEMICIAN E.I. ZABABKHIN ALL-RUSSIAN SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF TECHNICAL PHYSICS; a.k.a. KASLI NUCLEAR WEAPONS DEVELOPMENT CENTER; a.k.a. VSEROSSIYSKY NAUCHNO-ISSLEDOVATELSKIY INSTITUT TEKHNICHESKOY FIZIKI; a.k.a. ZABABAKHIN ALL-RUSSIA RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF TECHNICAL PHYSICS; a.k.a. ZABABAKHIN INSTITUTE; a.k.a. “RFNC-VNIITF”; a.k.a. “VNIITF”), P.O. Box 245, Snezhinsk, Chelyabinsk Region 456770, Russia; Organization Established Date 1955; Tax ID No. 7423000572 (Russia); Registration Number 1027401350932 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. ALL-RUSSIAN SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF EXPERIMENTAL PHYSICS (a.k.a. ARZAMAS-16; a.k.a. AVANGARD ELECTROMECHANICAL PLANT; a.k.a. FEDERAL STATE UNITARY ENTERPRISE RUSSIAN FEDERAL NUCLEAR CENTER-ALL RUSSIAN SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF EXPERIMENTAL PHYSICS; a.k.a. KHARITON INSTITUTE; a.k.a. SAROV NUCLEAR WEAPONS PLANT; a.k.a. VSEROSSIYSKIY NAUCHNO-ISSLEDOVATELSKIY INSTITUT EKSPERIMENTALNOY; a.k.a. “RFNC-VNIIEF”; a.k.a. “VNIIEF”), 10 Muzrukov Ave, Sarov, Nizhny Novgorod Region 607188, Russia; Organization Established Date 1992; Tax ID No. 5254001230 (Russia); Registration Number 1025202199791 (Russia) [RUSSIA EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. FEDERAL STATE UNITARY ENTERPRISE DUKHOV AUTOMATICS RESEARCH INSTITUTE (a.k.a. ALL-RUSSIA RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF AUTOMATICS; a.k.a. FEDERAL STATE UNITARY ENTERPRISE ALL-RUSSIAN AUTOMATICS RESEARCH INSTITUTE NAMED AFTER N.L. DUKHOV; a.k.a. “VNIIA”), 22 Sushchevskaya st., Moscow 127055, Russia; Organization Established Date 15 Apr 1994; Tax ID No. 7707074137 (Russia); Registration Number 1027739646164 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>4. MAIN DIRECTORATE OF DEEP SEA RESEARCH (a.k.a. FEDERAL STATE INSTITUTION MILITARY UNIT 40056; a.k.a. GLAVNOYE UPRAVLENIE GLUBOKOVODSK ISSLEDOVANII; a.k.a. “GUGI”), 26A Onezhskaya Str., Moscow 125413, Russia; Organization Established Date 08 Dec 2009; Tax ID No. 7443763446 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>5. JOINT STOCK COMPANY OPERATING ORGANIZATION OF ZAPORIZHZHYA NPP (a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY OPERATING ORGANIZATION ZAPORIZHZHYA NUCLEAR POWER PLANT; a.k.a. “JSC OE ZNPP”), Ferganskaya Street 25, Moscow, Russia; Organization Established Date Oct 2022 [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or acting or purporting to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-27-P</BILCOD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="563">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58705"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.064</GID>
                </GPH>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On April 12, 2023, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="246">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58706"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.065</GID>
                </GPH>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="218">
                    <GID>EN17DE25.066</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58707"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.067</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="160">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58708"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.068</GID>
                </GPH>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On May 19, 2023, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="342">
                    <GID>EN17DE25.069</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58709"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.070</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58710"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.071</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58711"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.072</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="66">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58712"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.073</GID>
                </GPH>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-27-C</BILCOD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Aircraft</HD>
                <P>1. RA-65690; Aircraft Model TU-134; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 62805; Aircraft Tail Number RA-65690 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>2. RA-65986; Aircraft Model TU-134; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 63475; Aircraft Tail Number RA-65986 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>3. RA-65989; Aircraft Model TU-134; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 63605; Aircraft Tail Number RA-65989 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>4. RA-65996; Aircraft Model TU-134; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 63825; Aircraft Tail Number RA-65996 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>5. RA-72963; Aircraft Model AN-72; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 36572092845; Aircraft Tail Number RA-72963 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>6. RA-78830; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 1003401010; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78830 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>7. RA-78840; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 1003403056; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78840 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>8. RA-78847; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 1003404132; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78847 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>9. RA-78850; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 1013405196; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78850 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>10. RA-85041; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 12A997; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85041 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>
                    11. RA-85042; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 12A998; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85042 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58713"/>
                    THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).
                </P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>12. RA-85155; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 1000; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85155 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>13. RA-85360; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 79A360; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85360 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>14. RA-85426; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 81A426; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85426 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>15. RA-85446; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 80A446; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85446 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>16. RA-85534; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 82A534; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85534 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>17. RA-85554; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 82A554; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85554 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>18. RA-85555; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 82A555; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85555 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>19. RA-85559; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 82A559; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85559 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>20. RA-85563; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 82A563; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85563 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>21. RA-85571; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 83A571; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85571 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>22. RA-85586; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 84A586; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85586 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>
                    23. RA-85594; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 84A594; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85594 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58714"/>
                    THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).
                </P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>24. RA-85605; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 85A605; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85605 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>25. RA-85686; Aircraft Model TU-154; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 90A854; Aircraft Tail Number RA-85686 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>26. RA-86495; Aircraft Model IL-62; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 2726628.1; Aircraft Tail Number RA-86495 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>27. RA-86496; Aircraft Model IL-62; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 3829859.1; Aircraft Tail Number RA-86496 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>28. RA-86539; Aircraft Model IL-62; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 2344615; Aircraft Tail Number RA-86539 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>29. RA-86555; Aircraft Model IL-62; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 4547315; Aircraft Tail Number RA-86555 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>30. RA-86561; Aircraft Model IL-62; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 4154842; Aircraft Tail Number RA-86561 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>31. RA-86572; Aircraft Model IL-62; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 3154624; Aircraft Tail Number RA-86572 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>32. RA-86906; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 23436064; Aircraft Tail Number RA-86906 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>33. RA-75478; Aircraft Model IL-18; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 189011302; Aircraft Tail Number RA-75478 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>34. RA-75496; Aircraft Model IL-18; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 188011303; Aircraft Tail Number RA-75496 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>
                    35. RA-75499; Aircraft Model IL-18; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 188011004; Aircraft Tail Number RA-75499 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58715"/>
                    THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).
                </P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>36. RA-75676; Aircraft Model IL-18; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 185008605; Aircraft Tail Number RA-75676 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>37. RA-95951; Aircraft Model TU-134; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 63845; Aircraft Tail Number RA-95951 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which FEDERAL STATE GOVERNMENTAL INSTITUTION 223 FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>38. RA-76592; Aircraft Manufacture Date 31 May 1984; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 43452555; Aircraft Tail Number RA-76592 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>39. RA-76638; Aircraft Manufacture Date 31 May 1985; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 53460802; Aircraft Tail Number RA-76638 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>40. RA-76669; Aircraft Manufacture Date 30 Jan 1986; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 63465949; Aircraft Tail Number RA-76669 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>41. RA-76686; Aircraft Manufacture Date 20 May 1986; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 63468045; Aircraft Tail Number RA-76686 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>42. RA-76713; Aircraft Manufacture Date 29 Nov 1986; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 63474193; Aircraft Tail Number RA-76713 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>43. RA-76719; Aircraft Manufacture Date 30 Jan 1987; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 73474226; Aircraft Tail Number RA-76719 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>44. RA-76738; Aircraft Manufacture Date 30 Jun 1987; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 73477326; Aircraft Tail Number RA-76738 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>45. RA-78750; Aircraft Manufacture Date 29 Feb 1988; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 83483510; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78750 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>46. RA-78762; Aircraft Manufacture Date 30 Jun 1988; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 83486574; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78762 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>47. RA-78776; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 83489652; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78776 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>48. RA-78789; Aircraft Manufacture Date 30 Dec 1988; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 83490706; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78789 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>49. RA-78794; Aircraft Manufacture Date 31 Jan 1989; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 93490726; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78794 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>
                    Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58716"/>
                    FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.
                </P>
                <P>50. RA-78796; Aircraft Manufacture Date 28 Feb 1989; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 93491735; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78796 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>51. RA-78816; Aircraft Manufacture Date 31 Jul 1989; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 93495846; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78816 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>52. RA-78817; Aircraft Manufacture Date 31 Jul 1989; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 93495851; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78817 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>53. RA-78818; Aircraft Manufacture Date 31 Aug 1989; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 93495858; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78818 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>54. RA-78831; Aircraft Manufacture Date 31 Aug 1990; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 1003401017; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78831 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>55. RA-78835; Aircraft Manufacture Date 25 May 1990; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 1003402033; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78835 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>56. RA-78842; Aircraft Manufacture Date 30 Jun 1990; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 1003403069; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78842 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>57. RA-78844; Aircraft Manufacture Date 31 Jul 1990; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 1003403092; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78844 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>58. RA-78845; Aircraft Manufacture Date 28 Aug 1990; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 1003403095; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78845 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>59. RA-78846; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 1003403113; Aircraft Tail Number RA-78846 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>60. RA-82010; Aircraft Manufacture Date 30 Dec 1986; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 9773053616017; Aircraft Tail Number RA-82010 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>61. RA-82012; Aircraft Manufacture Date 30 Jun 1987; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 9773052732028; Aircraft Tail Number RA-82012 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>62. RA-82013; Aircraft Manufacture Date 29 Sep 1987; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 9773053732033; Aircraft Tail Number RA-82013 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>63. RA-82014; Aircraft Manufacture Date 30 Nov 1987; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 9773054732039; Aircraft Tail Number RA-82014 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>
                    64. RA-82021; Aircraft Manufacture Date 29 Dec 1987; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 19530502002; Aircraft Tail Number RA-82021 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58717"/>
                    STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).
                </P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>65. RA-82023; Aircraft Manufacture Date 30 Dec 1988; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 19530502012; Aircraft Tail Number RA-82023 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>66. RA-82028; Aircraft Manufacture Date 22 Feb 1991; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 19530502599; Aircraft Tail Number RA-82028 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>67. RA-82030; Aircraft Manufacture Date 30 Dec 1987; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 9773054732045; Aircraft Tail Number RA-82030 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>68. RA-82036; Aircraft Manufacture Date 03 Mar 1989; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 9773054832068; Aircraft Tail Number RA-82036 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>69. RA-82038; Aircraft Manufacture Date 29 Dec 1989; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 9773054955077; Aircraft Tail Number RA-82038 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>70. RA-82039; Aircraft Manufacture Date 29 Jun 1990; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 9773052055082; Aircraft Tail Number RA-82039 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>71. RA-82040; Aircraft Manufacture Date 31 Oct 1990; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 9773053055086; Aircraft Tail Number RA-82040 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>72. RF-82041; Aircraft Manufacture Date 08 Feb 1991; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 9773054055089; Aircraft Tail Number RF-82041 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>73. RF-78764; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 83486585; Aircraft Tail Number RF-78764 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>74. RF-78797; Aircraft Manufacture Date 28 Feb 1989; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 93491742; Aircraft Tail Number RF-78797 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>75. RF-78815; Aircraft Manufacture Date 31 Jul 1989; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 93494842; Aircraft Tail Number RF-78815 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>76. RF-78834; Aircraft Manufacture Date 29 Apr 1990; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 1003401032; Aircraft Tail Number RF-78834 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>77. RF-78838; Aircraft Manufacture Date 31 May 1990; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 1003402044; Aircraft Tail Number RF-78838 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>78. RF-82032; Aircraft Manufacture Date 30 Jun 1988; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 9773052832051; Aircraft Tail Number RF-82032 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>
                    On May 19, 2023, based on a decision by the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, OFAC updated the entry on 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58718"/>
                    the SDN List for the following person, whose property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction continue to be blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.
                </P>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-27-P</BILCOD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58719"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.074</GID>
                </GPH>
                <PRTPAGE P="58720"/>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-27-C</BILCOD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On July 20, 2023, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <P>1. CHEKALOV, Valeriy Yevgenyevich, Russia; DOB 10 Jan 1976; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: PRIGOZHIN, Yevgeniy Viktorovich).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, YEVGENIY VIKTOROVICH PRIGOZHIN, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <P>2. RIM, Yong Hyok, Korea, North; DOB 04 Mar 1972; nationality Korea, North; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: PRIGOZHIN, Yevgeniy Viktorovich).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vi)(B) of E.O. 14024 for having materially assisted, sponsored, or provided financial, material, or technological support for, or goods or services to or in support of YEVGENIY VIKTOROVICH PRIGOZHIN, a person whose property and interests are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <P>3. LEPIN, Vladimir Nikolaevich, Russia; DOB 28 Jul 1959; POB Tambov, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY CONCERN KALASHNIKOV).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(C) of E.O. 14024 for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of JOINT STOCK COMPANY CONCERN KALASHNIKOV, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <P>1. CENTRAL RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF THE RUSSIAN AIR AND SPACE FORCES (a.k.a. FEDERALNOE GOSUDARSTVENNOE BJUDZHETNOE UCHREZHDENIE TSENTRALNYJ NAUCHNO-ISSLEDOVATELSKIJ INSTITUT VOJSK VOSDUSHNO-KOSMICHESKOJ OBORONY MINOBORONY ROSSII; a.k.a. FGBU TSNII VVKO MINOBORONY ROSSII; a.k.a. “TSNII VVKO”), 32 Afanasiya Nikitina Waterfront, Tver 170026, Russia; Tax ID No. 5018163975 (Russia); Registration Number 1145018002711 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. FEDERAL STATE UNITARY ENTERPRISE CENTER FOR OPERATION OF SPACE GROUND BASED INFRASTRUCTURE (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO TSENTR EKSPLUATATSII OBEKTOV NAZEMNOI KOSMICHESKOI INFRASTRUKTURY; a.k.a. FEDERALNOE GOSUDARSTVENNOE UNITARNOE PREDPRIIATIE TSENTR EKSPLUATATSII OBEKTOV NAZEMNOI KOSMICHESKOI INFRASTRUKTURY; a.k.a. “AO TSENKI”; a.k.a. “FSUE TSENKI”), 42 Shchepkina Str., Moscow 129110, Russia; Tax ID No. 9702013720 (Russia); Registration Number 1207700033760 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. JOINT STOCK COMPANY AVIATION ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO AVIATSIONNAIA ELEKTRONIKA I KOMMUNIKATSIONNYE SISTEMY; a.k.a. “AO AVEKS”), 15 Proezd Entuziastov, Suite 8A, Moscow 111024, Russia; Tax ID No. 7714041380 (Russia); Registration Number 1027700419636 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>4. AEM PROPULSION, Stachek avenue 47, Room 17, St. Petersburg 198097, Russia; Tax ID No. 7706614573 (Russia); Registration Number 1067746426439 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or has acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>5. JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION CRITICAL INFORMATION SYSTEMS (a.k.a. “JSC NPO KIS”), Kitaigorodsky passage, 7, building 1, floor 1, Office 1035, ext. ter. Tagansky municipal district, Moscow 109012, Russia; Tax ID No. 9705178310 (Russia); Registration Number 1227700585353 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or has acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>On July 20, 2023, based on a decision by the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, OFAC updated the entry on the SDN List for the following person, whose property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction continue to be blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <P>1. KALASHNIKOV CONCERN (a.k.a. CONCERN KALASHNIKOV; a.k.a. IZHEVSKIY MASHINOSTROITEL'NYI ZAVOD OAO; f.k.a. IZHMASH R&amp;D CENTER; f.k.a. JSC NPO IZHMASH; f.k.a. NPO IZHMASH OAO; a.k.a. OJSC CONCERN KALASHNIKOV; f.k.a. OJSC IZHMASH; f.k.a. SCIENTIFIC PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION IZHMASH JOINT STOCK COMPANY), 3, Derjabin Pr., Izhevsk, Udmurt Republic 426006, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: Ukraine-/Russia-Related Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR 589.201 and/or 589.209; Registration ID 1111832003018 [UKRAINE-EO13661]</P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>JOINT STOCK COMPANY CONCERN KALASHNIKOV (a.k.a. CONCERN KALASHNIKOV; a.k.a. IZHEVSKIY MASHINOSTROITEL'NYI ZAVOD OAO; a.k.a. JSC KALASHNIKOV CONCERN; a.k.a. KALASHNIKOV CONCERN; a.k.a. OJSC KALASHNIKOV CONCERN), 18 Krzhizhanovsky St, Bldg 4, Moscow 11728, Russia; 2/93 Deryabin Passage, Room 78, Izhevsk 426006, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: Ukraine-/Russia-Related Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR 589.201 and/or 589.209; Tax ID No. 1832090230 (Russia); Registration Number 1111832003018 (Russia) [UKRAINE-EO13661] [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On September 14, 2023, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <P>
                    1. KOCHKIN, Aleksander Viktorovich (a.k.a. KOCHKIN, Alexander 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58721"/>
                    Viktorovich), Russia; DOB 10 Feb 1957; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NPK TEKHMASH OAO).
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(A) of E.O. 14024 for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of the Government of the Russian Federation; section 1(a)(iii)(C) for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of NPK TEKHMASH OAO, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024; and section 1(a)(vii) for having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation and for having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, NPK TEKHMASH OAO, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <P>2. SHEVELIN, Pavel Pavlovich, Nikolay Sokolov Street, Building 40, Apartment 57, St. Petersburg, Russia; DOB 10 Oct 1989; POB Petrozavodsk, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Passport 8617230995 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <P>1. JSC 560 ARMORED REPAIR PLANT, 16 Pervomaiskaya St, Vozzhaevka 676811, Russia; Tax ID No. 2811005250 (Russia); Registration Number 1092804000255 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. JOINT STOCK COMPANY DUBNENSKY MACHINE BUILDING PLANT NAMED AFTER NP FEDOROV (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOYE OBSHCHESTVO DUBNENSKIY MASHINOSTROITELNYY ZAVOD IMENI NP FODOROVA; a.k.a. DUBNA ENGINEERING PLANT; a.k.a. DUBNA MACHINE BUILDING PLANT), ul. Zhukovsky, d. 2, str. 1, Dubna, Moscow Region 141983, Russia; Tax ID No. 5010030050 (Russia); Registration Number 1045002200616 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. LLC CHELYABINSK TRACTOR PLANT URALTRAK (a.k.a. CHTZ URALTRAK), 3 Lenin Ave, office 1, Chelyabinsk 454007, Russia; Tax ID No. 7452027843 (Russia); Registration Number 1027403766830 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>4. JOINT STOCK COMPANY RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION NOVATOR (a.k.a. NPO NOVATOR), 35 Nedelina Str., Mirny 164170, Russia; Tax ID No. 2925005575 (Russia); Registration Number 1102920000017 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>5. 71ST AUTOMOTIVE AND ARMORED VEHICLE REPAIR PLANT FEDERAL STATE OWNED INSTITUTION OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION MINISTRY OF DEFENSE, 39 Levashov St., Ramensky City 140145, Russia; Tax ID No. 5040182726 (Russia); Registration Number 1225000143235 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>6. 72ND AUTOMOTIVE AND ARMORED VEHICLE REPAIR PLANT FEDERAL STATE OWNED INSTITUTION OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION MINISTRY OF DEFENSE, Bldng. 12, Camp No. 69, Kamensk-Shakhtinsky 347800, Russia; Tax ID No. 6147042096 (Russia); Registration Number 1226100034588 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>7. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 419 AIRCRAFT REPAIR PLANT (a.k.a. 419 AVIATION REPAIR PLANT; a.k.a. AIRCRAFT REPAIR PLANT NO 419; a.k.a. “419 ARZ”; a.k.a. “ARP 419”), 16 k. 2 Politruk Pasechnik Str., St. Petersburg 198326, Russia; Tax ID No. 7807343496 (Russia); Registration Number 1097847146748 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>8. OPEN JOINT STOCK COMPANY MUROMTEPLOVOZ, 10 Filatova Street, Murom City 602252, Russia; Tax ID No. 3307001169 (Russia); Registration Number 1023302151828 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>9. 61ST ARMORED VEHICLE REPAIR PLANT JOINT STOCK COMPANY (a.k.a. JSC 61ST ARMOR REPAIR PLANT; a.k.a. OJSC 61 BTRZ), 11 Zavodskaya dor., Strelna, St. Petersburg 198515, Russia; Tax ID No. 7819310752 (Russia); Registration Number 1097847131678 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>10. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 144 ARMORED REPAIR PLANT (a.k.a. JSC 144 ARMORED VEHICLE REPAIR PLANT), Building 2, Simska St., Yekaterinburg 620024, Russia; Tax ID No. 6674331056 (Russia); Registration Number 1096674009332 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>11. JSC OMSK TRANSPORT MACHINE FACTORY OMSKTRANSMASH, 2 Krasny Per., Omsk 644005, Russia; Tax ID No. 5505204171 (Russia); Registration Number 1085543060734 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>12. PUBLIC JOINT STOCK COMPANY ODK SATURN (a.k.a. NPO SATURN JSC; a.k.a. “SATURN NGO”), 163 Lenina Ave, Rybinsk 152903, Russia; Tax ID No. 7610052644 (Russia); Registration Number 1027601106169 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    13. JOINT STOCK COMPANY OMSK PLANT OF CIVIL AVIATION (a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY OMSKY FACTORY GRAZHDANSKOY AVIATSII; a.k.a. JSC OMSK CIVIL AVIATION PLANT; a.k.a. “JSC OZGA”), 112 Surovtseva Str, Omsk 644015, Russia; Tax ID No. 5507029944 (Russia); 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58722"/>
                    Registration Number 1025501378572 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>14. SCIENTIFIC INDUSTRIAL COMPANY DIPAUL PRIVATE JOINT STOCK COMPANY (a.k.a. AO NPF DIPOL; a.k.a. DIPAUL COMPANY; a.k.a. DIPAUL TECHNOLOGIES JSC), 5B, Rentgena Street, St. Petersburg 197101, Russia; 20/1, Ogorodny Proezd, Moscow 127372, Russia; Tax ID No. 7804137537 (Russia); Registration Number 1027802497656 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>On September 14, 2023, based on a decision by the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, OFAC updated the entry on the SDN List for the following person, whose property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction continue to be blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <P>1. RUSATOM ADDITIVE TECHNOLOGIES (a.k.a. “RUSAT” (Cyrillic: “РУСАТ”)), Kashirskoe Sh. 49, P. 61, Floor 8, Room 3, Moscow 115409, Russia; Tax ID No. 7724424381 (Russia); Registration Number 1027705012400 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>RUSATOM ADDITIVE TECHNOLOGIES (a.k.a. “RUSAT” (Cyrillic: “РУСАТ”)), Kashirskoe Sh. 49, P. 61, Floor 8, Room 3, Moscow 115409, Russia; Tax ID No. 7724424381 (Russia); Registration Number 5177746230547 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On November 2, 2023, based on a decision by the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, OFAC updated the entry on the SDN List for the following person, whose property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction continue to be blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <P>1. JOINT STOCK COMPANY RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION NOVATOR (a.k.a. NPO NOVATOR), 35 Nedelina Str., Mirny 164170, Russia; Tax ID No. 2925005575 (Russia); Registration Number 1102920000017 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>JOINT STOCK COMPANY EXPERIMENTAL DESIGN BUREAU NOVATOR (a.k.a. AKTCIONERNOE OBSHESTVO OPITNOE KONSTRUKTORSKOE BYURO NOVATOR; a.k.a. AO OKB NOVATOR; a.k.a. NPO NOVATOR), 18 Kosmonautov Ave., Yekaterinburg 620017, Russia; Tax ID No. 6673092045 (Russia); Registration Number 1026605611339 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>On November 2, 2023, to resolve duplicate entries of the same entity, based on a decision by the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, OFAC removed the duplicate designation of the following person and updated the entry of the following person, whose property and interests in property continues to be blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="287">
                    <GID>EN17DE25.075</GID>
                </GPH>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>
                    On December 12, 2023, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58723"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <P>1. AFANASIEV, Igor Yurievich (a.k.a. AFANASEV, Igor Iurevich; a.k.a. AFANASYEV, Igor Yurievich), Russia; DOB 07 Sep 1968; POB Moscow, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Tax ID No. 772375218154 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. SHUPRANOV, Vasily Nikolaevich (a.k.a. SHUPRANOV, Vasilii Nikolaevich), Russia; DOB 30 Mar 1957; POB Mezhenin village, Klimovichi district, Mogilev oblast, Belarus; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Tax ID No. 525608742548 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. KAZAZAEV, Andrey Petrovich (a.k.a. KAZAZAEV, Andrei Petrovich), Russia; DOB 19 Nov 1964; POB Uglich, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Tax ID No. 330515309950 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: OPEN JOINT STOCK COMPANY VA DEGTYAREV PLANT).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(C) of E.O. 14024 for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of OPEN JOINT STOCK COMPANY VA DEGTYAREV PLANT, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <P>4. POTAPOV, Aleksandr Valeryevich (a.k.a. POTAPOV, Aleksandr Valerievich), Russia; DOB 23 Feb 1963; POB Moscow, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Tax ID No. 770405465488 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: URALVAGONZAVOD).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(C) of E.O. 14024 for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of URALVAGONZAVOD, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <P>1. IBEX SHIPPING INC, Office 4, 1st Floor, Mitsi Building 1, Stasinou Avenue, Nicosia 1060, Cyprus; Identification Number IMO 5344160 [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the marine sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. AZIA SHIPPING COMPANY (a.k.a. OOO SUDOKHODNAIA KOMPANIIA AZIA; a.k.a. “AZSCO”), 29, Posetskaya Str., Vladivostok 690091, Russia; Tax ID No. 2540195189 (Russia); Identification Number IMO 5766958; Registration Number 1132540008732 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the marine sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. AZIA SHIPPING HOLDINGS LIMITED, Office 4, 1st Floor Mitsi Building, 1, Stasinou Avenue, Nicosia 1060, Cyprus; Identification Number IMO 5053924; Registration Number HE 131171 (Cyprus) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the marine sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>4. JOINT STOCK COMPANY BARNAUL CARTRIDGE PLANT (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO BARNAULSKII PATRONNYI ZAVOD; a.k.a. “AO BPZ”), 28 P.S. Kulagina St, Barnaul 656002, Russia; Tax ID No. 2224080239 (Russia); Registration Number 1032202168305 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>5. JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION ELECTROMASHINA (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE OBEDINENIE ELEKTROMASHINA; a.k.a. AO NPO ELEKTROMASHINA), 2 Mashinostroiteley st, Chelyabinsk 454119, Russia; Tax ID No. 7449044990 (Russia); Registration Number 1047422507736 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>6. JOINT STOCK COMPANY TETIS PRO (a.k.a. AKTCIONERNOE OBSHESTVO TETIS PRO; a.k.a. TETHYS PRO JSC), Ul. Polyany D.54, Floor 3, PO Box 73, Moscow 117042, Russia; Polyany St., Building 54, Building 1, Moscow 142791, Russia; 19-21 Novo-Rybinskaya St., Office 330, Saint Petersburg 196084, Russia; Tax ID No. 7724643714 (Russia); Registration Number 1077763809353 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>7. JOINT STOCK COMPANY NOVOSIBIRSK CARTRIDGE PLANT (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NOVOSIBIRSKII PATRONNYI ZAVOD; a.k.a. “JSC NPZ”), Station Building St., Bldg. 30A, Office 307, Novosibirsk 630108, Russia; Tax ID No. 5445115799 (Russia); Registration Number 1035404726246 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>8. JOINT STOCK COMPANY CHEBOKSARY PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION NAMED AFTER VI CHAPAEV (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO CHEBOKSARSKOE PROIZVODSTVENNOE OBEDINENIE IMENI VI CHAPAEVA), 1 Socialisticheskaia St., Cheboksary 428038, Russia; Tax ID No. 2130095159 (Russia); Registration Number 1112130014325 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>9. JOINT STOCK COMPANY NIZHNY NOVGOROD PLANT OF THE 70TH ANNIVERSARY OF VICTORY (a.k.a. AO NIZHEGORODSKIY ZAVOD 70 LETIYA POBEDY; a.k.a. AO NZ 70 LETIYA POBEDY; a.k.a. ZAVOD 70 LETIYA POBEDY; a.k.a. “NZSLP”), 21 Sormovskoe Highway, Nizhny Novgorod 603052, Russia; Tax ID No. 5259113339 (Russia); Registration Number 1145259004296 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>10. JOINT STOCK COMPANY FOREIGN TRADE ASSOCIATION ELEKTRONINTORG (a.k.a. ELECTRONINTORG), Ukrainsky Blvd. 8, Building 1, Moscow 121059, Russia; 4 Ivana Franko St., Building 10, Moscow 121108, Russia; Tax ID No. 7743592991 (Russia); Registration Number 1067746527606 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>
                    Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58724"/>
                </P>
                <P>11. OPEN JOINT STOCK COMPANY VA DEGTYAREV PLANT (a.k.a. OJSC PLANT IM VA DEGTYAREVA; a.k.a. OTKRYTOE AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO ZAVOD IM VA DEGTIAREVA; a.k.a. “OAO ZID”), 4 Truda St., Kovrov 601900, Russia; Tax ID No. 3305004083 (Russia); Registration Number 1023301951397 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>12. YAKT SOKOL (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU IAKT SOKOL), Ul. Petra Alekseeva D. 2, K. 5, Kv. 28, Yakutsk 677000, Russia; Tax ID No. 1435322414 (Russia); Registration Number 1171447008974 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>13. OPEN JOINT STOCK COMPANY TAMBOVSKY BAKERY (a.k.a. OTKRYTOE AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO TAMBOVSKII KHLEBOKOMBINAT), 57 Volodarsky St, Tambov 392008, Russia; Tax ID No. 6832000275 (Russia); Registration Number 1026801228387 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>14. JOINT STOCK COMPANY OPTRON STAVROPOL (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSCHESTVO OPTRON STAVROPOL; a.k.a. GAZTRON CORP; a.k.a. OPTRON STAVROPOL CORP), 431 Lenina Str., Stavropol 355000, Russia; Tax ID No. 2635078677 (Russia); Registration Number 1052600264254 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>15. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY RADIOCOMP (a.k.a. LLC RADIOKOMP; a.k.a. OBSHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOJ OTVETSTVENNOSTYU RADIOKOMP), Ul Aviamotornaya d. 8A, Moscow 111024, Russia; Tax ID No. 7722251800 (Russia); Registration Number 1027739746616 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>16. RESEARCH AND TECHNOLOGICAL INSTITUTE OF OPTICAL MATERIALS ALL RUSSIA SCIENTIFIC CENTER SI VAVILOV STATE OPTICAL INSTITUTE (a.k.a. JSC RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION SI VAVILOV; a.k.a. RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION SI VAVILOV SOI; a.k.a. VAVILOV STATE OPTICAL INSTITUTE), Ul. Babushkina D. 36, Korp. 1, Saint Petersburg 192171, Russia; Tax ID No. 7811483834 (Russia); Registration Number 1117847038121 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Vessels</HD>
                <P>1. CAPTAIN YAKUBOVICH (UBCG2) General Cargo Russia flag; Vessel Year of Build 1984; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8318740 (Vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: IBEX SHIPPING INC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which IBEX SHIPPING INC, an entity designated pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>2. MARIA (UBRH7) General Cargo Russia flag; Vessel Year of Build 1986; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8517839 (Vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: IBEX SHIPPING INC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which IBEX SHIPPING INC, an entity designated pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>3. ARKADIY CHERNYSHEV (UBSH5) General Cargo Russia flag; Vessel Year of Build 1988; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8714695 (Vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: IBEX SHIPPING INC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which IBEX SHIPPING INC, an entity designated pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>On December 12, 2023, based on a decision by the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, OFAC updated the entry on the SDN List for the following person, whose property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction continue to be blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <P>
                    1. URALVAGONZAVOD (a.k.a. NAUCHNO-PROIZVODSTVENNAYA KORPORATSIYA URALVAGONZAVOD OAO; a.k.a. NPK URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. NPK URALVAGONZAVOD OAO; a.k.a. OJSC RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD OAO; a.k.a. URALVAGONZAVOD CORPORATION; a.k.a. “UVZ”), 28, Vostochnoye shosse, Nizhni Tagil, Sverdlovsk region 622007, Russia; 28 Vostochnoe shosse, Nizhni Tagil, Sverdlovskaya oblast 622007, Russia; 40, Bolshaya Yakimanka Street, Moscow 119049, Russia; Vistochnoye Shosse, 28, Nizhny Tagil 622007, Russia; website 
                    <E T="03">http://www.uvz.ru/;</E>
                     alt. Website 
                    <E T="03">http://uralvagonzavod.com/;</E>
                     Email Address 
                    <E T="03">web@uvz.ru;</E>
                     Secondary sanctions risk: Ukraine-/Russia-Related Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR 589.201 and/or 589.209 [UKRAINE-EO13661].
                </P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>URALVAGONZAVOD (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO KONTSERN URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. JSC CONCERN URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. JSC RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. JSC RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD NAMED AFTER FE DZERZHINSKY; a.k.a. NAUCHNO-PROIZVODSTVENNAYA KORPORATSIYA URALVAGONZAVOD OAO; a.k.a. NPK URALVAGONZAVOD OAO; a.k.a. OJSC RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD OAO; a.k.a. URALVAGONZAVOD CORPORATION; a.k.a. “UVZ”), 40 Bolshaya Yakimanka Street, Moscow 119049, Russia; 28 Vostochnoye Shosse, Nizhni Tagil, Sverdlovsk Region 66207, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: Ukraine-/Russia-Related Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR 589.201 and/or 589.209; Tax ID No. 7706453206 (Russia); Registration Number 1187746432345 (Russia) [UKRAINE-EO13661] [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Renee P. Sonderman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary, Bureau of Arms Control and Nonproliferation, Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23019 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-27-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58725"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice 12878]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Medical History and Examination</SUBJECT>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of request for public comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of State is seeking Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department will accept comments from the public up to 
                        <E T="03">February 17, 2026</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>You may submit comments by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Web:</E>
                         Persons with access to the internet may comment on this notice by going to 
                        <E T="03">www.Regulations.gov</E>
                        . You can search for the document by entering “Docket Number: DOS-2025-0434” in the Search field. Then click the “Comment Now” button and complete the comment form.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: MartinezJA7@state.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Regular Mail:</E>
                         Send written comments to: Medical Director, Office of Medical Clearances, Bureau of Medical Services, 2401 E Street NW, SA-1, Room L-101, Washington, DC 20522-0101
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         202-647-0292, Attention: Medical Clearance Director
                    </P>
                    <P>You must include the DS form number (if applicable), information collection title, and the OMB control number in any correspondence.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to Jessica Martinez, Director of Medical Clearances, who may be reached on (202) 663-1657 or at 
                        <E T="03">MartinezJA7@state.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Medical and History Examination.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1405-0068.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of a Currently Approved Collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Originating Office:</E>
                     Bureau of Medical Services, Office of Medical Clearances (MED/CP/CS/CL).
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     DS-1843 and DS-1622.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Chief of Mission personnel and eligible family members.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     2,039.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     2,039.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Average Time Per Response:</E>
                     1 hour.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Burden Time:</E>
                     2,030 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Upon application/employment for an overseas position and then intermittent, as needed.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     Required to Obtain or Retain a Benefit.
                </P>
                <P>We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:</P>
                <P>• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.</P>
                <P>• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.</P>
                <P>• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.</P>
                <P>• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Proposed Collection</HD>
                <P>Forms DS-1843 and DS-1622 collect medical history, screenings and physical examinations for all individuals applying for overseas positions, including their eligible family members. Forms DS-1843 and DS-1622 are designed to collect sufficient and current medical information on the individual for a medical provider to make a medical clearance determination for initial appointment to an overseas assignment. They are also used to determine whether the individual or eligible family member will have appropriate medical and/or educational resources at a diplomatic mission/host country abroad to maintain the health and safety of the individual or family member. The forms were updated to include questions regarding employment agency information for non-foreign service agencies.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Methodology</HD>
                <P>The respondent will initially answer the questions on pages 1-3 of the forms digitally. They will then be prompted to download the auto populated form with their responses and take it to their personal medical provider for completion and authorization of pages 4-5. Once complete, the forms will be submitted via a secure online platform for review by the Office of Medical Clearances.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jessica A. Martinez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director of Medical Clearances, Bureau of Medical Services, Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23131 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 12854]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of 2022 Department of State Sanctions Actions Pursuant to the Executive Order Regarding Blocking Property With Respect to Specified Harmful Foreign Activities of the Government of the Russian Federation</SUBJECT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of State is publishing the names of one or more persons that were placed on the Department of Treasury's List of Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons (SDN List) administered by the Office of Foreign Asset Control (OFAC) in 2022 based on the Department of State's determination, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, that one or more applicable legal criteria of the Executive Order regarding blocking property with respect to specified harmful foreign activities of the Government of the Russian Federation were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these persons are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        These actions were issued on February 25, 2022, March 3, 2022, March 15, 2022, April 7, 2022, May 8, 2022, June 28, 2022, July 22, 2022, August 2, 2022, September 15, 2022, November 14, 2022, November 15, 2022, December 9, 2022, and December 22, 2022, respectively. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for effective date(s) in 2022.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Office of Counterproliferation Initiatives, Bureau of Arms Control and Nonproliferation, Department of State, Washington, DC 20520, tel.: (202) 647 5193, email: 
                        <E T="03">ACN_Sanctions@state.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58726"/>
                    programs are available on OFAC's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.treasury.gov/ofac</E>
                    ). The announcements for these actions are available on the Department of State's website (
                    <E T="03">https://2021-2025.state.gov/imposing-sanctions-on-president-putin-and-three-other-senior-russian-officials/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/targeting-russian-elites-and-defense-enterprises-of-russian-federation/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/u-s-announces-sanctions-on-key-members-of-russias-defense-enterprise/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/additional-state-department-designations-targeting-russian-state-owned-defense-shipbuilding-enterprise/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/state-department-actions-to-promote-accountability-and-impose-costs-on-the-russian-government-for-putins-aggression-against-ukraine/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/targeting-russias-war-machine-sanctions-evaders-military-units-credibly-implicated-in-human-rights-abuses-and-russian-federation-officials-involved-in-suppression-of-dissent/; https://ofac.treasury.gov/recent-actions/20220722; https://2021-2025.state.gov/imposing-additional-costs-on-russia-for-its-continued-war-against-ukraine/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/targeting-russias-senior-officials-defense-industrial-base-and-human-rights-abusers/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/targeting-russias-global-military-procurement-network-and-kremlin-linked-networks/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/imposing-sanctions-on-entities-and-individuals-in-response-to-irans-transfer-of-military-uavs-to-russia/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/the-united-states-imposes-sanctions-on-russian-entities-involved-in-uav-deal-with-iran/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/the-united-states-imposes-sanctions-on-russian-naval-entities/</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On February 25, 2022, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <P>1. SHOIGU, Sergei, Russia; DOB 21 May 1955; POB Chadan, the Tuvan, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of Executive Order 14024 of April 15, 2021 “Blocking Property With Respect To Specified Harmful Foreign Activities of the Government of the Russian Federation,” (E.O. 14024) for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. GERASIMOV, Valery, Russia; DOB 08 Sep 1955; POB Kazan, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On March 3, 2022, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 1710-27-P</BILCOD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58727"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.018</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58728"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.019</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58729"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.020</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58730"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.021</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58731"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.022</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="499">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58732"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.023</GID>
                </GPH>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 1710-27-C</BILCOD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On March 15, 2022, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <P>1. KRIVORUCHKO, Aleksey (a.k.a. KRIVORUCHKO, Alexei), Russia; DOB 17 Jul 1975; POB Stavropol, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. IVANOV, Timur (a.k.a. IVANOV, Timur Vadimovich), Russia; DOB 12 Aug 1975; POB Moscow, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. EVKUROV, Yunus-Bek (a.k.a. YEVKUROV, Yunus-Bek), Russia; DOB 30 Jul 1963; POB Tarskoye, Prigorodny District, North Ossetia, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to Section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    4. BULGAKOV, Dmitry, Russia; DOB 20 Oct 1954; POB Verkhneye Gurovo, Kursk Region, Russia; nationality 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58733"/>
                    Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>5. SADOVENKO, Yuriy (a.k.a. SADOVENKO, Yuri), Russia; DOB 11 Sep 1969; POB Zhitomyr, Ukraine; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>6. PANKOV, Nikolay (a.k.a. PANKOV, Nikolai), Russia; DOB 02 Dec 1954; POB Mar'yino, Kostroma Region, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>7. TSALIKOV, Ruslan, Russia; DOB 31 Jul 1956; POB Ordzhonikidze, North Ossetia, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>8. ZHIDKO, Gennady, Russia; DOB 12 Sep 1965; POB Uzbekistan; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>9. MIKHEEV, Aleksander Aleksandrovich (a.k.a. MIKHEEV, Alexander A.; a.k.a. MIKHEYEV, Alexander), Russia; DOB 18 Nov 1961; POB Moscow, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>10. SHUGAYEV, Dmitry (a.k.a. SHUGAEV, Dmitry Evgenyevich), Moscow, Russia; DOB 11 Aug 1965; POB Moscow, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>On March 15, 2022, based on a decision by the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, OFAC updated the entry on the SDN List for the following person, whose property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction continue to be blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <P>1. ZOLOTOV, Viktor Vasiliyevich, Russia; DOB 27 Jan 1954; POB Ryazanskaya oblast, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Director of the Federal Service of National Guard Troops and Commander of the National Guard Troops of the Russian Federation (individual) [UKRAINE-EO13661].</P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>ZOLOTOV, Viktor (a.k.a. ZOLOTOV, Viktor Vasilyevich), Russia; DOB 27 Jan 1954; POB Ryazanskaya oblast, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [UKRAINE-EO13661] [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On April 7, 2022, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 1710-27-P</BILCOD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="524">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58734"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.024</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58735"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.025</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="167">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58736"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.026</GID>
                </GPH>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58737"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.027</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58738"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.028</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58739"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.029</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58740"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.030</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58741"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.031</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58742"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.032</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58743"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.033</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58744"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.034</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58745"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.035</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58746"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.036</GID>
                </GPH>
                <PRTPAGE P="58747"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On May 8, 2022, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58748"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.037</GID>
                </GPH>
                <PRTPAGE P="58749"/>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 1710-27-C</BILCOD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Vessels</HD>
                <P>1. ANASTASIIA (f.k.a. VIKTORIA SHAIN) General Cargo 9,611GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9349291 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>2. ASKAR-SARYDZHA General Cargo 4,991GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9082142 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>3. ETIM EMIN General Cargo 1,853GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8700010 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>4. GASRET ALIEV General Cargo 4,991GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9083330 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>5. GENRIKH GASANOV General Cargo 4,991GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9083196 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>6. KOMPOZITOR GASANOV Roll-on Roll-off 6,894GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8606628 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>7. LADY D (f.k.a. MALIY B.S.) General Cargo 9,611GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9349289 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>8. LADY MARIIA (f.k.a. STELLA-MARIA) Roll-on Roll-off 8,831GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9220641 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>9. LADY R Roll-on Roll-off 7,260GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9161003 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>10. MAIA-1 (f.k.a. NEPTUN) General Cargo 9,611GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9358010 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>11. OLGA General Cargo 1,853GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8700046 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>12. PORT OLYA-1 General Cargo 4,878GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9481922 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>13. PORT OLYA-2 General Cargo 4,878GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9481881 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>14. RASUL GAMZATOV General Cargo 4,991GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8861058 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>15. SONA General Cargo 1,853GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8700060 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>16. VALENTIN EMIROV General Cargo 4,110GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8866591 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: TRANSMORFLOT LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which TRANSMORFLOT LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>17. ADLER Roll-on Roll-off 8,811GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9179854 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: M LEASING LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which M LEASING LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>18. ANGARA Roll-on Roll-off 8,811GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9179842 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: M LEASING LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which M LEASING LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>19. ASCALON Roll-on Roll-off 8,821GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9198226 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: M LEASING LLC).</P>
                <P>
                    Identified as property in which M LEASING LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58750"/>
                </P>
                <P>20. POLAR ROCK Crude Oil Tanker 56,924GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9116632 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: MARINE TRANS SHIPPING LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which MARINE TRANS SHIPPING LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>21. ENISEY Bulk Carrier 27,078GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9079169 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>22. NP DIKSON Chemical/Oil Tanker 15,980GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9255270 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>23. NP DUDINKA Chemical/Oil Tanker 14,400GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9183831 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>24. RZK CONSTANTA General Cargo 7,095GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8711289 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>25. SEVERNIY PROECT General Cargo 13,066GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9202053 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>26. SIBERIA Bulk Carrier 17,665GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9239458 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>27. TAIBOLA General Cargo 8,448GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9086253 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>28. TAIMYR General Cargo 7,949GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8821797 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>29. TAMBEY General Cargo 7,949GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9014872 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>30. TERIBERKA General Cargo 8,448GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9081291; MMSI 273211090 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>31. TERSKIY BEREG General Cargo 8,448GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9081368 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>32. TIKSY General Cargo 7,949GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8821802 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>33. TURUKHAN General Cargo 8,448GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9081332 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>34. UTRENNIY General Cargo 12,936GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9347059 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>35. SABETTA General Cargo 12,936GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9347061 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which NORD PROJECT LLC TRANSPORT COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>
                    36. SPARTA II Roll-on Roll-off 7,260GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9160994 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: OBORONLOGISTIKA OOO).
                    <PRTPAGE P="58751"/>
                </P>
                <P>Identified as property in which OBORONLOGISTIKA OOO, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>37. AMBAL Roll-on Roll-off 20,729GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8807416 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: OBORONLOGISTIKA OOO).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which OBORONLOGISTIKA OOO, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>38. MARIA E (a.k.a. “MARIA”) Roll-on Roll-off 3,069GRT Togo flag; Other Vessel Type Passenger; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9617923 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: OBORONLOGISTIKA OOO).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which OBORONLOGISTIKA OOO, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>39. PIZHMA General Cargo 3,466GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8814354 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: SC SOUTH LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which SC SOUTH LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>40. SPARTA Roll-on Roll-off 8,831GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9268710 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: SC SOUTH LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which SC SOUTH LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>41. SPARTA III (a.k.a. URSA MAJOR) General Cargo 12,679GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9538892 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: SC SOUTH LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which SC SOUTH LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>42. SPARTA IV General Cargo 7,522GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9743033 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: SC SOUTH LLC).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which SC SOUTH LLC, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>43. BELOMORSKIY Dredger 2,628GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8305781 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>44. CHIZHOVKA Hopper Barge 745GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8730455 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>45. DVINSKIY ZALIV Dredger 2,081GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8922486 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>46. INZHENER TRUBIN General Cargo 6,418GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8502080 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>47. INZHENER VESHNYAKOV General Cargo 6,418GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8502107 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>48. IOHANN MAHMASTAL General Cargo 6,395GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8603406 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>49. KAPITAN KOKOVIN General Cargo 2,474GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9279422 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>50. KAPITAN RYNTSYN General Cargo 2,601GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8618073 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>51. KAPITAN SAKHAROV General Cargo 2,474GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9279434 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>52. KHOLMOGORY General Cargo 2,986GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9109081 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>
                    Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58752"/>
                </P>
                <P>53. LAPOMINKA Hopper Barge 643GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8928143 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>54. MEKHANIK BRILIN General Cargo 2,489GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8904408 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>55. MEKHANIK KOTTSOV General Cargo 2,489GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8904410 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>56. MEKHANIK KRASKOVSKIY General Cargo 2,489GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8904458 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>57. MEKHANIK MAKARIN General Cargo 3,178GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8904379 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>58. MEKHANIK PUSTOSHNYY General Cargo 2,489GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8904422 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>59. MEKHANIK PYATLIN General Cargo 2,489GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8904434 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>60. MEKHANIK YARTSEV General Cargo 2,489GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8904367 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>61. MIKHAIL LOMONOSOV General Cargo 2,990GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9216482 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>62. S. KUZNETSOV General Cargo 6,204GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9210359 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>63. SIYANIE SEVERA General Cargo 6,577GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9250385 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>64. SMP ARKHANGELSK General Cargo 7,752GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9240550 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>65. SMP NOVODVINSK General Cargo 4,106GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9398046 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>66. SMP SEVERODVINSK General Cargo 4,106GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9376440 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>
                    Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58753"/>
                </P>
                <P>67. TERIBERKA Hopper Barge 643GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8931748; MMSI 273913200 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>68. TRITON Tug 161GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 7236141 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>69. VIKTOR ZABELIN General Cargo 6,204GRT Russia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9210256 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHERN SHIPPING COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>On May 8, 2022, based on a decision by the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, OFAC updated the entry on the SDN List for the following person, whose property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction continue to be blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <P>
                    1. OBORONLOGISTIKA, OOO (a.k.a. OBORONLOGISTICS LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY; a.k.a. OBORONLOGISTICS LLC; a.k.a. OBORONLOGISTIKA LLC; a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTYU ‘OBORONLOGISTIKA’), d. 18 str. 3 prospekt Komsomolski, Moscow 119021, Russia; ul. Goncharnaya, house 28, building 2, Moscow 115172, Russia; website Oboronlogistika.ru; Email Address 
                    <E T="03">v.boyko@oboronservice.ru;</E>
                     alt. Email Address 
                    <E T="03">Info@oboronlogistika.ru;</E>
                     Secondary sanctions risk: Ukraine-/Russia-Related Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR 589.201 and/or 589.209; Registration ID 1117746641572 (Russia); Tax ID No. 7718857267 (Russia); Government Gazette Number 30167631 (Russia) [UKRAINE-EO13685].
                </P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>OBORONLOGISTIKA OOO (a.k.a. OBORONLOGISTICS LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY; a.k.a. OBORONLOGISTICS LLC; a.k.a. OBORONLOGISTIKA LLC; a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTYU OBORONLOGISTIKA), D. 18 Str. 3 Prospekt Komsomolski, Moscow 119021, Russia; Ul. Goncharnaya, House 28, Building 2, Moscow 115172, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: Ukraine-/Russia-Related Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR 589.201 and/or 589.209; Organization Established Date 18 Aug 2011; Registration ID 1117746641572 (Russia); Tax ID No. 7718857267 (Russia); Government Gazette Number 30167631 (Russia) [UKRAINE-EO13685] [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On June 28, 2022, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 1710-27-P</BILCOD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58754"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.038</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58755"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.039</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58756"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.040</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58757"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.041</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58758"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.042</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58759"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.043</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58760"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.044</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58761"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.045</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58762"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.046</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58763"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.047</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="429">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58764"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.048</GID>
                </GPH>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 1710-27-C</BILCOD>
                <P>On June 28, 2022, based on a decision by the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, OFAC updated the entry on the SDN List for the following person, whose property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction continue to be blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <P>
                    1. ROSOBORONEKSPORT OAO (a.k.a. OJSC ROSOBORONEXPORT; a.k.a. ROSOBORONEKSPORT OJSC; a.k.a. ROSOBORONEXPORT; a.k.a. ROSOBORONEXPORT JSC; a.k.a. RUSSIAN DEFENSE EXPORT ROSOBORONEXPORT), 27 Stromynka ul., Moscow 107076, Russia; website 
                    <E T="03">www.roe.ru;</E>
                     Executive Order 13662 Directive Determination—Subject to Directive 3; Secondary sanctions risk: Ukraine-/Russia-Related Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR 589.201 and/or 589.209; Registration ID 1117746521452; Tax ID No. 7718852163; Government Gazette Number 56467052; For more information on directives, please visit the following link: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.treasury.gov/resource-center/sanctions/Programs/Pages/ukraine.aspx#directives</E>
                     [SYRIA] [UKRAINE-EO13662] (Linked To: STATE CORPORATION ROSTEC).
                </P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>
                    ROSOBORONEKSPORT OAO (a.k.a. ROSOBORONEKSPORT OJSC; a.k.a. ROSOBORONEXPORT JSC; a.k.a. RUSSIAN DEFENSE EXPORT ROSOBORONEXPORT), 27 Stromynka Ul., Moscow 107076, Russia; website 
                    <E T="03">www.roe.ru;</E>
                     Executive Order 13662 Directive Determination—Subject to Directive 3; Secondary sanctions risk: Ukraine-/Russia-Related Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR 589.201 and/or 589.209; Registration ID 1117746521452 (Russia); Tax ID No. 7718852163 (Russia); Government Gazette Number 56467052 (Russia); For more information on directives, please visit the following link: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.treasury.gov/resource-center/sanctions/Programs/Pages/ukraine.aspx#directives</E>
                     [SYRIA] [UKRAINE-EO13662] [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: STATE CORPORATION ROSTEC).
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation and pursuant to section 1(a)(iv) of E.O. 14024 for being a political subdivision, agency, or instrumentality of the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>
                    2. FEDERAL SECURITY SERVICE (a.k.a. FEDERALNAYA SLUZHBA 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58765"/>
                    BEZOPASNOSTI; a.k.a. FSB), Ulitsa Kuznetskiy Most, Dom 22, Moscow 107031, Russia; Lubyanskaya Ploschad, Dom 2, Moscow 107031, Russia [NPWMD] [CYBER2] [CAATSA—RUSSIA].
                </P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>FEDERAL SECURITY SERVICE (a.k.a. FEDERALNAYA SLUZHBA BEZOPASNOSTI; a.k.a. “FSB”), Ulitsa Kuznetskiy Most, Dom 22, Moscow 107031, Russia; Lubyanskaya Ploschad, Dom 2, Moscow 107031, Russia; 1/3 Bolshaya Lubyanka St, Moscow 107031, Russia; Organization Established Date 1994; Target Type Government Entity [NPWMD] [CYBER2] [CAATSA-RUSSIA] [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iv) of E.O. 14024 for being or having been a political subdivision, agency, or instrumentality of the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On July 22, 2022, based on a decision by the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, OFAC updated the entry on the SDN List for the following person, whose property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction continue to be blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below</P>
                <P>1. JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTH WESTERN REGIONAL CENTER OF ALMAZ ANTEY CONCERN OBUKHOVSKY PLANT (a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTHWEST REGIONAL CENTER CONCERN PROVINCE OF EAST KAZAKHSTAN ALMAZ-ANTEY OBUKHOVSKY FACTORY; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY OBUKHOVSKY FACTORY; a.k.a. JSC GOZ OBUKHOV PLANT; a.k.a. JSC OBUKHOVSKIY PLANT NORTHWEST REGIONAL CENTER OF ALMAZ ANTEY CORPORATION; a.k.a. JSC SOP OBUCHOVSKY PLANT), Obukhovskoy Defense Ave., 120, Saint Petersburg 190012, Russia; Organization Established Date 17 Nov 2003; Tax ID No. 7811144648 (Russia); Registration Number 1037825058732 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>JOINT STOCK COMPANY NORTH WESTERN REGIONAL CENTER OF ALMAZ ANTEY CONCERN OBUKHOVSKY PLANT (a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY OBUKHOVSKY FACTORY; a.k.a. JSC GOZ OBUKHOV PLANT; a.k.a. JSC OBUKHOVSKIY PLANT NORTHWEST REGIONAL CENTER OF ALMAZ ANTEY CORPORATION; a.k.a. JSC SOP OBUCHOVSKY PLANT), Obukhovskoy Defense Ave., 120, Saint Petersburg 190012, Russia; Organization Established Date 17 Nov 2003; Tax ID No. 7811144648 (Russia); Registration Number 1037825058732 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On August 2, 2022, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <P>1. ACADEMICIAN A.L. MINTS RADIOTECHNICAL INSTITUTE JOINT STOCK COMPANY (a.k.a. ACADEMICIAN A.L. MINTS RADIO ENGINEERING INSTITUTE; a.k.a. RADIO TECHNICAL AND INFORMATION SYSTEMS IMENI A.L. MINTS; a.k.a. RTI IMENI ACADEMICIAN A.L. MINTS), St. 8 Marta, House 10, Structure 1, Moscow 127083, Russia; Tax ID No. 7713006449 (Russia); Registration Number 1027739323831 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. FEDERAL STATE INSTITUTION OF HIGHER VOCATIONAL EDUCATION MOSCOW INSTITUTE OF PHYSICS AND TECHNOLOGY (a.k.a. MOSKOVSKIY FIZIKO TEKHNICHESKIY INSTITUT; a.k.a. “MFTI”; a.k.a. “MIPT”), 9 Institutskiy Per., Dolgoprudny, Moscow Region 141701, Russia; 1 A Kerchenskaya St., Moscow 117303, Russia; Ulitsa Gagarina 16, Zhukovsky, Moscow Region 140180, Russia; Klimentovsky Pereulok 1 Stroyeniye 1, Moscow 115184, Russia; Tax ID No. 5008006211 (Russia); Registration Number 1027739386135 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. FEDERAL STATE INSTITUTION FEDERAL SCIENTIFIC CENTER SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE FOR SYSTEM ANALYSIS OF THE RUSSIAN ACADEMY OF SCIENCES (a.k.a. FEDERALNOE GOSUDARSTVENNOE UCHREZHDENIE FEDERALNYY NAUCHNYY TSENTR NAUCHNO-ISSLEDOVATELSKIY INSTITUT SISTEMNYKH ISSLEDOVANIY ROSSIYSKOY AKADEMII NAUK; a.k.a. FGU FNTS NIISI RAN; a.k.a. FSI FSC SRISA RAS; a.k.a. SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF SYSTEM ANALYSIS, RUSSIAN ACADEMIC OF SCIENCES), Nakhimovsky Prospect, 36, Building 1, Moscow 117218, Russia; Tax ID No. 7727086772 (Russia); Registration Number 1027700384909 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>4. JOINT STOCK COMPANY INSTITUTE OF ELECTRONIC CONTROL COMPUTERS NAMED AFTER I.S. BRUK (a.k.a. “JSC INEUM”), 24, Vavilova st., Moscow 119334, Russia; Tax ID No. 7736005096 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>5. JOINT STOCK COMPANY PENZENSKY NAUCHNO ISSLEDOVATELSKY ELEKTROTEKHNICHESKY HIGHER EDUCATION INSTITUTION (a.k.a. JSC PENZA ELECTROTECHNICAL RESEARCH INSTITUTE; a.k.a. “PNIEI JSC”), 9 Sovetskaya Str., Penza, Penza Region 440026, Russia; Organization Established Date 30 Dec 2011; Tax ID No. 5836649358 (Russia); Registration Number 1115836009255 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>6. JSC ZELENOGRAD NANOTECHNOLOGY CENTER, Bld. 6, Pl. IX, Office 17, Solnechnaya Alleya, Zelenograd, Moscow 124527, Russia; Tax ID No. 7735570680 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    7. SCIENTIFIC AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION OF MEASURING EQUIPMENT JSC (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSCHESTVO NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE OBEDINENIE IZMERITELNOY TEKHNIKI; a.k.a. SCIENTIFIC AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION OF MEASURING TECHNOLOGY; a.k.a. “AO NPO IT”), 2k4 Pionerskaya Str., Korolyov, Moscow Region 141074, Russia; Tax ID No. 5018139517 (Russia); 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58766"/>
                    Registration Number 1095018006555 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>8. SKOLKOVO FOUNDATION (a.k.a. FOUNDATION FOR DEVELOPMENT OF THE CENTER FOR ELABORATION AND COMMERCIALIZATION OF NEW TECHNOLOGIES), 5 Nobelya str., Skolkovo Innovation Centre, Moscow 121205, Russia; Organization Established Date 2010; Tax ID No. 7701058410 (Russia); Registration Number 1107799016720 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>9. SKOLKOVO INSTITUTE OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY (a.k.a. SKOLTECH), Bolshoy Boulevard 30, bld. 1, Moscow 121205, Russia; Tax ID No. 5032998454 (Russia); Registration Number 1115000005922 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>10. TECHNOPARK SKOLKOVO LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY (a.k.a. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY PARK SKOLKOVO; a.k.a. LLC TEKHNOPARK SKOLKOVO), 42 str 1 Skolkovo Innovatsionnogo Tsentra Territory, Bolshoy Boulevard, Moscow 121205, Russia; Organization Established Date 31 Dec 2010; Tax ID No. 7701902970 (Russia); Registration Number 5107746075949 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>11. JOINT STOCK COMPANY DESIGN CENTER SOYUZ (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO DIZAIN TSENTR SOYUZ), K. 100, KOM. 205, Zelenograd, Moscow 124482, Russia; Organization Established Date 29 Apr 2015; Tax ID No. 7735143270 (Russia); Registration Number 1157746403033 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>12. JOINT STOCK COMPANY DESIGN TECHNOLOGY CENTER ELEKTRONIKA (a.k.a. ELECTRONICS EDC JSC; a.k.a. ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING AND DESIGN CENTER JOINT STOCK COMPANY; a.k.a. ELEKTRONIKA ENGINEERING AND DESIGN CENTER JOINT STOCK COMPANY; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY KTTS ELEKTRONIKA), Building 119A Leninskiy Prospekt, 17A, 2nd Floor, Voronezh 394033, Russia; Organization Established Date 11 Jan 2006; Tax ID No. 3661033667 (Russia); Registration Number 1063667000495 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>13. JOINT STOCK COMPANY INSTITUTE FOR SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH MICROELECTRONIC EQUIPMENT PROGRESS (a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY NIIMA PROGRESS; a.k.a. MICROELECTRONICS RESEARCH INSTITUTE PROGRESS JSC; a.k.a. PROGRESS MRI JSC), 54 Cherepanovykh Driveway, Moscow 125183, Russia; Organization Established Date 09 Nov 2012; Tax ID No. 7743869192 (Russia); Registration Number 1127747128662 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>14. JOINT STOCK COMPANY RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF ELECTRONIC AND MECHANICAL DEVICES (a.k.a. JSC NII ELEKTRONNO-MEKHANICHESKIKH PRIBOROV; a.k.a. PENZA SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF ELECTRO-MECHANICAL DEVICES; a.k.a. “JSC NIIEMP”; a.k.a. “JSC SRIEMI”), 44, Karakozova Street, Penza 440600, Russia; Tax ID No. 5834054179 (Russia); Registration Number 1115834003185 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>15. JOINT STOCK COMPANY VOLOGODSKY OPTIKO MEKHANICHESKY FACTORY (a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY VOMZ; a.k.a. VOLOGDA OPTICAL AND MECHANICAL PLANT JSC), 54 Maltseva Str., Vologda, Vologda Region 160009, Russia; Organization Established Date 14 Apr 1994; Tax ID No. 3525023010 (Russia); Registration Number 1023500882437 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>16. JOINT STOCK COMPANY VORONEZHSKY FACTORY POLUPROVODNIKOVYKH PRIBOROV-SBORKA (a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY VZPP-S; a.k.a. JSC VORONEZH SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES PLANT-ASSEMBLY; a.k.a. VORONEZH SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES FACTORY-ASSEMBLY; a.k.a. VZPP-S AO), 119A Leninsky Ave, Voronezh, Voronezh region 394033, Russia; Organization Established Date 26 Dec 2005; Tax ID No. 3661033635 (Russia); Registration Number 1053600592330 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>17. JSC SVETLANA POLUPROVODNIKI (a.k.a. SVETLANA POLUPROVODNIKI PAO; a.k.a. SVETLANA SEMICONDUCTORS STOCK COMPANY; a.k.a. ZAO SVETLANA POLUPROVODNIKI), 27, Engels Prospect, Saint Petersburg 194156, Russia; Tax ID No. 7802002037 (Russia); Registration Number 1027801534485 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>18. MITISHINSKIY SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF RADIO MEASURING INSTRUMENTS (a.k.a. FEDERAL STATE UNITARY ENTERPRISE MNIIRIP; a.k.a. MYTISHCHI RESEARCH INSTITUTE FOR RF MEASUREMENT INSTRUMENTS), ul Kolpakova, 2A/lit B1, 3 etazh Kabinet 86,87, Mytishchi, Moskovskaya 141002, Russia; Tax ID No. 5029008940 (Russia); Registration Number 1035005501629 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>19. LLC SCIENTIFIC PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE DIGITAL SOLUTIONS (a.k.a. ASIC AND ELECTRONIC ENGINEERING DESIGN CENTER DIGITAL SOLUTIONS JSC), Room 4, Office 1, 3rd Floor, Building 7, House 9a, 2nd Sinichkina Str., Moscow 111020, Russia; Tax ID No. 7715500090 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    20. OJSC SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF PRECISION MECHANICAL ENGINEERING (a.k.a. RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF PRECISION MACHINE MANUFACTURING; a.k.a. SCIENTIFIC AND RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF PRECISION ENGINEERING; a.k.a. “NIITM”), 10 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58767"/>
                    Panfilovsky avenue, Zelenograd, Moscow 124460, Russia; Tax ID No. 7735043966 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>21. OPEN JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC AND PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE PULSAR (a.k.a. ENTERPRISE SPE PULSAR JSC; a.k.a. JSC NPP PULSAR; a.k.a. JSC SPC PULSAR; a.k.a. SPE PULSAR), Pass. Okruzhnoy, House 27, Moscow 105187, Russia; Tax ID No. 7719846490 (Russia); Registration Number 1137746472599 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>22. PUBLIC JOINT STOCK COMPANY KREMNY (a.k.a. AO GRUPPA KREMNY EL; a.k.a. CJSC KREMNY AI GROUP; a.k.a. JSC GRUPPA KREMNY EL; a.k.a. KREMNY GROUP), Krasnoarmeyskaya 103, Bryansk 241037, Russia; Organization Established Date 26 Feb 1993; Tax ID No. 3234000876 (Russia); Registration Number 1023202739218 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>23. FEDERAL STATE BUDGETARY SCIENTIFIC INSTITUTION RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION COMPLEX TECHNOLOGY CENTER (a.k.a. NPK TECHNOLOGICAL CENTER; a.k.a. SCIENTIFIC MANUFACTURING COMPLEX TECHNOLOGICAL CENTER; a.k.a. SMC TECHNOLOGICAL CENTRE), Shokina Square, House 1, Bld. 7 Off. 7237, Zelenograd, Moscow 124498, Russia; Organization Established Date 13 Mar 2000; Tax ID No. 7735096460 (Russia); Registration Number 1027700428480 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector and electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>24. JSC SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE SUBMICRON (a.k.a. JSC RESEARCH INSTITUTE SUBMICRON), 5, Bld. 2, Georgievsky Avenue, Zelenograd, Moscow 124460, Russia; Tax ID No. 7735574607 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On September 15, 2022, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <P>1. JOINT STOCK COMPANY RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION NAMED AFTER S. A. LAVOCHKINA (a.k.a. LAVOCHKIN SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH ASSOCIATION; a.k.a. NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOYE OBYEDINENIYE IMENI LAVOCHKINA; a.k.a. NPO IMENI LAVOCHKINA; a.k.a. S.A. LAVOCHKIN NPO; a.k.a. S.A. LAVOCHKIN SCIENTIFIC PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION), 24 Leningradskaya Str., Khimki, Moscow region 141411, Russia; Organization Established Date 05 Apr 2017; Tax ID No. 5047196566 (Russia); Registration Number 1175029009363 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. JOINT STOCK COMPANY ROSSIYSKIYE KOSMICHESKIYE SISTEMY (a.k.a. ROSSIYSKIYE KOSMICHESKIYE SISTEMY; a.k.a. RUSSIAN SPACE SYSTEMS JSC; a.k.a. “RKS”; a.k.a. “RSS”), 53, Aviamotornaya Str., Moscow, Russia; Organization Established Date 23 Oct 2009; Tax ID No. 7722698789 (Russia); Registration Number 1097746649681 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. JSC ACADEMICIAN M.F. RESHETNEV INFORMATION SATELLITE SYSTEMS (a.k.a. ISS RESHETNEV), 52, Lenin Street, Zheleznogorsk, Krasnoyarsk Region 662972, Russia; Organization Established Date 03 Mar 2008; Tax ID No. 2452034898 (Russia); Business Registration Number 1082452000290 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>4. FEDERAL STATE FINANCED INSTITUTION OF SCIENCE HIGHER EDUCATION INSTITUTION SPECTROSCOPY OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION ACADEMY OF SCIENCES (a.k.a. INSTITUTE OF SPECTROSCOPY OF THE RUSSIAN ACADEMY OF SCIENCES; a.k.a. “ISAN”), Fizicheskaya Str., 5, Troitsk, Moscow 108840, Russia; Organization Established Date 07 Jul 1992; Tax ID No. 5046005427 (Russia); Registration Number 1035009350100 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>5. FEDERAL STATE FINANCED INSTITUTION OF SCIENCE PHYSICS AND TECHNOLOGY INSTITUTE NAMED AFTER A. F. IOFFE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION ACADEMY OF SCIENCES (a.k.a. IOFFE INSTITUTE), 26 Politekhnicheskaya Str., Saint Petersburg 194021, Russia; Organization Established Date 26 Apr 1999; Tax ID No. 7802072267 (Russia); Registration Number 1037804006998 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>6. FEDERAL STATE FINANCED INSTITUTION OF SCIENCE PHYSICS AND TECHNOLOGY INSTITUTE NAMED AFTER K. A. VALIEVA OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION ACADEMY OF SCIENCES (a.k.a. FTIAN NAMED AFTER K. A. VALIEVA RAN; a.k.a. K.A. VALIEV PHYSICO-TECHNOLOGICAL INSTITUTE RAS; a.k.a. VALIEV INSTITUTE OF PHYSICS AND TECHNOLOGY OF RUSSIAN ACADEMY OF SCIENCES; a.k.a. VALIEV IPT RAS), 34 Nakhimovsky Ave, Moscow 117218, Russia; Organization Established Date 16 Feb 1994; Tax ID No. 7727084140 (Russia); Registration Number 1037739352155 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>7. INTERNATIONAL CENTER FOR QUANTUM OPTICS AND QUANTUM TECHNOLOGIES LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY (a.k.a. OOO MTSKT; a.k.a. RUSSIAN QUANTUM CENTER; a.k.a. “RQC”), 30 Bld., 1 Bolshoy Blvd., Skolkovo Innovation Center, Moscow 121205, Russia; 100 Novaya Street, Skolkovo Village, Odintsovo, Moscow Region 143026, Russia; Tax ID No. 7743801910 (Russia); Registration Number 1107746994365 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>
                    Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58768"/>
                    operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.
                </P>
                <P>8. JOINT STOCK COMPANY INSTITUTE FOR SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH VYCHISLITELNYKH KOMPLEKSOV NAMED AFTER M. A. KARTSEVA (a.k.a. AO NIIVK N.A. M.A. KARTSEV; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY NIIVK NAMED AFTER M. A. KARTSEVA; a.k.a. JSC NII VYCHISLITELNYKH KOMPLEKSOV IM. M.A. KARTSEVA), Profsoyuznaya St., 108, Moscow 117437, Russia; Organization Established Date 24 May 1993; Tax ID No. 7728032882 (Russia); Registration Number 1037700128828 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>9. JOINT STOCK COMPANY RESEARCH CENTER ELINS (a.k.a. ELINS STC JSC; a.k.a. JSC NAUCHNYY CENTER ELINS; a.k.a. JSC SCIENTIFIC AND TECHNICAL CENTER ELINS; a.k.a. SCIENTIFIC TECHNICAL CENTRE ELINS), Pаnfilovsky Pr., 10, Zelenograd, Moscow 124460, Russia; Organization Established Date 23 Mar 2010; Tax ID No. 7735567832 (Russia); Registration Number 1107746215455 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>10. JOINT VENTURE QUANTUM TECHNOLOGIES (a.k.a. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY SOVMESTNOYE PREDPRIYATIYE KVANTOVYE TEKHNOLOGII; a.k.a. LLC JOINT VENTURE KVANT; a.k.a. LLC JV KVANT; a.k.a. “SP QUANT”), 46 Varshavskoye Highway, Moscow 115230, Russia; Organization Established Date 26 Mar 2020; Tax ID No. 7726464220 (Russia); Registration Number 1207700141032 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>11. JSC ADDITIVE TECHNOLOGIES CENTER (a.k.a. JSC CENTER ADDITIVNYKH TEKHNOLOGY; a.k.a. “JSC ATC”), 7, Vishnevaya Str, Moscow 125362, Russia; Organization Established Date 2018; Tax ID No. 7733325690 (Russia); Registration Number 1187746120407 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>12. JSC MOSCOW CENTER OF SPARC TECHNOLOGIES (a.k.a. JSC MTSST; a.k.a. “JSC MCST”), 1, Bld. 23, Nagatinskaya Street, Moscow 117105, Russia; 51, Leninsky Ave, Moscow 119049, Russia; Tax ID No. 7736053886 (Russia); Registration Number 1027739148469 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>13. JSC SCIENTIFIC AND TECHNICAL CENTER ZASLON (a.k.a. ZASLON SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY CENTER), Koli Tomchaka St., 9, Saint Petersburg 196006, Russia; Tax ID No. 7826092350 (Russia); Registration Number 1027810228786 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>14. L.D. LANDAU INSTITUTE FOR THEORETICAL PHYSICS OF RUSSIAN ACADEMY OF SCIENCES, Akademika Semenova av., 1A, Chernogolovka, Moscow Region 142432, Russia; Tax ID No. 5031002141 (Russia); Registration Number 1035006108895 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>15. MULTICLET CORPORATION (a.k.a. JSC MULTIKLET), Office 135, 2 Chelyuskintsev Str., International Business Center Micron, Yekaterinburg 620014, Russia; Moscow, Russia; Tax ID No. 6658365770 (Russia); Registration Number 1106658012746 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>16. RZHANOV INSTITUTE OF SEMICONDUCTOR PHYSICS SIBERIAN BRANCH OF RUSSIAN ACADEMY OF SCIENCES (a.k.a. ISP SB RAS; a.k.a. RZHANOV INSTITUTE OF SEMICONDUCTOR PHYSICS SB RAS), 13 Lavrentiev Aven., Novosibirsk 630090, Russia; Tax ID No. 5408100057 (Russia); Registration Number 1025403651283 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>17. BAIKAL ELECTRONICS JSC (a.k.a. JSC BAYKAL ELEKTRONIKS), Block B, 2nd Floor, Riga Land Business Center, 29 KM M9 Baltyia Highway, Krasnogorskiy District, Moscow Region 143421, Russia; Tax ID No. 7707767484 (Russia); Registration Number 1127746006926 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>18. ELVEES RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT CENTER JSC (a.k.a. ELVEES R AND D CENTER JSC; a.k.a. ELVEES R&amp;D CENTER JSC; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC AND PRODUCTION CENTER ELECTRONIC COMPUTING AND INFORMATION SYSTEMS; a.k.a. JSC SPC ELVIS), Proyezd 4922, 4 Build.2, Zelenograd, Moscow 124498, Russia; Tax ID No. 7735582816 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>19. FEDERAL RESEARCH CENTER INSTITUTE OF APPLIED PHYSICS OF THE RUSSIAN ACADEMY OF SCIENCES (a.k.a. “IAP RAS”), 46 Ulyanov Str., Nizhny Novgorod 603950, Russia; Tax ID No. 5260003387 (Russia); Registration Number 1025203020193 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>20. JOINT STOCK COMPANY ANGSTREM (a.k.a. ANGSTREM JSC), 2str3 Shokina Square, Zelenograd, Moscow 124498, Russia; Organization Established Date 23 Jun 1993; Tax ID No. 7735010706 (Russia); Registration Number 1027700140930 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>21. JOINT STOCK COMPANY ELEMENT (a.k.a. ELEMENT GROUP), 12 Presnenskaya Waterfront, Moscow 123112, Russia; Organization Established Date 20 Jul 2020; Tax ID No. 9703014282 (Russia); Registration Number 1207700245532 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    22. JOINT STOCK COMPANY INSTITUTE FOR SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH ELEKTRONNOY TEKHNIKI (a.k.a. ELECTRONIC TECHNOLOGY RESEARCH INSTITUTE; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY NIIET; a.k.a. RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF ELECTRONIC ENGINEERING), 5 Starykh Bolshevikov Str., Voronezh, Voronezh Region 394033, Russia; 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58769"/>
                    Organization Established Date 11 Oct 2012; Tax ID No. 3661057900 (Russia); Registration Number 1123668048789 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>23. JOINT STOCK COMPANY PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION SEVER (a.k.a. PROIZVODSTVENNOYE OBYEDINENIYE SEVER; a.k.a. “PA SEVER”; a.k.a. “PO SEVER”), 3 Obedineniya Str., Novosibirsk, Novosibirsk region 630020, Russia; Organization Established Date 25 Mar 2019; Registration Number 1195476022940 (Russia); alt. Registration Number 5410079229 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>24. JOINT STOCK COMPANY RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT ENTERPRISE RADIOSVYAZ (a.k.a. AO NPP RADIOSVIAZ; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE RADIOSVIAZ; a.k.a. JSC NPP RADIOSVYAZ; a.k.a. JSC SPE RADIOSVYAZ; a.k.a. RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE RADIOSVYAZ; a.k.a. SCIENTIFIC PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE RADIOSVYAZ JOINT STOCK COMPANY), 19 Dekabristov Str., Krasnoyarsk, Krasnoyarsk Territory 660021, Russia; Organization Established Date 27 Dec 2012; Tax ID No. 2460243408 (Russia); Registration Number 1122468072231 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>25. JOINT STOCK COMPANY RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT ENTERPRISE SAPFIR (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOYE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO-PROIZVODSTVENNOYE PREDPRIYATIYE SAPFIR; a.k.a. AO NPP SAPFIR; a.k.a. RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE SAPFIR JOINT STOCK COMPANY; a.k.a. RPE SAPFIR JSC; a.k.a. RPE SAPFIR PJSC), 53 Shcherbakovskaya Str., Moscow 105318, Russia; Organization Established Date 13 Sep 1993; Tax ID No. 7719007689 (Russia); Registration Number 1027700070661 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>26. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY GROUP OF COMPANIES AKVARIUS (a.k.a. LLC GRUPPA AKVARIUS; a.k.a. LLC PRODUCTION COMPANY AQUARIUS; a.k.a. “AQUARIUS”), Vl6str1 22 km Kiyevskoye Highway, Moscow 119027, Russia; Kievskoe Shosse, 22-km, 6, Bldg. 1, Moscow 108811, Russia; Organization Established Date 09 Jan 2003; Tax ID No. 7701321693 (Russia); Registration Number 1037701002217 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>27. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY KROKUS NANOELEKTRONIKA (a.k.a. CROCUS NANOELECTRONICS), 42k5 Volgogradsky Ave, Moscow 109316, Russia; Organization Established Date 27 May 2011; Tax ID No. 7710889933 (Russia); Registration Number 1117746411529 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>28. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY YADRO FAB DUBNA (a.k.a. LLC YADRO FAB DUBNA; a.k.a. YADRO FAB DUBNA OOO), 4 Programmistov Str., Dubna, Moscow Region 141983, Russia; Organization Established Date 26 May 2020; Tax ID No. 5010057397 (Russia); Registration Number 1205000041245 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>29. SPECIALIZED ENGINEERING AND DESIGN BUREAU OF ELECTRONIC SYSTEMS JOINT STOCK COMPANY (a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY SPECIALIZED DESIGN TECHNOLOGY BUREAU ELEKTRONNYKH SYSTEM; a.k.a. JSC SPETSIALIZIROVANNOYE KONSTRUKTORSKO-TEKHNOLOGICHESKOYE BYURO ELEKTRONNYKH SYSTEM; a.k.a. SKTB ES, AO), 160 Leninsky Ave, Voronezh, Voronezh Region 394000, Russia; Organization Established Date 17 Aug 2006; Tax ID No. 3661036308 (Russia); Registration Number 1063667253528 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>30. FEDERAL STATE FINANCED INSTITUTION OF SCIENCE PHYSICAL HIGHER EDUCATION INSTITUTION NAMED AFTER P. N. LEBEDEVA OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION ACADEMY SCIENCES (a.k.a. LEBEDEV PHYSICAL INSTITUTE OF THE RUSSIAN ACADEMY OF SCIENCES; a.k.a. “FIAN”; a.k.a. “LPI RAS”), 53 Leninsky Ave, Moscow 119991, Russia; Organization Established Date 03 Oct 2001; Tax ID No. 7736037394 (Russia); Registration Number 1027739617960 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>On September 15, 2022, based on a decision by the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, OFAC updated the entry on the SDN List for the following person, whose property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction continue to be blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="354">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58770"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.049</GID>
                </GPH>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On November 14, 2022, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <P>1. JSC PKK MILANDR (a.k.a. JSC ICC MILANDR), Georgievskiy Prospekt, 5, Zelenograd, Moscow 124498, Russia; Organization Established Date 1993; Tax ID No. 7735040690 (Russia); Registration Number 1027739083921 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On November 15, 2022, based on a decision by the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, OFAC updated the entry on the SDN List for the following person, whose property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction continue to be blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <P>1. ISLAMIC REVOLUTIONARY GUARD CORPS AIR FORCE (a.k.a. AEROSPACE DIVISION OF IRGC; a.k.a. AEROSPACE FORCE OF THE ARMY OF THE GUARDIANS OF THE ISLAMIC REVOLUTION; a.k.a. AFAGIR; a.k.a. AIR FORCE, IRGC (PASDARAN); a.k.a. IRGC AEROSPACE FORCE; a.k.a. IRGC AIR FORCE; a.k.a. IRGCAF; a.k.a. IRGCASF; a.k.a. ISLAMIC REVOLUTION GUARDS CORPS AIR FORCE; a.k.a. ISLAMIC REVOLUTIONARY GUARDS CORPS AEROSPACE FORCE; a.k.a. ISLAMIC REVOLUTIONARY GUARDS CORPS AIR FORCE; a.k.a. SEPAH PASDARAN AIR FORCE), Tehran, Iran; Syria; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [FTO] [SDGT] [NPWMD] [IRGC] [IFSR].</P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>ISLAMIC REVOLUTIONARY GUARD CORPS AIR FORCE (a.k.a. AEROSPACE DIVISION OF IRGC; a.k.a. AEROSPACE FORCE OF THE ARMY OF THE GUARDIANS OF THE ISLAMIC REVOLUTION; a.k.a. AFAGIR; a.k.a. AIR FORCE, IRGC (PASDARAN); a.k.a. IRGC AEROSPACE FORCE; a.k.a. IRGC AIR FORCE; a.k.a. IRGCAF; a.k.a. IRGCASF; a.k.a. ISLAMIC REVOLUTION GUARDS CORPS AIR FORCE; a.k.a. ISLAMIC REVOLUTIONARY GUARDS CORPS AEROSPACE FORCE; a.k.a. ISLAMIC REVOLUTIONARY GUARDS CORPS AIR FORCE; a.k.a. SEPAH PASDARAN AIR FORCE), Tehran, Iran; Syria; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [FTO] [SDGT] [NPWMD] [IRGC] [IFSR] [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(ii)(F) of E.O. 14024 for being responsible for or complicit in, or to have directly or indirectly engaged or attempted to engage in, activities that undermine the peace, security, political stability, or territorial integrity of the United States, its allies, or its partners for or on behalf of, or for the benefit of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>
                    2. QODS AVIATION INDUSTRIES (a.k.a. GHODS AVIATION INDUSTRIES; a.k.a. QODS RESEARCH CENTER), P.O. Box 15875-1834, Km 5 Karaj Special Road, Tehran, Iran; Unit (or Suite) 207, Saleh Blvd., Tehran, Iran; Unit 207, Tarajit Maydane Taymori (or 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58771"/>
                    Teimori) Square, Basiri Building, Tarasht, Tehran, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [NPWMD] [IFSR].
                </P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>QODS AVIATION INDUSTRIES (a.k.a. GHODS AVIATION INDUSTRIES; a.k.a. QODS RESEARCH CENTER), P.O. Box 15875-1834, Km 5 Karaj Special Road, Tehran, Iran; Unit (or Suite) 207, Saleh Blvd., Tehran, Iran; Unit 207, Tarajit Maydane Taymori (or Teimori) Square, Basiri Building, Tarasht, Tehran, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [NPWMD] [IFSR] [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(ii)(F) of E.O. 14024 for being responsible for or complicit in, or to have directly or indirectly engaged or attempted to engage in, activities that undermine the peace, security, political stability, or territorial integrity of the United States, its allies, or its partners for or on behalf of, or for the benefit of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>3. PRIVATE MILITARY COMPANY 'WAGNER' (a.k.a. CHASTNAYA VOENNAYA KOMPANIYA 'VAGNER'; a.k.a. CHVK VAGNER; a.k.a. PMC WAGNER), Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: Ukraine-/Russia-Related Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR 589.201 and/or 589.209 [UKRAINE-EO13660].</P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>PRIVATE MILITARY COMPANY 'WAGNER' (a.k.a. CHASTNAYA VOENNAYA KOMPANIYA 'VAGNER'; a.k.a. CHVK VAGNER; a.k.a. PMC WAGNER), Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: Ukraine-/Russia-Related Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR 589.201 and/or 589.209 [UKRAINE-EO13660] [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On December 9, 2022, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 1710-27-P</BILCOD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="357">
                    <GID>EN17DE25.050</GID>
                </GPH>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On December 22, 2022, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58772"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.051</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58773"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.052</GID>
                </GPH>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="249">
                    <PRTPAGE P="58774"/>
                    <GID>EN17DE25.053</GID>
                </GPH>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Renee P. Sonderman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary, Bureau of Arms Control and Nonproliferation, Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23022 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 1710-27-C</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58775"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 12888]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Foreign Terrorist Organization Designation of Clan del Golfo</SUBJECT>
                <P>Based upon a review of the Administrative Record assembled in this matter, and in consultation with the Attorney General and the Secretary of the Treasury, I have concluded that there is a sufficient factual basis to find that the relevant circumstances described in section 219 of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended (hereinafter “INA”) (8 U.S.C. 1189), exist with respect to: Clan del Golfo (also known as Banda Criminal de Uraba, Los Autodefensas Gaitanistas de Colombia, Clan Usuga, Los Urabenos, Gulf Clan).</P>
                <P>Therefore, I hereby designate the aforementioned organization and its respective aliases as a Foreign Terrorist Organization pursuant to section 219 of the INA.</P>
                <P>
                    This determination shall be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . This designation goes into effect upon publication.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 4, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Marco Rubio,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23133 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-AD-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 12889]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Specially Designated Global Terrorist Designations of Clan del Golfo</SUBJECT>
                <P>Acting under the authority of and in accordance with section 1(a)(ii)(A) of Executive Order 13224, as amended (“E.O. 13224” or “Order”), I hereby determine that the person known as Clan del Golfo (also known as Banda Criminal de Uraba, Los Autodefensas Gaitanistas de Colombia, Clan Usuga, Los Urabenos, Gulf Clan) is a foreign person who has committed or has attempted to commit, poses a significant risk of committing, or has participated in training to commit acts of terrorism that threaten the security of U.S. nationals or the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States.</P>
                <P>Consistent with the determination in section 10 of E.O. 13224 that prior notice to persons determined to be subject to the Order who might have a constitutional presence in the United States would render ineffectual the blocking and other measures authorized in the Order because of the ability to transfer funds instantaneously, I determine that no prior notice needs to be provided to any person subject to this determination who might have a constitutional presence in the United States, because to do so would render ineffectual the measures authorized in the Order.</P>
                <P>
                    This determination shall be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 4, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Marco Rubio,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23144 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-AD-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 12856]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of 2024 Department of State Sanctions Actions Pursuant to the Executive Order Regarding Blocking Property With Respect to Specified Harmful Foreign Activities of the Government of the Russian Federation</SUBJECT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of State is publishing the names of one or more persons that were placed on the Department of Treasury's List of Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons (SDN List) administered by the Office of Foreign Asset Control (OFAC) in 2024 based on the Department of State's determination, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, that one or more applicable legal criteria of the Executive Order regarding blocking property with respect to specified harmful foreign activities of the Government of the Russian Federation were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these persons are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        These actions were issued on January 11, 2024, February 23, 2024, May 1, 2024, June 12, 2024, August 23, 2024, September 10, 2024, and October 30, 2024, respectively. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for effective date(s) in 2024.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Office of Counterproliferation Initiatives, Bureau of Arms Control and Nonproliferation, Department of State, Washington, DC 20520, tel.: (202) 647 5193, email: 
                        <E T="03">ACN_Sanctions@state.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.treasury.gov/ofac</E>
                    ). The announcements for these actions are available on the Department of State's website (
                    <E T="03">https://2021-2025.state.gov/the-united-states-takes-action-in-response-to-dprk-russia-ballistic-missile-transfers-and-testing/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/imposing-measures-in-response-to-navalnys-death-and-two-years-of-russias-full-scale-war-against-ukraine/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/imposing-new-measures-on-russia-for-its-full-scale-war-and-use-of-chemical-weapons-against-ukraine-2/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/taking-additional-measures-to-degrade-russias-wartime-economy/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/new-measures-to-degrade-russias-wartime-economy/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/new-iran-and-russia-sanctions-designations/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/new-measures-targeting-third-country-enablers-supporting-russias-military-industrial-base/</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On January 11, 2024, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <P>1. MIKHEYCHIK, Vladimir Vladimirovich (a.k.a. MIKHEICHIK, Vladimir Vladimirovich), Russia; DOB 16 May 1970; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Tax ID No. 772975847073 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(C) of Executive Order 14024 of April 15, 2021, “Blocking Property With Respect to Specified Harmful Foreign Activities of the Government of the Russian Federation,” (E.O. 14024) for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to this order.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <P>1. ASHULUK FIRING RANGE (a.k.a. ASHULUK TEST RANGE), Astrakhan Oblast, Russia; Organization Type: Defense activities [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>
                    Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58776"/>
                </P>
                <P>2. VLADIMIROVKA ADVANCED WEAPONS AND RESEARCH COMPLEX (a.k.a. VAWARC), Astrakhan Oblast, Russia; Organization Type: Defense activities [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Aircraft</HD>
                <P>1. RF-86898; Aircraft Manufacture Date 28 Jan 1982; Aircraft Mode S Transponder Code 155372; Aircraft Model IL-76; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 23435028; Aircraft Tail Number RF-86898 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: COMMAND OF THE MILITARY TRANSPORT AVIATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which COMMAND OF THE MILITARY TRANSPORT AVIATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>2. RF-78757; Aircraft Manufacture Date 27 Apr 1988; Aircraft Mode S Transponder Code 1533A5; Aircraft Model IL-76MD; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 83484547; Aircraft Tail Number RF-78757 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: COMMAND OF THE MILITARY TRANSPORT AVIATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which COMMAND OF THE MILITARY TRANSPORT AVIATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>3. RF-82011; Aircraft Manufacture Date 31 Dec 1986; Aircraft Mode S Transponder Code 15405B; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 9773054616023; Aircraft Tail Number RF-82011 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: COMMAND OF THE MILITARY TRANSPORT AVIATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which COMMAND OF THE MILITARY TRANSPORT AVIATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>On January 11, 2024, based on a decision by the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, OFAC updated the entry on the SDN List for the following person, whose property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction continue to be blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <P>1. RF-82041; Aircraft Manufacture Date 08 Feb 1991; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 9773054055089; Aircraft Tail Number RF-82041 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES).</P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>RF-82041; Aircraft Manufacture Date 08 Feb 1991; Aircraft Mode S Transponder Code 154079; Aircraft Model AN-124; Aircraft Manufacturer's Serial Number (MSN) 9773054055089; Aircraft Tail Number RF-82041 (aircraft) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: COMMAND OF THE MILITARY TRANSPORT AVIATION).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which COMMAND OF THE MILITARY TRANSPORT AVIATION, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>2. JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES (a.k.a. 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES; a.k.a. JSC THE 224TH FLIGHT UNIT STATE AIRLINES; a.k.a. LYOTNY OTRYAD 224; a.k.a. OJSC GOSUDARSTVENNAYA AVIAKOMPANIYA 224 LETNY OTRYAD; a.k.a. TTF AIR HEAVY LIFTING; a.k.a. “224 FU JSC”; a.k.a. “224TH FLIGHT UNIT”; a.k.a. “OAO 224 LO”), 10, Matrosskaya Tishina, B-14, POB-471, Moscow 107014, Russia; Organization Established Date 16 Oct 1971; Tax ID No. 7718763393 (Russia); Registration Number 1097746281160 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: PRIVATE MILITARY COMPANY ‘WAGNER’).</P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="149">
                    <GID>EN17DE25.054</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On February 23, 2024, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <P>1. PINIGIN, Pavel Ivanovich, Belarus; DOB 23 Aug 1962; POB Baranovichi, Belarus; nationality Belarus; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114. (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>
                    Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58777"/>
                </P>
                <P>2. COPEICHIN, Valerii (a.k.a. COPCIN, Valari), Plot 115, Nantale Road, Bukoto, P.O. Box 2203, Kampala, Uganda; DOB 05 Jul 1961; nationality Moldova; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Passport AB1893585 (Moldova) expires 08 Jun 2032; alt. Passport AB0376112 (Moldova) expires 02 Oct 2025; Identification Number 265417770002 (United Kingdom) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. PIKALOV, Konstantin Alexandrovich (a.k.a. MAZAEV, Konstantin; a.k.a. PIKALOV, Konstantin Aleksandrovich; a.k.a. “MAZAI”; a.k.a. “MAZAY”), Russia; DOB 23 Jul 1968; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 781491227404 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>4. TENSIN, Alexey Vasilyevich (a.k.a. TENSIN, Aleksei), Russia; DOB 28 Nov 1971; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 183200864631 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>5. PORKHACHEV, Nikolay Vladimirovich (a.k.a. PORKHACHEV, Nikolai Vladimirovich), Russia; DOB 27 Sep 1979; POB Novovyatsk, Kirov region, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 770902376809 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>6. NABOKOV, Yuri Alexandrovich (a.k.a. NABOKOV, Iurii Aleksandrovich; a.k.a. NABOKOV, Yury), Russia; DOB 01 Jan 1981; POB Donetsk, Ukraine; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 780211914500 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>7. KUDRYAVTSEV, Gennady Ivanovich (a.k.a. KUDRIAVTSEV, Gennadii Ivanovich), Russia; DOB 20 Aug 1947; POB Dalian, China; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 183303235868 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>8. DRONOV, Evgenii Anatolevich, Russia; DOB 20 Oct 1947; POB Tula, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 710600768047 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>9. SYCHUGOV, Aleksandr Viacheslavovich (a.k.a. SYCHUGOV, Aleksandr Vyacheslavovich), Russia; DOB 29 Sep 1962; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 330501738533 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>10. TROSHEV, Andrej Nikolaevich (a.k.a. TROSHEV, Andrei Nikolaevich; a.k.a. “Gray Hair”; a.k.a. “Sedoi”), Russia; DOB 05 Apr 1962; alt. DOB 05 Apr 1953; POB St. Petersburg, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Tax ID No. 781417567443 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(ii)(F) of E.O. 14024 for being responsible for or complicit in, or having directly or indirectly engaged or attempted to engage in, activities that undermine the peace, security, political stability, or territorial integrity of the United States, its allies, or its partners, for or on behalf of, or for the benefit of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>11. ELIZAREV, Anton Olegovich (a.k.a. YELIZAREV, Anton Olegovich; a.k.a. “Lotus”), 66 Novorossiysk, Apt 48, Novorossiysk, Russia; DOB 01 May 1981; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Passport 6103869621 (Russia); Tax ID No. 23151072563 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(ii)(F) of E.O. 14024 for being responsible for or complicit in, or having directly or indirectly engaged or attempted to engage in, activities that undermine the peace, security, political stability, or territorial integrity of the United States, its allies, or its partners, for or on behalf of, or for the benefit of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>
                    12. ORLOV, Stanislav Alexandrovich (a.k.a. “Spaniard”), 4 Fomichevoi Street, Apartment 3, Moscow 125481, Russia; DOB 21 Feb 1981; POB Moscow, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Passport 4507686257 (Russia); National ID No. 11308319818 (Russia); Tax ID No. 773370193596 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                    <PRTPAGE P="58778"/>
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(ii)(F) of E.O. 14024 for being responsible for or complicit in, or having directly or indirectly engaged or attempted to engage in, activities that undermine the peace, security, political stability, or territorial integrity of the United States, its allies, or its partners, for or on behalf of, or for the benefit of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>13. TURKANOV, Mikhail Viktorovich (a.k.a. “Pitbull”), Russia; DOB 26 Dec 1987; POB St. Petersburg, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(ii)(F) of E.O. 14024 for being responsible for or complicit in, or having directly or indirectly engaged or attempted to engage in, activities that undermine the peace, security, political stability, or territorial integrity of the United States, its allies, or its partners, for or on behalf of, or for the benefit of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <P>1. DUNAY PROBABLE NAVAL MISSILE FACILITY, 42-56N 132-20E, Promyslovka Peninsula, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Organization Type: Defense activities [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. CENTRAL RESEARCH RADIO ENGINEERING INSTITUTE NAMED AFTER ACADEMICIAN A I BERG (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO TSENTRALNYI NAUCHNO ISSLEDOVATELSKII RADIOTEKHNICHESKII INSTITUIMENI AKADEMIKA A I BERGA; a.k.a. AO TSNIRTI IM AKADEMIKA A I BERGA; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY TSNIRTI NAMED AFTER ACADEMICIAN A I BERG; a.k.a. “108 INSTITUTE”), 20 Nova Basmanna Street, Building 9, Moscow 107078, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 9701039940 (Russia); Registration Number 1167746458648 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE EKRAN (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO ISSLEDOVATELSKII INSTITUT EKRAN; a.k.a. AO NII EKRAN), 24 Kirova Ave, Samara 443022, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 6319169796 (Russia); Registration Number 1136319002731 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>4. PRO HELI INTERNATIONAL SERVICES LIMITED (a.k.a. PROHELI INTERNATIONAL SERVICES LTD), 3rd Floor, Unicalo House, Archer Road, Kololo, P.O. Box 34855, Kampala, Uganda; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Organization Established Date 04 Jul 2016; Registration Number 80010001240699 (Uganda) (Entity) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>5. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU VOENNO OKHRANNAIA KOMPANIIA KONVOI (a.k.a. OOO VOK KONVOI; a.k.a. PMC CONVOY; a.k.a. PRIVATE MILITARY COMPANY CONVOY), 5a Novocherkassky Ave., letter a, office/room 1-N/35, St. Petersburg 195112, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 4712026246 (Russia); Registration Number 1154712000024 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>6. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO KONSALT (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO CHVK VAGNER TSENTR; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY PMC WAGNER CENTER), 15 Zolnaya St, Building 1, Room. 1-N, Ch. P. 194, Office 206, St. Petersburg 193318, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7811783517 (Russia); Registration Number 1227800167242 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>7. JOINT STOCK COMPANY NOVOSIBIRSK MECHANICAL PLANT ISKRA (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NOVOSIBIRSKII MEKHANICHESKII ZAVOD ISKRA; a.k.a. AO NMZ ISKRA), Chekalina St., Building 8, Novosibirsk 630900, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 5410039642 (Russia); Registration Number 1115476008890 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    8. OTKRYTOE AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NOVO-VYATKA (a.k.a. NOVO VYATKA OPEN JOINT STOCK COMPANY), d. 51 korp. 2 ul. Sovetskaya, Kirov, Kirovskaya obl. 610008, Russia; Executive Order 13662 Directive Determination—Subject to Directive 3; Secondary sanctions risk: Ukraine-/Russia-Related Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR 589.201 and/or 589.209; alt. Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58779"/>
                    Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 4345029946 (Russia); Registration Number 1034316578680 (Russia); For more information on directives, please visit the following link: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.treasury.gov/resource-center/sanctions/Programs/Pages/ukraine.aspx#directives</E>
                     [UKRAINE-EO13662] [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: STATE CORPORATION ROSTEC).
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>9. JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION PRIBOR NAMED AFTER S S GOLEMBIOVSKY (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE OBYEDINENIE PRIBOR IMENI S S GOLEMBIOVSKOGO; a.k.a. AO NPO PRIBOR IMENI S S GOLEMBIOVSKOGO), 1 Kirovgradskaya St., Moscow 117587, Russia; 2 ul. Novorossiiskaia, Chelyabinsk, Russia; 3 ul. Sovnarkhoznaia, Noginsk 142400, Russia; 1/21 ul. 1-ia Krasnoarmeiskaia, Saint Petersburg, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7726700943 (Russia); Registration Number 1127746541427 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>10. JOINT STOCK COMPANY ARZAMAS MACHINE BUILDING PLANT (a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY ARZAMAS MACHINERY PLANT; a.k.a. PUBLICHNOE AKTSIONERNOE OBSCHESTVO ARZAMASSKIY MASHINOSTROITELNYI ZAVOD; a.k.a. “AO AMZ”), 2 May 9 St., Arzamas 607220, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 5243001767 (Russia); Registration Number 1025201335730 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="149">
                    <GID>EN17DE25.055</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>12. JSC SCIENTIFIC PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION EXPERIMENTAL DESIGN BUREAU NAMED AFTER M SIMONOV (a.k.a. AO NPO OKB IM MP SIMONOVA; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY EXPERIMENTAL DESICH BUREU COKOL; a.k.a. OKB SIMONOV; a.k.a. OKB SOKOL; a.k.a. SIMONOV DESIGN BUREAU; a.k.a. SOKOL DESIGN BUREAU), 2A ul Akademika Pavlova St, Kazan 420036, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 1661007166 (Russia); Registration Number 1021603886622 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>13. JSC IZHEVSK MOTOR PLANT AKSION HOLDING (a.k.a. AO IZHEVSKII MOTOZAVOD AKSION KHOLDING; a.k.a. IZHEVSK MOTOZAVOD AXION HOLDING JSC), 90 Maksima Gorkogo Street, Izhevsk 426008, Russia; Per. Furmannyi D. 12 Str 1, Moscow 105062, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 1826000616 (Russia); Registration Number 1021801140833 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    14. JOINT STOCK COMPANY VERKHNYAYA SALDA CHEMICAL CONTAINER PLANT (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO VERKHNESALDINSKII ZAVOD KHIMICHESKIKH EMKOSTEI; a.k.a. “AO VZKHE”), 105 Molodezhny Poselok Street, Verkhnyaya Salda 624761, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 6623136353 (Russia); Registration 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58780"/>
                    Number 1206600070918 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>15. FEDERAL STATE ENTERPRISE SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY ASSOCIATION KAZAN PLANT OF PRECISION ENGINEERING (a.k.a. FKP NPO KZTM; a.k.a. NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE OBYEDINENIE KAZANSKII ZAVOD TOCHNOGO MASHINOSTROENIYA), 71 Mazita Gafuri Street, Kazan 420108, Russia; 2 Pionerskaya Street, Chapaevsk 446100, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 1654001773 (Russia); Registration Number 1021602829115 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>16. JOINT STOCK COMPANY SPECIAL DESIGN BUREAU OF INSTRUMENT MAKING AND AUTOMATION (a.k.a. OPEN JOINT STOCK COMPANY SPECIAL DESIGN BUREAU OF INSTRUMENT ENGINEERING AND AUTOMATION; a.k.a. OTKRYTOE AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO SPETSIALNOE KONSTRUKTORSKOE BIURO PRIBOROSTROENIIA I AVTOMATIKI; a.k.a. “OAO SKB PA”), 55 Krupskoi Street, Kovrov 601903, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 3305016642 (Russia); Registration Number 1023301951045 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>17. JOINT STOCK COMPANY ASTEIS (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO ASTEIS; a.k.a. JSC ASTEYS), 28 Proezd Rezervnyi, Naberezhnye Chelny 423800, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 1650153253 (Russia); Registration Number 1071650002874 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>18. JOINT STOCK COMPANY TULA MACHINE BUILDING PLANT (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO AKTSIONERNAIA KOMPANIIA TULAMASHZAVOD; a.k.a. AO TULSKIY MASHINOSTROITELNIY ZAVOD; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY TULAMASHZAVOD; a.k.a. TULAMASHZAVOD PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION), 2 Mosina St., Tula 300002, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7106002836 (Russia); Registration Number 1027100507114 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>19. PUBLIC JOINT STOCK COMPANY IMPERIAL TULA ARMS PLANT (a.k.a. PUBLIC JOINT STOCK COMPANY IMPERATORSKY TULSKY ORUZHEINY ZAVOD; a.k.a. PUBLICHNOE AKTSIONERNOE OBSCHESTVO IMPERATORSKIY TULSKIY ORUZHEINIY ZAVOD), 1A, Sovetskaya St., Tula 300002, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7107003303 (Russia); Registration Number 1027100507147 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>20. GUN MAKING COMPANY LEVSHA T LLC (a.k.a. LLC WEAPON FIRM LEVSHA T; a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU ORUZHEINAIA FIRMA LEVSHA T), 1A Sovetskaya St, Building 95-037, Pom/floor 11/2 lit. e3, Tula 300041, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7107049851 (Russia); Registration Number 1027100978300 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>21. JOINT STOCK COMPANY SPECIAL DESIGN BUREAU OF TRANSPORT MECHANICAL ENGINEERING (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO SPETSIALNOE KONSTRUKTORSKOE BIURO TRANSPORTNOGOMASHINOSTROENIIA; a.k.a. AO SPETSMASH; a.k.a. SPECMASH KB), 47 Stachek Ave., Korp 2, Saint Petersburg 198097, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7805019624 (Russia); Registration Number 1027802749061 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>22. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY TRIMIX (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU 3MKH; a.k.a. “3MX”), 16, litera A, Ul. Khoshimina, Pomeshch. 2-n of. 3.1.17, St. Petersburg 194358, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7802942873 (Russia); Registration Number 1237800084235 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>
                    Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58781"/>
                </P>
                <P>23. JOINT STOCK COMPANY VOSKRESENSKY AGGREGATION FACTORY (a.k.a. VOSKRESENSKIY AGGREGATE PLANT; a.k.a. “JSC VAF”), 6 Ul. Tsiolkovskogo, Beloozerskii 140250, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 5005073080 (Russia); Registration Number 1235000011058 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>24. JOINT STOCK COMPANY TECHNOLOGICAL ENTERPRISE PERM PLANT OF METAL WORKING CENTERS (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO SOVMESTNOE TEKHNOLOGICHESKOE PREDPRIYATIE PERMSKII ZAVOD METALLOOBRABATYVAYUSHCHIKH TSENTROV; a.k.a. PERM FACTORY METAL CENTERS STP STOCK COMPANY; a.k.a. “AO STP PZMTS”; a.k.a. “PZMC”), 155 Promyshlennaya Street, Perm 614065, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 5905951227 (Russia); Registration Number 1145958055870 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>25. JOINT STOCK COMPANY MEKHANIKA, 16 Elektrodnyi proezd, Moscow 111123, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7743627436 (Russia); Registration Number 1077746097538 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>26. JOINT STOCK COMPANY KOVROV ELECTROMECHANICAL PLANT (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO KOVROVSKII ELEKTROMEKHANICHESKII ZAVOD; a.k.a. “AO KEMZ”), 55 Krupskoi Street, Kovrov 601919, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 3305004421 (Russia); Registration Number 1023301951177 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>27. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO TOZ METIZ, Ul. Sovetskaya 1A, pomeshch. 420, Tula 300041, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7107107736 (Russia); Registration Number 1157154016360 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>28. DALIR LTD (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU DALIR; a.k.a. OOO DALIR), kv 1, ulitsa Admiralteyskaya 54, Astrakhan 414040, Russia; Tax ID No. 3015076287 (Russia); Identification Number IMO 5709371; Registration Number 1063015052396 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the marine sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>29. LADOGA SHIPPING COMPANY LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU SUDOKHODNAIA KOMPANIIA LADOGA; a.k.a. OOO SK LADOGA), Office 18, ulitsa Kirova 1, Astrakhan 414000, Russia; 3 Gogol St., building 2, letter A, room 55, Astrakhan 414024, Russia; Tax ID No. 3016048892 (Russia); Identification Number IMO 5252029; Registration Number 1063016028877 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the marine sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="66">
                    <GID>EN17DE25.056</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the marine sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>31. JOINT STOCK COMPANY RUSATOM ARCTIC, Proezd Kitaigorodskii, 7, Str. 1, Moscow 109012, Russia; Tax ID No. 9705215178 (Russia); Registration Number 1237700926825 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>32. INNOVATION HUB LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY (a.k.a. ROSATOM INNOHUB; a.k.a. “INNOHUB LLC”), Per. Bolshoi Tolmachevskii D. 4, Str. 1, Pomeshch. 4/1, Moscow 119017, Russia; Tax ID No. 9724042820 (Russia); Registration Number 1217700144738 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>
                    33. FEDERAL STATE UNITARY ENTERPRISE ALEXANDROV RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58782"/>
                    TECHNOLOGY (a.k.a. ALEKSANDROV SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH TECHNOLOGICAL INSTITUTE NITI; a.k.a. FEDERALNOE GOSUDARSTVENNOE UNITARNOE PREDPRIIATIE NAUCHNO ISSLEDOVATELSKII TEKHNOLOGICHESKII INSTITUT IMENI AP ALEKSANDROVA; a.k.a. FGUP NITI IM AP ALEKSANDROVA), Koporskoe Highway, House 72, Sosnovy Bor 188540, Russia; Organization Established Date 1962; Tax ID No. 4714000067 (Russia); Registration Number 1024701759565 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>34. SHOOTING CENTER ALTAY SHOOTER LTD (a.k.a. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY SHOOTING AND BENCH COMPLEX ALTAYSKY STRELOK; a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU STRELKOVO STENDOVYI KOMPLEKS ALTAISKII STRELOK; a.k.a. “LLC CCK EXPERT”; a.k.a. “OOO SSK AS”), Shadrino village, Barnaul 656000, Russia; 28 Ulitsa Kulagina, Barnaul 656012, Russia; Tax ID No. 2224083790 (Russia); Registration Number 1032202181516 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY BARNAUL CARTRIDGE PLANT).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, JOINT STOCK COMPANY BARNAUL CARTRIDGE PLANT, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Vessels</HD>
                <P>1. ALIREZA 1 (UAYK) General Cargo 1,972GRT Russia flag; Vessel Year of Build 1965; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 6703769 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: DALIR LTD).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which DALIR LTD, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>2. BALTIYSKIY-111 (UDCC) General Cargo 1,926GRT Russia flag; Vessel Year of Build 1980; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 7612448 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: DALIR LTD).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which DALIR LTD, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>3. SKIF-V (UBRK6) General Cargo 2,463GRT Russia flag; Vessel Year of Build 1984; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8858087 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: LADOGA SHIPPING COMPANY LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which LADOGA SHIPPING COMPANY LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>On February 23, 2024, based on a decision by the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, OFAC updated the entry on the SDN List for the following person, whose property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction continue to be blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="262">
                    <GID>EN17DE25.057</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    2. FEDERAL STATE UNITARY ENTERPRISE STATE RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE BAZALT (a.k.a. FEDERAL STATE UNITARY ENTERPRISE, STATE RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE BAZALT; a.k.a. FSUE SRPE BAZALT; a.k.a. STATE RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE BAZALT), 32 Velyaminovskaya, Moscow 105318, Russia; website 
                    <E T="03">www.bazalt.ru;</E>
                     Email Address 
                    <E T="03">moscow@bazalt.ru;</E>
                     Secondary sanctions risk: Ukraine-/Russia-Related Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR 589.201 and/or 589.209 [UKRAINE-EO13661].
                </P>
                <P>
                    -to-
                    <PRTPAGE P="58783"/>
                </P>
                <P>FEDERAL STATE UNITARY ENTERPRISE STATE RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE BAZALT (a.k.a. AO NPO BAZALT; a.k.a. FSUE SRPE BAZALT; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION BAZALT), 32 Velyaminovskaya, Moscow 105318, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: Ukraine-/Russia-Related Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR 589.201 and/or 589.209; alt. Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7719830028 (Russia); Registration Number 1127747209501 (Russia) [UKRAINE-EO13661] [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. MINISTRY OF DEFENSE AND ARMED FORCES LOGISTICS (a.k.a. GOVERNMENT OF IRAN DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE; a.k.a. MINISTRY OF DEFENCE &amp; ARMED FORCES LOGISTICS; a.k.a. MINISTRY OF DEFENSE AND SUPPORT FOR ARMED FORCES LOGISTICS; a.k.a. MINISTRY OF DEFENSE ARMED FORCES LOGISTICS; a.k.a. MINISTRY OF DEFENSE FOR ARMED FORCES LOGISTICS; a.k.a. MODAFL; a.k.a. MODSAF; a.k.a. VEZARATE DEFA; a.k.a. VEZARAT-E DEFA VA POSHTYBANI-E NIRU-HAYE MOSALLAH), Ferdowsi Avenue, Sarhang Sakhaei Street, Tehran, Iran; PO Box 11365-8439, Pasdaran Ave., Tehran, Iran; West side of Dabestan Street, Abbas Abad District, Tehran, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [SDGT] [NPWMD] [IFSR] [IRAN-CON-ARMS-E.O.] (Linked To: ISLAMIC REVOLUTIONARY GUARD CORPS (IRGC)-QODS FORCE).</P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>MINISTRY OF DEFENSE AND ARMED FORCES LOGISTICS (a.k.a. GOVERNMENT OF IRAN DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE; a.k.a. MINISTRY OF DEFENCE &amp; ARMED FORCES LOGISTICS; a.k.a. MINISTRY OF DEFENSE AND SUPPORT FOR ARMED FORCES LOGISTICS; a.k.a. MINISTRY OF DEFENSE ARMED FORCES LOGISTICS; a.k.a. MINISTRY OF DEFENSE FOR ARMED FORCES LOGISTICS; a.k.a. MODAFL; a.k.a. MODSAF; a.k.a. VEZARATE DEFA; a.k.a. VEZARAT-E DEFA VA POSHTYBANI-E NIRU-HAYE MOSALLAH), Ferdowsi Avenue, Sarhang Sakhaei Street, Tehran, Iran; PO Box 11365-8439, Pasdaran Ave., Tehran, Iran; West side of Dabestan Street, Abbas Abad District, Tehran, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions [SDGT] [NPWMD] [IFSR] [IRAN-CON-ARMS-E.O.] [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: ISLAMIC REVOLUTIONARY GUARD CORPS (IRGC)-QODS FORCE; Linked To: ROSOBORONEKSPORT OAO).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vi)(B) of E.O. 14024 for having materially assisted, sponsored, or provided financial, material, or technological support for, or goods or services to or in support of ROSOBORONEKSPORT OAO, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On May 1, 2024, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <P>1. LUKIN, Sergey Anatolyevich (a.k.a. LUKIN, Sergei Anatolevich), Russia; DOB 17 Sep 1983; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 710606343114 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. DUBONOSOV, Aleksey Gennadievich (a.k.a. DUBONOSOV, Aleksei Gennadievich), Russia; DOB 31 Dec 1976; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 344401214508 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. PITIKOV, Sergey Viktorovich (a.k.a. PITIKOV, Sergei Viktorovich), Russia; DOB 23 Feb 1963; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 502208215010 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>4. KASHIN, Valery Mikhailovich (a.k.a. KASHIN, Valerii Mikhailovich), Russia; DOB 14 Sep 1947; POB Chernivtsi, Ukraine; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 502207611476 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>5. SDOBNOV, Alexey Borisovich (a.k.a. SDOBNOV, Oleksii Borysovych), Russia; DOB 08 May 1983; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114. (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    6. YAKOVLEV, Pavel Alexandrovich (a.k.a. IAKOVLEV, Pavel Aleksandrovich), Russia; DOB 27 Jan 1968; POB Yekaterinburg, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58784"/>
                    support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 741501315015 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>7. ROSHCHUPKIN, Vladimir Nikolaevich, Russia; DOB 02 Jun 1963; POB Pershino, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 662316649390 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>8. VOLOGDIN, Boris Yakovlevich, Russia; DOB 22 Jul 1955; POB Aliya Village, Chita Region, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 701700134280 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>9. TERLIKOV, Andrey Leonidovich (a.k.a. TERLIKOV, Andrei Leonidovich), Russia; DOB 22 Feb 1962; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 662317683996 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>10. BREDIKHIN, Aleksei Viktorovich (a.k.a. BREDIKHIN, Aleksey; a.k.a. BREDIKHIN, Alexei), Russia; DOB 15 Mar 1984; POB Nizhny Kuranakh, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 701740785143 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <P>1. SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF APPLIED ACOUSTICS (a.k.a. APPLIED ACOUSTICS RESEARCH INSTITUTE; a.k.a. FEDERAL STATE UNITARY ENTERPRISE NIIPA; a.k.a. FEDERALNOE GOSUDARSTVENNOE UNITARNOE PREDPRIIATIE NAUCHNO ISSLEDOVATELSKII INSTITUT PRIKLADNOI AKUSTIKI; a.k.a. “AARI”; a.k.a. “FGUP NIIPA”; a.k.a. “RIAA”), 9 May St., 7A, Dubna 141981, Russia; 16A Nagatinskaia Ul, Moscow, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 5010007607 (Russia); Registration Number 1035002202070 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="190">
                    <GID>EN17DE25.058</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    3. FEDERAL STATE BUDGETARY INSTITUTION 48TH CENTRAL SCIENTIFIC AND RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF THE MINISTRY OF DEFENSE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION (a.k.a. 48 CENTRAL SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE KIROV; a.k.a. 48 CENTRAL SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE SERGIEV POSAD; a.k.a. 48 CENTRAL SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE YEKATERINBURG; a.k.a. 48 TSNII 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58785"/>
                    SERGIEV POSAD; a.k.a. 48TH CENTRAL RESEARCH INSTITUTE, SERGIEV POSAD; a.k.a. 48TH TSNII KIROV; a.k.a. 48TH TSNII YEKATERINBURG; a.k.a. CENTER FOR MILITARY TECHNICAL PROBLEMS OF BIOLOGICAL DEFENSE; a.k.a. FEDERALNOE GOSUDARSTVENNOE BIUDZHETNOE UCHREZHDENIE 48 TSENTRALNYI NAUCHNO ISSLEDOVATELSKII INSTITUT MINISTERSTVA OBORONY ROSSIISKOI FEDERATSII; a.k.a. FGBU 48 TSNII MINOBORONY ROSSII; a.k.a. ZARGORSK INSTITUTE; a.k.a. “MILITARY TECHNICAL SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE”; a.k.a. “SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF EPIDEMIOLOGY AND HYGIENE”; a.k.a. “SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF MEDICINE”; a.k.a. “SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF MICROBIOLOGY”; a.k.a. “THE VIROLOGY CENTER”), Ul. Oktyabrskaya D. 11, Gorodok 141306, Russia; 11 Ulitsa Oktyabrskaya, Sergiev Posad-6, Moscow Oblast 141306, Russia; 119 Oktyabrsky Prospekt, Kirov, Kirov Oblast 610017, Russia; 1 Ulitsa Zvezdnaya, Yekaterinburg, Sverdlovsk Oblast 620085, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Organization Established Date 07 Apr 1928; Target Type Government Entity; Tax ID No. 5042129453 (Russia); Registration Number 1136441000706 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>4. JOINT STOCK COMPANY BRYANSK AUTOMOBILE PLANT (a.k.a. AO BRYANSKI AVTOMOBILNY ZAVOD; a.k.a. BRYANSK AUTOMOBILE FACTORY; a.k.a. “AO BAZ”; a.k.a. “JSC BAF”), 1 Staleliteinaia Ul., Bryansk 241035, Russia; 20 Novaia Basmannaia Ul., Str. 8, Moscow, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 3255502838 (Russia); Registration Number 1083254005141 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>5. RUSSIAN ALL TERRAIN VEHICLES PLASTUN COMPANY (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU RUSSKIE VEZDEKHODY PLASTUN; a.k.a. RUSSKIE MASHINY PLASTUN), 21 Litera A, Leitenanta Shmidta Nab., Pomeshch. 4-N, Saint Petersburg 199034, Russia; 9 Khilokskaia, Novosibirsk, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7801696576 (Russia); Registration Number 1217800042283 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>6. JOINT STOCK COMPANY REMDIZEL (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO REMDIZEL), 40 Menzelinskii Trakt, Naberezhnye Chelny 423800, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 1650004741 (Russia); Registration Number 1021602015050 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>7. VOLGOGRAD MACHINE BUILDING COMPANY LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY (a.k.a. LLC VOLGOGRAD MACHINE BUILDING COMPANY VGTZ; a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU VOLGOGRADSKAIA MASHINOSTROITELNAIA KOMPANIIA VGTZ; a.k.a. VOLGOGRAD TRACTOR PLANT; a.k.a. “OOO VMK VGTZ”), 1 Dzerzhinskogo Pl, Volgograd 400006, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 3441023695 (Russia); Registration Number 1023402461752 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>8. JOINT STOCK COMPANY PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE RADAR 2633 (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO PROIZVODSTVENNOE PREDPRIIATIE RADAR 2633; a.k.a. AO RADAR 2633), 30 Smirnovskaya Street, Lyubertsy 140000, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 5027149374 (Russia); Registration Number 1095027005820 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>9. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 99 PLANT OF AVIATION TECHNOLOGICAL EQUIPMENT (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO 99 ZAVOD AVIATSIONNOGO TEKHNOLOGICHESKOGO OBORUDOVANIIA; a.k.a. “AO 99 ZATO”), 5 Dorozhnaya Street, Shcherbinka 142172, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7751520180 (Russia); Registration Number 1147746385500 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    10. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY TRADING PRODUCTION COMPANY ARGUS NV (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU TORGOVO PROMYSHLENNAIA KOMPANIIA ARGUS NV; a.k.a. OOO TPK ARGUS NV), 16 Dzershinsk Ul., Dzerzhinsky 140090, Russia; 7 Kosinskaya St., 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58786"/>
                    Moscow 111538, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7731459018 (Russia); Registration Number 5137746039008 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>11. AUTOMOBILE PLANT URAL JOINT STOCK COMPANY (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO AVTOMOBILNYI ZAVOD URAL; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY URAL MOTOR VEHICLES PLANT; a.k.a. “AO AZ URAL”), 1 Avtozavodtsev pr-kt, Miass 456304, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7415029289 (Russia); Registration Number 1027400870826 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>12. JOINT STOCK COMPANY MUROM SPECIAL DESIGN BUREAU (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO MUROMSKOE SPETSIALNOE KONSTRUKTORSKOE BYURO; a.k.a. “AO MUROMSKOE SKB”), 5 Karacharovskoe Highway, Murom 602251, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 3307000983 (Russia); Registration Number 1086623002190 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>13. JOINT STOCK COMPANY TOMSK ELECTROTECHNICAL PLANT (a.k.a. “TETZ”), 51a Kirov Ave., Tomsk 634041, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7017298902 (Russia); Registration Number 1127017001605 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>14. JOINT STOCK COMPANY URAL DESIGN BUREAU OF TRANSPORT ENGINEERING (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO URALSKOE KONSTRUKTORSKOE BIURO TRANSPORTNOGO MASHINOSTROENIIA; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY THE URAL DESIGN OFFICE OF TRANSPORT MECHANICAL ENGINEERING; a.k.a. “AO UKBTM”), Vostochynye shosse 38, Nizhny Tagil 622007, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 6623049453 (Russia); Registration Number 1086623004380 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>15. SFG BALTIKA (a.k.a. OOO ESEFDZHI BALTIKA), Per. 3-I Verkhnii D. 10, Lit. E, Office 1, Saint Petersburg 194292, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7814677901 (Russia); Registration Number 1177847008019 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>16. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY INTERVESP M, 20A Kuskovskaya Street, Moscow 111141, Russia; Pr-Kt Zelenyi 20, Et 12 Pom I kom 4, Moscow 111397, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7706441909 (Russia); Registration Number 1167746856738 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>17. LLC MASHIMPORT, Ul. Bolshaia Semenovskaia, 40 Str. 13, Et. 4 pomeshch. 403, Moscow 107023, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7719717008 (Russia); Registration Number 1097746058552 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>18. RBH TOOLS LTD (a.k.a. ER BI EICH TULZ), Office 904, 12 Aviamotornaya Street, Moscow 111024, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 9717071403 (Russia); Registration Number 1187746824022 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>19. SILVER TECHNOLOGY LIMITED (a.k.a. SILVER TECHNOLOGIES LTD), Room 2708 Asia Trade Centre, 79 Lei Muk Road, Kai Chung, Hong Kong, China; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Organization Established Date 28 Jun 2016; Registration Number 2396095 (Hong Kong) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    20. LIMITED TRADE DEVELOPMENT MACHINE GROUP (a.k.a. MACHINE GROUP LTD; a.k.a. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58787"/>
                    “MACHINEGROUP”), Ul. Troitskaya D. 9, K. 1, Pomeshch. 1/1, Moscow 129090, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7722854163 (Russia); Registration Number 5147746023640 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>21. JOINT STOCK COMPANY URAL SCIENTIFIC AND TECHNOLOGICAL COMPLEX (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO URALSKII NAUCHNO TEKHNOLOGICHESKII KOMPLEKS; a.k.a. “AO UNTK”), Vostochnoe sh. 28a, Nizhny Tagil 622007, Russia; Ul. paradnaya d. 8, Saint Petersburg 191014, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 6667001522 (Russia); Registration Number 1026601368023 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>22. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY LAB SERVICE (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU LAB SERVIS), 17 Pobedy Ul, korp. 1, kv. 355, Elektrostal 144007, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 5031144393 (Russia); Registration Number 1225000010322 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>23. SYSTEMS OF BIOLOGICAL SYNTHESIS LLC (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU SISTEMY BIOLOGICHESKOGO SINTEZA; a.k.a. “OOO SBS”; a.k.a. “SBS LLC”), Akademika Koroleva Street, Building 13/1, Office 35-39, Moscow 129515, Russia; Akademika Koroleva Ul, Building 13, str. 1, floor 2, Rooms 60-61, Moscow 129515, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7736314136 (Russia); Registration Number 5177746097392 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>24. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU TEKHNOLOGICHESKIE SISTEMY I SERVIS (a.k.a. TECHNOLOGICAL SYSTEMS AND SERVICE; a.k.a. “OOO TSS”), 19 Smoliachkova Ul, Litera A, Office 611, Saint Petersburg 194044, Russia; 10 Avtomobilny Pr-d, Str. 8, Moscow 109052, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7802876821 (Russia); Registration Number 1147847392791 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>25. JOINT STOCK COMPANY RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION TRANSCOM (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE OBYEDINENIE TRANSKOM; a.k.a. AO NPO TRANSKOM), Proezd Entuziastov D. 19, Na Ter-Rii 403, Remontnogo Zavoda, Moscow 111024, Russia; 4 str.1, per. Malyi Ivanovskii, Moscow 109028, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: this person is designated for operating or having operated in a sector of the Russian Federation economy determined to support Russia's military-industrial base pursuant to section 11 of Executive Order 14024, as amended by Executive Order 14114.; Tax ID No. 7709163294 (Russia); Registration Number 1027739687975 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the construction sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>26. JOINT STOCK COMPANY IPN STANKOSTROENIE (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO IPN STANKOSTROENIE; a.k.a. AO IPN STANKOSTROENIE), Ul. 3-ya yamskogo polya D. 2, K. 26, Moscow 125124, Russia; Tax ID No. 7457008611 (Russia); Registration Number 1177456104638 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>27. RUSATOM MACHINE TOOLS JOINT STOCK COMPANY (a.k.a. “AO RUSSTAN” (Cyrillic: “АО РУССТАН”); a.k.a. “RMT JSC”), Ul. 3-ya Yamskogo Polya d. 2, K. 26, Moscow 125124, Russia; Per. Pyzhevskii D. 5, Str. 1, Floor/Pomeshch. 2/I, Kom./Office 39/205, Moscow 119017, Russia; Tax ID No. 9706022877 (Russia); Registration Number 1227700146838 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On June 12, 2024, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <P>1. MIKLASHEVICH, Valyantsin Alfredavich (a.k.a. MIKLASHEVICH, Valentin Alfredovich; a.k.a. MIKLASHEVICH, Valiantsin), House 3, Shirokaya St., Apartment 144, Minsk, Belarus; DOB 03 Jun 1970; POB Volkovysk, Belarus; nationality Belarus; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Passport MP1853515 (Belarus); National ID No. 3030779K030PB8 (Belarus) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    2. ZHILKIN, Viktor Nikolaevich, Russia; DOB 03 Feb 1960; POB Ageevo, Tula Oblast, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 434536095851 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58788"/>
                    (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. YURASOV, Sergey Pavlovich (a.k.a. IURASOV, Sergei Pavlovich), Russia; DOB 04 Jan 1964; POB Dalniy (Kungur), Perm Region, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 525616920000 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>4. BODYAKO, Aleksandr Mikhailovich (a.k.a. BADZIAKA, Aliaksandr Mikhailavich), 32 Zagorodnyi lane, Apartment 1, Mogilev, Belarus; DOB 20 Mar 1959; POB Village Pechary, Mogilev Region, Belarus; nationality Belarus; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Passport KB2480817 (Belarus); National ID No. 3200359M079PB8 (Belarus) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: UNITARY PRIVATE SCIENCE PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE TEHNOLIT).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(C) of E.O. 14024 for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of UNITARY PRIVATE SCIENCE PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE TEHNOLIT, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <P>5. PERESELYAK, Elena Aleksandrovna (a.k.a. PERASIALIAK, Alena Aliaksandrauna), 21 Lenin Blvd., Apt. 24, Minsk, Belarus; DOB 20 Aug 1990; POB Zhodino, Minsk Region, Belarus; nationality Belarus; Gender Female; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Passport MC2781840 (Belarus); National ID No. 4200890B016PB7 (Belarus) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY BAZTUBE).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(C) of E.O. 14024 for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY BAZTUBE, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <P>6. MANKO, Dmitry Yuryevich (a.k.a. MANKO, Dzmitry), 40 Gorkogo Street, Apartment 86, Bobruysk, Belarus; DOB 05 Aug 1973; POB Guta Village, Mogilev Region, Belarus; nationality Belarus; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Passport KB1660910 (Belarus); National ID No. 3050873M062PB4 (Belarus) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY BELARUSREZINOTEKHNIKA).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(C) of E.O. 14024 for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of JOINT STOCK COMPANY BELARUSREZINOTEKHNIKA, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <P>7. SHPAKOV, Oleg Petrovich (a.k.a. SHPAKAU, Aleh Piatrovich), 2 Pervomayskaya Street, Apartment 9, Mogilev, Belarus; DOB 04 Apr 1964; POB Mogilev, Belarus; nationality Belarus; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Passport KB1586184 (Belarus); National ID No. 3040464M067PB2 (Belarus) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY BELARUSREZINOTEKHNIKA).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(C) of E.O. 14024 for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of JOINT STOCK COMPANY BELARUSREZINOTEKHNIKA, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <P>1. JOINT STOCK COMPANY CONCERN URALVAGONZAVOD (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO KONTSERN URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. AO KONTSERN URALVAGONZAVOD), 40 Bolshaya Yakimanka Street, Moscow 119049, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Organization Established Date 24 Apr 2018; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7706453206 (Russia); Registration Number 1187746432345 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 81 ARMORED FIGHTING VEHICLES REPAIR PLANT (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO 81 BRONETANKOVYI REMONTNYI ZAVOD; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 81 BTRZ; a.k.a. “AO 81 BTRZ”), 7 Pugacheva per., Armavir 352919, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 2302060955 (Russia); Registration Number 1092302000922 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. PRODUCTION UNITARY ENTERPRISE PLANT SVT (a.k.a. PROIZVODSTVENNOE UNITARNOE PREDPRIYATIE ZAVOD SVT; a.k.a. VYROBNYCHE UNITARNE PIDPRYIEMSTVO ZAVOD SVT), 58 Nezavisimosti Blvd., Building 11, Room 801, Minsk 220005, Belarus; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 190737825 (Belarus) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>4. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY SCIENTIFIC AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION AMB (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE OBEDINENIE AMB), 14 Severnaia ul., litera r, pomeshch. 9-n chast pomeshcheniia 13-39, Saint Petersburg 196655, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 7804516528 (Russia); Registration Number 1137847368295 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>5. PUBLIC JOINT STOCK COMPANY KIROV PLANT MAYAK (a.k.a. KIROVSKI ZAVOD MAYAK PAO; a.k.a. MAYAK PLANT OF KIROV PJSC; a.k.a. PUBLICHNOE AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO KIROVSKII ZAVOD MAIAK), 67 Molodoi Gvardii, Kirov 610000, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 4345000947 (Russia); Registration Number 1024301308371 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>
                    Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58789"/>
                    operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.
                </P>
                <P>6. JOINT STOCK COMPANY PERM SCIENTIFIC INDUSTRIAL INSTRUMENT MAKING COMPANY (a.k.a. OJSC PERM SCIENTIFIC AND PRODUCTION INSTRUMENT AND CONSTRUCTION COMPANY; a.k.a. PAO PNPPK; a.k.a. PUBLIC JOINT STOCK COMPANY PERM RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION INSTRUMENT MAKING COMPANY; a.k.a. PUBLICHNOE AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO PERMSKAIA NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNAIA PRIBOROSTROITELNAIA KOMPANIIA), 25th of October Street, Number 106, Perm 614990, Russia; 7 Obraztsova ul., Str. 5, Moscow, Russia; 2A Arkhitekturnaia (Sosnovyi Mkr.) ul., Arzamas, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 5904000395 (Russia); Registration Number 1025900906349 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>7. PUBLIC JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION STRELA (a.k.a. PAO NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE OBEDINENIE STRELA; a.k.a. PJSC RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION STRELA; a.k.a. PJSC SPA STRELA; a.k.a. PUBLICHNOE AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE OBEDINENIE STRELA; a.k.a. “NPO STRELA”; a.k.a. “PAO NPO STRELA”; a.k.a. “SPA STRELA”), 6 Maxim Gorky Street, Tula 300002, Russia; 2 Arsenalnaya Street, Tula 300002, Russia; 6 M. Gorkogo ul., Tula 300002, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7103028233 (Russia); Registration Number 1027100517256 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>8. JOINT STOCK COMPANY RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION ISKRA (a.k.a. PAO NPO ISKRA; a.k.a. PUBLICHNOE AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE OBEDINENIE ISKRA), 28 Akademika Vedeneeva ul., Perm 614038, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 5907001774 (Russia); Registration Number 1025901509798 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="98">
                    <GID>EN17DE25.059</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>10. JOINT STOCK COMPANY URAL HEAVY EQUIPMENT URALVAGONZAVOD (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO URALSKAYA BOLSHEGRUZNAYA TEKHNIKA URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. AO UBT URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY URAL HEAVY LOAD TECHNIQUE URALVAGONZAVOD), Ul. Yunosti D. 10, Nizhniy Tagil 622018, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 6623009965 (Russia); Registration Number 1026601370267 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD NAMED AFTER F E DZERZHINSKY).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or has acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD NAMED AFTER F E DZERZHINSKY, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <P>11. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY ABAKAN AIR (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU ABAKAN EIR), Nab. Presnenskaya D. 12, kom. A37, 24th Floor, Moscow 123112, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Organization Type: Freight air transport; Tax ID No. 2455024143 (Russia); Registration Number 1052455020837 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>12. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU AVIALIZING INVEST (a.k.a. AVIALEASING INVEST; a.k.a. OOO AVIALIZING INVEST), Ul. Malaya Dmitrovka D. 29, Str. 3, Moscow 127006, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 7707324429 (Russia); Registration Number 1037707020966 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the financial services sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>13. UNITARY PRIVATE SCIENCE PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE TEHNOLIT (a.k.a. UNITARNOE CHASTNOE NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE PREDPRIYATIE TEKHNOLIT; a.k.a. “TECHNOLYTE”), 18 Alexey Pysin Street, Mogilev 212026, Belarus; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Government Gazette Number 28307680 (Belarus); Registration Number 700001147 (Belarus) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY 81 ARMORED FIGHTING VEHICLES REPAIR PLANT).</P>
                <P>
                    Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vi)(B) of E.O. 14024 for having materially assisted, sponsored, or provided financial, material, or 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58790"/>
                    technological support for, or goods or services to or in support of, JOINT STOCK COMPANY 81 ARMORED FIGHTING VEHICLES REPAIR PLANT, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.
                </P>
                <P>14. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY BAZTUBE (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTYU BAZTYUB), 5B St. Sukhogryadskaya, Zhodino 222161, Belarus; 2A Zelenoborskaya Ul., Zhodzina 222161, Belarus; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 691738570 (Belarus); Government Gazette Number 504412066000 (Belarus) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY 81 ARMORED FIGHTING VEHICLES REPAIR PLANT).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vi)(B) of E.O. 14024 for having materially assisted, sponsored, or provided financial, material, or technological support for, or goods or services to or in support of, JOINT STOCK COMPANY 81 ARMORED FIGHTING VEHICLES REPAIR PLANT, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <P>15. JOINT STOCK COMPANY BELARUSREZINOTEKHNIKA (a.k.a. BELARUSREZINOTECHNIKA OJSC; a.k.a. “AO BRT”), 102 Minskaya Str., Bobruisk 213829, Belarus; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Government Gazette Number 1494387000 (Belarus); Registration Number 70069297 (Belarus) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY 81 ARMORED FIGHTING VEHICLES REPAIR PLANT).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vi)(B) of E.O. 14024 for having materially assisted, sponsored, or provided financial, material, or technological support for, or goods or services to or in support of, JOINT STOCK COMPANY 81 ARMORED FIGHTING VEHICLES REPAIR PLANT, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <P>16. JOINT STOCK COMPANY KIROV ENERGOMASH PLANT (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO ZAVOD KIROV ENERGOMASH), Pr-kt Stachek, 47 litera i, pomeshch. 2-n, Kabinet 401, Saint Petersburg 198097, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7805060301 (Russia); Registration Number 1027802714444 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>17. INJECT RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY (a.k.a. INJECT RME LLC; a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE PREDPRIIATIE INZHEKT; a.k.a. “OOO NPP INZHEKT”), Ul. Elmashevskaya, Vladenie 3 A Office 1, Saratov 410033, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 6453142068 (Russia); Registration Number 1156451017436 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>18. RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT INSTITUTE OF SCIENTIFIC INSTRUMENTS JOINT STOCK COMPANY (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO ISSLEDOVATELSKII INSTITUT PRIBOROV; a.k.a. “AO NIIP”; a.k.a. “RISI JSC”; a.k.a. “SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF INSTRUMENTS”), 8 Turaevo Industrial Area, Lytkarino 140080, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 5027241394 (Russia); Registration Number 1165027055258 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>On June 12, 2024, based on a decision by the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, OFAC updated the entry on the SDN List for the following person, whose property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction continue to be blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <P>1. ABDRAKHMANOV, Farid Khabibullovich (a.k.a. ABDRAKHMANOV, Faryd Khabybullovych), Russia; DOB 22 Oct 1954; POB Zelenodolsk, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; National ID No. 666301586521 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>ABDRAKHMANOV, Farid Khabibullovich (a.k.a. ABDRAKHMANOV, Faryd Khabybullovych), Russia; DOB 22 Oct 1954; POB Zelenodolsk, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 666301586521 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. URALVAGONZAVOD (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO KONTSERN URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. JSC CONCERN URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. JSC RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. JSC RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD NAMED AFTER FE DZERZHINSKY; a.k.a. NAUCHNO-PROIZVODSTVENNAYA KORPORATSIYA URALVAGONZAVOD OAO; a.k.a. NPK URALVAGONZAVOD OAO; a.k.a. OJSC RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD OAO; a.k.a. URALVAGONZAVOD CORPORATION; a.k.a. “UVZ”), 40 Bolshaya Yakimanka Street, Moscow 119049, Russia; 28 Vostochnoye Shosse, Nizhni Tagil, Sverdlovsk Region 66207, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: Ukraine-/Russia-Related Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR 589.201 and/or 589.209; Tax ID No. 7706453206 (Russia); Registration Number 1187746432345 (Russia) [UKRAINE-EO13661] [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>
                    JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD NAMED AFTER F E DZERZHINSKY (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNAIA KORPORATSIIA URALVAGONZAVOD IMENI F E DZERZHINSKOGO; a.k.a. JOINT STOCK COMPANY RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. NAUCHNO-PROIZVODSTVENNAYA KORPORATSIYA URALVAGONZAVOD OAO; a.k.a. NPK URALVAGONZAVOD OAO; a.k.a. OJSC RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD; a.k.a. RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58791"/>
                    CORPORATION URALVAGONZAVOD OAO; a.k.a. URALVAGONZAVOD CORPORATION; a.k.a. “UVZ”), 40 Bolshaya Yakimanka Street, Moscow 119049, Russia; 28 Vostochnoye Shosse, Nizhni Tagil, Sverdlovsk Region 66207, Russia; Pr-kt Lenina, d. 204, Rubtsovsk 658225, Russia; Pr-kt Lenina, d. 3, Chelyabinsk 454007, Russia; Ul. Pervomaiskaya d. 14, Volchansk 624941, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: Ukraine-/Russia-Related Sanctions Regulations, 31 CFR 589.201 and/or 589.209; alt. Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Organization Established Date 31 Mar 2008; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 6623029538 (Russia); Registration Number 1086623002190 (Russia) [UKRAINE-EO13661] [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. POTAPOV, Aleksandr Valeryevich (a.k.a. POTAPOV, Aleksandr Valerievich), Russia; DOB 23 Feb 1963; POB Moscow, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Tax ID No. 770405465488 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: URALVAGONZAVOD).</P>
                <P>-to-</P>
                <P>POTAPOV, Aleksandr Valeryevich (a.k.a. POTAPOV, Aleksandr Valerievich), Russia; DOB 23 Feb 1963; POB Moscow, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 770405465488 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JOINT STOCK COMPANY CONCERN URALVAGONZAVOD).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(C) for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of JOINT STOCK COMPANY CONCERN URALVAGONZAVOD, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On August 23, 2024, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <P>1. SYPALO, Kirill Ivanovich, Russia; DOB 18 Dec 1970; POB Moscow, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 773384622502 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. BARANOV, Dmitrii Aleksandrovich (a.k.a. BARANOV, Dmitry Aleksandrovich), 72-128Zh Stara Zagora Street, Samara 443114, Russia; DOB 19 Jun 1970; POB Samara, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 631909995294 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. KHVOSHCH, Sergei Timofeevich (a.k.a. KHVOSHCH, Sergey Timofeyevich; a.k.a. KHVOSHCH, Serhiy Tymofiyovych), 11/1—121 Kosygina, St. Petersburg 195426, Russia; DOB 31 May 1951; POB Ukraine; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 780600994989 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to Section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>4. BELOBROV, Vladislav Vladimirovich (a.k.a. BIELOBROV, Vladyslav Volodymyrovych), Russia; DOB 16 Jun 1978; POB New Uzen, Mangyshlak region, Kazakhstan; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 740503063001 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>5. KUZMENKO, Igor Vladimirovich (a.k.a. KUZMENKA, Ihar Uladzimiravich), No. 57, Sergey Gritsevts St., Orsha Bolbasovo Town, Vitebsk Region, Belarus; DOB 11 Nov 1967; POB Kagan, Uzbekistan; nationality Belarus; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; National ID No. 3111167A014PB1 (Belarus) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>6. TITOVA, Elena Vladimirovna (a.k.a. TSITOVA, Alena Uladzimirauna), Apt 62 St. Bogatyreva 131, Rogachev City, Gomel Region, Belarus; DOB 10 Nov 1976; POB Village Lubonichi, Kirovsky, Mogilev Region, Belarus; nationality Belarus; Gender Female; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; National ID No. 4101176M005PB3 (Belarus) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>7. FILIPPOV, Gennady Anatolievich (a.k.a. FILIPAU, Genadziy Anatolievich; a.k.a. FILIPAU, Henadzi), M/R-N 16 no. 20 apt. 123, Zhlobin, Gomel Region, Belarus; DOB 17 Mar 1974; POB Ozerany, Rogachevsky District, Gomel Region, Belarus; nationality Belarus; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; National ID No. 3170374H045PB1 (Belarus) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>8. LAVRENTIEV, Anton Konstantinovich (a.k.a. LAURENTSYEU, Anton Kanstantsinavich), 34 apt. 56, St. Ivan Bogatyreva, Rogachev City, Gomel Region, Belarus; DOB 09 Apr 1989; POB Tashkent, Uzbekistan; nationality Belarus; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; National ID No. 3090489M023PB4 (Belarus) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>9. ILYUSHCHENKO, Aleksandr Fedorovich (a.k.a. ILYUSHCHANKA, Aliaksandr Fedaravich), 9 Building 5, Apartment 21 St Gamarnika Ya. B., S, Minsk, Belarus; DOB 26 May 1956; POB Minsk, Belarus; nationality Belarus; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; National ID No. 3260556A001PB0 (Belarus) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: STATE SCIENTIFIC AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION OF POWDER METALLURGY).</P>
                <P>
                    Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(C) for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58792"/>
                    or member of the board of directors of STATE SCIENTIFIC AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION OF POWDER METALLURGY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.
                </P>
                <P>10. KALININ, Aleksandr Olegovich (Cyrillic: КАЛИНИН, Александр Олегович), Ulitsa Volodarskogo, 9, Apt. 21, Orekhovo—Zuyevo, Moscow Region 142600, Russia; DOB 13 Jun 1983; POB Moscow Oblast, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Passport 721066388 (Russia); National ID No. 4605009658 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: GREDSTONE PTE LTD).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(C) for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of GREDSTONE PTE LTD, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <P>11. AKSENOV, Igor Borisovich (a.k.a. AKSONOV, Ihor Borysovych; a.k.a. AKSYONOV, Igor Borisovich), Russia; DOB 20 Nov 1971; POB Baikonur, Kazakhstan; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 732800052176 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>12. KOROBKO, Nikolai Alekseevich (a.k.a. KOROBKO, Mykola Oleksiiovych), Russia; DOB 14 Jan 1950; POB Solenoye, Kalmykia, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Passport 7301193828 (Russia); alt. Passport 0710012691 (Russia); Tax ID No. 732800060667 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>13. ISAYKIN, Alexey Ivanovich (a.k.a. ISAIKIN, Aleksei Ivanovich; a.k.a. ISAIKIN, Alexey Ivanovich), 19 bld. 1, Apt 54, Kosygina Street, Moscow 119334, Russia; DOB 09 Sep 1952; POB Talas, Kyrgyzstan; nationality Russia; alt. nationality Cyprus; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Passport 550074072 (Russia); Tax ID No. 770405603410 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>14. DYACHKOV, Sergey Adolfovich (a.k.a. DIACHKOV, Sergei Adolfovich; a.k.a. DYACHKOV, Sergei Adolfovich), Russia; DOB 26 May 1959; POB Ulyanovsk Region, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Passport 7304273188 (Russia); alt. Passport 7301381541 (Russia); Tax ID No. 73280738648127 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>15. GABRIEL, Valery Alexandrovich (a.k.a. GABRIEL, Valerii Aleksandrovich), Russia; DOB 03 Jan 1956; POB Starobelsk, Luhansk Region, Ukraine; nationality Russia; alt. nationality Germany; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 732808701175 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>16. ZINUROV, Vildan Khanifovich (a.k.a. ZINNUROV, Vildan Khanifovich), Russia; DOB 30 Jan 1964; POB Pokhbistnevsky district, Samara Region, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Passport 7308664347 (Russia); alt. Passport 7303853009 (Russia); Tax ID No. 732500186500 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>17. SHKLIANIK, Sergei Ivanovich (a.k.a. SHKLYANIK, Sergey), 28-100 Grokholyskiy Ln., Moscow 129010, Russia; DOB 04 May 1956; POB Savichi, Belarus; nationality Russia; alt. nationality Cyprus; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 770804439659 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>18. SOROKIN, Dmitrii Sergeevich (a.k.a. SOROKIN, Dmitry Sergeyevich), 16-63 40-Letya Pobedy Str, Ulyanovsk 432064, Russia; DOB 18 Dec 1974; POB Miass, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; National ID No. 7302481876 (Russia); Tax ID No. 732808920547 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>19. GUSEV, Nikita Vladimirovich, 7 Sadovaya Street Apt 4, Sormovsky Proletary 606492, Russia; DOB 25 Feb 1992; POB Kriushi, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; National ID No. 4511582626 (Russia); Tax ID No. 732102356583 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="80">
                    <GID>EN17DE25.060</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    2. JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION ORION (a.k.a. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58793"/>
                    AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE OBEDINENIE ORION; a.k.a. AO NPO ORION; a.k.a. ENTERPRISE RESEARCH DEVELOPMENT AND PRODUCTION CENTER ORION; a.k.a. JSC SPA ORION; a.k.a. ORION RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION), 9 Kosinskaya st., Moscow 111538, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7720770380 (Russia); Registration Number 1127747292738 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. FEDERAL AUTONOMOUS ENTERPRISE THE CENTRAL AEROHYDRODYNAMIC INSTITUTE NAMED AFTER PROFESSOR NE ZHUKOVSKY (a.k.a. “TSAGI”), 1 Zhukovskogo ul., Zhukovskii 140180, Russia; 26 Chkalova ul., Zhukovskii 140181, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 1225000018803 (Russia); Registration Number 5040177331 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>4. JOINT STOCK COMPANY RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION SPACE CENTRE PROGRESS (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO RAKETNO KOSMICHESKII TSENTR PROGRESS; a.k.a. AO RKTS PROGRESS; a.k.a. TSSKB PROGRESS), 18 Zemetsa ul., Samara 443009, Russia; 13 Marshala Nedelina ul., Tsiolkovskii, Russia; 10 Lesnaia ul., Mirnyi, Russia; 8 Konstruktora Guskova str. 2, Zelenograd, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 6312139922 (Russia); Registration Number 1146312005344 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>5. RUSSIAN ACADEMY OF SCIENCES SIBERIAN BRANCH KHRISTIANOVICH INSTITUTE OF THEORETICAL AND APPLIED MECHANICS (a.k.a. FEDERALNOE GOSUDARSTVENNOE BIUDZHETNOE UCHREZHDENIE NAUKI INSTITUT TEORETICHESKOI I PRIKLADNOI MEKHANIKI IM SA KHRISTIANOVICHA SIBIRSKOGO OTDELENIIA ROSSIISKOI AKADEMII NAUK; a.k.a. ITAM SB RAS; a.k.a. ITPM SO RAN), 4/1 Institutskaya ul., Novosibirsk 630090, Russia; 74 Taimyrskaia ul., Tyumen, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 5408100018 (Russia); Registration Number 1025403641900 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>6. JOINT STOCK COMPANY ELECTRONIC COMPANY ELKUS (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO ELEKTRONNAIA KOMPANIIA ELKUS; a.k.a. ELCUS JSC), 10 Blagodatnaya ul., str. 1, Office 424, St. Petersburg 196128, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 7806002060 (Russia); Registration Number 1027804181965 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>7. JOINT STOCK COMPANY OKTAVA (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO OKTAVA; a.k.a. OKTAVA PLANT), D. 24 Kaminskogo ul., Tula 300000, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7107033763 (Russia); Registration Number 1027100967740 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy</P>
                <P>8. K A VOLODIN INSTRUMENT ENGINEERING PLANT FEDERAL STATE UNITARY ENTERPRISE (a.k.a. IEP FSUE; a.k.a. INSTRUMENT ENGINEERING PLANT FSUE; a.k.a. PREDSTAVITELSTVO FEDERALNOGO GOSUDARSTVENNOGO UNITARNOGO PREDPRIIATIIA PRIBOROSTROITELNYI ZAVOD IMENI K A VOLODINA), 13 Zarechnaia ul., Trekhgornyi 456082, Russia; 25 str. 1 Bolshaia Polianka ul., Moscow 119180, Russia; 24 Alleia Druzhby ul., Evpatoriia, Crimea 97493, Ukraine; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7405000428 (Russia); Registration Number 1027400661650 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>9. JOINT STOCK COMPANY RESEARCH INSTITUTE FOR AUTOMATED APPARATUS NAMED AFTER ACADEMICIAN V S SEMENIKHIN (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO ORDENA TRUDOVOGO KRASNOGO ZNAMENI NAUCHNOISSLEDOVATELSKII INSTITUT AVTOMATICHESKOI APPARATURY IM AKADEMIKA V S SEMENIKHINA; a.k.a. NIIAA NAMED AFTER ACADEMICIAN VS SEMENIKHIN FSUE; a.k.a. “AO NIIAA”), D. 78 Profsoyuznaya Ul., Moscow 117393, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7728795443 (Russia); Registration Number 1127746009500 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>10. JOINT STOCK COMPANY ZAVOLZHSKY CRAWLER VEHICLE PLANT (a.k.a. AO ZAVOLZHSKIY ZAVOD GUSENICHNIKH TYAGACHEY; a.k.a. ZAVOLZHSKY TRACKED TRACTOR PLANT; a.k.a. “AO ZZGT”; a.k.a. “JSC ZCVP”), 1 Zheleznodorozhnaya Street, Zavolzhe 606522, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 5248031980 (Russia); Registration Number 1115248002110 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    11. DESIGN BUREAU OF CHEMICAL MACHINE BUILDING KBKHM (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO KONSTRUKTORSKOE BIURO KHIMICHESKOGO MASHINOSTROENIIA IMENI AM ISAEVA; a.k.a. AM ISAYEV CHEMICAL ENGINEERING DESIGN BUREAU; a.k.a. AO KBKHIMMASH IM AM ISAEVA; a.k.a. DESIGN BUREAU FOR CHEMICAL MACHINE BUILDING; a.k.a. KB KHIM MASH), 12 Bogomolova St., Korolyev 141070, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 5018202198 (Russia); Registration Number 1195081083878 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                    <PRTPAGE P="58794"/>
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>12. FEDERAL STATE ENTERPRISE AMUR CARTRIDGE PLANT VYMPEL (a.k.a. FEDERALNOE KAZENNOE PREDPRIIATIE AMURSKII PATRONNYI ZAVOD VYMPEL IMENI PV FINOGENOVA; a.k.a. FKP APZ VYMPEL IM PV FINOGENOVA; a.k.a. FSE ACP VYMPEL; a.k.a. VYMPEL STATE PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION), D.12 Sh. Mashinostroitelei, Amursk 682640, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 2706000260 (Russia); Registration Number 1022700650609 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>13. MILITARY ENGINEERING CENTRE LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU VOENNO INZHENERNYI TSENTR; a.k.a. “OOO VITS”), 88 pr-kt Lenina, Nizhnii Novgorod 603004, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 5256072148 (Russia); Registration Number 1075256008618 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>14. OPEN JOINT STOCK COMPANY ROGACHEVSKY ZAVOD DIAPROEKTOR (a.k.a. OJSC ROGACHEV PLANT DIAPROJECTOR), 142 Lenin Str., Rogachev 247675, Belarus; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Registration Number 400046055 (Belarus) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>15. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 41 CENTRAL PLANT OF THE RAILWAY TECHNOLOGY (a.k.a. 41ST CENTRAL RAILWAY EQUIPMENT PLANT; a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO 41 TSENTRALNYI ZAVOD ZHELEZNODOROZHNOI TEKHNIKI; a.k.a. AO 41 TSENTRALNYI ZAVOD), Proezd Proektiruemyi 4296, Vladenie 3, Lyubertsy 140008, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 5027150193 (Russia); Registration Number 1095027006722 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>16. JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE SALYUT (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE PREDPRIIATIE SALIUT; a.k.a. AO NPP SALYUT; a.k.a. NPP SALYUT JSC), Ul. Plekhanova, 6, Moscow 111123, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7720673002 (Russia); Registration Number 1097746763102 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>17. JOINT STOCK COMPANY STRATIM (a.k.a. JSC STRATIM; a.k.a. STRATIM COMPANY; a.k.a. STRATIM DESIGN BUREAU), Pr-kt Federativnyi, D. 5, Korp. 1, Pomeshch. 1/1, Moscow 111399, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Organization Established Date 03 Jul 2023; Tax ID No. 7720901379 (Russia); Registration Number 1237700447324 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>18. FEDERALNOE KAZENNOE PREDPRIIATIE AVANGARD (a.k.a. FKP AVANGARD), Ul. Olega Koshevogo D.2, Sterlitamak 453102, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 0268005588 (Russia); Registration Number 1020202089115 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>19. FEDERALNOE KAZENNOE PREDPRIIATIE GOSUDARSTVENNYI NAUCHNO ISSLEDOVATELSKII INSTITUT KHIMICHESKIKH PRODUKTOV (a.k.a. FEDERAL STATE INSTITUTION STATE RESEARCH INSTITUTE OF CHEMICAL PRODUCTS; a.k.a. FKP GOSNIIKHP; a.k.a. GOSUDARSTVENNYI NAUCHNO ISSLEDOVATELSKII INSTITUT KHIMICHESKIKH PRODUKTOV), Ul. Svetlaya D. 1, Kazan 420033, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 1656003409 (Russia); Registration Number 1021603067683 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense or related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>20. STATE SCIENTIFIC AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION OF POWDER METALLURGY (a.k.a. STATE RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION POWDER METALLURGY ASSOCIATION; a.k.a. “GNPO PM”), 41 Platonova Str., Minsk 220005, Belarus; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 100512805 (Belarus); Government Gazette Number 000247915000 (Belarus) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: JSC 558 AIRCRAFT REPAIR PLANT).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vi)(B) of E.O. 14024 for having materially assisted, sponsored, or provided financial, material, or technological support for, or goods or services to or in support of JSC 558 AIRCRAFT REPAIR PLANT, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <P>21. GREDSTONE PTE LTD, The Central, 6 Eu Tong Sen Street #09-09, Singapore 59817, Singapore; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 201914576G (Singapore) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: MAIN DIRECTORATE OF DEEP SEA RESEARCH).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vi)(B) of E.O. 14024 for having materially assisted, sponsored, or provided financial, material, or technological support for, or goods or services to or in support of MAIN DIECTORATE OF DEEP SEA RESEARCH, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <P>
                    22. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT CENTER ECOPROMSERTIFIKA (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNYI TSENTR EKOPROMSERTIFIKA; a.k.a. OOO NPTS EKOPROMSERTIFIKA), D. 4 UI. Verkhnyaya Radishchevskaya, str. 3, pom. III komn 1i, Moscow 109240, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58795"/>
                    Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 7705564792 (Russia); Registration Number 1037739896149 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the engineering sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>23. JOINT STOCK COMPANY RESEARCH PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE KVANT (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE PREDPRIIATIE KVANT; a.k.a. AO NPP KVANT; a.k.a. NPP QUANTUM), D. 16 3-ya Mytishchinskaya UI., Moscow 129626, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7717585042 (Russia); Registration Number 5077746415533 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the engineering sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>24. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY VOLGA DNEPR AIRLINES (a.k.a. AVIAKOMPANIYA VOLGA DNEPR; a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU AVIAKOMPANIIA VOLGA DNEPR), D. 14 Karbysheva ul., Ulyanovsk 432072, Russia; 28B Mezhdunarodnoe sh., str. 2, et. 4 kom. 443, Moscow 141400, Russia; Hanoi, Vietnam; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Organization Type: Freight air transport; Tax ID No. 7328510118 (Russia); Registration Number 1077328004841 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>25. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY VOLGA DNEPR MOSCOW (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU VOLGA DNEPR MOSKVA; a.k.a. VOLGA DNEPR GROUP), 28B Str. 3 Mezhdunarodnoe sh., Moscow 141411, Russia; D. 17, Korp 4 Krylatskaya Ul., Moscow 121614, Russia; 1010 Air China Building, 36 Xiaoyun road, Chaoyang district, Beijing 100027, China; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 7704223366 (Russia); Registration Number 1027700590521 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>26. ATRAN LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY (a.k.a. ATRAN CARGO AIRLINES; a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU ATRAN; a.k.a. OOO ATRAN), D 28, Lit. B, Str. 3 Mezhdunarodnoe Sh., Moscow 141411, Russia; A/P Sheremetyevo-1 Postbox 10, Khimki 141426, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Organization Type: Freight air transport; Tax ID No. 5009053648 (Russia); Registration Number 1065009017897 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>27. AIRBRIDGECARGO AIRLINES LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY (a.k.a. AK EIRBRIDZHKARGO; a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU AVIAKOMPANIIA EIRBRIDZHKARGO), D. 28B, Str. 3 Mezhdunarodnoe Sh., Moscow 141411, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Organization Type: Freight air transport; Tax ID No. 7704548011 (Russia); Registration Number 1057746295474 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>28. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU REINOLDS (a.k.a. OOO REINOLDS; a.k.a. REYNOLDS AERO; a.k.a. REYNOLDS GAS TURBINES; a.k.a. REYNOLDS LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY), 9 str. 21, Ul. Godovikova, Moscow 129085, Russia; 9 str. 17, Ul. Godovikova, Moscow 129085, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 7731390782 (Russia); Registration Number 5177746181135 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>29. REINOLDS INZHINIRING (a.k.a. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY REYNOLDS ENGINEERING; a.k.a. LLC REYNOLDSENGINEERING), D.9, Str. 21 Pomeshch. 1.1 (Floor 1), Kom. 1.1.1 Ul. Godovikova, Moscow 129085, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 9717103694 (Russia); Registration Number 1217700319627 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>30. STRATIM LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY (a.k.a. STRATIM LLC), ul. Varvarskaia, 6, pomeshch. P6, Nizhny Novgorod 603000, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Organization Established Date 01 Apr 2024; Tax ID No. 5260494520 (Russia); Registration Number 1245200009075 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>31. JOINT STOCK COMPANY STRATIM TECH (a.k.a. JSC STRATIM TECH), ul. Shipilovskaia, d. 64, korp. 1, pomeshch. 147, Moscow 115682, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Organization Established Date 12 Sep 2023; Tax ID No. 9724145543 (Russia); Registration Number 1237700601490 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the aerospace sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>32. JOINT STOCK COMPANY GEOFIZICA COSMOS (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE PREDPRIIATIE GEOFIZIKA KOSMOS; a.k.a. AO NPP GEOFIZIKA KOSMOS), D. 11 Ul. Irkutskaya korp. 1, Moscow 107497, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7718649612 (Russia); Registration Number 5077746924074 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>33. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU NORGAU RUSSLAND (a.k.a. NORGAU RUSSLAND GMBH; a.k.a. OOO NORGAU RUSSLAND), ul. Novatorov, 1, et./pomeshch. 2/LVI kom. 77, Moscow 119421, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 7727159340 (Russia); Registration Number 1037739226293 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    34. CHIP EXPERT LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU CHIP EKSPERT; 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58796"/>
                    a.k.a. OOO CHIP EKSPERT), Ul. Glukharskaya D. 27, K. 1 Str 1, Kv. 428, Saint Petersburg 197350, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 7814755412 (Russia); Registration Number 1197847063370 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>35. ISTOK ENGINEERING AND CONSTRUCTION JOINT STOCK COMPANY (a.k.a. ISTOK E AND C JSC; a.k.a. ISTOK E&amp;C JSC; a.k.a. JSC KIS ISTOK), Ul. Krasnokazarmennaya D. 12, Str. 38, Floor/Pom./Komnata 2/Iv/19, Moscow 111250, Russia; ul. Oktiabrskaia, 11, Ozersk, Chelyabinsk Oblast, Russia; ul. Dibunovskaia, 55, litera a, Saint Petersburg 197183, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 9722006872 (Russia); Registration Number 1217700403690 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or has acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On September 10, 2024, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <P>1. SEA RIVER SERVICE LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY (a.k.a. MORE REKA SERVIS; a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU MORE REKA SERVIS; a.k.a. SEA RIVER SERVICE LLC), Office 1, ul Lenina 53, Azov, Rostov Oblast 346780, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Organization Established Date 25 Mar 2015; Tax ID No. 6140000869 (Russia); Identification Number IMO 6083740; Business Registration Number 1156188000649 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the marine sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. VAFA WHOLESALE LTD (a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU OPTOVAIA FIRMA VAFA; a.k.a. OOO OF VAFA), ulitsa Generala Yepisheva 20D, Astrakhan, Astrakhan Oblast 414024, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Organization Established Date 12 Aug 1996; Tax ID No. 3016023425 (Russia); Identification Number IMO 5266323; Business Registration Number 1023000821029 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the marine sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Vessels</HD>
                <P>1. OMSKIY-103 (UGDX) General Cargo 2,458GRT Russia flag; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Vessel Year of Build 1978; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8889385 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: SEA RIVER SERVICE LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which SEA RIVER SERVICE LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>2. OMSKIY-119 (UBSW7) General Cargo 2,463GRT Russia flag; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Vessel Year of Build 1980; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8926913 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: SEA RIVER SERVICE LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which SEA RIVER SERVICE LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>3. ZAKAMSK (UBBT3) General Cargo 2,406GRT Russia flag; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Vessel Year of Build 1966; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8951413 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: SEA RIVER SERVICE LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which SEA RIVER SERVICE LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>4. VAFA (UFZS) General Cargo 1,575GRT Russia flag; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Vessel Year of Build 1984; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8422670 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: VAFA WHOLESALE LTD).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which VAFA WHOLESALE LTD, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <P>5. VAFA-1 (UHCT) General Cargo 1,570GRT Russia flag; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Vessel Year of Build 1984; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8422682 (vessel) [RUSSIA-EO14024] (Linked To: VAFA WHOLESALE LTD).</P>
                <P>Identified as property in which VAFA WHOLESALE LTD, an entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024, has an interest.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On October 30, 2024, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <P>1. FOMIN, Alexander Vasilyevich (a.k.a. FOMIN, Aleksandr Vasilyevich), Kolymazhnyy Pereulok, Moscow 119019, Russia; DOB 25 May 1959; POB Ridder, Kazakhstan; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Passport 200276901 (Russia); Tax ID No. 772728554330 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(A) of E.O. 14024 for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of the Government of the Russian Federation</P>
                <P>2. BULYGA, Andrey Mikhaylovich, Russia; DOB 13 Oct 1968; POB Saryozek, Kerbulaksky district, Zhetysu region, Kazakhstan; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 272099571004 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(A) of E.O. 14024 for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of the Government of the Russian Federation</P>
                <P>3. FRADKOV, Pavel Mikhaylovich (a.k.a. FRADKOV, Pavel Mikhailovich), Russia; DOB 03 Sep 1981; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024. (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>
                    Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(A) of E.O. 14024 for being or having been a leader, official, senior 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58797"/>
                    executive officer, or member of the board of directors of the Government of the Russian Federation
                </P>
                <P>4. GOREMYKIN, Viktor Petrovich, Moscow, Russia; DOB 04 Feb 1959; POB Kormovoye, Serebryano-Prudsky district, Moscow, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024. (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(A) of E.O. 14024 for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of the Government of the Russian Federation</P>
                <P>5. TSIVILEVA, Anna Evgenyevna (a.k.a. LOGINOVA, Anna Evgenyevna; a.k.a. PUTINA, Anna Evgenyevna); DOB 09 May 1972; POB Ivanovo, Russia; nationality Russia; Gender Female; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 771921270207 (Russia) (individual) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(A) of E.O. 14024 for being or having been a leader, official, senior executive officer, or member of the board of directors of the Government of the Russian Federation</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entities</HD>
                <P>1. JOINT STOCK COMPANY REMVOORUZHENIE (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO REMVOORUZHENIE; a.k.a. AO REMVOORUZHENIE), Ul. 4-ya tverskaya-yamskaya d. 20, str. 1, Moscow 125047, Russia; 22 Frunzenskaya Embankment, Building 2, Moscow 119160, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7704726257 (Russia); Registration Number 1097746264263 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>2. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 780 NAVIGATION TECHNICAL MEANS REPAIR PLANT (a.k.a. 780 REPAIR PLANT FOR NAVIGATION TECHNICAL EQUIPMENT; a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO 780 REMONTNYI ZAVOD TEKHNICHESKIKH SREDSTV KORBLEVOZHDENIIA; a.k.a. AO 780 RZ TSK), d 15 Kostyleva Street, Lomonosov 198412, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7819310946 (Russia); Registration Number 1097847180639 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>3. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 103 ARSENAL (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO 103 ARSENAL; a.k.a. “AO 103 ARSENAL”), D. 35 Mordovskaya ul., Saransk 430004, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 1328001381 (Russia); Registration Number 1091328002358 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>4. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 63 ARSENAL (a.k.a. “AO 63 ARSENAL”), Lipetsk, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 4823038078 (Russia); Registration Number 1094823014846 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>5. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 5 ARSENAL (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO 5 ARSENAL; a.k.a. “AO 5 ARSENAL”), D. 45 Ul. B. Khmelnitskogo, Alatyr 429826, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 2122006437 (Russia); Registration Number 1092131000180 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>6. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 6 ARSENAL (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO 6 ARSENAL; a.k.a. “AO 6 ARSENAL”), RP. Burmakino, Yaroslavl Oblast 152290, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7621008421 (Russia); Registration Number 1097627002428 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>7. OPEN JOINT STOCK COMPANY 136 CENTRALNAY BAZA PROIZVODSTVA I REMONTA VOORYGENIY I CREDSTV RADIACIONNOI HIMICHESKOI I BIOLOGICHESKOI ZACHITU (a.k.a. 136 TSBPR), Kambarka, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 1838006108 (Russia); Registration Number 1091838000935 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>8. JOINT STOCK COMPANY SEPARATELY CONSTRUCTOR TECHNOLOGIC OFFICE VEKTOR (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO OTDELNOE KONSTRUKTORSKO TEKHNOLOGICHESKOE BIURO VEKTOR; a.k.a. AO OKTB VEKTOR; a.k.a. OKTB VECTOR), D.4 Ul. Koroleva, Bataysk 346881, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 6141032302 (Russia); Registration Number 1096181000585 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>9. JOINT STOCK COMPANY MAINTENANCE BASE OF AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS AND AERODROME EQUIPMENT (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO REMONTNAIA BAZA PO REMONTU AVIATSIONNYKH PRIBOROV I AERODROMNOI TEKHNIKI; a.k.a. FL AO REMBAZA; a.k.a. “AO REMBAZA”), D. 40 Ul. Titova, Balashov 412310, Russia; Nab. tarasa shevchenko d. 23 A, Moscow 121151, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 6440020175 (Russia); Registration Number 1096440000425 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    10. JOINT STOCK COMPANY RESEARCH CENTRE VITYAZ (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO TEKHNICHESKII TSENTR VITIAZ; a.k.a. AO NTTS VITYAZ), B-R Shchorsa D. 8, Korp. A, Bryansk 241022, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58798"/>
                    Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 3233502337 (Russia); Registration Number 1093254005503 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>11. JOINT STOCK COMPANY SPETSTECHNIKA (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO SPETSTEKHNIKA; a.k.a. AO SPETSTEKHNIKA), Ozernyi, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 6907010883 (Russia); Registration Number 1096908000760 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>12. UNITED ENGINE CORPORATION PERM ENGINES RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION COMPLEX (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO ODK PERMSKIE MOTORY; a.k.a. JSC UEC PERM ENGINES; a.k.a. JSC UEC PERM MOTORS; a.k.a. PERM ENGINE COMPANY; a.k.a. PERM MOTOR PLANT; a.k.a. PERM MOTOROSTROITEL PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION; a.k.a. “AO ODK PM”), 93 Komsomolskii Pr-kt, Perm 614990, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 5904007312 (Russia); Registration Number 1025900893864 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>13. ASTRON OPTO MECHANICAL DESIGN BUREAU (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO OPTIKO MEKHANICHESKOE KONSTRUKTORSKOE BIURO ASTRON; a.k.a. AO OKB ASTRON), D. 1, Office 9 Ul. Parkovaya, Lytkarino 140080, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 5027224977 (Russia); Registration Number 1155027001690 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>14. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY PRECISION LASER SYSTEMS (a.k.a. PRETSIZIONNYE LAZERNYE SISTEMY), Ul. Komsomola D. 1-3, Lit. S, Pomeshch. 1n, Saint Petersburg 195009, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 7804522899 (Russia); Registration Number 1137847498876 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>15. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY OPITNO KONSTRUKTORSKOE BUREAU AVIAAVTOMATIKA (a.k.a. KURSK PRIBOR JSC AVIAAVTOMATIKA; a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU OPYTNO KONSTRUKTORSKOE BIURO AVIAAVTOMATIKA; a.k.a. OOO OKB AVIAAVTOMATIKA), 47 Zapolnaia ul., Kursk 305040, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 4632071042 (Russia); Registration Number 1064632050152 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>16. PUBLIC JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE IMPULSE (a.k.a. IMPULS RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT ENTERPRISE; a.k.a. PAO NPP IMPULSE; a.k.a. PJSC RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ASSOCIATION IMPULSE; a.k.a. PUBLICHNOE AKTCIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE PREDPRIIATIE IMPULS), 102 Mira Avenue, Moscow 129626, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Organization Established Date 03 Jun 1994; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7717022177 (Russia); Registration Number 1027700206511 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>17. JOINT STOCK COMPANY SCIENTIFIC PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE PLANT ISKRA (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE PREDPRIIATIE ZAVOD ISKRA; a.k.a. AO NAUCHNO PROIZVODSTVENNOE PREDPRIYATIE ZAVOD ISKRA; a.k.a. AO NPP ZAVOD ISKRA; a.k.a. JSC RESEARCH AND PRODUCTION ENTERPRISE PLANT ISKRA; a.k.a. NPP PLANT ISKRA), 75 Narimanov Avenue, Ulyanovsk 432030, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Organization Established Date 26 Jun 2008; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7325081527 (Russia); Registration Number 1087325005756 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the defense and related materiel sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>18. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 261 REPAIR FACTORY OF FUEL FILLING AND TRANSPORTATION (a.k.a. 261ST REPAIR PLANT; a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO 261 REMONTNYI ZAVOD SREDSTV ZAPRAVKI I TRANSPORTIROVANIIA GORIUCHEGO; a.k.a. AO 261 REMONTNYI ZAVOD), Pankovka, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 5310015581 (Russia); Registration Number 1095321003260 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>19. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 78 CENTRAL ENGINEERING BASE (a.k.a. AO 78 TSENTRALNAYA INZHENERNAYA BAZA), D. 2 Ul. Karbysheva, Syzran 446024, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 6325051400 (Russia); Registration Number 1096325001321 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>20. SPECIAL SYSTEMS PHOTONICS LLC, D. 64, lit. e, pomeshch 2-n, pr-kt Bolshoi Sampsonievskii, office 706, Saint Petersburg 194044, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 7802570752 (Russia); Registration Number 1167847155068 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the manufacturing sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>
                    21. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 171 SEPARATE DESIGN TECHNOLOGICAL BUREAU (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO 171 OTDELNOE KONSTRUKTORSKO 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58799"/>
                    TEKHNOLOGICHESKOE BIURO; a.k.a. AO 171 OKTB), D. 100 Admirala Lobova Ul., Murmansk 183017, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 5190904177 (Russia); Registration Number 1095190006328 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the engineering sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>22. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 18TH NAVY SPECIAL DESIGN AND ENGINEERING OFFICE (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO 18 SPETSIALIZIROVANNOE KONSTRUKTORSKO TEKHNOLOGICHESKOE BIURO VOENNO MORSKOGO FLOTA; a.k.a. AO 18 SKTB VMF), Liniiya 11-Ya V.O., D. 8, Saint Petersburg 199034, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7801497725 (Russia); Registration Number 1097847180650 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the marine sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>23. JOINT STOCK COMPANY 51 CENTRAL DESIGN TECHNOLOGICAL INSTITUTE SHIP REPAIR (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO 51 TSENTRALNYI KONSTRUKTORSKO TEKHNOLOGICHESKII INSTITUT SUDOREMONTA; a.k.a. AO 51 TSKTIS), Ul. Mikhailovskaya, D.14, Lomonosov 198412, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7819310907 (Russia); Registration Number 1097847176822 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the marine sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <P>24. OOO IP NTSVO FOTONIKA (a.k.a. INNOVATIVE ENTERPRISE FORC PHOTONICS; a.k.a. LLC FE NTSVO PHOTONIKA; a.k.a. LLC INNOVATIVE ENTERPRISE NTSVO PHOTONIKA; a.k.a. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU INNOVATSIONNOE PREDPRIIATIE NTSVO FOTONIKA), 20 str. 3, Et 4 Pomeshch. l komn., 5 Proezd Nauchnvi, Moscow 117246, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 7736523556 (Russia); Registration Number 1057747239769 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the technology sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="125">
                    <GID>EN17DE25.061</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vi)(B) of E.O. 14024 for having materially assisted, sponsored, or provided financial, material, or technological support for, or goods or services to or in support of OPEN JOINT STOCK COMPANY ROCHEVSKY ZAVOD DIAPROEKTOR, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 14024.</P>
                <P>26. ROSATOM DIGITAL SOLUTIONS LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY (a.k.a. RUSATOM DIGITAL SOLUTIONS; a.k.a. “RDS LLC”), Per. Kholodilnyi D. 3, Str. 2, Moscow 115191, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7726447225 (Russia); Registration Number 1197746082093 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>27. ROSATOM MICROELECTRONICS JOINT STOCK COMPANY (a.k.a. “RAM JSC”), ul. Raspletina, 5 str. 1, Moscow 123060, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 7721566412 (Russia); Registration Number 5067746792779 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>28. AO TSIFROVYE PLATFORMY I RESHENIYA UMNOGO GORODA (a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO RUSATOM INFRASTRUKTURNYE RESHENIIA; a.k.a. AKTSIONERNOE OBSHCHESTVO TSIFROVYE PLATFORMY RESHENIIA UMNOGO GORODA), 52 str. 2, nab. Ozerkovskaia, Moscow 115054, Russia; Ul. Bolshaya Ordynka D. 40, STR. 1, Moscow 119017, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Target Type State-Owned Enterprise; Tax ID No. 1197746546282 (Russia); Registration Number 9706002422 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(vii) of E.O. 14024 for being owned or controlled by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, the Government of the Russian Federation.</P>
                <P>29. MMP ELECTRONICS COMP CO LTD, 34 CP Tower 3 Building A, 4th Floor, Phaya Thai Road, Thung Phaya Thai Sub District, Ratchathewi District, Bangkok 10400, Thailand; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Organization Established Date 26 Apr 2022; Registration Number 0105565069580 (Thailand) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>
                    Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.
                    <PRTPAGE P="58800"/>
                </P>
                <P>30. OBSHCHESTVO S OGRANICHENNOI OTVETSTVENNOSTIU MODUL ELEKTRONIKA (a.k.a. OOO MODUL ELEKTRONIKA), D. 44, Floor 5 Pom. 54 Ul. Ryabinovaya, Moscow 121471, Russia; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; Tax ID No. 7734354937 (Russia); Registration Number 1157746479505 (Russia) [RUSSIA-EO14024].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 14024 for operating or having operated in the electronics sector of the Russian Federation economy.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Renee P. Sonderman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary, Bureau of Arms Control and Nonproliferation, Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23017 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-27-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice 12884]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting in Preparation for International Maritime Organization SDC 12</SUBJECT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of State will conduct a public meeting at 1:00 p.m. on Monday, January 12, 2026, both in-person at Coast Guard Headquarters in Washington, DC, and via teleconference through Microsoft Teams. The primary purpose of the meeting is to prepare for the twelfth session of the International Maritime Organization's (IMO) Sub-Committee on Ship Design and Construction (SDC 12) to be held at IMO Headquarters in London, United Kingdom from Monday, January 19, 2026, to Friday, January 23, 2026. Members of the public may participate up to the capacity of the teleconference line, which can handle 500 participants or up to the seating capacity of the room if attending in-person. The meeting location will be the United States Coast Guard Headquarters, and the teleconference line will be provided to those who RSVP. To RSVP, participants should contact the meeting coordinator, LCDR Emily Sysko, by email at 
                        <E T="03">Emily.T.Sysko@uscg.mil</E>
                        . LCDR Emily Sysko will provide access information for in-person and virtual attendance.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Those who plan to participate may contact the meeting coordinator, LCDR Emily Sysko, by email at LCDR Emily 
                        <E T="03">Sysko@uscg.mil,</E>
                         by phone at 571-608-7756, or in writing at ATTN: LCDR Emily Sysko, 2703 Martin Luther King Jr. Ave. SE, Stop 7509, Washington DC 20593-7509, by January 07, 2026. Members of the public needing reasonable accommodation should advise LCDR Emily Sysko no later than January 07, 2025. Requests made after that date will be considered but might not be possible to fulfill.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The agenda items to be considered at SDC 12 include:</P>
                <P>• Adoption of the agenda;</P>
                <P>• Decisions of other IMO bodies;</P>
                <P>• Revision of the Interim explanatory notes for the assessment of passenger ship systems' capabilities after a fire or flooding casualty (MSC.1/Circ.1369) and related circulars (7.42);</P>
                <P>• Amendments to 2011 ESP Code (7.21);</P>
                <P>• Revision of SOLAS chapters II-1 (part C) and V, and related instruments regarding steering and propulsion requirements, to address both traditional and non-traditional propulsion and steering systems (2.9);</P>
                <P>• Development of engine control room alert management (ECRAM) performance standards (1.14);</P>
                <P>• Guidelines for use of fibre-reinforced plastics (FRP) within ship structures (2.6);</P>
                <P>• Experience-building phase for the reduction of underwater radiated noise from shipping (1.16);</P>
                <P>• Development of a safety regulatory framework to support the reduction of GHG emissions from ships using new technologies and alternative fuels (3.8);</P>
                <P>• Unified interpretation of provisions of IMO safety, security, environment, facilitation, liability and compensation-related conventions (7.1);</P>
                <P>• Review and, if necessary, amendment of SOLAS regulations II-2/13.4.1.1 and 13.4.2.1 to clarify the requirements on escape arrangements from the lower part of machinery spaces (7.33);</P>
                <P>• Development of amendments to chapter 6 of the 2009 MODU Code regarding electrical equipment capable of operation after shutdown (1.3);</P>
                <P>• Development of amendments to chapter 15 of the FSS Code on enclosed spaces containing a nitrogen receiver or a buffer tank of nitrogen generator systems (7.31);</P>
                <P>• Revision of the Guidelines for the application of plastic pipes on ships (resolution A.753(18)) (7.32);</P>
                <P>• Biennial status report and provisional agenda for SDC 13;</P>
                <P>• Election of Chair and Vice-Chair for 2027;</P>
                <P>• Any other business;</P>
                <P>• Report to the Maritime Safety Committee.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Please note:</E>
                     The IMO may, on short notice, adjust the SDC 12 agenda to accommodate the constraints associated with the virtual meeting format. Although no changes to the agenda are anticipated, if any are necessary, they will be provided to those who RSVP.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Additional information regarding this and other IMO public meetings may be found at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.dco.uscg.mil/IMO</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 22 U.S.C. 2656 and 5 U.S.C. 552)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Emily C. Miletello,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Coast Guard Liaison Officer, Office of Ocean and Polar Affairs, Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23062 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 12853]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of 2024 Sanctions Actions</SUBJECT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of State is publishing the name of one or more persons that were placed on the Department of Treasury's List of Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons (SDN List) administered by the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) in 2024 based on the Department of State's determination, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, that one or more applicable legal criteria of the Executive Order (E.O.) regarding blocking property of weapons of mass destruction proliferators and their supporters and the E.O. regarding blocking property of certain persons with respect to the conventional arms activities of Iran were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these persons are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        These actions were issued on July 12, 2024, September 10, 2024, and December 18, 2024, respectively. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for applicable date(s) in 2024.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Office of Counterproliferation Initiatives, Bureau of Arms Control and Nonproliferation, Department of State, Washington, DC 20520, tel.: (202) 647-5193; email: 
                        <E T="03">ACN_Sanctions@state.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    The SDN List and additional information concerning sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.treasury.gov/ofac</E>
                    ). The announcements for these actions are available on the Department of State's website (
                    <E T="03">
                        https://2021-2025.state.gov/united-states-imposes-
                        <PRTPAGE P="58801"/>
                        sanctions-targeting-irans-chemical-weapons-research-and-development/; https://2021-2025.state.gov/new-iran-and-russia-sanctions-designations/;
                    </E>
                      
                    <E T="03">https://2021-2025.state.gov/u-s-sanctions-on-two-iran-based-entities-pursuant-to-e-o-13949-and-one-iranian-individual-pursuant-to-e-o-13382/</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On July 12, 2024, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Entities</HD>
                <P>1. HAKIMAN SHARGH RESEARCH COMPANY, No. 0, Crystal Building, Ground Floor, Khomeini Shahr Ring Street, Azadegan Blvd., Central Sector, Khomeini Shahr City, Isfahan Province 8415683111, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions; Organization Established Date 11 May 1999; National ID No. 10260357995 (Iran); Registration Number 2649 (Iran) [NPWMD] [IFSR].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(ii) of Executive Order 13382 of June 28, 2005, “Blocking Property of Certain Persons with Respect to the Conventional Arms Activities of Iran,” (E.O. 13382) for having engaged, or attempted to engage, in activities or transactions that have materially contributed to, or pose a risk of materially contributing to, the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction or their means of delivery (including missiles capable of delivering such weapons), including any efforts to manufacture, acquire, possess, develop, transport, transfer or use such items, by Iran, a foreign country of proliferation concern.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On September 10, 2024, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Entities</HD>
                <P>
                    1. IRAN AIR (a.k.a. HAVAPEYMAYI MELLI IRAN; a.k.a. IRAN AIR PJSC; a.k.a. IRANAIR; a.k.a. IRANAIR CARGO; a.k.a. THE AIRLINE OF THE ISLAMIC REPUBLIC OF IRAN; a.k.a. “HOMA”), Iran Air Building, Mehrabad Airport, Tehran, Iran; Postal Box 13185-775, Tehran, Iran; Central Airlines Department of the Islamic Republic of Iran, Tehran Karaj Special Road, Beginning of Mehrabad International Airport, Tehran, Iran; website 
                    <E T="03">www.iranair.com;</E>
                     alt. website 
                    <E T="03">www.iranair.co.ir;</E>
                     Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions; Secondary sanctions risk: See Section 11 of Executive Order 14024.; National ID No. 10100354259 (Iran); Registration Number 8132 (Iran) [IRAN] [IRAN-CON-ARMS-E.O.] [RUSSIA-EO14024].
                </P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of Executive Order 13949 of September 21, 2020 “Blocking Property of Certain Persons With Respect to the Conventional Arms Activities of Iran,” (E.O. 13949) for engaging in any activity that materially contributes to the supply, sale, or transfer, directly or indirectly, to or from Iran, or for the use in or benefit of Iran, of arms or related materiel, including spare parts.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of Department of State Actions</HD>
                <P>On December 18, 2024, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Individuals</HD>
                <P>1. EFTEKHARI, Sayyed Hosein Majid Musavi (a.k.a. IFTIKHARI, Sayyid Husayn Musawi), Iran; DOB 17 Feb 1965; nationality Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions; Gender Male; National ID No. 0040158721 (Iran) (individual) [NPWMD] [IRGC] [IFSR].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(ii) of E.O. 13382 for having engaged, or attempted to engage, in activities or transactions that have materially contributed to, or pose a risk of materially contributing to, the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction or their means of delivery (including missiles capable of delivering such weapons), including any efforts to manufacture, acquire, possess, develop, transport, transfer or use such items, by Iran, a foreign country of proliferation concern.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Entities</HD>
                <P>1. SAAD SAZEH FARAZ SHARIF (a.k.a. DARIA FANAVAR BORHAN SHARIF; a.k.a. SADID SAZEH PARVAZ SHARIF), Ground Floor, Plate 0, Chogan Street 9, Tehran Karaj Highway, Sahrak Ansar Neighborhood, Tehran, Tehran Province, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions; Organization Established Date 2017; National ID No. 14007965448 (Iran); Registration Number 534295 (Iran) [IRAN-CON-ARMS-E.O.].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 13949 for engaging in any activity that materially contributes to the supply, sale, or transfer, directly or indirectly, to or from Iran, or for the use in or benefit of Iran, of arms or related materiel, including spare parts.</P>
                <P>2. CHEKAD SANAT FARAZ ASIA, Afshar Nou Alley, Fadaiyan Islam St., No 841, 1st floor, District 18, Central Sector, Tehran Station Quarter, Tehran, Tehran Province 1851617167, Iran; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions; Organization Established Date 2013; National ID No. 14009306332 (Iran); Registration Number 561957 (Iran) [IRAN-CON-ARMS-E.O.].</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(i) of E.O. 13949 for engaging in any activity that materially contributes to the supply, sale, or transfer, directly or indirectly, to or from Iran, or for the use in or benefit of Iran, of arms or related materiel, including spare parts.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Renee P. Sonderman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary, Bureau of Arms Control and Nonproliferation, Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23020 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-27-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: FAA-2024-11377; Summary Notice No. 2025-65]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received; Galaxy Unmanned Systems, LLC</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Federal Aviation Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion nor omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before January 6, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58802"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by docket number [FAA-2025-2287] using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                         In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.dot.gov/privacy</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Alexander Kem, Office of Rulemaking, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591, at 202-267-9677.</P>
                    <P>This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.</P>
                    <SIG>
                        <P>Issued in Washington, DC.</P>
                        <NAME>Dan A. Ngo,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Manager, Part 11 Petitions Branch, Office of Rulemaking.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Petition for Exemption</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket No.:</E>
                         FAA-2025-2287.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Petitioner:</E>
                         Galaxy Unmanned Systems, LLC.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Section(s) of 14 CFR Affected:</E>
                         §§ 61.3(a)(1)(i), 61.3(c)(1), 61.23(a)(2), 91.7(a), 91.119(c), 91.121, 91.151(b), 91.403(b), 91.405(a), 91.407(a)(1), 91.409(a)(1), 91.409(a)(2), 91.417(a), and 91.417(b).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Description of Relief Sought:</E>
                         Galaxy Unmanned Systems, LLC. requested an amendment to Exemption No. 23205 that would add a new aircraft, GC80-E4, to conduct operations at night, to operate flight over people, and to operate within 500 feet of stadium structures to provide live broadcast, commercial aerial advertising, and commercial payload carrying.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23106 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed Permanent Closure of Mason County Airport, Point Pleasant, West Virginia</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of request for comment on the proposed permanent closure of Mason County Airport, Point Pleasant, West Virginia.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA proposes to rule and invites public comment on Mason County's request to permanently close Mason County Airport, West Virginia. The permanent closure of Mason County Airport involves the FAA's release of the federally obligated airport property from all federal obligations enabling the disposal of the entirety of the 125.56 acres of airport property. Most of the airport property was acquired with federal financial assistance via Federal Aid-Airport Program Grant 9-46-016-C902 and the remaining acreage was acquired from the General Services Administration. Given the negligible aeronautical use of the airport, the fact that is located in close proximity to other federally obligated airports, and the fact that the sales proceeds of the airport will be provided to a nearby federally obligated airport with superior facilities, it is anticipated that the closure of Mason County Airport will result in a net benefit to civil aviation.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before January 26, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this application may be mailed or delivered to the following address:</P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Rick L. Handley, President, Mason County Commission, 200 Sixth Street Suite 2, Point Pleasant, WV 25550, (703) 487-3980</FP>
                    <P>and at the FAA Beckley Airports Field Office:</P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Matthew Di Giulian, Manager, Beckley Airports Field Office, 176 Airport Circle, Room 101, Beaver, WV 25183, (609) 916-5794</FP>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the Wendell H. Ford Aviation Investment and Reform Act for the 21st Century (AIR 21), Public Law 106-181 (Apr. 5, 2000; 114 Stat. 61), this notice must be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     30 days before the Secretary may waive any condition on federally acquired land on a federally obligated airport. The following is a brief overview of the request.
                </P>
                <P>Mason County has submitted a request seeking FAA approval for the permanent closure of Mason County Airport, Point Pleasant, West Virginia including the FAA's release of the airport from all federal obligations, to allow for the disposal of the entire 125.56 acres of federally obligated airport property. Most of the airport property was acquired via Grant No. 9-46-016-C902, executed in 1969, through which the FAA provided 50% of the cost of the acquisition of 124.28 acres of property. The remaining 1.28 acres was acquired from the General Services Administration (GSA) in 1967.</P>
                <P>Mason County Airport has low numbers of both based aircraft and annual operations, as well as, timeworn and deteriorating facilities. Additionally, the airport is located in fairly close proximity to two other federally obligated airports (Gallia Meigs Airport, Gallipolis, Ohio and Jackson County Airport, Millwood, West Virginia). As a condition of the FAA's release of Mason County from all federal obligations the proceeds of the sale of the airport property, as well as the unamortized portion of a grant received by Mason County for the airport in 2015, will be provided to Jackson County Airport. The owner of Jackson County Airport has agreed to use the proceeds of the sale in a manner approved by the Federal Aviation Administration with the goal of accommodating the former users of Mason County Airport. It is anticipated that the former users of Mason County Airport will be able to take advantage of Jackson County Airport's superior facilities and aeronautical services, compared to Mason County Airport, including Jackson County Airport's full-length parallel taxiway, fuel services, flight instruction, and a newly built terminal. The West Virginia Department of Transportation's Division of Multimodal Transportation Systems has indicated that it supports the proposed release and closure.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Issued in Beckley, West Virgina.</P>
                    <NAME>Matthew DiGiulian,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, Beckley Airports Field Office.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23097 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="58803"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: FAA-2050-2500; Summary Notice No. 2025-67]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received; Pratt &amp; Whitney</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Federal Aviation Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion nor omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before January 6, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2025-2500 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                         In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.dot.gov/privacy</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Nondie Hemphill, Office of Rulemaking, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591, at 202-267-9677.</P>
                    <P>This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.</P>
                    <SIG>
                        <P>Issued in Washington, DC.</P>
                        <NAME>Dan A. Ngo,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Manager, Part 11 Petitions Branch, Office of Rulemaking.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Petition for Exemption</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket No.:</E>
                         FAA-2025-2500.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Petitioner:</E>
                         Pratt &amp; Whitney.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Section(s) of 14 CFR Affected:</E>
                         § 33.94(a)(1).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Description of Relief Sought:</E>
                         The petitioner, Pratt &amp; Whitney, requests relief from the blade containment and rotor unbalance test requirement prescribing the failure location of the most critical fan blade while operating at maximum permissible revolutions per minute (RPM) at the outermost retention groove for the PW4000-112 engine.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23104 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: FAA-2009-0520; Summary Notice No. 2025-66]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received; FlightSafety International, Inc.</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Federal Aviation Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion nor omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before January 6, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2009-0520 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                         In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.dot.gov/privacy</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Alexander Kem, Office of Rulemaking, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591, at 202-267-9677.</P>
                    <P>This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.</P>
                    <SIG>
                        <P>Issued in Washington, DC.</P>
                        <NAME>Dan A. Ngo,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Manager, Part 11 Petitions Branch, Office of Rulemaking.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Petition for Exemption</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket No.:</E>
                         FAA-2009-0520
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Petitioner:</E>
                         FlightSafety International, Inc.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Section(s) of 14 CFR Affected:</E>
                         §§ 91.9(a) and 91.531(a)(1)(2).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Description of Relief Sought:</E>
                         FlightSafety International, Inc. (FSI) seeks to amend Exemption No. 9899H to allow an authorized Record of Training, which shows successful completion of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58804"/>
                        FSI's single pilot training program, in lieu of the pilot logbook endorsement currently required.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23107 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2025-1018]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Hours of Service of Drivers: Hulcher Services, Inc.; Application for Exemption</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of application for exemption; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA requests public comment on Hulcher Services, Inc.'s (Hulcher) application for a limited exemption from the hours-of-service (HOS) requirements for drivers of property-carrying commercial motor vehicles (CMVs). The applicant requests the exemption to enable its employees to respond to railroad emergencies that occur outside of, or extend beyond, their normal work hours.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before January 16, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments identified by Docket Number FMCSA-2025-1018 by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         See the Public Participation and Request for Comments section below for further information.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Dockets Operations, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building, Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier</E>
                        : 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building, Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Each submission must include the Agency name and the docket number (FMCSA-2025-1018) for this notice. Note that DOT posts all comments received without change to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information included in a comment. Please see the Privacy Act heading below.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy Act:</E>
                         In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its exemption process. DOT posts these comments, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         as described in the system of records notice DOT/ALL-14 FDMS (Federal Docket Management System (FDMS)), which can be reviewed at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices.</E>
                         The comments are posted without edit and are searchable by the name of the submitter.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mr. Richard Clemente, Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards, FMCSA; (771) 216-2436; or 
                        <E T="03">richard.clemente@dot.gov.</E>
                         If you have questions on viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Dockets Operations at (202) 366-9826.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation and Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Submitting Comments</HD>
                <P>If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (FMCSA-2025-1018), indicate the specific section of this document to which the comment applies, and provide a reason for your suggestions or recommendations. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    To submit your comment online, go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/FMCSA-2025-1018/document,</E>
                     click on this notice, click “Comment,” and type your comment into the text box on the following screen.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8
                    <FR>1/2</FR>
                     by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing.
                </P>
                <P>FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Comments received after the comment closing date will be filed in the public docket and will be considered to the extent practicable.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Confidential Business Information (CBI)</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to the notice contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to the notice, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission that constitutes CBI as “PROPIN” to indicate it contains proprietary information. FMCSA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the Freedom of Information Act, and they will not be placed in the public docket of the notice. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Brian Dahlin Chief, Regulatory Evaluation Division, Office of Policy, FMCSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001 or via email at 
                    <E T="03">brian.g.dahlin@dot.gov.</E>
                     At this time, you need not send a duplicate hardcopy of your electronic CBI submissions to FMCSA headquarters. Any comments FMCSA receives not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Viewing Comments and Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     insert FMCSA-2025-1018 in the keyword box, select the document tab and choose the document to review. To view comments, click this notice, then click “Browse Comments.” If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket by visiting Docket Operations on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b) to grant exemptions from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations. FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(a)). The Agency must provide the public an opportunity to inspect the information relevant to the application, including the applicant's safety analysis. The Agency must provide an opportunity for public comment on the request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Agency reviews the application, safety analyses, and public comments 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58805"/>
                    submitted and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such exemption, pursuant to the standard set forth in 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1). The Agency must publish its decision in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(b)). If granted, the notice will identify the regulatory provision from which the applicant will be exempt, the effective period, and all terms and conditions of the exemption (49 CFR 381.315(c)(1)). If the exemption is denied, the notice will explain the reason for the denial (49 CFR 381.315(c)(2)). The exemption may be renewed (49 CFR 381.300(b)).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Applicant's Request</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Current Regulatory Requirements</HD>
                <P>Under 49 CFR 395.3(a)(2), drivers of property-carrying CMVs are prohibited from driving after a period of 14 consecutive hours after coming on duty following 10 consecutive hours off duty.</P>
                <P>Under 49 CFR 395.3(b)(1), such drivers are prohibited from operating a CMV for any period after having been on duty 60 hours in any period of 7 consecutive days if the employing motor carrier does not operate CMVs every day of the week.</P>
                <P>Under 49 CFR 395.3(b)(2), such drivers are prohibited from operating a CMV for any period after having been on duty 70 hours in any period of 8 consecutive days if the employing motor carrier does operate CMVs every day of the week.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Applicant's Request</HD>
                <P>Hulcher is a nationwide emergency response provider to the railroad industry, with 27 strategically placed divisions and a workforce trained to rapidly mobilize equipment and personnel to address derailments, natural disasters, and other critical disruptions to rail infrastructure. Hulcher drivers transport heavy recovery equipment such as side-booms, grapple trucks, rollbacks, service trucks, and other CMVs needed to restore normal rail operations following a derailment or related incident.</P>
                <P>Hulcher requests the same exemption that FMCSA granted to R.J Corman and Cranemasters, Inc., et al. (RJ Corman) [85 FR 12818, Mar. 4, 2020]. That exemption was renewed on July 24, 2025 [90 FR 34956]. Both the 2020 decision and the 2025 decision have been included in the docket for this exemption request. Hulcher believes it performs the same essential services to the railroad industry and the public as RJ Corman. The requested exemption would apply to Hulcher's fleet of CMVs and approximately 350 driver employees. Hulcher requests relief from the HOS requirements in 49 CFR part 395 when a driver is dispatched in response to a railroad's request to assist in clearing disabled or derailed trains, debris, or hazards that block railroad rights-of-way. According to Hulcher, unplanned events requiring response frequently occur outside normal business hours, including late night and early morning callouts, and the events are often in remote areas where no Federal or State emergency declaration has been issued. According to the applicant, “without the exemption drivers will not be able to transport equipment due to exceeding the 14-hour driving “window” or 70-hour weekly limits, despite being the only qualified operators available.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Applicant's Equivalent Level of Safety</HD>
                <P>Hulcher believes the exemption would not compromise safety, as the company claims to maintain a documented fatigue management policy, enforce pre-dispatch rest periods, and equip each Division with on-site supervisors to monitor driver alertness. Hulcher states that its drivers never return to a home terminal or operate CMVs post-restoration of rail service without receiving the required off-duty hours under the Federal HOS rules. Hulcher further implements the following measures to mitigate fatigue and risk during emergency responses: (1) all drivers receive a minimum one-hour lead time prior to mobilization; (2) field supervisors conduct verbal readiness checks and ensure vehicle inspections prior to dispatch; and (3) drivers are explicitly authorized to decline driving assignments if fatigued, and backup operators are dispatched when necessary. Hulcher further adds that its drivers record all time spent at incident sites as on-duty (not driving) time, and no driver is permitted to operate a CMV after completing field work until the required 10 or 34 hours of off-duty rest has been satisfied.</P>
                <P>A copy of Hulcher's application for exemption is available for review in the docket for this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b), FMCSA requests public comment from all interested persons on Hulcher's application for an exemption from the HOS regulations in 49 CFR part 395. All comments received before the close of business on the comment closing date will be considered and will be available for examination in the docket at the location listed under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this notice. Comments received after the comment closing date will be filed in the public docket and will be considered to the extent practicable. In addition to late comments, FMCSA will also continue to file, in the public docket, relevant information that becomes available after the comment closing date. Interested persons should continue to examine the public docket for new material.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Larry W. Minor,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator of Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23063 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. NHTSA-2025-0013; Notice 2]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Evenflo Company, Inc., Denial of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Denial of petition.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Evenflo Company, Inc. (Evenflo) has determined that certain Evenflo All4One child restraint systems do not fully comply with Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) No. 213, 
                        <E T="03">Child Restraint Systems</E>
                        . Evenflo filed a noncompliance report dated January 27, 2025, and subsequently petitioned NHTSA (the “Agency”) on February 14, 2025, for a decision that the subject noncompliance is inconsequential as it relates to motor vehicle safety. This document announces the denial of Evenflo's petition.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Corey Barlet, General Engineer, NHTSA, Office of Vehicle Safety Compliance, (202) 366-1119.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">I. Overview:</E>
                     Evenflo determined that certain Evenflo All4One child restraint systems do not fully comply with paragraph S5.1.1(b)(1) of FMVSS No. 213, 
                    <E T="03">Child Restraint Systems</E>
                     (49 CFR 571.213).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Evenflo filed a noncompliance report dated January 27, 2025, pursuant to 49 CFR part 573, 
                    <E T="03">Defect and Noncompliance Responsibility and Reports.</E>
                     Evenflo petitioned NHTSA on February 14, 2025, for an exemption from the notification and remedy requirements of 49 U.S.C. Chapter 301 on the basis that this noncompliance is inconsequential as it relates to motor 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58806"/>
                    vehicle safety, pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 30118(d) and 30120(h) and 49 CFR part 556, 
                    <E T="03">Exemption for Inconsequential Defect or Noncompliance</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    Notice of receipt of Evenflo's petition was published with a 30-day public comment period, on April 14, 2025, in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (90 FR 15610). One comment was received. To view the petition and all publicly available supporting documents log onto the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/</E>
                    . Then follow the online search instructions to locate docket number “NHTSA-2025-0013.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">II. Child Restraint Systems Involved:</E>
                     Evenflo reported that approximately 67,416 Evenflo All4One, manufactured between December 1, 2021, and June 30, 2023, do not meet the requirements of FMVSS No. 213.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">III. Relevant FMVSS Requirements:</E>
                     Paragraph S5.1.1(b)(1) of FMVSS No. 213 includes the requirements relevant to this petition. Paragraph S5.1.1(b)(1) requires that all adjustable child restraint systems must remain in the same position after testing (in accordance with paragraph S6.1 of FMVSS No. 213) to which they were set before testing, unless the child restraint system meets conditions specified in S5.1.1(b)(2).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">IV. Noncompliance:</E>
                     Evenflo explains that some Evenflo All4One child restraint systems undergoing testing have changed position during testing.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">V. Summary of Evenflo's Petition:</E>
                     The following views and arguments presented in this section, “V. Summary of Evenflo's Petition,” are the views and arguments provided by Evenflo. They do not reflect the views of NHTSA. Evenflo submits that, although the subject child restraints changed to a different adjustment position during rear-facing tests, the noncompliance is inconsequential as it relates to motor vehicle safety.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Evenflo begins its submission by citing previously granted petitions for inconsequential noncompliance that it submits are relevant to its own petition. Evenflo first quotes NHTSA's decision on a petition by Gillig, LLC, describing NHTSA's procedures when considering petitions: “(i)n determining inconsequentiality of a noncompliance, NHTSA focuses on the safety risk to individuals who experience the type of event against which the recall would otherwise protect.” (
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     Gillig, LLC, Grant of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance, 90 FR 735, January 6, 2025).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Evenflo then cites two granted petitions for inconsequential noncompliance purportedly to show that, for FMVSS relating to occupant protection, NHTSA grants petitions when the manufacturer can show that the noncompliance does not subject the occupant to a greater risk of injury than the risk that would exist if the component or vehicle were compliant (
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     General Motors, Grant of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance, 78 FR 35355, June 12, 2013; 
                    <E T="03">see also</E>
                     Osram Sylvania, Grant of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance, 78 FR 46000, July 30, 2013).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Evenflo states that the precedent of these decisions supports Evenflo's petition for the subject noncompliance. Evenflo states that the subject noncompliant child restraint systems (CRSs) still meet the intended purpose of paragraph S5.1.1(b)(1) of FMVSS No. 213 as they do not expose occupants within the CRS to a greater risk of injury in a crash than occupants in a compliant CRS. Evenflo submits a 1996 letter from the NHTSA Chief Council to C. Scott Talbot, Esq. of Howrey &amp; Simon that stated that the purpose of paragraph S.5.1.1(b)(1) is to (1) “prevent a child's fingers or limbs from being caught in shifting parts of the restraint” and (2) prevent the occupant from sliding from under the lap belt during a crash (also known as “submarining”).
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.nhtsa.gov/interpretations/12118shdadj</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Evenflo states that there is no risk of children's fingers or limbs being crushed by the moving parts because all shifting parts of the child restraint systems are located outside and below the seat structure and are inaccessible to the child occupant. Evenflo states that the child has no risk of submarining because the change in recline adjustment only occurred during a rear facing test, where submarining is impossible. Furthermore, Evenflo states that the seats come equipped with a 5-point harness, which functioned as intended during testing, preventing movement of the child relative to the seating surface.</P>
                <P>Additionally, Evenflo recognizes that NHTSA does not consider the absence of complaints or injuries to be relevant when considering the inconsequentiality of a noncompliance. However, Evenflo notes that it has not found any reports or complaints of a child's fingers or limbs being caught in the shifting parts of the subject child restraint systems, nor have there been any reports of submarining caused by the child restraint system's noncompliance with paragraph S5.1.1(b)(1) of FMVSS No. 213.</P>
                <P>Evenflo concludes by stating its belief that the subject noncompliance is inconsequential as it relates to motor vehicle safety and its petition to be exempted from providing notification of the noncompliance, as required by 49 U.S.C. 30118, and a remedy for the noncompliance, as required by 49 U.S.C. 30120, should be granted.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">VI. Public Comment:</E>
                     NHTSA received one comment concerning Evenflo's petition, from Advocates for Highway &amp; Auto Safety (AHAS). AHAS stated in their comment that the noncompliance of the subject child restraint system (CRS) does not appear to be equivalent to the other noncompliance issues cited in Evenflo's petition. AHAS also stated that Evenflo's petition fails to address that the changing recline of the subject CRS could lead to additional and injurious loading of the occupant from the belts and/or harness leading to injury. AHAS said that NHTSA should collect certain data from Evenflo and provide it to the public for review before determining whether the subject noncompliance is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety. Specifically, AHAS believes that NHTSA should collect the following information:
                </P>
                <P>1. Visual evidence (videos and photos) of the testing and noncompliance.</P>
                <P>2. Instrumentation data, including any readings from anthropomorphic test devices (ATDs).</P>
                <P>3. Evaluation of the injury risk to vulnerable occupants due to the modified orientation and movement during the testing.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">VII. NHTSA's Analysis:</E>
                     The burden of establishing the inconsequentiality of a failure to comply with a performance requirement in an FMVSS is substantial and difficult to meet. Accordingly, the Agency has not found many such noncompliances inconsequential.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Cf. Gen. Motors Corporation; Ruling on Petition for Determination of Inconsequential Noncompliance,</E>
                         69 FR 19897, 19899 (Apr. 14, 2004) (citing prior cases where noncompliance was expected to be imperceptible, or nearly so, to vehicle occupants or approaching drivers).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In determining inconsequentiality of a noncompliance, NHTSA focuses on the safety risk to individuals who experience the type of event against which a recall would otherwise protect.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Petitioners are reminded that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="58807"/>
                    they have the burden of persuading NHTSA that the noncompliance is inconsequential to safety. Granting a petition does not permit the manufacturer to continue to produce products that have the noncompliance.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Gen. Motors, LLC; Grant of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance,</E>
                         78 FR 35355 (June 12, 2013) (finding noncompliance had no effect on occupant safety because it had no effect on the proper operation of the occupant classification system and the correct deployment of an air bag); 
                        <E T="03">Osram Sylvania Prods. Inc.; Grant of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance,</E>
                         78 FR 46000 (July 30, 2013) (finding occupant using noncompliant light source would not be exposed to significantly greater risk 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        than occupant using similar compliant light source).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>NHTSA has evaluated the merits of Evenflo's petition and determined Evenflo has not met its burden of persuasion that the subject noncompliance is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety.</P>
                <P>Paragraph S5.1.1(b)(1) of FMVSS No. 213 requires that all adjustable child restraint systems must remain in the same position after testing (in accordance with paragraph S6.1 of FMVSS No. 213) to which they were set before testing, unless the child restraint system meets conditions specified in S5.1.1(b)(2). Evenflo's petition states the subject child restraints changed to a different adjustment position during rear-facing tests. Throughout the petition, Evenflo argues that the noncompliance is inconsequential to safety because the component that is changing position does not pose a risk of injury to the child occupant's fingers or limbs.</P>
                <P>
                    Evenflo relies on a 1996 NHTSA interpretation whereby NHTSA found a change in position of booster CRS shoulder belt adjustment guide during a crash test was permitted under S5.1.1(b)(1).
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This interpretation is not applicable to Evenflo's noncompliance. The 1996 interpretation concerns a belt-positioning seat that had adjustable devices for positioning the vehicle belt onto the child's lap and shoulder. The interpretation states that movement of the belt adjuster device during a crash is permitted because, in part, it is not a structural element, such as the seating surface. In contrast, the interpretation specifically identifies movement of structural elements, such as repositioning of the reclining feature, as the type of movement the standard was aimed at preventing. This is the precise movement at issue in the current petition: a support structure failure that causes the reclining feature to change position during the test.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.nhtsa.gov/interpretations/12118shdadj</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         It is also noteworthy that the 1996 interpretation cited the 1979 final rule highlighted that the intent of paragraph S5.1.1(b)(1) is to prevent child occupants' fingers or limbs from being caught between the shifting parts of the child restraint. This safety intent related to change of position remains relevant today; however, it is worth highlighting that preambles and interpretations do not necessarily list all safety purposes of a given requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This change in position of the subject child restraint poses a risk to other nearby occupants whose fingers may be pinched, even if it does not pose a risk to pinching fingers of the occupant of the child restraint itself. NHTSA has closely examined the CRS in question and has concluded that vehicle occupants seated alongside the CRS are at a risk of having their limbs pinched in the opening or gap located above the recline indicator on the bottom of the CRS when the CRS changes position.</P>
                <P>
                    NHTSA observed that the All4One changed recline position in NHTSA compliance testing.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Evenflo's customer complaints and NHTSA's Vehicle Owner's Questionnaires (VOQs) demonstrate that the All4One has changed recline position during routine use when parents were securing their children into the child restraint and driving under normal conditions. NHTSA has sixteen (16) consumer complaints (VOQs) specifically relating to the change in recline position, as of August 20, 2025. Evenflo submits in its petition that it has received no reports of injury related to catching of the CRS child occupant's fingers or limbs in the shifting parts. However, Evenflo reported four-hundred and one (401) consumer complaints which they characterized as “recline slips position,” with an additional twenty-five (25) complaints related to the All4One's recline mechanism. Two of the consumer complaints produced by Evenflo concern finger entrapment in the All4One's recline mechanism, demonstrating Evenflo knew of injuries associated with the seat changing position. These consumer complaints indicate that the Evenflo All4One is subject to change position simply when placing the child in the CRS as well as under normal driving conditions. Therefore, the noncompliance not only creates a safety concern during a crash, but the noncompliance also poses safety issues during other common use scenarios.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         See Test Report 213-2460906-TEST (
                        <E T="03">https://static.nhtsa.gov/odi/ctr/2024/213-2460906-TEST.pdf</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In addition, the change in position presents safety concerns related to the positioning of the child occupant's head and neck in the CRS. As the printed instructions provided with the CRS state: “Failure to properly recline the child restraint could increase the child's risk of serious injury or death.” The All4One user manual instructs the user to recline the seat in a position that ensures it is in the “blue” zone on the CRS's level indicator. Consumer complaints indicate that the change of recline position during routine use causes the CRS's level indicator to move from the safe “blue” zone into a “red” zone. When the CRS is in a reclined position that is outside of the proper recline zone for the weight of the child, per the manufacturer's instructions, the CRS is at an increased risk of exceeding the 70-degree back angle requirement, set by FMVSS No. 213.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The risks associated with exceeding the 70-degree back angle limit include increased crash forces to the child's head and neck and the child slipping out of the restraint's internal harness.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         44 FR 72131, December 13, 1979.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Evenflo has not met its burden of persuasion and for the reasons described herein NHTSA does not find the subject noncompliance is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety. In reaching this decision, NHTSA considered the comment received from AHAS and will consider whether providing additional information as part of the petition process would be beneficial for future petitions. NHTSA also examined information Evenflo submitted in its response to our December 18, 2024, Information Request related to this noncompliance exhibited in our compliance testing.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">VIII. NHTSA's Decision:</E>
                     In consideration of the foregoing, NHTSA has decided that Evenflo has not met its burden of persuasion that the subject FMVSS No. 213 noncompliance is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety. Accordingly, Evenflo's petition is hereby denied and Evenflo is consequently obligated to provide notification of and a free remedy for that noncompliance under 49 U.S.C. 30118 and 30120.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 49 U.S.C. 30118, 30120; delegations of authority at 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.8)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Eileen Sullivan,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator for Enforcement.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23086 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-59-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of Foreign Assets Control</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of OFAC Sanctions Actions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The U.S. Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of one or more persons whose property and interests in property have been 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58808"/>
                        unblocked and who have been removed from the SDN List.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         for relevant dates.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        OFAC: Associate Director for Global Targeting, 202-622-2420; Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance, 202-622-2490 or 
                        <E T="03">https://ofac.treasury.gov/contact-ofac.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website: 
                    <E T="03">https://ofac.treasury.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of OFAC Actions</HD>
                <P>On November 20, 2025, OFAC determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are unblocked and those persons have been removed from the SDN List.</P>
                <P>1. JARRAYA, Mounir Ben Habib (a.k.a. JARRAYA, Mounir Ben Habib Ben Al-Taher; a.k.a. “YARRAYA”), Via Mirasole n.11, Bologna, Italy; Via Ariosto n.8, Casalecchio di Reno, Bologna, Italy; DOB 25 Oct 1963; POB Sfax, Tunisia; nationality Tunisia; Secondary sanctions risk: section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224, as amended by Executive Order 13886; Passport L 065947 issued 28 Oct 1995 expires 27 Oct 2000 (individual) [SDGT].</P>
                <P>2. RYABIKOVA, Tatiana (a.k.a. SURDON, Tatiana Ryabikova), France; DOB 24 Jan 1970; nationality France; Gender Female; Secondary sanctions risk: section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224, as amended by Executive Order 13886; Passport 04KH30561 (France) (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: ARTEMOV, Viktor Sergiyovich).</P>
                <P>3. SANTIC, Vladimir; DOB 01 Apr 1958; POB Donja Veceriska, Bosnia-Herzegovina; ICTY indictee (individual) [BALKANS].</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 31 CFR chapter V.)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Bradley T. Smith,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Foreign Assets Control.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23129 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-AL-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request on Revenue Procedure 2026-6 and Form 15714</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Information Collection; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the IRS is inviting comments on the information collection request outlined in this notice.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments should be received on or before February 17, 2026 to be assured of consideration.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Direct all written comments to Andres Garcia, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224, or by email to 
                        <E T="03">pra.comments@irs.gov.</E>
                         Include “OMB Control No. 1545-2335” in the subject line of the message.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        View the latest drafts of the tax forms related to the information collection listed in this notice at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.irs.gov/draft-tax-forms.</E>
                         Requests for additional information or copies of this collection should be directed to Jason Schoonmaker, (801) 620-6008.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The IRS, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the IRS assess the impact and minimize the burden of its information collection requirements. Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will become a matter of public record, and viewable on relevant websites. For this reason, please do not include in your comments information of a confidential nature, such as sensitive personal information. Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Revenue Procedure 2026-6 and Form 15714, Advance Election to Participate Under Section 25F.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1545-2335.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     15714.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Regulation Project Number:</E>
                     Revenue Procedure 2026-6.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Section 25F of the Internal Revenue Code (IRC) allows for State to voluntarily elect to participate in advance of providing to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) a list of the scholarship granting organizations (SGOs) that meet the requirements of IRC section 25F(c)(5) and are located in the State. Form 15714 provides an authorized State representative an easy method to elect participation under IRC section 25F. Revenue Procedure 2026-6 provides guidance regarding a procedure for a State to voluntarily elect to participate under IRC section 25F.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Current Actions:</E>
                     There is no change to the previously approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     New collection of information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     State Governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     51.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     43 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     37.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jason M. Schoonmaker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Tax Analyst.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23138 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
    </NOTICES>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>240</NO>
    <DATE>Wednesday, December 17, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="58809"/>
            <PARTNO>Part II</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of Commerce</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY> National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>50 CFR Part 218</CFR>
            <TITLE>Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Military Readiness Activities in the Hawaii-California Training and Testing Study Area; Final Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <RULES>
            <RULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58810"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>50 CFR Part 218</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 251211-0182]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 0648-BN44</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Military Readiness Activities in the Hawaii-California Training and Testing Study Area</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Final rule; notification of issuance of Letters of Authorization.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>NMFS, upon request from the U.S. Department of the Navy (including the U.S. Navy and the U.S. Marine Corps (Navy)) and on behalf of the U.S. Coast Guard (Coast Guard) and U.S. Army (Army; hereafter, Navy, Coast Guard, and Army are collectively referred to as Action Proponents), issues these regulations pursuant to the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) to govern the taking of marine mammals incidental to training and testing activities and modernization and sustainment of ranges conducted in the Hawaii-California Training and Testing (HCTT) Study Area over the course of 7 years from December 2025 through December 2032. These regulations allow for the issuance of letters of authorization (LOAs) for the incidental take of marine mammals during specified activities and timeframes, prescribe the permissible methods of taking and other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on marine mammal species and their habitat, and establish requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking. The Action Proponents' activities are considered military readiness activities pursuant to the MMPA, as amended by the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2004 (2004 NDAA) and the NDAA for Fiscal Year 2019 (2019 NDAA).</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>Effective from December 21, 2025, through December 20, 2032.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>
                            A copy of the Action Proponents' incidental take authorization (ITA) application and supporting documents, as well as a list of the references cited in this document, may be obtained online at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/incidental-take-authorizations-military-readiness-activities.</E>
                             In case of problems accessing these documents, please call the contact listed below (see 
                            <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>Leah Davis, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401.</P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Purpose and Need for Regulatory Action</HD>
                    <P>
                        These regulations, issued under the authority of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ), allow for the authorization of take of marine mammals incidental to the Action Proponents' training and testing activities and modernization and sustainment of ranges (that qualify as military readiness activities) involving the use of active sonar and other transducers, air guns, and explosives (also referred to as “in-water detonations”); pile driving and vibratory extraction; land-based missile and target launches; and vessel movement in the HCTT Study Area. The HCTT Study Area includes areas in the north-central Pacific Ocean, from California west to Hawaii and the International Date Line, and including the Hawaii Range Complex (HRC) and Temporary Operating Area (TOA), Southern California (SOCAL) Range Complex, Point Mugu Sea Range (PMSR), Silver Strand Training Complex (SSTC), areas along the Southern California coastline from approximately Dana Point to Port Hueneme, and the Northern California (NOCAL) Range Complex. Also included in the HCTT Study Area are Navy pierside locations in Hawaii and Southern California, Pearl Harbor, San Diego Bay, and the transit corridor on the high seas where training and testing may occur (see figure 1 of the proposed rulemaking and figure 1.1-1 of the application). Please see the Legal Authority for the Proposed Action section for relevant definitions.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Legal Authority for the Final Action</HD>
                    <P>
                        The MMPA prohibits the “take” of marine mammals, with certain exceptions. Section 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) directs the Secretary of Commerce (as delegated to NMFS) to allow, upon request, the incidental, but not intentional, taking of small numbers of marine mammals by U.S. citizens who engage in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographical region if certain findings are made and either regulations are proposed or, if the taking is limited to harassment, a notice of a proposed authorization is provided to the public for review and the opportunity to submit comment.
                    </P>
                    <P>Authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s) and will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for taking for subsistence uses (where relevant). Further, NMFS must prescribe the permissible methods of taking; other “means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact” on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of the species or stocks for taking for certain subsistence uses (collectively referred to as “mitigation”); and requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of the takings. The MMPA defines “take” to mean to harass, hunt, capture, or kill, or attempt to harass, hunt, capture, or kill any marine mammal. The Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section discusses the definition of “negligible impact.”</P>
                    <P>The 2004 NDAA (Pub. L. 108-136) amended section 101(a)(5) of the MMPA to remove the “small numbers” and “specified geographical region” provisions and amended the definition of “harassment” as applied to a “military readiness activity” to read as follows (section 3(18)(B) of the MMPA): (1) any act that injures or has the significant potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A Harassment); or (2) any act that disturbs or is likely to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of natural behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, surfacing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering, to a point where such behavioral patterns are abandoned or significantly altered (Level B Harassment). The 2004 NDAA also amended section 101(a)(5)(A)(iii) of the MMPA establishing that “[f]or military readiness activity . . . , a determination of `least practicable adverse impact' . . . shall include consideration of personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity.” On August 13, 2018, the 2019 NDAA (Pub. L. 115-232) amended the section 101(a)(5)(A)(ii) of the MMPA to allow incidental take regulations (ITRs) for military readiness activities to be issued for up to 7 years.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Major Provisions Within the Final Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        The major provisions of this rule are:
                        <PRTPAGE P="58811"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>• Take of marine mammals by Level A harassment and/or Level B harassment;</P>
                    <P>• Take of marine mammals by mortality or serious injury (M/SI);</P>
                    <P>• Use of defined powerdown and shutdown zones (based on activity);</P>
                    <P>• Measures to reduce the likelihood of vessel strikes;</P>
                    <P>
                        • Activity limitations in certain areas and times that are biologically important (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         for foraging, migration, reproduction) for marine mammals;
                    </P>
                    <P>• Implementation of a Notification and Reporting Plan (for dead, live stranded, or marine mammals struck by any vessel engaged in military readiness activities); and</P>
                    <P>• Implementation of a robust monitoring plan to improve our understanding of the environmental effects resulting from the Action Proponents' training and testing activities and modernization and sustainment of ranges.</P>
                    <P>This rule includes an adaptive management component that allows for timely modification of mitigation, monitoring, and/or reporting measures based on new information, when appropriate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Request</HD>
                    <P>
                        On September 16, 2024, NMFS received an application from the Action Proponents requesting authorization to take marine mammals, by Level A and B harassment, incidental to training, testing, and modernization and sustainment of ranges (characterized as military readiness activities) including the use of sonar and other transducers, explosives, air guns, impact and vibratory pile driving and extraction, and land-based missile and target launches conducted within the HCTT Study Area. The Action Proponents also requested authorization to take, by serious injury or mortality, a limited number of marine mammal species incidental to the use of explosives and vessel movement during military readiness activities conducted within the HCTT Study Area. The Action Proponents requested multiple 7-year LOAs for Navy training activities, Coast Guard training activities, Army training activities, and Navy testing activities. In response to our comments and following an information exchange, the Action Proponents submitted a revised application, deemed adequate and complete on December 13, 2024. Also on that same date (December 13, 2024), NMFS published a notice of receipt of the application (NOR) in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (89 FR 100982), requesting comments and information related to the Action Proponents' specified activities. During the 30-day public comment period, NMFS received one public comment from the Center for Biological Diversity. On July 16, 2025, NMFS published a proposed rule (90 FR 32118) and requested comments and information related to the Action Proponents' request for 30 days. All relevant comments received during the NOR and the proposed rulemaking comment periods were considered in this final rule. Comments received on the proposed rule are addressed in this final rule in the Comments and Responses section.
                    </P>
                    <P>NMFS previously promulgated ITRs pursuant to the MMPA relating to similar military readiness activities in areas located within the HCTT Study Area. NMFS published the first rule effective from January 5, 2009 through January 5, 2014, (74 FR 1456, January 12, 2009) for incidental take relating to military readiness activities in the HRC and January 14, 2009 through January 14, 2014 (74 FR 3882) for SOCAL. The second rule, effective from December 24, 2013 through December 24, 2018 (78 FR 78106, December 24, 2013), combined the Hawaii and Southern California range complexes, as well as the SSTC, pierside locations in San Diego Bay and Pearl Harbor, and the transit corridor between SOCAL and Hawaii, and throughout San Diego Bay. The third rule was effective from December 21, 2018 through December 20, 2023 (83 FR 66846, December 27, 2018), which was subsequently amended, extending the effective date from December 20, 2023 until December 20, 2025 (85 FR 41780, July 10, 2020) pursuant to the 2019 NDAA and NMFS later amended that rule to increase the take of large whales by vessel strike and modify the mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures to reduce the occurrence of vessel strikes involving large whales (90 FR 4944, January 16, 2025). For this rulemaking, the Action Proponents plan to conduct substantially similar training and testing activities within the HCTT Study Area that were conducted under previous rules (noting that the Study Area has been expanded, as described in the Geographic Region section of the proposed rulemaking).</P>
                    <P>The Action Proponents' application reflects the most up-to-date compilation of training and testing activities, and modernization and sustainment of ranges deemed necessary to accomplish military readiness requirements. The types and numbers of activities included in this rule account for interannual variability in training and testing to meet evolving or emergent military readiness requirements. As explained herein, these regulations also consolidate several actions conducted by the Navy that were previously authorized by NMFS and include some new military readiness activities carried out by the Action Proponents. In particular, these regulations cover incidental take during military readiness activities in the HCTT Study Area that will occur for a 7-year period following the expiration of the pre-existing MMPA authorization which expires on December 20, 2025 (85 FR 41780, as amended by 90 FR 4944). In addition, this rule includes PMSR activities for which incidental take was previously authorized under separate authorizations and will supersede that recent PMSR regulations (87 FR 40888, July 8, 2022). This rule also includes areas along the Southern California coastline from approximately Dana Point to Port Hueneme and supersedes the incidental harassment authorization (IHA) allowing incidental take of marine mammals during pile driving training activities at Port Hueneme (90 FR 20283, May 13, 2025). In this rule, we have undertaken a comprehensive assessment of the risks/impacts of all military training and testing activities on marine mammals likely to be present within the entire range of the Study Area.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Specified Activity</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Action Proponents requested authorization to take marine mammals incidental to conducting military readiness activities. The Action Proponents have determined that acoustic and explosives stressors are likely to result in take of marine mammals in the form of Level A and B harassment, and that a limited number of takes by serious injury or mortality may result from vessel movement and use of explosives (including ship shock trials). Detailed descriptions of these activities are provided in chapter 2 and appendix A of the 2025 HCTT Environmental Impact Statement/Overseas Environmental Impact Statement (2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS) (
                        <E T="03">https://www.nepa.navy.mil/hctteis/</E>
                        ) and in the Action Proponents' application (
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/incidental-take-authorizations-military-readiness-activities</E>
                        ). Of note, the U.S. Air Force (USAF) is a joint lead agency for the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS; USAF activities consist of air combat maneuvers and air-to-air gunnery (a gunnery exercise in which fixed-wing aircraft fire medium caliber guns at air targets). The Action Proponents determined that USAF activities would not result in the taking 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58812"/>
                        of marine mammals, and therefore these activities are not included in the Action Proponents' application. NMFS concurs that these activities are not anticipated to result in incidental take of marine mammals. As such, no authorization for taking marine mammals incidental to USAF activities is required and no LOA will be issued by NMFS for such USAF activities.
                    </P>
                    <P>A detailed description of the specified activities was provided in our proposed rulemaking (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025). NMFS hereby refers to the information and analysis provided in the proposed rule which continue to apply to this final rule. Since that time, no changes have been made to the planned activities, with the exception of a reduction in the number of launch events at PMSR as described in the Changes from the Proposed Rule to the Final Rule section. Therefore, a detailed description is not provided here. Please refer to the proposed rulemaking for the complete description of the specified activity.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Foreign Navies</HD>
                    <P>In furtherance of national security objectives, foreign militaries may participate in multinational training and testing events in the Study Area. Foreign military activities that are planned by and under the substantial control and responsibility of the Action Proponents are included in the specified activity. These participants could be in various training or testing events described in appendix A of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS, and their effects are analyzed in this final rule. However, when foreign military vessels and aircraft operate independently within the Study Area as sovereign vessels outside the planning, control, and responsibility of the Action Proponents, those activities are not considered part of the specified activity. There are many reasons why foreign military vessels may traverse U.S. waters or come into a U.S. port, or foreign aircraft may enter U.S. airspace, not all of which are at the request of any of the Action Proponents. Foreign military vessels and aircraft operate pursuant to their own national authorities and have independent rights under customary international law, embodied in the principle of sovereign immunity, to engage in various activities on the world's oceans and in associated airspace.</P>
                    <P>
                        The most significant joint training event is the Rim of the Pacific (RIMPAC), a multi-national training exercise held biennially primarily in the HRC. The participation level of foreign military vessels in U.S. Navy-led training or testing events within the HRC and within SOCAL differs greatly between RIMPAC and non-RIMPAC years. For example, in 2019 (a non-RIMPAC year), there were 0.1 foreign navy surface vessel at-sea days (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         1 day = 24 hours) within HRC and 20 foreign navy at-sea days within SOCAL (U.S. Department of the Navy, 2021c). Out of 56 U.S.-led training events in 2019, 4 involved foreign navy vessels, with an average time per event of 8.7 hours. During RIMPAC 2022, foreign vessels operated and/or transited through the HRC for 576 hours (24 days). In 2023 (another non-RIMPAC year), there was no foreign vessel participation within SOCAL. Even in a RIMPAC year, the days at sea for foreign militaries engaged in a Navy-led training or testing activity accounts for a small, but variable, percentage compared to the U.S. Navy activities. For instance, the 2020 foreign military participation (a RIMPAC-year) was 1.5 percent of the U.S. Navy's average days at sea (32 days out of an estimated 2,056 days at sea). During RIMPAC 2024, 25 foreign surface vessels participated for a combined 5,000 hours in U.S.-led training events. Therefore, foreign surface vessel activity is estimated to conservatively account for up to 10 percent of the U.S. Navy's annual at sea time in HCTT (205 days out of an estimated 2,056 days at sea). In RIMPAC 2024, 21 U.S. Navy maritime patrol aircraft participated, as did 12 foreign maritime patrol aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>When foreign militaries are participating in a U.S. Navy-led exercise or event, foreign military use of sonar and explosives, when combined with the Action Proponents' use of sonar and explosives, would not result in exceedance of the analyzed levels (within each Navy Acoustic Effects Model (NAEMO) modeled sonar and explosive bin) used for estimating predicted impacts, which formed the basis of our acoustic impacts effects analysis that was used to estimate take in this final rule. Please see the Mitigation Measures section and Reporting section of this final rule for information about mitigation and reporting related to foreign navy activities in the HCTT Study Area.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments and Responses</HD>
                    <P>
                        We published the proposed rule in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on July 16, 2025 (90 FR 32118) with a 30-day comment period. In that proposed rule, we requested public input on our analyses, our preliminary findings, and the proposed regulations, and requested that interested persons submit relevant information and comments. During the 30-day comment period, we received six comments. Of this total, one submission was from the Marine Mammal Commission (Commission), and the remaining comments were from non-governmental organizations (NGO) and private citizens. The majority of the comments either opposed or recommended revisions to the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>NMFS has reviewed and considered all relevant public comments received on the proposed rule and issuance of the LOAs. All substantive, relevant comments and our responses are described below. We organize our comment responses by major categories.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Impact Analysis and Thresholds</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 1 (ref 20, 21):</E>
                         The Commission stated that a 5-minute accumulation time for an entire day of pile driving is insufficient, particularly because of the Commission's assertion that the Navy does not implement, and NMFS has not proposed to require, soft-start procedures during pile-driving training activities. The Commission also noted differences in pile driving between the proposed rule and another recent military readiness activity involving pile driving (90 FR 20283, May 13, 2025). The Commission recommended that NMFS revise: (1) the range to effects for pile driving for temporary threshold shift (TTS) and auditory injury (AUD INJ) based on the number of piles of each pile type and installation method that would be installed on a given day, the number of minutes or strikes needed to install each pile to depth, and the correct source levels, including for vibratory installation of 24-inch (in; 0.61 meters (m)) sheet piles; (2) the range to effects for pile driving for behavioral response for vibratory installation of 24-in (0.61 m) sheet piles based on a source level of 159 decibel referenced to 1 microPascal (dB re 1 μPa) at 11 m; and (3) the numbers of takes accordingly for the final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         NMFS disagrees with the Commission's assertion that the source levels used for vibratory installation of 24-inch (0.61 m) sheet piles are incorrect. As indicated in the proposed rule and technical report “Quantifying Acoustic Impacts on Marine Mammals and Sea Turtles: Methods and Analytical Approach for Phase IV Training and Testing” (U.S. Department of the Navy, 2024a), hereafter referred to as the Acoustic Impacts Technical Report, a source level of 159 dB root-mean-square (RMS) for vibratory driving of 24-inch (0.61 m) steel sheet piles measured at 10 m (32.8 ft) (NAVFAC, 2020) is a reasonable representation of likely sound levels.
                        <PRTPAGE P="58813"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Navy assumed and NMFS concurred that most animals in the area of pile driving activities would avoid higher sound levels that could cause injury over periods of time shorter than 5 minutes. Furthermore, criteria for AUD INJ and TTS are conservative in that they do not account for recovery of hearing effects during breaks in sound exposure (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         silent periods as the hammer is repositioned, when pinnipeds lift their heads out of the water or haul out).
                    </P>
                    <P>The Navy considers soft-start procedures for impact pile driving to be part of its standard operating procedures. As such, the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS, 2024 HCTT Draft EIS/OEIS, application, and the HCTT proposed rule (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025) do not list soft start as a mitigation measure. The Navy states that its standard operating procedures are essential to safety and mission success and are implemented regardless of their secondary benefits, whereas its mitigation measures are designed entirely for the purpose of avoiding or reducing impacts to marine mammals. As such, the Action Proponents did not include a description of the soft-start procedure in the mitigation section of the application, and NMFS did not propose to include soft start as a mitigation measure in the proposed rule. However, NMFS agrees with the Commission that it is appropriate to require soft-start procedures as a mitigation measure, and this final rule clarifies that the Navy must implement soft start techniques for impact pile driving.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 2 (ref 12, 79):</E>
                         The Commission highlighted multiple points regarding the behavioral response functions (BRF) following its review of the technical report “Criteria and Thresholds for U.S. Navy Acoustic and Explosive Effects Analysis (Phase 4)” (U.S. Department of the Navy, 2025a). These points generally relate to the upper bound of the BRFs, Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         data, odontocete BRFs, sensitive species BRFs, harbor porpoise data, pinniped BRFs, response severity denotation, and inconsistencies in some tables and figures. Please see the Commission's letter for a detailed discussion of its recommendation.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Commission recommended that NMFS require the Navy to revise Department of the Navy (2025a) to clarify and address these points, as that document underpins the current and future Phase IV rulemakings. The Commission also stated that to increase efficiency for all of the agencies involved and to ensure accurate information is being provided for public comment, the Commission would welcome the opportunity to informally review future versions of the Navy's criteria and threshold documents. The Commission further recommended that NMFS work with the Navy to use the dose-response functions that were developed from all of the raw data rather than those that were regenerated for only moderate and severe responses and to refrain from extrapolating beyond the bounds of the underlying data when revising the BRFs.</P>
                    <P>
                        In a related comment, a commenter stated that NMFS has not incorporated recent behavioral response data on common dolphins (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024), and other important studies highlighted by the Commission, into its biphasic risk functions. The commenter references a fuller description of its concern in a comment on the 2024 Hawaii-California Training and Testing (HCTT) Draft EIS/OEIS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Regarding the upper bound of the BRFs, the Navy adjusted the upper bound of the BRFs in Phase IV to more accurately reflect observed behavioral data, particularly at higher received levels. For example, sonar received levels between 170 and 182 dB re 1 µPa for humpback whales during the 3S2 study (the second phase of the Sea Mammals, Sonar, Safety (3S) project) and between 175 and 186 dB re 1 µPa for sperm whales during the 3S3 study (the third phase of the 3S project) did not elicit observable responses. See section 3.1.6.1.2 of the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report for discussion of the 3S and 3S2 study, and section and 3.1.6.1.3 for discussion of the 3S3 study. Please see table E-1 in the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report for details of all individual responses documented during studies in conjunction with received levels of sonar and sonar like sources.
                    </P>
                    <P>The descriptions of responses in appendix E (Behavioral Responses to Sonar and Sonar-Like Sources: All Individuals Included) of the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report were updated to include additional information on the observed responses.</P>
                    <P>Extending the upper bound to 200 dB re 1 µPa allows the BRFs to account for this lack of response at higher received levels. This adjustment does not arbitrarily shift the entire curve to the right, as the Commission suggests. For groups like pinnipeds, where responses are consistently observed at lower received levels, the BRF approaches 100 percent response probability at 185 dB re 1 µPa. Therefore, the upper bound adjustment primarily impacts the odontocete and mysticete BRFs, reflecting the observed data at higher exposures. It is also important to note that the lower bound of the BRFs were extended to 90 dB re 1 µPa in Phase IV (compared to the 100 dB re 1 µPa lower limit used in Phase III), further demonstrating that the adjustments were not solely focused on increasing the upper bound.</P>
                    <P>The Commission's observation of a flat slope between 185 and 200 dB re 1 µPa for the Phase III BRFs shown in figure 42 (U.S. Department of the Navy, 2024a) was a result of anchoring the Phase III BRFs at 185 dB re 1 µPa and then extending them to 200 dB re 1 µPa for plotting purposes.</P>
                    <P>Finally, regarding the point that the upper level of the mysticete BRF exceeds the TTS onset, it is important to emphasize that auditory and behavioral criteria are not directly linked. The Navy recognizes the evolving nature of acoustic science and will continue to refine its effects criteria as new data and understanding become available.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding data from Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024), the Navy develops its BRFs using the best available scientific data. While data from the Atlantic behavioral response study (BRS) cited by the Commission were collected during the timeframe referenced, these data are not available for use in the development of the BRFs for Phase IV. These functions are always developed in close consultation with scientists conducting BRS/controlled exposure experiment (CEE) studies, but when the data are not yet published, the researchers determine the appropriate time at which to share data with the Navy. In this case, Atlantic BRS behavioral response results have not been shared in time for the development of the Navy risk thresholds. The Navy did consider data from Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024) in appendix D of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS, indicating the potential responses observed in this study occurred at received levels and distances assessed for potentially significant behavioral responses in the analysis of Phase IV; however, the findings of this study do not change the conclusions made by the Navy nor NMFS' determination. The Navy remains committed to incorporating the best available scientific data into its impact assessments and will revisit its BRFs as new information, including the published results of the Atlantic BRS, becomes available.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the odontocete BRF, all the data from Houser 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2013a, 2013b) were included in the modified risk functions developed for subsampling in the Navy's BRFs. However, low-severity responses were classified as “non-
                        <PRTPAGE P="58814"/>
                        responses” when deriving the BRFs (see also Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2021) for a description of severity scoring). This approach, consistent with Phase III, reflects that low-severity behavioral responses are not typically considered “harassment” under the MMPA during military readiness activities. To balance field and captive study data, a subsampling method was used. This involved creating modified risk functions incorporating the new scoring values (classifying low-severity responses as non-responses) at different received levels. Thirty data points were then randomly selected from the bottlenose dolphin risk function generated using this method. This subsampling approach, similar to that used for beaked whale data in both Phase III and Phase IV, ensures each individual animal from the captive study receives equal weight, comparable to individuals from field studies. This allows for a more comprehensive consideration of exposures and responses for each species, unlike Phase III's selection of a single response level per individual. The Navy clarified this methodology in the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report. Further, the Navy's current Odontocete BRF considers the potential for behavioral responses that may qualify as `harassment' under the MMPA for military readiness activities at the estimated received levels in Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the sensitive species BRF, while the generalized additive model (GAM) published in Jacobson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2022) only extended to 165 dB, the Navy requested that authors rerun their model to 200 dB to create a new curve that could be subsampled for the Navy Phase IV risk function; the same was done for the Moretti 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2014) data. Therefore, the two beaked whale range-based risk functions extended to the same bandwidth as the Navy BRF and the subsampling matched the rest of the data. Navy updated the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report to reflect that the published GAMs were rerun with the broader bandwidth. Both Moretti 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2014) and Jacobson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2022) were subsampled 10 times each.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To be included in the BRF, data sets need to relate known or estimable received levels to observations of individual or group behavior. The data in Falcone 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) was not included in the development of the BRFs because it is not possible to reasonably estimate the received levels in this study; however, this data was considered in developing the distance conditions for the application of the Sensitive Species BRF.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Navy and NMFS are committed to ensuring scientific integrity in datasets used for BRF development. Using data that do not meet these criteria could result in unreliable or misleading risk assessments. A risk function has not yet been fit to Southern California Anti-Submarine Warfare Range (SOAR) data for beaked whales, nor has one been fit for minke whales at Pacific Missile Range Facility (PMRF). The BRFs in Phase IV utilized only individual response-RL data outside of the four pre-existing risk functions that were subsampled. There were no individual response-RL data available for beaked whales at SOAR nor for minke whales at PMRF, therefore those data were not used in the Phase IV BRFs. As science continues to evolve, the Navy and NMFS will continue to refine the effects criteria. The Navy remains committed to incorporating new data and analyses, including those from SOAR and PMRF, as they become available and meet the rigorous standards required for robust BRF development.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the Kastelein harbor porpoise data, when the same individuals were tested at multiple received levels for the same source within a single study, only the lowest received level eliciting a response was included in the data used for BRF development. However, in some studies, Kastelein tested the same sources using different parameters, such as an upsweep versus a downsweep signal (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2014b), where both low frequency and mid frequency active sonar signals were tested as both a downsweep and upsweep), or as a continuous versus pulsed active sonar signal (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). In that case, the response to both signal parameters would have been used in the BRF as those would be considered different signals. The citations for the relevant Kastelein studies, previously provided in tables 19 and 20, were added to table E-1 in the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the pinniped BRFs, the Navy confirms that all data from the Houser 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2013a) California sea lion controlled exposure experiment were considered in developing the Phase IV BRFs. However, as with the odontocete BRF, low-severity responses were classified as “non-responses” when deriving the BRF. This decision aligns with the Navy's approach to assessing potential harassment under the MMPA during military readiness activities, where low-severity responses are not typically considered indicative of harassment. The original curves developed by Houser 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2013a) were not used because they included the low-severity responses as responses indicative of harassment. The Navy clarified this approach in the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the identified inconsistencies in some data, tables, and figures, NMFS and the Navy have carefully reviewed those identified in the Commission's comments and the Navy made the necessary corrections to the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report. These revisions ensure consistency in the reported ranges of received levels, distances, and significant responses across the executive summary, tables, figures, and accompanying text. Specifically, the Navy updated table E-1 in the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report to include data for Blainville's beaked whales from Tyack 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2011). The studies by Moretti 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2014) and Jacobson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2022) involved aggregated and modeled data rather than individual animal responses and were therefore incorporated into the BRFs through a random subsampling process, as described in the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report, rather than being presented directly in table E-1, which focuses on individual-level data. The Navy also addressed inconsistencies between Curé 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025) and table E-1 of Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report identified by the Commission. The Navy updated the closest points of approach so that the onset closest point of approach is given for signals that elicited significant responses, while the closest point of approach of the overall exposure session is given for signals that did not elicit a significant response. These corrections only affect the way data was presented in table E-1 and do not change the BRFs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, the Navy has confirmed to NMFS that it used the data from Houser 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2013a) and Houser 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2013b) to develop the new risk functions. As noted previously, low-severity responses were scored as “non-responses” within these functions to align with the Navy's approach to assessing potential harassment under the MMPA. These new risk functions were then subsampled using the same method applied to the beaked whale range risk functions in both Phase III and Phase IV, ensuring consistency in the Navy's treatment of such data. This subsampling approach, described in detail within those reports, ensures appropriate weighting of individual responses and contributes to the robustness of the Navy's BRFs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the Commissions' offer to informally review future versions of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58815"/>
                        criteria and threshold reports, NMFS recommends that the Commission coordinate directly with the Navy for any potential early reviews as the Navy is the primary author.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 3 (ref 13):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS work with the Navy in a concerted manner to incorporate data that support criteria and threshold development more often than on a decadal cycle and to revise NAEMO to implement the relevant criteria and thresholds at a true post-processing stage so that animat (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a virtual animal) dosimeter data can be re-queried if thresholds change, rather than needing to remodel the animat-portion of NAEMO.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The Criteria and Thresholds are typically updated at the beginning of each at-sea Phase. This is a significant effort that involves collecting published data, working with marine mammal researchers to collect and understand emergent data, developing methods to incorporate the data, writing and publishing the technical report, and seeking approvals from Navy leadership and NMFS. Nevertheless, emergent data is continuously assessed against the current criteria and thresholds to ascertain whether it would create significant changes to the Navy's analysis. If so, the analysis would be altered to reflect this emergent data.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Navy is continuously reassessing and evolving its analytical methods including the need to more frequently update criteria and threshold and the feasibility for NAEMO to more rapidly incorporate such changes. For example, the Navy has undertaken efforts to investigate the feasibility of moving the weighting functions to the post-processor for impulsive modeling, which would allow added flexibility to the modeling process when new data emerges outside of the normal criteria and threshold timeline. NMFS supports such efforts.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 4 (ref 10):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS determine whether inclusion of data from Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024a, 2025a, 2025b) would alter the weighting functions and/or thresholds for the functional hearing groups and, if so, whether those modifications would be sufficient to warrant revision of the weighting functions and associated thresholds for non-impulsive sources as stipulated in the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Whether and when to share data for ongoing research is at the discretion of the researchers and funding agencies. Since the specific data from Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024a) were not shared with the Navy prior to peer review and publication, the data could not be incorporated into the development of the Phase IV Criteria and Thresholds. However, the Navy's current approach using the existing Phase IV criteria remains protective even when compared to the findings of Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024a). Specifically, incorporating the TTS onset value of 169 dB sound exposure level (SEL) reported by Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024a) would raise the very high frequency (VHF) non-impulse exposure function by 4 dB. The impact on other impulsive and non-impulsive exposure functions is negligible (1 dB or less).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        NMFS has also reviewed the data from Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024b, 2025a, 2025b). Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025a) evaluated the effect of one-sixth octave band noise centered at 40 kilohertz (kHz) on TTS in two California sea lions (
                        <E T="03">Zalophus californianus</E>
                        ). Results indicate that TTS onset (6 dB threshold shift) occurred at approximately 169 dB cumulative SEL, which is lower than predicted by the current Phase IV TTS threshold and weighting function. Interestingly, this TTS onset level is lower than what was measured during exposure to 32 kHz in a previous study (179 dB cumulative SEL; Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024b)). So, despite hearing sensitivity decreasing at higher frequencies, Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025a) indicate that TTS onset occurs at a lower level than predicted, which contradicts typical trends in TTS onset previously measured in marine mammals. Thus, these data suggest a need to evaluate exposures at potentially higher frequencies to examine whether this disparate trend continues.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025b) examined TTS in two harbor seals (
                        <E T="03">Phoca vitulina</E>
                        ) exposed to one-sixth octave band noise centered at 8 kHz. In this study, TTS onset (6 dB threshold shift) occurred at approximately 181 dB cumulative SEL, which is higher than what is predicted with the current Navy Phase IV criteria.
                    </P>
                    <P>In consideration of the information discussed above, NMFS and Navy have concluded that revisions to the Phase IV criteria and thresholds are not warranted at this time.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 5 (ref 11, 78):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS determine whether the low frequency (LF) cetacean weighting function has been shifted far enough to the higher frequencies to reflect that 32 kHz was the most sensitive frequency tested in minke whales, determine whether use of the phocid carnivore in water (PCW) composite audiogram, weighting function, and threshold parameters are more representative of very low-frequency (VLF) and LF cetaceans than medians and means of the five other functional hearing groups, and work with the Navy to revise the VLF and LF cetacean composite audiograms, weighting functions, and thresholds as needed for impulsive and non-impulsive sources for the final rule and 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS.
                    </P>
                    <P>In a related comment, a commenter stated that NMFS has applied a patently unrealistic, non-conservative auditory weighting scheme for “low frequency cetaceans” and references a similar comment on the 2024 HCTT Draft EIS/OEIS.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The lack of data on mysticete hearing, especially in terms of the impacts of noise on hearing, has made this a challenging group for which to develop acoustic criteria. The Navy has split the mysticetes into two hearing groups for its Phase IV analyses: VLF and LF cetaceans (see appendix B of the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report). This decision is outlined in detail within the documentation and includes the best available science including the recommendations of Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2019c) and the minke whale study by Houser 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024). Navy was given access to pre-published data on the 2023/2024 minke whale field season and was able to incorporate into their Phase IV criteria (noting, as the commenter did, that the 2023 field season data was published in November 2024). In their Phase IV criteria, the Navy separated VLF cetaceans (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         blue, fin, right, and bowhead) whales from LF cetaceans (all other mysticetes). Thus, they are acknowledging differences among mysticetes species.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        NMFS and the Navy disagree that wholesale adoption of the PCW parameters or shifting the LF weighting function solely based on the 32 kHz sensitivity of minke whales is scientifically justified. There is no scientific evidence to support the exclusive use of the PCW composite audiogram and weighting function parameters for the LF and VLF groups. Adolescent minke whales were tested by Houser 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024) specifically because of their small size compared to other baleen whales. Smaller head size generally facilitates hearing at higher frequencies, so a shift of the entire LF curve (intended to represent all species within the hearing group) to a center frequency of 32 kHz is not likely representative of most baleen whales, which are larger in size compared to adolescent minke whales.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Therefore, the Navy maintains, and NMFS concurs, that based on the weight of the evidence, the existing LF weighting function and the use of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58816"/>
                        medians and means from multiple functional hearing groups provide a more representative and protective approach for assessing acoustic impacts on VLF and LF cetaceans. This approach incorporates data from a broader range of species and avoids overreliance on data from a single species or functional hearing group. NMFS' approach has remained consistent throughout our Technical Guidance development (2016, 2018, 2024), and we have addressed comments on the LF cetacean weighting function in our previous 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notices finalizing these documents (81 FR 51693, August 4, 2016; 89 FR 84872, October 24, 2024). NMFS' 2024 Technical Acoustic Guidance does not incorporate the recent data on minke whale hearing. However, NMFS has committed to incorporating this data into future versions, as indicated in our 2024 Updated Technical Guidance. NMFS is awaiting publication of results from the 2024 field season before re-evaluating our acoustic criteria for mysticetes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 6 (ref 14):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS work with the Navy to reprogram NAEMO to implement densities at a post-processing stage so that densities can be easily revised rather than needing to remodel the animat-portion of NAEMO when density estimates change. The Commission states that such an improvement was recommended by Simmons 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025) to be addressed through modifications to animat seeding and investigating runs by hearing group within NAEMO.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         NMFS concurs that it is appropriate to explore whether NAEMO can be reprogrammed to implement densities at a post-processing stage so that densities can be easily revised rather than needing to remodel the animat-portion of NAEMO when density estimates change. The Navy has undertaken work in Fiscal Year 2025 to explore standardization of animat distributions and statistical considerations of applying species' densities after the NAEMO post-processor to scale results. If the Navy, in coordination with NMFS, finds that this proves feasible and appropriate, the Navy hopes to implement this for Phase V.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 7 (ref 17, 18):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS work with the Navy to use an avoidance swim speed of no more than 2 m per second (m/second) for harbor porpoises and 1 m/second for pinnipeds and to revise the NAEMO modeling and take estimates appropriately for the final rule. The Commission further recommended that NMFS work with the Navy to incorporate moving animats into NAEMO that can actively avoid sound sources based on species-specific dive profiles and swim speeds for Phase V activities (which would occur in HCTT from 2032 to 2039) and, if that is not feasible, incorporate species-specific swim speeds and the actual modeled sound propagation into NAEMO to simulate avoidance for a given event. The Commission stated that both creating an emulator and running simulation studies outside of NAEMO, as recommended by Simmons 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025), should inform how best to deal with moving animats and implementing avoidance within NAEMO.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         NMFS and the Navy acknowledge the importance of using appropriate swim speeds in the avoidance analysis in NAEMO, which assesses the potential for marine mammals to mitigate high-intensity sound exposures that could lead to auditory injury. While baseline swim speeds can be informative, the Navy prioritized data on swim behavior observed near and during anthropogenic disturbance because these data were considered more representative of how animals might respond to acoustic stimuli and potentially reduce injury risk. NMFS concurs with this approach.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Commission referenced a study by Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2018) as support for a lower harbor porpoise swim speed. However, the cited speed of 7.1 kilometers per hour (km/hr) represents the sustained average speed of a single captive harbor porpoise in a relatively small pool during a pile driving playback study at exposures below those causing auditory injury. This specific observation does not accurately reflect the full range of harbor porpoise swim capabilities. As documented in table 8 of the appendix to the Acoustic Impacts Technical Report, data from free-swimming harbor porpoises indicate swim speeds up to and exceeding 3 m/second, supporting the Navy's chosen value for modeling avoidance.
                    </P>
                    <P>For pinnipeds, the avoidance analysis used a reasonable swim speed of 2 m/second for a limited duration (10 minutes), acknowledging the lack of observed data on their swim behavior during acoustic exposures. This assumption balances the need for a realistic representation of potential avoidance behavior with the limited data availability, contributing to a conservative assessment of potential impacts.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Navy's approach to modeling impacts is described in the Acoustic Impacts Technical Report. NMFS has reviewed the Acoustic Impacts Technical Report and concurs with the Navy that the approach is based on the best available science. In early NAEMO development, the Navy compared the number of exposures (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         &gt;120 dB) using the Marine Mammal Movement and Behavior (3MB) model versus horizontally stationary animats and concluded that there was no significant difference in behavioral exposures between the two distribution methods. Thus, horizontally stationary animats were selected for computational efficiency.
                    </P>
                    <P>NMFS and the Navy recognize the evolving nature of modeling techniques and acknowledge the Commission's desire for more dynamic and species-specific avoidance behaviors in future iterations of NAEMO. NMFS has encouraged the Navy to continue to explore NAEMO enhancements, and the Navy has indicated that it will consider species-specific swim speeds and potentially more complex movement models, as data availability and computational capabilities allow. Currently, however, detailed avoidance data for many species are limited, necessitating the use of surrogate data and generalized approaches, as is also the case with dive profiles.</P>
                    <P>The Navy states that it will continue to prioritize research and development efforts to enhance the accuracy of its impact modeling tools, ensuring the best available science informs its environmental assessments.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 8 (ref 19):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS work with the Navy to use its Range-Dependent Acoustic Model and the Navy's Standard Parabolic Equation (RAM/PE) model for non-impulsive sources to model all underwater detonations (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         impulsive sources) for Phase IV activities for which modeling has not been completed and for all Phase V activities, until such time that Comprehensive Acoustic Simulation System/Gaussian Ray Bundle (CASS/GRAB) and the similitude equation have been validated for the range of detonation sizes and environmental parameters (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         water depth and receiver range) in which it would be used. They supported this recommendation by stating that, given the comparability of the modeled zones from the Peregrine version of RAM/PE to the measured values and that RAM/PE is already used by the Navy for modeling non-impulsive sources that operate at less than 100 Hz and in shallow water, the Navy has the data to conduct a rigorous comparison of CASS/GRAB and the similitude equation and the in situ measurements 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58817"/>
                        of the USS Ford ship shock trial from Seger 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2023) to fulfill the project's intent and to inform future rulemakings.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Navy has indicated that it plans to conduct a verification of the impulsive propagation methods in NAEMO using the Seger 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2023) data, which was published by Madhusudhana 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024).
                    </P>
                    <P>The NAEMO impulsive modeling methods, as described in the Acoustic Impacts Technical Report, require arrival times, sound levels, and phases to be output from the propagation model. RAM/PE does not output the time information necessary for simulation and is thus not a suitable option for impulsive modeling in NAEMO. The limitations of the similitude equation are discussed in section 4.1.3.2 of the Acoustic Impacts Technical Report and comparisons between the peak pressure computed at various ranges against the theoretical value based on the similitude equation showed agreement, providing confidence that the similitude equation was appropriate for use in NAEMO.</P>
                    <P>The Navy states that it is committed to ensuring the accuracy of its impulsive propagation models and recognizes the importance of ongoing validation efforts. While the similitude equation has been evaluated and demonstrated good agreement with measured data, as detailed in section 4.1.3.2 of the Acoustic Impacts Technical Report, the Navy is open to exploring alternative approaches to meet NAEMO's requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 9 (ref 16):</E>
                         The Commission continues to maintain that NMFS has not provided adequate justification for dismissing the possibility that single underwater detonations can cause a behavioral response, and, therefore, again recommended that it estimate and authorize takes by Level B harassment of marine mammals during all explosive activities, including those that involve single detonations and gunnery exercises that have several detonations occurring within a few seconds. The Commission further recommends that NMFS encourage the Navy to invest resources in conducting BRSs on marine mammals' responses, including pinniped responses, to underwater detonations for the derivation of explosive BRFs, or at the very least a source-specific step-function threshold, noting that the Navy's Living Marine Resources program has provided funding for a few opportunistic studies involving behavioral response of cetaceans exposed to underwater detonations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         NMFS acknowledges the possibility that single underwater detonations (including some multiple explosive events, such as certain naval gunnery exercises, that may be treated as a single event because a few explosions occur closely spaced within a very short time (a few seconds)) can cause a behavioral response. The current take estimate framework allows for the consideration of animals exhibiting behavioral disturbance during single explosions as they are counted as “taken by Level B harassment” if they are exposed above the TTS threshold, which is 5 dB higher than the behavioral harassment threshold for multiple detonations. We acknowledge in our analysis that individuals exposed above the TTS threshold may also be harassed by behavioral disruption and those potential impacts are considered in the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section. Neither NMFS nor the Navy are aware of evidence to support the assertion that animals will have multiple significant behavioral responses (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         those that would qualify as take) to temporally and spatially isolated explosions at received levels below the TTS threshold. However, if any such responses were to occur, they would be expected to be rare and since separated in space and time, would most likely result only in isolated startle responses (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         additional behavioral responses would not be expected to add cumulatively or in severity). Furthermore, these rare responses would not be expected to occur at received levels below TTS onset. Thus, they would occur at received levels already bounded by the single detonation criteria (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         TTS is used as the Level B harassment criteria for single detonations) and would therefore already be accounted for in the current take estimates.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The derivation of the explosive injury criteria is provided in the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report. There is limited information upon which to estimate behavioral response thresholds specific to explosives. Therefore, as described in the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report, the behaviors exhibited by animals exposed to brief intense tones in the Schlundt 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2000) study continue to inform the behavioral response threshold for explosives. Some of the observed behaviors in that study would be considered moderate severity for captive animals with trained behaviors and thus may be potentially significant in the context of wild animals. Appropriate threshold metrics are applied for this criterion given the supporting data. Additionally, RMS sound pressure levels (SPLs) are not a preferred metric for explosives due to the challenge of identifying the appropriate time window.
                    </P>
                    <P>Most explosive activities, including all explosive gunnery activities, analyzed in the rule and the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS include multiple detonations. For these activities, significant behavioral responses are assumed to occur if the cumulative SELs are greater than or equal to 5 dB less than the threshold for onset of TTS. For single detonations, the analysis in appendix E of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS assumes that any auditory impact (TTS or AUD INJ) may have a concurrent significant behavioral response. This assumption for single detonations has been clarified in the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report.</P>
                    <P>
                        BRSs on marine mammal responses to underwater detonations would support future analyses, and NMFS will consider such a recommendation to the Navy relative to other new and ongoing research priorities. The Navy supports a wide range of research to inform the development of criteria. The Navy is supporting new research into marine mammal behavioral responses to detonations through its Living Marine Resources program (
                        <E T="03">https://exwc.navfac.navy.mil/Products-and-Services/Environmental-Security/LMR/</E>
                        ). The findings of this research will be incorporated into the behavioral response criteria when available. To clarify, the Navy has specifically monitored shock trial detonations since the 1990s. Madhusudhana 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024) present data on pre- and post-detonation vocalizations at monitoring sites in the vicinity of the 2021 full ship shock trial. Most sites showed no significant changes in vocalization activity for the timeframes analyzed.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 10 (ref 66):</E>
                         A commenter recommended that, in addition to the designation of geographic mitigation areas identified above, efforts should be undertaken in an iterative manner to identify additional important habitat areas across the HCTT Study Area, using the full range of data and information available (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         habitat-based density models, NMFS-recognized Biologically Important Areas (BIAs), Endangered Species Act (ESA) critical habitat designations, passive acoustic monitoring data, other survey data, oceanographic and other environmental data).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         NMFS and the Navy used the best available scientific information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         stock assessment reports (SARs) and numerous study reports from Navy-funded monitoring and research in the specific geographic region) in assessing 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58818"/>
                        density, distribution, and other information regarding marine mammal use of habitats in the HCTT Study Area. In addition, NMFS consulted Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024) and Kratofil 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2023), which provides a specific, detailed assessment of known BIAs, which may be region-, species-, and/or time-specific, include reproductive areas, feeding areas, migratory corridors, and areas in which small and resident populations are concentrated. While the science of marine mammal occurrence, distribution, and density resides as a core NMFS mission, the Navy does provide extensive support to the NMFS mission via ongoing HCTT specific monitoring as detailed in this final rule. Also included are direct Navy funding support to NMFS for programmatic marine mammal surveys in Hawaii and the U.S. West Coast, and spatial habitat model improvements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 11 (ref 68):</E>
                         A commenter stated that there is a need for the Navy to compile more information regarding the number, nature, and timing of testing and training events that take place within, or in close proximity to, important habitat areas, and to refine its scale of analysis of operations to match the scale of the habitat areas that are considered to be important. The commenter states that while the 2024 HCTT Draft EIS/OEIS, in assessing environmental impacts on marine mammals, breaks down estimated impacts by region, the resolution is seldom greater than range complex or homeport and is not specifically focused on areas of higher biological importance. Current and ongoing efforts to identify important habitat areas for marine mammals should be used by the Navy as a guide to the most appropriate scale(s) for the analysis of operations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         In their take request and effects analysis provided to NMFS, the Action Proponents considered historic use (number and nature of training and testing activities) and locational information of training and testing activities when developing modeling boxes. The timing of training cycles and testing needs varies based on deployment requirements to meet current and emerging threats. Due to the variability, the Action Proponents' description of the specified activities is structured to provide flexibility in training and testing locations, timing, and number. In addition, information regarding the exact location of sonar usage is classified. Due to the variety of factors, many of which influence locations that cannot be predicted in advance (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         weather), the analysis is completed at a scale that is necessary to allow for flexibility. The purpose of the Action Proponents' quantitative acoustic analysis is to provide the best estimate of impact/take to marine mammals and ESA-listed species for the regulatory and ESA section 7 consultation analyses. Specifically, the analysis must take into account multiple training and testing activities over large areas of the ocean for multiple years; therefore, analyzing activities in multiple locations over multiple seasons produces the best estimate of impacts/take to inform the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS and regulators. Also, the scale at which spatially explicit marine mammal density models are structured is determined by the data collection method and the environmental variables that are used to build the model. Therefore, altogether, given the variables that determine when and where the Action Proponents train and test, as well as the resolution of the density data, the analysis of potential impacts is scaled to the level that the data fidelity will support. NMFS has worked with the Navy over the years to increase the spatio-temporal specificity of the descriptions of activities planned in or near areas of biological importance, when possible (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         in BIAs or Sanctuaries, where possible).
                    </P>
                    <P>The HCTT analysis in the Action Proponents' application (see appendix A of the application) includes improved modeling since Phase III to predict the number of expected takes, by effect type, within important habitat areas such as identified BIAs and ESA-designated critical habitat. NMFS is confident that the granularity of information provided sufficiently allows for an accurate assessment of both the impacts of the Action Proponents' activities on marine mammal populations and the protective measures evaluated to mitigate those impacts. NMFS and the Action Proponents will continue to consider how to appropriately refine our future analyses.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 12 (ref 77):</E>
                         A commenter stated that NMFS has relied improperly on means and medians in establishing its thresholds for auditory impacts and references a similar comment on the 2024 HCTT Draft EIS/OEIS. In that comment, the commenter recommends implementation of a 6 dB reduction to its TTS and PTS thresholds in line with the suggestions by Tougaard 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2015). The commenter states that a 6 dB adjustment would accord with the minimum level of “non-trivial” TTS required to evaluate onset, effectively adjusting the exposure functions to more closely match the point where TTS begins.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The technical guidance appropriately uses measures of central tendency based on an onset level of 6 dB TTS. No reduction is necessary or supported by the scientific literature, especially considering numerous other conservative methods in the auditory criteria. For example, the proposed and final rules assume no recovery of hearing during time intervals between intermittent exposures. However, multiple studies from humans, terrestrial mammals, and marine mammals have demonstrated less TTS from intermittent exposures compared to continuous exposures with the same total energy because hearing is known to experience some recovery in between noise exposures. Therefore, NMFS' approach in the proposed and final rules is known to overestimate the effects of intermittent noise sources such as tactical sonars. Further, marine mammal TTS data have shown that, for two exposures with equal energy, the longer duration exposure tends to produce a larger amount of TTS. Since most marine mammal TTS data have been obtained using exposure durations up to an hour, much longer than the durations of many tactical sources, the use of the existing marine mammal TTS data tends to over-estimate the effects of sonars with shorter duration signals.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 13 (ref 15, 80):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS refrain from using cut-off distances in conjunction with the Bayesian BRFs and re-estimate the numbers of marine mammal takes based solely on the Bayesian BRFs for the final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In a related comment, a commenter stated that NMFS reduces the Navy's modeled take estimates through the application of cut-off distances that do not make sense conceptually, that are based on little or no data from the behavioral response literature, and that contradict data that are available, including Falcone 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) and Melcón 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012). The commenter refers to a description of their concern in a comment on the 2025 HCTT Draft EIS/OEIS, in which they state that they agree with the Commission's recommendation that the Navy refrain from using cut-off distances and rely instead on the take estimates produced through its response functions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The consideration of proximity (cut-off distances) was part of the criteria developed in consultation between the Navy and NMFS, and is appropriate based on the best available science, which shows that marine mammal responses to sound vary based on both sound level and distance. Therefore, these cut-off distances were applied within NAEMO. The derivation of the BRFs and associated cut-off 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58819"/>
                        distances is provided in the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Phase IV approach represents a refinement in assessing potential behavioral impacts. It employs a probability of response condition for high source level exposures, addressing previous concerns from the Commission about potentially cutting off responses when the probability remained above 50 percent. This approach, combined with the distance cut-off, provides a more nuanced and protective assessment compared to the Phase III methodology, which relied solely on distance cut-offs. Therefore, directly comparing Phase III and Phase IV cut-off distances is not appropriate.</P>
                    <P>NMFS and the Navy are confident that this combined distance and probability threshold approach is well-substantiated by available data and effectively avoids underestimating potential behavioral responses to acoustic sources.</P>
                    <P>To clarify, section 3.1.4 (Dose and Contextual Responses) of the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report explains that at low received levels, distance to the sound source factors into the likelihood of a behavioral response. Although distance was investigated as a covariate in the Bayesian BRF model, most BRSs to date have used similar source levels making received level and source-receiver distance tightly correlated (see section 3.1.9 (Behavioral Cut-off Conditions) of the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report). Therefore, including distance in the BRF model using the available response-received level data did not improve the BRFs. Still, NMFS and the Navy agree that distance is an important contextual factor. Since it was not possible to directly account for distance in the Bayesian model at this time, the Navy incorporated the behavioral cut-off conditions, beyond which significant behavioral reactions are assumed to be unlikely. As described in section 3.1.9 of the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report, the distance cut-off conditions were conservatively estimated based on observations from multiple cited studies. Applying the distance cut-off condition is appropriate to reasonably estimate significant impacts. In addition, high source level exposures are addressed by also using a probability of response condition rather than the dual distance cut-off applied in Phase III. This method was devised in part to address public comments, including those from the Commission received in Phase III that were focused on cutting off behavioral responses, in some cases, where the probability of response was still above 50 percent. The probability of response cut-off condition in Phase IV allows for prediction of significant impacts beyond the distance cut-off.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the studies cited by a commenter, Melcón 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012) found that the probability of recording blue whale “D calls” decreased with higher received levels at the high-frequency acoustic recording package (HARP) buoy averaged over many hours; however, this study does not provide any information about the distance between the sound source and any animals and cannot be used to derive cut-off distances. Falcone 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) was reviewed by the Navy and discussed in the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report: “. . . Falcone 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) modeled apparent responses to mid-powered sources out to 50 km (27 nautical miles (nmi)) and responses to high-powered sources at distances as great as 100 km (54 nmi). However, the models were not developed to estimate distances to response, and care needs to be taken when interpreting the results in that context.” Responses at 100 km (54 nmi) were generally mild, such as a slight (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         less than 2 minutes) increase in the duration of shallow dives that was similar to the range of duration variability found in dives when no mid-frequency active sonar (MFAS) was present. The inter-deep dive interval duration also increased for both mid- and high-powered MFAS sources starting at 100 km (54 nmi); however, the inter-deep dive interval duration only exhibited the strongest increase within 20 km (10.8 nmi) of the source.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described in section 3.1.9 of the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report, the cut-off conditions are applied to predict significant behavioral responses. The data used to inform the BRFs includes observations beyond 10 km (5.4 nmi) and studies cited in section 3.1.9 of the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report. This includes data on exposures to other sound sources which is informative when data on exposure to sonars is limited. All the identified significant behavioral responses that were used to develop the BRFs are within the cut-offs (either by distance or SPL). Although behavioral responses are predicted beyond the cut-off conditions, these are not expected to rise to the level of harassment under the MMPA as defined for military readiness activities.</P>
                    <P>NMFS and the Navy acknowledge the Commission's perspective but maintain that the combined use of cut-off distances and BRFs provides a more accurate and realistic assessment of potential behavioral impacts, particularly for military readiness activities. While Tyack and Thomas (2019) cautioned against using step functions anchored to the 50 percent response level of dose-response curves, the Navy's methodology does not employ such an approach. Instead, the cut-off distances, informed by the farthest observed distances of significant behavioral reactions in the available data (including those exceeding 10 km (5.4 nmi)), serve as a threshold for identifying responses reasonably likely to qualify as harassment under the MMPA. This approach prevents underestimating significant impacts while acknowledging that responses occurring beyond these distances, while possible, are less likely to reach this level of concern.</P>
                    <P>The Navy's Phase IV approach, incorporating both BRFs and scientifically informed cut-off distances, offers a more realistic assessment of potential behavioral impacts compared to relying solely on BRFs. This approach balances the statistical probabilities derived from the BRFs with empirical observations of behavioral responses in the field. NMFS and the Navy are confident that this combined approach, while still incorporating conservatism to account for uncertainty, does not underestimate potential take by Level B harassment under the MMPA during military readiness activities and provides a more accurate representation of potential impacts.</P>
                    <P>NMFS has independently assessed the thresholds used by the Navy to identify Level B harassment by behavioral disturbance and finds that they appropriately apply the best available science and it is not necessary to recalculate take estimates. As the science related to marine mammal behavior advances, NMFS and the Navy will continue to refine consideration of contextual factors, such as distance, in its assessment of behavioral responses.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 14 (ref 81):</E>
                         A commenter stated that NMFS wholly discounted gas-bubble pathology as a mechanism of harm to marine mammals due to the specified activities, and that the Action Proponents must assume that a number of beaked whales are subject to injury and mortality from gas-bubble formation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The commenter's characterization of NMFS' analysis is incorrect. NMFS does not disregard the fact that it is possible for naval activities using hull-mounted tactical sonar to contribute to the death of marine mammals in certain circumstances (that are not present in the HCTT Study Area) via strandings resulting from behaviorally mediated physiological impacts or other gas-related injuries. In the Potential Effects of Specified 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58820"/>
                        Activities on Marine Mammals and Their Habitat section of the proposed rule, NMFS discusses these potential causes and outlines the few cases where active naval sonar (in the U.S. or, largely, elsewhere) has either potentially contributed to or, as with the Bahamas example, been more definitively causally linked to marine mammal strandings. As noted, there are a suite of factors that have been associated with these specific cases of strandings directly associated with sonar (steep bathymetry, multiple hull-mounted platforms using sonar simultaneously, constricted channels, strong surface ducts, etc.). These factors are not present together in the HCTT Study Area during the specified activities. Further, there have never been any strandings associated with Navy sonar use in the HCTT Study Area. For these reasons, NMFS does not anticipate that the Action Proponents' training or testing activities will result in marine mammal strandings, and none are authorized. Furthermore, ongoing Navy funded beaked whale monitoring at a heavily used training and testing area in the SOCAL Range Complex has not documented mortality or habitat abandonment by beaked whales. Passive acoustic detections of beaked whales have not significantly changed over 10 years of monitoring (DiMarzio 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018; DiMarzio 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019; DiMarzio 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020). From visual surveys in the area since 2006 there have been repeated sightings of the same individual beaked whales, beaked whale mother-calf pairs, and beaked whale mother-calf pairs with mothers on their second calf (Schorr 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018; Schorr 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020). Satellite tracking studies of beaked whales documented high site fidelity to this area even though the study area is located in one of the most used Navy areas in the Pacific (Schorr 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018; Schorr 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 15 (ref 82):</E>
                         A commenter stated that NMFS failed to present a meaningful analysis of the Navy's aggregate effects on marine mammal populations and refers to its comment on the 2024 HCTT Draft EIS/OEIS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         NMFS fully analyzed and considered the potential for aggregate effects from all of the Action Proponents' specified activities, and has applied a reasoned and comprehensive approach to evaluating the effects of these activities on marine mammal species or stocks and their habitat. This analysis was detailed in the Preliminary Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section of the proposed rule and is included here in the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>Our analysis includes consideration of unusual mortality events (UMEs) and previous environmental impacts, where appropriate, to inform the baseline levels of both individual health and susceptibility to additional stressors, as well as stock status. Further, the species and stock-specific assessments in the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section (which have been updated and expanded since the previous HCTT rulemaking to consider additional species- and stock-specific factors) present and address the combined mortality, injury, behavioral harassment, and other effects of the aggregate activities, including impacts anticipated in important habitats such as ESA-designated critical habitat and known BIAs (and in consideration of applicable mitigation), as well as other information that supports our determinations that the Action Proponents' activities will not adversely affect any species or stocks via impacts on annual rates of recruitment or survival. We refer the reader to the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section for this analysis.</P>
                    <P>
                        Further, widespread, extensive monitoring since 2006 on Navy ranges that have been used for training and testing for decades has demonstrated no evidence of population-level impacts (see 
                        <E T="03">https://www.navymarinespeciesmonitoring.us/regions/pacific/current-projects/</E>
                         for results, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         “Cuvier's Beaked Whale and Fin Whale Population Dynamics and Impact Assessment at the Southern California Offshore Antisubmarine Warfare Range (SOAR)”). Based on the best available research from NMFS and Navy-funded marine mammal studies, there is no evidence that “population-level harm” to marine mammals, including beaked whales, is occurring in the HCTT Study Area.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 16 (31):</E>
                         A commenter stated that the Eastern North Pacific stock of gray whale has been declining for years since the recent UME, and that NOAA estimates 13,000 Eastern North Pacific gray whales, rather than 26,960 whales as reported in the proposed rule. The commenter stated that this makes the other species estimates, impacts, and information in the draft very questionable. The commenter further states that there should be no harassment or takes of the Eastern North Pacific gray whales, nor the Southern Resident killer whales, nor other endangered or threatened species.
                    </P>
                    <P>The commenter also stated that more research is needed on the unknown impacts to multiple species of which the proposed rule proposed to authorize take, particularly research on new technologies, impulsive and continuous sonar broadcast, and uncrewed sea craft.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The 2023 Pacific SAR indicates the Eastern North Pacific stock of gray whales is increasing and has an abundance of 26,960 animals. However, recent (2024-2025) surveys conducted by NMFS' Southwest Fisheries Science Center (SWFSC) indicated that the estimated total abundance of gray whales during the 2024-2025 southbound migration was 12,950 (Eguchi 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2025). NMFS has updated its analysis to consider both abundance estimates, and has determined the authorized take of the Eastern North Pacific stock of gray whale will have a negligible impact on the stock, including in consideration of the Eguchi 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025) estimate. As described in the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section, this stock is not listed under the ESA and is not considered as depleted or strategic under the MMPA and there are no UMEs or other for this stock. Any takes in the form of TTS are expected to be lower-level, of short duration (from minutes to, at most, several hours or less than a day), and mostly not in a frequency band that would be expected to interfere with gray whale communication or other important low-frequency cues. Any associated lost opportunities or capabilities individuals might experience as a result of TTS would not be at a level or duration that would be expected to impact reproductive success or survival. For similar reasons, while auditory injury impacts last longer, the low anticipated levels of AUD INJ that could be reasonably expected to result from these activities are unlikely to have any effect on fitness.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the likely severity of any single instance of take by behavioral disturbance, as described above, the majority of the predicted exposures are expected to be below 172 dB SPL and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours. Gray whales are large-bodied capital breeders with a slow pace of life and are therefore generally less susceptible to impacts from shorter duration foraging disruptions. Further, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section and the Mitigation Measures section, mitigation measures are expected to further reduce the potential severity of impacts through real-time operational measures that minimize higher level/longer duration exposures 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58821"/>
                        and time/area measures that reduce impacts in high value habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>Given the number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 54), and the fact that a portion of the takes of the Eastern North Pacific occur in BIAs, it is likely that some portion of the individuals taken are taken repeatedly over a limited number of days. However, given the variety of activity types that contribute to take across separate exercises conducted at different times and in different areas, and the fact that many result from transient activities conducted at sea, it is unlikely that repeated takes would occur either in numbers across sequential days in a manner likely to impact foraging success and energetics or other behaviors such that reproduction or survival of any individuals is likely to be impacted.</P>
                    <P>Given the status of the stock and in consideration of other ongoing anthropogenic mortality (fisheries interactions, vessel strike), the authorized M/SI (three over the course of the 7-year rule, or 0.43 annually) will not, alone, nor in combination with the impacts of the take by harassment discussed above (which is not expected to impact the reproduction or survival of any individuals), be expected to adversely affect rates of recruitment and survival for any of this stock.</P>
                    <P>NMFS did not propose to authorize take of southern resident killer whale (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025), and this final rule does not authorize take of that stock. This rule does, however, authorize take of certain species that are listed as threatened or endangered under the ESA, as indicated in table 1. The MMPA provides for the authorization of incidental take caused by specified activities at the request of an applicant, provided certain findings are made. The law directs NMFS to process adequate and complete applications for incidental take authorization, and issue the authorization provided all statutory findings and requirements, as well as all associated legal requirements, are met. As described in the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section, based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activities on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the proposed monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS finds that the total marine mammal take from the specified activity will have a negligible impact on all affected marine mammal species or stocks.</P>
                    <P>On September 16, 2024, NMFS received an application from the Action Proponents requesting authorization to take marine mammals incidental to training, testing, and modernization and sustainment of ranges (characterized as military readiness activities) within the HCTT Study Area. In response to our comments and following an information exchange, the Action Proponents submitted a revised application, deemed adequate and complete on December 13, 2024. NMFS, following its own analysis and proposed rule, has determined it is appropriate to promulgate a final rule and LOAs pursuant to 16 U.S.C. 1371(a)(5)(A) and 50 CFR 216.105.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the commenter's assertion that more research is needed on the unknown impacts to multiple species of which the proposed rule proposed to authorize take, particularly research on new technologies, impulsive and continuous sonar broadcast, and uncrewed sea craft, this final rule requires the Action Proponents to conduct all monitoring and reporting required under the LOAs, including abiding by the HCTT Study Area monitoring program. Details on program goals, objectives, project selection process, and current projects are available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.navymarinespeciesmonitoring.us.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>The commenter appears to imply that NMFS should not authorize take of marine mammals prior to completion of the research it states is needed. However, as stated in the Legal Authority for the Final Action section of this final rule, an authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stocks and will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stocks for taking for subsistence uses (where relevant) (16 U.S.C. 1371(a)(5)(A)). Further, NMFS must prescribe the permissible methods of taking and other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for certain subsistence uses (referred to in this rule as “mitigation measures”); and requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such takings (16 U.S.C. 1371(a)(5)(A)). NMFS has made the required findings, and therefore, it must issue the requested incidental take authorization to the Navy.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 17 (32-3):</E>
                         A commenter recommended that NMFS integrate Indigenous and local ecological knowledge into baseline data collection and cumulative impact assessments. In a related comment, the commenter stated the proposed rule evaluates impacts primarily from the military readiness activities themselves but does not meaningfully incorporate the cumulative effects of commercial shipping, climate change-driven habitat shifts, and prior authorization of incidental take in the same region.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         It is unclear what the commenter is referring to regarding baseline data collection, and the commenter has not identified, with any degree of specificity, which Indigenous or local ecological knowledge it recommends NMFS consider.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The MMPA requires that NMFS issue an incidental take authorization, provided the necessary findings are made for the specified activity put forth in the application and appropriate mitigation and monitoring measures are set forth, as described in the Legal Authority for the Final Action section of this rule. As described in the proposed rule (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025) and this final rule, the preamble for NMFS' implementing regulations under section 101(a)(5) (54 FR 40338, September 29, 1989) explains in response to comments that the impacts from other past and ongoing anthropogenic activities are incorporated into the negligible impact analysis via their impacts on the environmental baseline. Consistent with that direction, NMFS has factored into its negligible impact analyses the impacts of other past and ongoing anthropogenic activities via their impacts on the baseline (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         as reflected in the density/distribution and status of the species, population size and growth rate, and other relevant stressors (such as UMEs)). See the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section of this rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>Our 1989 final rule for the MMPA implementing regulations also addressed how cumulative effects from unrelated activities would be considered. There we stated that such effects are not separately considered in making findings under section 101(a)(5) concerning negligible impact, but that NMFS would consider cumulative effects that are reasonably foreseeable when preparing a NEPA analysis and also that reasonably foreseeable cumulative effects would be considered under section 7 of the ESA for ESA-listed species.</P>
                    <P>
                        The cumulative effects of the incremental impact of the proposed action when added to other past, present, and reasonably foreseeable future actions (as well as the effects of ocean pollution and ecosystem 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58822"/>
                        alteration trends; see Table 4-2) were evaluated against the appropriate resources and regulatory baselines in the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS. The best available science and a comprehensive review of past, present, and reasonably foreseeable actions (including commercial shipping, ecosystem alteration trends, and other activities for which incidental take of marine mammals may occur) was used to develop the Cumulative Impacts analysis. This analysis is contained in chapter 4 of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS. As required under NEPA, the level and scope of the analysis is commensurate with the scope of potential impacts of the action and the extent and character of the potentially-impacted resources (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the geographic boundaries for cumulative impacts analysis for some resources are expanded to include activities outside the HCTT Study Area that might impact migratory or wide-ranging animals), as reflected in the resource-specific discussions in chapter 3 (Affected Environment and Environmental Consequences) of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS. The 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS considered the proposed training activities alongside other actions in the region whose impacts may be additive to those of the proposed training. Past and present actions are also included in the analytical process as part of the affected environmental baseline conditions presented in chapter 3 of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS.
                    </P>
                    <P>Further, cumulative effects to listed species of the specified activity in combination with other activities are analyzed in the ESA biological opinion. This analysis is contained in section 7 (Cumulative Effects). The opinion states that it assumes effects in the future would be similar to those in the past and, therefore, are reflected in the anticipated trends described in the Species and Designated Critical Habitat that May be Affected and Environmental Baseline sections of the biological opinion (sections 4 and 5, respectively).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Marine Mammal Densities</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 18 (ref 1):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS use an abundance estimate of 72,631 rather than 48,780 for April-June and 63,850 rather than 43,360 for July-March, along with a 75 percent assumption for the core area and 30 percent assumption for the geographic area to revise the density estimates and resulting numbers of takes of Guadalupe fur seals for the final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Juárez-Ruiz 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2022) revised abundance estimate became available after the densities were derived for the Navy's acoustic and explosive impact modeling. The Navy worked with one of the co-authors on the paper by Juárez-Ruiz 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2022) to develop the density estimates used in the analysis, which included identifying the most appropriate abundance estimate for Guadalupe fur seal.
                    </P>
                    <P>During the process of calculating pinniped densities for the pending Northwest Training and Testing Phase IV Supplemental EIS/OEIS Study Area, The Marine Mammal Center reported to the Navy a revised unpublished abundance for Guadalupe fur seals of 96,468. Considering that this is a two-fold increase in the abundance estimate used to derive densities, the Navy decided that the Guadalupe fur seal densities should be revised and take estimates recalculated based on the adjusted densities. Since there are only two uniform density strata for Guadalupe fur seal, the Navy determined that remodeling to estimate takes would not be necessary and that the increase in takes can be estimated by calculating a multiplier equal to the ratio between the initial and recalculated densities. Two multipliers were calculated and used to revise take estimates: (1) a warm season multiplier of 2.07945; and (2) a cold season multiplier of 2.05908. This was a reasonable approach given that remodeling is not feasible at this point because exposure estimates from previous analyses in at-sea study areas have shown that changes in densities result in approximately proportional changes in predicted exposures. The “U.S. Navy Marine Species Density Database Phase IV for the Hawaii-California Training and Testing Study Area” (U.S. Department of the Navy, 2024b), hereafter referred to as the Density Technical Report, was amended with the revised densities in September 2025 and is hereafter referred to as the revised Density Technical Report (U.S. Department of the Navy, 2025b), and NMFS concurs with that revision. The HCTT proposed rule and this final rule include the resulting take numbers.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 19 (ref 2):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS use the monk seal abundance estimates from the 2022 SAR to derive its density estimates and re-estimate the numbers of takes for the final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The abundance of 1,437 monk seals published in the 2021 SAR (Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022) was the latest abundance estimate available when the Navy calculated densities. The 2022 SAR (Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023b) was published in August 2023, over 1 year after densities were finalized.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Navy revised the density estimates for Hawaiian monk seal using the latest abundance estimates reported in the 2024 draft SAR (Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         in review) for each island where separate abundances were reported. The total abundance reported by Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (in review) is 1,605 monk seals. In order to account for the increase in total abundance, the Navy calculated multipliers for each island by taking the ratio of the revised and initial densities. An analysis of the acoustic effects modeling results showed that all predicted exposures of Hawaiian monk seals occurred in the Main Hawaiian Islands (MHI) and no exposures occurred in the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands. Therefore, the Navy used the highest multiplier derived for the MHI of 1.2919 to increase the estimated takes in waters both greater than and less than 200 m. NMFS concurs with this method.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 20 (ref 3):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS: (1) revise the elephant seal density estimates by increasing the (a) in-water percentage of females from 0-25 percent for May and June, (b) percentage of females off California from 80-100 percent for January, February, and May, (c) in-water percentage of males from 0-25 percent for August, and (d) percentage of females off California in September and October from 5 percent and males off California in April, May, June, and October from 0-10 percent to the percentage of the population expected to be comprised of yearlings and juveniles and the sex-based ratios provided in table 9-12 of the Density Technical Report; and (2) re-estimate the numbers of takes accordingly for the final rule. The Commission stated that these revisions are particularly important, because NMFS relies on the Navy's density estimates for authorizing the taking associated with many other activities off California and will do so for at least the next 7 years until the Phase V densities are available.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The Navy used the kernel density distribution areas shown in figure 4 in Robinson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012) to approximate the spatial strata to use in density calculations. The Navy recognized that the data in Figure 4 indicated a higher relative density of female elephant seals off California in May and June; however, that is the time during which females return to natal rookeries and are hauled out molting and fasting and not expected to spend much, if any, time in the water. The sex and age class haulout behavior of northern elephant seals is complex and difficult to represent in this type of calculation where some portion of seals of each age and sex class is hauled out at different but overlapping time periods that span partial months. For 7 months (males) or 8 months (females) out of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58823"/>
                        year, the Navy assumes 100 percent of seals are in the water, which is undoubtedly an overestimate considering that seals are known to haulout during foraging periods. While the Navy strives to improve density estimates to accurately represent pinniped haulout behavior, the level of precision is limited by both the available and sometimes conflicting data on species' behavior and the large scale of the study area over which behavior may vary. The assumptions made for the purposes of calculating monthly densities at this scale were reasonable and generally representative of the species behavior.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        While the majority of tagged elephant seals reported by Robinson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012) were from Año Nuevo Island, a few were tagged on Islas San Benito, Mexico and followed similar migration patterns. Seals from all other breeding and haulout sites are expected to follow similar migration patterns (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         move north or northwest after breeding and molting periods) and to follow similar annual breeding and molting haulout cycles. For females, this means hauling out to molt in May and June and spending little to no time in the water. Again, the information in Robinson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012) was primarily used to define strata for calculating densities. It's clear from Robinson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012) figure 4 that 100 percent of females do not occur off CA in January, February, and May; the Navy considers 80 percent to be a reasonable estimate. It's not clear how the Commission determined that 10 percent instead of 5 percent of females would be off California in September and October. While the density estimates do not distinguish abundance by age class, the entire population abundance is used in the calculations, which includes all age classes.
                    </P>
                    <P>Furthermore, the analyzed abundance of elephant seals includes 22,000 seals from the Mexico breeding population (a likely overestimate for that declining population as noted in the Density Technical Report and revised Density Technical Report and exceeds the abundance of the California breeding stock managed by NMFS. This conservative abundance estimate puts more seals in the water during the majority of the year and likely inflates predicted exposure estimates.</P>
                    <P>Lastly, the majority of sonar and explosive use occurs in the SOCAL Range Complex located south of the elephant seal at-sea distribution following both the post-breeding and post-molting migrations, which extend north and northwest of the Channel Islands and into the North Pacific.</P>
                    <P>As such, the Navy has not revised the density estimates as recommended by the Commission. NMFS concurs, and has not revised the number of estimated takes of this stock.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 21 (ref 4, 5):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS: (1) revise the harbor seal density estimates by using (a) the 2.86 correction factor from Harvey and Goley (2011) rather than 2.44 for the Channel Islands and 1.15 for Point Mugu and La Jolla to estimate the total abundances at the various locations in Table 9-21 of Density Technical Report, (b) the 65 percent in-water percentage from Harvey and Goley (2011) for Point Mugu, La Jolla, and all of the Channel Islands except for San Nicolas and San Miguel Islands for the entire year, and (c) 40 km from shore from Calambokidis (2004) and the 200-m isobath based on Stewart and Yochem (1994) rather than 20 km from shore and the 120-m isobath as stratum demarcations for areas where harbor seals could occur; and (2) re-estimate the numbers of takes accordingly for the final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Commission further recommended that NMFS: (1) contact the SWFSC to obtain the maximum harbor seal abundance estimate from Santa Catalina Island during which the relevant haul-out sites were surveyed and use the 2.86 correction factor to estimate the total abundance at Santa Catalina Island; (2) estimate the total abundance of harbor seals from La Jolla to Point Mugu and from Point Mugu around past Pt. Conception based on the number of harbor seals of the 30,968 abundance estimate for the California stock from Harvey and Goley (2011) that remains after subtracting the Channel Islands, Point Mugu, and La Jolla abundance estimates; (3) use the 65 percent in-water percentage from Harvey and Goley (2011), 40 km from shore from Calambokidis (2004), and the 200-m isobath based on Stewart and Yochem (1994) to estimate the harbor seal density for Santa Catalina Island, from La Jolla to Point Mugu, and from Point Mugu around past Pt. Conception; and (4) re-estimate the numbers of takes accordingly for the final rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Regarding the Commission's recommendation to use the 2.86 correction factor from Harvey and Goley (2011), the correction factor for San Nicolas Island from Stewart and Yochem (1983) of 59 percent in-water is the most appropriate haulout factor (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         with one exception it is the highest percentage of seals in the water) compared with other available haulout factors. Harvey and Goley (2011) recommend a factor of 1.54 (or 35 percent in water) for all of California. A factor of 2.86 (65 percent in-water) for southern California was also reported by the authors, but was based only on one survey, so the authors recommended using the mean of 1.54 (35 percent in-water) for California over the 2.86 factor. Note that the authors describe the single survey from southern California as “a poor sample estimate of the proportion ashore.” The Navy used 2.44 (59 percent in-water), which is higher than most other factors including all three of the mean haulout factors derived by Harvey and Goley (2011) (see table 2 in the paper), which would also have been reasonable alternatives.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Haulout factors were also chosen to be specific to season (breeding/molting vs. non-breeding/molting) as well as location where data were available. The survey data reported by Lowry 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2021) that were used to estimate abundances and densities were conducted in summer, so Navy used the most conservative haulout factor for summer (59 percent in-water) from Stewart and Yochem (1983) for the in-water abundance estimate, and NMFS concurs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The 87 percent ashore estimate was a typo in the Navy's 2024 Marine Species Density Database (NMSDD) which has been superseded by the revised Density Technical Report. It should have been 83 percent ashore equating to 17 percent in-water, as shown in table 9-20 in the revised Density Technical Report. The factor of 1.2 or 17 percent in-water is from table 1 in Huber 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2001) which cites the source as Hanan (1996), a Ph.D. dissertation. The Navy corrected the typo in the revised Density Technical Report. The Navy selected the 1.2 haulout factor for the two mainland locations in Southern California because several of the sites used in the research were located along the mainland coast and the Navy sought out correction factors specific to seals along the mainland, and NMFS concurs with this approach.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Below table 9-25 in the revised Density Technical Report, the following text states which correction factor was used for the September-February time period, “For the September through February time period, the in-water abundance was estimated as 86 percent of the total abundance, based on data from San Miguel Island reported by Yochem 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1987) and included in a summary by Huber 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2001).” Table 9-24 shows an in-water percentage range of 81-86 percent; the Navy selected 86 percent in-water as a more conservative approach. NMFS concurs with this decision.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Navy used the 59 percent in-water factor for March through August 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58824"/>
                        for all Channel Islands except for San Miguel Island, which used 23 percent based on a tagging study conducted with seals on the island, and NMFS concurs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As a conservative measure, the Navy used the highest counts from 2016 to 2019 by Lowry 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2021) to estimate in-water abundances instead of using a multi-year average or counts from the most recent year (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         2019) (refer to table 9-25 in the revised Density Technical Report). Both alternative options would have been reasonable to select, but instead the Navy chose to use the maximum count over the 4 year survey period. Note that the maximum counts for six of the eight islands occurred in 2016 (the other two occurred in 2019), suggesting that the overall harbor seal abundance in the Channel Islands may be declining and that the Navy's density estimates may be high for predicting takes beyond the year 2019. NMFS concurs with this approach.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the strata, harbor seals are well known for remaining close to haulouts and foraging in relatively shallow waters, as documented in the half dozen sources cited on page 237 of the revised Density Technical Report. The sources also demonstrate that while habitat use is generally similar in multiple regions, there is variability in the depth and distance from shore characteristics of harbor seal distribution in various studies. The Navy reviewed the sources and attempted to define strata that captured the general and expected distribution of the species. Expanding strata farther offshore into deeper waters to capture extralimital and infrequent excursions by individual seals (as recommended by the Commission) would have the effect of reducing the density in the nearshore habitat where harbor seals predominantly occur. Stewart and Yochem (1994) reported the 20 km distance-from-shore metric used in the analysis. The 120 m depth contour used to define strata encompassed the vast majority of reported foraging depths without expanding the strata farther offshore (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         to the 200 m depth contour representing the shelf break as the Commission recommended) and reducing the densities. The density estimates are intended to represent the predominant occurrence and distribution of the population rather than capture all possible areas where wide-ranging individuals have been sighted. The Channel Islands are part of the Continental Borderland region in the Southern California Bight which exhibits a complex bathymetry without a clearly distinct shelf break. While the shelf break (often represented by the 200 m depth contour) is a reasonable boundary to choose in more conventional continental margins, it does not accurately demarcate the shelf break in the Southern California Bight.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As noted above, the harbor seal abundances were based on counts reported by Lowry 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2021), which reported eight harbor seals off Santa Catalina island in 2019 only; no counts were reported in 2016 through 2018. Using a haulout factor of 59 percent results in a total abundance of 20 seals associated with the island and in-water abundance estimates of 12 seals (March-August) and 17 seals (September-February). The area around Santa Catalina Island extending from shore to the 120 m isobath is approximately 42,205 square kilometers (km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ), which results in densities of 0.0003 to 0.0004 seals/km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         for March-August and September-February, respectively. The densities are about three orders of magnitude lower than densities around the other islands where the Navy conducts more activities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         San Nicolas, San Miguel, San Clemente). Based on these factors, the Navy has determined that adding a density for Santa Catalina Island and remodeling would not contribute substantively, if at all, to the current take estimates, and NMFS concurs.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Navy worked with scientists from the NMFS SWFSC to derive the pinniped density estimates, including estimates for harbor seals. There is a lack of survey data between La Jolla and Point Mugu along the mainland coast, which is why densities are not provided along that part of the coast. It is also noteworthy that the majority of training and testing activities using sonar and other transducers or explosives would occur beyond 12 nmi (22.2 km) from shore along the mainland coast. The adjacent warning area (W-291) begins approximately 12 nmi (22.2 km) from shore along the coast between La Jolla and Point Mugu. Therefore, any harbor seals occurring along the coast in this area are unlikely to be affected, and calculating the density using the method suggested by the Commission is not warranted.</P>
                    <P>
                        Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2004) reported harbor seal sightings off the Washington coast from 1995 to 2002. While not as relevant to more recently reported harbor seal behavior off California, the authors reported a mean depth for the 15 sightings of 102 m and a mean distance from shore of 15.5 km, which further supports the Navy's decision to use the 120 m depth contour and a distance of 20 km from shore to define the strata used in the Navy's HCTT density estimates rather than greater depths and distances from shore recommended by the Commission.
                    </P>
                    <P>Given that the densities remain unchanged, re-estimating the number of takes for this final rule was not required.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 22 (6, 7):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS work with the Navy to derive harbor seal and bottlenose dolphin density estimates for both within San Diego Bay and the SSTC area based on sightings data from the numerous monitoring reports available, while also considering the area beyond the Coronado Bridge in San Diego Bay.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The Navy has derived densities for bottlenose dolphin for the SSTC, located south of the entrance to San Diego Bay (see figure 6-53 in the Density Technical Report). The Navy recognizes that in addition to the regularly occurring California sea lion, other marine mammal species, such as harbor seal and common bottlenose dolphin occasionally enter San Diego Bay; however, those species tend to remain near the mouth of the Bay, with only a few moving farther into the Bay. The planned activities involving in-water sound sources within San Diego Bay occur well into the Bay, typically south of the Coronado Bridge, and do not include pile driving. The monitoring report for the Naval Base Point Loma Pier 302 Replacement Project (available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/action/incidental-take-authorization-naval-base-point-loma-pier-302-replacement-project</E>
                        ) cited by the Commission reported observation of 1 bottlenose dolphin and 13 harbor seals over 181 observer hours. It is not unusual for individuals of both species that occur in nearshore waters to be sighted at the mouth of San Diego Bay near Point Loma. The Naval Base San Diego (NBSD) Pier 6 Replacement Project monitoring report (available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/action/incidental-take-authorization-naval-base-san-diego-pier-6-replacement-project-san-diego</E>
                        ) recorded species during two IHA periods over approximately 15 months (October 2021-January 2023). Only two harbor seals were observed over 450 monitoring days under the first IHA and no harbor seals were observed over 88 monitoring days under the second IHA. These few observations are not indicative of regular occurrence in the central or southern part of San Diego Bay and do not support the need for a density estimate in San Diego Bay.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The report also shows 86 bottlenose dolphin observations under the first IHA and 0 bottlenose dolphin observations under the second IHA 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58825"/>
                        (table 3-3). The report qualifies the total number of observations by quantifying re-sightings in table 3-5 (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         sightings of the same individual multiple times based on identifiable markings on dorsal fins (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         cuts, scrapes, shape, 
                        <E T="03">etc.</E>
                        )). The data indicate approximately 72 percent of individuals observed were resights. Table 3-12 in the report shows that bottlenose dolphins were only sighted in January, February, and March of 2022 and were not sighted during any other month. Monitoring also occurred in January 2023 with zero bottlenose dolphin observations; however, no monitoring occurred in February or March of 2023. It is possible that the occurrence in San Diego Bay from January to March of 2022 was an anomaly; the report noted that bottlenose dolphins were not expected to occur in San Diego Bay at all. Observer bias may have also contributed to the increased sightings, as noted in section 3.2.2 of the report, which discussed a similar trend in observations of California sea lions.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Commission references 15 IHAs issued to the Navy in the last decade, but aside from the two noted above, the Commission does not clearly state which other projects are referenced. The non-systematic observations reported in the monitoring reports mentioned previously do not support robust density estimates for San Diego Bay. Additional data would be required to better quantify abundance and seasonal occurrence in the bay to support a density estimate.</P>
                    <P>Therefore, given their occasional presence and the limitations of the observational data, the Navy did not develop density estimates for harbor seal and bottlenose dolphin specific to San Diego Bay for the HCTT EIS/OEIS, and NMFS concurs such density estimates are not necessary.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 23 (ref 8):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS work with the Navy to derive the California sea lion density estimates south of the Coronado Bridge based on sightings data from the numerous monitoring reports rather than Graham and Saunders (2015).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         While the observations of California sea lions during pier replacement activities at NBSD confirm the presence of sea lions south of the Coronado Bridge, the observations were not based on line transect surveys unlike the data reported by Graham and Saunders (2015). Naval Facilities Engineering Command Southwest (2024) reported 237 observations over 493 monitor days, or 0.48 animals per day, and also acknowledged that the observations included repeat sightings (approximately 26 percent of individuals), making the data less useful for estimating densities. As with the bottlenose dolphin sightings, the report noted that sightings of California sea lions increased substantially in January, February, and March of 2022, and the increase was likely due to the presence of additional observers. This suggests a bias in the data that limits its usefulness for deriving densities representative of species distribution and occurrence. These non-systematic observations reported in both in the Naval Facilities Engineering Command Southwest (2024) monitoring report do not support robust density estimates for south and central San Diego Bay. Additional data would be required to better quantify abundance and seasonal occurrence in the bay to support a density estimate. Furthermore, the proposed military readiness activities in San Diego Bay do not include pile driving or other sound-producing activities that would require a density for analysis.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 24 (ref 9):</E>
                         The Commission noted the following points related to the pinniped densities provided in the Density Technical Report. The Commission recommended that NMFS work with the Navy to revise the Density Technical Report to clarify and address these points since the densities will inform the numbers of takes for the final rule and other incidental take authorizations for activities conducted by the Navy and other applicants.
                    </P>
                    <P>• The Navy stated that, on average, post-partum female northern fur seals spent 180 hours in the water for every 40 hours on land, equating to 78 percent of time in the water, which equated to 78 percent of adult females being in the water from June through November. The in-water percentage would be 82 rather than 78 percent.</P>
                    <P>• The Navy incorrectly identified the various in-water percentages for California sea lions in Table 9-25 as haul-out correction factors in the table heading and underlying text. The heading and text should indicate that those are indeed in-water percentages, similar to table 9-20 for harbor seals.</P>
                    <P>• The Navy did not include the California sea lion juveniles and pups specified in table 9-25 in the non-breeding season abundance estimate for the California breeding strata. Juveniles and pups should be included in the abundance estimate as was done for the breeding season density.</P>
                    <P>• The Navy specified that the in-water percentages for Steller sea lions were correction factors for estimation of the in-water abundances. The percentages should be specified as in-water percentages rather than correction factors, similar to harbor seals.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Regarding the Commission's first point, Antonelis 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1990) states that the average foraging trip was 180.6 hours (standard deviation (SD) = 37 hours) and the average time on land was 39.6 hours (SD = 10 hours). The Navy interpreted that as a ratio of 40 hours on land to 180 hours in water or 40:180 = 40/180 = 22 percent on land (78 percent in water). The Navy acknowledges a different interpretation of the source is reasonable, but notes that any difference in the resulting percentages (78 percent vs. 82 percent) is within the range of the SD in both measurements. As such, the Navy has not adjusted the percentage, and NMFS concurs no adjustment is warranted.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding the Commission's second and fourth points, the Navy changed the heading on table 9-25 in the Density Technical Report and adjusted related text on correction factors in the sections on California sea lions and Steller sea lions and in the revised Density Technical Report. NMFS concurs with this change.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the Commission's third point, the abundance estimate used to calculate densities for the non-breeding season was based on the total stock abundance and therefore considered all lifestages, even though they were not specifically called out in the calculation. The in-water percentages reported in table 9-25 were based on data on haulout behavior for each lifestage, but not all percentages were used to calculate densities. For example, for the non-breeding season female pups were effectively assigned the in-water percentage of 75 percent characteristic of adult females, but used for all females, rather than the 34 percent in-water percentage representing pup haulout behavior. Using this approach helped to simplify the calculation somewhat but also resulted in a more conservative density estimate. Also, the abundance used was based on data reported by Hernández-Camacho 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2021) and exceeded the current abundance for the California Stock reported in the SAR. As such, no change is warranted.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Mitigation</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 25 (ref 32-1):</E>
                         A commenter recommended that NMFS expand the exclusion and shutdown zones to reflect what the author suggests is “current science on behavioral harassment thresholds.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The comment is vague, and the commenter does not provide citations or otherwise support the assertion that the proposed zones do not adequately reflect current science. The mitigation zones and the shutdown 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58826"/>
                        requirements included in the proposed rule and this final rule considered the current science regarding behavioral response, as well as practicability for implementation. The practicability assessment criteria are described in table 5-1 of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 26 (ref 33):</E>
                         A commenter stated that for mitigation areas to effectively protect marine mammals they must be properly sited, and the management objectives for each mitigation area must be based on best available scientific information. The commenter stated, when uncertainty exists and options are proposed that risk overprotection or underprotection, the MMPA requires the permitting agency to consider “whether the precautionary approach would give more protection to marine mammals, and then whether that protection would impede military training to a degree making that mitigation not practicable.” 
                        <E T="03">Natural Resources Defense Council</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Pritzker,</E>
                         828 F.3d 1125, 1138 (9th Cir. 2016). The commenter stated that the final rulemaking should reflect that consideration to the extent that NMFS intends to adopt it for purposes of MMPA authorization.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         NMFS concurs that for mitigation areas to effectively protect marine mammals, they must be properly sited and management objectives for each must be based on best available scientific information. A full technical analysis of the mitigation areas is provided in appendix K (Geographic Mitigation Assessment) of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS. A complete discussion of the Action Proponents' evaluation process used to develop, assess, and select mitigation measures, can also be found in chapter 5 (Mitigation) of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS. NMFS has reviewed the information contained therein and finds that it reflects the best available science. Supporting documents include peer-reviewed articles; scientific committee reports; cruise reports or transects; books, government reports, or non-governmental organization (NGO) reports; and notes, abstracts, and conference proceedings. NMFS independently analyzed the mitigation areas and found these geographic mitigation areas are both practicable and will reduce the likelihood, magnitude, or severity of adverse impacts to marine mammals or their habitat in the manner described in the Action Proponents' analysis and this rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We acknowledge that the Ninth Circuit opinion stated that NMFS “should have considered whether `the precautionary approach' would give more protection to marine mammals, and then whether that protection would impede military training to a degree making that mitigation not practicable.” 
                        <E T="03">Pritzker,</E>
                         828 F.3d at 1138. However, taken in the context of the Court's full discussion, we read the Ninth Circuit's use of the term “the precautionary approach” as specifically referring to the recommendations in the White Paper for designating Offshore Biologically Important Areas (OBIAs) in “data-poor” regions of the ocean (described therein as a precautionary approach for designating OBIAs), rather than a broader mandate to adopt a “precautionary approach” in carrying out the requirements of the MMPA. Accordingly, we disagree with the commenter's interpretation of the MMPA and 
                        <E T="03">Pritzker</E>
                         case. As we explained in the preamble of our 2019 incidental take regulations for Surveillance Towed Array Sensor System LFA training and testing in the North Pacific Ocean and Eastern Indian Ocean (84 FR 40132, August 13, 2019), NMFS' interpretation of the Ninth Circuit's opinion is based on the fact that neither the MMPA, 16 U.S.C. 1361 
                        <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                         nor NMFS' implementing regulations, 50 CFR part 216, subpart I, include express references to, or requirements for, the precautionary approach, nor is there a clear, agreed-upon description of what the precautionary approach is or would entail in the context of the MMPA or any specific activity.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The MMPA by nature is inherently protective, including the requirement to mitigate to the lowest level practicable (“least” practicable adverse impacts, or “LPAI,” on species or stocks and their habitat). To fulfill that requirement, NMFS considers all measures that we are reasonably aware of (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         from recommendations or review of data) that have the potential to reduce impacts on marine mammal species or stocks, their habitat, or subsistence uses of those stocks. The extent to which the mitigation areas reduce impacts on the affected species is addressed in the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section of this rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 27 (ref 67):</E>
                         A commenter stated that the Navy does not incorporate stand-off distances of any size within its requirements for mitigation areas. Thus, activities that are otherwise restricted or limited within a mitigation area could occur directly along the boundary and ensonify the area at levels capable of causing injury or increasing the risk or severity of behavioral disruption. The commenter recommended that Navy consider establishing stand-off distances around its mitigation areas to the greatest extent practicable, allowing for variability in size given the location of the mitigation area, the type of operation at issue, and the species of concern.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The mitigation areas included in the final rule and described in chapter 5 (Mitigation) of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS represent the maximum mitigation within mitigation areas and the maximum size of mitigation areas that are practicable for the Action Proponents to implement under their specified activity. The Action Proponents have asserted, and NMFS concurs with the assessment, that implementing additional mitigation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         stand-off distances that would extend the size of the mitigation areas) beyond what is included in the final rule is impracticable due to implications for safety, sustainability, and the Action Proponents' ability to continue meeting their mission requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>When practicable, NMFS sometimes recommends the inclusion of buffers around areas specifically delineated to contain certain important habitat or high densities of certain species, to allow for further reduced effects on specifically identified features/species. However, buffers are not typically considered necessary or appropriate in combination with more generalized and inclusive measures, such as coastal offsets or other areas that are intended to broadly contain important features for a multitude of species. In the case of this rulemaking, NMFS and the Action Proponents have included an extensive array of broad protective areas that will reduce impacts on numerous species and habitats (including additions to what was described in the proposed rule) and, as described above, limitations in additional areas is not practicable.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 28 (ref 34):</E>
                         A commenter stated that new scientific information could be incorporated into the design of mitigation areas, specifically referencing Houser 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024) and Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024). The commenter stated that they can inform which types of acoustic sources to limit in mitigation areas important to particular species, and the size of the stand-off distances to apply to those areas.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The mitigation measures in this rule are informed by multiple factors, including the sensitivity of certain hearing groups to certain sound sources (informed by the Phase IV criteria and thresholds) and vulnerability to other threats (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         vessel strike). The Phase IV criteria and thresholds incorporate data from Houser 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024), and as such, the mitigation areas in the proposed rule and final rule inherently consider those data. While 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58827"/>
                        the Phase IV criteria and thresholds do not incorporate data from Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024), they include delphinid response data from other studies, and the potential responses observed in Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024) occurred at received levels and distances assessed for potentially significant behavioral responses in the HCTT analysis. The commenter did not provide specific mitigation recommendations that may stem from the publications they reference. However, NMFS has responded to other mitigation recommendations from the commenter in separate responses herein and has explained that it has determined that the Action Proponents' planned mitigation measures would effect the least practicable adverse impact on the affected species and their habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 29 (ref 73):</E>
                         A commenter recommended that NMFS should consider requiring compensatory mitigation for the adverse impacts of the permitted activity on marine mammals and their habitat that cannot be prevented or mitigated.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Compensatory mitigation is not required under the MMPA. Instead, authorizations must include means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact from the activities on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, which this rule has done through the required procedural and geographic area mitigation measures. Also, the commenter did not recommend any specific measures, rendering it impossible to consider its recommendation at a broader level.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 30 (ref 69):</E>
                         A commenter recommended further research and exploration of the feasibility of signal modification, including converting up-sweeps to down-sweeps, reducing the level of the side bands, or lengthening the rise time. The 2024 HCTT Draft EIS/OEIS considered, but rejected, modification of active sonar sources for training as part of a potential mitigation measure (“26. Reducing annual active sonar hours, replacing active sonar, with passive sonar or modifying active sonar sources for training”), deeming it impractical for achieving the mission. The commenter stated that the rationale provided in the 2024 HCTT Draft EIS/OEIS does not clearly justify why signal modifications alone would be impractical. The commenter states that some of those modifications, such as converting up-sweeps to down-sweeps, would not alter the system's spectral output in any way. The commenter stated that it believes source modification requires greater validation across species and in more behavioral contexts before any decisions are made to alter signals—but, given the preliminary data, and given the potential of this measure to reduce the instances and severity of behavioral harassment, it urges NMFS to elevate that research with the Navy.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Active sonar signals are designed explicitly to provide optimum performance at detecting underwater objects (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         submarines) in a variety of acoustic environments. The Action Proponents train with various active sonar signals, including up-sweeps and down-sweeps, to accurately replicate operational scenarios. Reducing training realism by restricting the signal used would ultimately prevent units from deploying with the required level of readiness necessary to accomplish their missions and impede the Action Proponents' ability to certify forces to deploy to meet national security tasking. Likewise, testing program requirements include test parameters designed to accurately determine whether a system is meeting its operational and performance requirements. Reducing realism by restricting the signal used would impact the ability of researchers, program managers, and weapons system acquisition programs to effectively test systems and platforms (and components of these systems and platforms) before full-scale production or delivery to the fleet. For these reasons, the Navy has determined, and NMFS concurs, that modifying or limiting the sonar signal as mitigation is impractical to implement as it would result in degraded realism of training and testing.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        NMFS and the Navy will explore whether future studies on the efficacy and practicality of signal modification are appropriate in consideration of other ongoing research efforts, including some recommended by the commenter (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         thermal detection). However, at this time, given the numerous other research priorities and established impracticality, NMFS is not requiring the Action Proponents to investigate the efficacy of signal modification.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 31 (70):</E>
                         A commenter asserted that mitigation measures based on visual observation (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         by Lookouts), such as safety zone maintenance, results in highly limited risk reduction for most species and under most conditions. The commenter stated that NMFS should require infrared and thermal detection technologies as alternative detection measures for mitigation and monitoring, stating that these technologies have achieved a readiness level that is capable of supporting monitoring and mitigation during Phase IV military readiness activities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Lookouts remain an important component of the Action Proponents' mitigation strategy, especially as it relates to minimizing exposure to the more harmful impacts that may occur within closer proximity to the source, where Lookouts are most effective. As stated by the commenter, thermal detection technologies have advanced in recent years. However, significant limitations still exist, and the technology has not yet reached the level of performance needed for deployment during military readiness activities for mitigation uses. Current technologies are limited by: (1) low sensor resolution and a narrow field of view; (2) reduced performance in certain environmental conditions; and (3) high cost and uncertain long-term reliability.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Thermal detection systems are more useful for detecting marine mammals in some marine environments than others. Current technologies have limitations regarding water temperature and survey conditions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         rain, fog, sea state, glare, ambient brightness), for which further effectiveness studies are required. Thermal detection systems are generally thought to be most effective in cold environments, which have a large temperature differential between an animal's temperature and the environment. Current thermal detection systems have proven more effective at detecting large whale blows than the bodies of small animals, particularly at a distance. The effectiveness of current technologies has not been demonstrated for small marine mammals at-sea (noting that Richter 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2023) demonstrated efficacy in detecting killer whales in the Salish Sea using land-based thermal imaging systems). Thermal detection systems exhibit varying degrees of false positive detections (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         incorrect notifications) due in part to their low sensor resolution and reduced performance in certain environmental conditions. False positive detections may incorrectly identify other features (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         birds, waves, boats) as marine mammals (Boebel and Zitterbart, 2017; Zitterbart 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Thermal detection systems for military applications are deployed on various Department of Defense (DoD) platforms. These systems were initially developed for nighttime targeting and object detection such as a boat, vehicle, or people and are not optimized for marine mammal detections versus object detection, nor do these systems have the automated marine mammal detection algorithms the Navy is testing via its ongoing research program. The Action Proponents do not have available personnel to add Lookouts to use thermal detection systems in tandem 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58828"/>
                        with existing Lookouts who are using traditional observation techniques.
                    </P>
                    <P>Existing specialized DoD infrared/thermal capabilities on Navy aircraft and surface ships are designed for fine-scale targeting. Viewing arcs of these thermal systems are narrow and focused on a target area. Furthermore, sensors are typically used only in select training events and have a limited lifespan before requiring expensive replacement. Some sensor elements can cost upward of $300,000 to $500,000 per device, so their use is predicated on a distinct military need.</P>
                    <P>The Office of Naval Research sponsored a project from 2019 to 2023 titled “Development of the Next Generation Automatic Surface Whale Detection System for Marine Mammal Mitigation and Distribution Estimation.” The aim of the project was to develop a system to be used by non-experts, with minimal installation requirements, applying algorithms to reliably detect, localize, and identify surfaced marine mammals from a vessel, while minimizing false detections. In 2024, the project transitioned to the Navy's Living Marine Resources Program, the applied research, development, test, and evaluation (RDT&amp;E) program that funds Navy driven research needs to support at-sea compliance and permitting. Thermal Imaging for Vessel Strike Mitigation on Autonomous Vessels (Project #LMR-68) will focus on adapting and testing two existing and proven thermal imaging-based whale detection systems to reduce the potential for vessel strike during navigation of unmanned Navy surface vessels.</P>
                    <P>
                        When infrared and thermal mitigation technologies mature to the state where they are determined to be sufficiently effective at mitigating marine mammal impacts when considering the range of environmental conditions analogous to where the Action Proponents train and test and the species that could co-occur in space and time with the activities, then the Action Proponents will assess their compatibility with military readiness applications on both manned and unmanned vessels. This would include a practicality assessment of the budget and acquisition process (including costs associated with designing, building, installing, maintaining, and manning equipment), the logistical and physical considerations for retrofitting platforms with the appropriate equipment and their associated maintenance, repairs, or replacements (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         conducting engineering studies to ensure compatibility with existing shipboard systems), the resource considerations for training personnel to effectively operate the equipment, and the potential security and classification issues. New system integration on Action Proponents' assets can entail up to 5-10 years of effort to account for acquisition, engineering studies, and development and execution of systems training.
                    </P>
                    <P>Given the assessment above, this final rule does not require the Action Proponents to utilize thermal detection for mitigating training and testing impacts on marine mammals. As thermal detection technology improves and practicability of applying the technology for training and testing activities is further assessed, NMFS will consider whether requirements to utilize thermal detection for mitigating impacts to marine mammals is appropriate.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 32 (ref 24, 72):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS require the Navy to use its instrumented ranges and sonobuoys to localize marine mammals and implement the relevant mitigation measures during active acoustic events and to take a harder look at the technologies that the Canadian Department of National Defense (DND) uses during its at-sea activities and incorporate those technologies accordingly for other Phase IV LOA applications. The Commission cites the Lookout Effectiveness Study (Oedekoven and Thomas, 2022) in support of its recommendation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In a related comment, a commenter stated that the Navy has substantial capability, at both SOAR and PMRF, to detect, identify, localize, and track various cetacean species in real time, citing that the capability has been used to support behavioral response studies in both locations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Helble 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015; Kates Varghese 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020; Jacobson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). Yet, the Navy claims that using passive acoustic range instrumentation for mitigation purposes is still in a research and development stage “not sufficiently beneficial” (2024 HCTT Draft EIS/OEIS at 5-33, table 5-20). However, scientific studies have used that instrumentation for exactly these types of purposes, and the methodologies undertaken—while continually evolving—do not require more research and development before they can be used to support the mitigation of acoustic, explosive, and vessel-related stressors. The commenter states that NMFS should require use of what is plainly a viable form of mitigation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The Action Proponents intend to continue to use passive acoustic monitoring (PAM) prior to activities involving explosive sonobuoys and explosive torpedoes, and during sinking exercises (SINKEX). During the use of active acoustics, Navy assets with PAM capabilities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         sonobuoys) that are already participating in an activity will continue to monitor for marine mammals, as described in section 5.6 (Activity-based Mitigations) of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS. However, the fluidity and nature of military readiness activities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         fast-paced and mobile readiness evolutions), as well as the limitations of these monitoring capabilities, make it impractical for passive acoustic devices to be used as precise real-time indicators of marine mammal location for mitigation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         active sonar power downs or shutdowns, ceasing use of explosives) without an accompanying visual sighting. While we acknowledge that the Lookout Effectiveness Study suggests that detection of marine mammals is less certain than previously assumed at certain distances, we disagree with the assertion that the use of Lookouts has been shown to be wholly ineffective. Lookouts remain an important component of the Action Proponents' mitigation strategy, especially as it relates to minimizing exposure to the more harmful impacts that may occur within closer proximity to the source, where Lookouts are most effective.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Navy asserts that its instrumented ranges do not have the capabilities to be used effectively for mitigation. The range hydrophones cannot track animals with any granularity and can only detect whether animals are present in a general area. Most notably, there is not a real-time feed of hydrophone data to vessel and aircraft operators. Further, animals are almost always present on the ranges, therefore expending the resources to notify exercise participants is not necessary. Given these practicability issues and expected ineffectiveness, NMFS concludes that these suggested measures are not practicable and is not requiring the Action Proponents to utilize its passive acoustic range instrumentation for mitigating impacts to marine mammals. Please see section 5.5.3 (Active and Passive Acoustic Monitoring Devices) of the 2018 HSTT EIS/OEIS.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Action Proponents and NMFS have considered and will continue to study the Canadian DND project, including the technologies used during at-sea activities; however, NMFS disagrees that such a requirement is warranted in this final rule. As more information from the Canadian DND project becomes available, the Action Proponents and NMFS may reconsider whether additional requirements are needed.
                        <PRTPAGE P="58829"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 33 (ref 25):</E>
                         The Commission strongly recommended that NMFS require the Navy to use PAM prior to and during activities involving ship shock trials in the final rule, consistent with explosive sonobuoys, explosive torpedoes, and sinking exercises. The Commission notes that since mission effectiveness would not be impacted, the measures are considered practicable, and their implementation would reduce the potential for the most lethal marine mammal impacts.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Consistent with the proposed rule, this final rule requires the Navy to use PAM prior to and during activities involving explosive sonobuoys and explosive torpedoes, and during sinking exercises when passive acoustic devices are already being used during weapon firing. For ship shock trials, while use of sonobuoys would not affect the ship shock trial, PAM from a 2001 ship shock trial for the Churchill full ship shock trial was considered ineffective (Clarke and Norman, 2005). As such, and given the significant expense associated with implementing PAM for ship shock trials, NMFS is not requiring the Navy to conduct PAM prior to and during ship shock trials.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 34 (ref 26):</E>
                         The Commission strongly recommended that NMFS require the Navy to use passive acoustic devices (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         directional frequency analysis and recording (DIFAR) and other types of passive sonobuoys, operational hydrophones) prior to explosive bombing exercises and air-to-surface and surface-to-surface explosive missile and rocket exercises to detect marine mammals and implement the necessary mitigation measures in the final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The Navy employs PAM to supplement visual monitoring when practicable to do so (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         when assets that have PAM capabilities are already participating in the activity). For explosive events in which there are no platforms participating that have PAM capabilities, adding PAM capability for mitigation, either by adding a PAM device (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         hydrophone) to a platform already participating in the activity or by adding a platform with integrated PAM capabilities to the activity (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a sonobuoy), is not practicable.
                    </P>
                    <P>The type of aircraft that conduct these bombing, missile, and rocket exercises do not have the capability to deploy and employ sonobuoys. The Action Proponents state that diverting platforms that have PAM capabilities would impact their ability to meet their Title 10 requirements and reduce the service life of those systems. The Action Proponents additionally state that there are significant manpower and logistical constraints that make constructing and maintaining additional PAM systems or platforms for additional training and testing activities impracticable. Given the impracticality of such a measure, NMFS has found that this measure is not warranted, and it is not required in this final rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 35 (ref 31, 32-2):</E>
                         A commenter recommended that NMFS prohibit high-intensity acoustic and explosive activities in BIAs during breeding, calving, or nursing seasons. Another commenter stated that training places should also be limited and not take place in marine protected areas or sensitive habitats.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         This final rule includes extensive mitigation measures in BIAs, including reproductive BIAs that are important for breeding, calving, and/or nursing. In Hawaii, mitigation in the Hawaii Island Marine Mammal Mitigation Area and Hawaii 4-Islands Marine Mammal Mitigation Area (including an expansion of this mitigation area since publication of the proposed rule as described in the Changes from the Proposed Rule to the Final Rule section), as well as the Hawaii Humpback Whale Awareness Messages, are designed to protect marine mammals in sensitive habitats, including reproductive habitat for humpback whales, and to protect small and resident marine mammal populations. In California, the Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Area, Central California Large Whale Mitigation Area, Southern California Blue Whale Mitigation Area, California Large Whale Awareness Messages, California Large Whale Real-time Notification Mitigation Area, and San Nicolas Island Pinniped Haulout Mitigation Area are designed to protect marine mammals in sensitive habitats, including foraging, migratory, and calving habitats for large whales, and from more severe impacts (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         auditory injury, vessel strike). Please see the 
                        <E T="03">Geographic Mitigation Areas</E>
                         section of this final rule for additional detail about the restrictions within these mitigation areas and the benefits they provide to marine mammals.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Action Proponents have asserted, and NMFS concurs with the assessment, that implementing additional mitigation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         expanded mitigation areas) beyond what is included in the final rule is impracticable due to implications for safety, sustainability, and the Action Proponents' ability to continue meeting their mission requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 36 (ref 22a):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS include the San Nicolas Island Mitigation Area in the final rule, limit the number of sonar hours combined to no more than 300 hours of mid-frequency (MF)1 hull-mounted surface ship sonar combined for this mitigation area and the Southern California Blue Whale, the Central California Large Whale, and Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Areas from June 1 through November 30, and prohibit explosives (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         mine warfare, large-caliber gunnery rounds, torpedoes, bombs, and missiles) from June 1 through November 30. The Commission states that the current core feeding BIA for blue whales (figure K-19 in the 2024 HCTT Draft EIS/OEIS and figure 2 in Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024)) overlaps the San Nicolas Island Mitigation Area that was part of the litigation settlement agreement in 2015 for 
                        <E T="03">Conservation Council for Hawaii</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">National Marine Fisheries Service,</E>
                         as well as the Phase III HSTT EIS/OEIS and associated rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The Action Proponents assert that, due to the inclusion of Point Mugu Sea Range activities in the specified activities, it is impractical to continue mitigation in the former San Nicolas Island Mitigation Area and to extend the temporal restrictions beyond the 5 months already proposed. Doing so would modify military readiness activities in a way that would prevent them from meeting mission objectives and hinder Navy ability to realistically train and test in furtherance of its statutory mandate. See table 5-1 of the HCTT EIS/OEIS for examples. NMFS agrees that the suggested measures are not practicable in light of the military readiness impacts, as explained further below.
                    </P>
                    <P>Of note, the portion of the blue whale core feeding BIA that overlaps the recommended San Nicolas Island Mitigation Area would be extremely small in comparison to the full BIA. Over 38 percent (38.41) of the core blue whale feeding BIA overlaps the Northern California Large Whale and Central California Large Whale Mitigation Areas, and the mitigation in these areas will reduce impacts that could result in lost feeding opportunities. Over 42 percent (42.35 percent) of the BIA is outside of the HCTT Study Area.</P>
                    <P>
                        Please see NMFS' response to 
                        <E T="03">Comment 37</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">Comment 38</E>
                         regarding extension of the Southern California Blue Whale, Central California Large Whale, and Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Areas through November 30.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 37 (ref 22b, 36, 37, 38):</E>
                         A commenter recommended that NMFS extend the seasonality of the Southern 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58830"/>
                        California Blue Whale Mitigation Area to April 1 to December 31, as combined scientific evidence from sightings data and passive acoustic detections show that blue whales are present off southern California almost year-round and at relatively higher densities from April 1 through December 31. The commenter also recommended that NMFS limit all sources of MFAS and require seasonal and/or dynamic vessel speed restrictions within the mitigation area.
                    </P>
                    <P>In a related comment, the Commission recommended that NMFS extend the timing restrictions from October 31 to November 30 for the Southern California Blue Whale, Central California Large Whale, and Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Areas in the final rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Regarding the recommendation to extend the seasonality of the Southern California Blue Whale Mitigation Area to April 1 to December 31 or November 30 as recommended by the commenter and the Commission, respectively, the Action Proponents assert that extending the temporal restrictions beyond the period of June 1 through October 31 included in the proposed rule would be impractical because it would modify military readiness activities in a way that would prevent them from meeting mission objectives and hinder Navy ability to realistically train and test in furtherance of its statutory mandate. See table 5-1 of the HCTT EIS/OEIS for examples. Further, the revised blue whale core feeding area identified by Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024) is effective from June through November, and the Southern California Blue Whale Mitigation Area is already effective from June 1 through October 31 (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         all but 1 month that the BIA is in effect). Given the practicality issues, NMFS is not requiring the Action Proponents to extend the effective period of this mitigation area. Please see NMFS' response to 
                        <E T="03">Comment 38</E>
                         for a response to the Commission's recommendation pertaining to the Central California Large Whale and Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Areas.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding the recommendation to limit all sources of MFAS within the mitigation area, the Action Proponents assert that increasing the active sonar restrictions beyond what is already proposed would be impractical because it would modify military readiness activities in a way that would prevent them from meeting mission objectives and hinder Navy ability to realistically train and test in furtherance of its statutory mandate. See table 5-1 of the HCTT EIS/OEIS for examples. Other training and testing MFAS systems are likely to be used less frequently in the vicinity of the Southern California Blue Whale Mitigation Area than surface ship hull-mounted MFAS for which the mitigation area contains restrictions. Given water depths, the Southern California Blue Whale Mitigation Area is not conducive for large scale anti-submarine warfare exercises, nor is it near areas where other anti-submarine warfare training and testing occurs. However, due to the presence of existing Navy subareas in the vicinity of the southern part of the Southern California Blue Whale Mitigation Area, a limited amount of helicopter dipping MFAS could occur. These designated range areas are required for proximity to airfields in San Diego such as Naval Air Station North Island and for airspace management. However, helicopters only used these areas for a Kilo Dip. A Kilo Dip is a functional check of approximately one to two pings of active sonar to confirm the system is operational before the helicopter heads to more remote offshore training areas. This ensures proper system operation and avoids loss of limited training time, expenditure of fuel, and cumulative engine use in the event of equipment malfunction. The potential effects of dipping sonar have been accounted for in the Navy's analysis. Further, due to lower power settings for dipping sonar, potential impact ranges of dipping sonar are significantly lower than surface ship sonars, and during a Kilo Dip or any other use of MFAS, the Action Proponents will implement the activity-based mitigation measures.</P>
                    <P>Regarding the recommendation to require seasonal and/or dynamic vessel speed restrictions within the mitigation area, the Action Proponents assert that such restrictions are not practicable based on safety, sustainability, and mission criteria. NMFS has reviewed the analysis of these additional suggested restrictions and the impacts they would have on military readiness and concurs with the Navy's assessment that they are impracticable (see row 16 of table 5-20 in chapter 5 of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS). Of note, in a review of Navy unpublished data, the multi-year average of U.S. Navy surface ship speeds on the continental shelf off California is between 10-15 knots (kn) (18.5-27.8 km/hr). In addition to the practicality concerns, none of the known vessel strikes by the Action Proponents in the HCTT Study Area have occurred in the Southern California Blue Whale Mitigation Area, suggesting that risk of vessel strike by the Action Proponents in this area is relatively low in comparison to other parts of the Study Area. As such, given the practicality concerns and the limited risk of vessel strike within the mitigation area, this final rule does not require speed restrictions in the Southern California Blue Whale Mitigation Area. However, activity-based mitigation for manned surface vessels requires maneuvering vessels to maintain a specified distance from marine mammals, which may include reducing speed.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 38 (refs 39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45):</E>
                         A commenter recommended that NMFS extend the seasonality of the Central California Large Whale Mitigation Area to April 1st to December 31st to reflect that aggregations of humpback whales occur off central California through December and that blue whales arrive in the region as early as April. The commenter further recommended that NMFS prohibit use of dipping sonar, restrict other sources of MFAS, prohibit use of low-frequency active sonar (LFAS), prohibit the use of in-water explosives, and require vessel speed restrictions. In a related comment, a commenter recommended that NMFS enhance the mitigation measures in the Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Area to align with those proposed for the Central California Large Whale Mitigation Area.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Regarding the commenter's recommendation to extend the seasonality of the Central California Large Whale and Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Areas to April 1st to December 31 or November 30 as recommended by the commenter and the Commission, respectively, the Action Proponents assert that extending the temporal restrictions beyond the five months already proposed would be impractical because it would modify military readiness activities in a way that would prevent them from meeting mission objectives and hinder the Action Proponents' abilities to realistically train and test in furtherance of their statutory mandates. See table 5-1 of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS for examples.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding active sonar sources, the Action Proponents anticipate that use of dipping sonar in the Central California Large Whale and Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Areas will be infrequent relative to other portions of the California Study Area, given the distance of the mitigation areas from airfields with helicopters that would use dipping sonar. Further, other than hull-mounted MFAS, for which this mitigation areas already include a restriction, and dipping sonar, the Action Proponents anticipate that use of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58831"/>
                        MFAS in the Central California Large Whale and Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Areas will be infrequent relative to other portions of the California Study Area. Similarly, the Action Proponents anticipate that use of LFAS and explosives in the Central California Large Whale and Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Areas will be infrequent relative to other portions of the California Study Area. As such, restrictions on the already low use of these sources within the mitigation areas would not provide sufficient benefits to marine mammals, and are not required by this final rule. However, this rule includes activity-based mitigation for all active sonar and explosive activities.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding the recommendation to require vessel speed restrictions within the mitigation areas, the Navy asserts that such restrictions are not practicable based on safety, sustainability, and mission criteria. NMFS has reviewed the analysis of these additional suggested restrictions and the impacts they would have on military readiness and concurs with the Navy's assessment that they are impracticable (see row 16 of table 5-20 in chapter 5 of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS). Of note, in a review of Navy unpublished data, the multi-year average of U.S. Navy surface ship speeds on the continental shelf off California is between 10-15 kn (18.5-27.8 km/hr). Given the practicality concerns, this final rule does not require speed restrictions in the Central California Large Whale and Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Areas. However, activity-based mitigation for manned surface vessels requires maneuvering vessels to maintain a specified distance from marine mammals, which may include reducing speed.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 39 (ref 47, 48):</E>
                         A commenter recommended that within the California Large Whale Awareness Message Mitigation Area, NMFS should require the Navy to issue awareness notifications for gray whales and fin whales during the timeframes when they are most likely to occur in the greatest densities, November through June, and June through November respectively. The commenter also recommended that NMFS require the Navy to use the dynamic species distribution models (SDMs) developed by the SWFSC and the WhaleWatch model predictions to inform their assets on where and when concentrations of whales are most likely to be present based on recent oceanographic conditions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The Action Proponents must broadcast awareness messages to alert applicable assets (and their Lookouts) transiting and training or testing off the U.S. West Coast to the possible presence of concentrations of large whales, including gray whales, fin whales, and mixed concentrations of blue, humpback, and fin whales that may occur based on predicted oceanographic conditions for a given year (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         May-November, April-November) and are intended to be temporally dynamic. The Navy currently releases two West Coast whale awareness messages per year, a fall message for gray and fin whales and a spring message for mixed concentrations of blue, humpback, and fin whales that may occur based on predicted oceanographic conditions for a given year. In this final rule and in response to comments relating to gray whales, the effective end date of the fall message has been extended from May, as included in the proposed rule, to June 30. The effective start date of the spring message is based upon oceanographic conditions and continues through November when the effective period of the BIAs identified by Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024) ends). While the commenter suggests that the awareness messages align directly to the BIAs, for the blue and fin whale message, NMFS and the Action Proponents agree that it is more appropriate to base this message upon oceanographic conditions, as fin whale or blue whale presence in the spring may vary from year-to-year.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Dynamic SDMs and WhaleSafe information inform the details included in the Navy's annual awareness messages. These models are not suitable to the small scale range sub-areas Navy vessels must operate in due to training and testing requirements, schedule deconfliction, and safety. Nor are the models suitable or available to vessels at sea due to satellite transmission bandwidth restrictions (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         limited internet access).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 40 (ref 49, 50, 51):</E>
                         A commenter recommended that within the California Large Whale Real-Time Notification Mitigation Area, NMFS require issuance of real-time notifications when one or more large whales are observed within 1 nmi (1.8 km) of a Navy vessel, and extend notifications to U.S. Coast Guard vessels performing or supporting Navy-related activities. The commenter also recommended that within the Mitigation Area, the Navy should be required to deploy unmanned acoustic gliders or fixed hydrophones with real-time acoustic detection capability, and to use both acoustic and visual detections to trigger real-time notifications. Last, the commenter stated that upon receipt of a real-time notification, Navy vessels and Coast Guard vessels engaged in training and testing activities should reduce or maintain vessel speeds at 10 kn (18.5 km/hr) until whales are no longer detected in the area either visually or acoustically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         This final rule includes a modification to the California Large Whale Real-Time Notification Mitigation Area. Rather than notifications being issued following observation of four or more large whales within 1 nmi (1.8 km), this final rule requires notifications to be issued following observation of three large whales within 1 nmi (1.8 km) of a Navy vessel. Individual large whale sightings within California are particularly common. The Navy reviewed sighting data from NMFS' SWFSC and Navy-funded researchers and determined that a group of four large whales might be indicative of unusual foraging or other life history events. However, following the additional strikes that have occurred since the 2025 HCTT proposed rule (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025), the Action Proponents are reducing this to three large whales. Strike risk from U.S. Coast Guard vessels is different from Navy vessels. Historic Coast Guard strikes were from smaller vessels mostly outside of the HCTT Study Area with none associated with combined Navy training. However, if Navy vessels are training in coordination with U.S. Coast Guard vessels, bridge-to-bridge radio will be used to disseminate these notifications. Of note, real-time PAM would not detect whales that are not vocalizing, and passive acoustic monitoring would only be indicative that whales are present but not of their location relative to Navy or Coast Guard vessels.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Please see NMFS' response to 
                        <E T="03">Comment 32</E>
                         regarding the recommendation to use both visual and passive acoustic monitoring platforms to detect whales and trigger awareness notification systems.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The dynamic vessel speed restrictions upon receipt of a real-time notification within the mitigation area are not practicable for the reasons discussed in response to 
                        <E T="03">Comment 50.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 41 (ref 52):</E>
                         A commenter stated that NMFS should carefully consider prohibiting major training exercises (MTE) or exercise components involving hull-mounted MFAS within the Hawai'i Island Marine Mammal Mitigation Area. The commenter states that if some major exercises absolutely cannot be avoided, the Navy should consider further reducing their number, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58832"/>
                        and, to the extent practicable, carry out each exercise in a different portion of the Hawai'i Island Marine Mammal Mitigation Area (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         one exercise in the north, one exercise in the south), to ensure that marine mammal populations with highly discrete site fidelity, as indicated by the designation of child small and resident BIAs, are not exposed to multiple MTEs within a single year.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         An MTE, for purposes of this rulemaking, consists of several unit-level activities conducted by several units operating together, commanded and controlled by a single Commander, and typically generating more than 100 hours of active sonar. The multiple units involved in an MTE would often be spread across the Hawaii Range Complex (HRC), and as such, there is rarely a concentration of sonar or other stressors in one area. Further, the individual activities that make up an MTE would not frequently occur within the Hawaii Island Marine Mammal Mitigation Area. The main Hawaii-based MTE, Rim of the Pacific (RIMPAC), occurs only every other year in the summer and outside of humpback whale breeding season. While all areas of HRC could be used for some sort of training during RIMPAC, the majority of sonar and explosive use generally, but not exclusively, occurs outside of the mitigation area. Mitigation within the Hawaii Island Marine Mammal Mitigation Area requires that the Action Proponents must not use more than 300 combined hours of MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted MFAS or 20 hours of helicopter dipping sonar (an MFAS source) annually within the mitigation area. This includes any combination of MTEs or unit level training. Additionally, explosive use in the Hawaii Island Marine Mammal Mitigation area is prohibited year-round.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 42 (ref 23, 35, 53, 54, 55, 56, 57, 58):</E>
                         A commenter recommended that NMFS extend the boundaries of the Hawaii 4-Islands Marine Mammal Mitigation Area to encompass the child small and resident BIAs for the endangered Main Hawaiian Islands Insular Distinct Population Segment (DPS) of false killer whales, including the northeast Kaiwi Channel. The commenter also recommended that NMFS extend the prohibition on the use of MF1 surface ship hull-mounted MFAS and LFAS in this area from December 1 through May 31 to align with the effective period of the BIA for humpback whales identified by Kratofil 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2023). Further, the commenter recommended that year-round, NMFS prohibit the use of dipping sonar and limit all other sources of MFAS. Last, the commenter recommended that NMFS require vessel speed restrictions between December 1 and May 31. In a related comment, the Commission recommended that NMFS include the core small and resident BIA areas off Oahu, Lanai, and Molokai in the Hawaii 4-Islands Mitigation Area, which prohibits use of MF1 hull-mounted surface ship sonar from November 15 to April 15 and in-water explosives year-round.
                    </P>
                    <P>In a related comment, a commenter stated that the HRC and Temporary Operating Area overlap with essential calving and breeding habitats. The commenter stated that to comply with MMPA intent, operations with high acoustic or explosive output should be prohibited during known sensitive periods for reproduction and nursing.</P>
                    <P>In a related comment, a commenter stated that the available scientific evidence on the impacts of dipping sonar on deep-dive rates in beaked whales (family Ziphiidae), indicates that management of this acoustic source should be expanded, including to areas representing important habitat for beaked whale species.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The Hawaii 4-Islands Marine Mammal Mitigation Area contains portions of nine updated BIAs (Kratofil 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023), including part of the false killer whale core small and resident BIA. This final rule includes an expansion of the Hawaii 4-Islands Mitigation Area, as recommended by the Commission and the commenter. The expanded area includes an additional portion (1,969 km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ) of the child small and resident BIA for the Main Hawaiian Islands Insular stock of false killer whale, while avoiding restrictions in the Kaiwi Channel between Oahu and Molokai, the Aloha Submarine Transit Lane, and Penguin Bank which are important for Navy's training and testing activities. This increases the portion of the child BIA overlapping the mitigation area from approximately 40 percent of the BIA as included in the proposed rule to 63 percent. Additionally, this final rule clarifies that the MFAS mitigation in this area and in the Hawaii Island Marine Mammal Mitigation Area includes both MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted MFAS. MF1C was inadvertently left out of the Action Proponents application and subsequently the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Action Proponents assert that further expanding the Mitigation Area would result in degraded training and testing realism. As stated in section K.3.3.3 of the HCTT EIS/OEIS, as it relates to anti-submarine warfare, the training value within the 4-Islands Region is much higher compared to other near shore environments within the HRC due to the challenging bathymetry. As such, NMFS is not requiring the Action Proponents to expand the spatial extent of the mitigation area to the full extent recommended by the commenter.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Action Proponents assert that extending the restrictions on active sonar or explosives, including limits or prohibition of MFAS and LFAS sources, in the Hawaii 4-Islands Marine Mammal Mitigation Area beyond that required by the proposed rule would be impractical because it would modify military readiness activities in a way that would prevent them from meeting mission objectives and inhibit their abilities to meet statutory mandates. Further restrictions on dipping sonar use would be impractical for the same reasons. However, the current geographic extent of the Hawaii Island Marine Mammal Mitigation Area wholly encompasses the most important portion (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         “child” portion of a hierarchical BIA) of the Blainville's beaked whale BIA, the vast majority of the most important portion of the goose-beaked whale BIA, and portions of both species' parent BIAs. Within this mitigation area, the Action Proponents must not use more than 20 hours of MF helicopter dipping sonar annually.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding the recommendation to require vessel speed restrictions within the mitigation area from December 1 through May 31, the Navy asserts that such restrictions are not practicable based on safety, sustainability, and mission criteria. NMFS has reviewed the analysis of these additional suggested restrictions and the impacts they would have on military readiness and concurs with the Navy's assessment that they are impracticable (see row 16 of table 5-20 in chapter 5 of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS). Of note, in a review of Navy unpublished data, the multi-year average of U.S. Navy surface ship speeds on the continental shelf off California is between 10-15 kn (18.5-27.8 km/hr). Given the practicality concerns, this final rule does not require speed restrictions in the Southern California Blue Whale Mitigation Area. However, activity-based mitigation for manned surface vessels requires maneuvering vessels to maintain a specified distance from marine mammals, which may include reducing speed.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 43 (ref 62, 63):</E>
                         A commenter described what it characterized as important beaked whale habitat in San Nicolas Basin, Santa Catalina Basin, and the southernmost edge of the California 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58833"/>
                        Current, west of Tanner and Cortez Banks. The commenter recommended that the Navy and NMFS convene a group of experts to develop a suite of mitigation measures “that are feasible for the Navy but would still reduce harm to individual beaked whales and the risk of population-level impacts” in the SOCAL Range Complex. The commenter recommended that, until that time, NMFS should require maintenance of the San Nicolas and Santa Barbara Mitigation Areas. The commenter also stated that without meaningful additional mitigation, it does not see how population-level harm would not occur or, ultimately, how a “negligible impact” finding under the MMPA could be reached with respect to the goose-beaked whale population associated with San Clemente Island.
                    </P>
                    <P>The commenter also recommended considering source-based approaches such as signal modification to mitigate impacts on goose-beaked whales and other frequently exposed populations.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         NMFS and the Navy have fully considered potential mitigation for all species of marine mammals throughout the HCTT Study Area, including beaked whales, and NMFS has determined that the mitigation included in this final rule will effect the least practicable adverse impact on the affected species and stocks and their habitat, as required by the MMPA.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Within San Nicolas Basin, there is a documented, recurring number of goose-beaked whales (Falcone 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009; Barlow 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021a, 2021b; Curtis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021) strongly indicating that the Navy's activities are not having a population-level impact to what may be a resident population of this species. This is supported by repeated visual re-sighting rates of individuals, sightings of calves and, more importantly, reproductive females, and passive acoustic assessments of steady vocalization rates and abundance over at least the most recent 7-year interval (Curtis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; Schorr 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As described in response to 
                        <E T="03">Comment 36,</E>
                         the Action Proponents assert that, due to the inclusion of Point Mugu Sea Range activities in the specified activities, it is impractical to continue mitigation in the former San Nicolas Island Mitigation Area. Doing so would modify military readiness activities in a way that would prevent them from meeting mission objectives and hinder Navy ability to realistically train and test in furtherance of its statutory mandate. See table 5-1 of the HCTT EIS/OEIS for examples. NMFS agrees with this assessment and is not requiring the Navy to continue the former San Nicolas Island Mitigation Area, consistent with the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Santa Barbara Island Mitigation Area was previously created to minimize impacts to blue whales and gray whales in identified BIAs (Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015), which have since been updated (Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024). Just a portion of the former Santa Barbara Island Mitigation Area area meets the scientifically accepted minimum depth criteria expected for beaked whale habitat, in Southern California, usually greater than 800 m. The bathymetric area greater than 800 m depth and within the Santa Barbara Island Mitigation Area is approximately 24 square nmi (nmi
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ) (26 percent of the total Mitigation Area spatial extent or only 0.02 percent of the total HSTT SOCAL area, which would represent an even smaller percentage of the California Study Area considered in this final rule). Beaked whale monitoring at other locations within SOCAL have shown that even in ocean basins thought to have a goose-beaked whale sub-population, there is still quite a bit of variation in occurrence and movement of beaked whales within a given basin (Schorr 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017, 2018, 2020). The small area around Santa Barbara Island is not known to have resident marine mammals, formally identified BIAs (or watch areas formally identified in Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024), though the authors note that some areas, including the San Nicolas Basin, appear to have higher densities of beaked whales, and future consideration as a BIA may be warranted), nor is it identified as a breeding or persistent foraging location for cetaceans. Instead, the same marine mammals that range throughout the offshore Southern California area could pass at some point through the marine waters of Santa Barbara Island. In addition to the limited benefit to beaked whales if this mitigation area were required, restrictions beyond what is already proposed would be impractical because it would modify military readiness activities in a way that would prevent them from meeting mission objectives and hinder Navy ability to realistically train and test in furtherance of its statutory mandate. As such, NMFS is not requiring the Navy to continue the former Santa Barbara Island Mitigation Area, consistent with the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>The water space areas mentioned in the comment as “(SHOBA)” off the southern end of San Clemente Island are waters designated as Federal Danger and Safety Zones via formal rule making (Danger Zone—33 CFR 334.950 and Safety Zone—33 CFR 165.1141) because they are adjacent to the shore bombardment impact area that is on land at the southern end of San Clemente Island. Waters designated as “WILSON COVE” on the leeward norther side of San Clemente Island south of Safety Zone Area A are associated with the Wilson Cove anchorages and moorings, where ship calibration tests, sonobuoy lot testing, and special projects take place, are designated as Federal Safety and Restricted Zones via formal rule making (Safety Zone—33 CFR 165.1141 and Restricted Zone—33 CFR 334.920).</P>
                    <P>The commenter expressed concern that a population of goose-beaked whale is, “subject to regular acoustic disturbance due to the presence of the Shore Bombardment Area,” is not correct. The SHOBA is a naval gun impact area located on land at the southern end of San Clemente Island. This area is an instrumented land training range used for a variety of bombardment training and testing activities. The in-water administrative boundary for SHOBA does not delineate the locations where a vessel firing at land targets must be located and does not represent where gunfire rounds are targeted. The water area in Santa Catalina Basin is a controlled safety zone in the very unlikely event a round goes over the island and lands in the water. With the modern advent of better precision munitions, computers, and advanced fire control, that probability is very remote. Navy vessels use the waters south of San Clemente Island (SHOBA West and SHOBA East) from which to fire into land targets on southern San Clemente Island. Therefore, there would not be any underwater acoustic disturbance to goose-beaked whales located within the Santa Catalina Basin from in-water explosives or ship firing. Goose-beaked whales are unlikely to occur in the shallow waters of the Pyramid Cove Mine Training Range where these stressors would occur.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Navy has been funding goose-beaked whale research and monitoring in SOCAL since 2004. This research includes information related to overall beaked whale population health such as individual re-sighting rates, passive acoustic detections on occurrence, documentations of mother-calf pairs, satellite tracking, genetics, and starting in 2025, body condition analysis using drone photographs. In addition, numerous opportunistic exposure response studies are ongoing. To date, no documentation of harm to individuals or populations has been observed over 20 years of monitoring. Further, the Navy, in consultation with NMFS, has already begun planning the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58834"/>
                        development of a Potential Consequence of Disturbance (PCOD) model for SOCAL goose-beaked whales based on past and ongoing data collection efforts. Rather than convening a mitigation-focused panel as recommended by the commenter, NMFS and the Navy will consider the outcome of this model and whether model results suggest that additional mitigation measures for beaked whales may be warranted.
                    </P>
                    <P>In Southern California, the goose-beaked whales that may be impacted by the Action Proponents' training and testing are of the California/Oregon/Washington stock, and NMFS has appropriately made its negligible impact finding for this stock, as described in the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section of this final rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        Please see NMFS response to 
                        <E T="03">Comment 30</E>
                         regarding signal modification. Aside from signal modification, the commenter did not recommend specific source-based mitigation approaches.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 44 (ref 64):</E>
                         A commenter recommended that NMFS require a year-round mitigation area to protect the Cross Seamount, given that it represents important foraging habitat for a rare and potentially evolutionary distinct species of beaked whale. The commenter stated that such a designation would have secondary benefits for a variety of other odontocete species foraging at Cross Seamount seasonally between November and May. The commenter further recommended considering habitat-based management measures for other nearby seamounts given the scientific basis for the generalization of marine mammal-seamount associations, and given evidence that a number of other seamounts within the HCTT Study Area exhibit levels of productivity capable of supporting commercial fisheries.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Analysis and consideration of Cross Seamount and “other nearby seamounts” for additional geographic mitigation was provided in appendix K (Geographic Mitigation Assessment), section K.7.1 (Hawaii Public Comment Mitigation Area Assessment), including sub-sections K.7.1.1 (General Biological Assessment of Seamounts in the Hawaii Portion of the Study Area) and K.7.1.2 (Cross Seamount) of the 2018 HSTT EIS/OEIS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed in appendix K (Geographic Mitigation Assessment), section 4.7.1.3 (Mitigation Assessment) of the 2018 HSTT EIS/OEIS, implementing new geographic mitigation measures in addition to ongoing procedural mitigation within the vicinity of Cross Seamount would not be effective at reducing adverse impacts on beaked whales or other marine mammal populations. The Navy has been training and testing in the broad ocean area around Cross Seamount with the same basic systems for over 40 years, and there is no evidence of any adverse impacts to marine species. Additionally, the suggested mitigation would not be practicable to implement. The broad ocean area around Cross Seamount and the seamounts to the north are unique in that there are no similar broad ocean areas in the vicinity of the Hawaiian Islands that are not otherwise encumbered by commercial vessel traffic and commercial air traffic routes. In addition, beaked whales may be more widely distributed than currently believed. Ongoing passive acoustic efforts from NMFS and Navy within the Pacific have documented beaked whale detections at many locations beyond slopes and seamounts to include areas over abyssal plains (Klinck 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015; Griffiths and Barlow, 2016; Rice 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 45 (ref 65):</E>
                         A commenter stated that NMFS should further consider implementing mitigation areas off Oahu, Kauai, and Niihau. The commenter stated that providing mitigation measures for select activities during even a limited season within some important habitat areas could have value in reducing cumulative disturbance and stress in resident populations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         In the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS, the Action Proponents considered the science, the military readiness requirements, and the effectiveness of identified habitat areas off Oahu, Kauai, and Niihau as presented in appendix K (Geographic Mitigation Assessment) section K.3 (Biologically Important Areas within the Hawaii Study Area). This includes the identified BIAs off Oahu (humpback whale, Blainville's beaked whale, false killer whale, short-finned pilot whale, pygmy killer whale, pantropical spotted dolphin, rough-toothed dolphin, bottlenose dolphin, and spinner dolphin), BIAs off Kauai and Niihau (humpback whale, short-finned pilot whale, false killer whale, rough-toothed dolphin, spinner dolphin, and bottlenose dolphin), and BIAs off Lanai and Molokai (humpback whale, Blainville's beaked whale, goose-beaked whale, short-finned pilot whale, false killer whale, pygmy killer whale, pantropical spotted dolphin, rough-toothed dolphin, bottlenose dolphin and spinner dolphin).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        There is no evidence to suggest there have been any population-level effects in the waters around Oahu, Kauai, Niihau, Lanai, or Molokai or in the HCTT Study Area resulting from the same training and testing activities that have been ongoing for decades. In the waters around Oahu, Kauai, and Niihau, documented long-term residency by individuals and the existence of multiple small and resident populations precisely where Navy training and testing have been occurring for decades suggests a lack of significant impact to those populations from the continuation of Navy training and testing. Appendix K of the HCTT EIS/OEIS describes the importance of these areas for Navy training and testing and why implementation of additional mitigation areas would be impracticable. As such, NMFS is not requiring the Action Proponents to implement an additional mitigation area in this region. Of note, the Navy's monitoring program for Hawaii is currently exclusively focused on monitoring whale and select dolphin species off Kauai and Niihau since 2009. In 2025, the Navy will be adding increased effort for rough-toothed dolphins due to the new BIA designation (Kratofil 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 46 (ref 59, 60):</E>
                         A commenter recommended that NMFS extend the reporting period to December 1 through May 1 for the Hawaii Humpback Whale Special Reporting Mitigation Area. The commenter also recommended that NMFS require reporting of other sources of MFAS and LFAS in the mitigation area.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The proposed rule required that the Action Proponents must report the total hours of MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted MFAS used from November through May in the Hawaii Humpback Whale Special Reporting Mitigation Area in their training and testing activity reports submitted to NMFS. As such, the proposed time period already includes that recommended by the commenter, and no change to the time period is warranted in this final rule. Regarding the reporting of other sources, MF1 surface ship hull-mounted MFAS was chosen as the representative source to report because it is a well-understood source in terms of its effects on marine mammals, extensively used during training and testing activities, and has not changed significantly since the initial Navy training and testing ITAs. For consistency of reporting, retention of MF1 hours as the reporting metric will allow for clear comparison to past documents. NMFS does not find it necessary for the Action Proponents to report other forms of MFAS and LFAS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 47 (ref 61):</E>
                         A commenter recommended that the Action Proponents begin issuing awareness notification messages from November 1 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58835"/>
                        through May 31, overlapping the effective period of the reproductive BIA for humpback whales (December 1 through May 31), and beginning in November 1 as initially proposed to support the detection of early arriving humpback whales to the HRC.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The Action Proponents have indicated that extending the date range for the Hawaii Humpback Whale Awareness Messages from November 1 through May 31 is practicable, and as such, NMFS has updated the required date range for these messages in this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 48 (ref 28):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS:
                    </P>
                    <P>• Clearly separate its application of the least practicable adverse impact requirement from its negligible impact determination;</P>
                    <P>• Adopt a clear decision-making framework that recognizes the species and stock component and the marine mammal habitat component of the least practicable adverse impact provision and always consider whether there are potentially adverse impacts on marine mammal habitat and whether it is practicable to minimize them;</P>
                    <P>• Rework its evaluation criteria for applying the least practicable adverse impact standard to separate the factors used to determine whether a potential impact on marine mammals or their habitat is adverse and whether possible mitigation measures would be effective;</P>
                    <P>• Address these concerns by adopting a simple, two-step analysis that more closely tracks the statutory provisions being implemented and, if NMFS is using some other legal standard to implement the least practicable adverse impact requirements, provide a clear and concise description of that standard and explain why it believes it to be “sufficient” to meet the statutory legal requirements; and</P>
                    <P>• Apply these basic steps and criteria consistently for least practicable adverse impact determinations across incidental take authorizations.</P>
                    <P>The Commission references previous letters in which it has included its complete rationale for these recommendations.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         NMFS has made clear in this and other rules that the agency separates its application of the least practicable adverse impact requirement in the Mitigation Measures section from its negligible impact analyses and determinations for each species or stock in the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section. Further, NMFS has made this separation clear in practice for years by requiring mitigation measures to reduce impacts to marine mammal species and stocks and their habitat for all projects, even those for which the anticipated take would clearly have a negligible impact, even in the absence of mitigation.
                    </P>
                    <P>In the Mitigation Measures section of this rule, NMFS has explained in detail our interpretation of the least practicable adverse impact standard, the rationale for our interpretation, and how we implement the standard. The method the agency uses addresses all of the necessary components of the standard and produces effective mitigation measures that result in the least practicable adverse impact on both the species or stocks and their habitat. The commenter has failed to explain why NMFS' approach is inadequate or why the commenter's proposed approach would be better. We, therefore, decline to accept the recommendation.</P>
                    <P>Also in the Mitigation Measures section, NMFS has explained in detail our application of the least practicable adverse impact standard. The commenter recommended an alternate way of interpreting and implementing the least practicable adverse impact standard, in which NMFS would consider the effectiveness of a measure in our evaluation of its practicability. The commenter erroneously asserts that NMFS currently considers the effectiveness of a measure in a determination of whether the potential effects of an activity are adverse, but the commenter has misunderstood NMFS' application of the standard—rather, NMFS appropriately considers the effectiveness of a measure in the evaluation of the degree to which a measure will reduce adverse impacts on marine mammal species or stocks and their habitat, as a less effective measure will less successfully reduce these impacts on marine mammals. Further, the commenter has not provided information that shows that their proposed approach would more successfully evaluate mitigation under the least practicable adverse impact standard, and we decline to accept it.</P>
                    <P>Further, NMFS disagrees with the commenter's assertion that analysis of the rule's mitigation measures under the least practicable adverse impact standard remains unclear or that the suggested shortcomings exist. The commenter provides no rationale as to why the two-step process they describe is better than the process that NMFS uses to evaluate the least practicable adverse impact that is described in the rule, and therefore we decline to accept the recommendation.</P>
                    <P>Regarding the assertion that the standard shifts on a case-by-case basis, the commenter misunderstands NMFS' process. Neither the least practicable adverse impact standard nor NMFS' process for evaluating it shifts on a case-by-case basis. Rather, as the commenter suggests should be the case, the evaluation itself is case-specific to the proposed activity, the predicted impacts, and the mitigation under consideration.</P>
                    <P>Regarding the recommendation to apply the recommended steps and criteria for least practicable adverse impact determinations across incidental take authorizations, as outlined above, NMFS disagrees with these recommendations and therefore does not intend to apply them across incidental take authorizations.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 49 (ref 86, 87, 88):</E>
                         A commenter stated that NMFS wholesale endorses the Action Proponents' decision to reject additional mitigation measures considered in the 2024 HCTT Draft EIS/OEIS and provides no independent justification or analysis for its least practicable adverse impact determination. The commenter stated that without incorporating a broader suite of mitigation measures, including, for example, mandatory reduced vessel speeds and updated geographic mitigation areas based on updated science, the ITRs and LOAs violate the MMPA's requirement to incorporate mitigation measures that effectuate the least practicable adverse impact. The commenter further stated that although NMFS acknowledges the existence of the updated BIAs (Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024; Harrison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023; Kratofil 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023) in its proposed rule, NMFS makes clear that it plans to adopt the Action Proponents' proposed geographic mitigation areas without any changes, claiming that it is “heavily reliant on the Action Proponents' description of operational practicability.”
                    </P>
                    <P>The commenter additionally stated that NMFS failed to require the following additional mitigation measures proposed in its Draft EIS/OEIS comments:</P>
                    <P>• Imposing a 10-kn (18.5 km/hr) ship speed limit in whale mitigation areas to reduce the risk of vessel strikes;</P>
                    <P>
                        • Improving detection of marine mammals using alternative detection methods including thermal and acoustic methods (Verfuss 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018);
                    </P>
                    <P>• Restricting activities during times of low visibility;</P>
                    <P>• Capping the maximum level of activities each year;</P>
                    <P>• Avoiding testing and training exercises in key migration corridors and prime feeding areas;</P>
                    <P>
                        • Avoiding testing and training exercises during key feeding times;
                        <PRTPAGE P="58836"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>• Avoiding testing and training exercises in areas where the whale presence in the area is “High” or “Very High,” per WhaleSafe;</P>
                    <P>• Maintaining mitigation for the core feeding areas for Blue Whales in the San Nicolas Island Mitigation Area;</P>
                    <P>• Prohibiting sonar and explosives in all the whale mitigation areas off California from June through November; and</P>
                    <P>• Not exempting aircraft from mitigation areas.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         NMFS disagrees with much of what the commenters assert. First, we have carefully explained our interpretation of the least practicable adverse impact standard and how it applies to both stocks and individuals in the Mitigation Measures section of the proposed rule and this final rule. Further, we have applied the standard correctly in this rule by requiring measures that reduce impacts to individual marine mammals in a manner that reduces the probability and/or severity of population-level impacts.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        When a suggested or recommended mitigation measure that would reduce impacts is not practicable, NMFS has explored variations of that mitigation measure to determine if a practicable form of related mitigation exists. This is clearly illustrated in NMFS' independent mitigation analysis process explained in the Proposed Mitigation Measures section of the proposed rule and the Mitigation Measures section of this final rule. First, some types of mitigation required under this rule are area-specific and vary by mitigation area, demonstrating that NMFS has engaged in a site-specific analysis to ensure mitigation is tailored when practicability demands, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         some forms of mitigation were practicable in some areas but not others. For instance, while it was not practicable for the Action Proponents to prohibit surface ship hull-mounted MF1 MFAS during training or testing in all mitigation areas, NMFS did include restrictions on its use in the Hawaii 4-Islands Marine Mammal Mitigation Area, Hawaii Island Marine Mammal Mitigation Area, Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Area, Central California Large Whale Mitigation Area, and the Southern California Blue Whale Mitigation Area.
                    </P>
                    <P>Additionally, while the Navy cannot alleviate all training and testing in the mitigation areas that protect small resident odontocete populations in Hawaii, this final rule includes an expansion of the Hawaii 4-Islands Mitigation Area to include an additional portion of the child small and resident BIA for the Main Hawaiian Islands Insular stock of false killer whale. This increases the portion of the child BIA overlapping the mitigation area from approximately 40 percent of the BIA as included in the proposed rule to 63 percent. Additionally, this final rule clarifies that the MFAS mitigation in this area and in the Hawaii Island Marine Mammal Mitigation Area includes both MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted MFAS. MF1C was inadvertently left out of the Action Proponents application and subsequently the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>NMFS agrees the agency must conduct its own analysis, which it has done here. NMFS has not automatically accepted the Navy's analysis and rationales. Rather, NMFS has appropriately reviewed the Navy's analysis of effectiveness and practicability of its proposed mitigation measures, which by regulation the Navy was required to submit with its application. Based on NMFS' independent review, it has concurred with those aspects of the Navy's analysis with which NMFS agrees. NMFS has described our well-reasoned process for identifying the measures needed to meet the least practicable adverse impact standard in the Mitigation Measures section in this rule, and we have followed the approach described there when analyzing potential mitigation for the Action Proponents' activities in the HCTT Study Area.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding restricting activities during times of low visibility, anti-submarine warfare training involving the use of MFAS typically involves the periodic use of active sonar to develop the “tactical picture,” or an understanding of the battle space (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         area searched or unsearched, presence of false contacts, and an understanding of the water conditions). Developing the tactical picture can take several hours or days, and typically occurs over vast waters with varying environmental and oceanographic conditions. Training during both high visibility (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         daylight, favorable weather conditions) and low visibility (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         nighttime, inclement weather conditions) is vital because sonar operators must be able to understand the environmental differences between day and night and varying weather conditions and how they affect sound propagation and the detection capabilities of sonar. Temperature layers move up and down in the water column and ambient noise levels can vary significantly between night and day, affecting sound propagation and how sonar systems are operated. Reducing or securing power in low-visibility conditions as a mitigation would affect a commander's ability to develop the tactical picture and would prevent sonar operators from training in realistic conditions. Further, during integrated training multiple vessels and aircraft may participate in an exercise using different dimensions of warfare simultaneously (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         submarine warfare, surface warfare, air warfare). If one of these training elements were adversely impacted (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         if sonar training reflecting military operations were not possible), the training value of other integrated elements would also be degraded. Additionally, failure to test such systems in realistic military operational scenarios increases the likelihood these systems could fail during military operations, thus unacceptably placing sailors' lives and the Nation's security at risk. Some systems have a nighttime testing requirement; therefore, these tests cannot occur only in daylight hours. Reducing or securing power in low visibility conditions would decrease the Navy's ability to determine whether systems are operationally effective, suitable, survivable, and safe for their intended use by the fleet even in reduced visibility or difficult weather conditions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the recommendation to cap the maximum level of activities each year, the commenters offer no rationale for why a cap is needed and nor do they suggest what an appropriate cap might be. The Action Proponents are responsible under Titles 10 (Navy) and 14 (Coast Guard) of the U.S. Code for conducting the needed amount of testing and training to maintain military readiness, which is what they have proposed and NMFS has analyzed. Further, the MMPA states that NMFS shall issue MMPA authorizations if the necessary findings can be made, as they have been here. Importantly, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Geographic Mitigation Areas</E>
                         section, the Navy will limit activities (active sonar, explosive use, 
                        <E T="03">etc.</E>
                        ) to varying degrees in multiple areas that are important to sensitive species or for important behaviors in order to minimize impacts that are more likely to lead to adverse effects on rates of recruitment or survival.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        NMFS and the Action Proponents have fully explored the potential to incorporate WhaleSafe into the required mitigation measures. However, the current WhaleSafe operational areas (Santa Barbara Channel and off the coast of San Francisco) do not overlap with the HCTT Study Area. As such, while WhaleSafe can inform whale occurrence in other areas of California, it is not an appropriate tool for determining 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58837"/>
                        mitigation actions in the HCTT Study Area, and NMFS has not required the Navy to halt training or testing activities when WhaleSafe indicates that whale presence in the area is “high” or “very high” as suggested by the commenter. Aircraft are not exempt from mitigation areas. As detailed in section 5.7 of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS, several geographic mitigation areas have proposed requirements which apply to aircraft (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         restrictions or prohibitions on explosive use, an annual cap on dipping sonar).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Please see NMFS' response to 
                        <E T="03">Comment 50</E>
                         regarding vessel speed restrictions, 
                        <E T="03">Comment 31</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">Comment 32</E>
                         regarding use of thermal detection and passive acoustic monitoring, 
                        <E T="03">Comment 35</E>
                         regarding avoiding testing and training in key migration corridors and prime feeding areas and times, 
                        <E T="03">Comment 36</E>
                         regarding the recommended San Nicolas Island Mitigation Area, and 
                        <E T="03">Comment 35, Comment 36, Comment 37,</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">Comment 38</E>
                         regarding prohibition of sonar and explosives in whale mitigation areas off California from June through November.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 50 (ref 71):</E>
                         A commenter stated that it urges NMFS to conduct a thorough practicability analysis, as has been demonstrated for the Atlantic Fleet Training and Testing Study Area, and to implement vessel speed mitigation measures in the HCTT Study Area. Additionally, given that the speed of Navy vessels during all aspects of their operations potentially impacts marine mammals, the commenter recommended that NMFS require data collection and reporting on vessel speed as part of the rulemaking process. The commenter states that this will allow for objective evaluation by NMFS of vessel-strike risk, of harassment resulting from vessel activity, and of the potential benefit of additional speed-focused mitigation measures.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The Action Proponents assert that vessel speed restrictions are not practicable given safety, sustainability, and mission criteria. The Navy requires flexibility in use of variable ship speeds for training, testing, operational, safety, and engineering qualification requirements. Navy ships typically use the lowest speed practical given individual mission needs. NMFS has reviewed the analysis of these additional suggested restrictions and the impacts they would have on military readiness and concurs with the Navy's assessment that they are impracticable (see row 16 of table 5-20 in chapter 5 of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS). Given the practicability concerns, this final rule does not require speed restrictions in the HCTT Study Area generally or in specific mitigation areas. However, activity-based mitigation for manned surface vessels requires maneuvering vessels to maintain a specified distance from marine mammals, which may include reducing speed.
                    </P>
                    <P>In a review of Navy unpublished data, the multi-year average of U.S. Navy surface vessel speeds on the continental shelf off California is between 10-15 kn (18.5-27.8 km/hr). There has not been a known U.S. Navy vessel strike to whales in Hawaii since the Navy began requesting ITAs under the MMPA in 2009.</P>
                    <P>Regarding a practicability analysis comparable to AFTT, such an analysis was possible for the AFTT Study Area because of a civilian North Atlantic right whale notification system applicable to only a small area of the AFTT Study Area. Similar systems do not exist in the Pacific.</P>
                    <P>Regarding reporting of vessel speed, as required through the Notification and Reporting Plan, Action Proponent vessels are required to report extensive information, including vessel speed, pursuant to any marine mammal vessel strikes. Therefore, the data required for vessel strike analysis discussed in the comment is already being collected. Any additional data collection requirement would create an unnecessary burden on the Action Proponents. Adverse impacts from vessel noise are not anticipated to result from the Action Proponents' activities (see the Potential Effects of Specified Activities on Marine Mammals and Their Habitat section in the proposed rule), there is no anticipated harassment caused by vessel activity, and therefore, no need to collect and report data on vessel speed for this purpose.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 51 (ref 27):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that the NMFS final rule require the Action Proponents to follow established incident reporting procedures and halt any active acoustic, explosive, pile-driving, or air gun activity if a marine mammal is injured or killed during or immediately after the activity and require the Action Proponents to consult with NMFS to review or adapt the mitigation measures, as necessary.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The proposed rule and this final rule include a requirement for the Action Proponents to follow established incident reporting procedures if the specified activity is thought to have resulted in the mortality or serious injury of any marine mammals, as recommended by the Commission as outlined in the Notification and Reporting Plan (note that the Notification and Reporting Plan also requires the Action Proponents to follow established incident reporting protocols for cetacean live strandings). Regarding the Commission's recommendation to require that the Action Proponents halt any active acoustic, explosive, pile driving, or air gun activity if a marine mammal is injured or killed during or immediately after the activity, and require the Action Proponents to consult with NMFS to review or adapt the mitigation measures, as necessary, NMFS agrees with the recommendation to suspend the use of explosives in an event if a marine mammal is injured or killed during or immediately after the activity. Neither NMFS nor the Action Proponents anticipate serious injury or mortality from any activity other than the use of explosives or vessel movement. For all activities involving explosives, the final rule expressly requires that, if a marine mammal is visibly injured or killed as a result of detonation, use of explosives in the event must be suspended immediately (see Mitigation Measures section). While similar language is not included for active acoustics, pile driving, and air gun activity, the proposed rule and this final rule require the Action Proponents to power down or shut down these sources if a marine mammal is observed within the applicable mitigation zone. The Action Proponents will also continue to follow incident reporting procedures as outlined in the Notification and Reporting Plan (including for vessel strike, should it occur) and consult with NMFS to review or adapt the mitigation measures, as necessary, through the adaptive management process.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Monitoring</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 52 (ref 74, 75):</E>
                         A commenter stated that long-term passive acoustic monitoring data has proven to be one of the most cost-effective and useful signals of distribution shifts of marine mammals and their prey. The commenter states that a more extensive network of passive acoustic platforms off the U.S. West Coast, designed in a manner that optimized the power of the network to detect large-scale distribution shifts, would be of great benefit for estimating and mitigating the impacts of Navy training and testing (as well as a myriad of other human activities) and recommended that NMFS require that the Navy establish such a network.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The commenter also recommended that NMFS require monitoring that aims to quantify the impact of Navy activities at the individual, and, ultimately, population level. The commenter 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58838"/>
                        recommended that NMFS require use of unmanned aerial vehicles for assessing marine mammal behavior before, during, and after Navy operations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         swim speed and direction, group cohesion). The commenter stated that in addition, studies into how these technologies can be used to assess body condition for a broader array of marine mammal species should be supported, as this can provide an important indication of energy budget and health, which can inform the assessment of population-level impacts from Navy activities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The U.S. Navy is the second largest Federal Agency contributing to marine mammal research behind NMFS. In Fiscal Year 2023, the latest year with data currently available, the U.S. Navy cumulatively contributed $21.76 million to marine mammal research representing 26 percent of all Federal funding that year. While the Navy uses passive acoustic devices at select areas, it is logistically impracticable to monitor the entire U.S. West Coast. The Navy's at-sea ranges off the West Coast cover over 371,679 nmi
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         (1,274,823 km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ). Furthermore, developing and maintaining an Integrated Ocean Observing System within the U.S. Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) has been and remains a mission area of NOAA (
                        <E T="03">https://ioos.noaa.gov/</E>
                        ). In the Pacific Northwest there is the Northwest Association of Networked Ocean Observing Systems and in Southern California there is Southern California Coastal Ocean Observing System.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The U.S. Navy funds an annual average of over $5,000,000 of marine mammal monitoring across five Pacific at-sea ranges. Monitoring priorities are determined in coordination with NMFS, and focus resources on key top-level goals including an increase in the understanding of how anticipated individual responses, to individual stressors or anticipated combinations of stressors, may impact either the long-term fitness and survival of an individual or the species or stock (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         through impacts on annual rates of recruitment or survival) as suggested by the commenter and as described in the Proposed Monitoring section of the proposed rule (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025). It is fiscally and logistically impractical to monitor every marine mammal species to the degree suggested by the commenter, and further, it is outside the scope of the Action Proponents' responsibilities under the MMPA. NMFS and Navy meet annually to discuss the state of monitoring science and other adaptive management issues and will weigh the commenter's monitoring recommendations against other priority topics. Of note, while the full scope of monitoring recommended by the commenter is impractical and outside the scope of the Action Proponents' responsibilities under the MMPA, as stated above, targeted studies utilizing unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) to assess behavioral responses of marine mammals to sonar have been pursued in the past (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Durban 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 53 (ref 75-2, 32-4):</E>
                         A commenter recommended that NMFS include, as part of its monitoring requirements, application of simpler modeling methods that could provide at least an indication of greater than negligible impacts, even if each of the behavioral and physiological mechanisms are not fully characterized. The commenter states that the modeling approach undertaken by researchers for beaked whales in the California Current offers one such example. Here, a Bayesian hidden-process modeling approach was used to estimate abundance and population trends of beaked whales using sightings data from six ship-based, line-transect, cetacean abundance surveys between 1991 and 2008 (Moore and Barlow, 2013). Model results indicated that goose-beaked whales were experiencing an average rate of decline at 2.9 percent per year. This commenter stated that this type of modeling effort will likely be most useful for species and stocks, like beaked whales, that are known to show site fidelity to survey areas, so that trends in abundance are less likely to be influenced by immigration or emigration. Additionally, the commenter recommended that NMFS require use of other proxy measures of changes in population-level abundance and demographics, in order to develop an early-detection system for populations that may be experiencing a decline as a result of Navy activities. The comparative demographic study of beaked whale populations in the Bahamas, on and off the Atlantic Undersea Test and Evaluation Center range (Kellar 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015), is a cogent example of a study that is long overdue for Southern California, to understand the effect that repeated behavioral disruptions and displacement of foraging activity are having on the region's small beaked whale populations, such as the goose-beaked whale population on SOAR.
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter recommended clear, enforceable adaptive management triggers tied to quantitative monitoring results.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The Navy, in consultation with NMFS, has already begun planning the development of a PCOD model for SOCAL goose-beaked whales based on past and ongoing data collection efforts. This effort integrates past and ongoing data collection on beaked whale population demographics since 2004 (tagging, photo identification, genetics, body condition, response to sound). In addition to the population study in SOCAL, Navy funded researchers are also monitoring a non-exposed beaked whale population off Guadalupe Island, Mexico.
                    </P>
                    <P>The commenter's recommendation for NMFS to require use of other proxy measures of changes in population-level abundance and demographics, in order to develop an early-detection system for populations that may be experiencing a decline as a result of Navy activities lacks specificity, including potential proxy measures, rendering it impossible to consider its recommendation at a broader level.</P>
                    <P>
                        It is unclear what the commenter is suggesting regarding clear, enforceable, adaptive management triggers tied to quantitative monitoring results. As described in the Adaptive Management section of this final rule, the reporting requirements associated with this final rule are designed to provide NMFS with monitoring data from the previous year to allow NMFS to consider whether any changes to existing mitigation and monitoring requirements are appropriate. The use of adaptive management allows NMFS to consider new information from different sources to determine (with input from the Action Proponents regarding practicability) on an annual or biennial basis if mitigation or monitoring measures should be modified (including additions or deletions). Mitigation measures could be modified if new data suggests that such modifications would have a reasonable likelihood of more effectively accomplishing the goals of the mitigation and monitoring and if the measures are practicable. If the modifications to the mitigation, monitoring, or reporting measures are substantial, NMFS would publish a notice of the planned LOAs in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         and solicit public comment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The following are some of the possible sources of applicable data to be considered through the adaptive management process: (1) results from monitoring and exercise reports, as required by MMPA authorizations; (2) compiled results of Navy-funded research and development studies; (3) results from specific stranding investigations; (4) results from general marine mammal and sound research; and (5) any information which reveals 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58839"/>
                        that marine mammals may have been taken in a manner, extent, or number not authorized by these regulations or subsequent LOAs. The results from monitoring reports and other studies may be viewed at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.navymarinespeciesmonitoring.us.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Negligible Impact Determination</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 54 (Ref 30):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS use the two-tiered approach from NMFS' 2020 Criteria for Determining Negligible Impact under MMPA Section 101(a)(5)(E) (NMFS, 2020), including using single negligible impact threshold (NIT
                        <E T="52">s</E>
                        ) instead of 10 percent of potential biological removal (PBR), for informing its negligible impact determinations that involve M/SI for the final rule and other incidental take authorizations involving M/SI. The Commission asserts that this would provide consistency with NMFS' own policy directive.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         As stated in the proposed rule (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025), on June 17, 2020, NMFS finalized new Criteria for Determining Negligible Impact under MMPA section 101(a)(5)(E). The guidance explicitly notes the differences in the negligible impact determinations required under paragraph (a)(5)(E) of section 101, as compared to paragraphs (a)(5)(A) and (D) of section 101. As stated in the guidance, first, they differ in terms of the types of take being considered and consequently, the effects of the takes on population dynamics. In paragraphs (a)(5)(A) and (D) of section 101, NMFS must determine if the taking by harassment, injury, or mortality (or a combination of these) incidental to specified activities will have a negligible impact. In section 101(a)(5)(E), NMFS must determine if M/SI incidental to commercial fisheries will have a negligible impact. NMFS considers mortalities and serious injuries to be removals from the population that can be evaluated using well-documented models of population dynamics, whereas harassment and non-serious injury (sub-lethal taking) are not considered to be removals from the population. Second, they differ in whether they apply to all marine mammal stocks or only those stocks or species listed under the ESA: paragraphs (a)(5)(A) and (D) of section 101 apply to all marine mammal stocks (regardless of ESA listing status or MMPA depleted status), while paragraph (a)(5)(E) applies only to stocks designated as depleted because of their listing under the ESA. The guidance further specifies that the procedure in that document is limited to how the agency conducts negligible impact analyses for commercial fisheries under section 101(a)(5)(E) (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         it is not intended to be a broad policy directive for M/SI analyses for all activities). As described in the Serious Injury and Mortality section of this final rule, when considering PBR during evaluation of effects of M/SI under section 101(a)(5)(A), we utilize a two-tiered analysis for each stock for which M/SI is proposed for authorization:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Tier 1:</E>
                         Compare the total human-caused average annual M/SI estimate from all sources, including the M/SI proposed for authorization from the specific activity, to PBR. If the total M/SI estimate is less than or equal to PBR, then the specific activity is considered to have a negligible impact on that stock. If the total M/SI estimate (including from the specific activity) exceeds PBR, conduct the Tier 2 analysis.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Tier 2:</E>
                         Evaluate the estimated M/SI from the specified activity relative to the stock's PBR. If the M/SI from the specified activity is less than or equal to 10 percent of PBR and other major sources of human-caused mortality have mitigation in place, then the individual specified activity is considered to have a negligible impact on that stock. If the estimate exceeds 10 percent of PBR, then, absent other mitigating factors, the specified activity could be considered likely to have a non-negligible impact on that stock.
                    </P>
                    <P>In this final rule, NMFS has described its method for considering PBR to evaluate the effects of potential mortality in the negligible impact analysis. NMFS has reviewed the 2020 guidance and determined that our consideration of PBR in the evaluation of mortality, as described in the Serious Injury and Mortality section of the proposed rule and in this final rule, remains appropriate for use in the negligible impact analysis for the Action Proponent's activities under section 101(a)(5)(A). As such, NMFS disagrees with Commission's recommendation to use NMFS (2020) to inform its negligible impact determinations that involve M/SI.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 55 (ref 29):</E>
                         The Commission recommended that NMFS work with Navy to use NAEMO to conduct modeling of both multi-day events and multiple single-day events to estimate the number of repeated exposures an individual is expected to incur and to better assess repeated exposures of individuals and population-level consequences, rather than rely on what it called a qualitative assessment. The Commission cited Simmons 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025) recommendation of ways that NAEMO and results from NAEMO could be better used to estimate repeated takes and population-level impacts.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         NMFS and Navy have had ongoing discussions about how to better assess and characterize the number of repeated takes of individuals from training and testing activities, including whether NAEMO could be used to generate estimates of repeated takes of individuals. A credible assessment of the repeated takes due to the specified activities per the approach suggested in the comment would require treating animats as unique individuals over the course of a year's activity and across a large study area, while incorporating migration patterns and nomadic movement. Such an effort would be computationally intensive and Navy anticipates that it is likely infeasible given reasonable resources. In contrast, the action analyzed by Zeddies 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) and referenced by the Commission in supporting statements was less complex than the specified activities. Thus, Zeddies 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) could assess repeated takes within spatially and temporally limited areas with undirected animal ingress/egress. NMFS will continue to work with the Navy to better assess and characterize the number of repeated takes of individuals. Of note, Simmons 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025), referenced by the Commission, was written after a joint workshop with the Navy and SMRU Consulting. Recommendations from the workshop and associated report are being considered for future modeling improvements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        While NMFS and the Action Proponents' analyses could be further refined, the information in NMFS' analysis is sufficient for assessing whether the authorized take would have a negligible impact on the species or stocks of marine mammals, the information relied upon to make this determination represents the best available science, and it is not necessary to have exact number of times that an animal is estimated to be repeatedly taken in order to make the negligible impact determination. As described in the Preliminary Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section of the proposed rule (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025) and this final rule, generally speaking, the higher the number of takes as compared to the population abundance, the more repeated takes of individuals are likely, and the higher the actual percentage of individuals in the population that are likely taken at least once in a year. We look at this comparative metric (number of takes to population abundance) to give us a relative sense of where a larger portion 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58840"/>
                        of a species is being taken by the specified activities, where there is a likelihood that the same individuals are being taken across multiple days, and whether the number of days might be higher or more likely sequential. Where the number of instances of take is less than 100 percent of the abundance, and there is no information to specifically suggest that some subset of animals is known to congregate in an area in which activities are regularly occurring (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a small resident population, takes occurring in a known important area such as a BIA, or a large portion of the takes occurring in a certain region and season), the overall likelihood and number of repeated takes is generally considered low, as it could, on one extreme, mean that every take represents a separate individual in the population being taken on one day (a minimal impact to an individual) or, more likely, that some smaller number of individuals are taken on one day annually and some are taken on a few, not likely sequential, days annually, and of course some are not taken at all.
                    </P>
                    <P>In the ocean, the use of sonar and other active acoustic sources is often transient and is unlikely to repeatedly expose the same individual animals within a short period, for example within one specific exercise. However, for some individuals of some species, repeated exposures across different activities could occur over the year, especially where events occur in generally the same area with more resident species. In short, for some species, we expect that the total anticipated takes represent exposures of a smaller number of individuals of which some would be exposed multiple times, but based on the nature of the specified activities and the movement patterns of marine mammals, it is unlikely that individuals from most stocks would be taken over more than a few days within a given year. This means that even where repeated takes of individuals are likely to occur, they are more likely to result from non-sequential exposures from different activities, and, even if sequential, individual animals are not predicted to be taken for more than several days in a row, at most. As described elsewhere, the nature of the majority of the exposures would be expected to be of a less severe nature, and based on the numbers, it is likely that any individual exposed multiple times is still only taken on a small percentage of the days of the year. It is more likely that not every individual is taken, or perhaps a smaller subset is taken with a slightly higher average and larger variability of highs and lows, but still with no reason to think that, for most species or stocks, any individuals would be taken a significant portion of the days of the year.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 56:</E>
                         (ref EarthJustice) A commenter finds fault with NMFS' negligible impact analysis for blue whales and humpback whales. Specifically, the commenter asserted that NMFS' Tier 2 analysis for considering PBR during evaluation of effects of M/SI under MMPA section 101(a)(5)(A) is flawed. The commenter states that NMFS discounts as “negligible” additional impacts to marine mammal stocks that are already experiencing M/SI from other human sources at levels that exceed PBR, and that NMFS attempts to justify its view of relevant impacts by claiming that the task under the statute is to evaluate the impact of the applicant's anticipated take on the species or stock, not the impact of take by other entities. The commenter further states that disregarding all other sources of M/SI and the resulting cumulative impacts on marine mammal stocks subverts the MMPA's purpose to address the risks of “extinction or depletion” to marine mammals stocks from the whole of “man's activities,” 16 U.S.C. 1361(1), and its directive that marine mammal stocks “should not be permitted to diminish below their optimum sustainable population” level, id. § 1361(2).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The commenter also stated that the analysis contradicts NMFS' prior interpretations that “in order to make a negligible impact finding, the proposed incidental take must not prevent a depleted population from increasing toward its [optimum sustainable population; OSP] at a biologically acceptable rate” (54 FR 40338, 40341, September 29, 1989) and that “if a particular stock were known to be within its [OSP] range, then [NMFS] believes a finding of negligible impact can only be made if the permitted activities are not likely to reduce that stock below its [OSP]” (54 FR 40342, September 29, 1989). The commenter states that given that, under the MMPA, a proposed activity may not prevent a marine mammal stock from increasing toward its OSP or reduce the stock below that level, it logically follows that the activity cannot make a bad situation worse by increasing the cumulative level of unsustainable take “as a result of man's activities.” 16 U.S.C. 1361(1); cf. 
                        <E T="03">Nat'l Wildlife Fed'n</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Nat'l Marine Fisheries Serv.,</E>
                         524 F.3d 917, 930 (9th Cir. 2008)
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         When considering PBR during evaluation of effects of M/SI under MMPA section 101(a)(5)(A), NMFS utilizes a two-tiered analysis for each stock for which M/SI is proposed for authorization, as described in response to 
                        <E T="03">Comment 54.</E>
                         Additional detail regarding Tier 1 is available in the Preliminary Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section of the proposed rule and the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section of this final rule. If the ongoing anthropogenic mortality from other sources already exceeds PBR, then we move to the Tier 2 to consider the M/SI from the specific activities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For the Tier 2 evaluation, recognizing that the total annual human-caused M/SI exceeds PBR, we consider whether the incremental effects of the proposed authorized M/SI for the specified activity, specifically, would be expected to result in a negligible impact on the affected species or stocks. For the Tier 2 assessment, consideration of other factors (positive or negative), including those described above (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the certainty in the data underlying PBR and the impacts of any harassment authorized for the specified activity), as well as the mitigation in place to reduce M/SI from other activities is especially important to assessing the impacts of the M/SI from the specified activity on the species or stock. PBR is a conservative metric and not sufficiently precise to serve as an absolute predictor of population effects upon which mortality caps would appropriately be based. For example, in some cases stock abundance (which is one of three key inputs into the PBR calculation) is underestimated because marine mammal survey data within the U.S. EEZ are used to calculate the abundance even when the stock range extends well beyond the U.S. EEZ. An underestimate of abundance could result in an underestimate of PBR. Alternatively, we sometimes may not have complete M/SI data beyond the U.S. EEZ to compare to PBR, which could result in an overestimate of residual PBR. The accuracy and certainty around the data that feed any PBR calculation, such as the abundance estimates, must be carefully considered to evaluate whether the calculated PBR accurately reflects the circumstances of the particular stock.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As referenced above, in some cases the ongoing human-caused mortality from activities other than those being evaluated already exceeds PBR and, therefore, residual PBR is negative. We acknowledge that, in these cases, any additional mortality would result in greater exceedance of PBR. However, NMFS disagrees with the commenter's assertion that NMFS' analysis 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58841"/>
                        contradicts NMFS' prior interpretations that “in order to make a negligible impact finding, the proposed incidental take must not prevent a depleted population from increasing toward its [optimum sustainable population; OSP] at a biologically acceptable rate” (54 FR 40338, 40341, September 29, 1989) and that “if a particular stock were known to be within its [OSP] range, then [NMFS] believes a finding of negligible impact can only be made if the permitted activities are not likely to reduce that stock below its [OSP]” (54 FR 40342, September 29, 1989).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        PBR is helpful in informing the analysis of the effects of mortality on a species or stock because it is important from a biological perspective to be able to consider how the total mortality in a given year may affect the population. However, section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA indicates that NMFS shall authorize the requested incidental take from a specified activity if we find that “the total of such taking [
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         from the specified activity] will have a negligible impact on such species or stock.” In other words, the task under the statute is to evaluate the impact of the applicant's anticipated take on the species or stock, not the impact of take by other entities. Neither the MMPA nor NMFS' implementing regulations call for consideration of other unrelated activities and their impacts on the species or stock. The commenter finds fault with this interpretation of NMFS' responsibility under the MMPA, characterizing it as a “narrow” view, but does not provide a different view or justify a more precautionary approach other than by referring generically to the MMPA's overall purpose regarding risks of extinction of depletion to marine mammal stocks.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Accordingly, we may find that the impacts of the taking from the specified activity may (alone) be negligible even when total human-caused mortality from all activities exceeds PBR (in the context of a particular species or stock). Specifically, where the authorized M/SI would be less than or equal to 10 percent of PBR and management measures are being taken to address M/SI from the other contributing activities (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         other than the specified activities covered by the incidental take authorization under consideration), the impacts of the authorized M/SI are appropriately considered negligible. In addition, we must also still determine that any impacts on the species or stock from other types of take (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         harassment) caused by the applicant do not combine with the impacts from mortality or serious injury addressed here to result in adverse effects on the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival. In summary, the commenter simply points out that total estimated annual M/SI for the two stocks exceeds the estimated PBR value, as NMFS acknowledges and accounts for in its analysis. In context of the considerations discussed herein, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         that the PBR value itself is not appropriately considered to be an allowable mortality “cap” and that simple exceedance of the PBR value is not in and of itself evidence of greater than negligible impact, the commenter does not demonstrate that in fact the effects of the specified activity would result in greater than negligible impact.
                    </P>
                    <P>As noted above, while PBR is useful in informing the evaluation of the effects of M/SI in MMPA section 101(a)(5)(A) determinations, it is one consideration to be assessed in combination with other factors and is not determinative. For example, as explained above, the accuracy and certainty of the data used to calculate PBR for the species or stock must be considered. And we reiterate the considerations discussed above for why it is not appropriate to consider PBR an absolute cap in the application of this guidance. Accordingly, we use PBR as a trigger for concern while also considering other relevant factors to provide a reasonable and appropriate means of evaluating the effects of potential mortality on rates of recruitment and survival, while acknowledging that it is possible for total human-caused M/SI to exceed PBR (or for the M/SI from the specified activity to exceed 10 percent of PBR in the case where other human-caused mortality is exceeding PBR, as described in the last paragraph) and still make a negligible impact determination under MMPA section 101(a)(5)(A).</P>
                    <P>Regarding the ESA, NMFS issued a biological and conference opinion on October 17, 2025, concluding that the promulgation of this rule and issuance of subsequent LOAs are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of threatened and endangered species under NMFS' jurisdiction and are not likely to result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated or proposed critical habitat in the HCTT Study Area.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment 57 (ref Earthjustice):</E>
                         A commenter disagreed with NMFS' PBR analysis, in which M/SI resulting from the specified activity is considered “negligible” if it is less than or equal to 10 percent of PBR. The commenter stated that this approach fails to account for the context in which removals of species or stock would occur, citing species or stock abundance, reproductive potential, or the extent to which PBR is already being exceeded by other sources of human-caused M/SI as examples. The commenter provides specific concerns regarding the proposal to authorize take by M/SI of the blue whale (Eastern North Pacific stock) and the humpback whale (Central America/Southern Mexico-California/Oregon/Washington stock) even though other sources of M/SI exceed the estimated PBR value.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         As explained in the of the Preliminary Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section of the proposed rule and the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section of this final rule, if M/SI from a specified activity is less than or equal to 10 percent of PBR and other major sources of human-caused mortality have mitigation in place to address the causes of mortality, then the individual specified activity is considered to have a negligible impact on that stock. The commenter is incorrect in stating that this method fails to consider the context in which removals from the species or stock would occur, such as species or stock abundance, reproductive potential, or the extent to which PBR is already being exceeded by other sources of human-caused M/SI as examples. As established by the MMPA, a stock's PBR level is determined by multiplying three fundamental elements: (1) an estimate of the population's minimum abundance; (2) one-half of the estimated or theoretical maximum rate of population growth for the stock, and (3) a recovery factor, with a value between 0.1 to 1, that helps ensure timely recovery. As such, the examples of species/stock abundance and reproductive potential cited by the commenter are explicitly considered in calculation of a stock's PBR. Regarding consideration of the extent to which PBR is already being exceeded by other sources of human-caused M/SI, section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA indicates that NMFS shall authorize the requested incidental take from a specified activity if we find that “the total of such taking [
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         from the specified activity] will have a negligible impact on such species or stock.” In other words, the task under the statute is to evaluate the impact of the applicant's anticipated take on the species or stock, not the impact of take by other entities. Neither the MMPA nor NMFS' implementing regulations call for consideration of other unrelated activities and their impacts on the species or stock.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Given that the negligible impact determination is based on the assessment of take of the activity being 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58842"/>
                        analyzed, when total annual mortality from human activities is higher, but the impacts from the specific activity being analyzed are very small, NMFS may still find the incremental impact of the authorized take from a specified activity is negligible even if total human-caused mortality exceeds PBR. Specifically, for example, if the authorized mortality is less than 10 percent of PBR and management measures are being taken to address serious injuries and mortalities from the other activities causing mortality (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         other than the specified activities covered by the incidental take authorization in consideration).
                    </P>
                    <P>Total annual human-caused M/SI exceeds PBR for both the Eastern North Pacific stock of blue whale and the Central America/Southern Mexico-California-Oregon-Washington stock of humpback whale. As such, NMFS conducted a Tier 2 evaluation to consider whether the incremental effects of the authorized M/SI for the specified activity, specifically, would be expected to result in a negligible impact on the affected species or stocks. Annual M/SI that may be authorized under this rule (representing annualized estimates of 7-year total M/SI for purposes of comparison to PBR) is 0.29 for each of these stocks. For each stock, this is an insignificant incremental addition to total annual M/SI (18.6 and 14.9, respectively) and is in both cases less than 10 percent of the PBR value (4.1 and 3.5, respectively). Further, there are management measures in place to address M/SI from activities other than those the Action Proponents are conducting (as discussed below).</P>
                    <P>
                        Based on identical simulations as those conducted to identify Recovery Factors for PBR in Wade 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1998), but where values less than 0.1 were investigated (P. Wade, pers. comm.), we predict that where the mortality from a specified activity does not exceed N
                        <E T="52">min</E>
                         * 
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                         Rmax * 0.013 (where N
                        <E T="52">min</E>
                         is the minimum abundance estimate), the contemplated mortality for the specific activity will not delay the time to recovery by more than 1 percent. For the Eastern North Pacific stock of blue whales, N
                        <E T="52">min</E>
                         * 
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                         Rmax * 0.013 = 0.459. The annual mortality authorized is 0.29 (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         less than 0.459). For the Central America/Southern Mexico CA/OR/WA stock of humpback whales, N
                        <E T="52">min</E>
                         * 
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                         Rmax * 0.013 = 0.684. The annual mortality authorized is 0.29 (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         less than 0.684). This means that the mortality authorized in this rule for HCTT activities will not delay the time to recovery to OSP by more than 1 percent for either stock.
                    </P>
                    <P>The primary source of total M/SI for the Eastern North Pacific stock of blue whale is vessel strike (≥18 per year). For the Central America/Southern Mexico-California-Oregon-Washington stock of humpback whale, the following are the top sources of M/SI: (1) vessel strike (6.45); (2) unidentified fishery interactions (3.52); and (3) California Dungeness Crab pot fishery (2.01). As such, vessel strike is the primary cause for exceedance of PBR for both stocks.</P>
                    <P>
                        NMFS disagrees with the commenter's assertion that there is not meaningful, effective mitigation for vessel strike risk to these stocks in place, and that the voluntary vessel speed reduction (VSR), discussed below, does nothing to mitigate take near San Francisco. Redfern 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2013) note that the riskiest area for blue whales is the Santa Barbara Channel, where shipping lanes intersect with common feeding areas, and Berman-Kowalewski 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2010) state that southern California and off San Francisco is where most observed blue whale vessel strikes have occurred. NOAA annually issues voluntary vessel speed reduction (VSR) requests that are scheduled to be in effect May 1 to December 31 off San Francisco, Monterey, and Southern California within and near Greater Farallones, Cordell Bank, Monterey Bay, Chumash Heritage and Channel Islands national marine sanctuaries and in partnership with the Blue Whales Blue Skies program (note that in 2025, the Southern California VSR was extended in 2025 to cover Chumash Heritage NMS). Vessels transiting the area from May 1 through December 31, 2025 are recommended to exercise caution and voluntarily reduce speed to 10 kn (18.5 km/hr) or less for blue, humpback, and fin whales.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Channel Islands NMS staff coordinates, collects, and monitors whale sightings in and around the VSR zones and the Channel Islands NMS region. The seasonally established Southern California VSR zone spans from Point Arguello to Dana Point, including the Traffic Separation Schemes in the Santa Barbara Channel and San Pedro Channel. Channel Island NMS observers collect information from aerial surveys conducted by NOAA, the U.S. Coast Guard, California Department of Fish and Game, and U.S. Navy chartered aircraft. Information on seasonal presence, movement, and general distribution patterns of large whales is shared with mariners, NMFS, U.S. Coast Guard, California Department of Fish and Game, the Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History, the Marine Exchange of Southern California, and whale scientists. Real time and historical whale observation data collected from multiple sources can be viewed on the Point Blue Whale Database.</P>
                    <P>
                        The VSR is voluntary, and Morten 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2022), cited by the commenter, note that cooperation with the VSR “has been lower than estimated to be needed to reduce vessel-strike related mortality to levels that do not inhibit reaching and maintaining optimal sustainable populations.” However, the Blue Whales Blue Skies program states that enrollment and cooperation rates from participating shipping lines have increased every year since the program began in 2014. The program further estimates that risk of fatal vessel strikes to endangered whales was reduced by approximately 50 percent in 2024. As such, while vessel strike risk is not eliminated by these measures, the risk is significantly reduced by this meaningful mitigation scheme.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding mortality from fishery interactions, as noted by the commenter, the scope of the new West Coast Take Reduction Team has been updated and no longer includes some fisheries initially planned for inclusion. The current preliminary scope of the Team includes two strategic marine mammal stocks (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         Central America/Southern Mexico and Mainland Mexico stocks of humpback whales) and the Federal sablefish pot fishery. Additional information is available on NMFS' website at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/west-coast/marine-mammal-protection/west-coast-take-reduction-team.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The commenter also states in its letter that NMFS makes no mention of M/SI from unidentified fishery interactions, which make up the second-highest cause of M/SI Central America/Southern Mexico- California-Oregon-Washington stock of humpback whale (estimated at 3.52) (fisheries-related mortality is an insignificant incremental addition to total mortality for blue whales which, as noted above, is almost entirely driven by vessel strike). However, as stated above, if M/SI from a specified activity is less than or equal to 10 percent of PBR and other major sources of human-caused mortality have mitigation in place, then the individual specified activity is considered to have a negligible impact on that stock. As such, while there are not currently mitigation measures in place for the fisheries of greatest concern for these humpback whale stocks, as described above, effective efforts to mitigate impacts from vessel strike, the primary threat to this stock and to Eastern North Pacific blue whales, are in place.
                        <PRTPAGE P="58843"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As indicated in the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section of this final rule, we do not expect lethal take from Action Proponents' activities, alone, to adversely affect Eastern North Pacific blue whales or Central America/Southern Mexico-California-Oregon-Washington stock of humpback whales through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival. Nonetheless, the fact that total human-caused mortality exceeds PBR necessitates close attention to the remainder of the impacts (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         harassment) on both stocks from the Action Proponents' activities to ensure that the total authorized takes have a negligible impact on the species or stock. This analysis occurs in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section of this final rule. While the commenter asserted that these takes by harassment can lead to population-level effects, it did not support this assertion except by reiterating broad points that NMFS has already considered in its Preliminary Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section of the proposed rule and Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Changes From the Proposed Rule to the Final Rule</HD>
                    <P>Since publication of the proposed rule, U.S. Navy vessels have incidentally struck two large whales in waters off Southern California, one on July 15, 2025, and one on August 10, 2025. Using the same methodology as discussed in Estimated Take from Vessel Strike by Serious Injury or Mortality section of the proposed rule and recent vessel strike information, the Navy reanalyzed the potential for vessel strikes of large whales and requested an increase in the authorized take from five to seven large whales by M/SI by vessel strike incidental to Navy training and testing activities. The Coast Guard's requested take authorization remained unchanged at two large whales by M/SI by vessel strike incidental to Coast Guard training activities. NMFS concurs with the Action Proponents' assessment and authorizes the take by M/SI by vessel strike of up to seven large whales by the Navy and two large whales by the Coast Guard (nine large whales total) over the 7-year period covered by this final rule upon finding the total take will have a negligible impact on the affected marine mammal species/stock.</P>
                    <P>Further, since publication of the final rule, the Navy has clarified that rather than 35 missile, rocket, and drone launches and 3 artillery events (38 total) on average per year at PMRF, there will be an estimated 20 missile launches and 3 artillery events (23 total) per year. The drone and rocket launch events referenced in the proposed rule will occur from a launch area farther away from monk seal haul outs, and no take is anticipated from these launches. NMFS has re-estimated the take associated with launches at PMRF, including a change to the take estimation method, as described in the Estimated Take of Marine Mammals section of this final rule. NMFS is authorizing 360 takes by Level B harassment of Hawaiian monk seal annually from missile launches and artillery events, an increase from that included in the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>This final rule includes an expansion of the Hawaii 4-Islands Mitigation Area to include an additional portion of the child small and resident BIA for the Main Hawaiian Islands Insular stock of false killer whale, following an updated proposal from the Action Proponents that resulted from ESA section 7 consultation. This increases the portion of the child BIA overlapping the mitigation area from approximately 40 percent of the BIA as included in the proposed rule to 63 percent. Additionally, this final rule clarifies that the MF active sonar mitigation in this area, the Hawaii Island Marine Mammal Mitigation Area, and the Humpback Whale Special Reporting Mitigation Area includes both MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted MF active sonar. MF1C was inadvertently left out of the Action Proponents application and subsequently the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>The Action Proponents have indicated that extending the date ranges for the Hawaii Humpback Whale Awareness Messages from November 1 through May 31 and the California Large Whale Awareness Message Mitigation Area from November through June, as recommended by commenters, is practicable, and as such, NMFS has updated the required date ranges for these messages in this final rule.</P>
                    <P>The Action Proponents have also proposed a modification to the California Large Whale Real-Time Notification Mitigation Area requirements. In the proposed rule, an aggregation of large whales was considered to be four large whales within 1 nmi (1.9 km)). This final rule considers an aggregation of large whales to be three large whales within 1 nmi (1.9 km). Additionally, the following information will be provided by the Navy in the Annual HCTT Training and Testing Reports: date, time and general location of the whales when the aggregation was first sighted, and the total number of whales in the aggregation. If the whales are identified by species, that information will be provided as well.</P>
                    <P>Regarding activity-based mitigation, this final rule clarifies that the Navy must implement soft start techniques for impact pile driving. Of note, the Navy continues to consider soft-start procedures as part of their standard operating procedures, and as such, they are not listed as a mitigation measure in the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS.</P>
                    <P>This final rule includes a requirement for cetacean live stranding or near-shore atypical milling events. These requirements have previously been included in the Notification and Reporting Plan only. In the event of a cetacean live stranding (or near-shore atypical milling) event within the HCTT Study Area or within 50 km (27 nmi) of the boundary of the HCTT Study Area, where the NMFS Marine Mammal Stranding Network is engaged in herding or other interventions to return animals to the water, NMFS Office of Protected Resources (OPR) will advise the Action Proponents of the need to implement shutdown procedures for all active acoustic sources or explosive devices within 50 km of the stranding. Following this initial shutdown, NMFS will communicate with the Action Proponents to determine whether circumstances support modification of the shutdown zone. The Action Proponents may decline to implement all or part of the shutdown if the holder of the LOA, or his/her designee, determines that it is necessary for national security. Shutdown procedures for live stranding or milling cetaceans include the following:</P>
                    <P>• If at any time, the marine mammal(s) die or are euthanized, or if herding/intervention efforts are stopped, NMFS will immediately advise that the shutdown around the animals' location is no longer needed;</P>
                    <P>• Otherwise, shutdown procedures will remain in effect until NMFS determines and advises that all live animals involved have left the area (either of their own volition or following an intervention); and</P>
                    <P>
                        • If further observations of the marine mammals indicate the potential for re-stranding, additional coordination will be required to determine what measures are necessary to minimize that likelihood (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         extending the shutdown or moving operations farther away) and to implement those measures as appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Last, this final rule includes a new reporting requirement that states that Navy personnel must confirm that foreign military use of sonar and explosives, when such militaries are participating in a U.S. Navy-led exercise 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58844"/>
                        or event, combined with the Action Proponents' use of sonar and explosives, would not cause exceedance of the analyzed levels within each NAEMO modeled sonar and explosive bin used for estimating predicted impacts.
                    </P>
                    <P>The regulations include an addition stating that the annual HCTT training and testing reports must summarize activities and observations of the San Nicolas Island target and missile launch activities for the monitoring period. This final rule also includes minor, clarifying edits in the regulatory text.</P>
                    <P>Last, this final rule clarifies that the HCTT Study Area also includes Navy pierside locations in Hawaii and Southern California, Pearl Harbor, San Diego Bay, and the transit corridor on the high seas where training and testing may occur.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Marine Mammals and Their Habitat in the Area of Specified Activities</HD>
                    <P>
                        Marine mammal species and their associated stocks that have the potential to occur in the HCTT Study Area are presented in table 1 along with each stock's ESA and MMPA status, abundance estimate and associated coefficient of variation (CV) value, N
                        <E T="52">min</E>
                        , PBR, annual M/SI, and potential occurrence in the HCTT Study Area. The Action Proponents anticipate take of 40 species (79 stocks) by Level A and Level B harassment incidental to military readiness activities from the use of sonar and other transducers, in-water detonations, air guns, missile and target launch noise, pile driving/extraction, and vessel movement in the HCTT Study Area.
                    </P>
                    <P>The HCTT proposed rule included additional information about the species in this rule, marine mammal species for which take is not authorized, marine mammal species which could occur in the area but are not managed by NMFS, marine mammal hearing, and National Marine Sanctuaries, all of which remains valid and applicable but has not been reprinted in this final rule. NMFS hereby refers to the information and analysis provided in the proposed rule (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025) which continue to apply to this final rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        Information on the status, distribution, abundance, population trends, habitat, and ecology of marine mammals in the HCTT Study Area may be found in chapter 4 of the Action Proponents' application. NMFS reviewed this information and found it to be accurate and complete. Additional information on the general biology and ecology of marine mammals is included in the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS. Table 1 incorporates the best available science, including data from the 2023 Pacific and Alaska Marine Mammal Stock Assessment Reports (Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024; Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024) (see 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-stock-assessments),</E>
                         and 2024 draft SARs, as well as monitoring data from the Navy's marine mammal research efforts. NMFS has also reviewed new scientific literature since publication of the proposed rule and determined that none of these nor any other new information available changes our determination of which species have the potential to be affected by the Action Proponents' activities or the information pertinent to status, distribution, abundance, population trends, habitat, or ecology of the species in this final rulemaking.
                    </P>
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                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>Below, we consider additional information about the marine mammals in the area of the specified activities that informs our analysis, such as identifying known areas of important habitat or behaviors, or where UMEs have been designated.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Critical Habitat</HD>
                    <P>Currently, the humpback whale (Central America and Mexico DPSs), killer whale (Eastern North Pacific Southern Resident DPS), false killer whale (Main Hawaiian Islands Insular DPS), and Hawaiian monk seal have ESA-designated critical habitat in the HCTT Study Area.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Humpback Whale</HD>
                    <P>On April 21, 2021, NMFS designated critical habitat for the endangered Western North Pacific DPS, the endangered Central America DPS, and the threatened Mexico DPS of humpback whales (86 FR 21082). Areas proposed as critical habitat include specific marine areas located off the coasts of California, Oregon, Washington, and Alaska. Designated critical habitat for the Central America DPS overlaps the NOCAL Range Complex (Units 15, 16, and 17), as well as PMSR and the northern portion of the SOCAL Range Complex (Units 17 and 18). These areas are essential for humpback whale foraging and migration. One of the proposed critical habitat areas, critical habitat Unit 19, would have also overlapped with the SOCAL range in the HSTT Study Area but was excluded after consideration of potential national security and economic impacts of designation.</P>
                    <P>NMFS, in the final rule designating critical habitat for humpback whales, identified prey species, primarily euphausiids and small pelagic schooling fishes of sufficient quality, abundance, and accessibility within humpback whale feeding areas to support feeding and population growth, as an essential habitat feature. NMFS, through a critical habitat review team (CHRT), also considered inclusion of migratory corridors and passage features, as well as sound and the soundscape, as essential habitat features. NMFS did not include either in the final critical habitat; however, as the CHRT concluded that the best available science did not allow for identification of any consistently used migratory corridors or definition of any physical, essential migratory or passage conditions for whales transiting between or within habitats of the three DPSs. Regardless of whether critical habitat is designated for a particular area, NMFS has considered all applicable information regarding marine mammals and their habitat in the analysis supporting these regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Killer Whale</HD>
                    <P>NMFS designated critical habitat for the Southern Resident killer whale DPS on November 29, 2006 (71 FR 69054) in inland waters of Washington State, and on August 2, 2021, revised the designation by designating six additional coastal critical habitat areas along the U.S. West Coast (86 FR 41668). The HCTT Study Area overlaps two of the three continuous sections off the California coast: the North Central CA Coast Area and the Monterey Bay Area. Based on the natural history of the Southern Resident killer whales and their habitat needs, NMFS identified physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the Southern Resident killer whale DPS: (1) water quality to support growth and development; (2) prey species of sufficient quantity, quality, and availability to support individual growth, reproduction, and development, as well as overall population growth; and (3) passage conditions to allow for migration, resting, and foraging.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">False Killer Whale (Main Hawaiian Island Insular DPS)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Critical habitat for the ESA-listed Main Hawaiian Islands insular false killer whale DPS was finalized in July 2018 (83 FR 35062, July 24, 2018) designating waters from the 45 m depth contour to the 3,200 m depth contour around the main Hawaiian Islands from Ni'ihau east to Hawaii. This designation does not include most bays, harbors, or coastal in-water structures. NMFS excluded 14 areas. The total area designated was approximately 45,504 km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         (13,267 nmi
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ) of marine habitat. Critical habitat for the main Hawaiian Islands insular DPS of false killer whale entirely overlaps the HRC.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Main Hawaiian Islands insular false killer whales are island-associated whales that rely entirely on the productive submerged habitat of the main Hawaiian Islands to support all of their life-history stages. Island-associated marine habitat for Main Hawaiian Islands insular false killer whale is the only essential feature of the critical habitat. The following characteristics of this habitat support insular false killer whales' ability to travel, forage, communicate, and move freely around and among the waters surrounding the main Hawaiian Islands: (1) adequate space for movement and use within shelf and slope habitat; (2) prey species of sufficient quantity, quality, and availability to support individual growth, reproduction, and development, as well as overall population growth; (3) waters free of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58851"/>
                        pollutants of a type and amount harmful to Main Hawaiian Islands insular false killer whales; and (4) sound levels that would not significantly impair false killer whales' use or occupancy.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Hawaiian Monk Seal</HD>
                    <P>Critical habitat for Hawaiian monk seals was designated in 1986 (51 FR 16047, April 30, 1986) and later revised in 1988 (53 FR 18988, May 26, 1988) and in 2015 (80 FR 50925, August 21, 2015). In the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands Hawaiian monk seal critical habitat includes all beach areas, sand spits and islets, including all beach crest vegetation to its deepest extent inland as well as the seafloor and marine habitat 10 m in height above the seafloor from the shoreline out to the 200 m depth contour around Kure Atoll (Hōlanikū), Midway Atoll (Kuaihelani), Pearl and Hermes Reef (Manawai), Lisianski Island (Kapou), Laysan Island (Kamole), Maro Reef (Kamokuokamohoali'i), Gardner Pinnacles ('Ōnūnui), French Frigate Shoals (Lalo), Necker Island (Mokumanamana) and Nihoa Island. In the main Hawaiian Islands, Hawaiian monk seal critical habitat includes the seafloor and marine habitat to 10 m above the seafloor from the 200 m depth contour through the shoreline and extending into terrestrial habitat 5 m inland from the shoreline between identified boundary points around Kaula Island (includes marine habitat only), Ni'ihau (includes marine habitat from 10 m to 200 m in depth), Kaua'i, O'ahu, Maui Nui (including Kaho'olawe, Lāna'i, Maui, and Moloka'i), and Hawai'i Island. A portion of the critical habitat overlaps the HRC.</P>
                    <P>The essential features of Hawaiian monk seal critical habitat are: (1) terrestrial areas and adjacent shallow, sheltered aquatic areas with characteristics preferred by monk seals for pupping and nursing; (2) marine areas from 0 to 200 m in depth that support adequate prey quality and quantity for juvenile and adult monk seal foraging; and (3) significant areas used by monk seals for hauling out, resting or molting.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Biologically Important Areas</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ferguson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2015) identified BIAs within U.S. waters of the West Coast (Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015) and in Hawaii (Baird 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015), which represent areas and times in which cetaceans are known to concentrate in areas of known importance for activities related to reproduction, feeding, and migration, or areas where small and resident populations are known to occur. Unlike ESA critical habitat, these areas are not formally designated pursuant to any statute or law but are a compilation of the best available science intended to inform impact and mitigation analyses. An interactive map of the BIAs is available here: 
                        <E T="03">https://oceannoise.noaa.gov/biologically-important-areas.</E>
                         In some cases, additional, or newer, information regarding known feeding, breeding, or migratory areas is available and has been used to update these BIAs (as cited below), and a summary of all of the BIAs is included below.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The West Coast and Hawaii BIAs were updated in 2024 (Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                        ) and 2023 (Kratofil 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                        ), respectively (referred to as BIA II herein). Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024) and Kratofil 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2023) use a new scoring system described here and in Harrison 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2023). Experts identified an overall Importance Score for each BIA that considers: (1) “Intensity”—the intensity and characteristics underlying an area's identification as a BIA; and (2) “Data Support”—the quantity, quality, and type of information, and associated uncertainties, upon which the BIA delineation and scoring depends. Importance Scores range from 1 to 3, with a higher score representing an area of higher intensity and data support. Each BIA identified in BIA II is also scored for boundary uncertainty and spatiotemporal variability (dynamic, ephemeral, or static). Additionally, BIA II includes hierarchical BIAs for some species and stocks where a higher intensity score is appropriate for a smaller core area(s) (child BIA) within a larger BIA unit (parent BIA).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Hawaii Study Area overlaps BIAs for small and resident populations of the following species: spinner dolphin, short-finned pilot whale, rough-toothed dolphin, pygmy killer whale, pantropical spotted dolphin, melon-headed whale, false killer whale, dwarf sperm whale, goose-beaked whale, common bottlenose dolphin, and Blainville's beaked whale. Further, the Hawaii Study Area overlaps updated BIAs for humpback whale reproduction (Kratofil 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). The California Study Area overlaps feeding BIAs for blue whale, fin whale, and humpback whale in SOCAL. Additionally, it overlaps a reproductive BIA as well as northbound and southbound migratory BIAs for gray whale (Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024). Table 2 describes each BIA that overlaps the HCTT Study Area and the scores for the above criteria.
                    </P>
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                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Unusual Mortality Events</HD>
                    <P>A UME is defined under section 410(9) of the MMPA as a stranding that is unexpected; involves a significant die-off of any marine mammal population; and demands immediate response. From 1991 to the present, there have been 17 formally recognized UMEs affecting marine mammals in California and Hawaii and involving species under NMFS' jurisdiction; however, there are currently none that are active.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Potential Effects of Specified Activities on Marine Mammals and Their Habitat</HD>
                    <P>We provided a detailed discussion of the potential effects of the specified activities on marine mammals and their habitat in our proposed rulemaking (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025). NMFS hereby refers to the information and analysis provided in the proposed rule which continue to apply to this final rule. In the Potential Effects of Specified Activities on Marine Mammals and Their Habitat section of the proposed rule, NMFS provided a description of the ways marine mammals may be affected by these activities in the form of, among other things, serious injury or mortality, physical trauma, sensory impairment (auditory injury, temporary threshold shift, and acoustic masking), physiological responses (particularly stress responses), behavioral disturbance, or habitat effects. All of this information remains valid and applicable. Therefore, we do not reprint the information here, but refer the reader to that document.</P>
                    <P>NMFS has also reviewed new relevant information from the scientific literature since publication of the proposed rule. Summaries of the new key scientific literature reviewed since publication of the proposed rule are presented below.</P>
                    <P>
                        Curé 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025) examined the effects of MFAS received level and source distance on the behavioral responses of 14 tagged male sperm whales off northern Norway. Behavioral responses were scored using the severity scale from Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2021), with probability and severity of behavioral responses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         changes in vocal and dive behaviors, avoidance, cessation of feeding or resting, locomotion or orientation changes) increasing with higher received levels (maximum sound exposure level) and closer source proximities. From observations, modeling indicates that beyond 14 km (7.6 nmi) no significant behavioral responses are predicted regardless of received level.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Wensveen 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025), using the same animals from Curé 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025), concluded that source proximity (close: vessels transmitting MFAS starting at 7.4 km (4 nmi) while approaching focal whale vs. distant: vessels transmitting MFAS starting 14.8 km (8 nmi) while approaching focal whale) influenced sperm whale behavioral responses by resulting in decreased foraging time with increased received levels and decreased source proximity, as well as short-term sensitization with subsequent exposure sessions. Specifically, sperm whales were found to increase time in a non-foraging behavioral state or produced a decrease in buzzes (indicative of reduced prey capture) when foraging with MFAS exposure.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Henderson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025) examined the potential behavioral effects of Navy Submarine Command Courses (SCC) involving MFAS (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         hull-mounted, sonobuoys, helicopter-dipping) off the PMRF on three satellite-tagged Blainville's beaked whales (there was a fourth tagged individual but it did not remain on the range during MFAS exposure). Behavioral responses showed individual variation, but short-term changes in dive behavior and horizontal movements were detected. However, only temporary horizontal avoidance was observed, with animals remaining near PMRF (within 10s of kilometers) throughout the SCC and in two situations returning to PMRF after the SCC was completed. Received levels were up to 150 dB, with sources closest points of approach (CPAs) at 18 km (9.7 nmi).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Previous marine mammal TTS studies have followed the trend that susceptibility to noise-induced hearing loss reflects baseline hearing thresholds by frequency (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         audiogram; where frequencies with lower baseline thresholds (lowest point in audiogram) being more susceptible to threshold shifts from noise than frequencies with higher baseline thresholds [at edges of hearing range]). Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025a) examined this trend using three species (harbor porpoise, California sea lion, and harbor seal) with similar baseline hearing thresholds (59-61 dB) at 8 kHz. Despite similar baseline thresholds at 8 kHz, TTS onset (6 dB threshold shift) varied among the species: 169 dB cumulative SEL for harbor porpoise, 176 dB cumulative SEL for California sea lion, and 182 dB cumulative SEL for harbor seal. Thus, despite similar baseline thresholds at 8 kHz, susceptibility varies among species and confirms it is not appropriate to extrapolate data between species.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025b) examined TTS in two harbor seals exposed to one-sixth octave band noise centered 8 kHz. In this study, TTS onset (6 dB threshold shift) occurred at approximately 181 dB cumulative SEL, which is 6 dB higher than what is predicted with the current Navy Phase IV criteria (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         current Navy Phase IV criteria is considered more protective). Furthermore, the equal energy hypothesis is supported based on the noise exposure scenarios (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         frequency, duration, sound pressure levels) used in this study.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Mulsow 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025) evaluated TTS in four bottlenose dolphins exposed to simulated tactical continuous active sonar (CAS) centered at 2.8 kHz and 28 kHz for 1.7 minutes up to 60 minutes. TTS onset for exposure to the 28 kHz CAS ranged from 180 to 190 dB cumulative SEL, while for the 2.8 kHz CAS ranged from 198 to 202 dB cumulative SEL. The TTS onset for HF cetaceans and non-impulsive sounds is 181 dB SEL
                        <E T="52">24h</E>
                        , so this study indicates only a slightly lower TTS onset threshold than that applied in the analysis herein for 28 kHz. Additionally, the equal energy hypothesis is supported based on the noise exposure scenarios (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         frequency, duration, sound pressure levels) used in this study.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025c) evaluated TTS in two California sea lions exposed to one-sixth octave band noise centered at 40 kHz for up to 60 minutes. TTS onset was estimated to occur at 169 dB cumulative SEL, which is much lower than that applied in the analysis herein for non-impulsive sounds (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         179 dB SEL
                        <E T="52">24h</E>
                        ). This is the first time TTS was examined in otariid pinnipeds for noise exposure at 40 kHz. Previous data examining 32 kHz one-sixth octave band noise exposure found a TTS onset of 179 dB cumulative SEL. Thus, the results from the 40 kHz study were unexpected, and the precise explanation for these results remains unclear. Results from this study indicate that otariid pinnipeds may be more susceptible to noise-induced hearing loss from 40 kHz underwater noise than applied criteria predict. Nevertheless, most underwater noise sources are predominantly low frequency. Thus, there are likely only limited sources that produce higher frequencies (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         some types of scientific or tactical sonar, acoustic deterrent devices).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Ruser 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025) represents the first assessment of grey seal (phocid pinnipeds) hearing behaviorally (n=2). This species hearing was very similar to measurements from other phocids, but with best hearing at 4 kHz being lower than previously measured in a phocid 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58858"/>
                        pinniped. Of note, one individual's (seal Hg_1) thresholds were near ambient noise levels at frequencies measured below 1 kHz. Seal Hg_1's thresholds were also 6 to 13 dB lower than Hg_2 from this study. Seal Hg-2's measured thresholds aligned more with those previously measured in other phocid pinnipeds (see figure 1 in Ruser 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025) for comparisons). The authors caution “Since the results [from Hg_1] are unusually low, confirmation of the hearing thresholds would be highly desirable.” Finally, each hearing group's composite audiogram is created based on the median to reduce the influence of outliers (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the lowest threshold from any individual does not determine the composite audiogram).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Sills 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025) measured low-frequency (&lt;100 Hz) underwater hearing thresholds in one California sea lion (otariid) and two bearded seals (phocid). Sills 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025) tested 40 Hz and found that both species can detect this frequency. The data were consistent with data previously collected from bearded seals (Sills 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020). The California sea lion data from this study indicated a slope change at the base of the audiogram that may have resulted from a shift in the sensory modality from acoustic detection to detecting particle velocity.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Dunlop 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2025) estimates masked hearing thresholds for humpback whales at four frequencies between 250 Hz and 16 kHz (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         250 Hz, 1 kHz, 4 kHz, and 16 kHz) using behavioral observation audiometry (BOA).
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These data and critical ratios were used to determine Minimum Response Levels (MRLs) 
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and serve as a surrogate for determining the shape of this species' masked audiogram, indicating humpback whale hearing extends to at least 16 kHz. This is consistent with the applied LF hearing criteria.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             BOA is a technique commonly used in human infants but was first used done on a marine mammal (walrus) by Kastelein 
                            <E T="03">et al.</E>
                             1993.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             MRLs are the lowest level of sound to which a subject is responsive during behavioral observation audiometry (BOA). 
                            <E T="03">Note:</E>
                             An MRL is not equivalent to an audiometric threshold obtained through behavioral audiometry methods (Norrix 2015). MRLs are instead observed responses to a stimulus and can be affected by the state of attention, context, and prior experience with a signal, as well as the background noise levels (Dunlop 
                            <E T="03">et al.</E>
                             2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Having considered the new information, along with information provided in public comments on the proposed rule, we have determined that there is no new information that substantively affects our analysis of potential impacts on marine mammals and their habitat that appeared in the proposed rule, all of which remains applicable and valid for our assessment of the effects of the Action Proponents' activities during the 7-year period of this rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Estimated Take of Marine Mammals</HD>
                    <P>This section indicates the number of takes NMFS is authorizing, which is based on the amount of take NMFS anticipates is reasonably likely to occur. NMFS coordinated closely with the Action Proponents in the development of their incidental take application and agrees that the methods the Action Proponents have put forth described herein to estimate take (including the model, thresholds, and density estimates), and the resulting numbers are based on the best available science and appropriate for authorization.</P>
                    <P>The 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS considered all military readiness activities planned to occur in the HCTT Study Area that have the potential to result in the MMPA defined take of marine mammals. The Action Proponents determined that the four stressors below could result in the incidental taking of marine mammals. NMFS has reviewed the Action Proponents' data and analysis and determined that it is complete and accurate and agrees that the following stressors have the potential to result in takes by harassment of marine mammals from the specified activities:</P>
                    <P>• Acoustics (sonars and other transducers, air guns, pile driving/extraction);</P>
                    <P>• Explosives (explosive shock wave and sound, assumed to encompass the risk due to fragmentation);</P>
                    <P>• Land-based launch noise from missile and target launches at San Nicolas Island and weapons firing and launch noise at PMRF; and</P>
                    <P>• Vessel strike.</P>
                    <P>Acoustic and explosive sources and land-based launch noise are likely to result in incidental takes of marine mammals by harassment. Vessel strikes have the potential to result in incidental take from injury, serious injury, and/or mortality.</P>
                    <P>For this military readiness activity, section 3(18)(B) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1362(18)(B)) defines “harassment” as: (1) any act that injures or has the significant potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (2) any act that disturbs or is likely to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of natural behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, surfacing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering, to a point where the behavioral patterns are abandoned or significantly altered (Level B harassment).</P>
                    <P>
                        Authorized takes are primarily in the form of Level B harassment, as use of the acoustic (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         active sonar, pile driving, and seismic air guns) and explosive sources and missile launches is most likely to result in disruption of natural behavioral patterns to a point where they are abandoned or significantly altered (as defined specifically at the beginning of this section, but referred to generally as behavioral disturbance) for marine mammals, either via direct behavioral disturbance or TTS. There is also the potential for Level A harassment, in the form of auditory injury arising from exposure to sound sources utilized in military readiness activities. Lastly, no more than 7 serious injuries or mortalities total (over the 7-year period) of large whales could potentially occur through vessel strikes, and 40 serious injuries or mortalities (over the 7-year period) from explosive use. Although we analyze the impacts of these potential serious injuries or mortalities that are authorized, the required mitigation and monitoring measures are expected to minimize the likelihood (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         further lower the already low probability) that vessel strike (and the associated serious injury or mortality) would occur, as well as the severity of other takes (including serious injury or mortality from use of explosives).
                    </P>
                    <P>Generally speaking, for acoustic impacts, NMFS estimates the amount and type of harassment by considering: (1) acoustic thresholds above which NMFS believes the best available science indicates marine mammals would experience behavioral disturbance or incur some degree of temporary or permanent hearing impairment; (2) the area or volume of water that would be ensonified above these levels in a day or event; (3) the density or occurrence of marine mammals within these ensonified areas; and (4) the number of days of activities or events.</P>
                    <P>
                        We provided a detailed discussion of the acoustic thresholds, acoustic effects modeling and estimation, range to effects for stressors, and marine mammal density information in our proposed rulemaking (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025). NMFS hereby refers to the information and analysis provided in the proposed rule which continue to apply to this final rule. In the Estimated Take of Marine Mammals section of the proposed rule, we identified the subset of potential effects that would be expected to rise to the level of takes both annually and over the 7-year period covered by the rule, then 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58859"/>
                        identified the maximum number of takes we believe could occur (mortality) or are reasonably expected to occur (harassment) based on the methods described. All of this information remains valid and applicable. Therefore, we do not repeat the information here, but refer the reader to the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Estimated Take From Acoustic Stressors</HD>
                    <P>The quantitative analysis process used for the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS and the application to estimate potential exposures to marine mammals resulting from acoustic and explosive stressors is detailed in the Acoustic Impacts Technical Report.</P>
                    <P>Regarding how avoidance of loud sources is considered in the take estimation, NAEMO does not simulate horizontal animat movement during an event. However, NAEMO approximates marine mammal avoidance of high sound levels due to exposure to sonars in a one-dimensional calculation that scales how far an animat would be from a sound source based on sensitivity to disturbance, swim speed, and avoidance duration. This process reduces the SEL, defined as the accumulation for a given animat, by reducing the received SPL of individual exposures based on a spherical spreading calculation from sources on each unique platform in an event. The onset of avoidance was based on the behavioral response functions. Avoidance speeds and durations were informed by a review of available exposure and baseline data. This method captures a more accurate representation of avoidance by using the received sound levels, distance to platform, and species-specific criteria to calculate potential avoidance for each animat than the approach used in Phase III. However, this avoidance method may underestimate avoidance of long-duration sources with lower sound levels because it triggers avoidance calculations based on the highest modeled SPL received level exceeding p(0.5) on the BRF, rather than on cumulative exposure. This is because initiation of the avoidance calculation is based on the highest modeled SPL received level over p(0.5) on the BRF. Please see section 4.4.2.2 of the Acoustic Impacts Technical Report.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the consideration of mitigation effectiveness in the take estimation, during military readiness activities, there is typically at least one, if not numerous, support personnel involved in the activity (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         range support personnel aboard a torpedo retrieval boat or support aircraft). In addition to the Lookouts posted for the purpose of mitigation, these additional personnel observe and disseminate marine species sighting information amongst the units participating in the activity whenever possible as they conduct their primary mission responsibilities. However, unlike in previous phases of HCTT, this quantitative analysis does not reduce model-estimated impacts to account for activity-based mitigation. While the activity-based mitigation is not quantitatively included in the take estimates (which, of note, would result in a reduction in the number of takes), table A-6 of appendix A of the application indicates the percentage of the instances of take where an animal's closest point of approach was within a mitigation zone and, therefore, AUD INJ could potentially be mitigated. Note that these percentages do not account for other factors, such as the sightability of a given species or viewing conditions.
                    </P>
                    <P>Unlike activity-based mitigation, in some cases, implementation of the geographic mitigation areas is reflected in the quantitative analysis. The extent to which the mitigation areas reduce impacts on the affected species is addressed in the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section.</P>
                    <P>For additional information on the quantitative analysis process, refer to the Acoustic Impacts Technical Report and sections 6 and 11 of the application.</P>
                    <P>
                        As a general matter, NMFS does not prescribe the methods for estimating take for any applicant, but we review and ensure that applicants use the best available science, and methodologies that are logical and technically sound. Applicants may use different methods of calculating take (especially when using models) and still get to a result that is representative of the best available science and that allows for a rigorous and accurate evaluation of the effects on the affected populations. There are multiple pieces of the Navy's take estimation methods (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         propagation models, animat movement models, and behavioral thresholds). NMFS evaluates the acceptability of these pieces as they evolve and are used in different rules and impact analyses. Some of the pieces of the Action Proponents' take estimation process have been used in Navy incidental take rules since 2009 and undergone multiple public comment processes; all of them have undergone extensive internal Navy review, and all of them have undergone comprehensive review by NMFS, which has sometimes resulted in modifications to methods or models.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Navy uses rigorous review processes (verification, validation, and accreditation processes; peer and public review) to ensure the data and methodology it uses represent the best available science. For instance, NAEMO is the result of a NMFS-led Center for Independent Experts review of the components used in earlier models. The acoustic propagation component of NAEMO (titled CASS/GRAB) is accredited by the Oceanographic and Atmospheric Master Library (OAML), and many of the environmental variables used in NAEMO come from approved OAML databases and are based on in-situ data collection. The animal density components of NAEMO are base products of the NMSDD, which includes animal density components that have been validated and reviewed by a variety of scientists from NMFS Science Centers and academic institutions. Several components of the model, for example, habitat-based density model results for species off Hawaii and California have been published in several peer-reviewed journals (Becker 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020; Becker 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; Becker 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022a; Becker 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022b). Additionally, NAEMO simulation components underwent quality assurance and quality control (commonly referred to as QA/QC) review and validation for model parts such as the scenario builder, acoustic builder, scenario simulator, 
                        <E T="03">etc.,</E>
                         conducted by qualified statisticians and modelers to ensure accuracy. Other models and methodologies have gone through similar review processes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In summary, we believe the Action Proponents' methods, including the method for incorporating avoidance, are the most appropriate methods for predicting AUD INJ, non-auditory injury, TTS, and behavioral disturbance. But even with the consideration of avoidance, given some of the more conservative components of the methodology (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the thresholds do not consider auditory threshold shift recovery between pulses), we would describe the application of these methods as identifying the maximum number of instances in which marine mammals would be reasonably expected to be taken through AUD INJ, non-auditory injury, TTS, or behavioral disturbance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Based on the methods discussed in the previous sections and NAEMO, the Action Proponents provided their take estimate and request for authorization of takes incidental to the use of acoustic and explosive sources for military readiness activities annually (based on the maximum number of activities that could occur per 12-month period) and over the 7-year period covered by the application. The following species/
                        <PRTPAGE P="58860"/>
                        stocks present in the HCTT Study Area were modeled by the Navy and estimated to have zero takes of any type from any activity source: killer whale (Eastern North Pacific Southern Resident stock) and spinner dolphin (Midway Atoll/Kure stock and Pearl and Hermes stock). NMFS has reviewed the Action Proponents' data, methodology, and analysis and determined that it is complete and accurate. NMFS agrees that the estimates for incidental takes by harassment from all sources requested for authorization are the maximum number of instances in which marine mammals are reasonably expected to be taken and that the takes by mortality requested for authorization are for the maximum number of instances mortality or serious injury could occur, as in the case of ship shock trials and vessel strikes.
                    </P>
                    <P>Table 3, table 4, table 5, and table 6 summarize the maximum annual and 7-year total amount and type of Level A harassment and Level B harassment that NMFS concurs is reasonably expected to occur by species and stock for Navy training activities, Navy testing activities, Coast Guard training activities, and Army training activities, respectively.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
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                        <GID>ER17DE25.091</GID>
                    </GPH>
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                        <PRTPAGE P="58862"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.092</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58863"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.093</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58864"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.094</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58865"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.095</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58866"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.096</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58867"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.097</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58868"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.098</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58869"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.099</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58870"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.100</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58871"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.101</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58872"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.102</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58873"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.103</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58874"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.104</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58875"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.105</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="620">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58876"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.106</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Estimated Take From Sonar and Other Transducers</HD>
                    <P>
                        Table 7, table 8, and table 9 provide estimated effects from sonar and other transducers, including the comparative amounts of TTS and behavioral disturbance for each species and stock annually, noting that if a modeled 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58877"/>
                        marine mammal was “taken” through exposure to both TTS and behavioral disturbance in the model, it was recorded as a TTS. Of note, a higher proportion of the takes by Level B harassment of mysticetes include the potential for TTS (as compared to other taxa and prior rules) due to a combination of the fact that mysticetes are relatively less sensitive to behavioral disturbance and the number of auditory impacts from sonar (both TTS and AUD INJ) have increased for some species since the Phase III analysis (84 FR 70712, December 23, 2019) largely due to changes in how avoidance was modeled; for some stocks, changes in densities in areas that overlap activities have also contributed to increased or decreased impacts compared to those modeled in Phase III.
                    </P>
                    <P>Compared to the prior analysis, the Action Proponents propose to use more hours of hull-mounted surface ship sonar, and these activities are newly analyzed in the NOCAL range complex and in PMSR. Compared to the prior analysis, this analysis considers increased use of MF1 (regular duty cycle) and MF1C (continuous duty cycle) associated with Navy training activities and decreased use of MF1 and MF1C associated with Navy testing activities. This analysis also considers the training and testing usage of these sonars across an expanded study area. For the maximum analyzed year of training and testing activities under this proposed action, MF1 has increased 20 percent and MF1C has increased 50 percent in the expanded California Study Area (which now includes PMSR and NOCAL). In the Hawaii Study Area MF1 and MF1C is planned to increase greater than 10 percent and 60 percent respectively when compared to the prior HSTT analysis.</P>
                    <P>Additionally, the updated high-frequency (HF) cetacean criteria reflect greater susceptibility to auditory effects at low and mid-frequencies than previously analyzed. Consequently, the predicted auditory effects due to sources under 10 kHz, including but not limited to MF1 hull-mounted sonar and other anti-submarine warfare sonars, are substantially higher for this auditory group than in prior analyses of the same activities. Thus, for activities with sonars, some modeled exposures that would previously have been categorized as significant behavioral responses may now instead be counted as auditory effects (TTS and AUD INJ). Similarly, the updated HF cetacean criteria reflect greater susceptibility to auditory effects at low and mid-frequencies in impulsive sounds. For VHF cetaceans, susceptibility to auditory effects has not changed substantially since the prior analysis.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58878"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.107</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58879"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.108</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58880"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.109</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58881"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.110</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58882"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.111</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58883"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.112</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58884"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.113</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58885"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.114</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58886"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.115</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58887"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.116</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58888"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.117</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58889"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.118</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58890"/>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Estimated Take From Air Guns and Pile Driving</HD>
                    <P>Table 10 provides estimated effects from air guns, including the comparative amounts of TTS and behavioral disturbance for each species and stock annually, noting that if a modeled marine mammal was “taken” through exposure to both TTS and behavioral disturbance in the model, it was recorded as a TTS.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58891"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.119</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58892"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.120</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>
                        Table 11 provides the estimated effects from pile driving and extraction, including the comparative amounts of TTS and behavioral disturbance for each 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58893"/>
                        species and stock annually, noting that if a modeled marine mammal was “taken” through exposure to both TTS and behavioral disturbance in the model, it was recorded as a TTS.
                    </P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="589">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.121</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Estimated Take From Target and Missile Launch Activities</HD>
                    <P>Table 12 provides the estimated effects from target and missile launch activities at San Nicolas Island (SNI) and PMRF, including the amounts of behavioral disturbance for each species and stock annually. Pinnipeds hauled out on the shoreline of SNI have been observed to behaviorally react to the sound of launches of targets and missiles from launch pads on the island (Naval Air Warfare Center Weapons Division, 2018; U.S. Department of the Navy, 2020b, 2022b, 2023). The estimate of the number of behavioral effects that would be expected due to in-air noise from launches was based on observations of pinnipeds over three monitoring seasons (2015 to 2017) divided by the number of launch events over that same time period. The Navy determined that the numbers presented in table 12 (see table 5-6 of the application) represent the number of pinnipeds expected to be hauled out at SNI based on surveys over the 5-year period from 2014 to 2019 (U.S. Department of the Navy, 2020a) and the average number of effects observed per launch event (U.S. Department of the Navy, 2020b, 2022b, 2023) (of note, the estimated behavioral effects presented in table 12 are the same as those authorized in the July 2022 PMSR LOA (87 FR 40888, July 8, 2022)).</P>
                    <P>For California sea lions, take estimates at SNI were derived from three monitoring seasons (2015 to 2017) where an average of 274.44 instances of take of sea lions by Level B harassment occurred per launch event. Therefore, 275 sea lions was multiplied by 40 launch events, for a take estimate of 11,000 instances of take by Level B harassment of California sea lions annually (table 12). Of note, the Navy has not conducted more than 25 launch events in a given year since 2001. For harbor seals, a total of 12 takes were derived from the 2016 and 2017 monitoring seasons and multiplied by 40 launch events for a total of 480 instances of take by Level B harassment annually (table 12). For northern elephant seals, take estimates were derived from three monitoring seasons (2015 to 2017) where an average of 0.61 instances of take of northern elephant seals by Level B harassment occurred per launch event. Therefore, 1 northern elephant seal was multiplied by 40 launch events for a take estimate of 40 instances of take by Level B harassment of northern elephant seals annually (table 12). Generally, northern elephant seals do not react to launch events other than simple alerting responses such as raising their heads or temporarily going from sleeping to being awake; however, to account for the rare instances where they have reacted, the Navy considered that some northern elephant seals could be taken during launch events.</P>
                    <P>
                        At PMRF from 2020 to 2023, an annual average of 215 monk seals have been counted hauled out on the beach (unpublished Navy data). The maximum number of seals observed during a single observation was five and the minimum was zero; on most observations no hauled out seals were observed. This final rule includes an updated estimate of behavioral effects on hauled out monk seals based upon a revised estimate of missile, rocket and drone launches, and artillery events provided by the Navy. Rather than the 35 missile, rocket, drone launches; and 3 artillery events estimated in the proposed rule, the Navy anticipates 20 missile launches and 3 artillery events (23 total). Each missile launch could occur over up to 3 days (60 days total), and each artillery event could equate to 4 days of firing (12 days total). As such, to estimate take of monk seals from missile launches and artillery events, NMFS multiplied 5 monk seals by 72 days of activity for a total of 360 takes per year. The rocket and drone launches referenced in the proposed rule will occur from a launch area outside of the area where these activities would be anticipated to harass Hawaiian monk seals. As such, no take from rocket and drone launches is anticipated or authorized in this final rule. Of note, monk seal in-air hearing is less sensitive than hearing in other phocid seals (Ruscher 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; Ruscher 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2025), suggesting that monk seals may be less likely to respond to in-air noise.
                    </P>
                    <P>Neither TTS nor auditory injury is anticipated from missile and launch activities, as marine mammals are not anticipated to be exposed to noise from these activities that exceed the TTS or auditory injury thresholds (see the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS appendix E.1, In-Air Acoustic Effects on Pinnipeds from Weapons Firing Noise).</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
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                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Estimated Take From Explosives</HD>
                    <P>Table 13 provides estimated effects from explosives during Navy training activities and table 14 provides estimated effects from explosives including small ship shock trials from Navy testing activities. Table 15 provides estimated effects from small ship shock trials over a maximum year (one event) of Navy testing activities, which is a subset of the information included in table 14. Table 16 provides estimated effects from explosives during Coast Guard training activities, and table 17 provides estimated effects from explosives during Army training activities.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
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                        <PRTPAGE P="58896"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.124</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58897"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.125</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58898"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.126</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58899"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.127</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58900"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.128</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58901"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.129</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58902"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.130</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58903"/>
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                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58904"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.132</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58905"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.133</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58906"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.134</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="572">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58907"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.135</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58908"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.136</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58909"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.137</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58910"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.138</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58911"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.139</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58912"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.140</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58913"/>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Estimated Take From Vessel Strike by Serious Injury or Mortality</HD>
                    <P>
                        Vessel strikes from commercial, recreational, and military vessels are known to affect large whales and have resulted in serious injury and fatalities to cetaceans (Abramson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2011; Berman-Kowalewski 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2010a; Calambokidis, 2012; Douglas 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008; Laggner, 2009; Lammers 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Van der Hoop 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013; Van der Hoop 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012). Records of vessel strikes of large whales date back to the early 17th century, and the worldwide number of vessel strikes of large whales appears to have increased steadily during recent decades (Laist 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001; Ritter, 2012).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Numerous studies of interactions between surface vessels and marine mammals have demonstrated that free-ranging marine mammals often, but not always (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         McKenna 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015), engage in avoidance behavior when surface vessels move toward them. It is not clear whether these responses are caused by the physical presence of a surface vessel, the underwater noise generated by the vessel, or an interaction between the two (Amaral and Carlson, 2005; Au and Green, 2000; Bain 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006; Bauer, 1986; Bejder 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1999; Bejder and Lusseau, 2008; Bejder 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009; Bryant 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1984; Corkeron, 1995; Erbe, 2002; Félix, 2001; Goodwin and Cotton, 2004; Greig 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020; Guilpin 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020; Keen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019; Lemon 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006; Lusseau, 2003; Lusseau, 2006; Magalhaes 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2002; Nowacek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001; Redfern 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020; Richter 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Scheidat 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Simmonds, 2005; Szesciorka 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019; Watkins, 1986; Williams 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2002; Wursig 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1998). Several authors suggest that the noise generated during motion is probably an important factor (Blane and Jaakson, 1994; Evans 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1992; Evans 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1994). These studies suggest that the behavioral responses of marine mammals to surface vessels are similar to their behavioral responses to predators. Avoidance behavior is expected to be even stronger in the subset of instances during which the Action Proponents are conducting military readiness activities using active sonar or explosives.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The marine mammals most vulnerable to vessel strikes are those that spend extended periods of time at the surface in order to restore oxygen levels within their tissues after deep dives (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         sperm whales). In addition, some baleen whales seem generally unresponsive to vessel sound, making them more susceptible to vessel strikes (Nowacek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004). These species are primarily large, slow moving whales. There are 8 species (17 stocks) of large whales that are known to occur within the HCTT Study Area (table 1): gray whale, blue whale, Bryde's whale, fin whale, humpback whale, minke whale, sei whale, and sperm whale.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Some researchers have suggested that the relative risk of a vessel strike can be assessed as a function of animal density and the magnitude of vessel traffic (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Fonnesbeck 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008; Vanderlaan 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008). Differences among vessel types also influence the probability of a vessel strike. The ability of any vessel to detect a marine mammal and avoid a collision depends on a variety of factors, including environmental conditions, vessel design, size, speed, and ability and number of personnel observing, as well as the behavior of the animal. Vessel speed, size, and mass are all important factors in determining if injury or death of a marine mammal is likely due to a vessel strike. For large vessels, speed and angle of approach can influence the severity of a strike. Large whales also do not have to be at the water's surface to be struck. Silber 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2010) found that when a whale is below the surface (about one to two times the vessel draft), under certain circumstances (vessel speed and location of the whale relative to the ship's centerline), there is likely to be a pronounced propeller suction effect. This suction effect may draw the whale into the hull of the ship, increasing the probability of propeller strikes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        There are some key differences between the operation of military and non-military vessels which make the likelihood of a military vessel striking a whale lower than some other vessels (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         commercial merchant vessels). Key differences include:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Military vessels have personnel assigned to stand watch at all times, day and night, when moving through the water (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         when the vessel is underway). Watch personnel undertake extensive training and are certified to stand watch only after demonstrating competency in all necessary skills. While on watch, personnel employ visual search and reporting procedures in accordance with the U.S. Navy Lookout Training Handbook, the Coast Guard's Shipboard Lookout Manual, or civilian equivalent.
                    </P>
                    <P>• The bridges of many military vessels are positioned closer to the bow, offering better visibility ahead of the vessel (compared to a commercial merchant vessel);</P>
                    <P>• Military readiness activities often involve aircraft (which can serve as part of the Lookout team), that can more readily detect cetaceans in the vicinity of a vessel or ahead of a vessel's present course, often before crew on the vessel would be able to detect them;</P>
                    <P>• Military vessels are generally more maneuverable than commercial merchant vessels, and are therefore capable of changing course more quickly in the event cetaceans are spotted in the vessel's path. Of note, from 2019 to August 31, 2025, Navy vessels maneuvered 140 times, and from 2009 to August 31, 2025, Navy vessels maneuvered 374 times;</P>
                    <P>• Military vessels operate at the slowest speed practical consistent with operational requirements. While minimum speed is intended as a fuel conservation measure particular to a certain ship class, secondary benefits include a better ability to detect and avoid objects in the water, including marine mammals;</P>
                    <P>• Military ships often operate within a defined area for a period of time, in contrast to point-to-point commercial shipping over greater distances;</P>
                    <P>• The crew size on military vessels is generally larger than merchant vessels, allowing for stationing more trained Lookouts on the bridge. At all times when the Action Proponents' vessels are underway, trained Lookouts and bridge navigation teams are used to detect objects on the surface of the water ahead of the ship, including cetaceans. Some events may have additional personnel (beyond the minimum number of required Lookouts) who are already standing watch in or on the platform conducting the event or additional participating platforms and would have eyes on the water for all or part of an event. These additional personnel serve as members of the Lookout team; and</P>
                    <P>• When submerged, submarines are generally slow moving (to avoid detection); as a result, marine mammals at depth with a submarine are likely able to avoid collision with the submarine. When a submarine is transiting on the surface, the Navy posts Lookouts serving the same function as they do on surface vessels.</P>
                    <P>Vessel strike to marine mammals is not associated with any specific military readiness activity. Rather, vessel strike is a limited and sporadic, but possible, accidental result of military vessel movement within the HCTT Study Area or while in transit.</P>
                    <P>
                        There were two recorded U.S. Navy vessel strikes of large whales in the HSTT (now HCTT) Study Area in 2009. There were no known strikes from June 2009 until May 2021, a period of approximately 12 years. Of note, between 2009 and 2024, the Navy documented 384 U.S. Navy vessel movements in HSTT to avoid marine 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58914"/>
                        mammals during MTEs. Since 2021 there have been seven strikes of large whales in SOCAL attributed to naval vessels: Five by the U.S. Navy and two by the Royal Australian Navy. Two of these strikes occurred once the proposed rule was made publicly available for inspection and open comment (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025). The facts surrounding each vessel strike are summarized as follows:
                    </P>
                    <P>On August 10, 2025, a San Antonio-class amphibious transport dock ship (661 ft (201.5 m) long) struck an unknown species of whale in Pacific Ocean waters approximately 13 nmi (24 km) west of San Clemente Island. The vessel was involved with other units in a training exercise in the SOCAL Range Complex and was traveling south at 18 kn (33.3 km/h). Bridge watchstanders and lookouts on the vessel spotted a whale 100 yards (yd; 91.4 m) ahead of the vessel, and the vessel responded by reducing speed and turning to the right with a full right rudder. The aft lookout reported blood in the water, and the vessel turned around to verify the report. Crew observed a whale blow and blood in the water. The vessel remained in the area for another 20 minutes and personnel observed a whale traveling northeast, maintaining a minimum distance of 500 yd (457.2 m) from the whale as required by the mitigation measures. Crew reported two more blows with an 8-minute dive interval between each blow. The weather was clear at the time of the strike with a Beaufort sea state of 2. Although the species of whale was not identified at the time of the strike, 4 days later, on August 14, Navy biologists found a blue whale carcass washed ashore on San Clemente Island. While the stranding location and timing are close to the location and timing of the Navy strike, with a significant large whale population off Southern California, based on the available information at this time, we cannot confirm with any degree of certainty that the blue whale carcass found on August 14 was the same whale struck by the Navy vessel on August 10.</P>
                    <P>On July 15, 2025, an Arleigh Burke class destroyer (511 ft (155.8 m) long) struck an unknown species of large whale in Pacific Ocean waters approximately 57 nmi (105.6 km) west/southwest of San Clemente Island. The vessel was transiting from SOCAL to PMSR after conducting a training activity and was traveling north/northwest at 22 kn (40.7 km/h) at the time of the strike. Personnel heard a thud and banging sound on the starboard hull. The vessel slowed and topside personnel discovered a whale lodged on the hull. The vessel came to a complete stop and backed up to dislodge the carcass which immediately sank, approximately 5-8 minutes after the strike had occurred. Navy personnel estimated that the whale was approximately 20 to 25 ft (6.1 to 7.6 m) long, but low light prevented observation of other identifying features. The strike occurred at night (10:12 p.m. local time), and visibility was poor (4-5 nmi (7.4-9.3 km)) with cloud cover, slight precipitation, and wind. No whales had been observed that day prior to the strike.</P>
                    <P>
                        Further, the U.S. Navy struck a large whale in Pacific Ocean waters off Southern California in May 2023. Based on available photos and video, NMFS and the Navy have determined this whale was either a fin whale or sei whale. The U.S. Navy struck two unidentified large whales during the months of June and July 2021, and prior to that, on May 7, 2021, the Royal Australian Navy HMAS Sydney, a 147.5 m (161.3 yd) Hobart Class Destroyer, struck and killed two fin whales (a mother and her calf) while operating within SOCAL. Please see the 
                        <E T="03">Authorized Take From Vessel Strikes and Explosives by Serious Injury or Mortality</E>
                         section of the 2025 HSTT final rule (90 FR 4944, January 16, 2025) for detailed descriptions of the naval vessel strikes that occurred in 2021 and 2023.
                    </P>
                    <P>In March 2024 a dead fin whale was discovered off of Pier 10 in Naval Station San Diego within the Navy's security barrier. The security barrier, which consists of a series of connected floating sections, is intended to discourage unauthorized boat entry to the piers. The necropsy indicated that vessel strike was the most likely cause of death. Given the location the whale was discovered, this could have been the result of a military vessel strike. However, the Navy reviewed its vessel activity during that time frame and available observations of those vessels coming and going to port, as well as at port, and determined it was unlikely that the whale was carried into port by a Navy vessel. Based on this and other information from the Navy's investigation, we cannot determine whether this whale was struck by a Navy vessel during HSTT activities or was struck by a commercial or other vessel and drifted into the Navy pier area.</P>
                    <P>On September 12, 2025, a U.S. Navy lookout reported a whale carcass adjacent to the port quarter of a transiting U.S. Navy vessel in the PMSR. There were no observations of whales or other indicators prior to the discovery, and sailors onboard did not feel a shudder or other physical indicator of strike. While one lookout reported blood in the water surrounding the carcass, other lookouts could not corroborate the sighting. Some time after the potential observation, a piece of machinery within the Navy vessel's engine room spaces was abnormally vibrating. Given the conflicting account, we cannot conclusively determine that a whale carcass was discovered, nor can we determine whether the Navy vessel struck a whale.</P>
                    <P>There has been one recorded Coast Guard vessel strike of a large whale (humpback) in the HCTT Study Area since 2009. The strike occurred in 2020 off Maui, HI. There have been no known strikes within the California portion of the HCTT Study Area. However, there were two Coast Guard strikes outside of and inshore of the California portion of the HCTT Study Area, a humpback whale in 2023 and a gray whale in 2024. The vessels involved in the 2023 and 2024 strikes were moving at slow speed less than 6 kn (11.1 km/hr) and no obvious injury to the whales were observed after the strikes.</P>
                    <P>In light of the key differences between the operation of military and non-military vessels discussed above, it is unlikely that a military vessel would strike any type of marine mammal without detecting it. Specifically, Lookouts posted on or near the ship's bow can visually detect a strike in the absence of other indications that a strike has occurred. The Action Proponents' internal procedures and mitigation requirements include reporting of any vessel strikes of marine mammals, and the Action Proponents' discipline, extensive training (not only for detecting marine mammals, but for detecting and reporting any potential navigational obstruction), and strict chain of command give NMFS a high level of confidence that all strikes are reported. Accordingly, NMFS is confident that the Navy and Coast Guard's reported strikes are accurate and appropriate for use in the analysis.</P>
                    <P>
                        Neither NMFS nor the Action Proponents anticipate vessel strike of dolphins, small whales (not including large whale calves), porpoises, or pinnipeds from the specified activity. For as long as records have been kept, neither the Navy nor the Coast Guard have any record of any small whales or pinnipeds being struck by a vessel as a result of military readiness activities. Over the same time period, NMFS, the Navy, and the Coast Guard have only one record of a dolphin being struck by a vessel as a result of Navy or Coast Guard activities. The dolphin was accidentally struck by a Navy small boat 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58915"/>
                        in fall 2021 in Saint Andrew's Pass, Florida. Except for the single reported strike of a dolphin in 2021, NMFS has never received any reports from other LOA or IHA holders indicating that these species have been struck by vessels. Further, the majority of the Action Proponents' activities involving faster-moving vessels (that could be considered more likely to hit a marine mammal) are located in offshore areas where smaller delphinid, porpoise, and pinniped densities are lower.
                    </P>
                    <P>In order to account for the accidental nature of vessel strike to large whales in general, and the potential risk from vessel movement within the HCTT Study Area within the 7-year period of this proposed authorization, the Action Proponents requested incidental takes based on probabilities derived from a Poisson distribution. A Poisson distribution is often used to describe random occurrences when the probability of an occurrence is small. Count data, such as cetacean sighting data, or in this case strike data, are often described as a Poisson or over-dispersed Poisson distribution. The Poisson distribution was calculated using vessel strike data from 2009 through August 31, 2025 in the HCTT Study Area, historical at-sea days in the HCTT Study Area for the Navy and the Coast Guard (described in detail in section 6 of the application), and estimated potential at-sea days for both Action Proponents during the 7-year period from 2025 to 2032 covered by the requested regulations. The analysis incorporates data beginning in 2009, as that year was the start of the Navy's Marine Species Awareness Training and adoption of additional mitigation measures to address vessel strike, which will remain in place along with additional and modified mitigation measures during the 7 years of this rulemaking. The analysis for the period of 2025 to 2032 is described in detail below and in section 6.3.2 (Probability of Vessel Strike of Large Whale Species) of the application.</P>
                    <P>
                        Between 2009 and August 31, 2025, there were a total of 36,306 Navy at-sea days for Navy manned vessels greater than 118 m (387 ft, or Littoral Combat Ship size and above) in the HCTT Study Area, an average 2,178 days at-sea per year. This estimate is based on positional tracking data records from the Navy's Authoritative Maritime Services database for the years 2016-2023. The Navy used the average of the 2016-2023 annual values as a surrogate for annual at-sea days for each year between 2009 and 2015. Given variation in vessel traffic from year to year, the Navy anticipates the annual average from this period is a sufficient prediction of future at-sea days for manned surface ships for the period of this final rule (2025-2032) (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         2,178 days per year). In addition, this vessel strike analysis considers the potential for larger sized unmanned surface vessels (USVs) (longer than 61 m (200 ft)) to strike a large whale, as these vessels will be used for military readiness activities during the effective period of this final rule. While there have been no known vessel strikes from USVs, this analysis incorporates an estimated 728 at-sea days for large USVs, for a predicted total of 2,906 annual at-sea days from large manned vessels and large USVs from 2025 to 2032 (20,345 at-sea days over the 7-year period).
                    </P>
                    <P>Between 2009 and August 31, 2025, there were a total of 4,351 Coast Guard at-sea days for vessels larger than 100 m (328 ft) in the HCTT Study Area, an average of 262 days per year. To account for limitations in data availability particular to Coast Guard vessel size classes, future new vessel or repositioning home port assignments, in consideration of documented strikes from Coast Guard medium sized vessels &lt;100 m (&lt;328 ft), and out of an abundance of caution, in the proposed rule, the Coast Guard predicted that there could be up to 60 additional at-sea days per year for the 2026-2032 period, for a predicted total of 322 annual at-sea days for vessels that may strike a large whale from 2025 to 2032 (2,254 at-sea days over the 7-year period). However, since publication of the proposed rule, the Coast Guard has increased that estimate to 100 additional at-sea days per year given new policies since the application was submitted. Therefore, this final rule predicts a total of 362 annual at-sea days for vessels that may strike a large whale from 2025 to 2032 (2,534 at-sea days over the 7-year period)</P>
                    <P>As described above, during the same 2009 through August 31, 2025 period, there were seven Navy vessel strikes of large whales and one Coast Guard vessel strike of a large whale.</P>
                    <P>
                        To calculate a vessel strike rate for each Action Proponent for the period of 2009 through August 31, 2025, the Action Proponents used the respective number of past vessel strikes of large whales and the respective number of at-sea days. Navy at-sea days (for vessels greater than 65 ft (19.8 m)) from 2009 through August 31, 2025 was estimated to be 36,306 days. Dividing the seven known Navy strikes during that period by the at-sea days (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         7 strikes/36,306 at-sea days) results in a strike rate of 0.000193 strikes per at-sea day. Coast Guard at-sea days from 2009 through August 31, 2025 was estimated to be 4,351 days. Dividing the one known Coast Guard strike during that period by the at-sea days (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         1 strike/4,351 at-sea days) results in a strike rate of 0.000230 strikes per day.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described above, the Action Proponents estimated that 20,345 Navy and 2,534 Coast Guard at-sea days would occur over the 7-year period associated with the requested authorization. Given a strike rate of 0.000193 Navy strikes per at-sea day, and 0.000230 Coast Guard strikes per at-sea day, the predicted number of vessel strikes over a 7-year period would be 3.92 strikes by the Navy and 0.58 strikes by the Coast Guard.</P>
                    <P>
                        Using this predicted number of strikes, the Poisson distribution predicted the probabilities of a specific number of strikes (
                        <E T="03">n</E>
                         = 0, 1, 2, 
                        <E T="03">etc.</E>
                        ) from 2025 through 2032 for each Action Proponent. The probability analysis concluded that there is a 98 percent chance that a Navy vessel would strike at least one whale over the 7-year period, and a 90, 75, 55, 36, 20, or 10 percent chance that more than one, two, three, four, five, or six whales, respectively, would be struck by the Navy over the 7-year period.
                    </P>
                    <P>The probability analysis concluded that there is a 44 percent chance that a Coast Guard vessel would strike at least one whale over the 7-year period, and a 12 or 2 percent chance that more than one or two whales, respectively, would be struck by the Coast Guard over the 7-year period.</P>
                    <P>
                        Based on this analysis, the Navy requested authorization to take seven large whales by serious injury or mortality by vessel strike incidental to Navy training and testing activities (increased from five takes requested in the proposed rule to seven takes based on the updated analysis and taking into consideration of the July and August 2025 vessel strikes), and the Coast Guard requested authorization to take two large whales by serious injury or mortality by vessel strike incidental to Coast Guard training activities (consistent with the proposed rule). NMFS concurs that take by serious injury or mortality by vessel strike of up to seven large whales by the Navy and two large whales by the Coast Guard (nine large whales total) could occur over the 7-year regulations and, based on the information provided earlier in this section, NMFS concurs with the Action Proponents' assessment and recognizes the potential for incidental take by vessel strike of large whales only (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         no dolphins, small whales (not including large whale calves), porpoises, or pinnipeds) from military 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58916"/>
                        readiness activities over the course of the 7-year regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>While the Poisson distribution allows the Action Proponents and NMFS to determine the likelihood of vessel strike of all large whales, it does not indicate the likelihood of each strike occurring to a particular species or stock. As described above, the Action Proponents have not always been able to identify the species of large whale struck during previous known vessel strikes. However, based on the information available, the Navy requested authorization for take by serious injury or mortality by vessel strike of seven whales, and NMFS and Navy determined the appropriate breakdown among large whale stocks as described below. The Coast Guard requested authorization for take by serious injury or mortality by vessel strike of two whales, and of those two, no more than the following numbers from these stocks: one blue whale (Eastern North Pacific stock), two fin whales (CA/OR/WA stock), two gray whales (Eastern Pacific stock), and two humpback whales (one each of the Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA stock and Central North Pacific stock).</P>
                    <P>After concurring that take of up to nine large whales could occur (seven takes by Navy, two by Coast Guard), and in consideration of the Action Proponents' request, NMFS considered which species could be among the seven large whales struck. NMFS conducted an analysis that considered several factors, in addition to the overlap of Navy activities with stock distribution: (1) the relative likelihood of striking one stock versus another based on available strike data from all vessel types as denoted in the SARs; and (2) whether each Action Proponent has ever struck an individual from a particular species or stock in the HCTT Study Area, and if so, how many times.</P>
                    <P>
                        To address number (1) above, for SOCAL, NMFS compiled information from the 2023 SARs (Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024; Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024) on detected annual rates of large whale M/SI from vessel strike (table 18). Of note, these data include the strike of two fin whales by the Royal Australian Navy in 2021, but do not include U.S. Navy strikes in 2021, 2023 because the species struck is not known. Nor do these data include the 2025 U.S. Navy strikes. The M/SI in the 2023 SAR considers modeled takes (accounting for undetected vessel strike mortality) for some, but not most species and stocks (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         M/SI for humpback whale includes modeled takes from Rockwood 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017)). Using known strike data for all species and stocks allows NMFS to consider similar metrics for this comparative analysis. (Note we rely on the M/SI estimates from the 2023 SAR in our negligible impact analysis.) We also consider modeled takes of species from Rockwood 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) in table 18). The annual rates of large whale serious injury or mortality from vessel strike reported in the SARs help inform the relative susceptibility of large whale species to vessel strike in HCTT Study Area as recorded systematically over the 5-year period used for the SARs. We summed the annual rates of serious injury or mortality from vessel strikes as reported in the SARs (excluding strikes that the SAR indicates occurred outside of the Study Area (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         in Alaska)) and then divided each species' annual rate by this sum to get the percentage of total annual strikes for each species/stock (table 18).
                    </P>
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                        <PRTPAGE P="58917"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.141</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="613">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58918"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.142</GID>
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                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>
                        To inform the likelihood of a single Action Proponent striking a particular species of large whale, we multiplied the percent of total annual strikes for a given species in table 18 by the total percent likelihood of a single Action Proponent striking at least one whale (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         98 and 44 percent for the Navy and Coast Guard, respectively, as described by the probability analysis above). We also calculated the percent likelihood of a single Action Proponent striking a particular species of large whale two or three times by squaring or cubing, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58919"/>
                        respectively, the value estimated for the probability of striking a particular species of whale once (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         to calculate the probability of an event occurring twice, multiply the probability of the first event by the second). The results of these calculations are reflected in the last six columns of table 18. We note that these probabilities vary from year to year as the average annual mortality changes depending on the specific range of time considered; however, over the years and through updated data in the SARs, stocks tend to consistently maintain a relatively higher or relatively lower likelihood of being struck.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The percent likelihoods calculated (as described above) are then considered in combination with the information indicating the known species that the Navy or Coast Guard has struck in the HCTT Study Area since 1991 (since they started tracking consistently; table 18). We note that for the lethal take of species specifically denoted in table 18, 53 percent of those struck by the Navy (10 of 19 in the Pacific) remained unidentified (including the May 2023 strike, which as stated above, NMFS and the Navy have determined was of either a fin whale or sei whale and the August 2025 strike), and 20 percent of those struck by the Coast Guard (1 of 5 in the Pacific) remained unidentified. However, given the information on known stocks struck, the analysis below remains appropriate. We also note that Rockwood 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) modeled the likelihood of vessel strike of blue whales, fin whales, and humpback whales on the U.S. West Coast (discussed in more detail in the 
                        <E T="03">Serious Injury or Mortality</E>
                         section of the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section), and those numbers help inform the relative likelihood that the Navy or Coast Guard could strike those stocks.
                    </P>
                    <P>Accordingly, stocks that have no record of ever having been struck by any vessel are considered to have a zero percent likelihood of being struck by the Navy or Coast Guard in the 7-year period of the final rule. Marine mammal stocks that have never been struck by the Navy or Coast Guard, have rarely been struck by other vessels, and have a low percent likelihood based on the historical vessel strike calculation are also considered to have a zero percent likelihood to be struck by the Navy or Coast Guard during the 7-year rule. We note that while vessel strike records have not differentiated between Eastern North Pacific and Western North Pacific gray whales, given their small population size and the comparative rarity with which individuals from the Western North Pacific stock are detected off the U.S. West Coast, it is highly unlikely that they would be encountered, much less struck. This rules out all but eight stocks. This leaves the following stocks for further analysis: blue whale (Eastern North Pacific stock), fin whale (CA/OR/WA stock), gray whale (Eastern North Pacific stock), humpback whale (Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA, Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA, and Hawaii stocks), sei whale (Eastern North Pacific stock), and sperm whale (Hawaii stock).</P>
                    <P>
                        Based on available photos and video of the whale struck by the U.S. Navy in Southern California in 2023, NMFS and the Navy have determined this whale was either a fin whale or sei whale. While the species of the two whales struck by the U.S. Navy in 2021 are unknown, given the following factors, NMFS expects these strikes may have been CA/OR/WA fin whales or Eastern North Pacific gray whales, or some combination of these two stocks. These species have the highest annual rates of M/SI from vessel collision in California (1.6, 1.8, respectively, as noted above). Additionally, gray whales and fin whales have the most recorded vessel strike incidents by military vessels in California and are the only stocks known to have been hit more than one time by naval or Coast Guard vessels in the California portion of the study area (three gray whale strikes by the U.S. Navy (1993, 1998), two or three fin whale strikes by the U.S. Navy (2009, potentially 2023), and two fin whale strikes by the Royal Australian Navy (2021)). Further, accounting for undocumented vessel strikes, Rockwood 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2021) estimated that in their study area off Southern California from 2012 to 2018, on average 8.9 blue, 4.6 humpback, and 9.7 fin whales were killed by civilian vessel strikes from June to November each year. In addition, they estimated that, on average, 5.7 humpback whales were killed by civilian vessel strikes from January to April per year (Rockwood 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021). For fin whales in particular, model-predicted densities of large whales in the Southern California Bight from May to July 2021 (the time period during which the 2021 strikes of two unidentified whales by the U.S. Navy occurred) estimated fin whale abundance as being nearly an order of magnitude higher than either blue or humpback whale abundance during this time period (Becker 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020b; Zickel 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021). Ship-whale encounter models for the U.S. West Coast EEZ also indicated that vessel strike mortality estimates for fin whales were significantly higher than for blue whales and humpback whales (Rockwood 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017). The comparatively higher modeled vessel strike rates for fin whales result from both the larger population as well as the more offshore distribution that overlaps significantly with several major shipping routes for a much greater spatial extent (Rockwood 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017). Based on 1,243 visual boat-based sightings of 2,638 fin whales from 1991 to 2011, Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2015) found fin whale concentration areas included the San Clemente Basin where the 2021 Navy vessel strikes occurred. Tanner and Cortes Banks area and the shelf edge west of SNI were also reported as fin whale concentration areas. There are two different populations of fin whales that occur in the Southern California Bight: a seasonal population, and a population that occurs year-round with offshore/inshore movements (Campbell 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015; Falcone 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). This would likely make fin whales more susceptible to vessel strike year-round, as compared to other large whale species that may occur seasonally within SOCAL. Therefore, we find that, of the seven total takes by serious injury or mortality by vessel strike of large whales authorized for the Navy over the course of the 7-year rule, up to five of those takes could be of the CA/OR/WA stock of fin whale and up to two could be of the Eastern North Pacific stock of gray whale given that the two strikes of unidentified large whales in 2021 could have been of either stock. Further, we expect that, of the seven total takes by serious injury or mortality by vessel strike of large whales authorized for the Navy, up to two of those takes could occur in Hawaii, and therefore be of individuals of the Hawaii stock of humpback whale. NMFS expects that, of the two total takes by serious injury or mortality by vessel strike of large whales authorized for the Coast Guard, one of those takes could be of the CA/OR/WA stock of fin whale, Eastern North Pacific stock of gray whale, or Hawaii stock of humpback whale (Coast Guard struck a humpback whale in Hawaii in 2020).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For U.S. Navy vessel strikes in California, based on the information summarized in table 18 and the fact that there is the potential for up to seven large whales to be struck by the Navy over the 7-year rule, one individual from the Eastern North Pacific stock of blue whale, Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA and Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA stocks of humpback whale, or Eastern North Pacific stock of sei whale could be among the seven whales struck. The total strikes of Eastern North Pacific 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58920"/>
                        blue whales and the percent likelihood of striking one based on the historic strike calculation above can both be considered moderate compared to other stocks, and the Navy struck a blue whale in 2004 (based on the historic strike calculation, the likelihood of striking two blue whales is well below one percent (table 18)). Therefore, we consider it reasonably likely that the Navy could strike one individual over the course of the 7-year final rule. The total strikes of Eastern North Pacific sei whales are low (0) compared to other stocks, but NMFS and the Navy think it is possible that the Navy may have struck a sei whale in SOCAL in 2023. Therefore, we consider it reasonably likely that the Navy could strike a sei whale over the period of the rule. The Navy has not struck a humpback whale in the California portion of the HCTT Study Area. However, in 2016 a U.S. Coast Guard vessel struck a humpback whale heading out of San Francisco Bay, and as a species, humpbacks have a high number of total strikes and percent likelihood of being struck. The likelihood of Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA (Central America DPS) or Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA (Mexico DPS) humpback whales being struck by any vessel type is moderate to high relative to other stocks, and NMFS anticipates that the Navy could strike one individual humpback whale from the Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA stock (Mexico DPS) and/or one individual from the Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA (Central America DPS) over the 7-year duration of the rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>For Coast Guard vessel strikes in California, NMFS anticipates that the Coast Guard may potentially strike the same species as listed above for the Navy. Based on the information summarized in table 18 and the fact that there is the potential for up to two large whales to be struck by the Coast Guard over the 7-year rule, one individual from the Eastern North Pacific stock of blue whale, CA/OR/WA stock of fin whale, Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA and Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA stocks of humpback whale, Eastern North Pacific stock of gray whale, or Eastern North Pacific stock of sei whale could be among the two whales struck. While, as noted above, NMFS anticipates that the U.S. Navy is more likely to strike a fin whale than some other stocks, NMFS does not anticipate that the same is true for the Coast Guard, as its vessel traffic is not concentrated in the area where previous known Navy vessel strikes of fin whales have occurred. Given the lower potential total number of vessel strikes by the Coast Guard, NMFS does not anticipate that the Coast Guard is likely to strike more than one of any given species.</P>
                    <P>For Hawaii stocks, given that all known vessel strikes between 2015 and 2021 were of humpback whales, we anticipate that any vessel strike of a large whale in Hawaii would likely be of the Hawaii stock of humpback whale. Given that this stock has the highest percentage of total annual strikes (33.3 percent) and a 10.7 percent chance of being struck by Navy vessels twice over the effective period of the rule, NMFS is authorizing two lethal takes of Hawaii humpback whales for the Navy and one for the Coast Guard. NMFS also anticipates that the Navy may strike up to one Hawaii sperm whale given the 2007 sperm whale strike. Given the already lower likelihood of striking the Hawaii stock of sperm whales, the relatively lower vessel activity in the Hawaii portion of the HCTT Study Area, and the relatively lower Coast Guard vessel traffic compared to Navy vessel traffic, NMFS neither anticipates, nor authorizes, a Coast Guard strike of this stock.</P>
                    <P>As described above, the Navy's analysis suggests and NMFS' analysis concurs that the likelihood of vessel strikes to the stocks below is discountable due to the stocks' relatively low occurrence in the HCTT Study Area, particularly in core HCTT training and testing subareas, and the fact that the stocks have not been struck by the Navy and are rarely, if ever, recorded struck by other vessels. Therefore, NMFS is not authorizing lethal take for the following stocks: Blue whale (Central North Pacific stock), Bryde's whale (Eastern Tropical Pacific stock and Hawaii stock), fin whale (Hawaii stock), gray whale (Western North Pacific stock), minke whale (CA/OR/WA stock and Hawaii stock), sei whale (Hawaii stock), and sperm whale (CA/OR/WA stock).</P>
                    <P>
                        Also of note, while information on past vessel strikes by the Action Proponents can serve as a reasonable indicator of future vessel strike risk, future conditions may differ from the past in ways that could influence the likelihood of a large whale vessel strike occurring. In general, the magnitude of vessel strike risk may be increasing over time as many whale populations are gradually recovering from centuries of commercial whaling (Redfern 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020). Increased vessel strike risk off California in recent decades has been associated with increases in the abundance of fin and humpback whale populations in the North Pacific (Redfern 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020). It has also been suggested that the blue whale population in the Eastern North Pacific, inclusive of the California portion of the HCTT Study Area, is at carrying capacity and recovered to pre-whaling levels (Monnahan 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014). In addition, the magnitude of risk may also be affected by shifts in whale distributions over time in response to environmental factors including climate change, marine heatwaves, and associated changes in prey distribution.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Historically, military vessel strikes of large whales within the HCTT Study Area have been rare events with only 10 such strikes occurring over the past 16 years, 7 U.S. Navy strikes, 1 Coast Guard strike, and 2 Royal Australian Navy strikes. However, the fact that two of these strikes occurred within a 2-month period (July-August) in 2025, four of these strikes occurred within a 3-month period (May-July) in 2021, and two occurred within a 4-month period (February-May) in 2009, suggests that military vessel strikes in California can be both highly episodic and clustered. Particularly in consideration of the 2025 and 2023 U.S. Navy strikes, these strikes could also represent an early indicator of an increased military vessel strike risk within SOCAL based on the factors discussed above. Results from a survey of whale watching vessel operators and crew in Southern California, combined with remote sensing data in the area, suggest that the number of large whales may have been greater in May through July of 2021 compared with previous years in certain high military vessel traffic and “core” use HCTT areas off southern California, particularly farther offshore as well as closer to shore off San Diego Bay (Zickel 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In conclusion, while take by vessel strike across any given year is sporadic, based on the information and analysis above, including consideration of the 2021, 2023, and 2025 strikes by the U.S. Navy, NMFS anticipates no more than nine takes of large whales by M/SI could occur over the 7-year period of the rule (no more than seven by Navy, no more than two by Coast Guard). Of those nine whales over the 7-years, no more than six may come from the CA/OR/WA stock of fin whale. No more than three may come from the following stocks: gray whale (Eastern North Pacific stock) and humpback whale (Hawaii stock). No more than two may come from the following stocks: blue whale (Eastern North Pacific stock), sei whale (Eastern North Pacific), and humpback whale (Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA and Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA stocks (Mexico and Central America DPSs, respectively)). No more 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58921"/>
                        than one may come from the Hawaii stock of sperm whale. Note that these species and stock conclusions vary slightly from those initially requested by the Navy and Coast Guard. Accordingly, NMFS has evaluated under the negligible impact standard the M/SI of 0.14, 0.29, 0.43, or 0.86 whales annually from each of these species or stocks (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         one, two, three, or six takes, respectively, divided by 7 years to get the annual number), along with the expected incidental takes by harassment.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Summary of Requested Take From Military Readiness Activities</HD>
                    <P>Table 19 and table 20 summarize the authorized take by Level B harassment, Level A harassment, or mortality and by effect type, respectively.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
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                        <PRTPAGE P="58922"/>
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                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58923"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.144</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58924"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.145</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58925"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.146</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58926"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.147</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58927"/>
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                        <PRTPAGE P="58928"/>
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                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58929"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.150</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58930"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.151</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58931"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.152</GID>
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                        <PRTPAGE P="58932"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.153</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Mitigation Measures</HD>
                    <P>Under section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth the permissible methods of taking pursuant to the activity, and other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on the species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of the species or stocks for subsistence uses (“least practicable adverse impact”). NMFS does not have a regulatory definition for least practicable adverse impact. The 2004 NDAA amended the MMPA as it relates to military readiness activities and the ITA process such that a determination of “least practicable adverse impact” shall include consideration of personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity. For additional discussion of NMFS' interpretation of the least practicable adverse impact standard, see the Mitigation Measures section of the Gulf of Alaska Study Area final rule (88 FR 604, January 4, 2023).</P>
                    <P>The mitigation measures described in the following section were proposed by the Action Proponents in their adequate and complete application or are the result of subsequent coordination between NMFS and the Action Proponent. Pursuant to the 2004 NDAA, NMFS coordinated with the Action Proponents, and the Action Proponents have agreed that all of the mitigation measures are practicable. NMFS has fully reviewed the specified activities and the mitigation measures included in the application to determine if the mitigation measures will result in the least practicable adverse impact on marine mammals and their habitat, as required by the MMPA, and has determined the measures are appropriate. NMFS describes these below as mitigation requirements and has included them in the final regulations.</P>
                    <P>As noted in the Changes from the Proposed to Final Rule section, NMFS has added new mitigation requirements and clarified a few others in this final rule. These changes are described in detail in the sections below. Besides these changes, the required measures remain the same as those described in the proposed rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Implementation of Least Practicable Adverse Impact Standard</HD>
                    <P>Here, we discuss how we determine whether a measure or set of measures meets the “least practicable adverse impact” standard. Our separate analysis of whether the take anticipated to result from the Action Proponents' activities meets the “negligible impact” standard appears in the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section below.</P>
                    <P>
                        Our evaluation of potential mitigation measures includes consideration of two primary factors: (1) the manner in which, and the degree to which, implementation of the potential measure(s) is expected to reduce adverse impacts to marine mammal species or stocks, their habitat, or their availability for subsistence uses (where relevant). This analysis considers such things as the nature of the potential adverse impact (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         likelihood, scope, and range), the likelihood that the measure will be effective if implemented, and the likelihood of successful implementation; and (2) the practicability of the measure(s) for applicant implementation. Practicability of implementation may consider such things as cost, impact on activities, and, in the case of a military readiness activity, specifically considers personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity.
                    </P>
                    <P>While the language of the least practicable adverse impact standard calls for minimizing impacts to affected species or stocks, we recognize that the reduction of impacts to those species or stocks accrues through the application of mitigation measures that limit impacts to individual animals. Accordingly, NMFS' analysis focuses on measures that are designed to avoid or minimize impacts on individual marine mammals that are more likely to increase the probability or severity of population-level effects.</P>
                    <P>
                        While direct evidence of impacts to species or stocks from a specified activity is rarely available, and additional study is still needed to understand how specific disturbance events affect the fitness of individuals of certain species, there have been improvements in understanding the process by which disturbance effects are translated to the population. With recent scientific advancements (both marine mammal energetic research and the development of energetic frameworks), the relative likelihood or degree of impacts on species or stocks may often be inferred given a detailed understanding of the activity, the environment, and the affected species or stocks—and the best available science has been used here. This same information is used in the development of mitigation measures and helps us understand how mitigation measures contribute to lessening effects (or the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58933"/>
                        risk thereof) to species or stocks. We also acknowledge that there is always the potential that new information, or a new recommendation, could become available in the future and necessitate reevaluation of mitigation measures (which may be addressed through adaptive management) to see if further reductions of population impacts are possible and practicable.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the evaluation of specific measures, the details of the specified activity will necessarily inform each of the two primary factors discussed above (expected reduction of impacts and practicability) and are carefully considered to determine the types of mitigation that are appropriate under the least practicable adverse impact standard. Analysis of how a potential mitigation measure may reduce adverse impacts on a marine mammal stock or species, consideration of personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and consideration of the impact on effectiveness of military readiness activities are not issues that can be meaningfully evaluated through a yes/no lens. The manner in which, and the degree to which, implementation of a measure is expected to reduce impacts, as well as its practicability in terms of these considerations, can vary widely. For example, a time/area restriction could be of very high value for decreasing population-level impacts (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         avoiding disturbance of feeding females in an area of established biological importance) or it could be of lower value (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         decreased disturbance in an area of high productivity but of less biological importance). Regarding practicability, a measure might involve restrictions in an area or time that impede the Navy's ability to certify a strike group (higher impact on mission effectiveness), or it could mean delaying a small in-port training event by 30 minutes to avoid exposure of a marine mammal to injurious levels of sound (lower impact). A responsible evaluation of “least practicable adverse impact” will consider the factors along these realistic scales. Accordingly, the greater the likelihood that a measure will contribute to reducing the probability or severity of adverse impacts to the species or stock or its habitat, the greater the weight that measure is given when considered in combination with practicability to determine the appropriateness of the mitigation measure, and vice versa. We discuss consideration of these factors in greater detail below.
                    </P>
                    <P>1. Reduction of adverse impacts to marine mammal species or stocks and their habitat. The emphasis given to a measure's ability to reduce the impacts on a species or stock considers the degree, likelihood, and context of the anticipated reduction of impacts to individuals (and how many individuals) as well as the status of the species or stock.</P>
                    <P>The ultimate impact on any individual from a disturbance event (which informs the likelihood of adverse species- or stock-level effects) is dependent on the circumstances and associated contextual factors, such as duration of exposure to stressors. Though any proposed mitigation needs to be evaluated in the context of the specific activity and the species or stocks affected, measures with the following types of effects have greater value in reducing the likelihood or severity of adverse species- or stock-level impacts: avoiding or minimizing injury or mortality; limiting interruption of known feeding, breeding, mother/young, or resting behaviors; minimizing the abandonment of important habitat (temporally and spatially); minimizing the number of individuals subjected to these types of disruptions; and limiting degradation of habitat. Mitigating these types of effects is intended to reduce the likelihood that the activity will result in energetic or other types of impacts that are more likely to result in reduced reproductive success or survivorship. It is also important to consider the degree of impacts that are expected in the absence of mitigation in order to assess the added value of any potential measures. Finally, because the least practicable adverse impact standard gives NMFS discretion to weigh a variety of factors when determining appropriate mitigation measures and because the focus of the standard is on reducing impacts at the species or stock level, the least practicable adverse impact standard does not compel mitigation for every kind of take, or every individual taken, if that mitigation is unlikely to meaningfully contribute to the reduction of adverse impacts on the species or stock and its habitat, even when practicable for implementation by the applicant.</P>
                    <P>The status of the species or stock is also relevant in evaluating the appropriateness of potential mitigation measures in the context of least practicable adverse impact. The following are examples of factors that may (either alone, or in combination) result in greater emphasis on the importance of a mitigation measure in reducing impacts on a species or stock: the stock is known to be decreasing or status is unknown, but believed to be declining; the known annual mortality (from any source) is approaching or exceeding the PBR level, as defined in section 3(20) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1362); the affected species or stock is a small, resident population; or the stock is involved in a UME or has other known vulnerabilities, such as recovering from an oil spill.</P>
                    <P>Habitat mitigation, particularly as it relates to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, is also relevant to achieving the standard and can include measures such as reducing impacts of the activity on known prey utilized in the activity area or reducing impacts on physical habitat. As with species- or stock-related mitigation, the emphasis given to a measure's ability to reduce impacts on a species or stock's habitat considers the degree, likelihood, and context of the anticipated reduction of impacts to habitat. Because habitat value is informed by marine mammal presence and use, in some cases there may be overlap in measures for the species or stock and for use of habitat.</P>
                    <P>We consider available information indicating the likelihood of any measure to accomplish its objective. If evidence shows that a measure has not typically been effective nor successful, then either that measure should be modified or the potential value of the measure to reduce effects should be lowered.</P>
                    <P>2. Practicability. Factors considered may include cost, impact on activities, and, in the case of a military readiness activity, will include personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity (see MMPA section 101(a)(5)(A)(ii)).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Assessment of Mitigation Measures for the HCTT Study Area</HD>
                    <P>
                        NMFS has fully reviewed the specified activities and the mitigation measures included in the application and the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS to determine if the mitigation measures would result in the least practicable adverse impact on marine mammals and their habitat. NMFS worked with the Action Proponents in the development of their initially proposed measures, which are informed by years of implementation and monitoring. A complete discussion of the Action Proponents' evaluation process used to develop, assess, and select mitigation measures, which was informed by input from NMFS, can be found in chapter 5 (Mitigation) and appendix K (Geographic Mitigation Assessment) of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS. The process described in chapter 5 (Mitigation) and appendix K (Geographic Mitigation Assessment) of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS robustly supported NMFS' independent evaluation of whether the mitigation measures would meet the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58934"/>
                        least practicable adverse impact standard. The Action Proponents are required to implement the mitigation measures identified in this final rule for the full 7 years to avoid or reduce potential impacts from acoustic, explosive, and physical disturbance and strike stressors on marine mammals.
                    </P>
                    <P>As a general matter, where an applicant proposes measures that are likely to reduce impacts to marine mammals, the fact that they are included in the application indicates the measures are practicable, and it is not necessary for NMFS to conduct a detailed analysis of the measures the applicant proposed (rather, they are simply included). However, it is still necessary for NMFS to consider whether there are additional practicable measures that would meaningfully reduce the probability or severity of impacts that could affect reproductive success or survivorship.</P>
                    <P>Since publication of the proposed rule, and in consideration of public comments received, additional mitigation requirements have been added that will further reduce the likelihood and/or severity of adverse impacts on marine mammal species and their habitat. Pursuant to the 2004 NDAA, NMFS coordinated with the Action Proponents, and the Action Proponents have agreed the additional mitigation measures are practicable for implementation, as previously described in the Changes from the Proposed Rule to the Final Rule section. Below we describe the added measures that the Action Proponents will implement and explain the manner in which they are expected to reduce the likelihood or severity of adverse impacts on marine mammals and their habitats.</P>
                    <P>The Action Proponents have agreed to mitigation measures that would reduce the probability and/or severity of impacts expected to result from acute exposure to acoustic sources or explosives, vessel strike, and impacts to marine mammal habitat. Specifically, the Action Proponents will use a combination of delayed starts, powerdowns, and shutdowns to avoid mortality or serious injury, minimize the likelihood or severity of AUD INJ or non-auditory injury, and reduce instances of TTS or more severe behavioral disturbance caused by acoustic sources or explosives. The Action Proponents will also implement multiple time/area restrictions that would reduce take of marine mammals in areas where or at times when they are known to engage in important behaviors, such as calving, where the disruption of those behaviors would have a higher probability of resulting in impacts on reproduction or survival of individuals that could lead to population-level impacts.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Action Proponents assessed the practicability of the proposed measures in the context of personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and their impacts on the Action Proponents' ability to meet their Congressionally mandated requirements and found that the measures are supportable. As described in more detail below, NMFS has independently evaluated the measures the Action Proponents proposed in the manner described earlier in this section (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         in consideration of their ability to reduce adverse impacts on marine mammal species and their habitat and their practicability for implementation). We have determined that the measures would significantly reduce impacts on the affected marine mammal species and stocks and their habitat and, further, be practicable for implementation by the Action Proponents. We have determined that the mitigation measures ensure that the Action Proponents' activities would have the least practicable adverse impact on the species or stocks and their habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Action Proponents also evaluated numerous measures in the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS that were not included in the application, and NMFS independently reviewed and concurs with the Action Proponents' analysis that their inclusion was not appropriate under the least practicable adverse impact standard based on our assessment. The Action Proponents considered these additional potential mitigation measures in the context of the potential benefits to marine mammals and whether they are practical or impractical.</P>
                    <P>Section 5.9 (Measures Considered but Eliminated) of chapter 5 (Mitigation) of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS, includes an analysis of an array of different types of mitigation that have been recommended over the years by non-governmental organizations or the public, through scoping or public comment on environmental compliance documents. These recommendations generally fall into three categories, discussed below: (1) reduction of activity; (2) activity-based operational measures; and (3) time/area limitations.</P>
                    <P>
                        As described in section 5.9 (Measures Considered but Eliminated) of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS, the Action Proponents considered reducing the overall amount of training, reducing explosive use, modifying sound sources, completely replacing live training with computer simulation, and including time of day restrictions. Many of these mitigation measures could potentially reduce the number of marine mammals taken via direct reduction of the activities or amount of sound energy put in the water. However, as described in chapter 5 (Mitigation) of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS, the Action Proponents need to train in the conditions in which they fight—and these types of modifications fundamentally change the activity in a manner that would not support the purpose and need for the training (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         are entirely impracticable) and therefore are not considered further. NMFS finds the Action Proponents' explanation of why adoption of these recommendations would unacceptably undermine the purpose of the training persuasive. After independent review, NMFS finds the Action Proponents' judgment on the impacts of these potential mitigation measures to personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and the effectiveness of training persuasive, and for these reasons, NMFS finds that these measures do not meet the least practicable adverse impact standard because they are not practicable.
                    </P>
                    <P>In chapter 5 (Mitigation) of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS, the Action Proponents evaluated additional potential activity-based mitigation measures, including increased mitigation zones, ramp-up measures, additional passive acoustic and visual monitoring, and decreased vessel speeds. Some of these measures have the potential to incrementally reduce take to some degree in certain circumstances, though the degree to which this would occur is typically low or uncertain. However, as described in the Action Proponents' analysis, the measures would have significant direct negative effects on mission effectiveness and are considered impracticable. NMFS independently reviewed the Action Proponents' evaluation and concurs with this assessment, which supports NMFS' findings that the impracticability of this additional mitigation would greatly outweigh any potential minor reduction in marine mammal impacts that might result; therefore, these additional mitigation measures are not warranted.</P>
                    <P>
                        Last, chapter 5 (Mitigation) of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS also describes a comprehensive analysis of potential geographic mitigation that includes consideration of both a biological assessment of how the potential time/area limitation would benefit the species and its habitat (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         is a key area of biological importance or would result in avoidance or reduction of impacts) in the context of the stressors of concern in the specific area and an operational assessment of the practicability of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58935"/>
                        implementation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         including an assessment of the specific importance of an area for training, considering proximity to training ranges and emergency landing fields and other issues). In some cases, potential benefits to marine mammals were non-existent, while in others the consequences on mission effectiveness were too great.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        NMFS has reviewed the Action Proponents' analysis in chapter 5 (Mitigation) and appendix A (Activity Descriptions) of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS, which consider the same factors that NMFS considers to satisfy the least practicable adverse impact standard, and concurs with the analysis and conclusions. Therefore, NMFS is not requiring any of the measures that the Action Proponents ruled out in the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS. Below are the mitigation measures that NMFS has determined would ensure the least practicable adverse impact on all affected species and their habitat, including the specific considerations for military readiness activities. Table 21 describes the information designed to aid Lookouts and other applicable personnel with their observation, environmental compliance, and reporting responsibilities. The following sections describe the mitigation measures that would be implemented in association with the activities analyzed in this document.
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The mitigation measures are organized into two categories: (1) activity-based mitigation; and (2) geographic mitigation areas.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             Of note, according to the U.S. Navy, consistent with customary international law, when a foreign military vessel participates in a U.S. Navy exercise within the U.S. territorial sea (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             0 to 12 nmi (0 to 22.2 km) from shore), the U.S. Navy will request that the foreign vessel follow the U.S. Navy's mitigation measures for that particular event. When a foreign military vessel participates in a U.S. Navy exercise beyond the U.S. territorial sea but within the U.S. EEZ, the U.S. Navy will encourage the foreign vessel to follow the U.S. Navy's mitigation measures for that particular event (Navy, 2022a, 2022b). In either scenario (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             both within and beyond the territorial sea), U.S. Navy personnel will provide the foreign vessels participating in the exercise with a description of the mitigation measures to follow.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In the event of a cetacean live stranding (or near-shore atypical milling) event within the HCTT Study Area or within 50 km (27 nmi) of the boundary of the HCTT Study Area, where the NMFS Marine Mammal Stranding Network is engaged in herding or other interventions to return animals to the water, NMFS OPR will advise the Action Proponents of the need to implement shutdown procedures for all active acoustic sources or explosive devices within 50 km (27 nmi) of the stranding. Following this initial shutdown, NMFS will communicate with the Action Proponents to determine whether circumstances support modification of the shutdown zone. The Action Proponents may decline to implement all or part of the shutdown if the holder of the LOA, or his/her designee, determines that it is necessary for national security. Shutdown procedures for live stranding or milling cetaceans include the following:</P>
                    <P>• If at any time, the marine mammal(s) die or are euthanized, or if herding/intervention efforts are stopped, NMFS will immediately advise that the shutdown around the animals' location is no longer needed;</P>
                    <P>• Otherwise, shutdown procedures will remain in effect until NMFS determines and advises that all live animals involved have left the area (either of their own volition or following an intervention); and</P>
                    <P>
                        • If further observations of the marine mammals indicate the potential for re-stranding, additional coordination will be required to determine what measures are necessary to minimize that likelihood (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         extending the shutdown or moving operations farther away) and to implement those measures as appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="300">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.154</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58936"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Activity-Based Mitigation</HD>
                    <P>
                        Activity-based mitigation is mitigation that the Action Proponents will implement whenever and wherever an applicable military readiness activity takes place within the HCTT Study Area. Previously referred to as “Procedural Mitigation,” the primary objective of activity-based mitigation is to reduce overlap of marine mammals with stressors that have the potential to cause injury or mortality in real time. Activity-based mitigations are fundamentally consistent across stressor activity, although specific variations account for differences in platform configuration, event characteristics, and stressor types. The Action Proponents customize mitigation for each applicable activity category or stressor. Activity-based mitigation generally involves: (1) the use of one or more trained Lookouts to diligently observe for marine mammals and other specific biological resources (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         indicator species like floating vegetation, jelly aggregations, large schools of fish, and flocks of seabirds) within a mitigation zone; (2) requirements for Lookouts to immediately communicate sightings of marine mammals and other specific biological resources to the appropriate watch station for information dissemination; and (3) requirements for the watch station to implement mitigation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         halt an activity) until certain recommencement conditions have been met. The remainder of the mitigation measures are activity-based mitigation measures (table 20 through table 39) organized by stressor type and activity category and include acoustic stressors (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         active sonar, air guns, pile driving, weapons firing noise), explosive stressors (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         bombs, gunnery, underwater demolition, mine counter-measure and neutralization activities, missiles and rockets, sonobuoys and research-based sub-surface explosives, torpedoes, ship shock trials, and sinking exercises), and physical disturbance and strike stressors (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         aerial-deployed mines and non-explosive bombs, non-explosive gunnery, non-explosive torpedoes missiles and rockets, vessel movement, towed in-water devices, and net deployment).
                    </P>
                    <P>The Action Proponents must implement the mitigation measures described in table 20 through table 39, as appropriate, in response to an applicable sighting within, or entering into, the relevant mitigation zone for acoustic stressors, explosives, and non-explosive munitions. Each table describes the activities that the requirements apply to, the required mitigation zones in which the Action Proponents must take a mitigation action, the required number of Lookouts and observation platform, the required mitigation actions that the Action Proponents must take before, during, and/or after an activity, and a required wait period prior to commencing or recommencing an activity after a delay, power down, or shutdown of an activity.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Action Proponents proposed wait periods because events cannot be delayed or ceased indefinitely for the purpose of mitigation due to impacts on safety, sustainability, and the ability to meet mission requirements. Wait periods are designed to allow animals the maximum amount of time practical to resurface (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         become available to be observed) before activities resume. The Action Proponents factored in an assumption that mitigation may need to be implemented more than once when developing wait period durations. Wait periods are 10 minutes, 15 minutes, or 30 minutes depending on the fuel constraints of the platform and feasibility of implementation. NMFS concurs with these proposed wait periods.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        If an applicable species (identified in relevant mitigation table) is observed within a required mitigation zone prior to the initial start of the activity, the Action Proponents must: (1) relocate the event to a location where applicable species are not observed; or (2) delay the initial start of the event (or stressor use) until one of the “Mitigation Zone All-Clear Conditions” (defined below) has been met. If an applicable stressor is observed within a required mitigation zone during the event (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         during use of the indicated source) the Action Proponents must take the action described in the “Mitigation Zones” section of the table until one of the Mitigation Zone All-Clear Conditions has been met.
                    </P>
                    <P>For all activities, an activity may not commence or recommence until one of the following “Mitigation Zone All-Clear Conditions” have been met: (1) a Lookout observes the applicable species exiting the mitigation zone; (2) a Lookout concludes that the animal has exited the mitigation zone based on its observed course, speed, and movement relative to the mitigation zone; (3) a Lookout affirms the mitigation zone has been clear from additional sightings for a designated “wait period”; or (4) for mobile events, the stressor has transited a distance equal to double the mitigation zone size beyond the location of the last sighting.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Activity-Based Mitigation for Active Acoustic Stressors</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mitigation measures for acoustic stressors are provided below and include active acoustic sources (table 20), pile driving and extraction (table 21), and weapons firing noise (table 22). For this action, the following ranges apply to the use of small, medium, and large caliber: small is up to and including 50 caliber machine gun rounds; medium is greater than 50 caliber and less than 57 millimeter (mm; 2.24 inch); and large is 57 mm (2.24 inch) and larger. Small caliber items are solid projectiles (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         bullets). Medium caliber items are 30-57 mm (1.18-2.24 inch) and can have both inert non-explosive rounds and high explosive rounds. Large caliber items are greater than or equal to 57 mm (2.24 inch) and can have both inert non-explosive rounds and high explosive rounds. Activity-based mitigation for acoustic stressors does not apply to:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Sources not operated under positive control (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         moored oceanographic sources);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Sources used for safety of navigation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         fathometers);
                    </P>
                    <P>• Sources used or deployed by aircraft operating at high altitudes;</P>
                    <P>• Sources used, deployed, or towed by unmanned platforms except when escort vessels are already participating in the event and have positive control over the source;</P>
                    <P>
                        • Sources used by submerged submarines (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         sonar (since they cannot conduct visual observation));
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • De minimis sources (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         those &gt;200 kHz);
                    </P>
                    <P>• Unattended sources, including those used for acoustic and oceanographic research; and</P>
                    <P>
                        • Vessel-based, unmanned vehicle-based, or towed in-water sources when marine mammals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         dolphins) are determined to be intentionally swimming at the bow or alongside or directly behind the vessel, vehicle, or device (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         to bow-ride or wake-ride).
                    </P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58937"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.155</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="24">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58938"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.156</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="323">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.157</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="185">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.158</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Activity-Based Mitigation for Explosive Stressors</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mitigation measures for explosive stressors are provided below and include explosive bombs (table 23), explosive gunnery (table 24), explosive underwater demolition multiple charge—mat weave and obstacle loading (table 25), explosive mine countermeasure and neutralization without divers (table 26), explosive mine neutralization with divers (table 27), explosive missiles and rockets (table 28), explosive sonobuoys and research-based sub-surface explosives (table 29), explosive torpedoes (table 30), ship shock trials (table 31), and SINKEX (table 32). After the event, the Action Proponents must observe the area for marine mammals. Post-event observations are intended to aid incident reporting requirements for marine mammals. Practicality and the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58939"/>
                        duration of post-event observations will be determined on site by fuel restrictions and mission-essential follow-on commitments. For example, it is more challenging to remain on-site for extended periods of time for some activities due to factors such as range from the target or altitude of an aircraft. For all activities involving explosives, if a marine mammal is visibly injured or killed as a result of detonation, use of explosives in the event must be suspended immediately. Activity-based mitigation for explosive stressors does not apply to explosives:
                    </P>
                    <P>• Deployed by aircraft operating at high altitudes;</P>
                    <P>• Deployed by submerged submarines, except for explosive torpedoes;</P>
                    <P>• Deployed against aerial targets;</P>
                    <P>• During vessel- or shore-launched missile or rocket events;</P>
                    <P>• Used at or below the de minimis threshold; and</P>
                    <P>• Deployed by unmanned platforms except when escort vessels are already participating in the event and have positive control over the explosive.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="242">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.159</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="311">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58940"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.160</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="268">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.161</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="348">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58941"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.162</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="518">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58942"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.163</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="288">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58943"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.164</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="291">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.165</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="265">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58944"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.166</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="277">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.167</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="277">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58945"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.168</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Activity-Based Mitigation for Non-Explosive Ordnance</HD>
                    <P>Mitigation measures for non-explosive ordnance are provided below and include aerial-deployed mines and non-explosive bombs (table 33), non-explosive gunnery (table 34), and non-explosive missiles and rockets (table 35). Explosive aerial-deployed mines do not detonate upon contact with the water surface and are therefore considered non-explosive when mitigating the potential for a mine shape to strike a marine mammal at the water surface. Activity-based mitigation for non-explosive ordnance does not apply to non-explosive ordnance:</P>
                    <P>• Deployed by aircraft operating at high altitudes;</P>
                    <P>• Deployed against aerial targets and land-based targets;</P>
                    <P>• Deployed during vessel- or shore-launched missile or rocket events; and</P>
                    <P>• Deployed by unmanned platforms except when escort vessels are already participating in the event and have positive control over ordnance deployment.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="162">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.169</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="185">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58946"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.170</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="162">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.171</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Activity-Based Mitigation for Physical Disturbance and Strike Stressors</HD>
                    <P>Mitigation measures for physical disturbance and strike stressors are provided below and include crewed surface vessels (table 36), unmanned vehicles (table 37), towed in-water devices (table 38), and net deployment (table 39). Activity-based mitigation for physical disturbance and strike stressors will not be implemented:</P>
                    <P>• By submerged submarines;</P>
                    <P>• By unmanned vehicles except when escort vessels are already participating in the event and have positive control over the unmanned vehicle movements;</P>
                    <P>
                        • When marine mammals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         dolphins) are determined to be intentionally swimming at the bow, alongside the vessel or vehicle, or directly behind the vessel or vehicle (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         to bow-ride or wake-ride);
                    </P>
                    <P>• When pinnipeds are hauled out on man-made navigational structures, port structures, and vessels;</P>
                    <P>• By manned surface vessels and towed in-water devices actively participating in cable laying during Modernization &amp; Sustainment of Ranges activities; or</P>
                    <P>
                        • When impractical based on mission requirements (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         during certain aspects of amphibious exercises).
                    </P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="162">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58947"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.172</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="185">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.173</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="208">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.174</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="162">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58948"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.175</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Geographic Mitigation Areas</HD>
                    <P>In addition to activity-based mitigation, the Action Proponents will implement mitigation measures within mitigation areas to avoid or minimize potential impacts on marine mammals (see figures 11-1 and 11-2 of the application). A full technical analysis of the mitigation areas that the Action Proponents considered for marine mammals is provided in appendix K (Geographic Mitigation Assessment) of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS. The Action Proponents took into account public comments received on the 2024 HCTT Draft EIS/OEIS, 2017 HSTT Draft EIS/OEIS, the best available science, and the practicability of implementing additional mitigation measures and has enhanced its mitigation areas and mitigation measures beyond those that were included in the 2018-2025 regulations to further reduce impacts to marine mammals.</P>
                    <P>Information on the mitigation measures that the Action Proponents propose to implement within mitigation areas are provided in table 40 through table 49. The mitigation applies year-round unless specified otherwise in the tables.</P>
                    <P>NMFS conducted an independent analysis of the mitigation areas that the Action Proponent proposed, which are described below. NMFS' analysis indicates the measures in these geographic mitigation areas are both practicable and will reduce the likelihood, magnitude, or severity of adverse impacts to marine mammals or their habitat in the manner described in the Action Proponents' analysis and this rule. NMFS is heavily reliant on the Action Proponents' description of operational practicability, since the Action Proponents are best equipped to describe the degree to which a given mitigation measure affects personnel safety or mission effectiveness, and is practical to implement. The Action Proponents consider the required measures in this rule to be practicable, and NMFS concurs. We further discuss the manner in which the geographic mitigation areas will reduce the likelihood, magnitude, or severity of adverse impacts to marine mammal species or their habitat in the Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Geographic Mitigation Areas in Hawaii</HD>
                    <P>Table 42 details geographic mitigation related to the use of active sonar and explosives off Hawaii Island.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="263">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58949"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.176</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Table 43 details geographic mitigation related to the use of active sonar and explosives off Moloka'i, Maui, Lāna'i, and Kaho'olawe Islands.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="345">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.177</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58950"/>
                    <P>Table 44 details special reporting requirements related to the use of active sonar off O'ahu, Moloka'i, and Hawaii Island.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="126">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.178</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Table 45 details awareness notification message requirements for the Hawaii Range Complex.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="252">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.179</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Geographic Mitigation Areas in California</HD>
                    <P>Table 46 details geographic mitigation related to the use of active sonar off the coast of northern California.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="178">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58951"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.180</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Table 47 details geographic mitigation related to the use of active sonar off the coast of Central California.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="178">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.181</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Table 48 details geographic mitigation related to the use of active sonar and explosives off the coast of Southern California.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="275">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58952"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.182</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Table 47 details awareness notification message requirements for the U.S. West Coast.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58953"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.183</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58954"/>
                    <P>Table 50 details real-time notification requirements for a designated area within the SOCAL Range Complex.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="419">
                        <GID>ER17DE25.184</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Table 51 details geographic mitigation related to in-air vehicle launch noise and associated monitoring for pinniped haulout locations on San Nicolas Island, California.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58955"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.185</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="58956"/>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Mitigation Conclusions</HD>
                    <P>
                        NMFS has carefully evaluated the Action Proponents' proposed mitigation measures—many of which were developed with NMFS' input during the previous phases of HCTT (formerly HSTT) authorizations but several of which are new since implementation of the 2018 to 2025 regulations—and considered a broad range of other measures (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the measures considered but eliminated in the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS, which reflect many of the comments that have arisen from public input or through discussion with NMFS in past years) in the context of ensuring that NMFS prescribes the means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on the affected marine mammal species and their habitat. Our evaluation of potential measures included consideration of the following factors in relation to one another: (1) the manner in which, and the degree to which, the successful implementation of the mitigation measures is expected to reduce the likelihood and/or magnitude of adverse impacts to marine mammal species and their habitat; (2) the proven or likely efficacy of the measures; and (3) the practicability of the measures for applicant implementation, including consideration of personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity.
                    </P>
                    <P>Based on our evaluation of the Action Proponents' proposed measures, as well as other measures considered by the Action Proponents and NMFS (see section 5.9 (Measures Considered but Eliminated) of chapter 5 (Mitigation) of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS), NMFS has determined that these mitigation measures are appropriate means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on marine mammal species and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and considering specifically personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity. Additionally, an adaptive management component helps further ensure that mitigation is regularly assessed and provides a mechanism to improve the mitigation, based on the factors above, through modification as appropriate. Thus, NMFS concludes that the mitigation measures outlined in this final rule satisfy the statutory standard and that any adverse impacts that remain cannot be practicably further mitigated.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Monitoring</HD>
                    <P>Section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA states that in order to authorize incidental take for an activity, NMFS must set forth requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking. The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104(a)(13) indicate that requests for ITAs must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species and of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals that are expected to be present.</P>
                    <P>We provided a detailed discussion of monitoring in our proposed rulemaking (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025). In the Proposed Monitoring section of the proposed rule, NMFS provided a description of the Navy Marine Species Research and Monitoring Strategic Framework, and past and current Navy monitoring in the HCTT Study Area. All of this information remains valid and applicable and is not repeated here.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Navy's marine species monitoring program supports several monitoring projects in the HCTT Study Area at any given time. Additional details on the scientific objectives for each project can be found at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.navymarinespeciesmonitoring.us/regions/pacific/current-projects.</E>
                         Future monitoring efforts by the Action Proponents in the HCTT Study Area are anticipated to continue along the same objectives: establish the baseline habitat uses and movement patterns; establish the baseline behavior (foraging, dive patterns, 
                        <E T="03">etc.</E>
                        ); and evaluate potential exposure and behavioral responses of marine mammals exposed to training and testing activities.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adaptive Management</HD>
                    <P>
                        The regulations governing the take of marine mammals incidental to military readiness activities in the HCTT Study Area contain an adaptive management component. Our understanding of the effects of military readiness activities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         acoustic and explosive stressors) on marine mammals continues to evolve, which makes the inclusion of an adaptive management component both valuable and necessary within the context of 7-year regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The reporting requirements associated with this final rule are designed to provide NMFS with monitoring data from the previous year to allow NMFS to consider whether any changes to existing mitigation and monitoring requirements are appropriate. The use of adaptive management allows NMFS to consider new information from different sources to determine (with input from the Action Proponents regarding practicability) on an annual or biennial basis if mitigation or monitoring measures should be modified (including additions or deletions). Mitigation measures could be modified if new data suggests that such modifications would have a reasonable likelihood of more effectively accomplishing the goals of the mitigation and monitoring and if the measures are practicable. If the modifications to the mitigation, monitoring, or reporting measures are substantial, NMFS would publish a notice of the planned LOAs in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         and solicit public comment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The following are some of the possible sources of applicable data to be considered through the adaptive management process: (1) results from monitoring and exercise reports, as required by MMPA authorizations; (2) compiled results of Navy-funded research and development studies; (3) results from specific stranding investigations; (4) results from general marine mammal and sound research; and (5) any information which reveals that marine mammals may have been taken in a manner, extent, or number not authorized by these regulations or subsequent LOAs. The results from monitoring reports and other studies may be viewed at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.navymarinespeciesmonitoring.us.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Reporting</HD>
                    <P>
                        In order to issue an ITA for an activity, section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA states that NMFS must set forth requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking. Effective reporting is critical both to compliance as well as ensuring that the most value is obtained from the required monitoring. Reports from individual monitoring events, results of analyses, publications, and periodic progress reports for specific monitoring projects will be posted to the Navy's Marine Species Monitoring web portal: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.navymarinespeciesmonitoring.us.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We provided a detailed discussion of reporting in our proposed rulemaking (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025). In the Proposed Reporting section of the proposed rule, NMFS provided descriptions of: special reporting for geographic mitigation areas; the Notification and Reporting Plan for injured, live stranded, or dead marine mammals; annual HCTT Study Area marine species monitoring report; annual HCTT training and testing reports; and other reporting and coordination. All of this information 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58957"/>
                        remains valid and applicable and is not repeated here.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition to the reporting requirements included in the proposed rule, this final rule requires that in the Annual HCTT Training and Testing Reports Navy personnel must confirm that foreign military use of sonar and explosives, when such militaries are participating in a U.S. Navy-led exercise or event, combined with the Action Proponents' use of sonar and explosives, would not cause exceedance of the analyzed levels within each NAEMO modeled sonar and explosive bin used for estimating predicted impacts. Further, it requires that, for the California Large Whale Real-Time Notification Mitigation Area, the following information will be provided by the Navy in the Annual HCTT Training and Testing Reports: Date, time and general location of the whales when the aggregation was first sighted, and the total number of whales in the aggregation. If the whales are identified by species, that information will be provided as well.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">General Negligible Impact Analysis</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Introduction</HD>
                    <P>
                        NMFS has defined negligible impact as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (50 CFR 216.103). A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         population-level effects). An estimate of the number of takes alone is not enough information on which to base an impact determination. In addition to considering estimates of the number of marine mammals that might be taken by Level A harassment or Level B harassment (as presented in table 19), NMFS considers other factors, such as the likely nature of any responses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         intensity, duration) and the context of any responses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         critical reproductive time or location, migration), as well as effects on habitat and the likely effectiveness of the mitigation. We also assess the number, intensity, and context of estimated takes by evaluating this information relative to population status. Consistent with the 1989 preamble for NMFS' implementing regulations (54 FR 40338, September 29, 1989), the impacts from other past and ongoing anthropogenic activities are incorporated into this analysis via their impacts on the environmental baseline (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         as reflected in the regulatory status of the species, population size and growth rate where known, other ongoing sources of human-caused mortality, and ambient noise levels).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the Estimated Take of Marine Mammals section, we identified the subset of potential effects that would be expected to qualify as take under the MMPA both annually and over the 7-year period covered by this rule, and then identified the maximum number of takes we believe could occur (mortality) or are reasonably expected to occur (harassment) based on the methods described. The impact that any given take will have is dependent on many case-specific factors that need to be considered in the negligible impact analysis (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the context of behavioral exposures such as duration or intensity of a disturbance, the health of impacted animals, the status of a species that incurs fitness-level impacts to individuals). For this rule we evaluated the likely impacts of the enumerated maximum number of harassment takes that are authorized and reasonably expected to occur, in the context of the specific circumstances surrounding these predicted takes. We also include a specific assessment of serious injury or mortality (M/SI) takes that could occur, as well as consideration of the traits and statuses of the affected species and stocks. Last, we collectively evaluated this information, as well as other more taxa-specific information and mitigation measure effectiveness, in group-specific assessments that support our negligible impact conclusions for each stock or species. Because all of the Action Proponents' specified activities would occur within the ranges of the marine mammal stocks identified in the rule, all negligible impact analyses and determinations are at the stock level (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         additional species-level determinations are not needed).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Harassment</HD>
                    <P>The specified activities reflect representative levels of military readiness activities. The Description of the Proposed Activity section describes annual activities. There may be some flexibility in the exact number of hours, items, or detonations that may vary from year to year, but take totals would not exceed the maximum annual totals and 7-year totals indicated in table 19. We base our analysis and negligible impact determination on the maximum number of takes that would be reasonably expected to occur annually and are authorized, although, as stated before, the number of takes is only one part of the analysis, which includes extensive qualitative consideration of other contextual factors that influence the degree of impact of the takes on the affected individuals. To avoid repetition, we provide some general analysis immediately below that applies to all the species listed in table 19, given that some of the anticipated effects of the Action Proponents' military readiness activities on marine mammals are expected to be relatively similar in nature. Below that, we provide additional information specific to mysticetes, odontocetes, and pinnipeds and, finally, break our analysis into species (and/or stocks), or groups of species (and the associated stocks) where relevant similarities exist, to provide more specific information related to the anticipated effects on individuals of a specific stock or where there is information about the status or structure of any species that would lead to a differing assessment of the effects on the species or stock. Organizing our analysis by grouping species or stocks that share common traits or that will respond similarly to effects of the Action Proponents' activities and then providing species- or stock-specific information allows us to avoid duplication while assuring that we have analyzed the effects of the specified activities on each affected species or stock.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Action Proponents' harassment take request is based on one model for pile driving, a second model for land-based missile and target launches, and a third model (NAEMO) for all other acoustic stressors, which NMFS reviewed and concurs does appropriately estimate the maximum amount of harassment that is reasonably likely to occur. As described in more detail above, NAEMO calculates: (1) sound energy propagation from sonar and other transducers, air guns, and explosives during military readiness activities; (2) the sound or impulse received by animat dosimeters representing marine mammals distributed in the area around the modeled activity; and (3) whether the sound or impulse energy received by a marine mammal exceeds the thresholds for effects. Assumptions in the Navy models intentionally err on the side of overestimation when there are unknowns. The effects of the specified activities are modeled as though they would occur regardless of proximity to marine mammals, meaning that no activity-based mitigation is considered (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         no power down or shut down). However, the modeling does quantitatively consider the possibility that marine mammals would avoid 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58958"/>
                        continued or repeated sound exposures to some degree, based on a species' sensitivity to behavioral disturbance. NMFS provided input to, independently reviewed, and concurred with the Action Proponents on this process. The Action Proponents' analysis, which is described in detail in section 6 of the application, was used to quantify harassment takes for this rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Action Proponents and NMFS anticipate more severe effects from takes resulting from exposure to higher received levels (though this is in no way a strictly linear relationship for behavioral effects throughout species, individuals, or circumstances) and less severe effects from takes resulting from exposure to lower received levels. However, there is also growing evidence of the importance of distance in predicting marine mammal behavioral response to sound (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         sounds of a similar level emanating from a more distant source have been shown to be less likely to elicit a response of equal magnitude (DeRuiter, 2012)). The estimated number of takes by Level A harassment and Level B harassment does not equate to the number of individual animals the Action Proponents expect to harass (which is lower), but rather to the instances of take (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         exposures above the Level A harassment and Level B harassment threshold) that are anticipated to occur over the 7-year period. These instances may represent either brief exposures (seconds or minutes) or, in some cases, longer durations of exposure within a day. In some cases, an animal that incurs a single take by AUD INJ or TTS may also experience a direct behavioral harassment from the same exposure. Some individuals may experience multiple instances of take (meaning over multiple days) over the course of the year, which means that the number of individuals taken is smaller than the total estimated takes. Generally speaking, the higher the number of takes as compared to the population abundance, the more repeated takes of individuals are likely, and the higher the actual percentage of individuals in the population that are likely taken at least once in a year. We look at this comparative metric (number of takes to population abundance) to give us a relative sense of where a larger portion of a species is being taken by the specified activities, where there is a likelihood that the same individuals are being taken across multiple days, and whether the number of days might be higher or more likely sequential. Where the number of instances of take is less than 100 percent of the abundance, and there is no information to specifically suggest that some subset of animals is known to congregate in an area in which activities are regularly occurring (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a small resident population, takes occurring in a known important area such as a BIA, or a large portion of the takes occurring in a certain region and season), the overall likelihood and number of repeated takes is generally considered low, as it could, on one extreme, mean that every take represents a separate individual in the population being taken on one day (a minimal impact to an individual) or, more likely, that some smaller number of individuals are taken on one day annually and some are taken on a few, not likely sequential, days annually, and of course some are not taken at all.
                    </P>
                    <P>In the ocean, the use of sonar and other active acoustic sources is often transient and is unlikely to repeatedly expose the same individual animals within a short period, for example within one specific exercise. However, for some individuals of some species, repeated exposures across different activities could occur over the year, especially where events occur in generally the same area with more resident species. In short, for some species, we expect that the total anticipated takes represent exposures of a smaller number of individuals of which some would be exposed multiple times, but, based on the nature of the specified activities and the movement patterns of marine mammals, it is unlikely that individuals from most stocks would be taken over more than a few days within a given year. This means that even where repeated takes of individuals are likely to occur, they are more likely to result from non-sequential exposures from different activities, and, even if sequential, individual animals are not predicted to be taken for more than several days in a row, at most. As described elsewhere, the nature of the majority of the exposures would be expected to be of a less severe nature, and based on the numbers, it is likely that any individual exposed multiple times is still taken on only a small percentage of the days of the year. It is more likely that not every individual is taken, or perhaps a smaller subset is taken with a slightly higher average and larger variability of highs and lows, but still with no reason to think that, for most species or stocks, any individuals would be taken a significant portion of the days of the year.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Behavioral Response</HD>
                    <P>
                        The estimates calculated using the BRF do not differentiate between the different types of behavioral responses that qualify as Level B harassment. As described in the application, the Action Proponents identified (with NMFS' input) that moderate behavioral responses, as characterized in Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2021), would be considered a take. The behavioral responses predicted by the BRFs are assumed to be moderate severity exposures (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         altered migration paths or dive profiles, interrupted nursing, breeding or feeding, or avoidance) that may last for the duration of an exposure. The Action Proponents then compiled the available data indicating at what received levels and distances those responses have occurred and used the indicated literature to build biphasic behavioral response curves and cut-off conditions that are used to predict how many instances of Level B behavioral harassment occur in a day (see the Criteria and Thresholds Technical Report). Take estimates alone do not provide information regarding the potential fitness or other biological consequences of the responses on the affected individuals. We, therefore, consider the available activity-specific, environmental, and species-specific information to determine the likely nature of the modeled behavioral responses and the potential fitness consequences for affected individuals.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Use of sonar and other transducers would typically be transient and temporary. The majority of acoustic effects to individual animals from sonar and other active sound sources during military readiness activities will be primarily from anti-submarine warfare events. It is important to note although anti-submarine warfare is one of the warfare areas of focus during MTEs, there are significant periods when active anti-submarine warfare sonars are not in use. Nevertheless, behavioral responses are assumed more likely to be significant during MTEs than during other anti-submarine warfare activities due to the duration (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         multiple days), scale (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         multiple sonar platforms), and use of high-power hull-mounted sonar in the MTEs. In other words, in the range of potential behavioral effects that might be expected as part of a response that qualifies as an instance of Level B behavioral harassment (which by nature of the way it is modeled/counted, occurs within 1 day), the less severe end might include exposure to comparatively lower levels of a sound, at a detectably greater distance from the animal, for a few or several minutes, and that could result in a behavioral response such as avoiding an area that an animal would otherwise have chosen 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58959"/>
                        to move through or feed in for some amount of time or breaking off one or a few feeding bouts. More severe effects could occur when the animal gets close enough to the source to receive a comparatively higher level, is exposed continuously to one source for a longer time, or is exposed intermittently to different sources throughout a day. Such effects might result in an animal having a more severe flight response and leaving a larger area for a day or more or potentially losing feeding opportunities for a day. However, such severe behavioral effects are expected to occur infrequently.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To help assess this, for sonar (LFAS/MFAS/high-frequency active sonar (HFAS)) used in the HCTT Study Area, the Action Proponents provided information estimating the instances of take by Level B harassment by behavioral disturbance under each BRF that would occur within 6-dB increments (discussed below in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section), and by distance in 5-km bins in section 2.3.3 of appendix A of the application. As mentioned above, all else being equal, an animal's exposure to a higher received level is more likely to result in a behavioral response that is more likely to lead to adverse effects, which could more likely accumulate to impacts on reproductive success or survivorship of the animal, but other contextual factors (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         distance, duration of exposure, and behavioral state of the animals) are also important (Di Clemente 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018; Ellison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012; Moore and Barlow, 2013; Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019; Wensveen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017, 
                        <E T="03">etc.</E>
                        ). The majority of takes by Level B harassment are expected to be in the form of comparatively milder responses (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         lower-level exposures that still qualify as take under the MMPA, but would likely be less severe along the continuum of responses that qualify as take) of a generally shorter duration. We anticipate more severe effects from takes when animals are exposed to higher received levels of sound or at closer proximity to the source. Because species belonging to taxa that share common characteristics are likely to respond and be affected in similar ways, these discussions are presented within each species group below in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section. As discussed in the Behavioral Responses section of the proposed rulemaking (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025), behavioral response is likely highly variable between species, individuals within a species, and context of the exposure. Specifically, given a range of behavioral responses that may be classified as Level B harassment, to the degree that higher received levels of sound are expected to result in more severe behavioral responses, only a smaller percentage of the anticipated Level B harassment from the specified activities might result in more severe responses (see the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section below for more detailed information).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Physiological Stress Response</HD>
                    <P>
                        Some of the lower level physiological stress responses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         orientation or startle response, change in respiration, change in heart rate) discussed in the Potential Effects of Underwater Sound on Marine Mammals section of the proposed rulemaking (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025), would likely co-occur with the predicted harassments, although these responses are more difficult to detect and fewer data exist relating these responses to specific received levels of sound. Takes by Level B harassment, then, may have a stress-related physiological component as well; however, we would not expect the Action Proponents' generally short-term, intermittent, and (typically in the case of sonar) transitory activities to create conditions of long-term continuous noise leading to long-term physiological stress responses in marine mammals that could affect reproduction or survival.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Diel Cycle</HD>
                    <P>
                        Many animals perform vital functions, such as feeding, resting, traveling, and socializing on a diel cycle (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         24-hour cycle). Behavioral responses to noise exposure, when taking place in a biologically important context, such as disruption of critical life functions, displacement, or avoidance of important habitat, are more likely to be significant if they last more than one diel cycle or recur on subsequent days (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Henderson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2016) found that ongoing smaller scale events had little to no impact on foraging dives for Blainville's beaked whale, while multi-day training events may decrease foraging behavior for Blainville's beaked whale (Manzano-Roth 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016). Consequently, a behavioral response lasting less than 1 day and not recurring on subsequent days is not considered severe unless it could directly affect reproduction or survival (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Note that there is a difference between multiple-day substantive behavioral responses and multiple-day anthropogenic activities. For example, just because an at-sea exercise lasts for multiple days does not necessarily mean that individual animals are either exposed to those exercises for multiple days or, further, exposed in a manner resulting in a sustained multiple day substantive behavioral response. Large multi-day Navy exercises, such as anti-submarine warfare activities, typically include vessels moving faster than while in transit (typically 10-15 kn (18.5-27.8 km/hr) or higher) and generally cover large areas that are relatively far from HFASshore (typically more than 3 nmi (5.6 km) from shore) and in waters greater than 600 ft (182.9 m) deep. Marine mammals are moving as well, which would make it unlikely that the same animal could remain in the immediate vicinity of the ship for the entire duration of the exercise. Further, the Action Proponents do not necessarily operate active sonar the entire time during an exercise. While it is certainly possible that these sorts of exercises could overlap with individual marine mammals multiple days in a row at levels above those anticipated to result in a take, because of the factors mentioned above, it is considered unlikely for the majority of takes. However, it is also worth noting that the Action Proponents conduct many different types of noise-producing activities over the course of the year and it is likely that some marine mammals will be exposed to more than one activity and taken on multiple days, even if they are not sequential.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Durations of Navy activities utilizing tactical sonar sources and explosives vary and are fully described in chapter 2 of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS. Sonar used during anti-submarine warfare would impart the greatest amount of acoustic energy of any category of sonar and other transducers analyzed in the application and include hull-mounted, towed, line array, sonobuoy, helicopter dipping, and torpedo sonars. Most anti-submarine warfare sonars are MFAS (1-10 kHz); however, some sources may use higher or lower frequencies. Anti-submarine warfare training and testing activities using hull-mounted sonar proposed for the HCTT Study Area generally last for only a few hours. However, anti-submarine warfare testing activities range from several hours, to a single or more than 1 day but less than 10 days, to more than 10 days for large integrated anti-submarine warfare MTEs (see table 2, table 3, and table 7 of the proposed rule; 90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025). For these multi-day exercises there will typically be extended intervals of non-activity in between active sonar periods. Because of the need to train in a large variety of situations, the Navy conducts anti-submarine warfare activities in varying locations. Given the average length and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58960"/>
                        dynamic nature of anti-submarine warfare activities (times of sonar use) and typical vessel speed, combined with the fact that the majority of the cetaceans would not likely remain in proximity to the sound source, it is unlikely that an animal would be exposed to LFAS/MFAS/HFAS at levels or durations likely to result in a substantive response that would then be carried on for more than 1 day or on successive days.
                    </P>
                    <P>Most planned explosive events are instantaneous or scheduled to occur over a short duration (less than 2 hours) and the explosive component of these activities lasts only for minutes. Although explosive activities may sometimes be conducted in the same general areas repeatedly, because of their short duration and the fact that they are in the open ocean and animals can easily move away, it is similarly unlikely that animals would be exposed for long, continuous amounts of time, or demonstrate sustained behavioral responses. Although SINKEXs may last for up to 48 hours (4-8 hours typically, possibly 1-2 days), they are almost always completed in a single day and only a maximum of one event is planned annually for SOCAL and 2-3 annually in Hawaii (see table 3 of the proposed rule; 90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025). They are stationary and conducted in deep, open water (where fewer marine mammals would typically be expected to be randomly encountered), and they have rigorous monitoring (see table 34) and shutdown procedures all of which make it unlikely that individuals would be exposed to the exercise for extended periods or on consecutive days, though some individuals may be exposed on multiple days.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Assessing the Number of Individuals Taken and the Likelihood of Repeated Takes</HD>
                    <P>
                        As described previously, Navy modeling uses the best available science to predict the instances of exposure above certain acoustic thresholds, which are equated, as appropriate, to harassment takes. As further noted, for active acoustics it is more challenging to parse out the number of individuals taken by Level B harassment and the number of times those individuals are taken from this larger number of instances, though factors such as movement ecology (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         is the species resident and more likely to remain in closer proximity to ongoing activities, versus nomadic or migratory; Keen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021) or whether there are known BIAs where animals are known to congregate can help inform this. One method that NMFS uses to help better understand the overall scope of the impacts is to compare these total instances of take against the abundance of that species (or stock if applicable). For example, if there are 100 harassment takes in a population of 100, one can assume either that every individual was exposed above acoustic thresholds once per year, or that some smaller number were exposed a few times per year, and a few were not exposed at all. Where the instances of take exceed 100 percent of the population, multiple takes of some individuals are predicted and expected to occur within a year. Generally speaking, the higher the number of takes as compared to the population abundance, the more multiple takes of individuals are likely, and the higher the actual percentage of individuals in the population that are likely taken at least once in a year. We look at this comparative metric to give us a relative sense of where larger portions of the species are being taken by the Action Proponents' activities and where there is a higher likelihood that the same individuals are being taken across multiple days and where that number of days might be higher. It also provides a relative picture of the scale of impacts to each species.
                    </P>
                    <P>In the ocean, unlike a modeling simulation with static animals, the transient nature of sonar use makes it unlikely to repeatedly expose the same individual animals within a short period, for example, within one specific exercise. However, some repeated exposures across different activities could occur over the year with more resident species. In short, we expect the total anticipated takes represent exposures of a smaller number of individuals of which some could be exposed multiple times, but, based on the nature of the Action Proponents' activities and the movement patterns of marine mammals, it is unlikely that any particular subset would be taken over more than several sequential days (with a few possible exceptions discussed in the species-specific conclusions). In other cases, such as activities that overlap habitat of small and resident populations, repeated exposures of the same individuals may be more likely given the likelihood that a smaller number of animals would routinely use the affected habitat.</P>
                    <P>
                        When calculating the proportion of a population taken (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the number of takes divided by population abundance), which can also be helpful in estimating the number of days over which some individuals may be taken, it is important to choose an appropriate population estimate against which to make the comparison. Herein, NMFS considers two potential abundance estimates, the SARs and the NMSDD abundance estimates. The SARs, where available, provide the official population estimate for a given species or stock in U.S. waters in a given year. These estimates are typically generated from the most recent shipboard and/or aerial surveys conducted, and in some cases, the estimates show substantial year-to-year variability. When the stock is known to range well outside of U.S. EEZ boundaries, population estimates based on surveys conducted only within the U.S. EEZ are known to be underestimates. The NMSDD-derived abundance estimates are abundances for within the boundaries described for the density database for the California and Hawaii Study Areas only and, therefore, differ from some SAR abundance estimates. For the California Study Area, the NMSDD abundances are based on the extent of the west coast density models, which include areas off the Baja California peninsula of Mexico to the south but are truncated to the north and west of the California portion of the Study Area as shown in the revised Density Technical Report. For some species, the NMSDD abundances are based on density models that extend up to the northern extent of the west coast U.S. EEZ, beyond the HCTT Study Area. These are noted in the table. In some instances, even this larger extent does not cover the full range of a species or stock. For the Hawaii Study Area, the NMSDD abundances are based on a buffer around the Hawaiian island chain. Thus, island-associated species are encompassed, but abundances of wider-ranging species may be underestimated.
                    </P>
                    <P>The SAR and NMSDD abundance estimates can differ substantially because these estimates may be based on different methods and data sources. For example, the SARs consider data only from the past 8 year period, whereas the NMSDD considers a longer data history. Further, the SARs estimate the number of animals in a population but not spatial densities. NMSDD uses predictive density models to estimate species presence, even where sighting data is limited or lacking altogether. Each density model is limited to the variables and assumptions considered by the original data source provider. NMFS considered these factors and others described in the revised Density Technical Report when comparing the estimated takes to current population abundances for each species or stock.</P>
                    <P>
                        In consideration of the factors described above, to estimate repeated impacts across large areas relative to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58961"/>
                        species geographic distributions, comparing the impacts predicted in NAEMO to abundances predicted using the NMSDD models is usually preferable. By comparing estimated take to the NMSDD abundance estimates, impacts and abundance estimates are based on the same underlying assumptions about a species' presence. NMFS has compared the estimated take to the NMSDD abundance estimates herein for all stocks, with the exception of stocks where the abundance information fits into one of the following scenarios, in which case NMFS concluded that comparison to the SAR abundance estimate is more appropriate: (1) a species' or stocks' range extends beyond the U.S. EEZ and the SAR abundance estimate is greater than the NMSDD abundance. For highly migratory species (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         large whales) or those whose geographic distribution extends beyond the boundaries of the HCTT Study Area (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Alaska stocks), comparisons to the SAR are appropriate. Many of the stocks present in the HCTT Study Area have ranges significantly larger than the HCTT Study Area, and that abundance is captured by the SAR. Therefore: (1) comparing the estimated takes to an abundance, in this case the SAR abundance, which represents the total population, may be more appropriate than modeled abundances for only the HCTT Study Area; and (2) when the current minimum population estimate in the SAR is greater than the NMSDD abundance, regardless of whether the stock range extends beyond the EEZ. The NMSDD and SAR abundance estimates are both included in table 54, table 56, table 58, table 60, table 62, and table 64, and each table indicates which stock abundance estimate was selected for comparison to the take estimate for each species or stock.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Temporary Threshold Shift</HD>
                    <P>NMFS and the Navy have estimated that all species of marine mammals may incur some level of TTS from active sonar. As mentioned previously, in general, TTS can last from a few minutes to days, be of varying degree, and occur across various frequency bandwidths, all of which determine the severity of the impacts on the affected individual, which can range from minor to more severe. Table 3 through table 17 indicate the number of takes by TTS that may be incurred by different species from exposure to active sonar, air guns, pile driving, and explosives. The TTS incurred by an animal is primarily characterized by three characteristics:</P>
                    <P>
                        1. Frequency—Available data suggest that most TTS occurs in the frequency range of the source up to one octave higher than the source (with the maximum TTS at 
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                         octave above) (Finneran, 2015; Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). The Navy's MF anti-submarine warfare sources, which are the highest power and most numerous sources and the ones that cause the most take by TTS, utilize the 1-10 kHz frequency band, which suggests that if TTS were to be induced by any of these MF sources it would be in a frequency band somewhere between approximately 1 and 20 kHz, which is in the range of communication calls for many odontocetes, but below the range of the echolocation signals used for foraging. There are fewer hours of HF source use and the sounds would attenuate more quickly, plus they have lower source levels, but if an animal were to incur TTS from these sources, it would cover a higher frequency range (sources are between 10 and 100 kHz, which means that TTS could range up to the highest frequencies audible to VHF cetaceans, approaching 200 kHz), which could overlap with the range in which some odontocetes communicate or echolocate. There are fewer LF sources and the majority are used in the more readily mitigated testing environment, and TTS from LF sources would most likely occur below 2 kHz, which is in the range where many mysticetes communicate and also where other auditory cues are located (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         waves, snapping shrimp, fish prey). Also of note, the majority of sonar sources from which TTS may be incurred occupy a narrow frequency band, which means that the TTS incurred would also be across a narrower band (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         not affecting the majority of an animal's hearing range).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        2. Degree of the shift (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         by how many dB the sensitivity of the hearing is reduced)—Generally, both the degree of TTS and the duration of TTS will be greater if the marine mammal is exposed to a higher level of energy (which would occur when the peak SPL is higher or the duration is longer). The threshold for the onset of TTS was discussed in the Hearing Loss and Auditory Injury section of the proposed rulemaking (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025). An animal would have to approach closer to the source or remain in the vicinity of the sound source appreciably longer to increase the received SEL, which would be difficult considering the Lookouts and the nominal speed of an active sonar vessel (10-15 kn (18.5-27.8 km/hr)) and the relative motion between the sonar vessel and the animal. In the TTS studies discussed in the Potential Effects of Specified Activities on Marine Mammals and Their Habitat section, some using exposures of almost 1 hour in duration or up to 217 SEL, most of the TTS induced was 15 dB or less, though Finneran 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2007) induced 43 dB of TTS with a 64-second exposure to a 20 kHz source measured via auditory steady-state response (auditory evoked potential measurement). The SQS-53 (MFAS) hull-mounted sonar (MF1) nominally emits a short (1-second) ping typically every 50 seconds, incurring those levels of TTS due to this source is highly unlikely. Sources with higher duty cycles, such as MF1C (high duty cycle hull-mounted sonar) produce longer ranges to effects and contribute to auditory effects from this action. Since most hull-mounted sonar, such as the SQS-53, engaged in anti-submarine warfare training would be moving at between 10 and 15 kn (18.5 to 27.8 km/hr) and nominally pinging every 50 seconds, the vessel will have traveled a minimum distance of approximately 843.2 ft (257 m) during the time between those pings. For a Navy vessel moving at a nominal 10 kn (18.5 km/hr), it is unlikely a marine mammal would track with the ship and could maintain speed parallel to the ship to receive adequate energy over successive pings to suffer TTS. In general, there is a higher potential for TTS associated with sources with higher duty cycles, like continuous hull-mounted sonars, compared to those sources that are intermittent or have lower duty cycles (Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). Though high duty cycle or continuous hull-mounted sonars make up a small percentage of the Navy's overall MFAS activities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In short, given the anticipated duration and levels of sound exposure, we would not expect marine mammals to incur more than relatively low levels of TTS in most cases for sonar exposure. To add context to this degree of TTS, individual marine mammals may regularly experience variations of 6 dB differences in hearing sensitivity in their lifetime (Finneran 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000; Finneran 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2002; Schlundt 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        3. Duration of TTS (recovery time)—As discussed in the Potential Effects of Specified Activities on Marine Mammals and Their Habitat section of the proposed rulemaking (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025), in TTS laboratory studies using exposures of up to an hour in duration or up to 217 dB SEL, most individuals recovered within 1 day (or less, often in minutes) (Kastelein, 2020b). One study resulted in a recovery that took 4 days (Finneran 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015; Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). However, there is 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58962"/>
                        evidence that repeated exposures resulting in TTS could potentially lead to residual threshold shifts that persist for longer durations and can result in PTS (Reichmuth 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019).
                    </P>
                    <P>Compared to laboratory studies, marine mammals are likely to experience lower SELs from sonar used in the HCTT Study Area due to movement of the source and animals, and because of the lower duty cycles typical of higher power sources (though some of the Navy MF1C sources have higher duty cycles). Therefore, TTS resulting from MFAS would likely be of lesser magnitude and duration compared to laboratory studies. Also, for the same reasons discussed above in the Diel Cycle section, and because of the short distance between the source and animals needed to reach high SELs, it is unlikely that animals would be exposed to the levels necessary to induce TTS in subsequent time periods such that hearing recovery is impeded. Additionally, though the frequency range of TTS that marine mammals might incur would overlap with some of the frequency ranges of their vocalization types, the frequency range of TTS from MFAS would not usually span the entire frequency range of one vocalization type, much less span all types of vocalizations or other critical auditory cues.</P>
                    <P>
                        As a general point, the majority of the TTS takes are the result of exposure to hull-mounted MFAS, with fewer from explosives (broad-band lower frequency sources), and even fewer from LFAS or HFAS sources (narrower band). As described above, we expect the majority of these takes to be in the form of mild, short-term (minutes to hours), narrower band (affecting only a portion of the animal's hearing range) TTS. This means that for one to several times per year, for several minutes, maybe a few hours, or at most in limited circumstances a few days, a taken individual will have diminished hearing sensitivity (more than natural variation, but nowhere near total deafness). More often than not, such an exposure would occur within a narrower mid- to higher frequency band that may overlap part (but not all) of a communication, echolocation, or predator range, but sometimes across a lower or broader bandwidth. The significance of TTS is also related to the auditory cues that are germane within the time period that the animal incurs the TTS. For example, if an odontocete has TTS at echolocation frequencies, but incurs it at night when it is resting and not feeding, it may not be as impactful. In short, the expected results of any one of these limited number of mild TTS occurrences could be that: (1) it does not overlap signals that are pertinent to that animal in the given time period; (2) it overlaps parts of signals that are important to the animal, but not in a manner that impairs interpretation; or (3) it reduces detectability of an important signal to a small degree for a short amount of time—in which case the animal may be aware and be able to compensate (but there may be slight energetic cost), or the animal may have some reduced opportunities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         to detect prey) or reduced capabilities to react with maximum effectiveness (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         to detect a predator or navigate optimally). However, it is unlikely that individuals would experience repeated or high degree TTS overlapping in frequency and time with signals critical for behaviors that would impact overall fitness.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Auditory Masking or Communication Impairment</HD>
                    <P>The ultimate potential impacts of masking on an individual (if it were to occur) are similar to those discussed for TTS, but an important difference is that masking occurs only during the time of the signal, versus TTS, which continues beyond the duration of the signal. Fundamentally, masking is referred to as a chronic effect because one of the key harmful components of masking is its duration—the fact that an animal would have reduced ability to hear or interpret critical cues becomes much more likely to cause a problem the longer it occurs. Also inherent in the concept of masking is the fact that the potential for the effect is present only during the times that the animal and the source are in close enough proximity for the effect to occur (and further, this time period would need to coincide with a time that the animal was utilizing sounds at the masked frequency). As our analysis has indicated, because of the relative movement of vessels and the sound sources primarily involved in this rule, we do not expect the exposures with the potential for masking to be of a long duration.</P>
                    <P>Masking is fundamentally more of a concern at lower frequencies, because low frequency signals propagate significantly farther than higher frequencies and because they are more likely to overlap both the narrower LF calls of mysticetes, as well as many non-communication cues such as fish and invertebrate prey, and geologic sounds that inform navigation. Masking is also more of a concern from continuous sources (versus intermittent sonar signals) where there is no quiet time between pulses and detection and interpretation of auditory signals is likely more challenging. For these reasons, dense aggregations of, and long exposure to, continuous LF activity are much more of a concern for masking, whereas comparatively short-term exposure to the predominantly intermittent pulses of often narrow frequency range MFAS or HFAS, or explosions are not expected to result in a meaningful amount of masking. While the Action Proponents occasionally use LF and more continuous sources, it is not in the contemporaneous aggregate amounts that would be expected to accrue to degrees that would have the potential to affect reproductive success or survival. Additional detail is provided below.</P>
                    <P>
                        Standard hull-mounted MFAS typically pings every 50 seconds. Some hull-mounted anti-submarine sonars can also be used in an object detection mode known as “Kingfisher” mode (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         used on vessels when transiting to and from port) where pulse length is shorter but pings are much closer together in both time and space since the vessel goes slower when operating in this mode, and during which an increased likelihood of masking in the vicinity of vessel could be expected. For the majority of other sources, the pulse length is significantly shorter than hull-mounted active sonar, on the order of several microseconds to tens of milliseconds. Some of the vocalizations that many marine mammals make are less than 1 second long; so, for example, with hull-mounted sonar, there would be a 1 in 50 chance (only if the source was in close enough proximity for the sound to exceed the signal that is being detected) that a single vocalization might be masked by a ping. However, when vocalizations (or series of vocalizations) are longer than the 1 second pulse of hull-mounted sonar, or when the pulses are only several microseconds long, the majority of most animals' vocalizations would not be masked.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Most anti-submarine warfare sonars and countermeasures use MF frequencies and a few use LF and HF frequencies. Most of these sonar signals are limited in the temporal, frequency, and spatial domains. The duration of most individual sounds is short, lasting up to a few seconds each. A few systems operate with higher duty cycles or nearly continuously, but they typically use lower power, which means that an animal would have to be closer, or in the vicinity for a longer time, to be masked to the same degree as by a higher level source. Nevertheless, masking could occasionally occur at closer ranges to these high-duty cycle and continuous active sonar systems, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58963"/>
                        but as described previously, it would be expected to be of a short duration. While data are lacking on behavioral responses of marine mammals to continuously active sonars, mysticete species are known to habituate to novel and continuous sounds (Nowacek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004), suggesting that they are likely to have similar responses to high-duty cycle sonars. Furthermore, most of these systems are hull-mounted on surface ships with the ships moving at least 10 kn (18.5 km/hr), and it is unlikely that the ship and the marine mammal would continue to move in the same direction and the marine mammal subjected to the same exposure due to that movement. Most anti-submarine warfare activities are geographically dispersed and last for only a few hours, often with intermittent sonar use even within this period. Most anti-submarine warfare sonars also have a narrow frequency band (typically less than one-third octave). These factors reduce the likelihood of sources causing significant masking. HF signals (above 10 kHz) attenuate more rapidly in the water due to absorption than do lower frequency signals, thus producing only a very small zone of potential masking. If masking or communication impairment were to occur briefly, it would more likely be in the frequency range of MFAS (the more powerful source), which overlaps with some odontocete vocalizations (but few mysticete vocalizations); however, it would likely not mask the entirety of any particular vocalization, communication series, or other critical auditory cue, because the signal length, frequency, and duty cycle of the MFAS/HFAS signal does not perfectly resemble the characteristics of any single marine mammal species' vocalizations.
                    </P>
                    <P>Other sources used in the Action Proponents' training and testing that are not explicitly addressed above, many of either higher frequencies (meaning that the sounds generated attenuate even closer to the source) or used less frequently, would be expected to contribute to masking over far smaller areas and/or times. For the reasons described here, any limited masking that could potentially occur would be minor and short-term.</P>
                    <P>In conclusion, masking is more likely to occur in the presence of broadband, relatively continuous noise sources such as from vessels; however, the duration of temporal and spatial overlap with any individual animal and the spatially separated sources that the Action Proponents use are not expected to result in more than short-term, low impact masking that will not affect reproduction or survival.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Auditory Injury From Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury From Explosives</HD>
                    <P>Table 3 through table 17 indicate the number of takes of each species by Level A harassment in the form of auditory injury resulting from exposure to active sonar and/or explosives estimated to occur, and table 19 indicates the totals across all activities. The number of takes estimated to result from auditory injury annually from sonar, air guns, and explosives for each species/stock from all activities combined ranges from 0 to 1,235 (the 1,235 is for the CA/OR/WA stock of Dall's porpoise). Thirty-two stocks have the potential to incur non-auditory injury from explosives, and the number of individuals from any given stock from all activities combined ranges from 1 to 71 (the 71 is for the CA/OR/WA stock of short-beaked common dolphin). As described previously, the Navy's model likely overestimates the number of injurious takes to some degree. Nonetheless, these Level A harassment take numbers represent the maximum number of instances in which marine mammals would be reasonably expected to incur auditory and/or non-auditory injury, and we have analyzed them accordingly.</P>
                    <P>If a marine mammal is able to approach a surface vessel within the distance necessary to incur auditory injury in spite of the mitigation measures, the likely speed of the vessel (nominally 10-15 kn (18.5-27.8 km/hr)) and relative motion of the vessel would make it very difficult for the animal to remain in range long enough to accumulate enough energy to result in more than a mild case of auditory injury. As discussed previously in relation to TTS, the likely consequences to the health of an individual that incurs auditory injury can range from mild to more serious and is dependent upon the degree of auditory injury and the frequency band associated with auditory injury. The majority of any auditory injury incurred as a result of exposure to Navy sources would be expected to be in the 2-20 kHz range (resulting from the most powerful hull-mounted sonar) and could overlap a small portion of the communication frequency range of many odontocetes, whereas other marine mammal groups have communication calls at lower frequencies. Because of the broadband nature of explosives, auditory injury incurred from exposure to explosives would occur over a lower, but wider, frequency range. Permanent loss of some degree of hearing is a normal occurrence for older animals, and many animals are able to compensate for the shift, both in old age or at younger ages as the result of stressor exposure. While a small loss of hearing sensitivity may include some degree of energetic costs for compensating or may mean some small loss of opportunities or detection capabilities, at the expected scale it would be unlikely to impact behaviors, opportunities, or detection capabilities to a degree that would interfere with reproductive success or survival.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Action Proponents implement mitigation measures (described in the Mitigation Measures section) during explosive activities, including delaying detonations when a marine mammal is observed in the mitigation zone. Nearly all explosive events will occur during daylight hours thereby improving the sightability of marine mammals and mitigation effectiveness. Observing for marine mammals during the explosive activities will include visual and passive acoustic detection methods (the latter when they are available and part of the activity) before the activity begins, in order to cover the mitigation zones that can range from 200 yd (183 m) to 2,500 yd (2,286 m) depending on the source (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         explosive sonobuoy, explosive torpedo, explosive bombs), and 2.5 nmi (4.6 km) for sinking exercises (see table 25 through table 34).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The type and amount of take by Level A harassment are indicated for all species and species groups in table 54, table 56, table 58, table 60, table 62, and table 64. Generally speaking, non-auditory injuries from explosives could range from minor lung injuries (the most sensitive organ and first to be affected) that consist of some short-term reduction of health and fitness immediately following the injury that heals quickly and will not have any discernible long-term effects, up to more impactful permanent injuries across multiple organs that may cause health problems and negatively impact reproductive success (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         increase the time between pregnancies or even render reproduction unlikely) but fall just short of a “serious injury” by virtue of the fact that the animal is not expected to die. Nonetheless, due to the Navy's mitigation and detection capabilities, we would not expect marine mammals to typically be exposed to a more severe blast located closer to the source—so the impacts likely would be less severe. In addition, most non-auditory injuries and mortalities or serious injuries are predicted for stocks with medium to large group sizes, mostly delphinids, which increases sightability. It is still difficult to evaluate how these injuries may or may not impact an animal's fitness; however, these effects are seen 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58964"/>
                        only in limited numbers (single digits for all but three stocks) and mostly in species of moderate, high, and very high abundances. In short, it is unlikely that any, much less all, of the limited number of injuries accrued to any one stock would result in reduced reproductive success of any individuals. Even if a few injuries did result in reduced reproductive success of individuals, the status of the affected stocks are such that it would not be expected to adversely impact rates of reproduction (and auditory injury of the low severity anticipated here is not expected to affect the survival of any individual marine mammals).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Serious Injury and Mortality</HD>
                    <P>
                        NMFS is authorizing a very limited number of serious injuries or mortalities that could occur in the event of a vessel strike or as a result of marine mammal exposure to explosive detonations. We note here that the takes from potential vessel strikes or explosive exposures enumerated below could result in non-serious injury, but their worst potential outcome (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         mortality) is analyzed for the purposes of the negligible impact determination.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The MMPA requires that PBR be estimated in SARs and that it be used in applications related to the management of take incidental to commercial fisheries (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the take reduction planning process described in section 118 of the MMPA and the determination of whether a stock is “strategic” as defined in section 3). While nothing in the statute requires the application of PBR outside the management of commercial fisheries interactions with marine mammals, NMFS recognizes that as a quantitative metric, PBR may be useful as a consideration when evaluating the impacts of other human-caused activities on marine mammal stocks. Outside the commercial fishing context, and in consideration of all known human-caused mortality, PBR can help inform the potential effects of M/SI requested to be authorized under section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA. As noted by NMFS and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service in our implementing regulations for the 1986 amendments to the MMPA (54 FR 40341, September 29, 1989), the Services consider many factors, when available, in making a negligible impact determination, including, but not limited to: (1) the status of the species or stock relative to optimum sustainable population (OSP) (if known); (2) whether the recruitment rate for the species or stock is increasing, decreasing, stable, or unknown; (3) the size and distribution of the population; and (4) existing impacts and environmental conditions. In this multi-factor analysis, PBR can be a useful indicator for when, and to what extent, the agency should take an especially close look at the circumstances associated with the potential mortality, along with any other factors that could influence annual rates of recruitment or survival.
                    </P>
                    <P>Below we describe how PBR is considered in NMFS M/SI analysis. Please see the 2020 Northwest Training and Testing Final Rule (85 FR 72312, November 12, 2020) for a background discussion of PBR and how it was adopted for use authorizing incidental take under MMPA section 101(a)(5)(A) for specified activities such as the Action Proponents' training and testing in the HCTT Study Area.</P>
                    <P>When considering PBR during evaluation of effects of M/SI under MMPA section 101(a)(5)(A), we utilize a two-tiered analysis for each stock for which M/SI is proposed for authorization:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Tier 1:</E>
                         Compare the total human-caused average annual M/SI estimate from all sources, including the M/SI proposed for authorization from the specific activity, to PBR. If the total M/SI estimate is less than or equal to PBR, then the specific activity is considered to have a negligible impact on that stock. If the total M/SI estimate (including from the specific activity) exceeds PBR, conduct the Tier 2 analysis.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Tier 2:</E>
                         Evaluate the estimated M/SI from the specified activity relative to the stock's PBR. If the M/SI from the specified activity is less than or equal to 10 percent of PBR and other major sources of human-caused mortality have mitigation in place, then the individual specified activity is considered to have a negligible impact on that stock. If the estimate exceeds 10 percent of PBR, then, absent other mitigating factors, the specified activity could be considered likely to have a non-negligible impact on that stock and additional analysis is necessary.
                    </P>
                    <P>Additional detail regarding the two tiers of the evaluation is provided below.</P>
                    <P>
                        As indicated above, the goal of the Tier 1 assessment is to determine whether total annual human-caused mortality, including from the specified activity, would exceed PBR. To aid in the Tier 1 evaluation and get a clearer picture of the amount of annual M/SI that remains without exceeding PBR, for each species or stock, we first calculate a “residual PBR,” which equals PBR minus the ongoing annual human-caused M/SI (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         Residual PBR = PBR−(annual M/SI estimate from the SAR + other M/SI authorized under section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA)). If the ongoing human-caused M/SI from other sources does not exceed PBR, then residual PBR is a positive number, and we consider how the proposed authorized incidental M/SI from the specified activities being evaluated compares to residual PBR using the Tier 1 framework in the following paragraph. If the ongoing anthropogenic mortality from other sources already exceeds PBR, then residual PBR is a negative number and we move to the Tier 2 discussion further below to consider the M/SI from the specific activities.
                    </P>
                    <P>To reiterate, the Tier 1 analysis overview in the context of residual PBR, if the M/SI from the specified activity does not exceed PBR, the impacts of the authorized M/SI on the species or stock are generally considered to be negligible. As a simplifying analytical tool in the Tier 1 evaluation, we first consider whether the M/SI from the specified activities could cause incidental M/SI that is less than 10 percent of residual PBR, which we consider an “insignificance threshold.” If so, we consider M/SI from the specified activities to represent an insignificant incremental increase in ongoing anthropogenic M/SI for the marine mammal stock in question that alone will clearly not adversely affect annual rates of recruitment and survival and for which additional analysis or discussion of the anticipated M/SI is not required because the negligible impact standard clearly will not be exceeded on that basis alone.</P>
                    <P>
                        When the M/SI from the specified activity is above the insignificance threshold in the Tier 1 evaluation, it does not indicate that the M/SI associated with the specified activities is necessarily approaching a level that would exceed negligible impact. Rather, it is used as a cue to look more closely if and when the M/SI for the specified activity approaches residual PBR, as it becomes increasingly necessary (the closer the M/SI from the specified activity is to 100 percent residual PBR) to carefully consider whether there are other factors that could affect reproduction or survival, such as take by Level A and/or Level B harassment that has been predicted to impact reproduction or survival of individuals, or other considerations such as information that illustrates high uncertainty involved in the calculation of PBR for some stocks. Recognizing that the impacts of harassment of any authorized incidental take (by Level A or Level B harassment from the specified activities) would not combine 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58965"/>
                        with the effects of the authorized M/SI to adversely affect the stock through effects on recruitment or survival, if the proposed authorized M/SI for the specified activity is less than residual PBR, the M/SI, alone, would be considered to have a negligible impact on the species or stock. If the proposed authorized M/SI is greater than residual PBR, then the assessment should proceed to Tier 2.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For the Tier 2 evaluation, recognizing that the total annual human-caused M/SI exceeds PBR, we consider whether the incremental effects of the proposed authorized M/SI for the specified activity, specifically, would be expected to result in a negligible impact on the affected species or stocks. For the Tier 2 assessment, consideration of other factors (positive or negative), including those described above (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the certainty in the data underlying PBR and the impacts of any harassment authorized for the specified activity), as well as the mitigation in place to reduce M/SI from other activities is especially important to assessing the impacts of the M/SI from the specified activity on the species or stock. PBR is a conservative metric and not sufficiently precise to serve as an absolute predictor of population effects upon which mortality caps would appropriately be based. For example, in some cases stock abundance (which is one of three key inputs into the PBR calculation) is underestimated because marine mammal survey data within the U.S. EEZ are used to calculate the abundance even when the stock range extends well beyond the U.S. EEZ. An underestimate of abundance could result in an underestimate of PBR. Alternatively, we sometimes may not have complete M/SI data beyond the U.S. EEZ to compare to PBR, which could result in an overestimate of residual PBR. The accuracy and certainty around the data that feed any PBR calculation, such as the abundance estimates, must be carefully considered to evaluate whether the calculated PBR accurately reflects the circumstances of the particular stock.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As referenced above, in some cases the ongoing human-caused mortality from activities other than those being evaluated already exceeds PBR and, therefore, residual PBR is negative. In these cases, any additional mortality would result in greater exceedance of PBR. PBR is helpful in informing the analysis of the effects of mortality on a species or stock because it is important from a biological perspective to be able to consider how the total mortality in a given year may affect the population. However, section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA indicates that NMFS shall authorize the requested incidental take from a specified activity if we find that “the total of such taking [
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         from the specified activity] will have a negligible impact on such species or stock.” In other words, the task under the statute is to evaluate the applicant's anticipated take in relation to their take's impact on the species or stock, not other entities' impacts on the species or stock. Neither the MMPA, nor NMFS' implementing regulations call for consideration of other unrelated activities and their impacts on the species or stock.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Accordingly, we may find that the impacts of the taking from the specified activity may (alone) be negligible even when total human-caused mortality from all activities exceeds PBR (in the context of a particular species or stock). Specifically, where the authorized M/SI would be less than or equal to 10 percent of PBR and management measures are being taken to address M/SI from the other contributing activities (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         other than the specified activities covered by the ITA under consideration), the impacts of the authorized M/SI would be considered negligible. In addition, we must also still determine that any impacts on the species or stock from other types of take (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         harassment) caused by the applicant do not combine with the impacts from mortality or serious injury addressed here to result in adverse effects on the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.
                    </P>
                    <P>As noted above, while PBR is useful in informing the evaluation of the effects of M/SI in MMPA section 101(a)(5)(A) determinations, it is one consideration to be assessed in combination with other factors and is not determinative. For example, as explained above, the accuracy and certainty of the data used to calculate PBR for the species or stock must be considered. And we reiterate the considerations discussed above for why it is not appropriate to consider PBR an absolute cap in the application of this guidance. Accordingly, we use PBR as a trigger for concern while also considering other relevant factors to provide a reasonable and appropriate means of evaluating the effects of potential mortality on rates of recruitment and survival, while acknowledging that it is possible for total human-caused M/SI to exceed PBR (or for the M/SI from the specified activity to exceed 10 percent of PBR in the case where other human-caused mortality is exceeding PBR, as described in the last paragraph) and still make a negligible impact determination under MMPA section 101(a)(5)(A).</P>
                    <P>We note that on June 17, 2020, NMFS finalized new Criteria for Determining Negligible Impact under MMPA section 101(a)(5)(E). The guidance explicitly notes the differences in the negligible impact determinations required under paragraph 101(a)(5)(E), as compared to paragraphs (a)(5)(A) and (D) of section 101, and specifies that the procedure in that document is limited to how the agency conducts negligible impact analyses for commercial fisheries under section 101(a)(5)(E). In this rule, NMFS has described its method for considering PBR to evaluate the effects of potential mortality in the negligible impact analysis. NMFS has reviewed the 2020 guidance and determined that our consideration of PBR in the evaluation of mortality as described above and in the rule remains appropriate for use in the negligible impact analysis for the Action Proponents' activities under section 101(a)(5)(A).</P>
                    <P>Our evaluation of the M/SI for each of the species and stocks for which mortality or serious injury could occur follows.</P>
                    <P>We first consider maximum potential incidental M/SI from the vessel strike analysis for the affected large whales (table 52) and from the Action Proponents' explosive detonations for the affected small cetaceans and pinnipeds (table 53) in consideration of NMFS' threshold for identifying insignificant M/SI take. By considering the maximum potential incidental M/SI in relation to PBR and ongoing sources of anthropogenic mortality, as described above, we begin our evaluation of whether the potential incremental addition of M/SI through vessel strikes and explosive detonations may affect the species' or stocks' annual rates of recruitment or survival. We also consider the interaction of those mortalities with incidental taking of that species or stock by harassment pursuant to the specified activity.</P>
                    <P>
                        Based on the methods discussed previously, NMFS is authorizing nine mortalities of large whales due to vessel strike over the course of the 7-year rule, seven by the Navy and two by the Coast Guard (table 52). Across the 7-year duration of the rule, six takes by mortality (annual average of 0.86 takes) of fin whale (CA/OR/WA stock) could occur and are authorized; three takes by mortality (annual average of 0.43 takes) of gray whale (Eastern North Pacific stock) and humpback whale (Hawaii stock) could occur and are authorized; two takes by mortality (annual average of 0.29 takes) of blue whale (Eastern North Pacific stock), sei whale (Eastern 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58966"/>
                        North Pacific), and humpback whale (Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA and Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA stocks (Mexico and Central America DPSs, respectively)) could occur and are authorized; one take by mortality (annual average of 0.14 takes) of the Hawaii stock of sperm whale could occur and is authorized. To calculate the annual average of M/SI by vessel strike, we divided the 7-year proposed take by serious injury or mortality by seven.
                    </P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58967"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.186</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58968"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.187</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>The Action Proponents also requested a limited number of takes by M/SI from explosives. Across the 7-year duration of the rule, NMFS is authorizing 107 takes by M/SI (annual average of 15.29 takes) of short-beaked common dolphin (CA/OR/WA stock), 27 takes by M/SI (annual average of 3.86 takes) of California sea lion (U.S. stock), 17 takes by M/SI (annual average of 2.43 takes) of long-beaked common dolphin (California stock), 7 takes by M/SI (annual average of 1 take) of harbor seal (California stock), 4 takes by M/SI (annual average of 0.57 takes) of short-finned pilot whale (CA/OR/WA stock), 2 takes by M/SI (annual average of 0.29 takes) of bottlenose dolphin (Hawaii pelagic stock), Pacific white-sided dolphin (CA/OR/WA stock), pantropical spotted dolphin (Baja California Peninsula Mexico population), and rough-toothed dolphin (Hawaii stock), and 1 take by M/SI (annual average of 0.14 takes) of bottlenose dolphin (O'ahu stock), Northern right whale dolphin (CA/OR/WA stock), striped dolphin (CA/OR/WA stock), and Guadalupe fur seal (Mexico stock) (table 53). To calculate the annual average of M/SI from explosives, we divided the 7-year proposed take by serious injury or mortality by seven (table 53), the same method described for vessel strikes.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58969"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.188</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58970"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.189</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>
                        As described above, NMFS M/SI analysis includes two Tiers and our discussion is organized into sections that mirror that framework, as applicable. Specifically, we standardly first address stocks analyzed within Tier 1 (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         those for which total known human-caused M/SI is below PBR (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the M/SI from the specified activity is below residual PBR)), considering those with proposed M/SI both below and above the insignificance threshold. Then, if applicable, we discuss stocks for which total mortality exceeds PBR in a Tier 2 analysis in which we compare the proposed M/SI of the specified activity alone against PBR and consider other factors as necessary. Of note, for some stocks total M/SI is not known, in which case a Tier 1 analysis is not possible and, therefore, we move directly to a Tier 2 analysis. In rare cases, PBR itself cannot be calculated, in which case we consider other known factors and/or surrogate stocks to inform the negligible impact determination analysis.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Stocks With Total Average Annual Human-Caused M/SI Below PBR (Tier 1) and Authorized M/SI From the Specified Activity Is Below the Insignificance Threshold—</HD>
                    <P>
                        As noted above, for a species or stock with authorized M/SI less than 10 percent of residual PBR, we consider M/SI from the specified activities to represent a clearly insignificant incremental increase in ongoing anthropogenic M/SI that alone (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         in the absence of any other take and barring any other unusual circumstances) will clearly not adversely affect annual rates of recruitment and survival. In this case, as shown in table 52 and table 53, the following species or stocks have potential for estimated take by M/SI from vessel strike and explosives, respectively, and authorized below their insignificance threshold: fin whale (CA/OR/WA stock); humpback whale (Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA and Hawaii stocks); gray whale (Eastern North Pacific stock); sperm whale (Hawaii stock); bottlenose dolphin (Hawaii pelagic stock); long-beaked common dolphin (California stock); northern right whale dolphin (CA/OR/WA stock); Pacific white-sided dolphin (CA/OR/WA stock); rough-toothed dolphin (Hawaii stock); short-beaked common dolphin (CA/OR/WA stock); striped dolphin (CA/OR/WA stock); California sea lion (U.S. stock); Guadalupe fur seal (Mexico stock); and harbor seal (California stock). For the stocks with authorized M/SI below the insignificance threshold, there are no other known factors, information, or unusual circumstances that indicate anticipated M/SI below the insignificance threshold could have adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival and they are not discussed further.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Stocks With Total Average Annual Human-Caused M/SI Below PBR (Tier 1) and Authorized M/SI Is Above the Insignificance Threshold—</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Sei Whale (Eastern North Pacific Stock)</HD>
                    <P>For sei whales (Eastern North Pacific stock), PBR is currently set at 1.25. The total annual M/SI is zero, yielding a residual PBR of 1.25. NMFS is authorizing one M/SI for the Navy and one for the Coast Guard over the 7-year duration of the rule (two total; indicated as 0.29 annually for the purposes of comparing to PBR and evaluating overall effects on annual rates of recruitment and survival), which leaves a PBR remainder of 0.96.</P>
                    <P>As described above, if the total M/SI estimate is less than or equal to PBR, which is the case here, then the specified activity is considered to have a negligible impact on that stock. Although the M/SI from takes authorized here for the specified activity is above the insignificance threshold, as described above, that does not indicate that the M/SI associated with the specified activities is necessarily approaching a level that would exceed negligible impact. Rather, it is used as a cue to look more closely if and when the M/SI for the specified activity approaches residual PBR, as it becomes increasingly necessary (the closer the M/SI from the specified activity is to 100 percent residual PBR) to carefully consider whether there are other factors that could affect reproduction or survival. Here, the M/SI is not closely approaching residual PBR (PBR remainder is 0.96) and there are no other factors that would suggest that the authorized mortality (alone) would have more than a negligible impact on this stock.</P>
                    <P>
                        As described previously, NMFS must also ensure that impacts by the applicant on the species or stock from other types of take (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         harassment) do not combine with the impacts from mortality to adversely affect the species or stock via impacts on annual rates of recruitment or survival, which occurs further below in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Additionally of note, management measures are in place to address M/SI caused by other activities. NOAA annually issues voluntary vessel speed reduction (VSR) requests that are scheduled to be in effect May 1 to December 31 off San Francisco, Monterey, and Southern California 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58971"/>
                        within and near Greater Farallones, Cordell Bank, Monterey Bay, Chumash Heritage and Channel Islands national marine sanctuaries (NMSs) and in partnership with the Blue Whales Blue Skies program (note that in 2025, the Southern California VSR was extended in 2025 to cover Chumash Heritage NMS). Vessels transiting the area from May 1 through December 31, 2025 are recommended to exercise caution and voluntarily reduce speed to 10 kn (18.5 km/hour) or less.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Channel Islands NMS staff coordinates, collects, and monitors whale sightings in and around the VSR zones and the Channel Islands NMS region. The seasonally established Southern California VSR zone spans from Point Arguello to Dana Point, including the Traffic Separation Schemes in the Santa Barbara Channel and San Pedro Channel. Channel Island NMS observers collect information from aerial surveys conducted by NOAA, the U.S. Coast Guard, California Department of Fish and Game, and U.S. Navy chartered aircraft. Information on seasonal presence, movement, and general distribution patterns of large whales is shared with mariners, NMFS, U.S. Coast Guard, California Department of Fish and Game, the Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History, the Marine Exchange of Southern California, and whale scientists. Real time and historical whale observation data collected from multiple sources can be viewed on the Point Blue Whale Database. The Blue Whales Blue Skies program states that enrollment and cooperation rates from participating shipping lines have increased every year since the program began in 2014. The program further estimates that risk of fatal vessel strikes to endangered whales was reduced by approximately 50 percent in 2024. As such, while vessel strike risk is not eliminated by these measures, the risk is significantly reduced by this meaningful mitigation scheme.</P>
                    <P>
                        As stated in the 2023 SAR, the California swordfish drift gillnet fishery is the most likely U.S. fishery to interact with Eastern North Pacific sei whales, though there are zero estimated annual takes from this fishery given no observed entanglements from 1990 to 2021 across 9,246 observed fishing sets (Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). NMFS established the Pacific Offshore Cetacean Take Reduction Team (POCTRT) in 1996 and prepared an associated Plan to reduce the risk of M/SI via fisheries interactions incidental to the California/Oregon thresher shark/swordfish drift gillnet fishery. In 1997, NMFS published final regulations formalizing the requirements of the Plan, including the use of pingers following several specific provisions and the employment of Skipper education workshops. While the POCTRT is still active, the fishery is expected to be phased out entirely by 2027 following passage of the Driftnet Modernization and Bycatch Reduction Act by the U.S. Congress in 2022. As such, within 2 years of the effective period of this rule, NMFS does not anticipate mortality from this fishery.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Short-Finned Pilot Whale (CA/OR/WA Stock)</HD>
                    <P>For the CA/OR/WA stock of short-finned pilot whale, PBR is currently set at 4.5, the total annual M/SI is estimated at 1.2, and the total annual authorized take from SWFSC Fisheries and Ecosystem Research Activities in the California Current is 0.4, yielding a residual PBR of 2.9. NMFS is authorizing four M/SIs (U.S. Navy only) over the 7-year duration of the rule (indicated as 0.57 annually for the purposes of comparing to PBR and evaluating overall effects on annual rates of recruitment and survival), which leaves a PBR remainder of 2.33.</P>
                    <P>As described above, if the total M/SI estimate is less than or equal to PBR, which is the case here, then the specific activity is considered to have a negligible impact on that stock. Although the M/SI from takes authorized here for the specified activity is above the insignificance threshold, as described above, that does not indicate that the M/SI associated with the specified activities is necessarily approaching a level that would exceed negligible impact. Rather, it is used as a cue to look more closely if and when the M/SI for the specified activity approaches residual PBR, as it becomes increasingly necessary (the closer the M/SI from the specified activity is to 100 percent residual PBR) to carefully consider whether there are other factors that could affect reproduction or survival. Here, the M/SI is not closely approaching residual PBR (PBR remainder is 2.33) and there are no other factors that would suggest that the authorized mortality (alone) would have more than a negligible impact on this stock.</P>
                    <P>
                        As described previously, NMFS must also ensure that impacts by the applicant on the species or stock from other types of take (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         harassment) do not combine with the impacts from mortality to adversely affect the species or stock via impacts on annual rates of recruitment or survival, which occurs further below in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section.
                    </P>
                    <P>As reported in the SAR, the total annual M/SI of this stock (1.2) is from the CA/OR thresher shark/swordfish drift gillnet fishery. NMFS established the POCTRT in 1996 and prepared an associated Plan to reduce the risk of M/SI via fisheries interactions incidental to the California/Oregon thresher shark/swordfish drift gillnet fishery. In 1997, NMFS published final regulations formalizing the requirements of the Plan, including the use of pingers following several specific provisions and the employment of Skipper education workshops. While the POCTRT is still active, the fishery is expected to be phased out entirely by 2027 following passage of the Driftnet Modernization and Bycatch Reduction Act by the U.S. Congress in 2022. As such, within 2 years of the effective period of this rule, NMFS does not anticipate additional mortality from this fishery.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Stocks With Total Average Annual Human-Caused Mortality Above PBR (Tier 2)—</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Blue Whale (Eastern North Pacific Stock)</HD>
                    <P>
                        For blue whales (Eastern North Pacific stock), PBR is currently set at 4.1 and the total annual M/SI is estimated at greater than or equal to 18.6, yielding a residual PBR of −14.5. NMFS is authorizing one M/SI for the Navy and one for the Coast Guard over the 7-year duration of the rule (two total; indicated as 0.29 annually for the purposes of comparing to PBR and evaluating overall effects on annual rates of recruitment and survival), which leaves a PBR remainder of −14.79. However, given that the negligible impact determination is based on the assessment of take of the activity being analyzed, when total annual mortality from human activities is higher, but the impacts from the specific activity being analyzed are very small, NMFS may still find the incremental impact of the authorized take from a specified activity is negligible even if total human-caused mortality exceeds PBR. Specifically, for example, if the authorized mortality is less than 10 percent of PBR and management measures are being taken to address serious injuries and mortalities from the other activities causing mortality (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         other than the specified activities covered by the ITA in consideration). When those considerations are applied here, the authorized lethal take (0.29 annually) of blue whales from the Eastern North Pacific stock is less than 10 percent of PBR (which is 4.1), and there are management measures in place to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58972"/>
                        address M/SI from activities other than those the Action Proponents are conducting (as discussed below). Immediately below, we explain the information that supports our finding that the Action Proponents' authorized M/SI is not expected to result in more than a negligible impact on this stock. As described previously, NMFS must also ensure that impacts by the applicant on the species or stock from other types of take (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         harassment) do not combine with the impacts from mortality to adversely affect the species or stock via impacts on annual rates of recruitment or survival, which occurs further below in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Based on identical simulations as those conducted to identify Recovery Factors for PBR in Wade 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1998), but where values less than 0.1 were investigated (P. Wade, pers. comm.), we predict that where the mortality from a specified activity does not exceed N
                        <E T="52">min</E>
                         * 
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                         Rmax * 0.013, the contemplated mortality for the specific activity will not delay the time to recovery by more than 1 percent. For this stock of blue whales, N
                        <E T="52">min</E>
                         * 
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                         Rmax * 0.013 = 0.459. The annual mortality authorized is 0.29 (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         less than 0.459). This means that the mortality authorized in this rule for HCTT activities will not delay the time to recovery to OSP by more than 1 percent.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The 2018 draft SAR and the more recent SARs incorporate a method to estimate annual deaths by vessel strike utilizing an encounter theory model that combined species distribution models of whale density, vessel traffic characteristics, and whale movement patterns obtained from satellite-tagged animals in the region to estimate encounters that would result in mortality (Rockwood 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017). The model predicts 18 annual mortalities of blue whales from vessel strikes, which, with the additional M/SI of 1.54 from fisheries interactions, results in a residual PBR of −15.4. Although NMFS' Permits and Conservation Division in the Office of Protected Resources has independently reviewed the vessel strike model and its results and agrees that it is appropriate for estimating blue whale mortality by vessel strike on the U.S. West Coast, for analytical purposes we also note that if the historical method were used to predict vessel strike (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         using observed mortality by vessel strike, or 0.6, instead of 18), then total human-caused mortality including the Action Proponents' potential take would not exceed PBR. We further note that the authors (Rockwood 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017) do not suggest that vessel strike suddenly increased to 18 recently. In fact, the model is not specific to a year, but rather offers a generalized prediction of vessel strike off the U.S. West Coast. Therefore, if the Rockwood 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) model is an accurate representation of vessel strike, then similar levels of vessel strike have been occurring in past years as well. Put another way, if the model is correct, for some number of years total-human-caused mortality has been significantly underestimated and PBR has been similarly exceeded by a notable amount, and yet, the Eastern North Pacific stock of blue whales remains stable nevertheless.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        NMFS' 2023 SAR states that the current population trend is unknown, though there may be evidence of a population size increase since the 1990s. The SAR further cites to Monnahan 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2015), which used a population dynamics model to estimate that the Eastern North Pacific blue whale population was at 97 percent of carrying capacity in 2013 and to suggest that the observed lack of a population increase since the early 1990s was explained by density dependence, not impacts from vessel strike. This would mean that this stock of blue whales shows signs of stability and is not increasing in population size because the population size is at or nearing carrying capacity for its available habitat. In fact, we note that this population has maintained this status throughout the years that the Navy has consistently tested and trained at similar levels (with similar vessel traffic) in areas that overlap with blue whale occurrence, which would be another indicator of population stability.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Monnahan 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2015) modeled vessel numbers, vessel strikes, and the population of the Eastern North Pacific blue whale population from 1905 out to 2050 using a Bayesian framework to incorporate informative biological information and assign probability distributions to parameters and derived quantities of interest. The authors tested multiple scenarios with differing assumptions, incorporated uncertainty, and further tested the sensitivity of multiple variables. Their results indicated that there is no immediate threat (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         through 2050) to the population from any of the scenarios tested, which included models with 10 and 35 strike mortalities per year. Broadly, the authors concluded that, unlike other blue whale stocks, the Eastern North Pacific blue whales have recovered from 70 years of whaling and are in no immediate threat from vessel strikes. They further noted that their conclusion conflicts with the depleted and strategic designation under the MMPA as well as PBR specifically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed, we also take into consideration management measures in place to address M/SI caused by other activities. Redfern 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2013) note that the most risky area for blue whales is the Santa Barbara Channel, where shipping lanes intersect with common feeding areas, and Berman-Kowalewski 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2010) state that southern California and off San Francisco is where most observed blue whale vessel strikes have occurred. NOAA annually issues voluntary VSR requests that are scheduled to be in effect May 1 to December 31 off San Francisco, Monterey, and Southern California within and near Greater Farallones, Cordell Bank, Monterey Bay, Chumash Heritage and Channel Islands national marine sanctuaries and in partnership with the Blue Whales Blue Skies program (note that in 2025, the Southern California VSR was extended in 2025 to cover Chumash Heritage NMS). Vessels transiting the area from May 1 through December 31, 2025 are recommended to exercise caution and voluntarily reduce speed to 10 kn (18.5 km/hr) or less for blue, humpback, and fin whales.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Channel Islands NMS staff coordinates, collects, and monitors whale sightings in and around the VSR zones and the Channel Islands NMS region. The seasonally established Southern California VSR zone spans from Point Arguello to Dana Point, including the Traffic Separation Schemes in the Santa Barbara Channel and San Pedro Channel. Channel Island NMS observers collect information from aerial surveys conducted by NOAA, the U.S. Coast Guard, California Department of Fish and Game, and U.S. Navy chartered aircraft. Information on seasonal presence, movement, and general distribution patterns of large whales is shared with mariners, NMFS, U.S. Coast Guard, California Department of Fish and Game, the Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History, the Marine Exchange of Southern California, and whale scientists. Real time and historical whale observation data collected from multiple sources can be viewed on the Point Blue Whale Database. The Blue Whales Blue Skies program states that enrollment and cooperation rates from participating shipping lines have increased every year since the program began in 2014. The program further estimates that risk of fatal vessel strikes to endangered whales was reduced by approximately 50 percent in 2024. As such, while vessel strike risk is not eliminated by these measures, the risk is significantly 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58973"/>
                        reduced by this meaningful mitigation scheme.
                    </P>
                    <P>The loss of a male would have far less, if any, effect on population rates and absent any information suggesting that one sex is more likely to be struck than another, we can reasonably assume that there is a 50 percent chance that each of the two authorized strikes would be a male, thereby further decreasing the likelihood of impacts on the population rate. In situations like this where potential M/SI is fractional, consideration must be given to the lessened impacts anticipated due to the likely absence of M/SI in 5 or 6 of the 7 years and the fact that each of the strikes could be a male.</P>
                    <P>
                        Lastly, we reiterate that PBR is a conservative metric and also not sufficiently precise to serve as an absolute predictor of population effects upon which mortality caps would appropriately be based. As noted above, Wade 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1998), authors of the paper from which the current PBR equation is derived, note that “Estimating incidental mortality in 1 year to be greater than the PBR calculated from a single abundance survey does not prove the mortality will lead to depletion; it identifies a population worthy of careful future monitoring and possibly indicates that mortality-mitigation efforts should be initiated.” The information included here indicates that the current population trend of this blue whale stock is unknown but likely approaching carrying capacity and has leveled off because of density-dependence, not human-caused mortality, in spite of what might be otherwise indicated from the calculated PBR. Further, authorized M/SI is below 10 percent of PBR and management actions are in place to minimize vessel strike from other vessel activity in one of the highest-risk areas for strikes. Based on the presence of the factors described above, we do not expect lethal take from Action Proponents' activities, alone, to adversely affect Eastern North Pacific blue whales through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival. Nonetheless, the fact that total human-caused mortality exceeds PBR necessitates close attention to the remainder of the impacts (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         harassment) on the Eastern North Pacific stock of blue whales from the Navy's activities to ensure that the total authorized takes have a negligible impact on the species or stock. Therefore, this information will be considered in combination with our assessment of the impacts of authorized harassment takes in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section that follows.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Humpback Whale (Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA Stock)</HD>
                    <P>For humpback whales (Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA stock), PBR is currently set at 3.5, the total annual M/SI is estimated at greater than or equal to 14.9, and the 2020 NWTT final rule authorizes 0.29 takes by mortality annually, yielding a residual PBR of −11.69. NMFS is authorizing one M/SI for the Navy and one for the Coast Guard over the 7-year duration of the rule (two total; indicated as 0.29 annually for the purposes of comparing to PBR and evaluating overall effects on annual rates of recruitment and survival), which leaves a PBR remainder of −11.98.</P>
                    <P>
                        However, given that the negligible impact determination is based on the assessment of take of the activity being analyzed, when total annual mortality from human activities is higher, but the impacts from the specific activity being analyzed are very small, NMFS may still find the incremental impact of the authorized take from a specified activity is negligible even if total human-caused mortality exceeds PBR. Specifically, for example, if the authorized mortality is less than 10 percent of PBR and management measures are being taken to address serious injuries and mortalities from the other activities causing mortality (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         other than the specified activities covered by the ITA in consideration). When those considerations are applied here, the authorized lethal take (0.29 annually) of humpback whales from the Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA stock is less than 10 percent of PBR (which is 3.5), and there are management measures in place to address M/SI from activities other than those the Action Proponents are conducting (as discussed below). Immediately below, we explain the information that supports our finding that the Action Proponents' authorized M/SI is not expected to result in more than a negligible impact on this stock. As described previously, NMFS must also ensure that impacts by the applicant on the species or stock from other types of take (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         harassment) do not combine with the impacts from mortality to adversely affect the species or stock via impacts on annual rates of recruitment or survival, which occurs further below in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Based on identical simulations as those conducted to identify Recovery Factors for PBR in Wade 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1998), but where values less than 0.1 were investigated (P. Wade, pers. comm.), we predict that where the mortality from a specified activity does not exceed N
                        <E T="52">min</E>
                         * 
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                         Rmax * 0.013, the contemplated mortality for the specific activity will not delay the time to recovery by more than 1 percent. For this stock of humpback whales, N
                        <E T="52">min</E>
                         * 
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                         Rmax * 0.013 = 0.684. The annual mortality authorized is 0.29 (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         less than 0.684). This means that the mortality authorized in this rule for HCTT activities will not delay the time to recovery to OSP by more than 1 percent.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The 2018 draft SAR and the more recent SARs rely on a new method to estimate annual deaths by vessel strike utilizing an encounter theory model that combined species distribution models of whale density, vessel traffic characteristics, and whale movement patterns obtained from satellite-tagged animals in the region to estimate encounters that would result in mortality (Rockwood 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017). The model predicts 22 annual mortalities of humpback whales from vessel strikes, and the SAR attributes 6.45 of those strikes to the Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA stock. With the additional M/SI of 8.1 from fisheries interactions, 0.35 from marine debris, recreational, and tribal fisheries, and 0.29 from vessel strike authorized in the NWTT final rule, results in the current estimate of residual PBR being −11.69. Although NMFS' Permits and Conservation Division in the Office of Protected Resources has independently reviewed the vessel strike model and its results and agrees that it is appropriate for estimating humpback whale mortality by vessel strike on the U.S. West Coast, for analytical purposes we also note that if the historical method were used to predict vessel strike (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         using observed mortality by vessel strike, or 0.6, instead of 18), then total human-caused mortality including the Action Proponents' potential take would not exceed PBR. We further note that the authors (Rockwood 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017) do not suggest that vessel strike suddenly increased to 22 recently. In fact, the model is not specific to a year, but rather offers a generalized prediction of vessel strike off the U.S. West Coast. Therefore, if the Rockwood 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) model is an accurate representation of vessel strike, then similar levels of vessel strike have been occurring in past years as well. Put another way, if the model is correct, for some number of years total-human-caused mortality has been significantly underestimated and PBR has been similarly exceeded by a notable amount, and yet, the Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA stock of humpback whales is increasing nevertheless.
                        <PRTPAGE P="58974"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>As discussed, we also take into consideration management measures in place to address M/SI caused by other activities. NOAA annually issues voluntary VSR requests that are scheduled to be in effect May 1 to December 31 off San Francisco, Monterey, and Southern California within and near Greater Farallones, Cordell Bank, Monterey Bay, Chumash Heritage and Channel Islands national marine sanctuaries and in partnership with the Blue Whales Blue Skies program (note that in 2025, the Southern California VSR was extended in 2025 to cover Chumash Heritage NMS). Vessels transiting the area from May 1 through December 31, 2025 are recommended to exercise caution and voluntarily reduce speed to 10 kn (18.5 km per hour) or less for blue, humpback, and fin whales.</P>
                    <P>The Channel Islands NMS staff coordinates, collects, and monitors whale sightings in and around the VSR zones and the Channel Islands NMS region. The seasonally established Southern California VSR zone spans from Point Arguello to Dana Point, including the Traffic Separation Schemes in the Santa Barbara Channel and San Pedro Channel. Channel Island NMS observers collect information from aerial surveys conducted by NOAA, the U.S. Coast Guard, California Department of Fish and Game, and U.S. Navy chartered aircraft. Information on seasonal presence, movement, and general distribution patterns of large whales is shared with mariners, NMFS, U.S. Coast Guard, California Department of Fish and Game, the Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History, the Marine Exchange of Southern California, and whale scientists. Real time and historical whale observation data collected from multiple sources can be viewed on the Point Blue Whale Database. The Blue Whales Blue Skies program states that enrollment and cooperation rates from participating shipping lines have increased every year since the program began in 2014. The program further estimates that risk of fatal vessel strikes to endangered whales was reduced by approximately 50 percent in 2024. As such, while vessel strike risk is not eliminated by these measures, the risk is significantly reduced by this meaningful mitigation scheme.</P>
                    <P>
                        In addition to management measures for vessel strike, NMFS is in the process of developing a new Take Reduction Team to address the incidental M/SI of humpback whales (Central America/Southern Mexico and Mainland Mexico stocks) in the Federal sablefish pot fishery. Additional information is available on NMFS' website: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/west-coast/marine-mammal-protection/west-coast-take-reduction-team.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>The loss of a male would have far less, if any, effect on population rates and absent any information suggesting that one sex is more likely to be struck than another, we can reasonably assume that there is a 50 percent chance that each of the two strikes authorized by this rulemaking would be a male, thereby further decreasing the likelihood of impacts on the population rate. In situations like this where potential M/SI is fractional, consideration must be given to the lessened impacts anticipated due to the likely absence of M/SI in 5 or 6 of the 7 years and the fact that each of the strikes could be a male.</P>
                    <P>
                        Lastly, we reiterate that PBR is a conservative metric and also not sufficiently precise to serve as an absolute predictor of population effects upon which mortality caps would appropriately be based. As noted above, Wade 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1998), authors of the paper from which the current PBR equation is derived, note that “Estimating incidental mortality in 1 year to be greater than the PBR calculated from a single abundance survey does not prove the mortality will lead to depletion; it identifies a population worthy of careful future monitoring and possibly indicates that mortality-mitigation efforts should be initiated.” Further, authorized M/SI is below 10 percent of PBR and management actions are in place to minimize vessel strike from other vessel activity and efforts are underway to minimize M/SI from trap/pot fisheries along the U.S. West Coast. Based on the presence of the factors described above, we do not expect lethal take from Action Proponents' activities, alone, to adversely affect Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA humpback whales through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival. Nonetheless, the fact that total human-caused mortality exceeds PBR necessitates close attention to the remainder of the impacts (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         harassment) on the Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA stock of humpback whales from the Action Proponents' activities to ensure that the total authorized takes have a negligible impact on the species or stock. Therefore, this information will be considered in combination with our assessment of the impacts of authorized harassment takes in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section that follows.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Stocks for Which Total Average Annual Mortality Is Not Known—</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Bottlenose Dolphin (O'ahu Stock)</HD>
                    <P>For bottlenose dolphin (O'ahu stock), PBR is currently set at 1. The total annual M/SI is unknown, and therefore a residual PBR cannot be calculated. NMFS is authorizing one M/SI over the 7-year duration of the rule (indicated as 0.14 annually for the purposes of comparing to PBR and evaluating overall effects on annual rates of recruitment and survival).</P>
                    <P>
                        Given that the negligible impact determination is based on the assessment of take of the activity being analyzed, even if total annual mortality from human activities is higher, but the impacts from the specific activity being analyzed are very small, NMFS may still find the incremental impact of the authorized take from a specified activity is to be negligible even if total human-caused mortality exceeds PBR. As such, the incremental impact of the authorized take from a specified activity may also be negligible where total annual M/SI is unknown. An unknown total annual M/SI is a cue to look more closely if and when the M/SI for the specified activity approaches PBR (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         consider whether there are mitigation measures in place for other potential sources of M/SI), as it becomes increasingly necessary (the closer the M/SI from the specified activity is to PBR) to carefully consider whether there are other factors that could affect reproduction or survival. Here, the authorized M/SI is 0.14 annually, which does not closely approach PBR (PBR is 1.0), there are management measures in place to address M/SI from activities other than those the Action Proponents are conducting (as discussed below), and there are no other factors that would suggest that the authorized mortality (alone) would have more than a negligible impact on this stock. Immediately below, we explain the information that supports our finding that the Action Proponents' authorized M/SI is not expected to result in more than a negligible impact on this stock. As described previously, NMFS must also ensure that impacts by the applicant on the species or stock from other types of take (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         harassment) do not combine with the impacts from mortality to adversely affect the species or stock via impacts on annual rates of recruitment or survival, which occurs further below in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As reported in the SAR, while information about fishery-related mortality is limited for this stock, Hawaii fisheries use gear types that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58975"/>
                        cause mortality and serious injury to marine mammals in other U.S. fisheries, including gillnets and hook-and-line, and mortality reports indicate that nearshore fisheries are a risk for bottlenose dolphins in Hawaii. However, gillnetting around Maui and much of O'ahu is banned by state regulation, and in areas where gillnetting is permitted, fishermen are required to monitor their gillnets for bycatch every 30 minutes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In this case, 0.14 M/SI means one mortality in 1 of the 7 years and zero mortalities in 6 of those 7 years. Therefore, the Action Proponents would not be contributing to the total human-caused mortality at all in 6 of the 7, or 85.7 percent, of the years covered by this rulemaking. That means that even if an O'ahu bottlenose dolphin were to be lethally taken from explosives, in 6 of the 7 years, there could be no effect on annual rates of recruitment or survival from Navy-caused M/SI. Additionally, the loss of a male would have far less, if any, effect on population rates and absent any information suggesting that one sex is more likely to be struck than another, we can reasonably assume that there is a 50 percent chance that the single mortality authorized by this rulemaking would be a male, thereby further decreasing the likelihood of impacts on the population rate. In situations like this where potential M/SI is fractional, consideration must be given to the lessened impacts anticipated due to the absence of M/SI in 6 of the 7 years and the fact that the single mortality could be a male. Lastly, we reiterate that PBR is a conservative metric and also not sufficiently precise to serve as an absolute predictor of population effects upon which mortality caps would appropriately be based. This is especially important given the minor difference between zero and one across the 7-year period covered by this rulemaking, which is the smallest distinction possible when considering mortality. As noted above, Wade 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1998), authors of the paper from which the current PBR equation is derived, note that “Estimating incidental mortality in 1 year to be greater than the PBR calculated from a single abundance survey does not prove the mortality will lead to depletion; it identifies a population worthy of careful future monitoring and possibly indicates that mortality-mitigation efforts should be initiated.” Further, management actions are in place that minimize fishery interactions. Based on the presence of the factors described above, we do not expect lethal take from the Action Proponents' activities, alone, to adversely affect O'ahu bottlenose dolphins through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival. Nonetheless, the fact that total human-caused mortality is unknown, and PBR is low, necessitates close attention to the remainder of the impacts (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         harassment) on the O'ahu stock of bottlenose dolphins from the Action Proponents' activities to ensure that the total authorized takes have a negligible impact on the species or stock. Therefore, this information will be considered in combination with our assessment of the impacts of authorized harassment takes in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section that follows.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Stocks for Which PBR Is Unknown—</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Pantropical Spotted Dolphin (Baja California Peninsula Mexico Population)</HD>
                    <P>The Baja California Peninsula Mexico population of pantropical spotted dolphins are not a NMFS-managed stock, and therefore, PBR and annual M/SI metrics are not available. NMFS is authorizing two M/SIs over the 7-year duration of the rule (indicated as 0.29 annually for the purposes of evaluating overall effects on annual rates of recruitment and survival).</P>
                    <P>
                        Immediately below, we explain the information that supports our finding that the Action Proponents' authorized M/SI is not expected to result in more than a negligible impact on this stock. As described previously, NMFS must also ensure that impacts by the applicant on the species or stock from other types of take (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         harassment) do not combine with the impacts from mortality to adversely affect the species or stock via impacts on annual rates of recruitment or survival, which occurs further below in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Given that this is not a NMFS-managed stock, some metrics are not available for this population, including PBR. PBR values are calculated by NMFS as the level of annual removal from a stock that will allow that stock to equilibrate within OSP at least 95 percent of the time, and is the product of factors relating to the minimum population estimate of the stock (N
                        <E T="52">min</E>
                        ), the productivity rate of the stock at a small population size, and a recovery factor. The productivity rate is estimated as one-half of the estimated or theoretical maximum rate of population growth for the stock if it were small. In this case, NMFS estimates the productivity rate to be one half the default maximum net growth rate for cetaceans (
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                         of 4 percent). Recovery factors range from 0.1 to 1, with smaller factors applied to more at-risk species. Given the unknowns of this population, NMFS used 0.1. N
                        <E T="52">min</E>
                         is not available, and therefore, NMFS relies on the NMSDD abundance estimate of 70,889 to estimate PBR. As such, using the NMSDD abundance estimate, PBR is estimated to be 141.78 (70,889 × (0.5 × 4 percent) × (0.1)). Of note, if PBR was calculated using an estimated N
                        <E T="52">min</E>
                         of half of the NMSDD abundance estimate (35,445), PBR would be 70.89.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Given that the negligible impact determination is based on the assessment of take of the activity being analyzed, even if total annual mortality from human activities is higher, but the impacts from the specific activity being analyzed are very small, NMFS may still find the incremental impact of the authorized take from a specified activity is to be negligible even if total human-caused mortality exceeds PBR. As such, the incremental impact of the authorized take from a specified activity may also be negligible where total annual M/SI is unknown. An unknown total annual M/SI is a cue to look more closely if and when the M/SI for the specified activity approaches PBR (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         consider whether there are mitigation measures in place for other potential sources of M/SI), as it becomes increasingly necessary (the closer the M/SI from the specified activity is to PBR) to carefully consider whether there are other factors that could affect reproduction or survival. Here, the authorized M/SI is 0.29 annually, which does not closely approach our PBR estimate above (PBR is estimated as 141.78, potentially as low as 70.89), and there are no other factors that would suggest that the authorized mortality (alone) would have more than a negligible impact on this stock. Immediately below, we explain the information that supports our finding that the Action Proponents' authorized M/SI is not expected to result in more than a negligible impact on this stock. As described previously, NMFS must also ensure that impacts by the applicant on the species or stock from other types of take (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         harassment) do not combine with the impacts from mortality to adversely affect the species or stock via impacts on annual rates of recruitment or survival, which occurs further below in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The loss of a male would have far less, if any, effect on population rates and absent any information suggesting that one sex is more likely to be struck than another, we can reasonably assume that there is a 50 percent chance that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58976"/>
                        any single mortality authorized by this rulemaking would be a male, thereby further decreasing the likelihood of impacts on the population rate. In situations like this where potential M/SI is fractional, consideration must be given to the lessened impacts anticipated due to the absence of M/SI in 5 or 6 of the 7 years and the fact that any single mortality could be a male.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Based on the presence of the factors described above, we do not expect lethal take from the Action Proponents' activities, alone, to adversely affect the Baja California Peninsula Mexico population of pantropical spotted dolphins through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival. Nonetheless, the fact that total human-caused mortality is unknown necessitates close attention to the remainder of the impacts (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         harassment) on the Baja California Peninsula Mexico population of pantropical spotted dolphins from the Action Proponents' activities to ensure that the total authorized takes have a negligible impact on the species or stock. Therefore, this information will be considered in combination with our assessment of the impacts of authorized harassment takes in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section that follows.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</HD>
                    <P>In this section, we build on the general analysis that applies to all marine mammals in the HCTT Study Area from the previous sections. We first include information and analysis that applies to mysticetes or, separately, odontocetes or pinnipeds, and then within those three sections, more specific information that applies to smaller groups, where applicable, and the affected species or stocks. The specific authorized take numbers are also included in the analyses below, so here we provide some additional context and discussion regarding how we consider the authorized take numbers in those analyses.</P>
                    <P>The maximum amount and type of incidental take of marine mammals reasonably likely to occur and therefore authorized from exposures to sonar and other active acoustic sources and explosions during the 7-year activity period are shown in table 3, table 4, table 5, and table 6, and the subset attributable to ship shock trials is included in table 15.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the discussions below, the estimated takes by Level B harassment represent instances of take, not the number of individuals taken (the much lower and less frequent Level A harassment takes are far more likely to be associated with separate individuals), and in some cases individuals may be taken more than one time. As part of our evaluation of the magnitude and severity of impacts to marine mammal individuals and the species, and specifically in an effort to better understand the degree to which the modeled and estimated takes likely represent repeated takes of the individuals of a given species/stock, we consider the total annual numbers of take by harassment (auditory injury, non-auditory injury, TTS, and behavioral disturbance) for species or stocks as compared to their associated abundance estimates—specifically, take numbers higher than the stock abundance clearly indicate that some number of individuals are being taken on more than 1 day in the year, and broadly higher or lower ratios of take to abundance may reasonably be considered to equate to higher or lower likelihood of repeated takes, respectively, other potentially influencing factors being equal. In addition to the mathematical consideration of estimated take compared to abundance, we also consider other factors or circumstances that may influence the likelihood of repeated takes, where known, such as circumstances where activities resulting in take are focused in an area and time (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         instrumented ranges or a homeport, or long-duration activities such as MTEs) and/or where the same individual marine mammals are known to congregate over longer periods of time (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         pinnipeds at a haulout, mysticetes in a known foraging area, or resident odontocetes with smaller home ranges). Similarly, and all else being equal, estimated takes that are largely focused in one region and/or season (see appendix A of the application and table 54, table 56, table 58, table 60, table 62, and table 64 of this final rule) may indicate a higher likelihood of repeated takes of the same individuals.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Occasional, milder behavioral responses are unlikely to cause long-term consequences for individual animals or populations, and even if some smaller subset of the takes are in the form of a longer (several hours or a day) and more severe response, if they are not expected to be repeated over a comparatively longer duration of sequential days, impacts to individual fitness are not anticipated. Nearly all studies and experts agree that infrequent exposures of a single day or less are unlikely to impact an individual's overall energy budget (Farmer 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018b; Harris 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018; King 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015; NAS, 2017; New 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014; Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Villegas-Amtmann 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015; Hoekendijk 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018; Wisniewska 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018; Czapanskiy 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; Pirotta, 2022). Generally speaking, and in the case of most species impacted by the planned activities, in the cases where some number of individuals may reasonably be expected to be taken on more than 1 day within a year, that number of days would be comparatively small and also with no reason to expect that those takes would occur on sequential days. In the rarer cases of species where individuals might be expected to be taken on a comparatively higher number of days of the year and there are reasons to think that these days might be sequential or clumped together, the likely impacts of this situation are discussed explicitly in the species discussions.
                    </P>
                    <P>To assist in understanding what this analysis means, we clarify a few issues related to estimated takes and the analysis here. An individual that incurs AUD INJ or TTS may sometimes, for example, also be subject to behavioral disturbance at the same time. As described above in this section, the degree of auditory injury, and the degree and duration of TTS, expected to be incurred from the Navy's activities are not expected to impact marine mammals such that their reproduction or survival could be affected. Similarly, data do not suggest that a single instance in which an animal accrues auditory injury or TTS and is also subjected to behavioral disturbance would result in impacts to reproduction or survival. Alternately, we recognize that if an individual is subjected to behavioral disturbance repeatedly for a longer duration and on consecutive days, effects could accrue to the point that reproductive success is impacted. Accordingly, in analyzing the number of takes and the likelihood of repeated and sequential takes, we consider the total takes, not just the takes by Level B harassment by behavioral disturbance, so that individuals potentially exposed to both threshold shift and behavioral disturbance are appropriately considered. The number of takes by Level A harassment by auditory injury are so low (and zero in some cases) compared to abundance numbers that it is considered highly unlikely that any individual would be taken at those levels more than once.</P>
                    <P>
                        Use of sonar and other transducers would typically be transient and temporary. The majority of acoustic effects to most marine mammal stocks from sonar and other active sound sources during the specified military readiness activities would be primarily from anti-submarine warfare events. On the less severe end, exposure to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58977"/>
                        comparatively lower levels of sound at a detectably greater distance from the animal, for a few or several minutes, could result in a behavioral response such as avoiding an area that an animal would otherwise have moved through or fed in, or breaking off one or a few feeding bouts. More severe behavioral effects could occur when an animal gets close enough to the source to receive a comparatively higher level of sound, is exposed continuously to one source for a longer time, or is exposed intermittently to different sources throughout a day. Such effects might result in an animal having a more severe flight response and leaving a larger area for a day or more or potentially losing feeding opportunities for a day. However, such severe behavioral effects are expected to occur infrequently. In addition to the proximity to the source, the type of activity and the season and location during which an animal is exposed can inform the impacts. These factors, including the numbers and types of effects that are estimated in areas known to be biologically important for certain species are discussed in the group and species-specific sections, below.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described in the Mitigation Measures section, this rule includes mitigation measures that would reduce the probability and/or severity of impacts expected to result from acute exposure to acoustic sources or explosives, vessel strike, and impacts to marine mammal habitat. Specifically, the Action Proponents will use a combination of delayed starts, powerdowns, and shutdowns to avoid mortality or serious injury, minimize the likelihood or severity of AUD INJ or non-auditory injury, and reduce instances of TTS or more severe behavioral disturbance caused by acoustic sources or explosives. The Action Proponents will also implement multiple time/area restrictions that would reduce take of marine mammals in areas or at times where they are known to engage in important behaviors, such as calving, where the disruption of those behaviors would have a higher probability of resulting in impacts on reproduction or survival of individuals that could lead to population-level impacts.</P>
                    <P>These time/area restrictions include a Hawaii Island Marine Mammal Mitigation Area, a Hawaii 4-Islands Marine Mammal Mitigation Area, Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Area, Central California Large Whale Mitigation Area, Southern California Blue Whale Mitigation Area, California Large Whale Real-Time Notification Mitigation Area, and San Nicolas Island Pinniped Haulout Mitigation Area as well as Hawaii Humpback Whale Awareness Messages and California Large Whale Awareness Messages. The Southern California Blue Whale Mitigation Area is discussed in the blue whale section below. However, it is important to note that measures in that area, while developed to protect blue whales, would also benefit other marine mammals in those areas.</P>
                    <P>Within the Hawaii Island Marine Mammal Mitigation Area, the Action Proponents must not use more than 300 combined hours of MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted MFAS or 20 hours of helicopter dipping sonar (a MFAS source) annually and must not detonate in-water explosives (including underwater explosives and explosives deployed against surface targets). Mitigation in this area is designed to reduce exposure of numerous small and resident marine mammal populations (including Blainville's beaked whales, bottlenose dolphins, goose-beaked whales, dwarf sperm whales, false killer whales, melon-headed whales, pantropical spotted dolphins, pygmy killer whales, rough-toothed dolphins, short-finned pilot whales, and spinner dolphins), humpback whales within important seasonal reproductive habitat, and Hawaiian monk seals within critical habitat, to levels of sound that have the potential to cause injurious or behavioral impacts.</P>
                    <P>
                        Within the Hawaii 4-Islands Marine Mammal Mitigation Area, from November 15 through April 15, the Action Proponents must not use MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted MFAS. The Action Proponents must not detonate in-water explosives (including underwater explosives and explosives deployed against surface targets) within the mitigation area (year-round). This mitigation will prevent exposure of humpback whales in high-density seasonal reproductive habitats (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         north of Maui and Moloka'i), Main Hawaiian Islands insular false killer whales in high seasonal occurrence areas, and numerous small and resident marine mammal populations that occur year-round (including bottlenose dolphins, pantropical spotted dolphins, and spinner dolphins, and Hawaiian monk seals) to explosives that have the potential to cause injury, mortality, or behavioral disturbance, and will minimize exposure of humpback whales in high-density seasonal reproductive habitats (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         north of Maui and Moloka'i) and Main Hawaiian Islands insular false killer whales in high seasonal occurrence areas to levels of sound that have the potential to cause injurious or behavioral impacts.
                    </P>
                    <P>Within the Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Area, Central California Large Whale Mitigation Area, and Southern California Blue Whale Mitigation Area, from June 1 through October 31, the Action Proponents must not use more than 300 combined hours of MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted MFAS (excluding normal maintenance and systems checks) total during training and testing within these three areas. This measure will reduce exposure of blue whales, fin whales, gray whales, and humpback whales in important seasonal foraging, migratory, and calving habitats to levels of sound that have the potential to cause injurious or behavioral impacts. Additionally, during the same June 1-October 31 period, within the portion of the mitigation area off San Diego, the Action Proponents must not detonate in-water explosives (including underwater explosives and explosives deployed against surface targets) during large-caliber (≥57 mm (2.24 in)) gunnery, torpedo, bombing, and missile (including 2.75-in (7 cm) rockets) training and testing. This measure will reduce exposure of large whales within important seasonal foraging habitats to explosives that have the potential to cause injury, mortality, or behavioral disturbance.</P>
                    <P>Within the California Large Whale Real-Time Notification Mitigation Area, for each instance an aggregation of large whales (three or more whales within 1 nmi (1.9 km)) is sighted in the area between 32 and 33 degrees North and 117.2 and 119.5 degrees West, Action Proponent surface vessels must report the sightings to other Action Proponent vessels in the vicinity. Reported sightings will be made as soon as operationally and safely feasible. Lookouts must use the information from the real-time notifications to inform their visual observations of applicable mitigation zones. The real-time notification area encompasses the locations of recent (2021 through 2025) military vessel strikes, and historic strikes where precise latitude and longitude were known. Timely information regarding an aggregation of whales in a particular location may result in an increased awareness of vessel strike risk by Lookouts and vessel operators.</P>
                    <P>
                        Within the San Nicolas Island Pinniped Haulout Mitigation Area, Navy personnel must implement multiple measures that would minimize in-air launch noise and physical disturbance to pinnipeds hauled out on beaches, as well as to continue assessing baseline pinniped distribution/abundance and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58978"/>
                        potential changes in pinniped use of these beaches after launch events.
                    </P>
                    <P>Last, the Hawaii Humpback Whale Awareness Messages and California Large Whale Awareness Messages will alert applicable assets (and their Lookouts) transiting and training or testing in the Hawaii Range Complex or on the U.S. West Coast to the possible presence of concentrations of large whales during certain periods of the year. Lookouts must use that knowledge to help inform their visual observations during military readiness activities that involve vessel movements, active sonar, in-water explosives (including underwater explosives and explosives deployed against surface targets), or the deployment of non-explosive ordnance against surface targets in the mitigation area. These messages will minimize potential large whale vessel interactions and exposure to acoustic, explosive, and physical disturbance and strike stressors that have the potential to cause mortality, injury, or behavioral disturbance during reproductive seasons, foraging and migration seasons, and to resident whales.</P>
                    <P>
                        In addition to the nature and context of the disturbance, including whether take occurs in a known BIA, species-specific factors affect the severity of impacts to individual animals and population consequences of disturbance. Keen 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2021) identifies three population consequences of disturbance themes: life history traits, environmental conditions, and disturbance source characteristics. Life history traits considered in Keen 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2021) include movement ecology (whether animals are resident, nomadic, or migratory), reproductive strategy (capital breeders, income breeders, or mixed), body size (based on size and life stage), and pace of life (slow or fast).
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding movement ecology, resident animals that have small home ranges relative to the size and duration of an impact zone have a higher risk of repeated exposures to an ongoing activity. Animals that are nomadic over a larger range may have less predictable risk of repeated exposure. For resident and nomadic populations, overlap of a stressor with feeding or reproduction depends more on time of year rather than location in their habitat range. In contrast, migratory animals may have higher or reduced potential for exposure during feeding and reproduction based on both location, time of the year, and duration of an activity. The risk of repeated exposure during individual events may be lower during migration as animals maintain directed transit through an area.</P>
                    <P>Reproduction is energetically expensive for female marine mammals, and reproductive strategy can influence an animal's sensitivity to disturbance. Mysticetes and phocids are generally capital breeders. Capital breeders rely on their capital, or energy stores, to migrate, maintain pregnancy, and nurse a calf. Capital breeders would be more resilient to short-term foraging disruption due to their reliance on built-up energy reserves but are vulnerable to prolonged foraging impacts during gestation. Otariids and most odontocetes are income breeders, which rely on some level of income, or regular foraging, to give birth and nurse a calf. Income breeders would be more sensitive to the consequences of disturbances that impact foraging during lactation. Some species exhibit traits of both, such as beaked whales.</P>
                    <P>
                        Smaller animals require more food intake per unit body mass than large animals. They must consume food on a regular basis and are likely to be non-migratory and income breeders. The smallest odontocetes, the porpoises, must maintain high metabolisms to maintain thermoregulation and cannot rely on blubber stores for long periods of time, whereas larger odontocetes can more easily thermoregulate. The larger size of other odontocetes is an adaptation for deep diving that allows them to access high quality mesopelagic and bathypelagic prey. Both small and large odontocetes have lower foraging efficiency than the large whales. The filter-feeding large whales (mysticetes) consume most of their food within several months of the year and rely on extensive lipid reserves for the remainder of the year. The metabolism of mysticetes allows for fasting while seeking prey patches during foraging season and prolonged periods of fasting outside of foraging season (Goldbogen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). Their energy stores support capital breeding and long migrations. The effect of a temporary feeding disturbance is likely to have inconsequential impacts to a mysticete, but may be consequential for small cetaceans. Despite their relatively smaller size, amphibious pinnipeds have lower thermoregulatory requirements because they spend a portion of time on land. For purposes of this assessment, marine mammals were generally categorized as small (less than 10 ft (3.05 m)), medium (10-30 ft (3.05-9.1 m)), or large (more than 30 ft (9.1 m)) based on length.
                    </P>
                    <P>Populations with a fast pace of life are characterized by early age of maturity, high birth rates, and short life spans, whereas populations with a slow pace of life are characterized by later age of maturity, low birth rates, and long life spans. The consequences of disturbance in these populations differ. Although reproduction in populations with a fast pace of life is more sensitive to foraging disruption, these populations are quick to recover. Reproduction in populations with a slow pace of life is resilient to foraging disruption, but late maturity and low birth rates mean that long-term impacts to breeding adults have a longer-term effect on population growth rates. Pace of life was categorized for each species in this analysis by comparing age at sexual maturity, birth rate interval, life span, body size, and feeding and reproductive strategy.</P>
                    <P>
                        Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2023) also identified factors that inform a population's vulnerability. The authors describe a framework to assess risk to populations from specific industry impact scenarios at different locations or times of year. While this approach may not be suitable for many military readiness activities, for which alternate spatial or seasonal scenarios are not usually feasible, the concepts considered in that framework's population vulnerability assessment are useful in this analysis, including population status (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         endangered or threatened), population trend (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         decreasing, stable, or increasing), population size, and chronic exposure to other anthropogenic or environmental stressors (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         fisheries interactions, pollution). These factors are also considered when assessing the overall vulnerability of a stock to repeated effects from acoustic and explosive stressors.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In consideration of the factors outlined above, if impacts to individuals increase in magnitude or severity such that repeated and sequential higher severity impacts occur (the probability of this goes up for an individual the higher total number of takes it has) or the total number of moderate to more severe impacts increases substantially, especially if occurring across sequential days, then it becomes more likely that the aggregate effects could potentially interfere with feeding enough to reduce energy budgets in a manner that could impact reproductive success via longer cow-calf intervals, terminated pregnancies, or calf mortality. It is important to note that these impacts accrue exclusively to females, which comprise only approximately 50 percent of the population. Based on energetic models, it takes energetic impacts of a significantly greater magnitude to cause the death of an adult marine mammal, and females will always terminate a pregnancy or stop lactating before allowing their health to deteriorate. Also, the death of an adult female has 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58979"/>
                        significantly more impact on population growth rates than reductions in reproductive success, while the death of an adult male has very little effect on population growth rates. However, as explained earlier, such severe impacts from the specified activities would be very infrequent and not considered likely to occur at all for most species and stocks. We note that the negligible impact analysis is inherently a two-tiered assessment that first evaluates the anticipated impacts of the activities on marine mammals individuals, and then if impacts are expected to reproduction or survival of any individuals further evaluates the effects of those individual impacts on rates of reproduction and survival of the species or stock, in the context of the status of the species or stock. The analyses below in some cases address species collectively if they occupy the same functional hearing group (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         very-low, low, high, and very high-frequency cetaceans), share similar life history strategies, and/or are known to behaviorally respond similarly to acoustic stressors. Because some of these groups or species share characteristics that inform the impact analysis similarly, it would be duplicative to repeat the same analysis for each species. In addition, similar species typically have the same hearing capabilities and behaviorally respond in the same manner.
                    </P>
                    <P>Thus, our analysis below considers the effects of the specified activities on each affected species or stock even where discussion is organized by functional hearing group and/or information is evaluated at the group level. Where there are meaningful differences between a species or stock that would further differentiate the analysis, they are described either within the section or included as a separate part of each section. Specifically, below, we first give broad descriptions of the mysticete, odontocete, and pinniped groups and then differentiate them further into groups as appropriate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Mysticetes</HD>
                    <P>This section builds on the broader discussion above and brings together the discussion of the different types and amounts of take that different stocks will incur, the applicable mitigation for each stock, and the status and life history of the stocks to support the negligible impact determinations for each stock. We have already described above why we believe the incremental addition of the limited number of low-level auditory injury takes will not have any meaningful effect towards inhibiting reproduction or survival. We have also described in this section above the unlikelihood of any masking or habitat impacts having effects that would impact the reproduction or survival of any of the individual marine mammals affected by the Action Proponents' activities. For mysticetes, there is no predicted non-auditory injury from explosives for any stocks except the CA/OR/WA stock of fin whale and the Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA stock of humpback whale. Regarding the severity of individual takes by Level B harassment by behavioral disturbance for mysticetes, the majority of these responses are anticipated to occur at received levels below 172 dB, and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours. Much of the discussion below focuses on the behavioral effects and the mitigation measures that reduce the probability or severity of effects in biologically important areas or other habitat. Because there are multiple stock-specific factors in relation to the status of the species, as well as mortality take arising from vessel strike for several stocks, at the end of the section we break out stock-specific findings.</P>
                    <P>In table 54 below for mysticetes, we indicate the total annual mortality, Level A harassment, and Level B harassment, and the maximum annual harassment as a percentage of stock abundance.</P>
                    <P>In table 55 below, we indicate the status, life history traits, important habitats, and threats that inform our analysis of the potential impacts of the estimated take on the affected mysticete stocks.</P>
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                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Gray Whale (Eastern North Pacific and Western North Pacific Stocks)—</HD>
                    <P>Gray whales from the Eastern North Pacific stock are not listed under the ESA and are not considered as depleted or strategic under the MMPA, while gray whales from the Western North Pacific stock are listed as endangered under the ESA and depleted and strategic under the MMPA. Both stocks are migratory and most likely to be in the California Study Area during their migrations from winter to spring within 10 km (5.4 nmi) of the coast. Some gray whales transit further offshore in Southern California when making straight line transits south of Point Conception to and from Mexico. Gray whales face several chronic anthropogenic and non-anthropogenic risk factors, including vessel strikes, fisheries interactions, habitat degradation, pollution, vessel disturbance, ocean noise, and subsistence hunting, among others.</P>
                    <P>
                        The current stock abundance estimate of the Eastern North Pacific stock of gray whale is 26,960 animals. However, recent (2024-2025) surveys conducted by NMFS' SWFSC estimated that the population has declined since the most recent Eastern North Pacific gray whale SAR was published, and estimates an abundance of 12,950 whales (Eguchi 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2025). The Western North Pacific stock abundance is 290 animals. There are no UMEs or other factors that cause particular concern for these stocks. As described in the Description of Marine Mammals and Their Habitat in the Area of the Specified Activities section, the HCTT Study Area overlaps eight BIAs for the Eastern North Pacific stock, including three feeding, four migratory, and one reproductive for the nearshore migratory corridor used by cow/calf pairs. As shown in table 54, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment are 167 and 16,711, respectively. As indicated, the rule also allows for up to three takes by serious injury or mortality over the course of the 7-year rule, the impacts of which are discussed above in the Serious Injury and Mortality section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        There are no known biologically important areas for the Western North Pacific stock of gray whale in the HCTT Study Area, though the Western North Pacific stock may use the same migratory areas as the Eastern North Pacific stock while migrating to wintering areas in Mexico (Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024). As shown in table 54, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment are 2 and 169, respectively. No mortality is anticipated or authorized, nor is any non-auditory injury. The total take allowable across all 7 years of the rule is indicated in table 19.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding the potential takes associated with auditory impairment, as described in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section above, any takes in the form of TTS are expected to be lower-level, of short duration (from minutes to, at most, several hours or less than a day), and mostly not in a frequency band that would be expected to interfere with gray whale communication or other important low-frequency cues. Any associated lost opportunities or capabilities individuals might experience as a result of TTS would not be at a level or duration that would be expected to impact reproductive success or survival. For similar reasons, while auditory injury impacts last longer, the low anticipated levels of AUD INJ that could be reasonably expected to result from these activities are unlikely to have any effect on fitness.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the likely severity of any single instance of take by behavioral disturbance, as described above, the majority of the predicted exposures are expected to be below 172 dB SPL and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours. Gray whales are large-bodied capital breeders with a slow pace of life and are therefore generally less susceptible to impacts from shorter duration foraging disruptions. Further, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section above and the Mitigation Measures section, mitigation measures are expected to further reduce the potential severity of impacts through real-time operational measures that minimize higher level/longer duration exposures and time/area measures that reduce impacts in high value habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described above, in addition to evaluating the anticipated impacts of the single instances of takes, it is important to understand the degree to which individual marine mammals may be disturbed repeatedly across multiple days of the year. In this case, given the number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 54), and the fact that a portion of the takes of the Eastern North Pacific occur in BIAs, it is likely that some portion of the individuals taken are taken repeatedly over a limited number of days. However, given the variety of activity types that contribute to take across separate exercises conducted at different times and in different areas, and the fact that many result from transient activities conducted at sea, it is unlikely that repeated takes would occur either in numbers across sequential days in a manner likely to impact foraging success and energetics or other behaviors such that reproduction or survival of any individuals is likely to be impacted.</P>
                    <P>Given the magnitude and severity of the impacts discussed above to the Western North Pacific stock (considering annual take maxima and the total across 7 years) and their habitat, and in consideration of the required mitigation measures and other information presented, the Action Proponents' activities are unlikely to result in impacts on the reproduction or survival of any individuals and, therefore, unlikely to affect annual rates of recruitment or survival. For the Eastern North Pacific stock, as analyzed and described in the Serious Injury and Mortality section, given the status of the stock and in consideration of other ongoing anthropogenic mortality (fisheries interactions, vessel strike), the authorized M/SI (three over the course of the 7-year rule, or 0.43 annually) will not, alone, nor in combination with the impacts of the take by harassment discussed above (which is not expected to impact the reproduction or survival of any individuals), be expected to adversely affect rates of recruitment and survival for any of this stock. For these reasons, we have determined that the total take (considering annual maxima and across 7 years) anticipated and authorized will have a negligible impact on the Eastern North Pacific and Western North Pacific stocks of gray whale.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Blue Whale (Central North Pacific and Eastern North Pacific Stocks)—</HD>
                    <P>Blue whales are listed as endangered under the ESA and as both depleted and strategic under the MMPA. Both stocks of blue whales are migratory populations that can occur near the coast, over the continental shelf, and in oceanic waters. Blue whales face several chronic anthropogenic and non-anthropogenic risk factors, including vessel strike, fisheries interactions, habitat degradation, pollution, vessel disturbance, and ocean noise, among others.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Navy's NMSDD estimates the Central North Pacific stock abundance 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58988"/>
                        as 170, and the Eastern North Pacific stock abundance as 3,233. The Central North Pacific stock's primary range is outside of the HCTT Study Area. There are no UMEs or other factors that cause particular concern for this stock, and there are no known biologically important areas for the Central North Pacific stock of blue whales in the HCTT Study Area. This stock migrates from their feeding grounds in the Gulf of Alaska to Hawaii in winter. While they occur in the Hawaii Study Area, they are not sighted frequently or year-round. As shown in table 54, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment are 1 and 92, respectively. No mortality is anticipated or authorized, nor is any non-auditory injury. The total take allowable across all 7 years of the rule is indicated in table 19.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For the Eastern North Pacific stock, there are no UMEs or other factors that cause additional concern for this stock. As described in the Description of Marine Mammals and Their Habitat in the Area of the Specified Activities section, the HCTT Study Area overlaps a feeding BIA for the Eastern North Pacific stock (Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024). The Eastern North Pacific stock of blue whales is a migratory population that can occur near the coast, over the continental shelf, and in deep oceanic waters from the northern Gulf of Alaska to the eastern tropical Pacific. This stock forages in their hierarchical feeding BIAs off California in warmer months (June-November). In recent years, the Eastern North Pacific stock has been reported to spend more time (averaging over 8 months) on feeding grounds in the Southern California Bight. The highest densities of blue whales are predicted along nearshore southern California where most impacts will occur, so blue whales may be impacted while foraging in the designated BIAs. As shown in table 54, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment are 27 and 4,571, respectively. As indicated, the rule also allows for up to two takes by serious injury or mortality over the course of the 7-year rule, the impacts of which are discussed above in the Serious Injury and Mortality section. The total take allowable across all 7 years of the rule is indicated in table 19.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding the potential takes associated with auditory impairment, as described in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section above, any takes in the form of TTS are expected to be lower-level, of short duration (from minutes to, at most, several hours or less than a day), and mostly not in a frequency band that would be expected to interfere with blue whale communication or other important low-frequency cues. Any associated lost opportunities or capabilities individuals might experience as a result of TTS would not be at a level or duration that would be expected to impact reproductive success or survival. For similar reasons, while auditory injury impacts last longer, the low anticipated levels of AUD INJ that could be reasonably expected to result from these activities are unlikely to have any effect on fitness.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the likely severity of any single instance of take by behavioral disturbance, as described above, the majority of the predicted exposures are expected to be below 172 dB SPL and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours. Blue whales are large-bodied capital breeders with a slow pace of life and are therefore generally less susceptible to impacts from shorter duration foraging disruptions. Further, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section above and the Mitigation Measures section, mitigation measures are expected to further reduce the potential severity of impacts through real-time operational measures that minimize higher level/longer duration exposures and time/area measures that reduce impacts in high value habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As described above, in addition to evaluating the anticipated impacts of the single instances of takes, it is important to understand the degree to which individual marine mammals may be disturbed repeatedly across multiple days of the year. In this case, for the Central North Pacific stock, given the lower number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 54), their migratory movement pattern, and the absence of take concentrated in areas in which animals are known to congregate, it is unlikely that any individual blue whales from the Central North Pacific stock would be taken on more than a limited number of days within a year and, therefore, the anticipated behavioral disturbance is not expected to affect reproduction or survival. For the Eastern North Pacific stock, given the number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 54) and the fact that a portion of the takes occur in BIAs, it is likely that some portion of the individuals taken are taken repeatedly over a limited number of days. However, given the variety of activity types that contribute to take across separate exercises conducted at different times and in different areas (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         not concentrated within a specific region and season), and the fact that many result from transient activities conducted at sea, it is unlikely that repeated takes would occur either in numbers or clumped across sequential days in a manner likely to impact foraging success and energetics or other behaviors such that reproduction or survival of any individuals is likely to be impacted.
                    </P>
                    <P>Given the magnitude and severity of the impacts discussed above to the Central North Pacific stock of blue whales (considering annual take maxima and the total across 7 years) and their habitat, and in consideration of the required mitigation measures and other information presented, the Action Proponents' activities are not expected to result in impacts on the reproduction or survival of any individuals, much less affect annual rates of recruitment or survival. For the Eastern North Pacific stock, as analyzed and described in the Serious Injury and Mortality section, given the status of the stock, and in consideration of other ongoing anthropogenic mortality (fisheries interactions, vessel strike), the authorized M/SI (two over the course of the 7-year rule, or 0.29 annually) will not, alone, nor in combination with the impacts of the take by harassment discussed above (which is not expected to impact the reproduction or survival of any individuals), be expected to adversely affect rates of recruitment and survival for any of this stock. For these reasons, we have determined that the total take (considering annual maxima and across 7 years) anticipated and authorized will have a negligible impact on the Eastern North Pacific and Central North Pacific stocks of blue whale.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Bryde's Whale (Eastern Tropical Pacific and Hawaii Stocks)—</HD>
                    <P>
                        Little is known about the movements of Bryde's whales in the Study Area, but seasonal shifts in their distribution occur toward and away from the equator in winter and summer. Therefore, both populations of Bryde's whales are at least somewhat migratory populations that travel within their tropical and subtropical ranges year-round. There are no known biologically important areas for Bryde's whales in the HCTT Study Area. Bryde's whales face several chronic anthropogenic and non-
                        <PRTPAGE P="58989"/>
                        anthropogenic risk factors, including vessel strike, fisheries interactions, habitat degradation, pollution, vessel disturbance, and ocean noise, among others.
                    </P>
                    <P>Bryde's whales in the Eastern Tropical Pacific have not been designated as a stock under the MMPA, are not ESA-listed, and there is no current reported population trend. The Navy's NMSDD estimates the Eastern Tropical Pacific Bryde's whale is 69 animals. As shown in table 54, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment are 5 and 322, respectively. No mortality is anticipated or authorized, nor is any non-auditory injury. The total take allowable across all 7 years of the rule is indicated in table 19.</P>
                    <P>The Hawaii stock of Bryde's whale is not listed as threatened or endangered under the ESA and is not considered depleted or strategic under the MMPA. The current stock abundance estimate of the Hawaii stock of Bryde's whale is 791 animals. The stock's primary range extends outside of the HCTT Study Area. There are no UMEs or other factors that cause particular concern for this stock. Bryde's whales are the only baleen whale found in Hawaiian waters year-round, and the only mysticete in Hawaii that does not undergo predictable north-south seasonal migrations. However, Bryde's whales occur mostly in offshore waters of the North Pacific. As shown in table 54, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment are 3 and 409, respectively. No mortality is anticipated or authorized, nor is any non-auditory injury. The total take allowable across all 7 years of the rule is indicated in table 19.</P>
                    <P>Regarding the potential takes associated with auditory impairment, as described in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section above, any takes in the form of TTS are expected to be lower-level, of short duration (from minutes to, at most, several hours or less than a day), and mostly not in a frequency band that would be expected to interfere with Bryde's whale communication or other important low-frequency cues. Any associated lost opportunities or capabilities individuals might experience as a result of TTS would not be at a level or duration that would be expected to impact reproductive success or survival. For similar reasons, while auditory injury impacts last longer, the low anticipated levels of AUD INJ that could be reasonably expected to result from these activities are unlikely to have any effect on fitness.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the likely severity of any single instance of take by behavioral disturbance, as described above, the majority of the predicted exposures are expected to be below 172 dB SPL and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours. Bryde's whales are large-bodied income breeders with a slow pace of life and may be susceptible to energetic costs from foraging disruption, especially during lactation. Further, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section above and the Mitigation Measures section, mitigation measures are expected to further reduce the potential severity of impacts to the Hawaii stock through real-time operational measures that minimize higher level/longer duration exposures and time/area measures that reduce impacts in high value habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described above, in addition to evaluating the anticipated impacts of the single instances of takes, it is important to understand the degree to which individual marine mammals may be disturbed repeatedly across multiple days of the year. In this case, given the number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 54), it is likely that some portion of the individuals taken from the Eastern Tropical Pacific stock are taken repeatedly over a moderate number of days. However, given the variety of activity types that contribute to take across separate exercises conducted at different times and in different areas, and the fact that many result from transient activities conducted at sea, it is unlikely that repeated takes would occur either in numbers or clumped across sequential days in a manner likely to impact foraging success and energetics or other behaviors such that reproduction or survival of any individuals is likely to be impacted. For the Hawaii stock, given the lower number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 54), their migratory movement pattern, and the absence of take concentrated in areas in which animals are known to congregate, it is unlikely that any individual Bryde's whales from the Hawaii stock would be taken on more than a limited number of days within a year and, therefore, the anticipated behavioral disturbance is not expected to affect reproduction or survival.</P>
                    <P>Given the magnitude and severity of the impacts discussed above to Bryde's whales in the Eastern Tropical Pacific (considering annual take maxima and the total across 7 years) and their habitat, and in consideration of the required mitigation measures and other information presented, the Action Proponents' activities are not expected to result in impacts on the reproduction or survival of any individuals, much less affect annual rates of recruitment or survival. For these reasons, we have determined that the anticipated and authorized take will have a negligible impact on the Eastern Tropical Pacific and Hawaii stocks of Bryde's whale.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Fin Whale (Hawaii and CA/OR/WA Stocks)—</HD>
                    <P>Fin whales are listed as endangered under the ESA and depleted and strategic under the MMPA. Fin whales have higher abundances in temperate and polar waters, and are not frequently seen in warm, tropical waters. Fin whales face several chronic anthropogenic and non-anthropogenic risk factors, including vessel strike, fisheries interactions, habitat degradation, pollution, vessel disturbance, and ocean noise, among others.</P>
                    <P>The Navy's NMSDD estimates the abundance of the Hawaii stock of fin whale is 226 and the CA/OR/WA stock of fin whale is 12,304. There are no UMEs or other factors that cause particular concern for these stocks, and there are no known biologically important areas for the Hawaii stock of fin whale in the HCTT Study Area. The Hawaii stock of fin whales are not sighted frequently or year-round, and likely only migrate to the Hawaii portion of the HCTT Study Area during fall and winter. As shown in table 54, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A Harassment and Level B harassment are 1 and 86, respectively. No mortality is anticipated or authorized, nor is any non-auditory injury. The total take allowable across all 7 years of the rule is indicated in table 19.</P>
                    <P>
                        For the CA/OR/WA stock, as described in the Description of Marine Mammals and Their Habitat in the Area of the Specified Activities section, the HCTT Study Area overlaps a feeding BIA (Parent and Child) for this stock (Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024). This stock of fin whales is a migratory-resident population that travels along the entire U.S. west coast and may be present throughout the year in southern and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58990"/>
                        central California. There are generally higher densities farther offshore in the summer and fall, and closer to shore in winter and spring. As shown in table 54, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment are 55 and 13,501, respectively. The rule allows for a limited number of takes by non-auditory injury (one animal). As indicated, the rule also allows for up to six takes by serious injury or mortality over the course of the 7-year rule, the impacts of which are discussed above in the Serious Injury and Mortality section. The total take allowable across all 7 years of the rule is indicated in table 19.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding the potential takes associated with auditory impairment, as described in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section above, any takes in the form of TTS are expected to be lower-level, of short duration (from minutes to, at most, several hours or less than a day), and mostly not in a frequency band that would be expected to interfere with fin whale communication and other important low-frequency cues. Any associated lost opportunities or capabilities individuals might experience as a result of TTS would not be at a level or duration that would be expected to impact reproductive success or survival. For similar reasons, while auditory injury impacts last longer, the low anticipated levels of AUD INJ that could be reasonably expected to result from these activities are unlikely to have any effect on fitness. The rule also allows for a limited number of takes by non-auditory injury (one animal) for this stock. As described above in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section, given the limited number of potential exposures and the anticipated effectiveness of the mitigation measures in minimizing the pressure levels to which any individuals are exposed, these non-auditory injuries are unlikely to be of a nature or level that would impact reproduction or survival.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the likely severity of any single instance of take by behavioral disturbance, as described above, the majority of the predicted exposures are expected to be below 172 dB SPL and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours. Fin whales are large-bodied capital breeders with a slow pace of life and are therefore generally less susceptible to impacts from shorter duration foraging disruptions. Further, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section above and the Mitigation Measures section, mitigation measures are expected to further reduce the potential severity of impacts through real-time operational measures that minimize higher level/longer duration exposures and time/area measures that reduce impacts in high value habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described above, in addition to evaluating the anticipated impacts of the single instances of takes, it is important to understand the degree to which individual marine mammals may be disturbed repeatedly across multiple days of the year. In this case, given the number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 54) and the fact that a portion of the takes occur in BIAs for the CA/OR/WA stock, it is likely that some portion of the individuals of each stock are taken repeatedly over a limited number of days. However, given the variety of activity types that contribute to take across separate exercises conducted at different times and in different areas, and the fact that many result from transient activities conducted at sea, it is unlikely that repeated takes would occur either in numbers or clumped across sequential days in a manner likely to impact foraging success and energetics or other behaviors such that reproduction or survival of any individuals is likely to be impacted.</P>
                    <P>Fin whales have the largest hierarchical feeding BIAs spanning the coast of California from June to November, which overlap more with PMSR and SOCAL compared to NOCAL, as the core BIAs are generally farther offshore in northern California. Impacts would be attributable to various activities in summer and fall (warm season), with most impacts occurring in southern California year-round. However, this stock is migratory and Navy activities are not anticipated to overlap a large portion of the BIAs, leaving large areas of important foraging habitat available.</P>
                    <P>Given the magnitude and severity of the impacts discussed above to the Hawaii stock of fin whales (considering annual take maxima and the total across 7 years) and their habitat, and in consideration of the required mitigation measures and other information presented, the Action Proponents' activities are unlikely to result in impacts on the reproduction or survival of any individuals and, therefore, unlikely to affect annual rates of recruitment or survival. For the CA/OR/WA stock, as analyzed and described in the Serious Injury and Mortality section, given the status of the stock and in consideration of other ongoing anthropogenic mortality (fisheries interactions, vessel strike), the authorized M/SI (six over the course of the 7-year rule, or 0.86 annually) will not, alone, nor in combination with the impacts of the take by harassment discussed above (which is not expected to impact the reproduction or survival of any individuals), be expected to adversely affect rates of recruitment and survival for any of this stock. For these reasons, we have determined that the total take (considering annual maxima and across 7 years) anticipated and authorized will have a negligible impact on the CA/OR/WA and Hawaii stocks of fin whale.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Humpback Whale (Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA, Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA, and Hawaii Stocks)—</HD>
                    <P>
                        Humpback whales occur throughout the HCTT Study Area, and the two stocks (Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA and Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA) that occur in the California portion of the Study Area are most abundant in shelf and slope waters which are areas of high productivity and often sighted near shore, while also frequently moving through deep offshore waters during migration. In the Hawaii portion of the Study Area, the Hawaii stock of humpback whales occur seasonally in nearshore waters surrounding the main Hawaiian Islands during breeding season (typically December through May). The HCTT Study Area overlaps ESA-designated critical habitat for the endangered Central America DPS and the Mexico DPS of humpback whales along the west coast (86 FR 21082, April 21, 2021), as described in the Description of Marine Mammals and Their Habitat in the Area of Specified Activities section. There are no UMEs or other factors that cause particular concern for these stocks. The HCTT Study Area overlaps a feeding BIA (Parent and Core) for the two stocks that occur in California (Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024), and a reproductive BIA (Parent and Child) for the Hawaii stock (Kratofil 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). Humpback whales face several anthropogenic and non-anthropogenic risk factors, including vessel strikes, fisheries interactions, habitat degradation, pollution, vessel disturbance, and ocean noise, among others.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA stock (Central America DPS) of humpback whale is 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58991"/>
                        listed as endangered under the ESA and as both depleted and strategic under the MMPA. The Navy's NMSDD estimates this stock size is 1,603. As shown in table 54, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A harassment and Level B harassment are 19 and 1,888, respectively. As indicated, the rule also allows for up to two takes by serious injury or mortality over the course of the 7-year rule, the impacts of which are discussed above in the Serious Injury and Mortality section.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA stock (part of the Mexico DPS) of humpback whale is listed as threatened under the ESA and as both depleted and strategic under the MMPA. The Navy's NMSDD estimates this stock size is 3,741. As shown in table 54, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A harassment and Level B harassment are 44 and 4,449 respectively. The rule allows for a limited number of takes by non-auditory injury (one animal). As described above, given the limited number of potential exposures and the anticipated effectiveness of the mitigation measures in minimizing the pressure levels to which any individuals are exposed, these injuries are unlikely to impact reproduction or survival. As indicated, the rule also allows for up to two takes by serious injury or mortality over the course of the 7-year rule, the impacts of which are discussed above in the Serious Injury and Mortality section.</P>
                    <P>The Hawaii stock of humpback whale is not listed as endangered under the ESA and as neither depleted nor strategic under the MMPA. The current stock abundance estimate of the Hawaii stock (Hawaii DPS) is 11,278. The stock's primary range extends outside of the HCTT Study Area. As shown in table 54, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment are 24 and 3,034, respectively. As indicated, the rule also allows for up to three takes by serious injury or mortality over the course of the 7-year rule, the impacts of which are discussed above in the Serious Injury and Mortality section. The total take allowable for each stock across all 7 years of the rule is indicated in table 19.</P>
                    <P>Regarding the potential takes associated with auditory impairment, as described in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section above, any takes in the form of TTS are expected to be lower-level, of short duration (from minutes to, at most, several hours or less than a day), and mostly not in a frequency band that would be expected to interfere with humpback whale communication or other important low-frequency cues. Any associated lost opportunities or capabilities individuals might experience as a result of TTS would not be at a level or duration that would be expected to impact reproductive success or survival. For similar reasons, while auditory injury impacts last longer, the low anticipated levels of AUD INJ that could be reasonably expected to result from these activities are unlikely to have any effect on fitness. The rule also allows for one take by non-auditory injury for the Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA stock. As described above, given the limited number of potential exposures and the anticipated effectiveness of the mitigation measures in minimizing the pressure levels to which any individuals are exposed, this non-auditory injury is unlikely to be of a nature or level that would impact reproduction or survival.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the likely severity of any single instance of take by behavioral disturbance, as described above, the majority of the predicted exposures are expected to be below 172 dB SPL and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours. Humpback whales are large-bodied capital breeders with a slow pace of life and are therefore generally less susceptible to impacts from shorter duration foraging disruptions. Further, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section above and the Mitigation Measures section, mitigation measures are expected to further reduce the potential severity of impacts through real-time operational measures that minimize higher level/longer duration exposures and time/area measures that reduce impacts in high value habitat. In particular, for the Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA stock, this rulemaking includes the Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Area and Central California Large Whale Mitigation Area. From June 1 through October 31, the Action Proponents must not use more than 300 combined hours of MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted MFAS (excluding normal maintenance and systems checks) total during training and testing within the combination of the Northern California Large Whale Mitigation Area, the Central California Large Whale Mitigation Area, and the Southern California Blue Whale Mitigation Area. These restrictions would reduce exposure of humpback whales in important seasonal foraging, migratory, and calving habitats to levels of sound that have the potential to cause injurious or behavioral impacts.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described above, in addition to evaluating the anticipated impacts of the single instances of takes, it is important to understand the degree to which individual marine mammals may be disturbed repeatedly across multiple days of the year. In this case, for the Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA and Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA stocks, given the number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 54) and the fact that a portion of the takes of both stocks occur in BIAs, it is likely that some portion of the individuals taken are taken repeatedly over a limited number of days. However, given the variety of activity types that contribute to take across separate exercises conducted at different times and in different areas, and the fact that many result from transient activities conducted at sea, it is unlikely that repeated takes would occur either in numbers or clumped across sequential days in a manner likely to impact foraging success and energetics or other behaviors such that reproduction or survival of any individuals is likely to be impacted. Further, these stocks are migratory, and although some impacts to these stocks would occur in critical habitat and BIAs important for foraging off the coast of California, there are large areas available outside of the Study Area that contain high-quality foraging habitat for both stocks. Further, the majority of impacts to these stocks are anticipated to occur during the cold season, a portion of which (December to February) the BIAs for feeding are not considered to be active.</P>
                    <P>For the Hawaii stock, given the lower number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 54), their migratory movement pattern, and the absence of take concentrated in areas in which animals are known to congregate, it is unlikely that any individual humpback whales from the Hawaii stock would be taken on more than a limited number of days within a year and, therefore, the anticipated behavioral disturbance is not expected to affect reproduction or survival.</P>
                    <P>
                        For all three stocks, as described in the Serious Injury and Mortality section, given the status of the stocks, and in consideration of other ongoing anthropogenic mortality, the M/SI authorized here will not, alone, nor in combination with the impacts of the take by harassment discussed above 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58992"/>
                        (which is not expected to impact the reproduction or survival of any individuals), be expected to adversely affect rates of recruitment and survival. For these reasons, we have determined that the total take (considering annual maxima and across 7 years) anticipated and authorized will have a negligible impact on the Central America/Southern Mexico—CA/OR/WA, Mainland Mexico—CA/OR/WA, and Hawaii stocks of humpback whales.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Minke Whale (Hawaii and CA/OR/WA Stocks)—</HD>
                    <P>Minke whales in the HCTT Study Area are not listed as threatened or endangered under the ESA, and neither the Hawaii stock nor the CA/OR/WA stock are considered depleted or strategic under the MMPA. There are no UMEs or other factors that cause particular concern for either stock, and there are no known biologically important areas for minke whales in the HCTT Study Area. Minke whales face several chronic anthropogenic and non-anthropogenic risk factors, including vessel strike, fisheries interactions, habitat degradation, pollution, vessel disturbance, and disease, among others.</P>
                    <P>The Navy's NMSDD estimates the abundance of the Hawaii stock of minke whale is 509 animals and the CA/OR/WA stock of minke whale is 1,342 animals. The stock's primary range extends outside of the HCTT Study Area. The Hawaii stock generally congregates in Hawaiian water in the colder months (fall to spring) and migrates to more productive areas in winter. As shown in table 54, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment are 3 and 296, respectively. The CA/OR/WA stock can be found year-round in southern California, generally congregating in nearshore waters over the continental shelf off California, and has low variability in annual distribution patterns. As shown in table 54, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment are 32 and 2,993, respectively. No mortality is anticipated or authorized for either stock, nor is any non-auditory injury. The total take allowable across all 7 years of the rule is indicated in table 19. Regarding the potential takes associated with auditory impairment, as described in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section above, any takes in the form of TTS are expected to be lower-level, of short duration, and mostly not in a frequency band that would be expected to interfere with minke whale communication or other important low-frequency cues. Any associated lost opportunities or capabilities individuals might experience as a result of TTS would not be at a level or duration that would be expected to impact reproductive success or survival. For similar reasons, while auditory injury impacts last longer, the low anticipated levels of AUD INJ that could be reasonably expected to result from these activities are unlikely to have any effect on fitness.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the likely severity of any single instance of take by behavioral disturbance, as described above, the majority of the predicted exposures are expected to be below 172 dB SPL and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours. Minke whales are medium-to-large-bodied capital breeders with a slow pace of life and are therefore generally less susceptible to impacts from shorter duration foraging disruptions. Further, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section above and the Mitigation Measures section, mitigation measures are expected to further reduce the potential severity of impacts through real-time operational measures that minimize higher level/longer duration exposures and time/area measures that reduce impacts in high value habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described above, in addition to evaluating the anticipated impacts of the single instances of takes, it is important to understand the degree to which individual marine mammals may be disturbed repeatedly across multiple days of the year. In this case, for the Hawaii stock, given the lower number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 54), their migratory movement pattern, and the absence of take concentrated in areas in which animals are known to congregate, it is unlikely that any individual minke whales from the Hawaii stock would be taken on more than a limited number of days within a year and, therefore, the anticipated behavioral disturbance is not expected to affect reproduction or survival. For the CA/OR/WA stock, given the number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 54), it is likely that some portion of the individuals taken are taken repeatedly over a limited to moderate number of days. However, given the variety of activity types that contribute to take across separate exercises conducted at different times and in different areas, and the fact that many result from transient activities conducted at sea, it is unlikely that repeated takes would occur either in numbers or clumped across sequential days in a manner likely to impact foraging success and energetics or other behaviors such that reproduction or survival of any individuals is likely to be impacted.</P>
                    <P>Given the magnitude and severity of the impacts discussed above to the CA/OR/WA and Hawaii stocks of minke whale (considering annual take maxima and the total across 7 years) and their habitat, and in consideration of the required mitigation measures and other information presented, the Action Proponents' activities are not expected to result in impacts on the reproduction or survival of any individuals, much less affect annual rates of recruitment or survival. For these reasons, we have determined that the take by harassment anticipated and authorized will have a negligible impact on the Hawaii and CA/OR/WA stocks of minke whales.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Sei Whale (Hawaii and Eastern North Pacific Stocks)—</HD>
                    <P>Sei whales are listed as endangered under the ESA and as both depleted and strategic under the MMPA. Sei whales generally have higher abundances in the cold and deep water of the open ocean. There are no UMEs or other factors that cause particular concern for either stock, and there are no known biologically important areas for sei whales in the HCTT Study Area. Sei whales face several chronic anthropogenic and non-anthropogenic risk factors, including vessel strike, fisheries interactions, and ocean noise, among others.</P>
                    <P>The Navy's NMSDD estimates the abundance of the Hawaii stock is 452 and the Eastern North Pacific stock is 864 animals. The Hawaii stock's primary range is outside of the HCTT Study Area. This stock is migratory and not frequently detected in Hawaii, traveling from their cold subpolar latitudes to Hawaii in the winter, where they are more likely to be on the Hawaii Range Complex in the cold season. As shown in table 54, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment are 2 and 253, respectively. No mortality of the Hawaii stock is anticipated or authorized, nor is any non-auditory injury.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Eastern North Pacific stock occurs year-round in deep offshore waters of California, and is likely to occur in the Transit Corridor of the HCTT Study Area. The Eastern North Pacific stock seasonally migrates, though to a lesser extent compared to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58993"/>
                        other large whales. As shown in table 54, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment are 3 and 302, respectively. As indicated, the rule also allows for up to two takes by serious injury or mortality over the course of the 7-year rule, the impacts of which are discussed above in the Serious Injury and Mortality section. The total take allowable across all 7 years of the rule for both stocks is indicated in table 19.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding the potential takes associated with auditory impairment, as described in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section above, any takes in the form of TTS are expected to be lower-level, of short duration (from minutes to, at most, several hours or less than a day), and mostly not in a frequency band that would be expected to interfere with sei whale communication or other important low-frequency cues. Any associated lost opportunities or capabilities individuals might experience as a result of TTS would not be at a level or duration that would be expected to impact reproductive success or survival. For similar reasons, while auditory injury impacts last longer, the low anticipated levels of AUD INJ that could be reasonably expected to result from these activities are unlikely to have any effect on fitness.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the likely severity of any single instance of take by behavioral disturbance, as described above, the majority of the predicted exposures are expected to be below 172 dB SPL and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours. Sei whales are large-bodied capital breeders with a slow pace of life and are therefore generally less susceptible to impacts from shorter duration foraging disruptions. Further, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section above and the Mitigation Measures section, mitigation measures are expected to further reduce the potential severity of impacts through real-time operational measures that minimize higher level/longer duration exposures and time/area measures that reduce impacts in high value habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described above, in addition to evaluating the anticipated impacts of the single instances of takes, it is important to understand the degree to which individual marine mammals may be disturbed repeatedly across multiple days of the year. In this case, given the lower number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 54), their migratory movement pattern, and the absence of take concentrated in areas in which animals are known to congregate, it is unlikely that any individual from either stock would be taken on more than a limited number of days within a year and, therefore, the anticipated behavioral disturbance is not expected to affect reproduction or survival.</P>
                    <P>Given the magnitude and severity of the impacts discussed above to the Hawaii stock of sei whales (considering annual take maxima and the total across 7 years) and their habitat, and in consideration of the required mitigation measures and other information presented, the Action Proponents' activities are not expected to result in impacts on the reproduction or survival of any individuals, much less affect annual rates of recruitment or survival. For the CA/OR/WA stock, as analyzed and described in the Serious Injury and Mortality section above, given the status of the stock, the authorized M/SI for CA/OR/WA sei whales (two over the course of the 7-year rule, or 0.29 annually) would not, alone, be expected to adversely affect the stock through rates of recruitment or survival. Given the magnitude and severity of the take by harassment discussed above and any anticipated habitat impacts, and in consideration of the required mitigation measures and other information presented, the authorized take by harassment is unlikely to result in impacts on the reproduction or survival of any individuals and, therefore, unlikely to affect annual rates of recruitment or survival either alone or in combination with the authorized M/SI. For these reasons, we have determined that the take by harassment anticipated and authorized will have a negligible impact on the Hawaii and CA/OR/WA stocks of sei whales.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Odontocetes</HD>
                    <P>
                        This section builds on the broader discussion above and brings together the discussion of the different types and amounts of take that different stocks will incur, the applicable mitigation for each stock, and the status and life history of the stocks to support the negligible impact determinations for each stock. We have already described above why we believe the incremental addition of the limited number of low-level auditory injury takes will not have any meaningful effect towards inhibiting reproduction or survival. We have also described above in this section the unlikelihood of any masking or habitat impacts having effects that would impact the reproduction or survival of any of the individual marine mammals affected by the Action Proponents' activities. Some odontocete stocks have predicted non-auditory injury from explosives, discussed further below. Regarding the severity of individual takes by Level B harassment by behavioral disturbance for odontocetes, the majority of these responses are anticipated to occur at received levels below 178 dB for most odontocete species and below 154 dB for sensitive species (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         beaked whales and harbor porpoises, for which a lower behavioral disturbance threshold is applied), and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours. Much of the discussion below focuses on the behavioral effects and the mitigation measures that reduce the probability or severity of effects in biologically important areas or other habitats. Because there are multiple stock-specific factors in relation to the status of the species, as well as mortality take for several stocks, at the end of the section we break out stock- or group-specific findings.
                    </P>
                    <P>In table 56 (sperm whales, dwarf sperm whales, and pygmy sperm whales), table 58 (beaked whales), table 60 (dolphins and small whales), table 62 (porpoises), and table 64 (pinnipeds) below, we indicate the total annual mortality, Level A harassment, and Level B harassment, and the maximum annual harassment as a percentage of stock abundance.</P>
                    <P>In table 57 (sperm whales, dwarf sperm whales, and pygmy sperm whales), table 59 (beaked whales), table 61 (dolphins and small whales), table 63 (porpoises), and table 65 (pinnipeds), below, we indicate the status, life history traits, important habitats, and threats that inform our analysis of the potential impacts of the estimated take on the affected odontocete stocks.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
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                        <PRTPAGE P="58994"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.197</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58995"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.198</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="585">
                        <PRTPAGE P="58996"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.199</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Sperm Whales, Dwarf Sperm Whales, and Pygmy Sperm Whales—</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Sperm Whale (Hawaii and CA/OR/WA Stocks)</HD>
                    <P>Sperm whales are listed as endangered under the ESA and are considered depleted and strategic under the MMPA. The Navy's NMSDD estimate for the Hawaii stock is 6,062 animals and for the CA/OR/WA stock is 4,549 animals. There are no UMEs or other factors that cause particular concern for these stocks, and there are no known biologically important areas for the sperm whales in the HCTT Study Area. Sperm whales generally have higher abundances in deep water and areas of high productivity and are somewhat migratory, but their movement ecology is demographically dependent. The Hawaii stock is residential and occurs in Hawaiian waters year-round, while the CA/OR/WA stock is somewhat migratory, with some individuals leaving warm waters in summer to travel north to their arctic feeding grounds and returning south in the fall and winter. Sperm whales face several chronic anthropogenic and non-anthropogenic risk factors, including vessel strike, fisheries interactions, pollution, ocean noise, and disease, among others.</P>
                    <P>As shown in table 56, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment are 1 (Hawaii stock) and 3 (CA/OR/WA stock), and 1,649 (Hawaii stock) to 3,891 (CA/OR/WA stock), respectively. As indicated, the rule also allows for up to one take by serious injury or mortality of Hawaii sperm whales over the course of the 7-year rule, the impacts of which are discussed above in the Serious Injury and Mortality section. The total take allowable for each stock across all 7 years of the rule is indicated in table 19.</P>
                    <P>Regarding the potential takes associated with auditory impairment, as described in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section above, any takes in the form of TTS are expected to be lower-level, of short duration (from minutes to, at most, several hours or less than a day), and mostly not in a frequency band that would be expected to interfere with sperm whale communication or other important low-frequency cues. Any associated lost opportunities or capabilities individuals might experience as a result of TTS would not be at a level or duration that would be expected to impact reproductive success or survival. For similar reasons, while auditory injury impacts last longer, the low anticipated levels of AUD INJ that could be reasonably expected to result from these activities are unlikely to have any effect on fitness.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the likely severity of any single instance of take by behavioral disturbance, as described above, the majority of the predicted exposures are expected to be below 178 dB SPL and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours. Sperm whales are large-bodied income breeders with a slow pace of life and are likely more resilient to missed foraging opportunities due to acoustic disturbance than smaller odontocetes. However, they may be more susceptible to impacts due to lost foraging opportunities during reproduction, especially if they occur during lactation (Farmer 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018b). Further, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section above and the Mitigation Measures section, mitigation measures are expected to further reduce the potential severity of impacts through real-time operational measures that minimize higher level/longer duration exposures and time/area measures that reduce impacts in high value habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described above, in addition to evaluating the anticipated impacts of the single instances of takes, it is important to understand the degree to which individual marine mammals may be disturbed repeatedly across multiple days of the year. For both stocks of sperm whales, given the lower number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 56), and the absence of take concentrated in areas in which animals are known to congregate, it is unlikely that any individual sperm whales would be taken on more than a limited number of days within a year and, therefore, the anticipated behavioral disturbance is not expected to affect reproduction or survival.</P>
                    <P>
                        Given the magnitude and severity of the impacts discussed above to sperm whales (considering annual take maxima and the total across 7 years) and their habitat, and in consideration of the required mitigation measures and other information presented, the authorized take by harassment is not expected to impact the reproduction or survival of any individuals nor, as described previously, is the authorized mortality expected to adversely affect the species or stock. For these reasons, we have determined that the anticipated and authorized take will have a negligible impact on the Hawaii and CA/OR/WA stocks of sperm whale.
                        <PRTPAGE P="58997"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Dwarf Sperm Whale (Hawaii and CA/OR/WA Stocks) and Pygmy Sperm Whale (Hawaii and CA/OR/WA Stocks)</HD>
                    <P>Neither dwarf sperm whales nor pygmy sperm whales are listed under the ESA, and none of the stocks are considered depleted or strategic under the MMPA. The current stock abundance of the CA/OR/WA stock of pygmy sperm whale is 4,111 animals, and the stock abundances from Navy's NMSDD are 2,426 (CA/OR/WA stock of dwarf sperm whale), 43,246 (Hawaii stock of dwarf sperm whale), and 48,589 (Hawaii stock of pygmy sperm whale). There are no UMEs or other factors that cause particular concern for these stocks. As described in the Description of Marine Mammals and Their Habitat in the Area of the Specified Activities section, the HCTT Study Area overlaps two known BIAs for small and resident populations of the Hawaii stocks of dwarf and pygmy sperm whale. Dwarf and pygmy sperm whales face several chronic anthropogenic and non-anthropogenic risk factors, including fisheries interactions, marine debris, and ocean noise, among others.</P>
                    <P>As shown in table 56, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment are: 915 and 45,224 for the Hawaii stock of dwarf sperm whale, respectively; 94 and 5,664 for the CA/OR/WA stock of dwarf sperm whale, respectively; 936 and 45,787 for the Hawaii stock of pygmy sperm whale, respectively; and 107 and 5,615 for the CA/OR/WA stock of pygmy sperm whale, respectively. No mortality is anticipated or authorized. The rule allows for a limited number of takes by non-auditory injury (one each for the Hawaii stocks of dwarf and pygmy sperm whales). As described above, given the limited number of potential exposures and the anticipated effectiveness of the mitigation measures in minimizing the pressure levels to which any individuals are exposed, these injuries are unlikely to impact reproduction or survival. The total take allowable across all 7 years of the rule is indicated in table 19.</P>
                    <P>Regarding the potential takes associated with auditory impairment, as described in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section above, any takes in the form of TTS are expected to be lower-level, of short duration (from minutes to, at most, several hours or less than a day), and mostly not in a frequency band that would be expected to interfere with dwarf and pygmy sperm whale communication, overlap more than a relatively narrow portion of the vocalization range of any single species or stock, or preclude detection or interpretation of important low-frequency cues. Any associated lost opportunities or capabilities individuals might experience as a result of TTS would not be at a level or duration that would be expected to impact reproductive success or survival. For similar reasons, while auditory injury impacts last longer, the low anticipated levels of AUD INJ that could be reasonably expected to result from these activities are unlikely to have any effect on fitness. The rule also allows for a limited number of takes by non-auditory injury (one per stock) for the Hawaii stocks of dwarf and pygmy sperm whales. As described above in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section, given the limited number of potential exposures and the anticipated effectiveness of the mitigation measures in minimizing the pressure levels to which any individuals are exposed, these non-auditory injuries are unlikely to be of a nature or level that would impact reproduction or survival for either of the Hawaii stocks of dwarf and pygmy sperm whales.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the likely severity of any single instance of take by behavioral disturbance, as described above, the majority of the predicted exposures are expected to be below 178 dB SPL and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours. Dwarf and pygmy sperm whales are small-to-medium-bodied income breeders with a fast pace of life. They are generally more sensitive to missed foraging opportunities than larger odontocetes, especially during lactation, but would be quick to recover given their fast pace of life. Further, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section above and the Mitigation Measures section, mitigation measures are expected to further reduce the potential severity of impacts through real-time operational measures that minimize higher level/longer duration exposures and time/area measures that reduce impacts in high value habitat. In particular, this rulemaking includes a Hawaii Island Marine Mammal Mitigation Area, within which the Action Proponents must not use more than 300 combined hours of MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted MFAS or 20 hours of helicopter dipping sonar (a MFAS source) annually and must not detonate in-water explosives (including underwater explosives and explosives deployed against surface targets). These restrictions will reduce exposure of numerous small and resident marine mammal populations, including dwarf and pygmy sperm whales, to levels of sound from sonar or explosives that have the potential to cause injury or mortality, thereby reducing the likelihood of those effects and, further, minimizing the severity of behavioral disturbance.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described above, in addition to evaluating the anticipated impacts of the single instances of takes, it is important to understand the degree to which individual marine mammals may be disturbed repeatedly across multiple days of the year. In this case, given the number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 56) and the fact that a portion of the takes occur in BIAs for the Hawaii stocks, it is likely that some portion of the individuals taken are taken repeatedly over a limited to moderate number of days. However, given the variety of activity types that contribute to take across separate exercises conducted at different times and in different areas, and the fact that many result from transient activities conducted at sea, it is unlikely that repeated takes would occur either in numbers or clumped across sequential days in a manner likely to impact foraging success and energetics or other behaviors such that reproduction or survival of any individuals is likely to be impacted.</P>
                    <P>Given the magnitude and severity of the impacts discussed above to dwarf and pygmy sperm whale stocks in the HCTT Study Area (considering annual take maxima and the total across 7 years) and their habitats, and in consideration of the required mitigation measures and other information presented, the Action Proponents' activities are not expected to result in impacts on the reproduction or survival of any individuals, much less affect annual rates of recruitment or survival. For these reasons, we have determined that the anticipated and authorized take will have a negligible impact on the Hawaii and CA/OR/WA stocks of dwarf and pygmy sperm whales.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Beaked Whales—</HD>
                    <P>
                        This section builds on the broader odontocete discussion above (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         that information applies to beaked whales as well), and brings together the discussion of the different types and amounts of take that different beaked whale species 
                        <PRTPAGE P="58998"/>
                        and stocks will likely incur, any additional applicable mitigation, and the status of the species and stocks to support the negligible impact determinations for each species or stock.
                    </P>
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                        <GID>ER17DE25.201</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>
                        These stocks are not listed as endangered or threatened under the ESA, and they are not considered depleted or strategic under the MMPA. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="59001"/>
                        The stock abundance estimates range from 1,300 (Hawaii stock of Blainville's beaked whale, NMSDD) to 13,531 (CA/OR/WA stock of goose-beaked whale, NMSDD). There are no UMEs or other factors that cause particular concern for these stocks in the HCTT Study Area. As described in the Description of Marine Mammals and Their Habitat in the Area of the Specified Activities section, the HCTT Study Area overlaps two known biologically important areas for small and resident populations for the Hawaii stocks of Blainville's and goose-beaked whales. Beaked whales face several chronic anthropogenic and non-anthropogenic risk factors, including fisheries interactions, and ocean noise, among others.
                    </P>
                    <P>As shown in table 58, the maximum annual allowable instances of take under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment range from 0 to 2, and 7,542 and 166,816, respectively. No mortality is anticipated or authorized, nor is any non-auditory injury. The total take allowable across all 7 years of the rule is indicated in table 19.</P>
                    <P>Regarding the potential takes associated with auditory impairment, as described in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section above, any takes in the form of TTS are expected to be lower-level, of short duration (from minutes to, at most, several hours or less than a day), and mostly not in a frequency band that would be expected to interfere with echolocation, overlap more than a relatively narrow portion of the vocalization range of any single species or stock, or preclude detection or interpretation of important low-frequency cues. Any associated lost opportunities or capabilities individuals might experience as a result of TTS would not be at a level or duration that would be expected to impact reproductive success or survival. For similar reasons, while auditory injury impacts last longer, the low anticipated levels of AUD INJ that could be reasonably expected to result from these activities are unlikely to have any effect on fitness on the CA/OR/WA stocks of goose- and mesoplodont beaked whales and the Hawaii stock of Longman's beaked whales.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the likely severity of any single instance of take by behavioral disturbance, as described above, the majority of the predicted exposures are expected to be below 154 dB SPL and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours. Beaked whales are medium-to-large-bodied odontocetes with a medium pace of life and likely moderately resilient to missed foraging opportunities due to acoustic disturbance. They are mixed breeders (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         behaviorally income breeders), and they demonstrate capital breeding strategies during gestation and lactation (Keen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021). Therefore, they may be more vulnerable to prolonged loss of foraging opportunities during gestation. Further, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section above and the Mitigation Measures section, mitigation measures are expected to further reduce the potential severity of impacts through real-time operational measures that minimize higher level/longer duration exposures and time/area measures that reduce impacts in high value habitat. In particular, this rulemaking includes a Hawaii Island Marine Mammal Mitigation Area, within which the Action Proponents must not use more than 300 combined hours of MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted MFAS or 20 hours of helicopter dipping sonar (a MFAS source) annually and must not detonate in-water explosives (including underwater explosives and explosives deployed against surface targets). These restrictions will reduce exposure of numerous small and resident marine mammal populations, including the Hawaii stocks of Blainville's and goose-beaked whales, to levels of sound from sonar or explosives that have the potential to cause injury or mortality, thereby reducing the likelihood of those effects and, further, minimizing the severity of behavioral disturbance.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described above, in addition to evaluating the anticipated impacts of the single instances of takes, it is important to understand the degree to which individual marine mammals may be disturbed repeatedly across multiple days of the year. In this case, given the number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 58), it is likely that some portion of the individuals taken are taken repeatedly over a moderate number of days. However, given the variety of activity types that contribute to take across separate exercises conducted at different times and in different areas, and the fact that many result from transient activities conducted at sea, it is unlikely that repeated takes would occur clumped across sequential days in a manner likely to impact foraging success and energetics or other behaviors such that reproduction or survival of any individuals is likely to be impacted.</P>
                    <P>Given the magnitude and severity of the impacts discussed above to beaked whale stock/species (considering annual take maxima and the total across 7 years) and their habitat, and in consideration of the required mitigation measures and other information presented, the Action Proponents' activities are not expected to result in impacts on the reproduction or survival of any individuals, much less affect annual rates of recruitment or survival. For these reasons, we have determined that the anticipated and authorized take will have a negligible impact on the CA/OR/WA stocks of Baird's, goose-, and mesoplodont beaked whales, and the Hawaii stocks of Blainville's, goose-, and Longman's beaked whale stocks.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Dolphins and Small Whales—</HD>
                    <P>
                        Of the 39 stocks of dolphins and small whales (Delphinidae) for which incidental take is authorized (see table 60), one is listed as endangered under the ESA and depleted and strategic under the MMPA: the Main Hawaiian Islands Insular stock of false killer whale. While not ESA-listed, the Hawaii Pelagic stock of false killer whale is considered strategic under the MMPA. As shown in table 60 and table 61, these delphinids vary in stock abundance, body size, and movement ecology from, for example, the small-bodied, nomadic CA/OR/WA stock of short-beaked common dolphin with NMSDD abundance estimate of 1,049,117, to the medium-sized small and resident Main Hawaiian Islands Insular stock of false killer whale with an estimated abundance of 138. The HCTT Study Area overlaps ESA-designated critical habitat for the Main Hawaiian Islands Insular stock of false killer whale (83 FR 35062, July 24, 2018), as well as BIAs for the following small and resident populations: false killer whale (Main Hawaiian Islands Insular and Northwest Hawaiian Islands stocks), melon-headed whale (Hawaiian Islands and Kohala Resident stocks), short-finned pilot whale (Hawaii stock), bottlenose dolphin (Maui Nui, Hawaii Island, Kaua'i/Ni'ihau, and O'ahu stocks), pantropical spotted dolphins (Maui Nui, Hawaii Island, and O'ahu stocks), rough-toothed dolphin (Hawaii stock), and spinner dolphin (Hawaii Island, Kaua'i/Ni'ihau, and O'ahu/4 Islands Region stocks). These areas are described in the Description of Marine Mammals and Their Habitat in the Area of Specified Activities section. Delphinids face a number of chronic anthropogenic and non-anthropogenic risk factors including fishery 
                        <PRTPAGE P="59002"/>
                        interactions, biotoxins, chemical contaminants, illegal feeding/harassment, ocean noise, oil spills and energy exploration, vessel strikes, and swim with dolphin programs, the impacts of which vary depending on whether the stock is more coastal (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         swim with dolphin programs occur mostly with coastally-distributed spinner dolphins), more or less deep-diving (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         entanglement more common in deep divers like pygmy killer whales and pilot whales), and other behavioral differences (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         vessels strikes more concern for killer whales). There are no known UMEs or other factors that cause particular concern for these stocks.
                    </P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
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                        <PRTPAGE P="59003"/>
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                        <PRTPAGE P="59005"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.204</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="59006"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.205</GID>
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                        <PRTPAGE P="59007"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.206</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="59008"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.207</GID>
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                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="59009"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.208</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="59010"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.209</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="59011"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.210</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="59012"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.211</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>
                        As shown in table 60, the maximum annual allowable instances of take by Level B harassment for delphinid stocks ranges from 9 (Hawaii Island stock of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="59013"/>
                        bottlenose dolphin) to 2,169,554 for the CA/OR/WA stock of short-beaked common dolphin, with 14 stocks below 2,000, 5 stocks above 70,000, and the remainder between 2,000 and 70,000. Take by Level A harassment is 0 for 9 of the 39 stocks, between 1 and 15 for 20 stocks, and above 15 for 10 stocks. As indicated, the rule also allows for take by M/SI for 10 stocks (the CA/OR/WA stocks of short-finned pilot whale, northern right whale dolphin, Pacific white-sided dolphin, short-beaked common dolphin, and striped dolphin; the Hawaii Pelagic and O'ahu stocks of bottlenose dolphin; the California stock of long-beaked common dolphin; the Baja California Peninsula Mexico population of pantropical spotted dolphin; and the Hawaii stock of rough-toothed dolphin), the impacts of which are discussed above in the Serious Injury and Mortality section. The total take allowable across all 7 years of the rule is indicated in table 19.
                    </P>
                    <P>All delphinid stocks are expected to incur some number of takes in the form of TTS. As described in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section above, these temporary hearing impacts are expected to be lower-level, of short duration (from minutes to at most several hours or less than a day), and mostly not in a frequency band that would be expected to interfere with delphinid echolocation, overlap more than a relatively narrow portion of the vocalization range of any single species or stock, or preclude detection or interpretation of important low-frequency cues. Any associated lost opportunities or capabilities individuals might experience as a result of TTS would not be at a level or duration that would be expected to impact reproductive success or survival. About three-quarters of the affected delphinid stocks will incur some number of takes by AUD INJ, over half of those stocks will incur take in the single digits, with only 2 stocks exceeding 45 (long- and short-beaked common dolphin). For reasons similar to those discussed for TTS, while auditory injury impacts last longer, given the anticipated effectiveness of mitigation measures and the likelihood that individuals are expected to avoid higher levels associated with more severe impacts, the lower anticipated levels of AUD INJ that could be reasonably expected to result from these activities are unlikely to affect the fitness of any individuals. Two stocks are projected to incur notably higher numbers of take by AUD INJ (128 for the California stock of long-beaked common dolphin and 806 for the CA/OR/WA stock of short-beaked common dolphin) and while the conclusions above are still applicable, it is further worth noting that these 2 stocks have relatively large abundances and limited annual mortality as compared to PBR. The rule also allows for a limited number of takes by non-auditory injury (1-71) for 19 stocks (less than 5 takes for all stocks except for the California stock of long-beaked common dolphin and the CA/OR/WA stock of short-beaked common dolphin). As described above in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section, given the limited number of potential exposures and the anticipated effectiveness of the mitigation measures in minimizing the pressure levels to which any individuals are exposed, these non-auditory injuries are unlikely to be of a nature or level that would impact reproduction or survival, with the exception of long- and short-beaked common dolphins.</P>
                    <P>Due to the larger number of long- and short-beaked common dolphin individuals predicted to be exposed annually to levels associated with non-auditory injury (24 and 71, respectively), it is more likely that some subset of these individuals could potentially be injured in a manner that would result in them foregoing reproduction for a year (up to 4 long-beaked and 13 short-beaked common dolphins). A year of foregone reproduction for a male is generally meaningless to population rates unless the animal ultimately dies. M/SI have been modeled for this activity separately, and NMFS does not anticipate that these non-auditory injuries would result in mortality, for young or adults. Neither stock is considered depleted or strategic. While the population trend of these stocks are not known (though the SAR notes that the CA/OR/WA stock of short-beaked common dolphin is possibly increasing), they are not considered depleted or strategic, and total annual mortality is well below PBR for each stock. Importantly, the increase in a calving interval by a year would have far less of an impact on a population rate than a mortality would and, accordingly, the number of instances of foregone reproduction predicted here are not expected to adversely affect this stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the likely severity of any single instance of take by behavioral disturbance, as described above, the majority of the predicted exposures are expected to be below 178 dB SPL and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours. Delphinids are income breeders with a medium pace of life, meaning that while they can be sensitive to the consequences of disturbances that impact foraging during lactation, from a population standpoint, they can be moderately quick to recover. Further, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section (and the Mitigation Measures section), mitigation measures are expected to further reduce the potential severity of impacts through real-time operational measures that minimize higher level/longer duration exposures and time/area measures that reduce impacts in higher value habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As described above, in addition to evaluating the anticipated impacts of the single instances of takes, it is important to understand the degree to which individual marine mammals may be disturbed repeatedly across multiple days of the year. In the case of over half of the delphinid stocks (see the “Greatest degree any individual expected to be taken repeatedly across multiple days” column in table 60), given the low number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance alone, and also in consideration of their nomadic movement pattern and whether take is concentrated in areas in which animals are known to congregate, it is unlikely that these individual delphinids would be taken on more than a limited number of days within a year and, therefore, the anticipated behavioral disturbance is not expected to affect reproduction or survival. In the case of the rest of the stocks, given the number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance, it is likely that some portion of the individuals taken are taken repeatedly over a small to moderate number of days (as indicated in the “Greatest degree any individual expected to be taken repeatedly across multiple days” column in table 60), with two stocks (Kaua'i/Ni'ihau and O'ahu stocks of bottlenose dolphins) likely to be taken over a high number of days. However, given the variety of activity types that contribute to take across separate exercises conducted at different times and in different areas, and the fact that many result from transient activities conducted at sea, for all stocks except Kaua'i/Ni'ihau and O'ahu stocks of bottlenose dolphins (addressed below), it is unlikely that the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="59014"/>
                        anticipated small to moderate number of repeated takes for a given individual would occur clumped across sequential days in a manner likely to impact foraging success and energetics or other behaviors such that reproduction or survival of any individuals are likely to be impacted. Further, many of these stocks are nomadic and, apart from the small resident populations, there are no known foraging areas or other areas within which delphinids are known to congregate for important behaviors, and for most stocks, the takes are not concentrated within a specific region and season.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding the magnitude of repeated takes for the Kaua'i/Ni'ihau and O'ahu stocks of bottlenose dolphins, given the number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance and the small resident populations, it is more likely that some number of individuals would experience a comparatively higher number of repeated takes over a potentially fair number of sequential days. Due to the higher number of repeated takes focused within the stocks' limited ranges, it is thereby more likely that a portion of the individuals (approximately 50 percent of which would be female) could be repeatedly interrupted during foraging in a manner and amount such that impacts to the energy budgets of a limited number of females (from either losing feeding opportunities or expending considerable energy moving away from sound sources or finding alternative feeding options) could cause them to forego reproduction for a year (noting that bottlenose dolphin calving intervals are typically 3 or more years). Energetic impacts to males are generally meaningless to population rates unless they cause death, and it takes extreme energy deficits beyond what would ever be likely to result from these activities to cause the death of an adult marine mammal, male or female. The population trends of these stocks are unknown, and neither are considered depleted or strategic. Importantly, the increase in a calving interval by a year would have far less of an impact on a population rate than a mortality would and, accordingly, a limited number of instances of foregone reproduction are not expected to adversely affect these stocks through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (noting also that no mortality is predicted or authorized for the Kaua'i/Ni'ihau stock, and 0.14 annual mortality is authorized for the O'ahu stock). Further, of note, use of in-water explosives (including underwater explosives and explosives deployed against surface targets) is prohibited within the Hawaii 4-Islands Marine Mammal Mitigation Area. This measure will prevent exposure of these stocks to explosives that have the potential to cause injury, mortality or behavioral disturbance within that area. Further, within the same area, mitigation from November 15 to April 15 prohibiting use of MF1 surface ship hull-mounted MFAS would reduce exposure of these stocks to levels of sound that have the potential to cause injurious or behavioral impacts.</P>
                    <P>Given the magnitude and severity of the take by harassment discussed above and any anticipated habitat impacts, and in consideration of the required mitigation measures and other information presented, the Action Proponents' activities are unlikely to result in impacts on the reproduction or survival of any individuals of delphinid stocks, with the exception of the 10 stocks for which takes by M/SI are predicted and the 1 stock for which an increased calving interval could potentially occur. Regarding the Kaua'i/Ni'ihau and O'ahu stocks of bottlenose dolphins, as described above, we do not anticipate the relatively limited number of individuals that might be taken over repeated days within the year in a manner that results in a year of foregone reproduction to adversely affect the stock through effects on rates of recruitment or survival, given the status of the stocks. Regarding the CA/OR/WA stock of short-finned pilot whale, Hawaii Pelagic and O'ahu stocks of bottlenose dolphin, California stock of long-beaked common dolphin, CA/OR/WA stock of Northern right whale dolphin, CA/OR/WA stock of Pacific white-sided dolphin, Baja California Peninsula Mexico population of pantropical spotted dolphin, Hawaii stock of rough-toothed dolphin, CA/OR/WA stock of short-beaked common dolphin, and CA/OR/WA stock of striped dolphin, as described in the Serious Injury and Mortality section, given the status of the stocks and in consideration of other ongoing anthropogenic mortality (where known), the authorized M/SI would not alone, nor in combination with the impacts of the take by harassment discussed above (which are not expected to impact the reproduction or survival of any individuals for those stocks), be expected to adversely affect rates of recruitment and survival. For these reasons, we have determined that the total take (considering annual maxima and across 7 years) anticipated and authorized will have a negligible impact on all delphinid species and stocks.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Porpoises—</HD>
                    <P>
                        Neither Dall's porpoise nor harbor porpoise are listed as endangered or threatened under the ESA, and none of the porpoise stocks are considered depleted or strategic under the MMPA. The Navy's NMSDD estimate for the CA/OR/WA stock of Dall's porpoise is 61,840, and the stock abundances of harbor porpoises range from 3,885 (Navy's NMSDD) to 15,303 (SAR). There are no UMEs or other factors that cause particular concern for this stock. As described in the Description of Marine Mammals and Their Habitat in the Area of the Specified Activities section, the HCTT Study Area overlaps two small and resident population BIAs for the Monterey Bay and Morro Bay stocks of harbor porpoise (Calambokidis 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). There is no ESA-designated critical habitat for Dall's or harbor porpoise as neither species is ESA-listed. Dall's porpoises occur from Baja California, Mexico, to the northern Bering Sea. They shift their distribution southward during cooler-water periods on both interannual and seasonal time scales. They primarily congregate in shelf and slope waters, and decrease substantially in waters warmer than 17 degrees Celsius (°C) (63 °F (F)). Harbor porpoises generally have higher abundances in shallow waters (less than 200 m (656 ft)) and near shore, but they sometimes move into deeper offshore waters. However, this species has no overlap with nearshore or offshore areas in the SOCAL Range Complex (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         San Diego, SOAR) or the southern nearshore portions of PMSR (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Port Hueneme). Dall's and harbor porpoises face several chronic anthropogenic and non-anthropogenic risk factors, including fishing gear, fisheries interactions, and ocean noise (including acoustic deterrent devices or “seal bombs” in the case of harbor porpoises), among others.
                    </P>
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                        <PRTPAGE P="59016"/>
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                        <PRTPAGE P="59017"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.214</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>
                        As shown in table 62, the maximum annual allowable instances of take of Dall's porpoise under this rule by Level A and Level B harassment are 1,237 and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="59018"/>
                        59,619, respectively, while the maximum allowable take of harbor porpoise by Level A and Level B harassment are 88 (Morro Bay stock) and 9,960 (San Francisco/Russian River stock), respectively. No mortality is anticipated or authorized. The rule allows for a limited number of takes by non-auditory injury (two for Dall's porpoise, one for the Morro Bay stock of harbor porpoise). As described above, given the limited number of potential exposures and the anticipated effectiveness of the mitigation measures in minimizing the pressure levels to which any individuals are exposed, these injuries are unlikely to impact reproduction or survival. The total take allowable across all 7 years of the rule is indicated in table 19.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding the potential takes associated with auditory impairment, as VHF cetaceans, Dall's and harbor porpoises are more susceptible to auditory impacts in mid- to high frequencies and from explosives than other species. As described in the Temporary Threshold Shift section above, any takes in the form of TTS are expected to be lower-level, of short duration (even the longest recovering in less than a day), and mostly not in a frequency band that would be expected to interfere with porpoise communication or other important auditory cues. Any associated lost opportunities or capabilities individuals might experience as a result of TTS would not be at a level or duration that would be expected to impact reproductive success or survival. For similar reasons, while auditory injury impacts last longer, the low anticipated levels of AUD INJ that could be reasonably expected to result from these activities are unlikely to have any effect on fitness. The rule also allows for a limited number of takes by non-auditory injury for Dall's porpoise and the Morro Bay stock of harbor porpoise (two and one, respectively). As described above in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section, given the limited number of potential exposures and the anticipated effectiveness of the mitigation measures in minimizing the pressure levels to which any individuals are exposed, these non-auditory injuries are unlikely to be of a nature or level that would impact reproduction or survival for these stocks.</P>
                    <P>
                        Harbor porpoises are more susceptible to behavioral disturbance than other species. They are highly sensitive to many sound sources and generally demonstrate strong avoidance of most types of acoustic stressors. The information currently available regarding harbor porpoises suggests a very low threshold level of response for both captive (Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000; Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005) and wild (Johnston, 2002) animals. Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2007) concluded that harbor porpoises are likely sensitive to a wide range of anthropogenic sounds at low received levels (approximately 90 to 120 dB). Research and observations of harbor porpoises for other locations show that this species is wary of human activity and will display profound avoidance behavior for anthropogenic sound sources in many situations at levels down to 120 dB re 1 µPa (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Harbor porpoises routinely avoid and swim away from large, motorized vessels (Barlow, 1988; Evans 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1994; Palka and Hammond, 2001; Polacheck and Thorpe, 1990). Accordingly, and as described in the Estimated Take of Marine Mammals section, the threshold for behavioral disturbance is lower for harbor porpoises, and the number of estimated takes is higher, with many occurring at lower received levels than other taxa. Regarding the likely severity of any single instance of take by behavioral disturbance, as described above, the majority of the predicted exposures are expected to be below 154 dB SPL and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most. Associated responses would likely include avoidance, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours and not likely to exceed 24 hours.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As small odontocetes and income breeders with a fast pace of life, Dall's and harbor porpoises are less resilient to missed foraging opportunities than larger odontocetes. Although reproduction in populations with a fast pace of life is more sensitive to foraging disruption, these populations are quick to recover. Further, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section and the Mitigation Measures section, mitigation measures are expected to further reduce the potential severity of impacts through real-time operational measures that minimize higher level/longer duration exposures and time/area measures that reduce impacts in high value habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described above, in addition to evaluating the anticipated impacts of the single instances of takes, it is important to understand the degree to which individual marine mammals may be disturbed repeatedly across multiple days of the year. In this case, for the Monterey Bay and Morro Bay stocks of harbor porpoise, given the number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance (see table 62) and the small resident populations, it is likely that some portion of the individuals taken are taken repeatedly over a limited number of days. However, given the variety of activity types that contribute to take across separate exercises conducted at different times and in different areas, and the fact that many result from transient activities conducted at sea, it is unlikely that repeated takes would occur either in numbers or clumped across sequential days in a manner likely to impact foraging success and energetics or other behaviors such that reproduction or survival of any individuals is likely to be impacted.</P>
                    <P>Given the magnitude and severity of the impacts discussed above to Dall's porpoises and harbor porpoises (considering annual take maxima and the total across 7 years) and their habitat, and in consideration of the required mitigation measures and other information presented, the Action Proponents' activities are unlikely to result in impacts on the reproduction or survival of any individuals and, therefore, unlikely to affect annual rates of recruitment or survival. For these reasons, we have determined that the take by harassment anticipated and authorized will have a negligible impact on Dall's porpoise and all four stocks of harbor porpoises.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Pinnipeds</HD>
                    <P>
                        This section builds on the broader discussion above and brings together the discussion of the different types and amounts of take that different pinniped stocks will incur, the applicable mitigation for each stock, and the status and life history of the stocks to support the negligible impact determinations for each. We have already described above why we believe the incremental addition of the moderate number of low-level auditory injury takes will not have any meaningful effect towards inhibiting reproduction or survival. We have also described above in this section the unlikelihood of any masking or habitat impacts having effects that would impact the reproduction or survival of any of the individual marine mammals affected by the Action Proponents' activities. Regarding the severity of individual takes by Level B harassment by behavioral disturbance for pinnipeds, the majority of these responses are anticipated to occur at received levels below 172 dB, and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="59019"/>
                        other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours.
                    </P>
                    <P>In table 64 below for pinnipeds, we indicate the total annual mortality, Level A harassment, and Level B harassment, and the maximum annual harassment as a percentage of abundance. In table 65 below, we indicate the status, life history traits, important habitats, and threats that inform our analysis of the potential impacts of the estimated take on the affected pinniped stocks.</P>
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                        <GID>ER17DE25.216</GID>
                    </GPH>
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                        <PRTPAGE P="59022"/>
                        <GID>ER17DE25.217</GID>
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                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>The Hawaiian monk seal (a NMFS Species in the Spotlight) and Guadalupe fur seal are listed as endangered and threatened, respectively, under the ESA and are considered depleted and strategic under the MMPA. Northern fur seals are not listed as endangered or threatened under the ESA, but the Eastern Pacific stock is considered depleted and strategic under the MMPA. The remaining pinniped stocks for which incidental take is authorized (see table 64) are neither ESA-listed nor considered depleted or strategic under the MMPA.</P>
                    <P>As shown in table 64 and table 65, these pinnipeds vary in stock abundance and movement ecology from, for example, the resident Hawaii stock of Hawaiian monk seal with an estimated abundance of 1,605 animals to the migratory Eastern Pacific stock of Northern fur seal with an estimated abundance of 612,765 animals. The HCTT Study Area overlaps the Hawaiian monk seal ESA-designated critical habitat (51 FR 16047, April 30, 1986; 53 FR 18988, May 26, 1988; 80 FR 50925, August 21, 2015), as described in the Description of Marine Mammals and Their Habitat in the Area of Specified Activities section, and there are no known BIAs for pinnipeds that overlap the HCTT Study Area. There are no UMEs or other factors that cause additional concern for these stocks. Pinnipeds face a number of chronic anthropogenic and non-anthropogenic risk factors including fisheries interactions, illegal harassment, habitat degradation, disease, intentional killing/harassment, chemical contaminants, power plant entrainment, vessel strike, harmful algal blooms, commercial aquaculture, and harassment/disturbance at rookeries.</P>
                    <P>As shown in table 64, the maximum annual allowable instances of take by Level B harassment for pinnipeds ranges from 999 (Eastern stock of Steller sea lion) to 1,899,749 (U.S. stock of California sea lion), with 3 stocks below 23,000, 5 stocks above 23,000, and California sea lion being the only stock over 348,000. Take by Level A harassment is at or below 12 for 4 stocks, and above 12 for 4 stocks. As described above, given the limited number of potential exposures and the anticipated effectiveness of the mitigation measures in minimizing the pressure levels to which any individuals are exposed, these injuries are unlikely to impact reproduction or survival. No mortality is anticipated or authorized for any pinniped stocks except the U.S. stock of California sea lion, Mexico stock of Guadalupe fur seal, and California stock of harbor seal. For those 3 stocks, the rule also allows for up to 27, 1, and 7 takes by serious injury or mortality, respectively, over the course of the 7-year rule, the impacts of which are discussed above in the Serious Injury and Mortality section. The total authorized take across all 7 years of the rule is indicated in table 19.</P>
                    <P>Regarding the potential takes associated with auditory impairment, as described in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section above, any takes in the form of TTS are expected to be lower-level, of short duration (from minutes to, at most, several hours or less than a day), and mostly not in a frequency band that would be expected to interfere with pinniped communication or other important auditory cues. Any associated lost opportunities or capabilities individuals might experience as a result of TTS would not be at a level or duration that would be expected to impact reproductive success or survival. For similar reasons, while auditory injury impacts last longer, the low anticipated levels of AUD INJ that could be reasonably expected to result from these activities are unlikely to have any effect on fitness.</P>
                    <P>The rule also allows for a limited number of takes by non-auditory injury (1 to 57) for 7 of the 8 stocks (less than 5 takes for all stocks except for the U.S. stock of California sea lion and California stock of harbor seal). As described above in the Auditory Injury from Sonar Acoustic Sources and Explosives and Non-Auditory Injury from Explosives section, given the limited number of potential exposures and the anticipated effectiveness of the mitigation measures in minimizing the pressure levels to which any individuals are exposed, these non-auditory injuries are unlikely to be of a nature or level that would impact reproduction or survival of these stocks, with the exception of the U.S. stock of California sea lion and California stock of harbor seal.</P>
                    <P>
                        Due to the larger number of California sea lion and California stock of harbor seal individuals predicted to be exposed annually to levels associated with non-auditory injury (57 and 7, respectively), it is more likely that some subset of these individuals could potentially be injured in a manner that would result in them foregoing reproduction for a year (up to 10 California sea lions and 1 harbor seal). A year of foregone reproduction for a male is generally meaningless to population rates unless the animal ultimately dies. M/SI have been modeled for this activity separately, and NMFS does not anticipate that these non-auditory injuries would result in mortality, for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="59023"/>
                        young or adults. The U.S. stock of California sea lion is considered stable. While the population trend of the California stock of harbor seal is decreasing, neither of these stocks are considered depleted or strategic, and total annual mortality is well below PBR for both stocks. Importantly, the increase in a pupping interval by a year would have far less of an impact on a population rate than a mortality would and, accordingly, the number of instances of foregone reproduction predicted here would not be expected to adversely affect this stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the likely severity of any single instance of take by behavioral disturbance, as described above, the majority of the predicted exposures are expected to be below 172 dB SPL and last from a few minutes to a few hours, at most, with associated responses most likely in the form of moving away from the source, foraging interruptions, vocalization changes, or disruption of other social behaviors, lasting from a few minutes to several hours. Pinnipeds are small-bodied (or small to medium-bodied) income breeders with a fast pace of life, but have a relatively lower energy requirement for their body size, which may moderate any impact due to foraging disruption. Further, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Group and Species-Specific Analyses</E>
                         section above and the Mitigation Measures section, mitigation measures are expected to further reduce the potential severity of impacts through real-time operational measures that minimize higher level/longer duration exposures and time/area measures that reduce impacts in high value habitat. In particular, this rulemaking includes a Hawaii Island Marine Mammal Mitigation Area and a Hawaii 4-Islands Marine Mammal Mitigation Area which will reduce exposure of Hawaiian monk seals to levels of sound that have the potential to cause injury or behavioral impacts, including within a portion of Hawaiian monk seal critical habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described above, in addition to evaluating the anticipated impacts of the single instances of takes, it is important to understand the degree to which individual marine mammals may be disturbed repeatedly across multiple days of the year. Given the number of takes by harassment as compared to the stock/species abundance alone (see table 64), and also in consideration of their movement pattern and whether take is concentrated in areas in which animals are known to congregate, it is unlikely that these individual pinnipeds would be taken on more than a limited number of days within a year (with the exception of California sea lion for which some individuals may be taken on a limited to moderate number of days within a year) and, therefore, the anticipated behavioral disturbance is not expected to affect reproduction or survival. However, given the variety of activity types that contribute to take across separate exercises conducted at different times and in different areas, and the fact that many result from transient activities conducted at sea, it is unlikely that repeated takes would occur either in numbers or clumped across sequential days in a manner likely to impact foraging success and energetics or other behaviors such that reproduction or survival of any individuals is likely to be impacted. Further, many of these stocks are migratory and apart from the small resident populations, there are no known foraging areas or other areas within which animals are known to congregate for important behaviors, and for most stocks, the predicted takes are not concentrated within a specific region and season.</P>
                    <P>Given the magnitude and severity of the take by harassment discussed above and any anticipated habitat impacts, and in consideration of the required mitigation measures and other information presented, the Action Proponents' activities are unlikely to result in impacts on the reproduction or survival of any individuals of pinniped stocks, with the exception of the three stocks for which takes by M/SI are predicted and the two stocks for which an increased pupping interval could potentially occur. Regarding the U.S. stock of California sea lion and California stock of harbor seal, as described above, we do not anticipate the relatively limited number of individuals that might be taken by non-auditory injury in a manner that results in a year of foregone reproduction to adversely affect the stock through effects on rates of recruitment or survival, given the status of the stocks. Regarding the U.S. stock of California sea lion, Mexico stock of Guadalupe fur seal, and California stock of harbor seal, as described in the Serious Injury and Mortality section, given the status of the stocks and in consideration of other ongoing anthropogenic mortality, the authorized M/SI take would not alone, nor in combination with the impacts of the take by harassment discussed above (which are not expected to impact the reproduction or survival of any individuals for those stocks), be expected to adversely affect rates of recruitment and survival. For these reasons, we have determined that the total take (considering annual maxima and across 7 years) anticipated and authorized will have a negligible impact on all pinniped species and stocks.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Determination</HD>
                    <P>Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activities on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the proposed monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS finds that the total marine mammal take from the specified activity will have a negligible impact on all affected marine mammal species or stocks.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unmitigable Adverse Impact Analysis and Determination</HD>
                    <P>There are no relevant subsistence uses of the affected marine mammal stocks or species implicated by this action. Therefore, NMFS has determined that the total taking of affected species or stocks will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for subsistence purposes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Classification</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Endangered Species Act</HD>
                    <P>There are 10 marine mammal species under NMFS jurisdiction that are listed as endangered or threatened under the ESA with confirmed or possible occurrence in the HCTT Study Area: blue whale, fin whale, gray whale, humpback whale, sei whale, sperm whale, killer whale, false killer whale, Guadalupe fur seal, and Hawaiian monk seal. The humpback whale (86 FR 21082, April 21, 2021), killer whale (71 FR 69054, November 29, 2006; revised August 2, 2021 (86 FR 41668)), false killer whale (83 FR 35062, July 24, 2018), and Hawaiian monk seal (51 FR 16047, April 30, 1986; revised in 1988 (53 FR 18988, May 26, 1988) and in 2015 (80 FR 50925, August 21, 2015)) have critical habitat designated under the ESA in the HCTT Study Area.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Action Proponents consulted with NMFS pursuant to section 7 of the ESA for HCTT activities, and NMFS also consulted internally on the promulgation of this rule and the issuance of LOAs under section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA. NMFS issued a biological and conference opinion concluding that the promulgation of the rule and issuance of subsequent LOAs are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of threatened and endangered species under NMFS' jurisdiction and are not likely to result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated or proposed 
                        <PRTPAGE P="59024"/>
                        critical habitat in the HCTT Study Area. The biological and conference opinion is available at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/incidental-take-authorizations-military-readiness-activities.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">National Marine Sanctuaries Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        Federal agency actions that are likely to injure sanctuary resources are subject to consultation with NOAA's Office of National Marine Sanctuaries (ONMS) under section 304(d) of the National Marine Sanctuaries Act (NMSA) (16 U.S.C. 1431 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>On June 3, 2025, NMFS and the Action Proponents jointly requested consultation with NOAA's ONMS to fulfill our responsibilities under the NMSA, as warranted. At that time, NMFS and the Action Proponents submitted a Sanctuary Resource Statement (SRS), as the Action Proponents concluded that their training and testing activities in the HCTT Study Area may incidentally expose sanctuary resources that reside within Channel Islands NMS, Chumash Heritage NMS, Cordell Bank NMS, Greater Farallones NMS, Monterey Bay NMS, Hawaiian Islands Humpback Whale NMS, and Papahānaumokuākea NMS to sound and other environmental stressors, and NMFS concluded that proposed MMPA regulations and associated LOAs that would allow the Action Proponents to incidentally take marine mammals include a subset of those impacts that could occur to NMS resources.</P>
                    <P>ONMS reviewed the SRS and found the SRS sufficient for the purposes of making an injury determination and developing recommended alternatives as required by the NMSA. On September 30, 2025, ONMS provided its injury determination and five recommended alternatives to minimize injury and to protect sanctuary resources. On October 20, 2025, NMFS and the Navy submitted a joint response to the ONMS recommended alternatives. Consultation under the NMSA is now concluded.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        To comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) and NOAA Administrative Order (NAO) 216-6A, NMFS must review our proposed actions with respect to potential impacts on the human environment. NMFS participated as a cooperating agency on the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS, which was made available to the public on October 3, 2025 (90 FR 52660), and is available at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nepa.navy.mil/hctteis/.</E>
                         NMFS independently reviewed and evaluated the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS and determined that it is adequate and sufficient to meet our responsibilities under NEPA for the issuance of this rule and associated LOAs. NOAA therefore, has adopted the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS. NMFS has prepared a separate Record of Decision. NMFS' Record of Decision for adoption of the 2025 HCTT EIS/OEIS and issuance of this final rule and subsequent LOAs can be found at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/incidental-take-authorizations-military-readiness-activities.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), the Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce has certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration during the proposed rule stage that this action would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The factual basis for the certification was published in the proposed rule and is not repeated here. No comments were received regarding this certification. As a result, a regulatory flexibility analysis was not required and none was prepared.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        This action does not contain any collection of information requirements for purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1980 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 12866</HD>
                    <P>The Office of Management and Budget has determined that this rule is not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 14192</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is not an Executive Order 14192 regulatory action because this rule is not significant under Executive Order 12866.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Waiver of Delay in Effective Date</HD>
                    <P>NMFS has determined that there is good cause under the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3)) to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this final rule. No individual or entity other than the Action Proponents are affected by the provisions of these regulations. The Action Proponents have requested that this final rule take effect on or before December 21, 2025, to accommodate the Navy's LOAs that expire on December 20, 2025, so as to not cause a disruption in training and testing activities. The waiver of the 30-day delay of the effective date of the final rule will ensure that the MMPA final rule and LOAs are in place by the time the previous authorizations expire. Any delay in effectiveness of the final rule would result in either: (1) a suspension of planned naval training and testing, which would disrupt vital training and testing essential to national security; or (2) the Action Proponents' procedural non-compliance with the MMPA (should the Action Proponents conduct training and testing without LOAs), thereby resulting in the potential for unauthorized takes of marine mammals. Moreover, the Action Proponents are ready to implement the regulations immediately. For these reasons, NMFS finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date. In addition, the rule authorizes incidental take of marine mammals that would otherwise be prohibited under the statute. Therefore, by granting an exception to the Action Proponents, the rule relieves restrictions under the MMPA, which provides a separate basis for waiving the 30-day effective date for the rule under section 553(d)(1) of the APA.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">List of Subjects in 50 CFR Part 218</HD>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Endangered and threatened species, Fish, Fisheries, Marine mammals, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation, Wildlife.</P>
                    <SIG>
                        <DATED>Dated: December 12, 2025.</DATED>
                        <NAME>Samuel D. Rauch III,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Administrator for Regulatory Programs, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                    <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, NMFS amends 50 CFR part 218 as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 218—REGULATIONS GOVERNING THE TAKING AND IMPORTING OF MARINE MAMMALS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="218">
                        <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 218 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P>
                                 16 U.S.C. 1361 
                                <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                            </P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="218">
                        <AMDPAR>2. Revise subpart H to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <CONTENTS>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart H—Taking and Importing Marine Mammals; Military Readiness Activities in the Hawaii-California Training and Testing Study Area</HD>
                                <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                                <SECTNO>218.70</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Specified activity and geographical region.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>218.71</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Effective dates.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>218.72</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Permissible methods of taking.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>218.73</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Prohibitions.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>218.74</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Mitigation requirements.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>218.75</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>
                                     Requirements for monitoring and reporting.
                                    <PRTPAGE P="59025"/>
                                </SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>218.76</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Letters of Authorization.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>218.77</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Modifications of Letters of Authorization.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>218.78-218.79</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> [Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                        </CONTENTS>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart H—Taking and Importing Marine Mammals; Military Readiness Activities in the Hawaii-California Training and Testing Study Area</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 218.70 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Specified activity and geographical region.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) Regulations in this subpart apply only to the U.S. Navy (including the U.S. Marine Corps; Navy), U.S. Coast Guard (Coast Guard), and U.S. Army (collectively referred to as the “Action Proponents”) for the taking of marine mammals that occurs in the area described in paragraph (b) of this section and that occurs incidental to the activities listed in paragraph (c) of this section. Requirements imposed on the Action Proponents must be implemented by those persons they authorize or fund to conduct activities on their behalf.</P>
                                <P>(b) The taking of marine mammals by the Action Proponents under this subpart may be authorized in letters of authorization (LOAs) only if it occurs within the Hawaii-California Training and Testing (HCTT) Study Area. The HCTT Study Area includes areas in the north-central Pacific Ocean, from California west to Hawaii and the International Date Line, and including the Hawaii Range Complex (HRC) and Temporary Operating Area (TOA), Southern California (SOCAL) Range Complex, Point Mugu Sea Range (PMSR), Silver Strand Training Complex, areas along the Southern California coastline from approximately Dana Point to Port Hueneme, and the Northern California (NOCAL) Range Complex. Also included in the HCTT Study Area are Navy pierside locations in Hawaii and Southern California, Pearl Harbor, San Diego Bay, and the transit corridor on the high seas where training and testing may occur. Figure 1 to this paragraph (b) shows the location of the HCTT Study Area.</P>
                                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="429">
                                    <GID>ER17DE25.218</GID>
                                </GPH>
                                <P>(c) The taking of marine mammals by the Action Proponents is only authorized if it occurs incidental to the Action Proponents conducting military readiness activities, including the following:</P>
                                <P>(1) Amphibious warfare;</P>
                                <P>(2) Anti-submarine warfare;</P>
                                <P>(3) Expeditionary warfare;</P>
                                <P>
                                    (4) Mine warfare;
                                    <PRTPAGE P="59026"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>(5) Surface warfare;</P>
                                <P>(6) Vessel evaluation;</P>
                                <P>(7) Unmanned systems;</P>
                                <P>(8) Acoustic and oceanographic science and technology;</P>
                                <P>(9) Vessel movement;</P>
                                <P>(10) Land-based launches; and</P>
                                <P>(11) Other training and testing activities.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 218.71 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Effective dates.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Regulations in this subpart are effective from December 21, 2025, through December 20, 2032.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 218.72 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Permissible methods of taking.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) Under LOAs issued pursuant to § 216.106 of this chapter and this subpart, the Action Proponents may incidentally, but not intentionally, take marine mammals within the area described in § 218.70(b) by Level A harassment and Level B harassment associated with the use of active sonar and other acoustic sources and explosives, as well as serious injury or mortality associated with vessel strikes and explosives, provided the activity is in compliance with all terms, conditions, and requirements of this subpart and the applicable LOAs.</P>
                                <P>(b) The incidental take of marine mammals by the activities listed in § 218.70(c) is limited to the following species:</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,r100">
                                    <TTITLE>
                                        Table 1 to Paragraph 
                                        <E T="01">(b)</E>
                                    </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">Stock</CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Gray whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Eastern North Pacific.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Gray whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Western North Pacific.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Blue whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Central North Pacific.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Blue whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Eastern North Pacific.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Bryde's whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Eastern Tropical Pacific.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Bryde's whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Fin whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Fin whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Humpback whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Central America/Southern Mexico—California-Oregon-Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Humpback whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Mainland Mexico—California-Oregon-Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Humpback whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Minke whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Minke whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Sei whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Sei whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Eastern North Pacific.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Sperm whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Sperm whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Dwarf sperm whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Dwarf sperm whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Pygmy sperm whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Pygmy sperm whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Baird's beaked whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Blainville's beaked whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Goose-beaked whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Goose-beaked whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Longman's beaked whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Mesoplodont beaked whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">False killer whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Main Hawaiian Islands Insular.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">False killer whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Northwest Hawaiian Islands.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">False killer whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii Pelagic.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">False killer whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Baja California Peninsula Mexico population.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Killer whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Killer whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Eastern North Pacific Offshore.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Killer whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>West Coast Transient.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Melon-headed whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaiian Islands.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Melon-headed whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Kohala Resident (Hawaii).</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Pygmy killer whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Pygmy killer whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California—Baja California Peninsula Mexico population.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Short-finned pilot whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Short-finned pilot whale</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Bottlenose dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Maui Nui.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Bottlenose dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii Island.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Bottlenose dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii Pelagic.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Bottlenose dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Kaua'i/Ni'ihau.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Bottlenose dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>O'ahu.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Bottlenose dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California Coastal.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Bottlenose dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington Offshore.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Fraser's dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Long-beaked common dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Northern right whale dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Pacific white-sided dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Pantropical spotted dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Maui Nui.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Pantropical spotted dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii Island.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Pantropical spotted dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii Pelagic.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Pantropical spotted dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>O'ahu.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Pantropical spotted dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Baja California Peninsula Mexico population.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Risso's dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <PRTPAGE P="59027"/>
                                        <ENT I="01">Risso's dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Rough-toothed dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Short-beaked common dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Spinner dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii Pelagic.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Spinner dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii Island.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Spinner dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Kaua'i/Ni'ihau.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Spinner dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>O'ahu/4 Islands Region.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Striped dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii Pelagic.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Striped dolphin</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Dall's porpoise</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California/Oregon/Washington.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Harbor porpoise</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Monterey Bay.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Harbor porpoise</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Morro Bay.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Harbor porpoise</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Northern California/Southern Oregon.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Harbor porpoise</ENT>
                                        <ENT>San Francisco/Russian River.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">California sea lion</ENT>
                                        <ENT>U.S.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Guadalupe fur seal</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Mexico.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Northern fur seal</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Eastern Pacific.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Northern fur seal</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Steller sea lion</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Eastern.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Harbor seal</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Hawaiian monk seal</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Hawaii.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Northern elephant seal</ENT>
                                        <ENT>California Breeding.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 218.73 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Prohibitions.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Except incidental take described in § 218.72 and authorized by a LOA issued under this subpart, it shall be unlawful for any person to do the following in connection with the activities described in this subpart:</P>
                                <P>(a) Violate, or fail to comply with, the terms, conditions, and requirements of this subpart or an LOA issued under § 216.106 of this chapter and this subpart;</P>
                                <P>(b) Take any marine mammal not specified in § 218.72(b);</P>
                                <P>(c) Take any marine mammal specified in § 218.72(b) in any manner other than as specified in the LOAs; or</P>
                                <P>(d) Take a marine mammal specified in § 218.72(b) after NMFS determines such taking results in more than a negligible impact on the species or stock of such marine mammal.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 218.74 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Mitigation requirements.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) When conducting the activities identified in § 218.70(c), the mitigation measures contained in this section and any LOA issued under this subpart must be implemented by Action Proponent personnel or contractors who are trained according to the requirements in the LOA. If Action Proponent contractors are serving on behalf of Action Proponent personnel, Action Proponent contractors must follow the mitigation applicable to Action Proponent personnel. These mitigation measures include, but are not limited to:</P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) 
                                    <E T="03">Activity-based mitigation.</E>
                                     Activity-based mitigation is mitigation that the Action Proponents must implement whenever and wherever an applicable military readiness activity takes place within the HCTT Study Area. The Action Proponents must implement the mitigation described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (xxii) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(xxiii) of this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) 
                                    <E T="03">Active acoustic sources with power down and shut down capabilities.</E>
                                     For active acoustic sources with power down and shutdown capabilities (low-frequency active sonar ≥200 decibels (dB), mid-frequency active sonar sources that are hull mounted on a surface ship (including surfaced submarines), and broadband and other active acoustic sources &gt;200 dB):
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During use of active acoustic sources with power down and shutdown capabilities, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Within 1,000 yards (yd) (914.4 meters (m)) from a marine mammal, Action Proponent personnel must power down active acoustic sources by 6 dB total.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Within 500 yd (457.2 m) from a marine mammal, Action Proponent personnel must power down active acoustic sources by an additional 4 dB (10 dB total).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) Within 200 yd (182.9 m) from a marine mammal, Action Proponent personnel must shut down active acoustic sources.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout in or on one of the following: aircraft; pierside, moored, or anchored vessel; underway vessel with space/crew restrictions (including small boats); or underway vessel already participating in the event that is escorting (and has positive control over sources used, deployed, or towed by) an unmanned platform.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Two Lookouts on an underway vessel without space or crew restrictions.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) Lookouts must use information from passive acoustic detections to inform visual observations when passive acoustic devices are already being used in the event.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the applicable mitigation zone for marine mammals and floating vegetation immediately prior to the initial start of using active acoustic sources (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     while maneuvering on station).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the applicable mitigation zone for marine mammals during use of active acoustic sources.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing or powering up active sonar transmission). The wait period for this activity is 30 minutes for activities conducted from vessels and for activities conducted by aircraft that are not fuel constrained and 10 minutes for activities involving aircraft that are fuel constrained (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     rotary-wing aircraft).
                                    <PRTPAGE P="59028"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Active acoustic sources with shut down capabilities only (no power down capability).</E>
                                     For active acoustic sources with shut down capabilities only (no power down capability) (low-frequency active sonar &lt;200 dB, mid-frequency active sonar sources that are not hull mounted on a surface ship (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     dipping sonar, towed arrays), high-frequency active sonar, air guns, and broadband and other active acoustic sources &lt;200 dB):
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During use of active acoustic sources with shut down capabilities only, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) At 200 yd (182.9 m) from a marine mammal, Action Proponent personnel must shut down active acoustic sources.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout in or on one of the following: aircraft; pierside, moored, or anchored vessel; underway vessel with space/crew restrictions (including small boats); or underway vessel already participating in the event that is escorting (and has positive control over sources used, deployed, or towed by) an unmanned platform.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Two Lookouts on an underway vessel without space or crew restrictions.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) Lookouts must use information from passive acoustic detections to inform visual observations when passive acoustic devices are already being used in the event.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the applicable mitigation zone for marine mammals and floating vegetation immediately prior to the initial start of using active acoustic sources (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     while maneuvering on station).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the applicable mitigation zone for marine mammals during use of active acoustic sources.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing or powering up active sonar transmission). The wait period for this activity is 30 minutes for activities conducted from vessels and for activities conducted by aircraft that are not fuel constrained and 10 minutes for activities involving aircraft that are fuel constrained (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     rotary-wing aircraft).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (iii) 
                                    <E T="03">Pile driving and extraction.</E>
                                     For pile driving and extraction:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During vibratory and impact pile driving and extraction, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease pile driving or extraction if a marine mammal is sighted within 5 yd (4.6 m) of a pile being driven or extracted.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout in or on one of the following: shore, pier, or small boat.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals and floating vegetation for 15 minutes prior to the initial start of pile driving or pile extraction.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action proponent personnel must use soft start standard operating procedures when impact pile driving. Soft start requires the Action Proponent to conduct three sets of strikes (three strikes per set) at reduced hammer energy with a 30-second waiting period between each set. A soft start must be implemented at the start of each day's impact pile driving and at any time following cessation of impact pile driving for a period of 30 minutes or longer.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals during pile driving or extraction.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing vibratory or impact pile driving or extraction). The wait period for this activity is 15 minutes.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (iv) 
                                    <E T="03">Weapons firing noise.</E>
                                     For weapons firing noise:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During explosive and non-explosive large-caliber (57 millimeter (mm) and larger) gunnery firing noise (surface-to-surface and surface-to-air), the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease weapons firing if a marine mammal is sighted within 30 degrees on either side of the firing line out to 70 yd (64 m) from the gun muzzle (cease fire).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout on a vessel.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals and floating vegetation immediately prior to the initial start of large-caliber gun firing (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     during target deployment).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals during large-caliber gun firing.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing explosive and non-explosive large-caliber gunnery firing noise (surface-to-surface and surface-to-air)). The wait period for this activity is 30 minutes.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (v) 
                                    <E T="03">Explosive bombs.</E>
                                     For explosive bombs:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During the use of explosive bombs of any net explosive weight (NEW), the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease use of explosive bombs if a marine mammal is sighted within 2,500 yd (2,286 m) from the intended target.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout in an aircraft.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the applicable mitigation zone for marine mammals and floating vegetation immediately prior to the initial start of bomb delivery (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     when arriving on station).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the applicable mitigation zone for marine mammals during bomb delivery. If a marine mammal is visibly injured or killed as a result of detonation, use of explosives in the event must be suspended immediately.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) After the event, when practical, Action Proponent personnel must 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="59029"/>
                                    observe the detonation vicinity for injured or dead marine mammals. If any injured or dead marine mammals are observed, Action Proponent personnel must follow established incident reporting procedures (the Notification and Reporting Plan is available at 
                                    <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/incidental-take-authorizations-military-readiness-activities</E>
                                    ).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing use of explosive bombs of any NEW). The wait period for this activity is 10 minutes.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (vi) 
                                    <E T="03">Explosive gunnery.</E>
                                     For explosive gunnery:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During air-to-surface medium-caliber (larger than 50 caliber and less than 57 mm), surface-to-surface medium-caliber, and surface-to-surface large-caliber explosive gunnery, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease use of air-to-surface medium-caliber ordnance if a marine mammal is sighted within 200 yd (182.9 m) of the intended impact location.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease use of surface-to-surface medium-caliber ordnance if a marine mammal is sighted within 600 yd (548.6 m) of the intended impact location.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease use of surface-to-surface large-caliber ordnance if a marine mammal is sighted within 1,000 yd (914.4 m) of the intended impact location.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout on a vessel or in an aircraft.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the applicable mitigation zone for marine mammals and floating vegetation immediately prior to the initial start of gun firing (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     while maneuvering on station).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the applicable mitigation zone for marine mammals during gunnery fire. If a marine mammal is visibly injured or killed as a result of detonation, use of explosives in the event must be suspended immediately.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) After the event, when practical, Action Proponent personnel must observe the detonation vicinity for injured or dead marine mammals. If any injured or dead marine mammals are observed, Action Proponent personnel must follow established incident reporting procedures.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing air-to-surface medium-caliber, surface-to-surface medium-caliber, surface-to-surface large-caliber explosive gunnery). The wait period for this activity is 30 minutes for activities conducted from vessels and for activities conducted by aircraft that are not fuel constrained and 10 minutes for activities involving aircraft that are fuel constrained (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     rotary-wing aircraft, fighter aircraft).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (vii) 
                                    <E T="03">Explosive underwater demolition multiple charge—mat weave and obstacle loading.</E>
                                     For explosive underwater demolition multiple charge—mat weave and obstacle loading:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During the use of explosive underwater demolition multiple charge—mat weave and obstacle loading of any NEW, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease explosive underwater demolition multiple charge—mat weave and obstacle loading if a marine mammal is sighted within 700 yd (640 m) of the detonation site.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Two Lookouts, one on a small boat and one on shore from an elevated platform.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) The Lookout positioned on a small boat must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals and floating vegetation for 30 minutes prior to the first detonation.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) The Lookout positioned on shore must use binoculars to observe for marine mammals for 10 minutes prior to the first detonation.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals during detonations. If a marine mammal is visibly injured or killed as a result of detonation, use of explosives in the event must be suspended immediately.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">4</E>
                                    ) After the event, when practical, Action Proponent personnel must observe the detonation vicinity for injured or dead marine mammals. If any injured or dead marine mammals are observed, Action Proponent personnel must follow established incident reporting procedures.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing use of explosive underwater demolition multiple charge—mat weave and obstacle loading of any NEW). The wait period for this activity is 10 minutes (determined by the Lookout on shore).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (viii) 
                                    <E T="03">Explosive mine countermeasure and neutralization (no divers).</E>
                                     For explosive mine countermeasure and neutralization (no divers):
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During explosive mine countermeasure and neutralization using 0.1-5 pound (lb) (0.05-2.3 kilogram (kg)) NEW and &gt;5 lb (2.3 kg) NEW, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease use of 0.1-5 lb (0.05-2.3 kg) NEW if a marine mammal is sighted within 600 yd (548.6 m) from the detonation site.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease use of &gt;5 lb (2.3 kg) NEW if a marine mammal is sighted within 2,100 yd (1,920.2 m) from the detonation site.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout on a vessel or in an aircraft during 0.1-5 lb (0.05-2.3 kg) NEW use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Two Lookouts, one on a small boat and one in an aircraft during &gt;5 lb (2.3 kg) NEW use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the applicable mitigation zone for marine mammals and floating vegetation immediately prior to the initial start of detonations (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     while maneuvering on station; typically, 10 or 30 minutes depending on fuel constraints).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the applicable mitigation zone for marine mammals, concentrations of 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="59030"/>
                                    seabirds, and individual foraging seabirds (in the water and not on shore) during detonations or fuse initiation. If a marine mammal is visibly injured or killed as a result of detonation, use of explosives in the event must be suspended immediately.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) After the event, when practical, Action Proponent personnel must observe the detonation vicinity for 10 or 30 minutes (depending on fuel constraints) for injured or dead marine mammals. If any injured or dead marine mammals are observed, Action Proponent personnel must follow established incident reporting procedures.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing explosive mine countermeasure and neutralization using 0.1-5 pound (lb) (0.05-2.3 kilogram (kg)) NEW and &gt;5 lb (2.3 kg) NEW). The wait period for this activity is 30 minutes for activities conducted from vessels and for activities conducted by aircraft that are not fuel constrained and 10 minutes for activities involving aircraft that are fuel constrained (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     rotary-wing aircraft).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ix) 
                                    <E T="03">Explosive mine neutralization (with divers).</E>
                                     For explosive mine neutralization (with divers):
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During explosive mine neutralization (with divers) using 0.1-20 lb (0.05-9.1 kg) NEW (positive control), 0.1-29 lb (0.05-13.2 kg) NEW (time-delay), and &gt;20-60 lb (9.1-27.2 kg) NEW (positive control), the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease use of 0.1-20 lb (0.05-9.1 kg) NEW (positive control) if a marine mammal is sighted within 500 yd (457.2 m) of the detonation site (cease fire).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease use of 0.1-29 lb (0.05-13.2 kg) NEW (time-delay) and &gt;20-60 lb (9.1-27.2 kg) NEW (positive control) if a marine mammal is sighted within 1,000 yd (914.4 m) of the detonation site (cease fire).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Lookouts in two small boats (one Lookout per boat), or one small boat and one rotary-wing aircraft (with one Lookout each), and one Lookout on shore for shallow-water events during use of 0.1-20 lb (0.05-9.1 kg) NEW (positive control).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Four Lookouts in two small boats (two Lookouts per boat) and one additional Lookout in an aircraft if used in the event during use of 0.1-29 lb (0.05-13.2 kg) NEW (time-delay) and &gt;20-60 lb (9.1-27.2 kg) NEW (positive control).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Time-delay devices must be set not to exceed 10 minutes.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the applicable mitigation zone for marine mammals and floating vegetation immediately prior to the initial start of detonations or fuse initiation for positive control events (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     while maneuvering on station) or for 30 minutes prior for time-delay events.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the applicable mitigation zone for marine mammals, concentrations of seabirds, and individual foraging seabirds (in the water and not on shore) during detonations or fuse initiation. If a marine mammal is visibly injured or killed as a result of detonation, use of explosives in the event must be suspended immediately.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">4</E>
                                    ) When practical based on mission, safety, and environmental conditions: (
                                    <E T="03">i</E>
                                    ) Boats must observe from the mitigation zone radius mid-point.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">ii</E>
                                    ) When two boats are used, boats must observe from opposite sides of the mine location.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">iii</E>
                                    ) Platforms must travel a circular pattern around the mine location.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">iv</E>
                                    ) Boats must have one Lookout observe inward toward the mine location and one Lookout observe outward toward the mitigation zone perimeter.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">v</E>
                                    ) Divers must be part of the Lookout Team.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">5</E>
                                    ) After the event, when practical, Action Proponent personnel must observe the detonation vicinity for 30 minutes for injured or dead marine mammals. If any injured or dead marine mammals are observed, Action Proponent personnel must follow established incident reporting procedures.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing explosive mine neutralization (with divers) using 0.1-20 lb (0.05-9.1 kg) NEW (positive control), 0.1-29 lb (0.05-13.2 kg) NEW (time-delay), and &gt;20-60 lb (9.1-27.2 kg) NEW (positive control)). The wait period for this activity is 30 minutes for activities conducted from vessels and for activities conducted by aircraft that are not fuel constrained and 10 minutes for activities involving aircraft that are fuel constrained (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     rotary-wing aircraft).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (x) 
                                    <E T="03">Explosive missiles and rockets.</E>
                                     For explosive missiles and rockets:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During the use of explosive missiles and rockets using 0.6-20 lb (0.3-9.1 kg) NEW (air-to-surface) and &gt;20-500 lb (9.1-226.8 kg) NEW (air-to-surface), the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease use of 0.6-20 lb (0.3-9.1 kg) NEW (air-to-surface) if a marine mammal is sighted within 900 yd (823 m) of the intended impact location (cease fire).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease use of &gt;20-500 lb (9.1-226.8 kg) NEW (air-to-surface) if a marine mammal is sighted within 2,000 yd (1,828.8 m) of the intended impact location (cease fire).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout in an aircraft.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the applicable mitigation zone for marine mammals and floating vegetation immediately prior to the initial start of missile or rocket delivery (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     during a fly-over of the mitigation zone).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the applicable mitigation zone for marine mammals during missile or rocket delivery. If a marine mammal is visibly injured or killed as a result of detonation, use of explosives in the event must be suspended immediately.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) After the event, when practical, Action Proponent personnel must observe the detonation vicinity for injured or dead marine mammals. If any injured or dead marine mammals are observed, Action Proponent personnel must follow established incident reporting procedures.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing use of explosive missiles and rockets using 0.6-20 lb (0.3-9.1 kg) 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="59031"/>
                                    NEW (air-to-surface) and &gt;20-500 lb (9.1-226.8 kg) NEW (air-to-surface)). The wait period for this activity is 30 minutes for activities conducted by aircraft that are not fuel constrained and 10 minutes for activities involving aircraft that are fuel constrained (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     rotary-wing aircraft, fighter aircraft).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (xi) 
                                    <E T="03">Explosive sonobuoys and research-based sub-surface explosives.</E>
                                     For explosive sonobuoys and research-based sub-surface explosives:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During the use of explosive sonobuoys and research-based sub-surface explosives using any NEW of sonobuoys and 0.1-5 lb (0.05-2.3 kg) NEW for other types of sub-surface explosives used in research applications, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease use of any NEW of sonobuoys and 0.1-5 lb (0.05-2.3 kg) NEW for other types of sub-surface explosives used in research applications if a marine mammal is sighted within 600 yd (548.6 m) of the device or detonation sites (cease fire).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout on a small boat or in an aircraft.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Conduct passive acoustic monitoring for marine mammals; use information from detections to assist visual observations.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals and floating vegetation immediately prior to the initial start of detonations (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     during sonobuoy deployment, which typically lasts 20-30 minutes).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals during detonations. If a marine mammal is visibly injured or killed as a result of detonation, use of explosives in the event must be suspended immediately.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) After the event, when practical, Action Proponent personnel must observe the detonation vicinity for injured or dead marine mammals. If any injured or dead marine mammals are observed, Action Proponent personnel must follow established incident reporting procedures.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing use of explosive sonobuoys and research-based sub-surface explosives using any NEW of sonobuoys and 0.1-5 lb (0.05-2.3 kg) NEW for other types of sub-surface explosives used in research applications). The wait period for this activity is 30 minutes for activities conducted from vessels and for activities conducted by aircraft that are not fuel constrained and 10 minutes for activities involving aircraft that are fuel constrained (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     rotary-wing aircraft).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (xii) 
                                    <E T="03">Explosive torpedoes.</E>
                                     For explosive torpedoes:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During the use of explosive torpedoes of any NEW, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease use of explosive torpedoes of any NEW if a marine mammal is sighted within 2,100 yd (1,920.2 m) of the intended impact location.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout in an aircraft.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Conduct passive acoustic monitoring for marine mammals; use information from detections to assist visual observations.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals, floating vegetation, and jellyfish aggregations immediately prior to the initial start of detonations (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     during target deployment).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals and jellyfish aggregations during torpedo launches. If a marine mammal is visibly injured or killed as a result of detonation, use of explosives in the event must be suspended immediately.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) After the event, when practical, Action Proponent personnel must observe the detonation vicinity for injured or dead marine mammals. If any injured or dead marine mammals are observed, Action Proponent personnel must follow established incident reporting procedures.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing use of explosive torpedoes of any NEW). The wait period for this activity is 30 minutes for activities conducted from vessels and for activities conducted by aircraft that are not fuel constrained and 10 minutes for activities involving aircraft that are fuel constrained (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     rotary-wing aircraft, fighter aircraft).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (xiii) 
                                    <E T="03">Ship shock trials.</E>
                                     For ship shock trials:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During ship shock trials using any NEW, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease ship shock trials of any NEW if a marine mammal is sighted within 3.5 nmi (6.5 km) of the target ship hull (cease fire).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) On the day of the event, 10 observers (Lookouts and third-party observers combined), spread between aircraft or multiple vessels as specified in the event-specific mitigation plan.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must develop a detailed, event-specific monitoring and mitigation plan in the year prior to the event and provide it to NMFS for review.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Beginning at first light on days of detonation, until the moment of detonation (as allowed by safety measures) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals, floating vegetation, jellyfish aggregations, large schools of fish, and flocks of seabirds.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) If any injured or dead marine mammals are observed after an individual detonation, Action Proponent personnel must follow established incident reporting procedures and halt any remaining detonations until Action Proponent personnel consults with NMFS and review or adapt the event-specific mitigation plan, if necessary.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">4</E>
                                    ) During the 2 days following the event (minimum) and up to 7 days following the event (maximum), and as specified in the event-specific mitigation plan, Action Proponent personnel must observe the detonation vicinity for injured or dead marine mammals.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="59032"/>
                                    conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing ship shock trials). The wait period for this activity is 30 minutes.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (xiv) 
                                    <E T="03">Sinking exercises.</E>
                                     For Sinking Exercises (SINKEX):
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During SINKEX using any NEW, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease SINKEX of any NEW if a marine mammal is sighted within 2.5 nmi (4.6 km) of the target ship hull (cease fire).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Two Lookouts, one on a vessel and one in an aircraft.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Conduct passive acoustic monitoring for marine mammals; use information from detections to assist visual observations.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) During aerial observations for 90 minutes prior to the initial start of weapon firing, Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals, floating vegetation, and jellyfish aggregations.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) From the vessel during weapon firing, and from the aircraft and vessel immediately after planned or unplanned breaks in weapon firing of more than 2 hours, Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals. If a marine mammal is visibly injured or killed as a result of detonation, use of explosives in the event must be suspended immediately.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the detonation vicinity for injured or dead marine mammals for 2 hours after sinking the vessel or until sunset, whichever comes first. If any injured or dead marine mammals are observed, Action Proponent personnel must follow established incident reporting procedures.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing SINKEX). The wait period for this activity is 30 minutes.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (xv) 
                                    <E T="03">Non-explosive aerial-deployed mines and bombs.</E>
                                     For non-explosive aerial-deployed mines and bombs:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During the use of non-explosive aerial-deployed mines and non-explosive bombs, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease using non-explosive aerial-deployed mines and non-explosive bombs if a marine mammal is sighted within 1,000 yd (914.4 m) of the intended target (cease fire).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout in an aircraft.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals and floating vegetation immediately prior to the initial start of mine or bomb delivery (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     when arriving on station).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals during mine or bomb delivery.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing use of non-explosive aerial-deployed mines and non-explosive bombs). The wait period for this activity is 10 minutes.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (xvi) 
                                    <E T="03">Non-explosive gunnery.</E>
                                     For non-explosive gunnery:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During the use of non-explosive surface-to-surface large-caliber ordnance, non-explosive surface-to-surface and air-to-surface medium-caliber ordnance, and non-explosive surface-to-surface and air-to-surface small-caliber ordnance, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease non-explosive surface-to-surface large-caliber ordnance, non-explosive surface-to-surface and air-to-surface medium-caliber ordnance, and non-explosive surface-to-surface and air-to-surface small-caliber ordnance use if a marine mammal is sighted within 200 yd (182.9 m) of the intended impact location (cease fire).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout on a vessel or in an aircraft.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals and floating vegetation immediately prior to the start of gun firing (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     while maneuvering on station).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals during gunnery firing.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing use of non-explosive surface-to-surface large-caliber ordnance, non-explosive surface-to-surface and air-to-surface medium-caliber ordnance, and non-explosive surface-to-surface and air-to-surface small-caliber ordnance). The wait period for this activity is 30 minutes for activities conducted from vessels and for activities conducted by aircraft that are not fuel constrained and 10 minutes for activities involving aircraft that are fuel constrained (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     rotary-wing aircraft, fighter aircraft).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (xvii) 
                                    <E T="03">Non-explosive missiles and rockets.</E>
                                     For non-explosive missiles and rockets:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During the use of non-explosive missiles and rockets (air-to-surface), the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must cease use of non-explosive missile and rocket (air-to-surface) if a marine mammal is sighted within 900 yd (823 m) of the intended impact location.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout in an aircraft.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals and floating vegetation immediately prior to the start of missile or rocket delivery (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     during a fly-over of the mitigation zone).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals during missile or rocket delivery.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="59033"/>
                                    Proponent personnel must ensure one of the commencement or recommencement conditions in paragraph (a)(1)(xxii) of this section is met prior to the initial start of the activity (by delaying the start) or during the activity (by not recommencing use of non-explosive missiles and rockets (air-to-surface)). The wait period for this activity is 30 minutes for activities conducted by aircraft that are not fuel constrained and 10 minutes for activities involving aircraft that are fuel constrained (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     rotary-wing aircraft, fighter aircraft).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (xviii) 
                                    <E T="03">Manned surface vessels.</E>
                                     For manned surface vessels:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During the use of manned surface vessels, including surfaced submarines, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Underway manned surface vessels must maneuver themselves (which may include reducing speed) to maintain the following distances as mission and circumstances allow:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">i</E>
                                    ) 500 yd (457.2 m) from whales.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">ii</E>
                                    ) 200 yd (182.9 m) from other marine mammals.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One or more Lookouts on manned underway surface vessels in accordance with the most recent navigation safety instruction.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals immediately prior to manned surface vessels getting underway and while underway.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (xix) 
                                    <E T="03">Unmanned vehicles.</E>
                                     For unmanned vehicles:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During the use of unmanned surface vehicles and unmanned underwater vehicles already being escorted (and operated under positive control) by a manned surface support vessel, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) A surface support vessel that is already participating in the event, and has positive control over the unmanned vehicle, must maneuver the unmanned vehicle (which may include reducing its speed) to ensure it maintains the following distances as mission and circumstances allow:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">i</E>
                                    ) 500 yd (457.2 m) from whales.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">ii</E>
                                    ) 200 yd (182.9 m) from other marine mammals.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout on a surface support vessel that is already participating in the event, and has positive control over the unmanned vehicle.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals immediately prior to unmanned vehicles getting underway and while underway.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (xx) 
                                    <E T="03">Towed in-water devices.</E>
                                     For towed in-water devices:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During the use of in-water devices towed by an aircraft, a manned surface vessel, or an unmanned surface vehicle or unmanned underwater vehicle already being escorted (and operated under positive control) by a manned surface vessel, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Manned towing platforms, or surface support vessels already participating in the event that have positive control over an unmanned vehicle that is towing an in-water device, must maneuver itself or the unmanned vehicle (which may include reducing speed) to ensure towed in-water devices maintain the following distances as mission and circumstances allow:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">i</E>
                                    ) 250 yd (228.6 m) from marine mammals.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">ii</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout on the manned towing vessel or aircraft, or on a surface support vessel that is already participating in the event and has positive control over an unmanned vehicle that is towing an in-water device.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals immediately prior to and while in-water devices are being towed.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (xxi) 
                                    <E T="03">Net deployment.</E>
                                     For net deployment:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zones and requirements.</E>
                                     During net deployment for testing of an Unmanned Underwater Vehicle, the following mitigation zone requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) If a marine mammal is sighted within 500 yd (457.2 m) of the deployment location, the support vessel will:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">i</E>
                                    ) Delay deployment of nets until the mitigation zone has been clear for 15 minutes.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">ii</E>
                                    ) Recover nets if they are deployed.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Lookout requirements.</E>
                                     The following Lookout requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) One Lookout on the support vessel.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) [Reserved]
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Mitigation zone observation.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zones in accordance with the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Action Proponent personnel must observe the mitigation zone for marine mammals for 15 minutes prior to the deployment of nets and while nets are deployed.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Nets must be deployed during daylight hours only.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (xxii) 
                                    <E T="03">Commencement or recommencement conditions.</E>
                                     Action Proponents must not commence or recommence an activity after a marine mammal is observed within a relevant mitigation zone until one of the following conditions has been met:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Observed exiting.</E>
                                     A Lookout observes the animal exiting the mitigation zone;
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Concluded to have exited.</E>
                                     A Lookout concludes that the animal has exited the mitigation zone based on its observed course, speed, and movement relative to the mitigation zone;
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Clear from additional sightings.</E>
                                     A Lookout affirms the mitigation zone has been clear from additional sightings for the activity-specific wait period; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Platform or target transit.</E>
                                     For mobile events, the platform or target has transited a distance equal to double the mitigation zone size beyond the location of the last sighting.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (xxiii) 
                                    <E T="03">Exceptions to activity-based mitigation for acoustic and explosive stressors and non-explosive ordnance.</E>
                                     Activity-based mitigation for acoustic and explosive stressors and non-explosive ordnance will not apply to:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Not operated under positive control.</E>
                                     Acoustic sources not operated under positive control (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     moored oceanographic sources);
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Safety of navigation.</E>
                                     Acoustic sources used for safety of navigation (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     fathometers);
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Aircraft operating at high altitudes.</E>
                                     Acoustic sources used or deployed by aircraft operating at high altitudes (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     sonobuoys deployed from high altitude (since personnel cannot effectively observe the surface of the water));
                                    <PRTPAGE P="59034"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Unmanned platforms.</E>
                                     Acoustic sources used, deployed, or towed by unmanned platforms except when escort vessels are already participating in the event and have positive control over the source;
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (E) 
                                    <E T="03">Submerged submarines.</E>
                                     Acoustic sources used by submerged submarines (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     sonar (since personnel cannot conduct visual observation));
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (F) 
                                    <E T="03">De minimis sources.</E>
                                     De minimis acoustic sources (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     those &gt;200 kilohertz);
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (G) 
                                    <E T="03">Unattended sources.</E>
                                     Unattended sources, including those used for acoustic and oceanographic research;
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (H) 
                                    <E T="03">Bow- or wake-riding.</E>
                                     Vessel-based, unmanned vehicle-based, or towed in-water acoustic sources when marine mammals (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     dolphins) are determined to be intentionally swimming at the bow or alongside or directly behind the vessel, vehicle, or device (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     to bow-ride or wake-ride);
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (I) 
                                    <E T="03">Aircraft operating at high altitudes.</E>
                                     Explosives deployed by aircraft operating at high altitudes (
                                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                     altitudes at which marine mammals on the surface cannot be distinguished);
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (J) 
                                    <E T="03">Submerged submarines.</E>
                                     Explosives deployed by submerged submarines, except for explosive torpedoes;
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (K) 
                                    <E T="03">Aerial targets.</E>
                                     Explosives deployed against aerial targets;
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (L) 
                                    <E T="03">Vessel-launched or shore-launched missile or rocket events.</E>
                                     Explosives during vessel-launched or shore-launched missile or rocket events;
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (M) 
                                    <E T="03">De minimis.</E>
                                     Explosives used at or below the de minimis threshold (≤0.1 lb (0.05 kg) NEW);
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (N) 
                                    <E T="03">Unmanned platforms.</E>
                                     Explosives deployed by unmanned platforms except when escort vessels are already participating in the event and have positive control over the explosive;
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (O) 
                                    <E T="03">Aircraft operating at high altitudes.</E>
                                     Non-explosive ordnance deployed by aircraft operating at high altitudes (
                                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                     altitudes at which marine mammals on the surface cannot be distinguished);
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (P) 
                                    <E T="03">Aerial targets and land-based targets.</E>
                                     Non-explosive ordnance deployed against aerial targets and land-based targets;
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (Q) 
                                    <E T="03">Vessel-launched or shore-launched missile or rocket events.</E>
                                     Non-explosive ordnance deployed during vessel- or shore-launched missile or rocket events; and
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (R) 
                                    <E T="03">Unmanned platforms.</E>
                                     Non-explosive ordnance deployed by unmanned platforms except when escort vessels are already participating in the event and have positive control over ordnance deployment.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (xxiv) 
                                    <E T="03">Exceptions to activity-based mitigation for physical disturbance and strike stressors.</E>
                                     Activity-based mitigation for physical disturbance and strike stressors will not be implemented:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Submerged submarines.</E>
                                     By submerged submarines;
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Unmanned vehicles.</E>
                                     By unmanned vehicles except when escort vessels are already participating in the event and have positive control over the unmanned vehicle movements;
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Bow- or wake-riding.</E>
                                     When marine mammals (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     dolphins) are determined to be intentionally swimming at the bow, alongside the vessel or vehicle, or directly behind the vessel or vehicle (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     to bow-ride or wake-ride);
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Hauled out pinnipeds.</E>
                                     When pinnipeds are hauled out on man-made navigational structures, port structures, and vessels;
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (E) 
                                    <E T="03">Cable laying.</E>
                                     By manned surface vessels and towed in-water devices actively participating in cable laying during Modernization &amp; Sustainment of Ranges activities; and
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (F) 
                                    <E T="03">Mission requirements.</E>
                                     When impractical based on mission requirements (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     during certain aspects of amphibious exercises).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Geographic mitigation areas.</E>
                                     The Action Proponents must implement the geographic mitigation requirements described in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (xi) of this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) 
                                    <E T="03">Hawaii Island marine mammal mitigation area.</E>
                                     Figure 1 to this paragraph (a)(2) shows the location of the mitigation areas. Within the Hawaii Island marine mammal mitigation area, the following requirements apply (year-round):
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Surface ship hull-mounted mid-frequency active sonar.</E>
                                     The Action Proponents must not use more than 300 combined hours of MF1 (regular duty cycle) and MF1C (continuous duty cycle) surface ship hull-mounted mid-frequency active sonar or 20 hours of helicopter dipping sonar (a mid-frequency active sonar source) annually within the mitigation area.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">In-water explosives.</E>
                                     The Action Proponents must not detonate in-water explosives (including underwater explosives and explosives deployed against surface targets) within the mitigation area.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Hawaii 4-Islands marine mammal mitigation area.</E>
                                     Figure 1 to this paragraph (a)(2) shows the location of the mitigation areas. Within the Hawaii 4-Islands marine mammal mitigation area, the following requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Surface ship hull-mounted mid-frequency active sonar.</E>
                                     From November 15-April 15, the Action Proponents must not use MF1 or MF1C surface ship hull-mounted mid-frequency active sonar within the mitigation area.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">In-water explosives.</E>
                                     The Action Proponents must not detonate in-water explosives (including underwater explosives and explosives deployed against surface targets) within the mitigation area (year-round).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (iii) 
                                    <E T="03">Hawaii humpback whale special reporting mitigation area.</E>
                                     Figure 1 to this paragraph (a)(2) shows the location of the mitigation areas. Within the Hawaii humpback whale special reporting mitigation area, the following requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Surface ship hull-mounted mid-frequency active sonar.</E>
                                     The Action Proponents must report the total hours of MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted mid-frequency active sonar used from November through May in the mitigation area in their training and testing activity reports submitted to NMFS.
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) [Reserved]</P>
                                <P>
                                    (iv) 
                                    <E T="03">Hawaii humpback whale awareness notification mitigation area.</E>
                                     Figure 1 to this paragraph (a)(2) shows the location of the mitigation areas. Within the Hawaii humpback whale awareness notification mitigation area, the following requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Hawaii humpback whale awareness notification mitigation area notifications.</E>
                                     The Action Proponents must broadcast awareness messages to alert applicable assets (and their Lookouts) transiting and training or testing in the Hawaii Range Complex to the possible presence of concentrations of humpback whales from November through May.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Visual observations.</E>
                                     Lookouts must use that knowledge to help inform their visual observations during military readiness activities that involve vessel movements, active sonar, in-water explosives (including underwater explosives and explosives deployed against surface targets), or the deployment of non-explosive ordnance against surface targets in the mitigation area.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (v) 
                                    <E T="03">Northern California large whale mitigation area.</E>
                                     Figure 2 to this paragraph (a)(2) shows the location of the mitigation areas. Within the Northern California large whale mitigation area, the following requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Surface ship hull-mounted mid-frequency active sonar.</E>
                                     From June 1-October 31, the Action Proponents must not use more than 300 combined hours of MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted mid-frequency active sonar (excluding normal maintenance and systems checks) total during training and testing within the combination of 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="59035"/>
                                    this mitigation area, the Central California large whale mitigation area, and the Southern California blue whale mitigation area.
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) [Reserved]</P>
                                <P>
                                    (vi) 
                                    <E T="03">Central California large whale mitigation area.</E>
                                     Figure 2 to this paragraph (a)(2) shows the location of the mitigation areas. Within the Central California large whale mitigation area, the following requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Surface ship hull-mounted mid-frequency active sonar.</E>
                                     From June 1-October 31, the Action Proponents must not use more than 300 combined hours of MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted mid-frequency active sonar (excluding normal maintenance and systems checks) total during training and testing within the combination of this mitigation area, the Northern California large whale mitigation area, and the Southern California blue whale mitigation area.
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) [Reserved]</P>
                                <P>
                                    (vii) 
                                    <E T="03">Southern California blue whale mitigation area.</E>
                                     Figure 2 to this paragraph (a)(2) shows the location of the mitigation areas. Within the Southern California blue whale mitigation area, the following requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Surface ship hull-mounted mid-frequency active sonar.</E>
                                     From June 1-October 31, the Action Proponents must not use more than 300 combined hours of MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted mid-frequency active sonar (excluding normal maintenance and systems checks) total during training and testing within the combination of this mitigation area, the Northern California large whale mitigation area, and the Central California large whale mitigation area.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">In-water explosives.</E>
                                     From June 1-October 31, the Action Proponents must not detonate in-water explosives (including underwater explosives and explosives deployed against surface targets) during large-caliber gunnery, torpedo, bombing, and missile (including 2.75-inch (7 centimeter) rockets) training and testing.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (viii) 
                                    <E T="03">California large whale awareness messages.</E>
                                     Figure 2 to this paragraph (a)(2) shows the location of the mitigation areas. For California large whale awareness messages, the following requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">California large whale awareness messages.</E>
                                     The Action Proponents must broadcast awareness messages to alert applicable assets (and their Lookouts) transiting and training or testing off the U.S. West Coast to the possible presence of concentrations of large whales, including gray whales (November-June), fin whales (November-May), and mixed concentrations of blue, humpback, and fin whales that may occur based on predicted oceanographic conditions for a given year (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     May-November, April-November).
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) [Reserved]</P>
                                <P>
                                    (ix) 
                                    <E T="03">California large whale real-time notification mitigation area.</E>
                                     Figure 2 to this paragraph (a)(2) shows the location of the mitigation areas. Within the California large whale real-time notification mitigation area, the following requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">California large whale real-time notification mitigation area notifications.</E>
                                     For each instance an aggregation of large whales (three or more whales within 1 nmi (1.9 km)) is sighted in the area between 32-33 degrees North and 117.2-119.5 degrees West, Action Proponent surface vessels must report the sightings to other Action Proponent vessels in the vicinity. Reported sightings will be made as soon as operationally and safely feasible.
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) [Reserved]</P>
                                <P>
                                    (x) 
                                    <E T="03">San Nicolas Island pinniped haulout mitigation area.</E>
                                     Figure 2 to this paragraph (a)(2) shows the location of the mitigation areas. Within the San Nicolas Island pinniped haulout mitigation area, the following requirements apply:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) 
                                    <E T="03">Haulouts.</E>
                                     Navy personnel must not enter pinniped haulout or rookery areas. Personnel may be adjacent to pinniped haulouts and rookery prior to and following a launch for monitoring purposes.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Missile and target use.</E>
                                     Missiles and targets must not cross over pinniped haulout areas at altitudes less than 305 m (1,000 ft), except in emergencies or for real-time security incidents. For unmanned aircraft systems (UAS), the following minimum altitudes will be maintained over pinniped haulout areas and rookeries: Class 0-2 UAS will maintain a minimum altitude of 300 ft (92 m); Class 3 UAS will maintain a minimum altitude of 500 ft (153 m); Class 4 or 5 UAS will not be flown below 1,000 ft (305 m).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Number of events.</E>
                                     The Navy may not conduct more than 40 launch events annually and 10 launch events at night annually.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Scheduling.</E>
                                     Launch events must be scheduled to avoid the peak pinniped pupping seasons (from January through July) to the maximum extent practicable.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (E) 
                                    <E T="03">Monitoring plan.</E>
                                     The Navy must implement a monitoring plan using video and acoustic monitoring of up to three pinniped haulout areas and rookeries during launch events that include missiles or targets that have not been previously monitored for at least three launch events.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (F) 
                                    <E T="03">Review of launch procedure.</E>
                                     The Navy must review the launch procedure and monitoring methods, in cooperation with NMFS, if any incidents of injury or mortality of a pinniped are discovered during post-launch surveys, or if surveys indicate possible effects to the distribution, size, or productivity of the affected pinniped populations as a result of the specified activities. If necessary, appropriate changes will be made through modification to the LOA prior to conducting the next launch of the same vehicle.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (xi) 
                                    <E T="03">National security requirement.</E>
                                     Should national security require the Action Proponents to exceed a requirement(s) in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (x) of this section, Action Proponent personnel must provide NMFS with advance notification and include the information (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     sonar hours, explosives usage) in its annual activity reports submitted to NMFS.
                                </P>
                                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
                                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="520">
                                    <PRTPAGE P="59036"/>
                                    <GID>ER17DE25.219</GID>
                                </GPH>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Figure 2 to paragraph (a)(2)—Geographic Mitigation Areas for Marine Mammals in the California Study Area</HD>
                                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="564">
                                    <PRTPAGE P="59037"/>
                                    <GID>ER17DE25.220</GID>
                                </GPH>
                                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Cetacean live stranding.</E>
                                     In the event of a cetacean live stranding (or near-shore atypical milling) event within the HCTT Study Area or within 50 km (27 nmi) of the boundary of the HCTT Study Area, where the NMFS Marine Mammal Stranding Network is engaged in herding or other interventions to return animals to the water, NMFS Office of Protected Resources will advise the Action Proponents of the need to implement shutdown procedures for all active acoustic sources or explosive devices within 50 km of the stranding. Following this initial shutdown, NMFS will communicate with the Action Proponents to determine whether circumstances support modification of the shutdown zone. The Action Proponents may decline to implement all or part of the shutdown if the holder of the LOA, or his/her designee, determines that it is necessary for national security. Shutdown procedures for live stranding or milling cetaceans include the following:
                                    <PRTPAGE P="59038"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) 
                                    <E T="03">Shutdown no longer needed.</E>
                                     If at any time, the marine mammal(s) die or are euthanized, or if herding/intervention efforts are stopped, NMFS will immediately advise that the shutdown around the animals' location is no longer needed;
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Shutdown procedures remain in effect.</E>
                                     Otherwise, shutdown procedures will remain in effect until NMFS determines and advises that all live animals involved have left the area (either of their own volition or following an intervention); and
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (iii) 
                                    <E T="03">Further observations.</E>
                                     If further observations of the marine mammals indicate the potential for re-stranding, additional coordination will be required to determine what measures are necessary to minimize that likelihood (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     extending the shutdown or moving operations farther away) and to implement those measures as appropriate.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) [Reserved]</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 218.75 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Requirements for monitoring and reporting.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>The Action Proponents must implement the following monitoring and reporting requirements when conducting the specified activities:</P>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Notification of take.</E>
                                     If the Action Proponent reasonably believes that the specified activity identified in § 218.70 resulted in the mortality or serious injury of any marine mammals, or in any Level A harassment or Level B harassment of marine mammals not identified in this subpart, then the Action Proponent shall notify NMFS immediately or as soon as operational security considerations allow.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Monitoring and reporting under the LOAs.</E>
                                     The Action Proponents must conduct all monitoring and reporting required under the LOAs.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Notification of injured, live stranded, or dead marine mammals.</E>
                                     Action Proponent personnel must abide by the Notification and Reporting Plan, which sets out notification, reporting, and other requirements when dead, injured, or live stranded marine mammals are detected. The Notification and Reporting Plan is available at: 
                                    <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/incidental-take-authorizations-military-readiness-activities.</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Annual HCTT Study Area marine species monitoring report.</E>
                                     The Navy, on behalf of the Action Proponents, must submit an annual HCTT Study Area marine species monitoring report describing the implementation and results from the previous calendar year. Data collection methods will be standardized across range complexes and the HCTT Study Area to allow for comparison in different geographic locations. The draft report must be submitted to the Director, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, annually. NMFS will submit comments or questions on the report, if any, within 3 months of receipt. The report will be considered final after the Action Proponents have addressed NMFS' comments, or 3 months after submittal of the draft if NMFS does not provide comments on the draft report. The report must describe progress of knowledge made with respect to intermediate scientific objectives within the HCTT Study Area associated with the Integrated Comprehensive Monitoring Program. Similar study questions must be treated together so that progress on each topic can be summarized across all Navy ranges. The report need not include analyses and content that do not provide direct assessment of cumulative progress on the monitoring plan study questions.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) 
                                    <E T="03">Quick look reports.</E>
                                     In the event that the sound levels analyzed in the preambles of the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) proposed rule (90 FR 32118, July 16, 2025) and final rule (90 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="04">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE NUMBER], December 17, 2025) were exceeded within a given reporting year, the Action Proponents must submit a preliminary report(s) detailing the exceedance within 21 days after the anniversary date of issuance of the LOAs.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (f) 
                                    <E T="03">Annual HCTT training and testing reports.</E>
                                     Regardless of whether analyzed sound levels were exceeded, the Navy must submit a detailed report (HCTT Annual Training Exercise Report and Testing Activity Report) and the Coast Guard and Army must each submit a detailed report (HCTT Annual Training Exercise Report) to the Director, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, annually. NMFS will submit comments or questions on the reports, if any, within 1 month of receipt. The reports will be considered final after the Action Proponents have addressed NMFS' comments, or 1 month after submittal of the drafts if NMFS does not provide comments on the draft reports. The annual reports must contain a summary of all sound sources used (total hours or quantity (per the LOAs) of each bin of sonar or other non-impulsive source; total annual number of each type of explosive exercises; and total annual expended/detonated rounds (missiles, bombs, sonobuoys, 
                                    <E T="03">etc.</E>
                                    ) for each explosive bin). The annual reports must also contain cumulative sonar and explosive use quantity from previous years' reports through the current year. Additionally, if there were any changes to the sound source amount analyzed in the reporting year, or cumulatively, the reports would include a discussion of why the change was made and include analysis to support how the change did or did not affect the analysis in the 2025 HCTT Environmental Impact Statement/Overseas Environmental Impact Statement (
                                    <E T="03">https://www.nepa.navy.mil/hctteis/</E>
                                    ) and the analysis in the MMPA final rule (90 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="04">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE NUMBER], December 17, 2025). The annual reports must also include the details regarding specific requirements associated with the mitigation areas listed in paragraph (f)(4) of this section. The analysis in the detailed report must be based on the accumulation of data from the current year's report and data collected from previous annual reports. The detailed reports shall also contain special reporting for the Hawaii humpback whale special reporting mitigation area, as described in the LOAs. The final annual/close-out reports at the conclusion of the authorization period (year 7) will also serve as the comprehensive close-out reports and provide the annual totals for each sound source bin with a comparison to the annual amount analyzed and the 7-year total for each sound source bin with a comparison to the 7-year amount analyzed. The HCTT Annual Training and Testing Reports must include the specific information described in the LOAs.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) 
                                    <E T="03">Major training exercises (MTEs).</E>
                                     This section of the report must contain the following information for MTEs completed that year in the HCTT Study Area.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) 
                                    <E T="03">Exercise information (for each MTE).</E>
                                     For exercise information (for each MTE):
                                </P>
                                <P>(A) Exercise designator.</P>
                                <P>(B) Date that exercise began and ended.</P>
                                <P>(C) Location.</P>
                                <P>(D) Number and types of active sonar sources used in the exercise.</P>
                                <P>(E) Number and types of passive acoustic sources used in exercise.</P>
                                <P>(F) Number and types of vessels, aircraft, and other platforms participating in each exercise.</P>
                                <P>(G) Total hours of all active sonar source operation.</P>
                                <P>(H) Total hours of each active sonar source bin.</P>
                                <P>(I) Wave height (high, low, and average) during exercise.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Individual marine mammal sighting information for each sighting in each exercise where mitigation was implemented.</E>
                                     For individual marine mammal sighting information for each 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="59039"/>
                                    sighting in each exercise where mitigation was implemented:
                                </P>
                                <P>(A) Date, time, and location of sighting.</P>
                                <P>(B) Species (if not possible, indication of whale/dolphin/pinniped).</P>
                                <P>(C) Number of individuals.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) Initial Detection Sensor (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     passive sonar, Lookout).
                                </P>
                                <P>(E) Indication of specific type of platform observation was made from (including, for example, what type of surface vessel or testing platform).</P>
                                <P>(F) Length of time observers maintained visual contact with marine mammal.</P>
                                <P>(G) Sea state.</P>
                                <P>(H) Visibility.</P>
                                <P>(I) Sound source in use at the time of sighting.</P>
                                <P>(J) Indication of whether animal was less than 200 yd (182.9 m), 200 to 500 yd (182.9 to 457.2 m), 500 to 1,000 yd (457.2 m to 914.4 m), 1,000 to 2,000 yd (914.4 m to 1,828.8 m), or greater than 2,000 yd (1,828.8 m) from sonar source.</P>
                                <P>(K) Whether operation of sonar sensor was delayed, or sonar was powered or shut down, and the length of the delay.</P>
                                <P>(L) If source in use was hull-mounted, true bearing of animal from the vessel, true direction of vessel's travel, and estimation of animal's motion relative to vessel (opening, closing, parallel).</P>
                                <P>
                                    (M) Lookouts must report, in plain language and without trying to categorize in any way, the observed behavior of the animal(s) (such as animal closing to bow ride, paralleling course/speed, floating on surface and not swimming, 
                                    <E T="03">etc.</E>
                                    ) and if any calves were present.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (iii) 
                                    <E T="03">An evaluation (based on data gathered during all of the MTEs) of the effectiveness of mitigation measures designed to minimize the received level to which marine mammals may be exposed.</E>
                                     For an evaluation (based on data gathered during all of the MTEs) of the effectiveness of mitigation measures designed to minimize the received level to which marine mammals may be exposed:
                                </P>
                                <P>(A) This evaluation must identify the specific observations that support any conclusions the Navy reaches about the effectiveness of the mitigation.</P>
                                <P>(B) [Reserved]</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Sinking exercises (SINKEX).</E>
                                     This section of the report must include the following information for each SINKEX completed that year in the HCTT Study Area:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) 
                                    <E T="03">Exercise information.</E>
                                     For exercise information:
                                </P>
                                <P>(A) Location.</P>
                                <P>(B) Date and time exercise began and ended.</P>
                                <P>(C) Total hours of observation by Lookouts before, during, and after exercise.</P>
                                <P>(D) Total number and types of explosive source bins detonated.</P>
                                <P>(E) Number and types of passive acoustic sources used in exercise.</P>
                                <P>(F) Total hours of passive acoustic search time.</P>
                                <P>(G) Number and types of vessels, aircraft, and other platforms participating in exercise.</P>
                                <P>(H) Wave height in feet (high, low, and average) during exercise.</P>
                                <P>(I) Narrative description of sensors and platforms utilized for marine mammal detection and timeline illustrating how marine mammal detection was conducted.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Individual marine mammal observation (by Action Proponent Lookouts) information for each sighting where mitigation was implemented.</E>
                                     For individual marine mammal observation (by Action Proponent Lookouts) information for each sighting where mitigation was implemented:
                                </P>
                                <P>(A) Date/time/location of sighting.</P>
                                <P>(B) Species (if not possible, indicate whale, dolphin, or pinniped).</P>
                                <P>(C) Number of individuals.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) Initial detection sensor (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     sonar or Lookout).
                                </P>
                                <P>(E) Length of time observers maintained visual contact with marine mammal.</P>
                                <P>(F) Sea state.</P>
                                <P>(G) Visibility.</P>
                                <P>(H) Whether sighting was before, during, or after detonations/exercise, and how many minutes before or after.</P>
                                <P>(I) Distance of marine mammal from actual detonations (or target spot if not yet detonated): Less than 200 yd (182.9 m), 200 to 500 yd (182.9 to 457.2 m), 500 to 1,000 yd (457.2 to 914.4 m), 1,000 to 2,000 yd (914.4 to 1,828.8 m), or greater than 2,000 yd (1,828.8 m).</P>
                                <P>
                                    (J) Lookouts must report the observed behavior of the animal(s) in plain language and without trying to categorize in any way (such as animal closing to bow ride, paralleling course/speed, floating on surface and not swimming, 
                                    <E T="03">etc.</E>
                                    ), including speed and direction and if any calves were present.
                                </P>
                                <P>(K) The report must indicate whether explosive detonations were delayed, ceased, modified, or not modified due to marine mammal presence and for how long.</P>
                                <P>(L) If observation occurred while explosives were detonating in the water, indicate munition type in use at time of marine mammal detection.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Summary of sources used.</E>
                                     This section of the report must include the following information summarized from the analyzed sound sources used in all training and testing events:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) 
                                    <E T="03">Totals for sonar or other acoustic source bins.</E>
                                     Total annual hours or quantity (per the LOA) of each bin of sonar or other acoustic sources (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     pile driving and air gun activities); and
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Total for explosive bins.</E>
                                     Total annual expended/detonated ordnance (missiles, bombs, sonobuoys, 
                                    <E T="03">etc.</E>
                                    ) for each explosive bin.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (4) 
                                    <E T="03">San Nicolas Island.</E>
                                     The report must summarize activities and observations of the San Nicolas Island target and missile launch activities for the monitoring period.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (5) 
                                    <E T="03">Special reporting for geographic mitigation areas.</E>
                                     This section of the report must contain the following information for activities conducted in geographic mitigation areas in the HCTT Study Area:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) 
                                    <E T="03">Hawaii humpback whale special reporting mitigation area.</E>
                                     The Action Proponents must report the total hours of MF1 and MF1C surface ship hull-mounted mid-frequency active sonar used from November through May in the mitigation area.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">California large whale real-time notification mitigation area.</E>
                                     The Navy must report the date, time and general location of the whales when an aggregation is first sighted and the total number of whales in the aggregation. If the whales are identified by species, the Navy must report that information as well.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (iii) 
                                    <E T="03">National security requirement.</E>
                                     If an Action Proponent(s) invokes the national security requirement described in § 218.74(a)(2)(xi), the Action Proponent personnel must include information about the event in its Annual HCTT Training and Testing Report.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (6) 
                                    <E T="03">Foreign military sonar and explosives.</E>
                                     Navy personnel must confirm that foreign military use of sonar and explosives, when such militaries are participating in a U.S. Navy-led exercise or event, combined with the Action Proponents' use of sonar and explosives, would not cause exceedance of the analyzed levels within each NAEMO modeled sonar and explosive bin used for estimating predicted impacts.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (g) 
                                    <E T="03">MTE sonar exercise notification.</E>
                                     The Action Proponents must submit to NMFS (contact as specified in the LOAs) an electronic report within 15 calendar days after the completion of any MTE indicating:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) 
                                    <E T="03">Location.</E>
                                     Location of the exercise;
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Dates.</E>
                                     Beginning and end dates of the exercise; and
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Type.</E>
                                     Type of exercise.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <PRTPAGE P="59040"/>
                                <SECTNO>§ 218.76 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Letters of Authorization.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) To incidentally take marine mammals pursuant to this subpart, the Action Proponents must apply for and obtain LOAs.</P>
                                <P>(b) An LOA, unless suspended or revoked, may be effective for a period of time not to exceed the expiration date of this subpart.</P>
                                <P>(c) In the event of projected changes to the activity or to mitigation, monitoring, or reporting measures (excluding changes made pursuant to the adaptive management provision of § 218.77(c)(1)) required by an LOA, the Action Proponent must apply for and obtain a modification of the LOA as described in § 218.77.</P>
                                <P>(d) Each LOA will set forth:</P>
                                <P>(1) Permissible methods of incidental taking;</P>
                                <P>(2) Geographic areas for incidental taking;</P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) Means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact (
                                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                     mitigation) on the species and stocks of marine mammals and their habitat; and
                                </P>
                                <P>(4) Requirements for monitoring and reporting.</P>
                                <P>(e) Issuance of the LOA(s) must be based on a determination that the level of taking is consistent with the findings made for the total taking allowable under the regulations of this subpart.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (f) Notice of issuance or denial of the LOA(s) will be published in the 
                                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                                     within 30 days of a determination.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 218.77 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Modifications of Letters of Authorization.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) An LOA issued under §§ 216.106 of this chapter and 218.76 for the activity identified in § 218.70(c) shall be modified, upon request by the Action Proponents, provided that:</P>
                                <P>(1) The specified activity and mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures, as well as the anticipated impacts, are the same as those described and analyzed for the regulations in this subpart (excluding changes made pursuant to the adaptive management provision in paragraph (c)(1) of this section); and</P>
                                <P>(2) NMFS determines that the mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures required by the previous LOAs under this subpart were implemented.</P>
                                <P>(b) For LOA modification requests by the applicants that include changes to the activity or to the mitigation, monitoring, or reporting measures (excluding changes made pursuant to the adaptive management provision in paragraph (c)(1) of this section), the LOA should be modified provided that:</P>
                                <P>(1) NMFS determines that the change(s) to the activity or the mitigation, monitoring, or reporting do not change the findings made for this subpart and do not result in more than a minor change in the total estimated number of takes (or distribution by species or stock or years); and</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) NMFS may publish a notice of proposed modified LOA in the 
                                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                                    , including the associated analysis of the change, and solicit public comment before issuing the LOA.
                                </P>
                                <P>(c) An LOA issued under §§ 216.106 of this chapter and 218.76 for the activities identified in § 218.70(c) may be modified by NMFS Office of Protected Resources under the following circumstances:</P>
                                <P>(1) After consulting with the Action Proponents regarding the practicability of the modifications, through adaptive management, NMFS may modify (including remove, revise, or add to) the existing mitigation, monitoring, or reporting measures if doing so creates a reasonable likelihood of more effectively accomplishing the goals of the mitigation and monitoring measures set forth in this subpart.</P>
                                <P>(i) Possible sources of data that could contribute to the decision to modify the mitigation, monitoring, or reporting measures in an LOA include, but are not limited to:</P>
                                <P>(A) Results from the Action Proponents' monitoring report and annual exercise reports from the previous year(s);</P>
                                <P>(B) Results from other marine mammal and/or sound research or studies; or</P>
                                <P>(C) Any information that reveals marine mammals may have been taken in a manner, extent, or number not authorized by this subpart or subsequent LOAs.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) If, through adaptive management, the modifications to the mitigation, monitoring, or reporting measures are substantial, NMFS shall publish a notice of proposed LOA(s) in the 
                                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                                     and solicit public comment.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) If the NMFS Office of Protected Resources determines that an emergency exists that poses a significant risk to the well-being of the species or stocks of marine mammals specified in LOAs issued pursuant to §§ 216.106 of this chapter and 218.76, a LOA may be modified without prior notice or opportunity for public comment. Notice would be published in the 
                                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                                     within 30 days of the action.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§§ 218.78-218.79</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> [Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                    </REGTEXT>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-23088 Filed 12-16-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
            </RULE>
        </RULES>
    </NEWPART>
</FEDREG>
