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    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>140</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, July 24, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Contents</UNITNAME>
    <CNTNTS>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Agriculture
                <PRTPAGE P="iii"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Agriculture Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Food and Nutrition Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Natural Resources Conservation Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>34827</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13958</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>AIRFORCE</EAR>
            <HD>Air Force Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Wake Island Code; Amendment, </DOC>
                    <PGS>34763</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13994</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Licenses; Exemptions, Applications, Amendments, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Exclusive Patent, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34852-34853</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13986</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Partially Exclusive Patent, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34853</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13987</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Census Bureau</EAR>
            <HD>Census Bureau</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Decennial Census Temporary, Intermittent Applicant Information Collection, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34837</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13991</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Civil Rights</EAR>
            <HD>Civil Rights Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Alaska Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34834</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13945</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Illinois Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34836-34837</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13944</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nebraska Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34835</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13951</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>New Mexico Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34833-34834</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13940</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Ohio Advisory Committee; Revision, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34836</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13949</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Oregon Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34835</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13942</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>South Carolina Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34835-34836</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13943</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Coast Guard</EAR>
            <HD>Coast Guard</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Drawbridge Operations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway, Fort Lauderdale, FL, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34778-34781</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13882</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Commerce</EAR>
            <HD>Commerce Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Census Bureau</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>International Trade Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Committee for Purchase</EAR>
            <HD>Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Procurement List; Additions and Deletions, </DOC>
                    <PGS>34850-34851</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13918</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13919</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Defense Department</EAR>
            <HD>Defense Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Air Force Department</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Delaware</EAR>
            <HD>Delaware River Basin Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc., </DOC>
                    <PGS>34853-34854</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13962</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Election</EAR>
            <HD>Election Assistance Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Voting System Manufacturer Registration, Application for Testing, Anomaly Reporting and Root Cause Analysis, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34854-34855</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13959</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Energy Department</EAR>
            <HD>Energy Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Intent To Publish the 45Z Emissions Value Request Process, </DOC>
                    <PGS>34855-34857</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13912</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Environmental Protection</EAR>
            <HD>Environmental Protection Agency</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Air Quality State Implementation Plans; Approvals and Promulgations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>California; Interim Final Determination To Stay or Defer Sanctions; Mojave Desert Air Quality Management District, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34766-34768</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13905</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Connecticut; Plan for Inclusion of a Consent Order and Removal of State Orders, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34768-34770</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13886</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Maryland; Nitrogen Oxides Ozone Season Emissions Caps for Non-Trading Large Nitrogen Oxides Units; Amendments, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34763-34766</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13891</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Pennsylvania; Redesignation Request and Associated Maintenance Plan for the Liberty-Clairton Area for the 1997 Annual, etc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34770-34773</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13893</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Air Quality State Implementation Plans; Approvals and Promulgations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>California; Mojave Desert Air Quality Management District; New Source Review; Stationary Source Permits, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34785-34790</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13906</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>New York; Ortho Clinical Diagnostics, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34781-34784</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13937</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Pennsylvania; Redesignation of the Beaver County Nonattainment Area to Attainment and Approval of the Area's Maintenance Plan for the 2010 1-Hour Primary Sulfur Dioxide National Ambient Air Quality Standard, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34815-34822</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13946</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Texas; Reasonably Available Control Technology in the Dallas-Fort Worth Ozone Nonattainment Area, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34812-34814</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13930</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Texas; Reasonably Available Control Technology in the Houston-Galveston-Brazoria Ozone Nonattainment Area, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34790-34792</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13904</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Washington; Regional Haze, Second Implementation Period, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34792-34812</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13957</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NSPS for Emission Guidelines and Compliance Times for Small Municipal Waste Combustion Units Constructed on or before August 30, 1999, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34866-34867</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13921</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Exemption:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Test Marketing for a New Chemical Under the Toxic Substances Control Act; Approval, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34867-34868</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13908</FRDOCBP>
                    <PRTPAGE P="iv"/>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Requests for Nominations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Ad Hoc Expert Reviewers; Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act Scientific Advisory Panel; Determining the Absence of Novel Proteins in the Saliva of Genetically Engineered Mosquitoes for Mosquito Control, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34864-34866</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13909</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Aviation</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Aviation Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Modernization of Special Airworthiness Certification, </DOC>
                    <PGS>35034-35222</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13972</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments, </DOC>
                    <PGS>34761-34763</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13960</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Airspace Designations and Reporting Points:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Northern United States, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34777-34778</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13950</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Airworthiness Directives:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The Boeing Company Airplanes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34774-34777</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13920</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Election</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Election Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>34868</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13914</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Energy</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>34857-34858</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13880</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Application:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Black Bear Hydro Partners, LLC; Waiver Period for Water Quality Certification, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34859</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13992</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Gulfstream LNG Development, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34860-34862</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13990</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Combined Filings, </DOC>
                    <PGS>34862-34863</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13997</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Electronic Tariff Filings:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Changes to the Establishment of Effective Dates for Filings Initially Accepted With Indeterminate Effective Dates, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34860</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13996</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Licenses; Exemptions, Applications, Amendments, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Ampersand Hollow Dam Hydro, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34863-34864</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13995</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>34859-34860</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13916</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Mediation</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Request for Arbitration Panel, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34868-34869</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13927</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Motor</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards; Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Parts and Accessories Necessary for Safe Operation; Speed Limiting Devices; Withdrawal, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34822-34826</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13928</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Exemption Application:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Hours of Service of Drivers; R.J. Corman Railroad Services, Cranemasters, Inc., and National Railroad Construction and Maintenance Association, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34956-34958</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13961</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Qualification of Drivers; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34952-34954, 34961-34967, 34969-34971</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13975</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13979</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13980</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13981</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13983</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Qualification of Drivers; Hearing, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34950-34952, 34954-34956, 34958-34961</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13976</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13977</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13978</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13982</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Qualification of Drivers; Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillators, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34967-34969</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13974</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Food and Nutrition</EAR>
            <HD>Food and Nutrition Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Child and Adult Care Food Program:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Average Payment Rates, Day Care Home Food Service Payment Rates, and Administrative Reimbursement Rates for Sponsoring Organizations of Day Care Homes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34830-34832</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13892</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>National School Lunch, Special Milk, and School Breakfast Programs:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Average Payments/Maximum Reimbursement Rates, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34827-34830</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13879</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Foreign Trade</EAR>
            <HD>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Application for Subzone:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Ryder Integrated Logistics, Inc., Foreign-Trade Zone 222, Hope Hull, AL, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34837-34838</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13948</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Geological</EAR>
            <HD>Geological Survey</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Ground-Water Monitoring Network Cooperative Funding Application, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34878-34879</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13984</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Health and Human</EAR>
            <HD>Health and Human Services Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Institutes of Health</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Interest Rate on Overdue Debts, </DOC>
                    <PGS>34869</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13910</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Homeland</EAR>
            <HD>Homeland Security Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Coast Guard</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Transportation Security Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Housing</EAR>
            <HD>Housing and Urban Development Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Allocation of Operating Fund Grant Under the Operating Fund Formula: Data Collection, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34876-34878</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13903</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Interior</EAR>
            <HD>Interior Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Geological Survey</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Adm</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Antidumping or Countervailing Duty Investigations, Orders, or Reviews:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Certain Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Products, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, From Taiwan, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34840-34842</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13955</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, From the People's Republic of China, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34845-34848</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13953</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Products, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, From the People's Republic of China, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34838-34840</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13954</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Float Glass Products From Malaysia, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34844-34845</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13947</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes From Mexico, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34842-34844</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13985</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Com</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Investigations; Determinations, Modifications, and Rulings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Steel Concrete Reinforcing Bar From Algeria, Bulgaria, Egypt, and Vietnam, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34879</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13952</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Justice Department
                <PRTPAGE P="v"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Justice Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Federal Firearms Licensee Enrollment/National Instant Criminal Background Check System E-Check Enrollment Form, etc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34881-34882</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13934</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Crime Victimization Survey, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34884-34885</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13931</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Prisoner Statistics program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34885-34887</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13933</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Semi-annual and Annual Performance Reporting Data Catalog for Formula and Discretionary Grant Programs, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34882-34884</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13932</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Special Deputation Forms, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34879-34881</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13935</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Labor Department</EAR>
            <HD>Labor Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Archives</EAR>
            <HD>National Archives and Records Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Records Schedules, </DOC>
                    <PGS>34912-34913</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13922</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Highway</EAR>
            <HD>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards; Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Parts and Accessories Necessary for Safe Operation; Speed Limiting Devices; Withdrawal, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34822-34826</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13928</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Institute</EAR>
            <HD>National Institutes of Health</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Cancer Institute Generic Clearance for Application Information From Fellows, Interns, and Trainees, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34873</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13878</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Center for Scientific Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34869-34874</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13876</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13877</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13967</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13971</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Human Genome Research Institute, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34873-34875</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13968</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13969</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34870-34872, 34874</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13963</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13964</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13965</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Institute of Environmental Health Sciences, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34871-34872</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13966</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Library of Medicine, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34870</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13970</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Oceanic</EAR>
            <HD>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Taking or Importing of Marine Mammals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Hilcorp Alaska, LLC Oil and Gas Activities in Cook Inlet, AK, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34974-35031</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13973</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Permits; Applications, Issuances, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>General Provisions for Domestic Fisheries; Coastal Pelagic Species Fishery, 2025-2026 Fishing Year, Exempted Fishing, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34848-34849</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13915</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Taking or Importing of Marine Mammals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Hydaburg Seaplane Base Refurbishment Project in Hydaburg, AK, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34849-34850</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13881</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Resources</EAR>
            <HD>Natural Resources Conservation Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Composting and Food Waste Reduction Cooperative Agreements, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34833</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13941</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Nuclear Waste Technical</EAR>
            <HD>Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc., </DOC>
                    <PGS>34913</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13936</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Occupational Safety Health Adm</EAR>
            <HD>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Application for Permanent Variance and Interim Order:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>McNally Tunneling Corp./ASI Marine Southerly Tunnel and Consolidation Project, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34887-34897</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13889</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Application:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>CBNA/Halmar Joint Venture; Application for Permanent Variance and Interim Order; Grant of Interim Order, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34902-34911</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13885</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratories:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Japan Electrical Safety and Environment Technology Laboratories; Grant of Recognition, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34897-34899</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13887</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NSF International; Application for Expansion of Recognition, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34900-34902</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13884</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>UL LLC; Grant of Expansion of Recognition and Modification to the NRTL Program's List of Appropriate Test Standards, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34899-34900</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13888</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Postal Regulatory</EAR>
            <HD>Postal Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>New Postal Products, </DOC>
                    <PGS>34913-34914</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13911</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Postal Service</EAR>
            <HD>Postal Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>34914</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13913</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Securities</EAR>
            <HD>Securities and Exchange Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Application:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>CME Securities Clearing, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34938-34939</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13917</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Proposed Rule Changes:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cboe BYX Exchange, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34933-34938</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13897</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34919-34924, 34929-34933</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13895</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13902</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cboe C2 Exchange, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34945-34950</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13899</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cboe EDGX Exchange, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34914-34919</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13901</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cboe Exchange, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34924-34928</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13898</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NYSE American LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34939-34942</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13894</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NYSE Arca, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34942-34945</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13900</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Small Business</EAR>
            <HD>Small Business Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Disaster Declaration:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Texas; Public Assistance Only, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34950</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13896</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Transportation Department</EAR>
            <HD>Transportation Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Aviation Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Security</EAR>
            <HD>Transportation Security Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Department of Homeland Security Traveler Redress Inquiry Program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34875-34876</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13956</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>DFC</EAR>
            <HD>U S International Development Finance Corporation</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>34851-34852</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13938</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13939</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Veteran Affairs
                <PRTPAGE P="vi"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Veterans Affairs Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Application for Dependency and Indemnity Compensation, Survivors Pension and Accrued Benefits by a Surviving Spouse or Child (Including Death Compensation if Available); Application for Dependency and Indemnity Compensation by a Surviving Spouse or Child   In-Service Death Only; and Application for DIC, Survivors Pension, and/or Accrued Benefits, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>34971-34972</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-13993</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <PTS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Separate Parts In This Issue</HD>
            <HD>Part II</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Commerce Department, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, </DOC>
                <PGS>34974-35031</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2025-13973</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part III</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Transportation Department, Federal Aviation Administration, </DOC>
                <PGS>35034-35222</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2025-13972</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
        </PTS>
        <AIDS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Reader Aids</HD>
            <P>Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.</P>
            <P>To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.</P>
        </AIDS>
    </CNTNTS>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>140</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, July 24, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <RULES>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="34761"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 97</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 31616; Amdt. No. 4175]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This rule establishes, amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPS) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure procedures (ODPs) for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective July 24, 2025. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.</P>
                    <P>The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of July 24, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Availability of matters incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:</P>
                </ADD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">For Examination</HD>
                <P>1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-09M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC, 20590-0001.</P>
                <P>2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;</P>
                <P>3. The Office of Aeronautical Information Services, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,</P>
                <P>
                    4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                    <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                     or email 
                    <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center at 
                    <E T="03">nfdc.faa.gov</E>
                     to register. Additionally, individual SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP copies may be obtained from the FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located.
                </P>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Romana B. Wolf, Manager, Flight Procedures and Airspace Group, Flight Technologies and Procedures Division, Office of Safety Standards, Flight Standards Service, Aviation Safety, Federal Aviation Administration. Mailing Address: FAA Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, Flight Procedures and Airspace Group, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., STB Annex, Bldg. 26, Room 217, Oklahoma City, OK 73099. Telephone (405) 954-1139.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This rule amends 14 CFR part 97 by establishing, amending, suspending, or removes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP and its associated Takeoff Minimums or ODP for an identified airport is listed on FAA form documents which are incorporated by reference in this amendment under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR 97.20. The applicable FAA Forms are 8260-3, 8260-4, 8260-5, 8260-15A, 8260-15B, when required by an entry on 8260-15A, and 8260-15C.</P>
                <P>
                    The large number of SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     expensive and impractical. Further, pilots do not use the regulatory text of the SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums or ODPs, but instead refer to their graphic depiction on charts printed by publishers of aeronautical materials. Thus, the advantages of incorporation by reference are realized and publication of the complete description of each SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and ODP listed on FAA form documents is unnecessary. This amendment provides the affected CFR sections and specifies the types of SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs with their applicable effective dates. This amendment also identifies the airport and its location, the procedure, and the amendment number.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability and Summary of Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPs as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Rule</HD>
                <P>This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and ODP as amended in the transmittal. Some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and textual ODP amendments may have been issued previously by the FAA in a Flight Data Center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) as an emergency action of immediate flights safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.</P>
                <P>The circumstances that created the need for some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments may require making them effective in less than 30 days. For the remaining SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, an effective date at least 30 days after publication is provided.</P>
                <P>
                    Further, the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied to the conditions existing or anticipated at the affected airports. Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34762"/>
                    contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making some SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
                </P>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Lists of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 97</HD>
                    <P>Air traffic control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on July 18, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Romana B. Wolf,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, Flight Procedures and Airspace Group, Flight Technologies and Procedures Division, Office of Safety Standards, Flight Standards Service, Aviation Safety, Federal Aviation Administration. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of the Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, 14 CFR part 97 is amended by establishing, amending, suspending, or removing Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and/or Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 97—STANDARD INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="97">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 97 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="97">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Part 97 is amended to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Effective 2 October 2025</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Akiachak, AK, PFZK, CABOT (RNAV) ONE, Graphic DP</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Akiachak, AK, Z13/PFZK, RNAV (GPS)-A, Orig</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Akiachak, AK, Z13/PFZK, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Orig</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Clarks Point, AK, CLP/PFCL, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 1</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Manley Hot Springs, AK, MLY/PAML, RNAV (GPS) RWY 18, Orig-A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Point Hope, AK, PHO/PAPO, RNAV (GPS) RWY 3, Amdt 1</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Point Hope, AK, PHO/PAPO, RNAV (GPS) RWY 21, Orig-A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Point Hope, AK, PHO/PAPO, RNAV (GPS)-A, Amdt 1</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Shageluk, AK, SHX/PAHX, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Orig-A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Soldotna, AK, SXQ/PASX, NDB RWY 7, Amdt 2F, CANCELED</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Soldotna, AK, SXQ/PASX, NDB RWY 25, Amdt 3E, CANCELED</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Valdez, AK, PAVD, JMAAL FOUR, Graphic DP</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Evergreen, AL, KGZH, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 2B</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Guntersville, AL, 8A1, RNAV (GPS) RWY 7, Orig-C</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Marana, AZ, AVQ, RNAV (GPS) RWY 12, Amdt 2</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Delano, CA, DLO, VOR RWY 33, Amdt 9A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Perry, FL, FPY, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 1C</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sebastian, FL, X26, RNAV (GPS)-B, Orig-A, CANCELED</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Charles City, IA, CCY, RNAV (GSP) RWY 12, Amdt 2</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Charles City, IA, CCY, RNAV (GPS) RWY 30, Amdt 2</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Dubuque, IA, DBQ, ILS OR LOC RWY 36, Amdt 1A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Dubuque, IA, DBQ, VOR RWY 36, Amdt 7A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Emmetsburg, IA, EGQ, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 2</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Maurice, IA, SXK, RNAV (GPS) RWY 17, Orig-A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Maurice, IA, SXK, RNAV (GPS) RWY 35, Orig-A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Driggs, ID, DIJ, LAMON FOUR, Graphic DP</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Driggs, ID, DIJ, RNAV (GPS) RWY 4, Amdt 3</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Driggs, ID, DIJ, RNAV (GPS)-A, Amdt 2</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Driggs, ID, DIJ, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 3B</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Jerome, ID, JER, VOR-A, Amdt 3B</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Chicago/Aurora, IL, ARR, RNAV (GPS) RWY 33, Amdt 2</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">La Porte, IN, PPO, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 2A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Colby, KS, CBK, RNAV (GPS) RWY 35, Amdt 2A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Emporia, KS, EMP, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Orig-B</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Johnson City, KS, JHN, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Orig-A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Somerset, KY, SME, ILS OR LOC RWY 5, Amdt 1</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">De Ridder, LA, DRI, LOC RWY 36, Amdt 3B, CANCELED</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">De Ridder, LA, DRI, NDB RWY 36, Amdt 5B, CANCELED</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Natchitoches, LA, IER, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 8</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Machias, ME, MVM, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 3</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Jackson, MI, JXN, RNAV (GPS) RWY 7, Amdt 1A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Menominee, MI, MNM, ILS OR LOC RWY 3, Amdt 4A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Pontiac, MI, PTK, LOC BC RWY 27L, Amdt 2A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Traverse City, MI, TVC, VOR-A, Amdt 21A, CANCELED</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Bigfork, MN, FOZ, NDB RWY 15, Orig-C, CANCELED</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Mexico, MO, MYJ, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 1</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Hattiesburg, MS, HBG, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 2</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Laurel, MS, LUL, RNAV (GPS) RWY 13, Amdt 1D</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Laurel, MS, LUL, RNAV (GPS) RWY 31, Amdt 1D</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Laurel, MS, LUL, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 2</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Hickory, NC, HKY, VOR/DME RWY 24, Orig-F, CANCELED</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Rutherfordton, NC, FQD, LOC RWY 1, Amdt 3A, CANCELED</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Wallace, NC, ACZ, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Orig-A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Whiteville, NC, CPC, RNAV (GPS) RWY 24, Orig-B</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Minot, ND, MOT, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 4</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Toms River, NJ, MJX, VOR RWY 6, Amdt 7D, CANCELED</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Toms River, NJ, MJX, VOR RWY 24, Amdt 5, CANCELED</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lovington, NM, E06, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 1A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Hornell, NY, HTF, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 6</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Montgomery, NY, MGJ, RNAV (GPS) RWY 8, Amdt 2</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Montgomery, NY, MGJ, RNAV (GPS) RWY 26, Amdt 1E</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Wauseon, OH, USE, RNAV (GPS) RWY 9, Amdt 1</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Wauseon, OH, USE, RNAV (GPS) RWY 27, Amdt 1</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Oklahoma City, OK, OKC, RNAV (GPS) Y RWY 17L, Amdt 3E</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Pottstown, PA, N47, VOR-B, Amdt 5B, CANCELED</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Manning, SC, MNI, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Orig-A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lebanon, TN, M54, RNAV (GPS) RWY 1, Orig-B</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lebanon, TN, M54, RNAV (GPS) RWY 19, Orig-B</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Morristown, TN, MOR, RNAV (GPS) RWY 5, Orig-F</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Beeville, TX, BEA, RNAV (GPS) RWY 30, Amdt 1A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Bowie, TX, 0F2, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Orig-A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">College Station, TX, CLL, RNAV (GPS) RWY 35, Amdt 1D</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Dallas, TX, ADS, ILS OR LOC RWY 16, Amdt 11E</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Dallas, TX, ADS, ILS OR LOC RWY 34, Amdt 3E</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Longview, TX, GGG, ILS OR LOC RWY 13, Amdt 14</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Mineral Wells, TX, MWL, VOR RWY 31, Amdt 10E</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Olney, TX, ONY, RNAV (GPS) RWY 17, Amdt 1B</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Olney, TX, ONY, RNAV (GPS) RWY 35, Amdt 1B</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sonora, TX, SOA, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 2A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Culpeper, VA, CJR, NDB RWY 4, Orig-C</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Culpeper, VA, CJR, RNAV (GPS) RWY 4, Orig-C</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Culpeper, VA, CJR, RNAV (GPS) RWY 22, Orig-C</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Culpeper, VA, CJR, VOR-A, Amdt 5C</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lynchburg, VA, LYH, VOR RWY 22, Amdt 8D, CANCELED</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Wise, VA, LNP, LOC RWY 24, Amdt 1A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        Wise, VA, LNP, RNAV (GPS) RWY 6, Amdt 1
                        <PRTPAGE P="34763"/>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Wise, VA, LNP, RNAV (GPS) RWY 24, Amdt 1A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Wise, VA, LNP, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 4</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Electric City, WA, 3W7, RNAV (GPS) Y RWY 22, Orig</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Electric City, WA, 3W7, RNAV (GPS) Z RWY 22, Orig</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Electric City, WA, 3W7, SINGG ONE, Graphic DP</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Electric City, WA, 3W7, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Orig</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Cable, WI, 3CU, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 6</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Ephraim, WI, 3D2, RNAV (GPS) RWY 14, Amdt 1A</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">New Lisbon, WI, 82C, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 1</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13960 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <CFR>32 CFR Part 935</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID: USAF-2025-HQ-0002]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0701-AA98</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Wake Island Code</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Department of the Air Force, Department of Defense.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; amendment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Executive Order titled “Defending Women from Gender Ideology Extremism and Restoring Biological Truth to the Federal Government,” this amendment rule removes text in this CFR part that promotes or otherwise inculcates gender ideology. This change is purely administrative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective July 24, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Mr. Thomas Zimmerman, 703-614-7820, SAF/GCN, 1740 Air Force Pentagon Ste. 5E773, Washington, DC 20330-1740.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>In accordance with Executive Order 14168, “Defending Women from Gender Ideology Extremism and Restoring Biological Truth to the Federal Government,” dated January 20, 2025, the Department of the Air Force is amending this CFR part to remove text that promotes or otherwise inculcates gender ideology. Specifically, it replaces the word “gender” with the word “sex”, consistent with Executive Order 14168, in one sentence of Part 935.</P>
                <P>It has been determined that publication of this CFR amendment for public comment is unnecessary because the amendment is an administrative change.</P>
                <P>This rule is not significant under Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review.” This rule is not an E.O. 14192 regulatory action because this rule is not significant under E.O. 12866.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 32 CFR Part 935</HD>
                    <P>Courts, Law enforcement, Military law, Motor vehicles, Penalties, Safety, Wake Island. </P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>Accordingly, 32 CFR part 935 is amended as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 935—WAKE ISLAND CODE</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="32" PART="935">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 935 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>Sec. 48, Pub. L. 86-624, 74 Stat. 424; E.O. 11048, Sept. 1, 1962, 27 FR 8851, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 632; agreement between the Department of Interior and Department of the Air Force, dated 19 June 1972, 37 FR 12255; and Secretary of the Air Force Order 111.1, dated 26 April 1999. </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="32" PART="935">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 935.3 by revising paragraph (d) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 935.3 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(d) He or his includes both the male and female sexes, unless the context implies otherwise.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Tommy W. Lee,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Air Force Federal Register Liaison Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13994 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3911-44-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R03-OAR-2024-0512; FRL-12099-02-R3]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Maryland; Nitrogen Oxides Ozone Season Emissions Caps for Non-Trading Large Nitrogen Oxides Units; Amendments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a state implementation plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Maryland. This revision (Maryland Submittal #24-01) pertains to the re-allocation of nitrogen oxides (NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                        ) ozone season emission caps for large non-electric generating units (non-EGUs, affected units). The amendment also updates a cross reference to the Cross State Air Pollution Rule (CSAPR). This action is being taken under the Clean Air Act (CAA).
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is effective on August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID Number EPA-R03-OAR-2024-0512. All documents in the docket are listed on the 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         website. Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         confidential business information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form. Publicly available docket materials are available through 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                        , or please contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">For Further Information Contact</E>
                         section for additional availability information.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Amber Iglesias, Planning &amp; Implementation Branch (3AD30), Air &amp; Radiation Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region III, 1600 John F Kennedy Boulevard, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania 19103. The telephone number is (202) 564-3175. Ms. Iglesias can also be reached via electronic mail at 
                        <E T="03">iglesias.amber@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On December 26, 2024 (89 FR 104941), the EPA published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) for the State of Maryland. In the NPRM, the EPA proposed approval of a revision to Code of Maryland Regulations (COMAR) 26.11.40 that involved the re-allocation of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     ozone season emission caps for large non-electric generating units (non-EGUs, affected units) as well as an updated cross reference to the CSAPR) The formal SIP revision (Maryland Submittal #24-01) was submitted by the State of Maryland on June 10, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call, issued pursuant to Section 110 of the CAA and codified at 40 CFR 51.121 and 51.122, was designed to mitigate significant transport of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    , one of the precursors of ozone. The EPA developed the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Budget Trading Program, an EPA-administered allowance trading program that states could adopt to meet their obligations under the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call. The NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Budget Trading Program allowed electric generating units (EGUs) greater than 25 megawatts and industrial non-electric generating units, such as boilers and turbines, with a rated heat input 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34764"/>
                    greater than 250 million British thermal units per hour (MMBtu/hr), referred to as “large non-EGUs,” to participate in a regional NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     cap and trade program. Maryland complied with the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP call by participation of its large EGUs and large non-EGUs in the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Budget Trading Program. The EPA discontinued administration of the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Budget Trading Program in 2009 upon the start of the Clean Air Interstate Rule (CAIR) trading programs (70 FR 25162, May 12, 2005). The NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call requirements continued to apply, however, and EGUs in most states (including Maryland) that formerly participated in the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Budget Trading Program continued to meet their NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call requirements under the generally more stringent requirements of the CAIR NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Ozone Season trading program, either pursuant to CAIR federal implementation plans (FIP) (71 FR 25328, April 28, 2006) or pursuant to approved CAIR SIP revisions. For the large non-EGUs, states needed to take regulatory action to ensure that their obligations under the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call continued to be met, either through an option to submit a CAIR SIP revision that allowed the large non-EGUs to participate in the CAIR NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Ozone Season trading program or through adoption of other replacement regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In Maryland, Luke Paper Mill (formerly the Westvaco pulp and paper mill) was the only facility with large non-EGUs that participated in the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Budget Trading Program. When the CAIR NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Ozone Season trading program replaced the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Budget Trading Program, Maryland adopted the CAIR program as it applied to large EGUs, but chose not to include the non-EGUs at Luke as participants in the CAIR NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Ozone Season trading program. Instead, in 2010, Maryland adopted COMAR 26.11.14.07—Control of Emissions from Kraft Pulp Mills, which, among other requirements, included provisions that address the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call non-EGU requirements in Maryland through a NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     ozone season tonnage cap of 947 tons for the Luke non-EGUs and monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting in accordance with 40 CFR part 75. 
                </P>
                <P>
                    Subsequent to adoption of COMAR 26.11.14.07, Maryland determined that additional applicable units have either started operation or were previously not subject but have become subject to the requirements for non-EGUs under the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call as the units have heat input ratings greater than 250 MMBtu/hr. A review of the applicability of the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call to large non-EGUs in the State showed that there are three additional facilities having non-EGUs that are covered under the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call. Maryland adopted new regulation COMAR 26.11.40 to reallocate the statewide NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions cap among the affected sources, and concurrently revised COMAR 26.11.14.07 to reflect a reduced cap for Luke.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In October 2018, Maryland adopted a new COMAR 26.11.40—NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Ozone Season Emission Caps for Non-Trading Large NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Units. This regulation established NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     ozone season tonnage caps and NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     monitoring requirements for large non-EGUs in the State that were not covered under the CSAPR NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Ozone Season Group 2 Trading Program to meet requirements of the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call. NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions caps were specified for non-EGUs located at four facilities (American Sugar Refining, Dominion Energy Cove Point LNG, Luke Paper Mill, and National Institutes of Health). A portion of the statewide cap is set aside for new units or modified existing units that may become subject to the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call in the future. The NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     annual emissions cap for Maryland established for the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call is 1,013 tons per year of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    , as established by EPA in 40 CFR part 97, subpart E, appendix C. This regulation also requires 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 75, subpart H monitoring of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions at affected units in accordance with 40 CFR 51.121(i)(4). The EPA approved the SIP revision that included the new COMAR 26.11.40 in October 2018. On June 30, 2019, Luke Paper Mill was shut down by its owner, Verso, and surrendered all of its CAA operating permits for the facility on May 8, 2020.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Summary of SIP Revision and the EPA Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    COMAR 26.11.40 establishes NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     ozone season tonnage caps and NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     monitoring requirements for large non-EGUs in the State that are not covered Federal trading program for ozone season emissions of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     established under 40 CFR part 97 to address interstate transport of ozone and NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     in accordance with 40 CFR 52.38(b), or a state trading program for ozone season emissions of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     approved by the EPA Administrator as meeting the requirements of 40 CFR 52.38(b) located at three facilities (American Sugar Refining, Dominion Energy Cove Point LNG, and National Institutes of Health). A portion of the statewide cap is set aside for new units or modified existing units that may become subject to the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call in the future. Title 40 CFR part 75, subpart H, monitoring of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions at affected units is required in accordance with 40 CFR 51.121(i)(4). This rule approves into the SIP Maryland's revisions to COMAR 26.11.40.02 and 26.11.40.03.
                </P>
                <P>COMAR 26.11.14.02 updates the way the state references the EPA's Cross State Air Pollution Rule and removes Luke Paper Mill as an affected source (see table 1 in this preamble).</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,r100,12">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Table 1—NO
                        <E T="0732">X</E>
                         Season Emission Caps
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Facility</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Unit</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                             ozone season cap
                            <LI>(tons)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">American Sugar Refining</ENT>
                        <ENT>C6</ENT>
                        <ENT>24</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dominion Energy Cove Point LNG</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Frame 5-1 (Turbine S009)
                            <LI>Frame 5-2 (Turbine S010)</LI>
                            <LI>Frame 7-A, Frame 7-B</LI>
                            <LI>Aux. A, Aux B</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>214</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">National Institutes of Health</ENT>
                        <ENT>5-1156</ENT>
                        <ENT>23</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">New unit set-aside</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>752</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,013</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    COMAR 26.11.14.03 was revised to reflect the re-allocation of emission caps from Luke Paper Mill to the portion of the statewide cap that is set aside for new units or modified existing units that may become subject to the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call in the future due to Luke Paper Mill permanently shutting down operations.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34765"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The EPA finds that this June 2024 SIP submittal meets Maryland's NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call obligations (including requirements in CAA section 110 and 40 CFR 51.121) for non-EGUs because the revisions to regulation COMAR 24.11.40 removes Luke Paper Mill as an affected source and reallocates the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emission cap for that facility to a set aside for new and modified sources. This reallocation does not change or alter the specified state-wide ozone season NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions cap of 1,013 tons which is consistent with the portion of the overall Maryland NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions budget under the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     Budget Trading Program attributable to non-EGUs. This revision does not change the 40 CFR part 75 monitoring, recordkeeping and reporting requirements of the original 2018 submission. Finally, the changes that reference to the EPA's CSAPR are to ensure that the state is using a term that will be an applicable reference in the state's SIP if the EPA is to update the rule again in the future.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The June 10, 2024, Maryland SIP submittal does not result in increased NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions, and therefore has no impact on any requirements related to attainment, reasonable further progress, or any other NAAQS requirements under the CAA. The submittal therefore meets section 110(l) of the CAA.
                </P>
                <P>Other specific requirements of COMAR 26.11.40 and the rationale for the EPA's proposed action are explained in the NPRM and will not be restated here.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. EPA's Response to Comments Received</HD>
                <P>No public comments were received on the NPRM.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Final Action</HD>
                <P>The EPA is approving Maryland Submittal #24-01 as a revision to the Maryland SIP.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    In this document, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of new Maryland regulation COMAR 26.11.40 to meet the requirements for non-EGUs under the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call, as described in section II of this preamble. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and at the EPA Region III Office (please contact the person identified in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this preamble for more information). Therefore, these materials have been approved by the EPA for inclusion in the SIP, have been incorporated by reference by the EPA into that plan, are fully federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final rule of the EPA's approval, and will be incorporated by reference in the next update to the SIP compilation.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         62 FR 27968 (May 22, 1997).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Clean Air Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) because SIP actions are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866:</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a state program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act.</P>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <P>This action is subject to the Congressional Review Act, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).</P>
                <P>Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by September 22, 2025. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Amy Van Blarcom-Lackey,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region III.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, the EPA amends 40 CFR part 52 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 52—APPROVAL AND PROMULGATION OF IMPLEMENTATION PLANS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 52 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             42 U.S.C. 7401 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart V—Maryland</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 52.1070, the table in paragraph (c) by revising the entries for “26.11.40.02” and “26.11.40.03” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 52.1070</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Identification of plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <PRTPAGE P="34766"/>
                        <P>(c) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,i1" CDEF="xs60,r50,12,r50,r50">
                            <TTITLE>EPA-Approved Regulations, Technical Memoranda, and Statutes in the Maryland SIP</TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Citation</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Title/subject</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">State effective date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">EPA approval date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Additional
                                    <LI>explanation/</LI>
                                    <LI>citation at 40 CFR 52.1100</LI>
                                </CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Code of Maryland Administrative Regulations (COMAR)</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">26.11.40 NO</E>
                                    <E T="0732">X</E>
                                      
                                    <E T="02">Ozone Season Emission Caps for Non-trading Large NO</E>
                                    <E T="0732">X</E>
                                      
                                    <E T="02">Units</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">26.11.40.02</ENT>
                                <ENT>Applicability.</ENT>
                                <ENT>04/15/24</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/24/25, 90 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT/>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">26.11.40.03</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    NO
                                    <E T="0732">X</E>
                                     Ozone Season Emission Caps
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>04/15/24</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    07/24/25, 90 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT/>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13891 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R09-OAR-2025-0625; FRL-12877-01-R9]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Interim Final Determination To Stay or Defer Sanctions; California; Mojave Desert Air Quality Management District</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Interim final determination.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is making an interim final determination that the California Air Resources Board (CARB) has submitted a Clean Air Act (CAA or “Act”) state implementation plan (SIP) revision on behalf of the Mojave Desert Air Quality Management District (MDAQMD or “District”) that corrects deficiencies concerning the District's New Source Review (NSR) stationary source permitting program. This determination is based on a proposed conditional approval, published elsewhere in this issue of the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , of MDAQMD Rules. The effect of this interim final determination is to stay the application of the offset sanction and to defer or stay the action of the highway sanction that were triggered by the EPA's limited disapproval of MDAQMD Rules on June 30, 2023.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This interim final determination is effective July 24, 2025. However, comments will be accepted on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R09-OAR-2025-0625 at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         For comments submitted at 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov,</E>
                         follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Once submitted, comments cannot be edited or removed from 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov.</E>
                         The EPA may publish any comment received to its public docket. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Multimedia submissions (audio, video, etc.) must be accompanied by a written comment. The written comment is considered the official comment and should include discussion of all points you wish to make. The EPA will generally not consider comments or comment contents located outside of the primary submission (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         on the web, cloud, or other file sharing system). For additional submission methods, please contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section. For the full EPA public comment policy, information about CBI or multimedia submissions, and general guidance on making effective comments, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                         If you need assistance in a language other than English or if you are a person with a disability who needs a reasonable accommodation at no cost to you, please contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Shaheerah Kelly, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region IX (AIR-3-2), telephone number: (415) 947-4156, email address: 
                        <E T="03">kelly.shaheerah@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Throughout this document, “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to the EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Background</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. EPA Evaluation and Action</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On June 30, 2023, we published a limited approval and limited disapproval of Rules 1301, 1302 (except 1302(C)(5) and 1302(C)(7)(c), which were not submitted for inclusion in the SIP),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     1303, 1304, and 1305, as amended on March 22, 2021.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We based our limited disapproval action on deficiencies identified in the submitted rule. This limited approval and limited disapproval action started a sanctions clock for imposition of offset sanctions eighteen (18) months after July 31, 2023, and highway sanctions six (6) months later, pursuant to section 179 of the Act and our regulations at 40 CFR 52.31. Under 40 CFR 52.31(d)(1), offset sanctions apply 18 months after the effective date of a disapproval and highway sanctions apply 6 months after the offset sanctions, unless we 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34767"/>
                    determine that the deficiencies forming the basis of the disapproval have been corrected.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Subsections 1302(C)(5)(d) and 1302(C)(7)(c)(iii) of Rule 1302 specifically state that subsections 1302(C)(5) and 1302(C)(7)(c) are not submitted to the EPA and are not intended to be included as part of the California SIP.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         88 FR 42258.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>On March 25, 2024, the MDAQMD amended Rules 1301, 1302, 1303, 1304, and 1305. These amended and adopted rules were intended to address the deficiencies that were the basis for our limited disapproval in our June 30, 2023 action.</P>
                <P>
                    On August 7, 2024, the California Air Resources Board (CARB) submitted Rules 1301, 1302, 1303, 1304, and 1305 to the EPA,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and in a June 17, 2024 letter, CARB committed to submit to the EPA a revised MDAQMD Rule 1304 within one year of the EPA's final conditional approval. CARB is the governor's designee for California SIP submittals. In the Proposed Rules section of today's 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , we are proposing conditional approval of MDAQMD Rules 1301, 1302 (except 1302(C)(5) and 1302(C)(7)(c)), 1303, 1304, and 1305 because we believe they correct the deficiencies identified in our June 30, 2023 limited disapproval action in accordance with CAA section 110(k)(4), and meet other applicable CAA requirements. Based on today's proposed action, we are taking this final rulemaking action, effective on publication, to stay the imposition of the offset sanction and defer or stay the imposition of the highway sanction that was triggered by our June 30, 2023 limited disapproval.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The submittal for Rules 1301, 1302, 1303, 1304, and 1305 was transmitted to the EPA via a letter from CARB dated August 6, 2024, and received by the EPA on August 7, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The EPA is providing the public with an opportunity to comment on this stay of the offset sanction and deferral or stay of the highway sanction. If comments are submitted that change our assessment described in this final determination and our proposed conditional approval of MDAQMD Rules 1301, 1302 (except 1302(C)(5) and 1302(C)(7)(c)), 1303, 1304, and 1305, we will take final action to lift this stay of the offset sanction and deferral or stay of the highway sanction pursuant to 40 CFR 52.31(d). If no comments are submitted that change our assessment, then all sanctions and sanction clocks triggered by our June 30, 2023 final action will continue to be stayed or deferred unless and until the conditional approval converts to a disapproval or the EPA proposes to or takes final action to disapprove in whole or in part the revised SIP the State submits to fulfill the commitment in the conditionally-approved submittal, at which time the sanctions would reapply.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Any sanction clock triggered by our June 30, 2023 final action would be permanently stopped and sanctions applied, stayed, or deferred would be permanently lifted upon a final EPA finding that the deficiency forming the basis of the finding has been corrected.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         See 40 CFR 52.31(d)(3)(ii) and (iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         See 40 CFR 52.31(d)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. EPA Evaluation and Action</HD>
                <P>We are making an interim final determination to stay the application of the offset sanction and to defer or stay the application of the highway sanction associated with our limited disapproval of MDAQMD Rules 1301, 1302, 1303, 1304, and 1305 (as amended on March 25, 2024). This determination is based on a concurrent proposal to conditionally approve, pursuant to CAA section 110(k)(4), MDAQMD Rules 1301, 1302 (except 1302(C)(5) and 1302(C)(7)(c) which were not submitted for inclusion in the SIP), 1303, 1304, and 1305.</P>
                <P>
                    Because the EPA has preliminarily determined that the State's August 7, 2024 submittal more likely than not adequately addresses the deficiencies identified in the EPA's June 30, 2023 limited disapproval action when considered together with the MDAQMD's and CARB's commitment to adopt and submit revisions of MDAQMD Rule 1304 to the EPA, and because the EPA is concurrently proposing to conditionally approve the submittal, the EPA has determined that relief from sanctions should be provided as quickly as possible. Therefore, the EPA is invoking the good cause exception under the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) in not providing an opportunity for comment before this action takes effect.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     However, by this action, the EPA is providing the public with an opportunity to comment on the EPA's determination after the effective date, and the EPA will consider any comments received in determining whether to reverse such action.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The EPA believes that notice-and-comment rulemaking before the effective date of this action is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. The EPA has reviewed the State's submittal and, through its proposed action, is indicating that it is more likely than not that the State has corrected the deficiencies that were the basis for the limited disapproval that started the sanctions clocks. Therefore, it is not in the public interest to apply sanctions. The EPA believes that it is necessary to use the interim final rulemaking process to stay the application of the offset sanction and defer or stay the application of the highway sanction while the EPA completes its rulemaking process on the conditional approvability of the State's submittal. Moreover, with respect to the effective date of this action, the EPA is invoking the good cause exception to the 30-day notice requirement of the APA because the purpose of this notice is to relieve a restriction.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>This action stays or defers sanctions and imposes no additional requirements. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) because SIP actions are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866;</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a state program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34768"/>
                    specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
                </P>
                <P>This action is subject to the Congressional Review Act (CRA), and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. The CRA allows the issuing agency to make a rule effective sooner than otherwise provided by the CRA if the agency makes a good cause finding that notice and comment rulemaking procedures are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest (5 U.S.C. 808(2)). The EPA has made a good cause finding for this action as discussed in section II. of this preamble, including the basis for that finding.</P>
                <P>Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by September 22, 2025. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements (see CAA section 307(b)(2)).</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Ammonia, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen oxides, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Joshua F.W. Cook,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region IX.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13905 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R01-OAR-2023-0235; FRL-12018-02-R1]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; Connecticut; Plan for Inclusion of a Consent Order and Removal of State Orders</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the Connecticut Department of Energy and Environmental Protection (CT DEEP) to (1) remove State Order 7002B issued to Dow Chemical USA (Dow) in Gales Ferry on May 25, 1982, from the Connecticut SIP, (2) remove State Order 8027 issued to Pratt &amp; Whitney Division of United Technologies Corporation (Pratt &amp; Whitney) in North Haven on March 22, 1989, from the Connecticut SIP, and (3) add Consent Order 8381 issued to Thames Shipyard and Repair Company (Thames Shipyard) in New London, CT on December 3, 2021, to the Connecticut SIP. State Orders 8027 and 7002B addressed reasonably available control technology (RACT) for volatile organic compound (VOC) emissions and sulfur fuel content limits for Pratt &amp; Whitney and Dow, respectively. EPA is approving the Thames Shipyard Order into Connecticut's SIP to ensure RACT requirements with respect to VOC emissions from shipbuilding and repair operations continue to be implemented at Thames Shipyard. This action is being taken in accordance with the Clean Air Act.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective on August 25, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No. EPA-R01-OAR-2023-0235. All documents in the docket are listed on the 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         website. Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         CBI or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form. Publicly available docket materials are available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or at the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA Region 1 Regional Office, Air and Radiation Division, 5 Post Office Square—Suite 100, Boston, MA. EPA requests that if at all possible, you contact the contact listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section to schedule your inspection.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Michele Kosin, Physical Scientist, Air Quality Branch, Air &amp; Radiation Division (Mail Code 5-MI), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 1, 5 Post Office Square, Suite 100, Boston, Massachusetts 02109-3912; (617) 918-1175; 
                        <E T="03">kosin.michele@epa.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Background and Purpose</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Final Action</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Incorporation by Reference</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background and Purpose</HD>
                <P>On June 7, 2024 (89 FR 48532), EPA published a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) for the State of Connecticut. The NPRM proposed approval to revise the Connecticut SIP by removing State Orders 7002B and 8027 and adding Consent Order 8381 to the Connecticut SIP. State Order 7002B is no longer necessary because most of the regulated equipment has been removed from the property and the remaining equipment is subject to more stringent regulatory requirements than those established in the Order. State Order 8027 is no longer necessary to implement RACT because the equipment subject to the Order has been removed from the property. Consent Order 8381 requires source-specific VOC RACT to addresses VOC emissions from miscellaneous metal and plastic parts coating operations. The SIP revision was submitted by Connecticut on May 31, 2022, and supplemented on February 14, 2024.</P>
                <P>Other specific requirements of CT's RACT orders and the rationale for EPA's proposed action are explained in the NPRM and will not be restated here. No public comments were received on the NPRM.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Final Action</HD>
                <P>EPA is approving the revisions to the Connecticut SIP to include Consent Order 8381, and remove State Orders 7002B and 8027.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of Consent Order 8381 and removing the incorporation by reference of State Orders 7002B and 8027, as discussed in section I. of this preamble and set forth below in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available through 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and at the EPA Region 1 Office (please contact the person identified in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this preamble for more information).
                    <PRTPAGE P="34769"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) because SIP actions are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866;</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a state program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act.</P>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <P>
                    The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     as added by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, generally provides that before a rule may take effect, the agency promulgating the rule must submit a rule report, which includes a copy of the rule, to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. Section 804, however, exempts from section 801 the following types of rules: rules of particular applicability; rules relating to agency management or personnel; and rules of agency organization, procedure, or practice that do not substantially affect the rights or obligations of non-agency parties. 5 U.S.C. 804(3). Because this is a rule of particular applicability, EPA is not required to submit a rule report regarding this action under section 801.
                </P>
                <P>Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by September 22, 2025. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Mark Sanborn,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, EPA Region 1.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Environmental Protection Agency amends part 52 of chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations to read as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 52—APPROVAL AND PROMULGATION OF IMPLEMENTATION PLANS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 52 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                            42 U.S.C. 7401 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart H—Connecticut</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Section 52.370 is amended by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraph (c)(26); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Adding paragraphs (c)(51)(i)(E) and (c)(138).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revision and additions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 52.370</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Identification of plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(c) * * *</P>
                        <P>(26) Revisions to the State Implementation Plan submitted by the Connecticut Department of Environmental Protection on December 20, 1982.</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Incorporation by reference.</E>
                             (A) State Order No. 7002B signed on May 27, 1982, for Dow Chemical U.S.A. in Gale's Ferry. This provision supersedes a portion of the revisions identified under paragraph (c)(18) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) State Order No. 7002B, which was approved in paragraph (c)(26)(i)(A) of this section, is removed without replacement.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Additional materials.</E>
                             (A) Letter from Connecticut dated December 20, 1982, submitting a revision to the Connecticut State Implementation Plan.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) [Reserved]</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(51) * * *</P>
                        <P>(i) * * *</P>
                        <P>(E) State Order No. 8027 and attached Compliance Timetable for Pratt &amp; Whitney Division of United Technologies Corporation in North Haven, Connecticut, which was approved in paragraph (c)(51)(i)(C) of this section, is removed without replacement.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(138) Revisions to the State Implementation Plan submitted by the Connecticut Department of Energy and Environmental Protection on July 19, 2022.</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Incorporation by reference.</E>
                             (A) 
                            <E T="03">State of Connecticut</E>
                             vs. 
                            <E T="03">Thames Shipyard &amp; Repair Company,</E>
                             Consent Order No. 8381, issued as a final order on December 3, 2021.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) [Reserved]</P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>3. Section 52.385 is amended in Table 52.385 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Adding a tenth entry for “22a-174-22” before the entry “22a-174-22a”; and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Adding a tenth entry for “22a-174-32” before the entry “22a-174-33a”.</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The additions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 52.385</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>EPA-approved Connecticut regulations.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <PRTPAGE P="34770"/>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L1,nj,i1" CDEF="s25,r50,12,12,xs96,xs36,r50">
                            <TTITLE>Table 52.385—EPA-Approved Regulations</TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Connecticut state 
                                    <LI>citation</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Title/subject</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Dates</CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">
                                    Date adopted 
                                    <LI>by State</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">
                                    Date approved 
                                    <LI>by EPA</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    <E T="02">Federal</E>
                                    <LI>
                                        <E T="02">Register</E>
                                    </LI>
                                    <LI>citation</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Section 
                                    <LI>52.370</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Comments/description</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">22a-174-22</ENT>
                                <ENT>Control of Nitrogen Oxides emissions</ENT>
                                <ENT>5/3/2022</ENT>
                                <ENT>6/28/2022</ENT>
                                <ENT>87 FR 38284</ENT>
                                <ENT>(c)(128)</ENT>
                                <ENT>VOC RACT for Middletown Power LLC, Montville Power LLC, Connecticut Jet Power LLC, and Devon Power LLC, Order No. 8377, Modification 1.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">22a-174-32</ENT>
                                <ENT>Reasonably available control technology for volatile organic compounds</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/3/2021</ENT>
                                <ENT>7/24/2025</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    [90 FR [Insert 
                                    <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                     page where the document begins], 7/24/2025
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>(c)(138)</ENT>
                                <ENT>VOC RACT for Thames Shipyard, Order No. 8381.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13886 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Parts 52 and 81</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R03-OAR-2024-0586; FRL-10536-02-R3]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; Pennsylvania; Redesignation Request and Associated Maintenance Plan for the Liberty-Clairton Area for the 1997 Annual and 2006 24-Hour Fine Particulate Matter Standard and Maintenance Plan for the Allegheny County Area for the 2012 Annual Fine Particulate Matter Standard</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania's request to redesignate to attainment the Liberty-Clairton, Pennsylvania nonattainment area (Liberty-Clairton Area) for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour fine particulate matter (PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                        ) national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS or standard). The EPA has determined that the Liberty-Clairton Area attained both the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         NAAQS and has met the statutory requirements for redesignation. The EPA is approving, as a revision to the Pennsylvania State Implementation Plan (SIP), the Commonwealth's plan for maintaining the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         NAAQS through 2035 for the Liberty-Clairton Area. Additionally, the EPA is approving the maintenance plan for the Allegheny County, Pennsylvania nonattainment area (Allegheny County Area) for the 2012 annual PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         NAAQS through 2035. The maintenance plan includes 2017, 2026, and 2035 mobile vehicle emissions budgets (MVEBs) for mobile sources of PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         and nitrogen oxides (NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                        ) for the Allegheny County Area for the 2012 annual PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         NAAQS, which the EPA is approving for transportation conformity purposes. This action does not redesignate the Allegheny County Area to attainment for the 2012 annual PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         NAAQS. Both the redesignation request and maintenance plan were submitted by the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania Department of Environmental Protection (PADEP or Pennsylvania) on behalf of the Allegheny County Health Department (ACHD). This action is being taken under the CAA.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is effective on August 25, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID Number EPA-R03-OAR-2024-0586. All documents in the docket are listed on the 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         website. Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         confidential business information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form. Publicly available docket materials are available through 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         or please contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section for additional availability information.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ian Neiswinter, Planning &amp; Implementation Branch (3AD30), Air &amp; Radiation Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region III, 1600 John F. Kennedy Boulevard, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania 19103. The telephone number is (215) 814-2011. Mr. Neiswinter can also be reached via electronic mail at 
                        <E T="03">neiswinter.ian@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Throughout this document, wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” are used, it is intended to refer to the EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On January 5, 2005 (70 FR 944), the EPA published air quality area designations for the 1997 PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS based upon air quality monitoring data for calendar years 2001-2003. In that rulemaking action, the EPA designated the Liberty-Clairton Area as nonattainment for the 1997 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     and 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On November 13, 2009 (74 FR 58688), the EPA published designations for the 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS based on certified air quality data from 2006-2008, which became effective on December 14, 2009. In that action, the EPA designated the Liberty-Clairton Area as nonattainment for the 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS, retaining the same 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34771"/>
                    geographical boundaries as for the 1997 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS. In that same action, the EPA clarified that the Liberty-Clairton Area is designated as unclassifiable/attainment for the 1997 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS but retained the 1997 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS nonattainment designation. On January 15, 2015 (80 FR 2206), the EPA published air quality designations for the 2012 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS based on certified air quality data from 2011-2013. In that action, the EPA designated all municipalities in Allegheny County, Pennsylvania (Allegheny County Area) as one nonattainment area for the 2012 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The Liberty-Clairton Area is comprised of the following municipalities in Allegheny County, Pennsylvania: the boroughs of Liberty, Lincoln, Port Vue, and Glassport, and the City of Clairton. The table listed at 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 81.339 defines NAAQS area designations within Pennsylvania.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The Allegheny County Area is comprised of all municipalities within Allegheny County, Pennsylvania, and subsumes the municipalities which comprise the Liberty-Clairton Area. The table listed at 40 CFR 81.339 defines NAAQS area designations within Pennsylvania.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Section 107(d)(3)(E) of the CAA allows redesignation of an area to attainment of the NAAQS provided that: (1) the Administrator (EPA) determines that the area has attained the applicable NAAQS; (2) the Administrator has fully approved the applicable implementation plan for the area under section 110(k) of the CAA; (3) the Administrator determines that the improvement in air quality is due to permanent and enforceable reductions in emissions resulting from implementation of the applicable SIP, applicable Federal air pollutant control regulations, and other permanent and enforceable emission reductions; (4) the Administrator has fully approved a maintenance plan for the area as meeting the requirements of section 175A of the CAA; and (5) the State containing the area has met all requirements applicable to the area for purposes of redesignation under section 110 and part D of the CAA.</P>
                <P>
                    On November 30, 2022, PADEP on behalf of ACHD, formally submitted a redesignation request for the Liberty-Clairton Area for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS and for the Allegheny County Area for the 2012 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS. As part of the request, PADEP submitted, as a Pennsylvania SIP revision, a combined maintenance plan for each area's respective NAAQS to ensure continued attainment throughout the areas through 2035, as required by CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(iv).
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On May 2, 2024, PADEP submitted to the EPA a partial withdrawal of the November 30, 2022 SIP revision. Specifically, PADEP withdrew only the portion of the SIP revision pertaining to the request to redesignate the Allegheny County Area to attainment for the 2012 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS. However, PADEP retained the portion of the SIP revision pertaining to the maintenance plan for the Allegheny County Area for the 2012 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS. PADEP also retained the request to redesignate the Liberty-Clairton Area for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS to attainment along with the associated maintenance plan for the Liberty-Clairton Area.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         CAA section 175A(a) mandates that the initial maintenance plan submission must cover at least 10 years from the effective date of redesignation.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On April 7, 2025 (90 FR 14939), the EPA published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) for the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania. In the NPRM, the EPA proposed approval of Pennsylvania's November 30, 2022 request to redesignate the Liberty-Clairton Area to attainment for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS. The EPA also proposed approval of the maintenance plan, as a revision to the Pennsylvania SIP, for the Liberty-Clairton Area for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS, and for the Allegheny County Area for the 2012 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS. The maintenance plan includes the 2017, 2026, and 2035 PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     and NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     MVEBs for the Allegheny County Area for the 2012 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS, which the EPA proposed to approve for purposes of transportation conformity.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Summary of SIP Revision and EPA Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    The EPA reviewed Pennsylvania's redesignation request and found that the requirements for redesignating the Liberty-Clairton Area to attainment for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS have been satisfied pursuant to CAA section 107(d)(3)(E). As one of the criteria for redesignation to attainment, CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(iv) requires the EPA to determine that the area has a fully approved maintenance plan pursuant to CAA section 175A that demonstrates continued attainment of the NAAQS for at least 10 years following redesignation to attainment. The EPA reviewed the maintenance plan submitted by Pennsylvania for the Liberty-Clairton Area for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS and for the Allegheny County Area for the 2012 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS and found that it satisfied the requirements of section 175A. The maintenance plan includes 2017, 2026, and 2035 MVEBs for mobile sources of PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     and NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     for the Allegheny County Area for the 2012 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS. The EPA found the submitted MVEBs to be adequate and approvable as a revision to the Pennsylvania SIP. For the 1997 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS, transportation conformity will cease to apply on the effective date of the Liberty-Clairton Area's redesignation to attainment. After that date, conformity determinations for the 1997 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS for metropolitan transportation plans, metropolitan TIPs, or transportation projects are no longer required for this NAAQS. For the 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS, the Liberty-Clairton Area motor vehicles emissions are deemed insignificant.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Since the motor vehicle emissions are insignificant for this NAAQS, a regional emissions analysis is not required; however, the Liberty-Clairton Area must continue to follow procedures such as interagency consultation, as described in the transportation conformity rule (40 CFR part 93, subpart A).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         40 CFR 93.109(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The details of Pennsylvania's submittal and the rationale for the EPA's proposed actions are explained in the NPRM and will not be restated here. The EPA received one anonymous, non-adverse, non-significant comment on the NPRM that purported to be CBI. No adverse public comments were received on the NPRM.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Final Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The EPA is taking final action to redesignate the Liberty-Clairton Area for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS from nonattainment to attainment. In doing so, the EPA is taking final action to approve the relevant maintenance plan SIP revisions by the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania, which includes a maintenance plan for the Liberty-Clairton Area for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS, and the Allegheny County Area for the 2012 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS. In taking this action, the EPA finds that: (1) monitoring data demonstrate that the Liberty-Clairton Area has attained and continues to attain the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS; (2) Pennsylvanian's redesignation request specific to the Liberty-Clairton Area for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS meets the statutory requirements of CAA section 107(d)(3)(E) for redesignation for both NAAQS; and (3) the maintenance plan for the Liberty-Clairton Area for the 1997 annual and 2006 24-hour PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS and for the Allegheny County Area for the 2012 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS meets the statutory requirements of CAA section 175A. The maintenance plan includes the 2017, 2026, and 2035 PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     and NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     MVEBs submitted by Pennsylvania for the Allegheny County 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34772"/>
                    Area for the 2012 annual PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     NAAQS for transportation conformity purposes.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Clean Air Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) because SIP actions are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866:</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a state program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act.</P>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <P>This action is subject to the Congressional Review Act, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).</P>
                <P>Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by September 22, 2025. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                    <CFR>40 CFR Part 81</CFR>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Amy Van Blarcom-Lackey,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region III.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, the EPA amends 40 CFR parts 52 and 81 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 52—APPROVAL AND PROMULGATION OF IMPLEMENTATION PLANS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 52 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             42 U.S.C. 7401 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart NN—Pennsylvania</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        2. In § 52.2020, the table in paragraph (e)(1) is amended by adding two entries “1997 Annual and 2006 24-Hour PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         NAAQS Maintenance Plan” and “2012 Annual PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         NAAQS Maintenance Plan” at the end of the table to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 52.2020</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Identification of plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(e) * * *</P>
                        <P>(1) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,r50,r50">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Name of non-regulatory SIP revision</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Applicable geographic area</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    State
                                    <LI>submittal</LI>
                                    <LI>date</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">EPA approval date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Additional explanation</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    1997 Annual and 2006 24-Hour PM
                                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                                     NAAQS Maintenance Plan
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    Liberty-Clairton PM
                                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                                     Nonattainment Area
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>11/30/22</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    7/24/26, 90 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    2012 Annual PM
                                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                                     NAAQS Maintenance Plan
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    Allegheny County PM
                                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                                     Nonattainment Area
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>11/30/22</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    7/24/26, 90 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>See § 52.2059(aa).</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>3. Section 52.2059 is amended by adding paragraph (aa) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 52.2059</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Control strategy: Particulate matter.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (aa) The EPA approves the maintenance plan for the Allegheny County nonattainment area for the 2012 annual PM
                            <E T="52">2.5</E>
                             NAAQS submitted by the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania on November 30, 2022. The maintenance plan includes the 2017, 2026, and 2035 PM
                            <E T="52">2.5</E>
                             and NO
                            <E T="52">X</E>
                             motor vehicle emissions budgets (MVEBs) to be applied to all 
                            <PRTPAGE P="34773"/>
                            future transportation conformity determinations and analyses for the Allegheny County nonattainment area for the 2012 annual PM
                            <E T="52">2.5</E>
                             NAAQS.
                        </P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,12,12">
                            <TTITLE>
                                Table 15 to Paragraph 
                                <E T="01">(aa)</E>
                                —Allegheny County Area's Motor Vehicle Emission Budgets for the 2012 Annual PM
                                <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                                 NAAQS in Tons per Year
                            </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Type of control strategy SIP</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    PM
                                    <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    NO
                                    <E T="0732">X</E>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Effective
                                    <LI>date of SIP</LI>
                                    <LI>approval</LI>
                                </CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Maintenance Plan</ENT>
                                <ENT>2017 Budget</ENT>
                                <ENT>257</ENT>
                                <ENT>8,046</ENT>
                                <ENT>7/24/26]</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                <ENT>2026 Modeled</ENT>
                                <ENT>161</ENT>
                                <ENT>3,748</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                <ENT>2026 Safety Margin</ENT>
                                <ENT>16</ENT>
                                <ENT>375</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                <ENT>2026 Budget</ENT>
                                <ENT>177</ENT>
                                <ENT>4,123</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                <ENT>2035 Modeled</ENT>
                                <ENT>128</ENT>
                                <ENT>2,638</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                <ENT>2035 Safety Margin</ENT>
                                <ENT>13</ENT>
                                <ENT>264</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                <ENT>2035 Budget</ENT>
                                <ENT>141</ENT>
                                <ENT>2,902</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 81—DESIGNATION OF AREAS FOR AIR QUALITY PLANNING PURPOSES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="81">
                    <AMDPAR>4. The authority citation for part 81 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             42 U.S.C. 7401, 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="81">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        5. In § 81.339, amend the tables entitled “1997 Annual PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         NAAQS” and “2006 24-Hour PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         NAAQS” by revising the entry for “Liberty-Clairton, PA” to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 81.339</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Pennsylvania.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,r50,r50,r50">
                            <TTITLE>
                                Pennsylvania—1997 Annual PM
                                <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                                 NAAQS
                            </TTITLE>
                            <TDESC>[Primary and secondary]</TDESC>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Designated area</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Designation 
                                    <SU>a</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">
                                    Date 
                                    <SU>1</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">Type</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Classification</CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">
                                    Date 
                                    <SU>2</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">Type</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22">Liberty-Clairton, PA:</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="03">Allegheny County (part)</ENT>
                                <ENT>August 25, 2025</ENT>
                                <ENT>Attainment</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Lincoln Borough, Clairton City, Glassport Borough, Liberty Borough, Port Vue Borough</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <TNOTE>
                                <SU>a</SU>
                                 Includes Indian Country located in each county or area, except as otherwise specified.
                            </TNOTE>
                            <TNOTE>
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                 This date is 90 days after January 5, 2005, unless otherwise noted.
                            </TNOTE>
                            <TNOTE>
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                 This date is July 2, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
                            </TNOTE>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <STARS/>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,r50,r50,r50">
                            <TTITLE>
                                Pennsylvania—2006 24-Hour PM
                                <E T="0732">2.5</E>
                                 NAAQS
                            </TTITLE>
                            <TDESC>[Primary and secondary]</TDESC>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Designated area</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Designation 
                                    <SU>a</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">
                                    Date 
                                    <SU>1</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">Type</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Classification</CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">
                                    Date 
                                    <SU>2</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">Type</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22">Liberty-Clairton, PA:</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="03">Allegheny County (part)</ENT>
                                <ENT>August 25, 2025</ENT>
                                <ENT>Attainment</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Lincoln Borough, Clairton City, Glassport Borough, Liberty Borough, Port Vue Borough</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <TNOTE>
                                <SU>a</SU>
                                 Includes Indian Country located in each county or area, except as otherwise specified.
                            </TNOTE>
                            <TNOTE>
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                 This date is 30 days after November 13, 2009, unless otherwise noted.
                            </TNOTE>
                            <TNOTE>
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                 This date is July 2, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
                            </TNOTE>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13893 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
    </RULES>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>140</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, July 24, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <PRORULES>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="34774"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2025-1367; Project Identifier AD-2024-00719-T]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA proposes to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2013-08-16, which applies to certain The Boeing Company Model 737-700 and -700C series airplanes. AD 2013-08-16 requires repetitive inspections for cracking of the fuselage skin at certain locations at chem-mill areas and repair if necessary. Since the FAA issued AD 2013-08-16, the FAA has determined that the compliance times are not adequate. This proposed AD would continue to require the actions in AD 2013-08-16 but at reduced compliance times and would require post-modification inspections if an optional modification is accomplished. The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this proposed AD by September 8, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                        . Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2025-1367; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this NPRM, any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For Boeing material in this proposed AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual &amp; Data Services (C&amp;DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110 SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website 
                        <E T="03">myboeingfleet.com</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Luis Cortez-Muniz, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3958; email: 
                        <E T="03">Luis.A.Cortez-Muniz@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments using a method listed under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2025-1367; Project Identifier AD-2024-00719-T” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend the proposal because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                    , including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this proposed AD.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Luis Cortez-Muniz, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3958; email: 
                    <E T="03">Luis.A.Cortez-Muniz@faa.gov.</E>
                     Any commentary that the FAA receives that is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The FAA issued AD 2013-08-16, Amendment 39-17433 (78 FR 25369, May 1, 2013) (AD 2013-08-16), for The Boeing Company Model 737-700 and -700C series airplanes with certain line numbers. AD 2013-08-16 was prompted by reports of early fatigue cracks at chem-mill areas on the crown skin panels. AD 2013-08-16 requires repetitive inspections for cracking of the fuselage skin at certain locations at chem-mill areas and repair if necessary. AD 2013-08-16 requires the initial inspections before the airplane accumulates 43,000 total flight cycles. AD 2013-08-16 also provides an optional terminating action for the repetitive inspections. The FAA issued AD 2013-08-16 to detect and correct fatigue cracking of the skin panel at the specified chem-mill step locations, which could result in rapid decompression of the airplane.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Actions Since AD 2013-08-16 Was Issued</HD>
                <P>
                    Since the FAA issued AD 2013-08-16, the FAA received reports of three suspected fuselage fatigue cracks found adjacent to non-chem-mill skin bays on 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34775"/>
                    Model 737-700 airplanes with between 40,000 and 43,000 total flight cycles earlier than the inspection thresholds specified by AD 2013-08-16. Boeing has reported that the initial inspection times and repetitive intervals in Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-53-1310, dated October 20, 2011, are not adequate. The reports indicate that crack growth is faster and cracks are more distributed along the chem-mill steps between the tear straps, resulting in longer cracks than initially observed in the test data that prompted Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-53-1310, dated October 20, 2011. As a result of these findings, the FAA has determined that reduced inspection thresholds and intervals for the chem-mill areas and the post-modification inspections (for airplanes on which the optional terminating action is accomplished) are now necessary to address the unsafe condition.
                </P>
                <P>The FAA is considering superseding similar ADs for Model 737-600, -800, -900, and -900ER series airplanes, which have crown skin panels that are of a similar design as those on Model 737-700 and -700C series airplanes and may be subject to the same unsafe condition.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this NPRM after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-53-1310, Revision 1, dated May 22, 2024. This material specifies procedures for repetitive external detailed inspections and either (1) external medium frequency eddy current (MFEC), magneto optic imager (MOI), or C scan inspections or (2) external ultrasonic phased array (UTPA) inspections, and repairing any cracking. This material also describes procedures for installing modification doublers in certain locations, which involves an external detailed inspection and external nondestructive (MFEC, MOI, C-Scan, or UTPA) inspection for any cracking of the area to be modified prior to the doubler being placed on that area, and a high frequency eddy current inspection of all existing holes for cracking. This material specifies that accomplishment of the modification terminates the repetitive inspections provided post-modification inspections are performed for the modified areas.</P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed AD Requirements in This NPRM</HD>
                <P>
                    This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the material already described, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this proposed AD. For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this material at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2025-1367.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD, if adopted as proposed, would affect 545 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs60,r50,12,r30,r30">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per 
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost on U.S. operators</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inspections</ENT>
                        <ENT>39 work-hours × $85 per hour = $3,315 per inspection cycle</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$3,315 per inspection cycle</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,806,675 per inspection cycle.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,xs60,10">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs For Optional Actions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Modification</ENT>
                        <ENT>956 work-hours × $85 per hour = $81,260</ENT>
                        <ENT>Minimal</ENT>
                        <ENT>$81,260</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Post-modification inspections</ENT>
                        <ENT>92 work-hours × $85 per hour = $7,820</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,820</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The extent of cracking found during the inspections could vary significantly from airplane to airplane. The FAA has no way of determining which conditions may be found on each airplane, the cost to correct or repair each airplane, or the number of airplanes that may require repair.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that the proposed regulation:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Would not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Would not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="34776"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by:</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>a. Removing Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2013-08-16, Amendment 39-17433 (78 FR 25369, May 1, 2013), and</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>b. Adding the following new AD:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="04">The Boeing Company:</E>
                         Docket No. FAA-2025-1367; Project Identifier AD-2024-00719-T.
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Comments Due Date</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this airworthiness directive (AD) by September 8, 2025.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                    <P>This AD replaces AD 2013-08-16, Amendment 39-17433 (78 FR 25369, May 1, 2013) (AD 2013-08-16).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                    <P>(1) This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 737-700 and -700C series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-53-1310, Revision 1, dated May 22, 2024.</P>
                    <P>(2) Installation of Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) ST00830SE does not affect the ability to accomplish the actions required by this AD. Therefore, for airplanes on which STC ST00830SE is installed, a “change in product” alternative method of compliance (AMOC) approval request is not necessary to comply with the requirements of 14 CFR 39.17.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                    <P>Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                    <P>This AD was prompted by reports of fatigue cracks at chem-mill areas on the crown skin panels and by recent reports of fuselage fatigue cracks adjacent to non-chem-mill skin bays. The FAA is issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking of the skin panel at the specified chem-mill step locations. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in rapid decompression of the airplane.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                    <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Inspections of Crown Skin Areas</HD>
                    <P>At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E. “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-53-1310, Revision 1, dated May 22, 2024, except as required by paragraph (h) of this AD: Do an external detailed inspection and an external nondestructive inspection (a medium frequency eddy current (MFEC), magneto optic imager (MOI), C-scan, or ultrasonic phased array (UTPA) inspection) for cracking in the fuselage skin along the chem-mill steps at certain locations specified in, and in accordance with, paragraph 3.B.2.a of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-53-1310, Revision 1, dated May 22, 2024. Repeat the inspections thereafter at the applicable times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-53-1310, Revision 1, dated May 22, 2024.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exception to Service Bulletin Specifications</HD>
                    <P>Where the Compliance Time column in the tables under the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-53-1310, Revision 1, dated May 22, 2024, refers to the Revision 1 date of the service bulletin, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Repair</HD>
                    <P>If any cracking is found during any inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, before further flight, repair the cracking using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (l) of this AD.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Optional Terminating Modification</HD>
                    <P>Accomplishment of the actions specified in paragraphs (j)(1) through (3) of this AD terminates the repetitive inspections required by paragraph (g) of this AD for the modified area only.</P>
                    <P>(1) Do an external detailed inspection and external nondestructive inspection (MFEC, MOI, C-scan, or UTPA) for cracking of the area to be modified, and if no cracking is found, do the modification, including doing a high frequency eddy current inspection of all existing holes for cracking in accordance with paragraph 3.B.3, “Part 3: Modification,” of the Accomplishment Instructions in Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-53-1310, Revision 1, dated May 22, 2024.</P>
                    <P>(2) Repair, before further flight, any cracking found during any inspection specified in paragraph (j)(1) or (3) of this AD using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (l) of this AD.</P>
                    <P>(3) Do the post-modification repetitive inspections specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” and in Part 5 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-53-1310, Revision 1, dated May 22, 2024. The inspections must be performed and repeated at the applicable times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-53-1310, Revision 1, dated May 22, 2024, except as required by paragraph (h) of this AD.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Credit for Previous Actions</HD>
                    <P>This paragraph provides credit for the optional actions in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD, if the modification was performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Service Bulletin 737-53-1310, dated October 20, 2011.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) AMOCs</HD>
                    <P>
                        (1) The Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (m) of this AD. Information may be emailed to: 
                        <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                         Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by The Boeing Company Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(m) Related Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        For more information about this AD, contact Luis Cortez-Muniz, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3958; email: 
                        <E T="03">Luis.A.Cortez-Muniz@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(n) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                    <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                    <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                    <P>(i) Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 737-53-1310, Revision 1, dated May 22, 2024.</P>
                    <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                    <P>
                        (3) For Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual &amp; Data Services (C&amp;DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website 
                        <E T="03">myboeingfleet.com</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                    <P>
                        (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                        <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                         or email 
                        <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="34777"/>
                    <DATED>Issued on July 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lona C. Saccomando,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Integrated Certificate Management Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13920 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 71</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2025-2023; Airspace Docket No. 25-ANM-137]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA66</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Establishment of United States Area Navigation (RNAV) Route Q-151 and Revocation of Jet Route J-517 in the Northern United States</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action proposes to establish United States Area Navigation (RNAV) Route Q-151 and revoke Jet Route J-517 in the northern United States. The FAA is proposing this action due to the lack of navigational signal coverage restricting usage of J-157.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before September 8, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by FAA Docket No. FAA-2025-2023 and Airspace Docket No. 25-ANM-137 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA Order JO 7400.11J, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/.</E>
                         You may also contact the Rules and Regulations Group, Policy Directorate, Federal Aviation Administration, 600 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20597; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Steven Roff, Rules and Regulations Group, Policy Directorate, Federal Aviation Administration, 600 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20597; telephone: (202) 267-8783.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of the airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend the airway structure as necessary to preserve the safe and efficient flow of air traffic within the National Airspace System.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>The FAA invites interested persons to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should submit only one time if comments are filed electronically, or commenters should send only one copy of written comments if comments are filed in writing.</P>
                <P>The FAA will file in the docket all comments it receives, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, the FAA will consider all comments it receives on or before the closing date for comments. The FAA will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. The FAA may change this proposal in light of the comments it receives.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                     In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of Rulemaking Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Recently published rulemaking documents can also be accessed through the FAA's web page at 
                    <E T="03">www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/airspace_amendments/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Operations office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section for address, phone number, and hours of operations). An informal docket may also be examined during normal business hours at the office of the Western Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    United States Area Navigation Routes are published in paragraph 2006 and Jet Routes are published in paragraph 2004 of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document proposes to amend the current version of that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11J, dated July 31, 2024, and effective September 15, 2024. These updates would be published in the next update to FAA Order JO 7400.11. FAA Order JO 7400.11J, which lists Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic service routes, and reporting points, is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Jet Route J-517 currently extends between the Boise, ID, Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR)/Tactical Air Navigation (VORTAC) and the Cranbrook, BC, Canada, VOR/Distance Measuring 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34778"/>
                    Equipment (VOR/DME), excluding the airspace with Canada. J-517 is unavailable to aircraft between the Boise and Spokane VORTACs unless they are equipped with a RNAV system with Global Positioning System (GPS) as annotated in Notice to Airmen FDC 5/7559 and FDC 5/7557. The route is subject to a service volume limitation issue with the Very High Frequency (VHF) signal due to terrain blocking the signal. Because of these issues, the FAA is proposing to revoke J-517 in its entirety and establish RNAV Route Q-151 as a replacement. Q-151 would extend between the WINEN, UT, waypoint (WP) and the EDGES, ID, Fix. The current EDGES Fix will be relocated and will replace the computer navigation fix, BZXIV, as a border coordination fix between the United States and Canada. Concurrently with this airspace action, NAV CANADA will revoke the remaining segment of J-517 within Canadian airspace and establish Q-151 between EDGES and the Cranbrook, BC, Canada, VOR/DME.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposal</HD>
                <P>The FAA is proposing an amendment to 14 CFR part 71 by establishing RNAV Route Q-151 and revoking J-517 in its entirety.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">J-517:</E>
                     Jet Route J-517 currently extends between the Boise, ID, VORTAC and the Cranbrook, BC, Canada, VOR/DME, excluding the airspace with Canada. J-517 is unavailable to aircraft between the Boise and Spokane VORTACs unless they are equipped with a RNAV system with GPS as annotated in Notice to Airmen FDC 5/7559 and FDC 5/7557. The FAA is proposing to revoke J-517 in its entirety and establish RNAV Route Q-151 as a replacement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Q-151:</E>
                     The establishment of RNAV Q-151 is being proposed as a replacement for the loss of Jet Route J-517. Q-151 would extend between the WINEN, UT, WP and the EDGES, ID, Fix.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1G, “FAA National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71</HD>
                    <P>Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to  amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 14 CFR part 71 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 71.1</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The incorporation by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 of FAA Order JO 7400.11J, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated July 31, 2024, and effective September 15, 2024, is amended as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 2006 United States Area Navigation Routes.</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L0,tp0,p0,7/8,g1,t1,i1" CDEF="xls75,xls50,xls180">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="02">
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="04">Q-151 WINEN, UT to EDGES, ID [New]</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">WINEN, UT</ENT>
                            <ENT>WP</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 37°56′00.00″ N, long. 113°30′00.00″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PICHO, UT</ENT>
                            <ENT>WP</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 39°58′00.00″ N, long. 112°35′00.00″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PATIO, UT</ENT>
                            <ENT>WP</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 41°16′00.00″ N, long. 112°32′00.00″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">BROPH, ID</ENT>
                            <ENT>WP</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 42°43′15.71″ N, long. 114°52′31.80″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Boise, ID (BOI)</ENT>
                            <ENT>VORTAC</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 43°33′10.12″ N, long. 116°11′31.65″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">HILIE, ID</ENT>
                            <ENT>FIX</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 47°31′05.33″ N, long. 116°41′22.93″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">EDGES, ID</ENT>
                            <ENT>FIX</ENT>
                            <ENT>(Lat. 49°00′00.00″ N, long. 116°31′51.36″ W)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <STARS/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paragraph 2004 Jet Routes.</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">J-517 [Revoked]</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Brian Eric Konie,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager (A), Rules and Regulations Group.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13950 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 117</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2025-0464]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA09</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway, Fort Lauderdale, FL</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard proposes changing the operating schedule that governs the SE 17th Street (Brooks Memorial) Bridge, across the Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway (AICW), mile 1065.9, at Fort Lauderdale, FL. The City of Fort Lauderdale requested the Coast Guard consider changing the operating regulation by placing additional opening restrictions during weekday rush hour periods to assist with vehicle congestion. We invite your comments on this proposed rulemaking.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments and related material must reach the Coast Guard on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                         You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2025-0464 using Federal Decision-Making Portal at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        See the “Public Participation and Request for Comments” portion of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34779"/>
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section below for instructions on submitting comments. This notice of proposed rulemaking with its plain-language, 100-word-or-less proposed rule summary will be available in this same docket.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions on this proposed rule, call or email Ms. Jennifer Zercher, Bridge Management Specialist, Seventh Coast Guard District; telephone 571-607-5951, email 
                        <E T="03">Jennifer.N.Zercher@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OMB Office of Management and Budget</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FL Florida</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">TD Temporary Deviation</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">AICW Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background, Purpose and Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>SE 17th Street (Brooks Memorial) Bridge across the AICW, mile 1065.9, at Fort Lauderdale, FL, is a bascule bridge with a 55-foot vertical clearance at mean high water in the closed position. The normal operating schedule for the bridge is set forth in 33 CFR 117.261(bb)(8).</P>
                <P>The City of Fort Lauderdale requested the Coast Guard consider additional opening restrictions during weekday rush hour periods to assist with vehicle congestion. The drawbridge currently opens twice an hour for navigation. This proposed change adds additional opening restrictions during weekday rush hour periods.</P>
                <P>
                    This NPRM will run simultaneously with a Test Deviation, under the same name and docket number. Both documents can be found at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and comments can be made to either document.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>The current operating schedule allows the SE 17th Street (Brooks Memorial) Bridge to open at the top and bottom of the hour for marine traffic. Under this proposed rule, the bascule bridge will open once an hour, at the top of the hour, Monday through Friday during pre-designated times. Vehicle traffic across the bridge is at or nearing roadway design capacity during certain times of the day. The Coast Guard is proposing to limit drawbridge openings during high vehicle traffic times to assist with vehicle congestion while requesting state and local agencies consider alternate mitigation measures to improve traffic flow and roadway congestion. The drawbridge will open twice an hour at all other times. The specific proposed operating schedule is this: The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour; except that from 6:50 a.m. to 9:10 a.m. and from 3:50 p.m. to 6:10 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays, the drawbridge shall open once an hour at the top of the hour. Vessels that can pass beneath the bridge without an opening may do so at any time. Public vessels of the United States, tugs with tows and vessels in distress may pass any time.</P>
                <P>In addition to the proposed change to the special requirement for the SE 17th Street (Brooks Memorial) Bridge, this proposed rule will republish section 117.261 to reorganize the paragraph structure to follow current regulatory drafting requirements. See paragraph (z) of the proposed regulatory text for the proposed operating schedule for the Brooks Memorial Bridge.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive Orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on these statutes and Executive Orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Regulatory Planning and Review</HD>
                <P>Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. This proposed rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the NPRM has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).</P>
                <P>This regulatory action determination is based on the ability that vessels can still transit the bridge during the designated times and vessels able to pass without an opening may do so at any time.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                <P>While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the bridge may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section IV.A above this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.</P>
                <P>
                    If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) explaining why you think it qualifies and how and to what degree this rule would economically affect it.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule. If the proposed rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section. The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this proposed rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule would call for no new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520.).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132 (Federalism), if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this proposed rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.</P>
                <P>
                    Also, this proposed rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175 (Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments) because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this proposed rule has 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34780"/>
                    implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this proposed rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this proposed rule elsewhere in this preamble.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Environment</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01, Rev.1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning Policy COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA)(42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f). The Coast Guard has determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This proposed rule promulgates the operating regulations or procedures for drawbridges. Normally such actions are categorically excluded from further review, under paragraph L49, of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1.</P>
                <P>Neither a Record of Environmental Consideration nor a Memorandum for the Record are required for this rule. We seek any comments or information that may lead to the discovery of a significant environmental impact from this proposed rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Public Participation and Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Submitting comments.</E>
                     We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal Decision-Making Portal at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     To do so, go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     type USCG-2025-0464 in the search box and click “Search.” Next, look for this document in the Search Results column, and click on it. Then click on the Comment option. If your material cannot be submitted using 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     contact the person in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this document for alternate instructions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Viewing material in docket.</E>
                     To view documents mentioned in this proposed rule as being available in the docket, find the docket as described in the previous paragraph, and then select “Supporting &amp; Related Material” in the Document Type column. Public comments will also be placed in our online docket and can be viewed by following instructions on the 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     Frequently Asked Questions web page. Also, if you go to the online docket and sign up for email alerts through the “Subscribe” option, you will be notified when comments/updates are posted, or a final rule is published.
                </P>
                <P>We review all comments received, but we will only post comments that address the topic of the proposed rule. We may choose not to post off-topic, inappropriate, or duplicate comments that we receive.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Personal information.</E>
                     We accept anonymous comments. Comments we post to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     will include any personal information you have provided. For more about privacy and submissions in response to this document, see DHS's eRulemaking System of Records notice (85 FR 14226, March 11, 2020).
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 117</HD>
                    <P>Bridges.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 117 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 117—DRAWBRIDGE OPERATION REGULATIONS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 117 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 33 U.S.C. 499; 33 CFR 1.05-1; and DHS Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.3.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>2. Revise and republish § 117.261 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 117.261</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway from St. Marys River to Key Largo.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>Public vessels of the United States and tugs with tows must be passed through the drawspan of each drawbridge listed in this section at anytime.</P>
                    <P>(a) Bridge of Lions (SR A1A) Bridge, mile 777.9 at St. Augustine. The draw shall open on signal; except that, from 7 a.m. to 6 p.m. the draw need open only on the hour and half-hour; however, the draw need not open at 8 a.m., 12 noon, and 5 p.m. Monday through Friday except Federal holidays. From 7 a.m. to 6 p.m. on Saturdays, Sundays and Federal holidays the draw need only open on the hour and half-hour.</P>
                    <P>(b) George Musson (SR 44) Bridge, mile 845, at New Smyrna Beach. The draw shall open on signal, except that from 7 a.m. to 7 p.m., the draw shall open on the hour and half-hour, seven days a week.</P>
                    <P>(c) NASA Railroad Bridge, mile 876.6 at Titusville.</P>
                    <P>(1) The draw is not constantly tended.</P>
                    <P>(2) The draw is normally in the fully open position displaying flashing green lights to indicate that vessels may pass.</P>
                    <P>(3) When a train approaches the bridge, it stops and the operator initiates a command to lower the bridge. The lights go to flashing red and the draw lowers and locks, providing scanning equipment reveals nothing under the draw. The draw remains down until a manual raise command is initiated or will raise automatically 5 minutes after the intermediate track circuit is no longer occupied by a rail car.</P>
                    <P>(4) After the train has cleared, the draw opens and the lights return to flashing green.</P>
                    <P>(d) A1A North Causeway Bridge, mile 964.8 at Fort Pierce. The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour.</P>
                    <P>(e) Indiantown Road Bridge, mile 1006.2, at Jupiter. The draw shall open on the hour and half hour.</P>
                    <P>(f) Donald Ross Bridge, mile 1009.3, at North Palm Beach. The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour.</P>
                    <P>(g) PGA Boulevard Bridge, mile 1012.6, at North Palm Beach. The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour.</P>
                    <P>(h) Parker (US 1) Bridge, mile 1013.7, at Riviera Beach. The draw shall open on the quarter and three-quarter hour.</P>
                    <P>(i) Flagler Memorial (SR A1A) Bridge, mile 1021.8, at West Palm Beach.</P>
                    <P>(1) The draw will open on the quarter and three-quarter hour, except Monday through Friday (except Federal holidays) from 7:30 a.m. to 9 a.m. and from 4 p.m. to 6 p.m., the draw need only open on the quarter hour.</P>
                    <P>
                        (2) When the Presidential Security Zone is enforced, the draw will open on the quarter and three-quarter hour, except Monday through Friday (except Federal holidays) from 7:30 a.m. to 9 a.m. and from 2:15 p.m. to 6 p.m., the draw need only open on the quarter hour.
                        <PRTPAGE P="34781"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>(j) Royal Park (SR 704) Bridge, mile 1022.6, at West Palm Beach.</P>
                    <P>(1) The draw will open on the hour and half hour, except Monday through Friday (except Federal holidays) from 7:30 a.m. to 9 a.m. and from 4 p.m. to 6 p.m., the draw need only open on the half hour.</P>
                    <P>(2) When the Presidential Security Zone is enforced, the draw will open on the hour and half hour, except Monday through Friday (except Federal holidays) from 7:30 a.m. to 9 a.m. and from 2:15 p.m. to 6 p.m., the draw need only open on the half hour.</P>
                    <P>(k) Southern Boulevard (SR 80) Bridge, mile 1024.7, at West Palm Beach.</P>
                    <P>(1) The draw will open on the quarter and three-quarter hour, except Monday through Friday (except Federal holidays) from 7:30 a.m. to 9 a.m. and from 4 p.m. to 6 p.m., the draw need only open on the quarter hour.</P>
                    <P>(2) When the Presidential Security Zone is enforced, the draw may be closed without advance notice to permit uninterrupted transit of dignitaries across the bridge. At all other times the bridge shall open on the quarter and three-quarter hour, or as directed by the on-scene designated representative.</P>
                    <P>(l) East Ocean Avenue Bridge, mile 1031.0, at Lantana. The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour.</P>
                    <P>(m) Ocean Avenue Bridge, mile 1035.0, at Boynton Beach. The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour.</P>
                    <P>(n) East Atlantic Avenue (SR 806) Bridge, mile 1039.6, at Delray Beach. The draw shall open on the quarter and three-quarter-hour.</P>
                    <P>(o) Linton Boulevard Bridge, mile 1041.1, at Delray Beach. The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour.</P>
                    <P>(p) Spanish River Boulevard Bridge, mile 1044.9, at Boca Raton. The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour.</P>
                    <P>(q) East Palmetto Park Road Bridge, mile 1047.5, at Boca Raton. The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour.</P>
                    <P>(r) East Camino Real Bridge, mile 1048.2, at Boca Raton. The draw shall open on the hour, twenty minutes past the hour and forty minutes past the hour.</P>
                    <P>(s) East Hillsboro Boulevard Bridge (SR 810), mile 1050.0 at Deerfield Beach. The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour.</P>
                    <P>(t) Northeast 14th Street Bridge, mile 1055.0 at Pompano Beach. The draw shall open on the quarter-hour and three-quarter hour.</P>
                    <P>(u) East Atlantic Boulevard (SR 814) Bridge, mile 1056.0 at Pompano Beach. The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour.</P>
                    <P>(v) East Commercial Boulevard (SR 870) Bridge, mile 1059.0, at Lauderdale-by-the-Sea. The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour.</P>
                    <P>(w) East Oakland Park Boulevard Bridge, mile 1060.5 at Fort Lauderdale. The draw shall open on the quarter-hour and three-quarter hour.</P>
                    <P>(x) East Sunrise Boulevard (SR 838) Bridge, mile 1062.6, at Fort Lauderdale. The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour. On the first weekend in May, the draw need not open from 4 p.m. to 6 p.m. on Saturday and Sunday, and, on the first Saturday in May, the draw need not open from 9:45 p.m. to 10:45 p.m.</P>
                    <P>(y) East Las Olas Bridge, mile 1064 at Fort Lauderdale. The draw shall open on the quarter-hour and three-quarter hour. On the first weekend in May, the draw need not open from 4 p.m. to 6 p.m. on Saturday and Sunday, and, on the first Saturday in May, the draw need not open from 9:45 p.m. to 10:45 p.m.</P>
                    <P>(z) Southeast 17th Street (Brooks Memorial) Bridge, mile 1065.9 at Fort Lauderdale. The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour; except that from 6:50 a.m. to 9:10 a.m. and from 3:50 p.m. to 6:10 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays, the drawbridge shall open once an hour at the top of the hour.</P>
                    <P>(aa) Dania Beach Boulevard Bridge, mile 1069.4 at Hollywood. The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour.</P>
                    <P>(bb) Sheridan Street Bridge, mile 1070.5, at Hollywood. The draw shall open on the quarter-hour and three-quarter hour.</P>
                    <P>(cc) Hollywood Beach Boulevard (SR 820) Bridge, mile 1072.2 at Hollywood. The draw shall open on the hour and half-hour.</P>
                    <P>(dd) Hallandale Beach Boulevard (SR 824) Bridge, mile 1074.0 at Hallandale Beach. The draw shall open on the quarter-hour and three-quarter hour.</P>
                    <P>(ee) Northeast 163rd Street (SR 826) Bridge, mile 1078.0 at Sunny Isles Beach. The draw shall open on signal; except that, from 7 a.m. to 6 p.m. on Monday through Friday except Federal holidays, and from 10 a.m. to 6 p.m. on Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, the draw need open only on the quarter-hour and three-quarter hour.</P>
                    <P>(ff) Broad Causeway Bridge, mile 1081.4 at Bay Harbor Islands. The draw shall open on signal; except that, from 8 a.m. to 6 p.m., the draw need open only on the quarter-hour and three-quarter hour.</P>
                    <P>(gg) West 79th Street Bridge, mile 1084.6, at Miami. The draw shall operate as follows:</P>
                    <P>(1) Monday through Friday (except on Federal holidays):</P>
                    <P>(i) 7 a.m. to 10 a.m. the draw need only open on the hour.</P>
                    <P>(ii) 10 a.m. to 4 p.m. the draw need only open on the hour and half hour.</P>
                    <P>(iii) 4 p.m. to 7 p.m. the draw need only open on the hour.</P>
                    <P>(iv) 7 p.m. to 7 a.m. the draw shall open on signal.</P>
                    <P>(2) Saturday, Sunday, and Federal holidays the draw shall open on signal.</P>
                    <P>(hh) West Venetian Causeway Bridge, mile 1088.6, at Miami. The draw shall open on signal, except that from 7 a.m. to 7 p.m. daily, including Federal holidays, the draw need only open on the hour and half hour.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 26, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Douglas M. Schofield,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Rear Admiral, U.S. Coast Guard, Commander, Coast Guard Seventh District.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13882 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R02-OAR-2024-0494; FRL 12517-01-R2]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; New York; Ortho Clinical Diagnostics</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a revision to the State of New York's State Implementation Plan (SIP) for the ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) related to a source-specific SIP (SSSIP) revision for Ortho Clinical Diagnostics, 513 Technology Boulevard, Rochester, New York (the Facility). The EPA is proposing to find that the control options in this SSSIP revision implement Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT) with respect to volatile organic compound (VOC) emissions from the relevant Facility source, which are identified as one solvent-based film coating machine. This SSSIP revision is intended to implement VOC RACT for the relevant Facility source in accordance with the requirements for implementation of the 2008 and 2015 ozone NAAQS. EPA proposes to determine that this action will not interfere with ozone NAAQS requirements and meets all applicable requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA).</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before September 8, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID Number EPA-R02-OAR-2024-0494 at 
                        <E T="03">
                            https://
                            <PRTPAGE P="34782"/>
                            www.regulations.gov.
                        </E>
                         Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) (formerly referred to as Confidential Business Information (CBI)) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form. Publicly available docket materials are available electronically through 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Once submitted, comments cannot be edited or removed from 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                        . The EPA may publish any comment received to its public docket. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be CUI or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Multimedia submissions (audio, video, etc.) must be accompanied by a written comment. The written comment is considered the official comment and should include discussion of all points you wish to make. The EPA will generally not consider comments or comment contents located outside of the primary submission (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         on the web, cloud, or other file sharing system). For additional submission methods, the full EPA public comment policy, information about CUI or multimedia submissions, and general guidance on making effective comments, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Linda Longo, Air Programs Branch, Environmental Protection Agency, Region 2 Office, 290 Broadway, 25th Floor, New York, New York 10007-1866, (212) 637-3565, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">longo.linda@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    For additional information on regulatory background and the EPA's technical findings relating to the Facility RACT, the reader can refer to the Technical Support Document (TSD) that is contained in the EPA docket assigned to this 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     document.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Background</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. The EPA's Evaluation of New York's Submission and RACT Analysis</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Proposed Action</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Incorporation by Reference</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Ground Level Ozone Formation</HD>
                <P>
                    Ground level ozone is predominantly a secondary air pollutant created by chemical reactions that occur when ozone precursors, including nitrogen oxides (NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    ) and volatile organic compounds (VOC), chemically react in the presence of sunlight.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Emissions from industrial facilities are anthropogenic sources of ozone precursors. The potential for ground-level ozone formation tends to be highest during months with warmer temperatures and stagnant air masses. Ozone levels are thus generally higher during the summer months, which is often referred to as “the ozone season.” In New York, the ozone season is generally considered to be between April 15 and October 15, while the non-ozone season is generally considered to be between October 16 and April 14.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Primary standards</E>
                         provide public health protection, including protecting the health of “sensitive” populations such as asthmatics, children, and the elderly. 
                        <E T="03">Secondary standards</E>
                         provide public welfare protection, including protection against decreased visibility and damage to animals, crops, vegetation, and buildings.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Ozone Nonattainment</HD>
                <P>
                    A geographic area of the United States that is not meeting the primary or secondary National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) for ozone is described as a nonattainment area. Nonattainment areas are classified as either Marginal, Moderate, Serious, Severe, or Extreme. With respect to this proposed action, there are two relevant ozone NAAQS standards. First, on March 12, 2008, the EPA promulgated a revision to the ozone NAAQS, setting both the primary and secondary standards at 0.075 parts per million (ppm) averaged over an 8-hour time frame (2008 8-hour Ozone Standard). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     73 FR 16436 (March 27, 2008). Second, on October 1, 2015, the EPA lowered these standards to 0.070 ppm averaged over an 8-hour time frame (2015 8-hour Ozone Standard). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     80 FR 65292 (October 26, 2015). Under CAA section 184, the State of New York is located within the Ozone Transport Region (OTR), which means that it is subject to statewide RACT requirements. This facility is not located in an ozone nonattainment area, but it is still required to implement RACT because it is located within the OTR.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Federal RACT Requirements</HD>
                <P>RACT is defined as the lowest emission limit that a source is capable of meeting through the application of control technology that is reasonably available considering technological and economic feasibility. CAA section 184(b)(2) sets forth the requirement to establish control measures to implement RACT for major sources of VOC located in the OTR. The State of New York is located within the OTR, and thus the State is required to implement RACT for all major sources of VOC within the State.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">NYSDEC RACT Requirements</HD>
                <P>The New York State Department of Environmental Conservation (NYSDEC) RACT regulations require applicable facilities to meet certain requirements, referred to as “presumptive RACT requirements.” These presumptive requirements generally require sources to implement emission limits, control efficiency requirements, specific control technologies, averaging plans, and/or fuel/raw material switching practices. In some instances, the presumptive RACT requirements may not be technologically or economically feasible for a certain source, and the State can make a source-specific RACT determination, which is submitted to the EPA as a SSSIP. The SSSIP should include the facility's RACT plan that demonstrates how the facility will implement RACT. The SSSIP will also include the applicable CAA operating permit conditions that address RACT requirements. These permit conditions for the Facility will become part of the Federally enforceable SIP upon the EPA's final approval of this SSSIP.</P>
                <P>
                    Under existing NYSDEC RACT regulations, facilities are required to assess all technologically feasible control options that meet the State's cost threshold. The cost threshold for NYSDEC RACT requirements is found under NYSDEC 2013 policy, “DAR-20 Economic and Technical Analysis for Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT).” Under this policy, facilities must consider in their RACT determinations control technologies that remove VOC or NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions up to a certain cost threshold, expressed in a dollar amount per ton of VOC or NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     removed, which includes an inflation-adjusted economic threshold.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The DAR-20 cost threshold is based on 1994 dollars. State of New York relies on the U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics inflationary calculator to adjust the RACT economic feasibility threshold over time for inflation. 
                        <E T="03">See https://www.bls.gov/data/inflation_calculator.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. The EPA's Evaluation of New York's Submission and RACT Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    This action relates to a SSSIP revision that concerns a web-based film coating machine for in-vitro diagnostics dry slide technology manufacturing operations. The source at issue in this action is for the Facility's pilot coating machine (the 72 Machine) for research and development of new potential products and material qualification 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34783"/>
                    experiments of non-compliant coatings. The 72 Machine also manufactures a small production run of equipment diagnostic calibration slides for internal purposes only. The 72 Machine is in total enclosure. The coating material is added to the process outside of the enclosed room and no workers are permitted to enter the enclosed room. To minimize VOC emissions, the overspray that can occur during coating operations is controlled using film manufacturing technology appropriate for the coating weight of the Ortho products. Generally, overspray can happen during a coating operation when the coating is applied onto a film substrate and if uncontrolled, overspray could generate excess VOC emissions. The 72 Machine's VOC exhaust is emitted via the roof vent.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The NYSDEC RACT regulations establish RACT requirements for this category of sources in 6 NYCRR part 228, “Surface Coating Processes, Commercial and Industrial Adhesives Sealants and Primers”, subpart 228-1, “Surface Coating Processes”, subpart 228-1.5, “Requirements for Controlling VOC Emissions Using Add-On Controls or Coating Systems,” last approved into New York's SIP by the EPA on March 4, 2014. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     79 FR 12082 (March 4, 2014). The coating machine meets the definition of a surface coating process under 6 NYCRR part 228-1 because it is a Class D coating line that applies solvent and aqueous based coatings to a polyethylene terephthalate substrate to produce testing slides.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     However, as explained above, the NYSDEC RACT regulations allow source-specific RACT determinations if the presumptive RACT requirements are not technologically or economically feasible; such source-specific determinations must be submitted to the EPA as a SSSIP.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         6 NYCRR part 228-1.1, Table 1, identifies the Class D coating line to include “paper”, “film”, and “foil” coating lines in the town of Monroe. The Facility produces “coil” that is similar to “foil.” Generally, coil is thicker than foil.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This SSSIP was submitted by NYSDEC on April 7, 2023. In this SSSIP submittal, the EPA has reviewed the RACT determination for 72 Machine for consistency with the CAA and the EPA regulations, as interpreted through EPA actions and guidance. The intended effect of this Source-specific SIP revision is to establish an emission limit for the process specific control measure for 72 Machine.</P>
                <P>The EPA is proposing to determine through this SSSIP action that the VOC RACT emission limit submitted by the State in this SSSIP for 72 Machine is the lowest emission limit with the application of control technology that is reasonably available given technological and economic feasibility considerations. The respective VOC RACT emission limit is contained in the Facility's air permit, State Facility Permit, 8-2628-00503/02001, under Condition 13, issued by the State on October 31, 2022, and expires on October 30, 2032. The Condition 13 is being incorporated into the SIP and includes monitoring, reporting, and recordkeeping requirements for the proposed coating machine referred to as 72 Machine further described in EPA RACT Analysis below.</P>
                <P>The Facility submitted a RACT demonstration, dated November 2021, to the NYSDEC for the emission limit requirements, and NYSDEC reviewed and approved the emission limit as adequately implementing RACT for the source. NYSDEC then submitted the source-specific SIP revision package at issue in this action for the EPA approval, and the EPA is proposing to determine the respective emission limit as implementing RACT for this source. The emission limit for the Facility will become part of the Federally enforceable SIP upon the EPA's final approval of this SSSIP.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">EPA RACT Analysis</HD>
                <P>The following is a summary of the EPA's analysis of how the proposed VOC emission limit implements RACT for the emission source 72 Machine. Further detail on this analysis is provided in the TSD available in the docket for this rulemaking. The Facility's coating machine, 72 Machine, is part of the coating line to produce testing slides. As described above, the 72 Machine is characterized as a surface coating process under subpart 228-1, “Surface Coating Processes”.</P>
                <P>The RACT demonstration must show an alternate emission limit to comprise RACT and a RACT variance can be requested pursuant to 6 NYCRR subpart 228-1.5(e). Such a RACT variance can be approved if supported by a RACT demonstration and submitted to the EPA for review as a SIP revision.</P>
                <P>
                    The Facility's RACT demonstration shows that controlling the overspray is the only VOC control technology that is technologically and economically feasible for this facility, and that controlling the overspray ensures the VOC emissions will not exceed 21,600 pounds per year on a 12-month rolling total basis. Under 6 NYCRR subpart 228-1.5(e), NYSDEC may allow surface coating processes to operate with a lesser degree of control, as established in the applicable presumptive RACT requirements, provided that a process specific RACT demonstration satisfies NYSDEC's regulations, and it addresses technical and economic feasibility of utilizing compliant coatings.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Under 6 NYCRR 228-1.5(c), “[t]he overall removal efficiency of an air cleaning device used as a control strategy must be determined, for every surface coating formulation, on a solids as applied basis using Equation 2 unless a 90 percent or greater overall removal efficiency is achieved by the air cleaning device. The air cleaning device must be designed and operated to provide, at a minimum, an overall removal efficiency of either 90 percent or as determined by Equation 2.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>NYSDEC reviewed the RACT demonstration and determined that the alternate emission limit implements RACT for the 72 Machine. Specifically, NYSDEC approved the following case-by-case emission limit: (1) Aggregate VOC emissions from non-compliant coatings A1c, 49CKMB, 90WHT, 92BLK on 72 Machine must not exceed 21,600 pounds per year on a 12-month rolling total basis; (2) ensure that non-compliant coatings A1c, 49CKMB, 90WHT, 92BLK have the same specifications as described in the November 2021 RACT demonstration; (3) track usage monthly and report compliance status on an annual basis; (4) failure to meet the pounds per year limit established for this RACT variance shall be ground for termination of the RACT variance; (5) a RACT variance evaluation must be reassessed every five years; and (6) an updated RACT variance request must be submitted by the facility for any changes that will increase the emission rate of 72 Machine, including but not limited to changes to coating specification, coating machine operation parameters, or coating curing/drying time.</P>
                <P>
                    We are proposing to determine that the following additional technically feasible control options do not need to be implemented because they are not cost effective: (1) thermal oxidation; (2) catalytic oxidation; and (3) ducting the VOC exhaust from 72 Machine to the Facility's other coating machine (71 Machine 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    ).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The Facility operates a second coating machine, 71 Machine, that is not subject to this rulemaking because it currently employs a catalytic oxidizer with a heat exchanger and meets the presumptive VOC limits under permit Condition 36.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    To determine what VOC control technologies could be economically and technologically feasible for the 72 Machine, the EPA reviewed the Reasonably Available Control Technology/Best Available Control Technology/Lowest Achievable Emission Rate Clearinghouse (RBLC) 
                    <FTREF/>
                    <SU>6</SU>
                      
                    <PRTPAGE P="34784"/>
                    and the vendor quotes provided by the State as part of the RACT evaluation. The EPA's RBLC search criteria were based on the process type “Paper, Plastic, and Foil Web Surface Coating.” The EPA's RBLC review reveals that there are three facilities in the United States that possibly operate with similar practices as 72 Machine: (1) Bemis Performance Packaging in Wisconsin manufactures flexible packing film and has a regenerative thermal oxidizer on a flexographic press machine; (2) American Packaging Corp in New York manufactures packaging material for the food industry and has a regenerative thermal oxidizer on a press machine; and (3) Benis in Indiana is a polyethylene film plant and has a cyrel plate making process with a catalytic and regenerative thermal oxidizer. The EPA also reviewed four vendor quotes for the thermal and catalytic oxidizers as contained in the SSSIP submission, and they appear to be technically sound. A vendor quote was not provided for ducting the emissions from 72 Machine to 71 Machine because ducting is not a reliable option due to the following: (1) ducting would involve complicated planning for coating schedules, and the two machines would not be able to operate at the same time due to incompatible static pressure between both machines, and (2) ducting emissions from 72 Machine to 71 Machine would result in overall airflow to exceed the design capacity of the existing catalytic oxidizer on 71 Machine. The EPA confirms that no cost-effective VOC control technologies have become available that could be implemented on the Facility's 72 Machine. Further detail on RBLC results and cost effectiveness are provided in the TSD available in docket for this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The RBLC contains case-specific information on the best available air pollution technologies that have been required to reduce the emission of air pollutants from stationary sources. 
                        <E T="03">
                            See https://
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            cfpub.epa.gov/rblc/index.cfm?action=Search.BasicSearch&amp;lang=en.
                        </E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The EPA is proposing to determine that the proposed limit for 72 Machine implements RACT because: (1) The 6 NYCRR part 228-1 presumptive VOC limit for Class D coating line (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     paper, film, and foil) of 0.08 pounds VOC per pound coating is not economically and technologically feasible for this source; (2) no additional control technologies beyond what are currently used at 72 Machine are technically and economically feasible; (3) emission limit of 21,600 pounds per year on a 12-month rolling total basis comprises RACT for this source; and (4) the SIP revision contains monitoring and reporting requirements.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Proposed Action</HD>
                <P>The EPA is proposing to approve this source-specific revision because the limits included in the SSSIP implement RACT for 72 Machine. Based on information provided by NYSDEC, a thorough RBLC review of similar sources, and an analysis of this source-specific SIP revision, the EPA proposes to approve Ortho Clinical Diagnostics operation under the NYSDEC-approved VOC emission limit for the Facility's 72 Machine.</P>
                <P>Specifically, the EPA proposes to determine the following SSSIP revision: (1) The aggregate VOC emissions from non-compliant coatings A1c, 49CKMB, 90WHT and 92BLK on 72 Machine must not exceed 21,600 pounds per year on a 12-month rolling total basis; (2) ensure that the non-compliant coatings have the same specifications as described in the RACT variance submitted November 2021; (3) track usage monthly and report compliance annually; (4) exceeding the 21,600 pounds per year limit shall be ground for termination of the RACT variance; (5) an updated RACT variance request must be submitted for any changes that will increase the emission rate, including but not limited to changes to coating specification, coating machine operation parameters, or coating curing/drying time; and (6) RACT must be reevaluated every 5 years and an updated RACT variance must be submitted every 5 years.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    In this document, the EPA is proposing to include regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference revisions to Ortho Clinical Diagnostics State Facility Permit condition 13 as described in section II of this preamble. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Clean Air Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) because SIP actions are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866:</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a state program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act.</P>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compound.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>
                        (Authority: 42 U.S.C. 7401 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        )
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Michael Martucci,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region 2.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13937 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="34785"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R09-OAR-2025-0625; FRL-12877-02-R9]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Revisions; California; Mojave Desert Air Quality Management District; New Source Review; Stationary Source Permits</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing conditional approval of five permitting rules as a revision to the Mojave Desert Air Quality Management District (MDAQMD) portion of the California State Implementation Plan (SIP). These are revisions to the District's New Source Review (NSR) air permitting program rules for new and modified sources of air pollution under the Clean Air Act (CAA or “Act”). The submitted rules address deficiencies identified in a previous limited disapproval action and incorporate other revisions related to the NSR permitting requirements. If finalized, this action will update the MDAQMD's current SIP with the revised rules. As a separate action in this 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , we are making an interim final determination that will stay or defer the imposition of CAA sanctions associated with our previous limited disapproval action.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R09-OAR-2025-0625 at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         For comments submitted at 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                        , follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Once submitted, comments cannot be edited or removed from 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                        . The EPA may publish any comment received to its public docket. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Multimedia submissions (audio, video, etc.) must be accompanied by a written comment. The written comment is considered the official comment and should include discussion of all points you wish to make. The EPA will generally not consider comments or comment contents located outside of the primary submission (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         on the web, cloud, or other file sharing system). For additional submission methods, please contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section. For the full EPA public comment policy, information about CBI or multimedia submissions, and general guidance on making effective comments, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                         If you need assistance in a language other than English or if you are a person with disabilities who needs a reasonable accommodation at no cost to you, please contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Shaheerah Kelly, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region IX (AIR-3-2), telephone number: (415) 947-4156, email address: 
                        <E T="03">kelly.shaheerah@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Throughout this document, “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to the EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. The State's Submittal</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. What rules are in the current SIP?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. What rules did the State submit?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. What is the purpose of the submitted rule revisions?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. The EPA's Evaluation and Action</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. What is the background for this proposal?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. How is the EPA evaluating the rules?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Do the rules meet the evaluation criteria?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. How do the rule revisions address the deficiencies?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Proposed Action and Public Comment</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Incorporation by Reference</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Definitions</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>For the purpose of this document, we are giving meaning to certain words or initials as follows:</P>
                    <P>
                        (i) The word or initials 
                        <E T="03">MDAQMD</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">District</E>
                         mean or refer to the Mojave Desert Air Quality Management District.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) The word or initials 
                        <E T="03">CAA</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">Act</E>
                         mean or refer to the Clean Air Act, unless the context indicates otherwise.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) The word or initials 
                        <E T="03">CARB</E>
                         mean or refer to the California Air Resources Board.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iv) The initials 
                        <E T="03">CFR</E>
                         mean or refer to Code of Federal Regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (v) The initials or words 
                        <E T="03">EPA, we, us,</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">our</E>
                         mean or refer to the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (vi) The initials 
                        <E T="03">NA</E>
                         mean or refer to nonattainment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (vii) The initials 
                        <E T="03">NAAQS</E>
                         mean or refer to the National Ambient Air Quality Standards.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (viii) The initials 
                        <E T="03">NSR</E>
                         mean or refer to New Source Review.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ix) The initials 
                        <E T="03">NNSR</E>
                         mean or refer to nonattainment New Source Review.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (x) The initials 
                        <E T="03">SIP</E>
                         mean or refer to State Implementation Plan.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (xi) The word 
                        <E T="03">State</E>
                         means or refers to the State of California.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (xii) The word 
                        <E T="03">TSD</E>
                         means or refers to the Technical Support Document.
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. The State's Submittal</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. What rules are in the current SIP?</HD>
                <P>Table 1 lists the rules in the current SIP with the dates they were previously amended or revised by MDAQMD, submitted by the California Air Resources Board (CARB), the governor's designee for California SIP submittals, and approved by the EPA.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r75,15,12,16">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Current SIP Rules</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Rule No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Rule title</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            State effective
                            <LI>date</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            EPA action
                            <LI>date</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                            <LI>citation</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1301</ENT>
                        <ENT>New Source Review Definitions</ENT>
                        <ENT>3/22/2021</ENT>
                        <ENT>6/30/2023</ENT>
                        <ENT>88 FR 42258</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1302</ENT>
                        <ENT>New Source Review Procedure</ENT>
                        <ENT>3/22/2021</ENT>
                        <ENT>6/30/2023</ENT>
                        <ENT>88 FR 42258</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1303</ENT>
                        <ENT>New Source Review Requirements</ENT>
                        <ENT>3/22/2021</ENT>
                        <ENT>6/30/2023</ENT>
                        <ENT>88 FR 42258</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1304</ENT>
                        <ENT>New Source Review Emissions Calculations</ENT>
                        <ENT>3/22/2021</ENT>
                        <ENT>6/30/2023</ENT>
                        <ENT>88 FR 42258</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1305</ENT>
                        <ENT>New Source Review Emission Offsets</ENT>
                        <ENT>3/22/2021</ENT>
                        <ENT>6/30/2023</ENT>
                        <ENT>88 FR 42258</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. What rules did the State submit?</HD>
                <P>
                    Table 2 lists the rules addressed by this proposal with the dates they were amended or revised by the MDAQMD and submitted by CARB, the agency that serves as the governor's designee for California SIP submittals.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34786"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r75,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Submitted Rules</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Rule No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Rule title</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Adoption/
                            <LI>amendment</LI>
                            <LI>date</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Submitted
                            <LI>date</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1301</ENT>
                        <ENT>New Source Review Definitions</ENT>
                        <ENT>3/25/2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>8/7/2024</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            1302 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>New Source Review Procedure</ENT>
                        <ENT>3/25/2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>8/7/2024</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1303</ENT>
                        <ENT>New Source Review Requirements</ENT>
                        <ENT>3/25/2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>8/7/2024</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1304</ENT>
                        <ENT>New Source Review Emissions Calculations</ENT>
                        <ENT>3/25/2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>8/7/2024</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1305</ENT>
                        <ENT>New Source Review Emission Offsets</ENT>
                        <ENT>3/25/2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>8/7/2024</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    On February 7, 2025, CARB's August 7, 2024 submittal (hereafter referred to as the “2024 Submittal”) for the MDAQMD was deemed complete by operation of law according to 40 CFR part 51, appendix V, which must be met before formal EPA review.
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Subsections 1302(C)(5)(d) and 1302(C)(7)(c)(iii) of Rule 1302 specifically state that subsections 1302(C)(5) and 1302(C)(7)(c) are not submitted to the EPA and are not intended to be included as part of the California SIP.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. What is the purpose of the submitted rule revisions?</HD>
                <P>
                    The 2024 Submittal is intended to address certain deficiencies identified by the EPA in the MDAQMD Rules 1301, 1302, 1303, 1304, and 1305 listed in table 1. The deficiencies pertain to certain applicable nonattainment NSR requirements under the CAA, in part D of title I of the Act, and the implementing regulations under 40 CFR 51.165. The nonattainment areas under the MDAQMD's jurisdiction are the San Bernardino County portion of the West Mojave Desert nonattainment area which is designated as a Severe nonattainment area for the 2008 and 2015 8-hour ozone NAAQS, and the Trona Planning Area in San Bernardino County which is designated as a Moderate nonattainment area for the 1987 PM
                    <E T="52">10</E>
                     NAAQS. 40 CFR 81.305. The rules listed in table 2 are intended to replace the rules currently in the SIP as listed in table 1.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. The EPA's Evaluation and Action</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. What is the background for this proposal?</HD>
                <P>
                    On November 25, 2022, the EPA proposed a limited approval/limited disapproval action for MDAQMD's Regulation XIII NSR Rules.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On June 30, 2023, the EPA finalized this limited approval/limited disapproval action (hereafter called the “2023 NSR Action”).
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As authorized in sections 110(k)(3) and 301(a) of the Act, the EPA finalized a limited approval and limited disapproval of Rules 1301, 1302, 1303, 1304, and 1305 because although they fulfill most of the relevant CAA requirements and strengthen the SIP, they also contained six deficiencies that did not fully satisfy the relevant requirements for preconstruction review and permitting under section 110 and part D of title I of the Act. The deficiencies are described in the October 5, 2022 TSD for the action, as well as in the preambles to the November 25, 2022 proposed rule and the 2023 NSR Action. In addition, the EPA included the description of the six deficiencies in the preambles to the July 9, 2024 proposed rulemaking to promulgate a Federal Implementation Plan (“FIP”) in a portion of the MDAQMD to address the deficiencies identified in the 2023 NSR Action,
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and in a December 30, 2024 rule (hereafter the “2024 NSR Action”) 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     finalizing the July 9, 2024 rulemaking and affirming the EPA's disapproval of Rule 1304(C)(2)(d) in response to the Ninth Circuit's remand of the 2023 NSR Action.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The TSD for this action provides more information on the MDAQMD's revisions for Rules 1301, 1302, 1303, 1304, and 1305 to address the deficiencies identified by the EPA. These deficiencies and the MDAQMD's revisions to address these deficiencies are summarized as follows.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         87 FR 72434.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         88 FR 42258.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         89 FR 56237.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         89 FR 106332.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Mojave Desert Air Quality Mgmt. Dist.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">U.S. Env't. Prot. Agency,</E>
                         No. 23-1411 (9th Cir. September 5, 2024), Docket No. EPA-R09-OAR-2022-0338, available in the docket for this action and at 
                        <E T="03">https://cdn.ca9.uscourts.gov/datastore/memoranda/2024/09/05/23-1411.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Use of the Term “Contract”</HD>
                <P>The EPA determined that the use of the term “contract” as interchangeable with the term “permit” was deficient. Specifically, the MDAQMD Rules 1302(D)(6)(a)(iii) and 1304(C)(4)(c) allowed an owner and/or operator to obtain a valid permit or “contract” that would be enforceable by the District. The MDAQMD's rules define Authority to Construct Permit (ATC) and Permit to Operate (PTO), but do not define term “contract” as interchangeable with the term “permit.” The EPA found that the term “contract” was not an acceptable alternative to the term “permit” and thus the language in MDAQMD Rules 1302(D)(6)(a)(iii) and 1304(C)(4)(c) was not approvable as a SIP revision.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Calculation of the Amount of Offsets Required</HD>
                <P>The EPA determined that the calculation procedures specified to determine the amount of offsets required in certain situations was deficient. Specifically, Rule 1304 allows a potential-to-potential test under certain circumstances for calculating the quantity of offsets required in some situations that involve the use of Simultaneous Emission Reductions (SERs) under 1304(C)(2)(d). This calculation procedure can also be used for calculation of required offsets for a “Modified Major Facility.” The EPA found that calculating emissions decreases using a potential emissions baseline allows reductions “on paper” that do not represent real emissions reductions and is not consistent with the requirements of CAA section 173(C)(1), as well as 40 CFR 51.165(a)(3)(i), (a)(3)(ii)(G), (a)(3)(ii)(J), and (a)(1)(vi)(C), to offset actual emissions increases. The deficiency identified in Rule 1304, through cross-references, also causes related deficiencies in Rules 1301, 1302, 1303, and 1305.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Definitions of “Major Modification” and “Modification (Modified)” in Rule 1301</HD>
                <P>
                    The EPA found that the definitions for “Major Modification” and “Modification (Modified)” pursuant to Rule 1301(NN) and 1301(JJ), respectively, were deficient. This deficiency is also related to Rule 1304(C)(2)(d) pertaining to the calculation of SERs. Specifically, a “Net Emissions Increase” pursuant to Rule 1304(B)(2) allows SERs “calculated and verified pursuant to [1304(C)(2)]” to be subtracted from the total of all “Net Emissions Increase” at any given facility. The EPA found that this can allow a permit applicant to avoid certain NSR requirements entirely (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     lowest achievable emissions reduction 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34787"/>
                    (LAER), offsets, visibility, etc.).
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, the EPA found that the District's calculation procedures for “Modification” and “Major Modification” were not consistent with the federal definition of “Major Modification” pursuant to 40 CFR 51.165(a)(1)(v)(A)(1); the calculation procedures for determining offsets pursuant to 40 CFR 51.165(a)(3)(ii)(J); and the criteria for determining the emission decreases that are creditable pursuant to 40 CFR 51.165(a)(1)(vi)(E)(1).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         The District's NSR program uses the term best available control technology (BACT) instead of LAER for both nonattainment pollutants. See Rule 1301(J).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Historic Actual Emissions (HAE) Procedures</HD>
                <P>The EPA found that the definition of Historical Actual Emissions (HAE) pursuant to Rule 1304(D)(2)(a)(i) was deficient because of a typographical error that includes the word “proceeds” rather than “precedes.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Interprecursor Trading</HD>
                <P>The EPA found that Rule 1305 section (C)(6) was deficient because it allowed the use of interprecursor trading between nonattainment pollutants and their precursors on a case-by-case basis for ozone, which is no longer allowed.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. CAA Sections 182(c)(6) and 182(d)</HD>
                <P>The EPA found that the District's NSR program was deficient because it did not satisfy the requirements in CAA sections 182(c)(6) and 182(d) that apply to severe ozone nonattainment areas.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. How is the EPA evaluating the rules?</HD>
                <P>The EPA has reviewed the revisions to the MDAQMD rules listed in table 2 for compliance with the following CAA requirements: (1) the general SIP requirements as set forth in CAA section 110(a)(2), including 110(a)(2)(A) and 110(a)(2)(E)(i); (2) the stationary source preconstruction permitting program requirements as set forth in CAA part D of title I, including CAA sections 171, 172(c)(5), 173, and 182; (3) the requirements for the review and modification of major sources in accordance with 40 CFR 51.160-51.165; (4) the requirements for the review of new major stationary sources or major modifications in a designated nonattainment area that may have an impact on visibility in any mandatory Class I federal area in accordance with 40 CFR 51.307; (5) the SIP revision requirements as set forth in CAA sections 110(l) and 193; and (6) the definition of “Stationary Source” in CAA section 302(z).</P>
                <P>Sections 110(a)(2) and 110(l) of the Act require that each SIP or revision to a SIP submitted by the State must be adopted after reasonable notice and public hearing. In addition, section 110 of the Act requires that SIP rules be enforceable. Section 110(a)(2)(C) of the Act requires each SIP to include a program to regulate the modification and construction of any stationary source within the areas covered by the SIP as necessary to assure attainment and maintenance of the NAAQS. Section 110(a)(2)(E)(i) of the Act requires that each SIP provide necessary assurances that the state will have adequate personnel, funding, and authority under state (and, as appropriate, local) law to carry out such implementation plan.</P>
                <P>Part D of title I of the Act contains certain definitions applicable to areas designated nonattainment for a NAAQS (section 171); the general requirements for permits for the construction and operation of new or modified major stationary sources anywhere in nonattainment areas referred to as nonattainment NSR (NNSR) (section 172); other additional preconstruction permit requirements for new or modified major stationary sources proposing to construct in nonattainment areas (section 173); and the de minimis SIP requirements in Severe nonattainment areas (sections 182(c)(6) and 182(d)).</P>
                <P>The EPA's regulations at 40 CFR 51.160-51.164 provide general requirements to implement the statutory mandate under section 110(a)(2)(C) of the Act that is commonly referred to as the “general” or “minor” NSR program. These NSR program regulations impose requirements for approval of state and local programs that are more general in nature as compared to the specific statutory and regulatory requirements for NSR permitting programs under part D of title I of the Act.</P>
                <P>The EPA's regulations at 40 CFR 51.165 set forth the EPA's regulatory requirements for SIP-approval of a nonattainment NSR permit program. Our review also evaluated the submittal for compliance with the NNSR requirements applicable to Severe ozone nonattainment areas and ensured that the submittal addressed the NNSR requirements for the 2015 ozone NAAQS.</P>
                <P>The EPA's regulations at 40 CFR 51.307 set forth the protection of visibility requirements that apply to NSR programs. This provision requires that certain actions be taken in consultation with the local Federal Land Manager if a new major source or major modification may have an impact on visibility in any mandatory Federal Class I Area.</P>
                <P>Section 110(l) of the Act prohibits the EPA from approving any SIP revisions that would interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress (RFP) or any other applicable requirement of the CAA.</P>
                <P>Section 193 of the Act, which only applies in nonattainment areas, prohibits the modification of a SIP-approved control requirement in effect before November 15, 1990, in any manner unless the modification ensures equivalent or greater emissions reductions of such air pollutant.</P>
                <P>Section 302(z) of the Act defines the term “Stationary Source” as generally any source of an air pollutant except those emissions resulting directly from an internal combustion engine for transportation purposes or from a nonroad engine or nonroad vehicle as defined in title II of the Act.</P>
                <P>Our TSD, which can be found in the docket for this rule, contains a more detailed discussion of the approval criteria.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Do the rules meet the evaluation criteria?</HD>
                <P>
                    The EPA has reviewed the submitted rules in accordance with the rule evaluation criteria described above. With respect to procedural requirements, CAA sections 110(a)(2) and 110(l) require that revisions to a SIP be adopted by the state after reasonable notice and public hearing. According to the documentation provided in the 2024 Submittal, the state published public notices for announcing the public comment periods and public hearings in the 
                    <E T="03">Riverside Press Enterprise</E>
                     and in the 
                    <E T="03">San Bernardino Sun</E>
                     on February 22, 2024. Additionally, a public hearing was held on March 25, 2024. Based on our review of this information and the information that was provided in the 2024 Submittal, we find that there is sufficient evidence of public notice, and opportunities for comment and public hearing prior to adoption and submittal of these rules to the EPA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    With respect to substantive requirements, we have reviewed the submitted rules in table 1 in accordance with the evaluation criteria discussed above. We are proposing to conditionally approve the revisions to the MDAQMD's Rules 1301, 1302, 1303, 1304, and 1305 because, for the most part, they address the substantive statutory and regulatory requirements for NSR permit programs as contained in section II.B. of this document for the deficiencies identified by the EPA in the 2023 NSR Action. Rule 1304, however, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34788"/>
                    contains a remaining deficiency; therefore, we are proposing conditional approval pursuant to CAA section 110(k)(4), on the basis of a commitment by CARB and the MDAQMD to revise Rule 1304 to correct the remaining deficiency within one year of the effective date of a final conditional approval action.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. How do the rule revisions address the deficiencies?</HD>
                <P>The following are brief descriptions of the revisions to MDAQMD's Rules 1301, 1302, 1303, 1304, and 1305 that address the deficiencies identified by the EPA in the 2023 NSR Action. Our TSD contains a more detailed discussion of our analysis of the submitted rules that form the basis for our proposed action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Use of the Term “Contract”</HD>
                <P>
                    In the 2023 NSR Action, the EPA determined that the use of the term “contract” in 1302(D)(6)(a)(iii) and 1304(C)(4)(c) is deficient because the term is used interchangeably with a permit (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     an Authority to Construct (ATC) or a Permit to Operate (PTO)). However, MDAQMD's NSR rules do not define the term “contract” or provide requirements for how a contract is an enforceable mechanism that may be used in the same way as an ATC or PTO. The MDAQMD clarified in the comments it submitted on EPA's November 2022 proposed rulemaking action that the term “contract” appears to be superfluous because of requirements elsewhere in its rules and that the retention of the term was inadvertent. The MDAQMD stated in that same comment letter that it would remove the term “contract” from the rule provisions the EPA identified.
                </P>
                <P>In the 2024 Submittal, the MDAQMD revised Rule 1304(C) by removing the term “contract” from Rule 1304(C)(4)(c). The MDAQMD also removed the reference to Net Emissions Increase from Rule 1304(C)(5). Therefore, MDAQMD's revision of 1304(C) corrects the deficiency in 1304(C) concerning the term “contract.” The MDAQMD neglected to remove the term “contract” from Rule 1302(D)(6)(a)(iii), but given the explanation it provided in its comments to the EPA's 2022 proposed rulemaking and the revision it made to Rule 1304(C) indicate MDAQMD's interpretation of the term “contract” is consistent with federal requirements, the EPA is recategorizing the inclusion of the term “contract” in Rule 1302(D)(6)(a)(iii) from a deficiency to a recommendation for further improvement in future revisions to Rule 1302.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Calculation of the Amount of Offsets Required</HD>
                <P>
                    In the 2023 NNSR Action, the EPA determined that Rule 1304(C)(2)(d) was deficient because it allows the use of a potential-to-emit (PTE)-to-PTE calculation procedure for calculating the quantity of “Simultaneous Emission Reductions” (SERs) that can be used as offsets at a “Modified Major Facility.” The EPA determined that Rule 1304(C)(2)(d), in certain situations, does not comply with CAA section 173(c)(1), 40 CFR 51.165(a)(3)(i), (a)(3)(ii)(G), (a)(3)(ii)(J), and (a)(1)(vi)(E). Additionally, because either Rule 1304(C) or Rule 1304(C)(2)(d) is referenced in Rules 1301, 1302, 1303, and 1305, the EPA also determined that these referenced rules are deficient. In a letter dated June 12, 2025 (“June 12, 2025 Commitment Letter”) the MDAQMD committed to revising Rule 1304 to add a provision to rescind section (C)(2)(d) such that it will no longer be in effect 24 months after the effective date of the EPA's final approval of the revised Rule 1304 into the SIP. The June 12, 2025 Commitment Letter also includes MDAQMD's commitment to transmit its revised rule to CARB in time for CARB to submit the rule to the EPA within 12 months of the publication of a final conditional approval by the EPA.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Relatedly, in a letter from CARB dated June 17, 2025 (“June 17, 2025 Commitment Letter”), CARB also commits to submit the rule to the EPA within 12 months of the publication of a final conditional approval by EPA.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Commitment letter from Brad Poiriez, Executive Officer of the MDAQMD, to Josh F.W. Cook, EPA Region IX Regional Administrator, and Dr. Stephen Cliff, CARB Executive Officer, dated June 12, 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         Commitment letter from Vernon Hughes, Assistant Division Chief, Air Quality Planning and Science Division, CARB, to Josh F.W. Cook, EPA Region IX Regional Administrator, dated June 17, 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Section 110(k)(4) of the Act allows the EPA to conditionally approve a SIP revision based on a commitment from the State to adopt and submit specific, enforceable measures to correct the identified deficiency no later than one year after the date of approval of the plan revision. The MDAQMD has committed to adopt and submit, within the one-year timeframe specified in section 110(k)(4), a revised rule that would add a provision to rescind Rule 1304 section (C)(2)(d) 24 months after the effective date of the EPA's final approval of the revised rule. Because the inclusion of Rule 1304(C)(2)(d) in the MDAQMD's NNSR program is the deficiency pertaining to offset requirements identified in the 2023 NSR Action, rescission of section (C)(2)(d) of Rule 1304 would correct the deficiency concerning offsets identified in the 2023 NSR Action. As explained further below, we find the 24-month sunsetting period proposed by the MDAQMD to be justified by the particular circumstances surrounding the MDAQMD's NNSR program and the District's need for time to reassess its emissions reduction credit (ERC) banking reserves for compliance with federal offset requirements.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The EPA's conditional approval, if finalized, would trigger the 1-year timeframe under CAA section 110(k)(4) for the MDAQMD to revise and submit Rule 1304 consistent with the MDAQMD's commitment. If EPA subsequently approves the revised Rule 1304 into the SIP, that action would provide the basis for the EPA to terminate the Federal Implementation Plan (FIP) that is currently in place in the MDAQMD, under section 110(c)(1) of the Act.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">Alabama Power Co.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Costle,</E>
                         636 F.2d 323, 357-60 (DC Cir. 1979) (discussing considerations of “administrative necessity” that may provide basis for deferred regulation).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         In the 2024 NSR Action, the EPA promulgated a FIP to address the deficiency related to Rule 1304(C)(2)(d). 89 FR 106332. Our TSD for that action can be found in the docket for this rule and contains a more detailed discussion of the FIP.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The MDAQMD's overhaul of the offsets calculations portion of its NNSR program, which has been in effect since at least 1995, requires the District to reconfigure its ERC banking system to conform to federal requirements, which the MDAQMD has committed to implement. The MDAQMD has represented that it faces a significant administrative burden in reconfiguring its ERC bank to comply with federal requirements.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The 24-month period following the approval of MDAQMD's revised Rule 1304 and simultaneous termination of the NNSR FIP that is currently in effect in the MDAQMD is unlikely to interfere with attainment or reasonable further progress in the MDAQMD.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Thus, the EPA is proposing to conditionally approve the MDAQMD's 2024 Submittal based on the MDAQMD's commitment to revise Rule 1304 to add a provision to rescind section (C)(2)(d) in its entirety, effective 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34789"/>
                    24 months after the EPA's final approval of the revised Rule 1304 into the SIP. The June 12, 2025 and June 17, 2025 Commitment Letters detail revisions that are clear and enforceable, correct the identified deficiencies, and fulfill CAA requirements for a conditional approval. If the EPA finalizes the proposed conditional approval and the MDAQMD and CARB submit a revised Rule 1304 that rescinds section (C)(2)(d) as described in the June 12, 2025 and June 17, 2025 Commitment Letters, the EPA will propose to fully approve Rule 1304, as revised, into the California SIP.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         Commitment letter from Brad Poiriez, Executive Officer of the MDAQMD, to Josh F.W. Cook, EPA Region IX Regional Administrator, and Dr. Stephen Cliff, CARB Executive Officer, dated June 12, 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         The MDAQMD's 2015 ozone NAAQS attainment plan, which is titled “MDAQMD Federal 70 ppb Ozone Attainment Plan” is available on its website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.mdaqmd.ca.gov/home/showpublisheddocument/9693/638131029372000000</E>
                         and in the docket for this action. Chapter 2, “Emission Inventories,” of the MDAQMD attainment plan presents the District's emission inventory.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The EPA's TSD for this action describes how the MDAQMD's revision to Rule 1304 would correct the related deficiencies in Rules 1301, 1302, 1303, and 1305. The cross references to section (C) in Rule 1304 in those rules render them deficient because of the deficiency in Rule 1304(C)(2)(d), but MDAQMD's revision to rescind section (C)(2)(d) would immediately correct these deficiencies without the need for revisions to any other provisions in the other MDAQMD Regulation XIII rules. If either the MDAQMD or CARB fails to adopt and submit these amendments within the required timeframe, CAA section 110(k)(4) specifies that the conditional approval of Rule 1304 shall be treated as a disapproval.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Definitions of “Major Modification” and “Modification (Modified)” in Rule 1301</HD>
                <P>
                    In the 2023 NSR Action, the EPA determined that Rule 1301(JJ) (Definition for “Major Modification”) and Rule 1301(NN) (Definition of “Modification (Modified)”) are deficient because they are inconsistent with the federal definition for Major Modification pursuant to 40 CFR 51.165(a)(1)(v)(A)(1),
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the calculation procedures for determining offsets pursuant to 40 CFR 51.165(a)(3)(ii)(J) and CAA section 173(c)(1) and 40 CFR 51.165(a)(1)(vi)(E)(1). The EPA also determined that the use of calculation procedures in 1304(B)(2) does not conform to the calculation procedures for determining offsets pursuant to CAA section 173(c)(1) and 40 CFR 51.165(a)(3)(ii)(J) and the criteria for determining the emissions decreases that are creditable pursuant to 40 CFR 51.165(a)(1)(vi)(E)(1). The MDAQMD amended Rules 1301(JJ) (Definition of “Major Modification”), 1301(NN) (Definition of “Modification (Modified)”), 1301(NNN) (Definition of “Significant”), and 1301(QQ) (Definition of “Net Emissions Increase”) to remove the references to “Net Emissions Increase” to resolve the deficiencies previously identified by the EPA such that these requirements are no longer deficient. The MDAQMD also removed the “Net Emissions Increase” calculations that were in Rule 1304(B)(2) and changed the definition of this term in Rule 1301(QQ) to address the deficiency previously identified by the EPA. These revisions address the deficiencies previously identified by the EPA concerning NSR applicability.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Note that 40 CFR 51.165(a)(1)(v)(A)(1) refers to Step 1 and not Step 2 of the NSR applicability test for a Major Modification.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Historic Actual Emissions (HAE) Procedures</HD>
                <P>In the 2023 NSR Action, the EPA determined that the HAE procedures in Rule 1304(D)(2) are deficient because of a typographical error in which the word “precedes” is used rather than “proceeds.” The MDAQMD revised Rule 1304 by correcting the typographical error in (D)(2)(a)(i), changing the word “proceeds” to “precedes.” This revision addresses the deficiency previously identified by the EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Interprecursor Trading</HD>
                <P>In the 2023 NSR Action, the EPA determined that Rule 1305(C)(6) is deficient because it allows interpollutant trading for ozone precursors on a case-by-case basis, which is no longer allowed under 40 CFR 51.165. The MDAQMD revised Rule 1305(C)(6) by removing the interprecursor trading provisions. This revision resolves the deficiency that the EPA previously identified.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. CAA sections 182(c)(6) and 182(d)</HD>
                <P>
                    In the 2023 NSR Action, the EPA determined that the MDAQMD's NSR rules do not contain the de minimis plan requirements for ozone nonattainment areas contained in CAA sections 182(c)(6) and 182(d) that apply to areas classified as Severe nonattainment. The MDAQMD amended Rule 1303 to include the de minimis plan requirements. Specifically, the MDAQMD's revisions to Rule 1303(A), which are included in the 2024 Submittal, ensure that facilities with PTE above thresholds in Rule 1303(B)(1) must install BACT at any new or modified permit unit.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Rule 1303(B) requires facilities with PTE greater than the threshold levels stated in Rule 1303(B)(1) to obtain offsets. The MDAQMD's revision addresses the deficiency previously identified by the EPA.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The District's definition of BACT at Rule 1301(J) is consistent with the definition of LAER in 40 CFR 51.165(a)(1)(xiii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Proposed Action and Public Comment</HD>
                <P>The EPA is proposing conditional approval of MDAQMD Rules 1301, 1302, 1303, 1304, and 1305 as authorized in section 110(k)(4) of the Act. Section 110(k)(4) of the Act states that the Administrator may approve a plan revision based on a commitment of the State to adopt specific enforceable measures by a date certain, but not later than one year after the date of approval of the plan revision. It further states that any such conditional approval shall be treated as a disapproval if the State fails to comply with such commitment. The June 12, 2025 and June 17, 2025 Letters contain commitments by MDAQMD and CARB to correct the deficiency pertaining to Rule 1304(C)(2)(d) identified in the 2023 NSR Action, as described in this proposed action, and submit the revised Rule 1304 to EPA within one year of EPA's final conditional approval, in accordance with section 110(k)(4) of the Act. Therefore, as authorized in section 110(k)(4) of the CAA, the EPA proposes to conditionally approve the submitted rules based on the commitment by the State to adopt and submit revisions to Rule 1304(C)(2)(d) by a date certain but not later than one year after the effective date of the conditional approval. If this proposed conditional approval is finalized as proposed, and the MDAQMD or CARB fails to comply with this commitment, the conditional approval would be treated as a disapproval.</P>
                <P>
                    The EPA is proposing to find that our action, if finalized, would result in a more stringent SIP and is consistent with the additional substantive requirements of CAA sections 110(l) and 193, while not relaxing any existing provision contained in the SIP, and will not interfere with any applicable attainment and reasonable further progress requirements or any other applicable CAA requirement. With specific regard to MDAQMD's commitment to revise Rule 1304 to include a provision that would rescind section (C)(2)(d) and its consistency with section 110(l) of the Act, the EPA in this rulemaking action is proposing to conditionally approve the 2024 Submittal on the basis of the June 12, 2025 and June 17, 2025 Letters, which commit the MDAQMD and CARB to adopt and submit revisions to Rule 1304 that would add provisions to rescind section (C)(2)(d) 24 months after the effective date of the EPA's full approval of Rule 1304. Rescission of Rule 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34790"/>
                    1304(C)(2)(d) is SIP strengthening, but the 24-month period between the EPA's approval of the revised Rule 1304 into the SIP and simultaneous termination of the FIP means that Rule 1304(C)(2)(d), which is deficient for the reasons provided in the 2023 NSR Action and 2024 NSR Action, would be in effect for that 24-month period before the District implements the revised Rule 1304. For the reasons described in section II.D.2. of this document, the EPA is proposing to find this short delay in the District's compliance with federal NNSR offset requirements justified as a matter of administrative necessity in light of the MDAQMD's need to reassess and revise the ERC banking reserves implemented as part of its NNSR program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For the deficiencies described in this document, which relate to NNSR requirements under part D of title I of the Act, the offset sanction in CAA section 179(b)(2) became effective in the nonattainment areas at issue on January 31, 2024,
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the highway funding sanctions in CAA section 179(b)(1) will become effective on July 31, 2025.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As a separate action in this 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , we are making an interim final determination that will stay or defer the imposition of CAA sanctions associated with our previous limited disapproval action.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         18 months after the effective date of July 31, 2023 of the 2023 NSR Action.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         6 months after the offset sanction is imposed.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>If we finalize this action as proposed, our action conditionally approving Rules 1301, 1302, 1303, 1304, and 1305 will be codified through revisions to 40 CFR 52.220 (Identification of plan—in part) and 40 CFR 52.248 (Identification of plan—conditional approval). If CARB or the MDAQMD fail to comply with this commitment, the conditional approval would convert to a disapproval. We will accept comments from the public on this proposal until August 25, 2025. If we take final action to approve the submitted rules, our final action will incorporate these rules into the federally enforceable SIP.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    In this document, the EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference the MDAQMD rules described in table 2 of this preamble. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials available through 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and in hard copy at the EPA Region IX Office (please contact the person identified in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this preamble for more information).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Act. Accordingly, this proposed action merely proposes to approve state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) because SIP actions are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866;</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it proposes to approve a state program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA.</P>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxide, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>
                         42 U.S.C. 7401 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 15, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Joshua F.W. Cook,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region IX.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13906 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R06-OAR-2020-0165; FRL-12829-01-R6]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; Texas; Reasonably Available Control Technology in the Houston-Galveston-Brazoria Ozone Nonattainment Area</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is supplementing a proposed rule published on March 10, 2021, to approve revisions to the Texas State Implementation Plan (SIP) concerning Nitrogen Oxide (NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                        ) and Volatile Organic Compound (VOC) Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT) requirements for the Serious Houston-Galveston-Brazoria (HGB), 2008 8-hour ozone National Air Quality Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) nonattainment area. Because of comments received on the March 10, 2021, proposal, we are providing additional analysis, in this proposal, regarding the RACT requirements which apply to sources of VOC in this area. Consistent with this analysis, EPA is proposing to determine that the Texas Rules meet the RACT requirements for sources of VOCs in the HGB Serious ozone nonattainment area for the purposes of the 2008 standard. The NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         portion of the RACT analysis in the March 10, 2021, proposal will be addressed in a separate action. The EPA is providing an opportunity for public comment on this supplemental proposal. Comments received on the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34791"/>
                        March 10, 2021, proposal and this supplemental proposal will be addressed in a final rule.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments must be received on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by Docket No. EPA-R06-OAR-2020-0165, at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or via email to 
                        <E T="03">Shahin.emad@epa.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Once submitted, comments cannot be edited or removed from 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                        . The EPA may publish any comment received to its public docket. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Multimedia submissions (audio, video, etc.) must be accompanied by a written comment. The written comment is considered the official comment and should include discussion of all points you wish to make. The EPA will generally not consider comments or comment contents located outside of the primary submission (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         on the web, cloud, or other file sharing system). For additional submission methods, please contact Emad Shahin, (214) 665-6717, 
                        <E T="03">Shahin.emad@epa.gov.</E>
                         For the full EPA public comment policy, information about CBI or multimedia submissions, and general guidance on making effective comments, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         The index to the docket for this action is available electronically at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         While all documents in the docket are listed in the index, some information may not be publicly available due to docket file size restrictions or content (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         CBI).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Emad Shahin, 214-665-6717, 
                        <E T="03">Shahin.emad@epa.gov.</E>
                         We encourage the public to submit comments via 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Please call or email the contact listed above if you need alternative access to material indexed but not provided in the docket.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Throughout this document wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean the EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On May 13, 2020, the Texas Commission on Environmental Quality (TCEQ or State) submitted to EPA a SIP revision addressing RACT requirements for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS for the two Serious ozone nonattainment areas in Texas—the Dallas-Fort Worth (DFW) and HGB areas.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     EPA proposed approval of the portions of the submittal that addressed VOC and NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     RACT requirements for the HGB area on March 10, 2021. For background information regarding the HGB area, Texas' May 13, 2020, SIP submittal, the ozone NAAQS, and RACT, please see the EPA's original proposal for this action at 86 FR 13679 (March 10, 2021). In this supplemental proposal, we refer to the May 13, 2020, Texas SIP revision as “the RACT submittal” and we refer to our March 10, 2021, proposed action and Technical Support Document (TSD) as “the March 2021 proposal.” We are supplementing the March 2021 proposal with respect to VOC RACT. We will address NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     RACT in a separate action.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Clean Air Act (CAA) sections 182(b)(2) and (f) require that SIPs for ozone nonattainment areas classified as Moderate or higher include implementation of RACT for any source covered by a CTG document and also for any major source of VOC or NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                        . The EPA has defined RACT as the lowest emissions limitation that a particular source is capable of meeting by the application of control technology that is reasonably available, considering technological and economic feasibility. See 44 FR 53761 (September 17, 1979).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In our March 2021 proposal, we proposed to approve the RACT submittal for the HGB nonattainment area as meeting the VOC RACT requirements for an area designated as Serious with the exception of the requirement to implement RACT for sources covered by the 2016 CTG for the Oil and Natural Gas Industry.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We proposed to determine that the Texas rules implemented RACT (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the lowest achievable emission rate considering technical and economic feasibility) for all sources subject to all remaining CTG categories. In addition, we proposed that the Texas rules also implement RACT for major sources in categories not covered by a CTG (non-CTG RACT).
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We also proposed to approve negative declarations made for fiberglass boat manufacturing materials, manufacturing of pneumatic rubber tires, flat wood paneling coatings, letterpress printing, and automobile and light-duty truck assembly coatings sectors in the HGB area.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         In a separate action, EPA finalized approval of the Texas SIP revision regarding RACT requirements for sources covered by the 2016 Oil and Natural Gas Control Techniques Guidelines for the DFW and HGB nonattainment areas for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS. See 88 FR 55379 (August 15, 2023).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Sources emitting VOCs in a quantity greater than the Serious area major source definition (50 tpy) and not covered by a CTG category or previously approved RACT rule.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>During EPA's public comment period, we received a comment claiming that our proposed action would approve a state submission that relied on outdated RACT determinations. EPA has since reviewed additional information and conducted additional analysis. We are providing this supplemental proposal, and an associated Supplemental TSD, containing a compendium of EPA's review of relevant rules (from a variety of other states) currently in place to implement VOC RACT for CTG covered sources across the country. Based on our review of these state rules, and in comparison to Texas' May 13, 2020 SIP submission, we confirm our previous proposal that Texas' rules meet RACT requirements for the 2008 ozone NAAQS.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Evaluation</HD>
                <P>
                    EPA performed an analysis which can be found in the Supplemental TSD 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     evaluating the relevant RACT rules in various states including Arizona, California, Colorado, Illinois, Indiana, Maine, New Hampshire, Ohio, Vermont, and Wisconsin. EPA found Texas' rules to be generally consistent with or more stringent than control measures in other states' regulations and CTGs. In addition, we reviewed the EPA's RACT/BACT/LAER clearinghouse database, which contains case-specific information on the best available air pollution control technologies that have been required to reduce the emission of air pollutants from stationary sources.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     EPA has not identified any new control technologies that are reasonably available considering technological and economic feasibility for these sources. Based upon our findings, EPA confirms our previous proposal that Texas VOC RACT regulations are still representative of RACT for the HGB nonattainment area for the purpose of the 2008 ozone NAAQS standard.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Available in the docket for this action.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         See: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/catc/ractbactlaer-clearinghouse-rblc-basic-information.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Supplemental Proposed Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The EPA is supplementing our March 2021 proposal addressing revisions to the Texas SIP with respect to the VOC RACT requirements for the HGB Serious nonattainment area for the 2008 ozone NAAQS. In this supplemental proposal, we are providing an opportunity for public comment on EPA's VOC RACT analysis that further supports the March 2021 proposed approval record in showing that Texas VOC RACT regulations do implement RACT level controls, consistent with sections 182(b)(2) and (c) of the CAA. The EPA will address all comments received on our March 2021 proposal and on this supplemental proposal in our final action.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34792"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Clean Air Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) because SIP actions are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866;</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a state program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act.</P>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>
                        42 U.S.C. 7401 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 16, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Walter Mason,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region 6.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13904 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R10-OAR-2024-0541; FRL-12449-01-R10]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; Washington; Regional Haze State Implementation Plan for the Second Implementation Period</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve the regional haze State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by Washington on January 28, 2022, to address applicable requirements under the Clean Air Act (CAA) and the EPA's Regional Haze Rule (RHR) for the regional haze program's second implementation period. The EPA is proposing this action pursuant to the CAA.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments must be received on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R10-OAR-2024-0541 at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         For comments submitted at 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                        , follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Once submitted, comments may not be edited or removed from 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                         For either manner of submission, the EPA may publish any comment received to its public docket. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be confidential business information or other information the disclosure of which is restricted by statute. Multimedia submissions (audio, video, etc.) must be accompanied by a written comment. The written comment is considered the official comment and should include discussion of all points you wish to make. The EPA will generally not consider comments or comment contents located outside of the primary submission (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         on the web, cloud, or other file sharing system). For additional submission methods, please contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section. For the full EPA public comment policy, information about confidential business information or multimedia submissions, and general guidance on making effective comments, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Jeff Hunt, EPA Region 10, 1200 Sixth Avenue, Suite 155, Seattle, WA 98101, at (206) 553-0256 or 
                        <E T="03">hunt.jeff@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Throughout this document, the use of “we” and “our” means the EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. What action is the EPA proposing?</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Background and Requirements for Regional Haze Plans</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Requirements for Regional Haze Plans for the Second Implementation Period</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. The EPA's Evaluation of the Washington Regional Haze Plan for the Second Implementation Period</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Proposed Action</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Incorporation by Reference</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. What action is the EPA proposing?</HD>
                <P>The EPA is proposing to approve the regional haze SIP revision submitted by the Washington Department of Ecology (Ecology) on January 28, 2022, under the CAA and the EPA's Regional Haze Rule for the program's second implementation period. Washington's SIP submission addresses the requirement that States must periodically revise their long-term strategies for making reasonable progress towards the national goal of preventing any future, and remedying any existing, anthropogenic impairment of visibility, including regional haze, in mandatory Class I Federal areas. The SIP submission also addresses other applicable requirements for the second implementation period of the regional haze program. The EPA is taking this action pursuant to CAA sections 110 and 169A.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Requirements for Regional Haze Plans</HD>
                <P>
                    A detailed history and background of the regional haze program is provided in multiple prior EPA proposal actions.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For additional background on the 2017 Regional Haze Rule (RHR) revisions, please refer to Section III of this 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34793"/>
                    publication. Overview of Visibility Protection Statutory Authority, Regulation, and Implementation of “Protection of Visibility: Amendments to Requirements for State Plans” of the 2017 RHR.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The following is an abbreviated history and background of the regional haze program and 2017 RHR as it applies to the current action.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 13516 (March 24, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         82 FR 3078 (January 10, 2017, located at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2017/01/10/2017-00268/protection-of-visibility-amendments-to-requirements-for-State-plans#h-16).</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Regional Haze</HD>
                <P>In the 1977 CAA Amendments, Congress created a program for protecting visibility in the nation's mandatory Class I Federal areas, which include certain national parks and wilderness areas. CAA 169A. The CAA establishes as a national goal the “prevention of any future, and the remedying of any existing, impairment of visibility in mandatory class I Federal areas which impairment results from manmade air pollution.” CAA 169A(a)(1).</P>
                <P>
                    In CAA section 169A(a)(1), Congress established the national goal of preventing any future and remedying any existing impairment of visibility in mandatory Class I Federal areas that results from manmade (anthropogenic) air pollution. The core component of a regional haze SIP submission for the second planning period is a strategy that addresses regional haze in each Class I area within the State's borders and each Class I area outside the State that may be affected by emissions originating from within the State, CAA section 169A(b)(2)(B), 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2), and makes “reasonable progress” toward the national goal based on consideration of the four statutory factors in CAA section 169A(g)(1)—the costs of compliance, the time necessary for compliance, the energy and non-air quality environmental impacts of compliance, and the remaining useful life of any potentially affected sources.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         CAA section 169A(g)(1); 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Regional haze is visibility impairment that is produced by a multitude of anthropogenic sources and activities which are located across a broad geographic area and that emit pollutants that impair visibility. Visibility impairing pollutants include fine and coarse particulate matter (PM) (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     sulfates, nitrates, organic carbon, elemental carbon, and soil dust) and their precursors (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     sulfur dioxide (SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    ), nitrogen oxides (NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    ), and, in some cases, volatile organic compounds (VOC) and ammonia (NH
                    <E T="52">3</E>
                    )). Fine particle precursors react in the atmosphere to form fine particulate matter (PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                    ), which impairs visibility by scattering and absorbing light. Visibility impairment reduces the perception of clarity and color, as well as visible distance.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         There are several ways to measure the amount of visibility impairment, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         haze. One such measurement is the deciview, which is the principal metric used by the RHR. Under many circumstances, a change in one deciview will be perceived by the human eye to be the same on both clear and hazy days. The deciview is unitless. It is proportional to the logarithm of the atmospheric extinction of light, which is the perceived dimming of light due to its being scattered and absorbed as it passes through the atmosphere. Atmospheric light extinction (b
                        <SU>ext</SU>
                        ) is a metric used for expressing visibility and is measured in inverse megameters (Mm
                        <E T="51">−1</E>
                        ). The formula for the deciview is 10 ln (b
                        <SU>ext</SU>
                        )/10 Mm−1). 40 CFR 51.301.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To address regional haze visibility impairment, the 1999 RHR established an iterative planning process that requires both States in which Class I areas are located and states “the emissions from which may reasonably be anticipated to cause or contribute to any impairment of visibility” in a Class I area to periodically submit SIP revisions to address such impairment. CAA 169A(b)(2); see also 40 CFR 51.308(b), (f) (establishing submission dates for iterative regional haze SIP revisions); (64 FR 35714, July 1, 1999, at page 35768).</P>
                <P>On January 10, 2017, the EPA promulgated revisions to the RHR, (82 FR 3078, January 10, 2017), that apply for the second and subsequent implementation periods. The reasonable progress requirements as revised in the 2017 rulemaking (referred to here as the 2017 RHR Revisions) are codified at 40 CFR 51.308(f).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. The Western Regional Air Partnership</HD>
                <P>
                    The Western Regional Air Partnership (WRAP) 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     is one of five regional air quality planning organizations across the United States.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The WRAP functions as a voluntary partnership of State, Tribal, Federal, and Local air agencies whose purpose is to understand current and evolving air quality issues in the west. There are 15 member States, including Washington, and 28 Tribal and 30 Local air agency members.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Federal partners include the EPA, National Park Service, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Forest Service, and Bureau of Land Management.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The WRAP website may be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.wrapair2.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.epa.gov/visibility/visibility-regional-planning-organizations</E>
                         for information about the regional planning organizations, or RPOs, for visibility.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         The WRAP membership list may be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.wrapair2.org/membership.aspx.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Based on emissions and monitoring data supplied by its membership, the WRAP produced technical tools to support modeling of visibility impacts at Class I areas across the west.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The WRAP Technical Support System for the second implementation period or “TSSV2” consolidated air quality monitoring data, meteorological and receptor modeling data analyses, emissions inventories and projections, and gridded air quality/visibility regional modeling results. The TSSV2 is accessible by members and allows for the creation of maps, figures, and tables to export and use in developing regional haze plans and maintains the original source data for verification and further analysis.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Technical information may be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.wrapair2.org/RHPWG.aspx/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The WRAP TSS for the second implementation period may be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://views.cira.colostate.edu/tssv2/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Washington's Regional Haze Plan for the Second Implementation Period</HD>
                <P>On January 28, 2022, Ecology submitted a revision to the Washington SIP to address regional haze for the second planning period. Ecology made this SIP submission to satisfy the requirements of the CAA's regional haze program pursuant to CAA sections 169A and 169B and 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 51.308.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Requirements for Regional Haze Plans for the Second Implementation Period</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the CAA and EPA's regulations, all 50 States, the District of Columbia, and the U.S. Virgin Islands are required to submit regional haze SIPs satisfying the applicable requirements for the second implementation period of the regional haze program by July 31, 2021. Each State's SIP must contain a long-term strategy for making reasonable progress toward meeting the national goal of remedying any existing and preventing any future anthropogenic visibility impairment in Class I areas. CAA 169A(b)(2)(B). To this end, 40 CFR 51.308(f) lays out the process by which States determine what constitutes their long-term strategies, with the order of the requirements in 40 CFR 51.308(f)(1) through (3) generally mirroring the order of the steps in the reasonable progress analysis 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and (f)(4) through (6) containing additional, related requirements.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         The EPA explained in the 2017 RHR Revisions that we were adopting new regulatory language in 40 CFR 51.308(f) that, unlike the structure in 51.308(d), “tracked the actual planning sequence.” (82 FR 3091, January 10, 2017).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Broadly speaking, a State first must identify the Class I areas within the State and determine the Class I areas outside the State in which visibility may 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34794"/>
                    be affected by emissions from the State. These are the Class I areas that must be addressed in the State's long-term strategy. See 40 CFR 51.308(f), (f)(2). For each Class I area within its borders, a State must then calculate the baseline (five-year average period of 2000-2004), current, and natural visibility conditions (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     visibility conditions without anthropogenic visibility impairment) for that area, as well as the visibility improvement made to date and the “uniform rate of progress” (URP).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The URP is the linear rate of progress needed to attain natural visibility conditions, assuming a starting point of baseline visibility conditions in 2004 and ending with natural conditions in 2064. This linear interpolation is used as a tracking metric to help States assess the amount of progress they are making towards the national visibility goal over time in each Class I area. See 40 CFR 51.308(f)(1). Each State having a Class I area and/or emissions that may affect visibility in a Class I area must then develop a long-term strategy that includes the enforceable emission limitations, compliance schedules, and other measures that are necessary to make reasonable progress in such areas. A reasonable progress determination is based on applying the four factors in CAA section 169A(g)(1) to sources of visibility impairing pollutants that the State has selected to assess for controls for the second implementation period. Additionally, as further explained below, the RHR at 40 CFR 51.3108(f)(2)(iv) separately provides five “additional factors” 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that States must consider in developing their long-term strategies. See 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         The five “additional factors” for consideration in section 51.308(f)(2)(iv) are distinct from the four factors listed in CAA section 169A(g)(1) and 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i) that States must consider and apply to sources in determining reasonable progress.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A State evaluates potential emission reduction measures for those selected sources and determines which are necessary to make reasonable progress. Those measures are then incorporated into the State's long-term strategy. After a State has developed its long-term strategy, it then establishes reasonable progress goals (RPGs) for each Class I area within its borders by modeling the visibility impacts of all reasonable progress controls at the end of the second implementation period, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     in 2028, as well as the impacts of other requirements of the CAA. The RPGs include reasonable progress controls not only for sources in the State in which the Class I area is located, but also for sources in other States that contribute to visibility impairment in that area. The RPGs are then compared to the baseline visibility conditions and the URP to ensure that progress is being made towards the statutory goal of preventing any future and remedying any existing anthropogenic visibility impairment in Class I areas. 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2) and (3). There are additional requirements in the rule, including (Federal Land Manager) FLM consultation, that apply to all visibility protection SIPs and SIP revisions. 
                    <E T="03">See e.g.,</E>
                     40 CFR 51.308(i).
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition to satisfying the requirements at 40 CFR 51.308(f) related to reasonable progress, the regional haze SIP revisions for the second implementation period must address the requirements in 40 CFR 51.308(g)(1) through (5) pertaining to periodic reports describing progress towards the RPGs, 40 CFR 51.308(f)(5), as well as requirements for FLM consultation that apply to all visibility protection SIPs and SIP revisions. See 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     40 CFR 51.308(i).
                </P>
                <P>A State must submit its regional haze SIP and subsequent SIP revisions to the EPA according to the requirements applicable to all SIP revisions under the CAA and the EPA's regulations. See CAA section 169A(b)(2); CAA section 110(a). Upon approval by the EPA, a SIP is enforceable by the Agency and the public under the CAA. If the EPA finds that a State fails to make a required SIP revision, or if the EPA finds that a State's SIP is incomplete or if it disapproves the SIP, the Agency must promulgate a Federal implementation plan (FIP) that satisfies the applicable requirements. CAA section 110(c)(1).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Identification of Class I Areas</HD>
                <P>
                    The first step in developing a regional haze SIP is for a State to determine which Class I areas, in addition to those within its borders, “may be affected” by emissions from within the State. In the 1999 RHR, the EPA determined that all States contribute to visibility impairment in at least one Class I area, 64 FR 35714, July 1, 1999, at pages 35720-22, and explained that the statute and regulations lay out an “extremely low triggering threshold” for determining “whether States should be required to engage in air quality planning and analysis as a prerequisite to determining the need for control of emissions from sources within their State.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 35721.
                </P>
                <P>A State must determine which Class I areas must be addressed by its SIP by evaluating the total emissions of visibility impairing pollutants from all sources within the State The determination of which Class I areas may be affected by a State's emissions is subject to the requirement in 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iii) to “document the technical basis, including modeling, monitoring, cost, engineering, and emissions information, on which the State is relying to determine the emission reduction measures that are necessary to make reasonable progress in each mandatory Class I Federal area it affects.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Calculation of Baseline, Current, and Natural Visibility Conditions; Progress to Date; and Uniform Rate of Progress</HD>
                <P>As part of assessing whether a SIP submission for the second implementation period is providing for reasonable progress towards the national visibility goal, the RHR contains requirements in 40 CFR 51.308(f)(1) related to tracking visibility improvement over time. The requirements of this section apply only to States having Class I areas within their borders; the required calculations must be made for each such Class I area. The EPA's 2018 Visibility Tracking Guidance provides recommendations to assist States in satisfying their obligations under 40 CFR 51.308(f)(1); specifically, in developing information on baseline, current, and natural visibility conditions, and in making optional adjustments to the URP to account for the impacts of international anthropogenic emissions and prescribed fires. See 82 FR 3078, January 10, 2017, at pages 3103-05.</P>
                <P>
                    The RHR requires tracking of visibility conditions on two sets of days: the clearest and the most impaired days. Visibility conditions for both sets of days are expressed as the average deciview index for the relevant five-year period (the period representing baseline or current visibility conditions). The RHR provides that the relevant sets of days for visibility tracking purposes are the 20% clearest (the 20% of monitored days in a calendar year with the lowest values of the deciview index) and 20% most impaired days (the 20% of monitored days in a calendar year with the highest amounts of anthropogenic visibility impairment). 40 CFR 51.301. A State must calculate visibility conditions for both the 20% clearest and 20% most impaired days for the baseline period of 2000-2004 and the most recent five-year period for which visibility monitoring data are available (representing current visibility conditions). 40 CFR 51.308(f)(1)(i), (iii). States must also calculate natural visibility conditions for the clearest and most impaired days, by estimating the conditions that would exist on those two sets of days absent anthropogenic visibility impairment. 40 CFR 51.308(f)(1)(ii). Using all these data, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34795"/>
                    States must then calculate, for each Class I area, the amount of progress made since the baseline period (2000-2004) and how much improvement is left to achieve to reach natural visibility conditions.
                </P>
                <P>Using the data for the set of most impaired days only, States must plot a line between visibility conditions in the baseline period and natural visibility conditions for each Class I area to determine the URP—the amount of visibility improvement, measured in deciviews, that would need to be achieved during each implementation period to achieve natural visibility conditions by the end of 2064. The URP is used in later steps of the reasonable progress analysis for informational purposes and to provide a non-enforceable benchmark against which to assess a Class I area's rate of visibility improvement. Additionally, in the 2017 RHR Revisions, the EPA provided States the option of proposing to adjust the endpoint of the URP to account for impacts of anthropogenic sources outside the United States and/or impacts of certain types of wildland prescribed fires. These adjustments, which must be approved by the EPA, are intended to avoid any perception that States should compensate for impacts from international anthropogenic sources and to give States the flexibility to determine that limiting the use of wildland-prescribed fire is not necessary for reasonable progress. 82 FR 3078, January 10, 2017, at page 3107, footnote 116.</P>
                <P>The EPA's 2018 Visibility Tracking Guidance can be used to help satisfy the 40 CFR 51.308(f)(1) requirements, including in developing information on baseline, current, and natural visibility conditions, and in making optional adjustments to the URP. In addition, the 2020 Data Completeness Memo provides recommendations on the data completeness language referenced in 40 CFR 51.308(f)(1)(i) and provides updated natural conditions estimates for each Class I area.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Long-Term Strategy for Regional Haze</HD>
                <P>
                    The core component of a regional haze SIP submission is a long-term strategy that addresses regional haze in each Class I area within a State's borders and each Class I area outside the State that may be affected by emissions from the State. The long-term strategy “must include the enforceable emissions limitations, compliance schedules, and other measures that are necessary to make reasonable progress, as determined pursuant to (f)(2)(i) through (iv).” 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2). The amount of progress that is “reasonable progress” is based on applying the four statutory factors in CAA section 169A(g)(1) in an evaluation of potential control options for sources of visibility impairing pollutants, which is referred to as a “four-factor” analysis. The outcome of that analysis is the emission reduction measures that a particular source or group of sources needs to implement to make reasonable progress towards the national visibility goal. See 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i). Emission reduction measures that are necessary to make reasonable progress may be either new, additional control measures for a source, or they may be the existing emission reduction measures that a source is already implementing. See 82 FR 3078, 3092-93. Such measures must be represented by “enforceable emissions limitations, compliance schedules, and other measures” (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     any additional compliance tools) in a State's long-term strategy in its SIP. 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2).
                </P>
                <P>The regulation at 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i) provides the requirements for the four-factor analysis. The first step of this analysis entails selecting the sources to be evaluated for emission reduction measures; to this end, the RHR requires States to consider “major and minor stationary sources or groups of sources, mobile sources, and area sources” of visibility impairing pollutants for potential four-factor control analysis. 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i). A threshold question at this step is which visibility impairing pollutants will be analyzed.</P>
                <P>While States have discretion to choose any source selection methodology that is reasonable, whatever choices they make should be reasonably explained. To this end, 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i) requires that a State's SIP submission include “a description of the criteria it used to determine which sources or groups of sources it evaluated.” The technical basis for source selection, which may include methods for quantifying potential visibility impacts such as emissions divided by distance metrics, trajectory analyses, residence time analyses, and/or photochemical modeling, must also be appropriately documented, as required by 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iii).</P>
                <P>
                    Once a State has selected the set of sources, the next step is to determine the emissions reduction measures for those sources that are necessary to make reasonable progress for the second implementation period.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This is accomplished by considering the four factors—“the costs of compliance, the time necessary for compliance, and the energy and non-air quality environmental impacts of compliance, and the remaining useful life of any existing source subject to such requirements.” CAA section 169A(g)(1). The EPA has explained that the four-factor analysis is an assessment of potential emission reduction measures (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     control options) for sources: “use of the terms `compliance' and `subject to such requirements' in section 169A(g)(1) strongly indicates that Congress intended the relevant determination to be the requirements with which sources would have to comply to satisfy the CAA's reasonable progress mandate.” 82 FR 3091 (January 10, 2017). Thus, for each source it has selected for four-factor analysis,
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     a State must consider a “meaningful set” of technically feasible control options for reducing emissions of visibility impairing pollutants. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 3088.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         The CAA provides that, “[i]n determining reasonable progress there shall be taken into consideration” the four statutory factors. CAA section 169A(g)(1). However, in addition to four-factor analyses for selected sources, groups of sources, or source categories, a State may also consider additional emission reduction measures for inclusion in its long-term strategy, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         from other newly adopted, on-the-books, or on-the-way rules and measures for sources not selected for four-factor analysis for the second implementation period.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         “Each source” or “particular source” is used here as shorthand. While a source-specific analysis is one way of applying the four factors, neither the statute nor the RHR requires States to evaluate individual sources. Rather, States have “the flexibility to conduct four-factor analyses for specific sources, groups of sources or even entire source categories, depending on State policy preferences and the specific circumstances of each State.” 82 FR 3088 (January 10, 2017).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The EPA has also explained that, in addition to the four statutory factors, States have flexibility under the CAA and RHR to reasonably consider visibility benefits as an additional factor alongside the four statutory factors. Ultimately, while States have discretion to reasonably weigh the factors and to determine what level of control is needed, 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i) provides that a State “must include in its implementation plan a description of . . . how the four factors were taken into consideration in selecting the measure for inclusion in its long-term strategy.”</P>
                <P>
                    As explained above, 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i) requires States to determine the emission reduction measures for sources that are necessary to make reasonable progress by considering the four factors. Pursuant to 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2), measures that are necessary to make reasonable progress towards the national visibility goal must be included in a State's long-term 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34796"/>
                    strategy and in its SIP. If the outcome of a four-factor analysis is that an emissions reduction measure is necessary to make reasonable progress towards remedying existing or preventing future anthropogenic visibility impairment, that measure must be included in the SIP.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The characterization of information on each of the factors is also subject to the documentation requirement in 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iii). The reasonable progress analysis is a technically complex exercise, and also a flexible one, that provides States with bounded discretion to design and implement approaches appropriate to their circumstances. Given this flexibility, 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iii) plays an important function in requiring a State to document the technical basis for its decision making so that the public and the EPA can comprehend and evaluate the information and analysis the State relied upon to determine what emission reduction measures must be in place to make reasonable progress. The technical documentation must include the modeling, monitoring, cost, engineering, and emissions information on which the State relied to determine the measures necessary to make reasonable progress. Additionally, the RHR at 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iv) separately provides five “additional factors” 
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that States must consider in developing their long-term strategies: (1) emission reductions due to ongoing air pollution control programs, including measures to address reasonably attributable visibility impairment; (2) measures to reduce the impacts of construction activities; (3) source retirement and replacement schedules; (4) basic smoke management practices for prescribed fire used for agricultural and wildland vegetation management purposes and smoke management programs; and (5) the anticipated net effect on visibility due to projected changes in point, area, and mobile source emissions over the period addressed by the long-term strategy.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         The five “additional factors” for consideration in 40 CFR51.308(f)(2)(iv) are distinct from the four factors listed in CAA section 169A(g)(1) and 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i) that States must consider and apply to sources in determining reasonable progress.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Because the air pollution that causes regional haze crosses State boundaries, 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(ii) requires a State to consult with other States that also have emissions that are reasonably anticipated to contribute to visibility impairment in a given Class I area. If a State, pursuant to consultation, agrees that certain measures (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     a certain emission limitation) are necessary to make reasonable progress at a Class I area, it must include those measures in its SIP. 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(ii)(A). Additionally, the RHR requires that States that contribute to visibility impairment at the same Class I area consider the emission reduction measures the other contributing States have identified as being necessary to make reasonable progress for their own sources. 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(ii)(B). If a State has been asked to consider or adopt certain emission reduction measures, but ultimately determines those measures are not necessary to make reasonable progress, that State must document in its SIP the actions taken to resolve the disagreement. 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(ii)(C). Under all circumstances, a State must document in its SIP submission all substantive consultations with other contributing States. 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(ii)(C).
                </P>
                <P>
                    In this proposed action, the EPA notes that it is the Agency's policy, as announced in the EPA's recent approval of the West Virginia Regional Haze SIP,
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that where the State has considered the four statutory factors, and visibility conditions for a Class I area impacted by a State are projected to be below the URP in 2028, the State has presumptively demonstrated reasonable progress for the second implementation period for that area. The EPA acknowledges that this proposed action reflects a change in policy as to how the URP should be used in the evaluation of regional haze second planning period SIPs. However, the EPA finds that this policy aligns with the purpose of the statute and RHR, which is achieving “reasonable” progress, not maximal progress, toward Congress' natural visibility goal.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         See proposed rule (90 FR 16478, April 18, 2025, at page 16483) and final rule (90 FR 29737, July 7, 2025, at pages 29738-39).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Reasonable Progress Goals</HD>
                <P>Reasonable progress goals “measure the progress that is projected to be achieved by the control measures States have determined are necessary to make reasonable progress based on a four-factor analysis.” 82 FR 3091 (January 10, 2017). For the second implementation period, the RPGs are set for 2028. Reasonable progress goals are not enforceable targets, 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(iii). While States are not legally obligated to achieve the visibility conditions described in their RPGs, 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(i) requires that “[t]he long-term strategy and the reasonable progress goals must provide for an improvement in visibility for the most impaired days since the baseline period and ensure no degradation in visibility for the clearest days since the baseline period.”</P>
                <P>
                    RPGs may also serve as a metric for assessing the amount of progress a State is making towards the national visibility goal. To support this approach, the RHR requires States with Class I areas to compare the 2028 RPG for the most impaired days to the corresponding point on the URP line (representing visibility conditions in 2028 if visibility were to improve at a linear rate from conditions in the baseline period of 2000-2004 to natural visibility conditions in 2064). If the most impaired days RPG in 2028 is above the URP (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     if visibility conditions are improving more slowly than the rate described by the URP), each State that contributes to visibility impairment in the Class I area must demonstrate, based on the four-factor analysis required under 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i), that no additional emission reduction measures would be reasonable to include in its long-term strategy. 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(ii). To this end, 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(ii) requires that each State contributing to visibility impairment in a Class I area that is projected to improve more slowly than the URP provide “a robust demonstration, including documenting the criteria used to determine which sources or groups [of] sources were evaluated and how the four factors required by paragraph (f)(2)(i) were taken into consideration in selecting the measures for inclusion in its long-term strategy.”
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Monitoring Strategy and Other State Implementation Plan Requirements</HD>
                <P>Section 51.308(f)(6) requires States to have certain strategies and elements in place for assessing and reporting on visibility. Individual requirements under this section apply either to States with Class I areas within their borders, States with no Class I areas but that are reasonably anticipated to cause or contribute to visibility impairment in any Class I area, or both. Compliance with the monitoring strategy requirement may be met through a State's participation in the Interagency Monitoring of Protected Visual Environments (IMPROVE) monitoring network, which is used to measure visibility impairment caused by air pollution at the 156 Class I areas covered by the visibility program. 40 CFR 51.308(f)(6), (f)(6)(i) and (iv).</P>
                <P>
                    All States' SIPs must provide for procedures by which monitoring data and other information are used to determine the contribution of emissions from within the State to regional haze visibility impairment in affected Class I areas, as well as a Statewide inventory 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34797"/>
                    documenting such emissions. 40 CFR 51.308(f)(6)(ii), (iii) and (v). All States' SIPs must also provide for any other elements, including reporting, recordkeeping, and other measures, that are necessary for States to assess and report on visibility. 40 CFR 51.308(f)(6)(vi).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Requirements for Periodic Reports Describing Progress Towards the Reasonable Progress Goals</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 51.308(f)(5) requires a State's regional haze SIP revision to address the requirements of paragraphs 40 CFR 51.308(g)(1) through (5) so that the plan revision due in 2021 will serve also as a progress report addressing the period since submission of the progress report for the first implementation period. The regional haze progress report requirement is designed to inform the public and the EPA about a State's implementation of its existing long-term strategy and whether such implementation is in fact resulting in the expected visibility improvement. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     81 FR 26942, 26950 (May 4, 2016), (82 FR 3119, January 10, 2017). To this end, every State's SIP revision for the second implementation period is required to assess changes in visibility conditions and describe the status of implementation of all measures included in the State's long-term strategy, including Best Available Retrofit Technology (BART) and reasonable progress emission reduction measures from the first implementation period, and the resulting emissions reductions. 40 CFR 51.308(g)(1) and (2).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Requirements for State and Federal Land Manager Coordination</HD>
                <P>CAA section 169A(d) requires that before a State holds a public hearing on a proposed regional haze SIP revision, it must consult with the appropriate FLM or FLMs; pursuant to that consultation, the State must include a summary of the FLMs' conclusions and recommendations in the notice to the public. Consistent with this statutory requirement, the RHR also requires that States “provide the [FLM] with an opportunity for consultation, in person and at a point early enough in the State's policy analyses of its long-term strategy emission reduction obligation so that information and recommendations provided by the [FLM] can meaningfully inform the State's decisions on the long-term strategy.” 40 CFR 51.308(i)(2). For the EPA to evaluate whether FLM consultation meeting the requirements of the RHR has occurred, the SIP submission should include documentation of the timing and content of such consultation. The SIP revision submitted to the EPA must also describe how the State addressed any comments provided by the FLMs. 40 CFR 51.308(i)(3). Finally, a SIP revision must provide procedures for continuing consultation between the State and FLMs regarding the State's visibility protection program, including development and review of SIP revisions, five-year progress reports, and the implementation of other programs having the potential to contribute to impairment of visibility in Class I areas. 40 CFR 51.308(i)(4).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. The EPA's Evaluation of the Washington Regional Haze Plan for the Second Implementation Period</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Background on the Washington First Implementation Period Plan</HD>
                <P>
                    Washington submitted its regional haze SIP for the first implementation period (2008 through 2018) on December 22, 2010, and submitted a supplemental SIP submission on December 29, 2011. The Clean Air Act and 40 CFR 51.308(d) and (e) required that the initial round of regional haze plans include, among other things, a long-term strategy for making reasonable progress and best available retrofit technology requirements for certain older stationary sources, where applicable. The EPA partially approved and partially disapproved Washington's first implementation period SIP submission on June 11, 2014 (79 FR 33438), issuing FIPs codified at 40 CFR 52.2500 
                    <E T="03">Best available retrofit technology (BART) requirements for the Intalco Aluminum Corporation (Intalco Works) primary aluminum plant—Better than BART Alternative,</E>
                     40 CFR 52.2501 
                    <E T="03">Best available retrofit technology requirement for the Tesoro Refining and Marketing Company oil refinery—Better than BART Alternative,</E>
                     and 40 CFR 52.2502 
                    <E T="03">Best available retrofit technology requirements for the Alcoa Inc.—Wenatchee Works primary aluminum smelter</E>
                     to remedy the disapproved elements.
                </P>
                <P>Subsequently, on November 6, 2017, Washington submitted a five-year progress report, and the EPA approved the progress report on July 31, 2018 (83 FR 36752). In the action to approve the progress report, the EPA determined that the Washington regional haze plan for the first implementation period was adequate and required no substantive revision.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. The Washington Second Implementation Period Plan and the EPA's Evaluation</HD>
                <P>
                    On January 28, 2022, Washington submitted its regional haze plan for the second implementation period (2018 through 2028).
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Washington made its January 28, 2022, submission available for public comment on October 19, 2021 through November 23, 2021 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and held a public hearing on November 18, 2021.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The State received and responded to public comments and included the comments and comment responses in the SIP submission.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         Clean Air Act sections 169A and 40 CFR 51.308(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         Appendix X of Washington's January 28, 2022, submission.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         Appendix Y of Washington's January 28, 2022, submission.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         Appendix W of Washington's January 28, 2022, submission.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The following sections of this document describe the Washington submission, including but not limited to air quality modeling conducted, source selection and control measure analysis, assessment of progress made since the first implementation period in reducing emissions of visibility impairing pollutants, and the visibility improvement progress at Class I areas in Washington and other States impacted by Washington sources. This document also contains the EPA's evaluation of the Washington submission against the requirements of the Clean Air Act and Regional Haze Rule for the second implementation period of the regional haze program.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Identification of Class I Areas</HD>
                <P>Section 169A(b)(2) of the CAA requires each State in which any Class I area is located or “the emissions from which may reasonably be anticipated to cause or contribute to any impairment of visibility” in a Class I area to have a plan for making reasonable progress toward the national visibility goal. The RHR implements this statutory requirement at 40 CFR 51.308(f), which provides that each State's plan “must address regional haze in each mandatory Class I Federal area located within the State and in each mandatory Class I Federal area located outside the State that may be affected by emissions from within the State,” and (f)(2), which requires each State's plan to include a long-term strategy that addresses regional haze in such Class I areas.</P>
                <P>
                    The EPA concluded in the 1999 RHR that “all [s]tates contain sources whose emissions are reasonably anticipated to contribute to regional haze in a Class I area,” 64 FR 35714, July 1, 1999, at page 35721, and this determination was not 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34798"/>
                    changed in the 2017 RHR. Critically, the statute and regulation both require that the cause-or-contribute assessment consider all emissions of visibility impairing pollutants from a State, as opposed to emissions of a particular pollutant or emissions from a certain set of sources.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Washington Class I Areas</HD>
                <P>
                    Washington has eight designated Class I areas, including three national parks and five wilderness areas.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         Section 169A of the Clean Air Act was established in 1977 to protect visibility in all wilderness areas over 5,000 acres and all national parks over 6,000 acres. 156 such areas were designated throughout the U.S.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Olympic National Park</HD>
                <P>Olympic National Park includes a significant portion of the Olympic Peninsula in northwestern Washington. It consists of two segments: the Olympic Mountains, which form the mountainous core of the park, and a coastal strip, stretching for 90 kilometers (km) (56 miles (mi)) along the Pacific coast. Thirteen major rivers flow from the Olympic Mountains in all directions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">North Cascades National Park</HD>
                <P>North Cascades National Park is set in the rugged mountains of the Cascade Mountain Range in northcentral Washington, about 80 km (50 mi) east of Bellingham. The area was set aside to preserve dramatic mountain scenery, alpine areas, and glaciers. Mountain summits rise abruptly 1,800-2,600 meters (m) (5,900-8,530 feet (ft)) above the valley floor.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Mount Rainier National Park</HD>
                <P>Mount Rainier National Park became the nation's fifth national park in 1899. One hundred km (62 mi) southeast of Seattle, Mount Rainier is the highest of the chain of volcanoes comprising the Cascade Range. At 4,392 meters (m) (14,410 feet (ft)), Mount Rainier is the fifth tallest peak in the contiguous 48 States. The massive mountain occupies more than one-fourth of the park's area. The 27 major glaciers on its slopes form the largest mass of year-round ice in the United States outside of Alaska.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Glacier Peak Wilderness</HD>
                <P>Glacier Peak Wilderness includes more than 200 lakes, many unnamed and tremendously difficult to access, in various cirques and hidden basins. The wilderness straddles the northern Cascade Range roughly between the Suiattle River on the west and Lake Chelan on the east. Glacier Peak Wilderness is bordered to the North by North Cascades National Park.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Alpine Lakes Wilderness</HD>
                <P>When Congress passed the 1976 Alpine Lakes Wilderness Act to protect the area in its unique natural state, it created the Alpine Lakes Wilderness. The name Alpine Lakes takes its origin from the nearly 700 small mountain lakes nestled among the high rock peaks and forested valleys of the region. The Mt. Baker-Snoqualmie National Forest and the Okanogan-Wenatchee National Forest jointly administer the wilderness.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Goat Rocks Wilderness</HD>
                <P>The Goat Rocks Wilderness is a portion of the volcanic Cascade Range in southwestern Washington located between Mount Rainier and Mount Adams. The Goat Rocks are remnants of a large volcano, which has been extinct for some two million years. The cluster of rocks and peaks in this area earned the title “Goat Rocks” because of the bands of mountain goats that live there. The wilderness lies in both the Gifford Pinchot National and the Okanogan-Wenatchee National Forests.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Mount Adams Wilderness</HD>
                <P>Congress designated the Mount Adams Wilderness in 1964. The wilderness lies in the Gifford Pinchot National Forest on the crest of the Cascade Range in southwestern Washington. Second in height only to Mount Rainier statewide, 3,742 m (12,276 ft) Mount Adams looms over at least 10 glaciers and a wilderness of forested slopes and subalpine meadows. The volcanic bulk of the mountain takes up a considerable portion of the Wilderness.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Pasayten Wilderness</HD>
                <P>The Pasayten Wilderness stretches across the crest of the Cascade Range in northern Washington. The wilderness is bordered on the north by 80 km (50 mi) of the Canadian border and on the west by the Ross Lake National Recreation Area. The Pasayten Wilderness is in both the Okanogan-Wenatchee and the Mount Baker-Snoqualmie National Forests.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Washington Visibility Monitoring Network</HD>
                <P>
                    Haze species in Washington are measured and analyzed via the Interagency Monitoring of Protected Visual Environments (IMPROVE) network.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Table 1 of this document lists the IMPROVE air quality monitors representing visibility at Washington Class I areas. Due to the remote nature of the Class I areas, some areas share a common IMPROVE station.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         IMPROVE website at 
                        <E T="03">http://vista.cira.colostate.edu/Improve.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s75,r100,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Washington IMPROVE Stations and Class I Areas</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">IMPROVE station</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Class I area</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Site sponsor</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">OLYM1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Olympic National Park</ENT>
                        <ENT>National Parks Service.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">NOCA1</ENT>
                        <ENT>North Cascades National Park, Glacier Peak Wilderness</ENT>
                        <ENT>National Parks Service.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SNPA1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alpine Lakes Wilderness</ENT>
                        <ENT>U.S. Forest Service.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">MORA1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mt. Rainier National Park</ENT>
                        <ENT>National Parks Service.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">WHPA1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Goat Rocks Wilderness, Mt. Adams Wilderness</ENT>
                        <ENT>U.S. Forest Service.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">PASA1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pasayten Wilderness</ENT>
                        <ENT>U.S. Forest Service.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Identification of Class I Areas in Other States</HD>
                <P>
                    Ecology reviewed Particulate Matter Source Apportionment Technology (PSAT) modeling conducted by the WRAP to determine potential visibility impacts from Washington sources on Class I areas in other States.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Chapter 6.8 
                    <E T="03">Other Mandatory Class 1 Areas Impacted by Washington Anthropogenic Emissions</E>
                     of Washington's submission identifies all out-of-State IMPROVE stations where Washington anthropogenic sources are expected to contribute at least 0.1% of the nitrate or sulfate light extinction, based on the WRAP modeling results. Ecology further refined the analysis to focus on significant contribution, defined as a 5% or greater contribution of light extinction from nitrates or sulfates on 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34799"/>
                    the most impaired days, identifying impacted Montana and Oregon Class I areas. Specifically, these areas in Montana were the Cabinet Mountains Wilderness, Glacier National Park, Bob Marshall Wilderness Area, Mission Mountain Wilderness Area, Scapegoat Wilderness Area, Anaconda-Pintler Wilderness Area, and Selway-Bitterroot Wilderness Area. In Oregon these areas were the Kalmiopsis Wilderness, Mt. Hood Wilderness, Strawberry Mountain Wilderness, Eagle Cap Wilderness, Mt. Jefferson Wilderness, Mt. Washington Wilderness, and Three Sisters Wilderness. As discussed in section IV.E of this document with respect to Washington's long-term strategy, Ecology focused its planning efforts on improving visibility at Class I areas in Washington for three primary reasons: (1) for SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    , those sources that significantly impact Class I areas in other States have either closed or are subject to existing SIP requirements, (2) for NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    , the vast majority of modeled impact to out of State Class I areas is from the mobile source sector already addressed by controls in place, and (3) Washington did not receive any requests for reductions from neighboring States during State-to-State consultations.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         Chapter 5 
                        <E T="03">Regional Haze Modeling</E>
                         of Washington's January 28, 2022, submission.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         See Appendix R of Washington's January 28, 2022, submission.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Washington's January 28, 2022, SIP revision satisfies the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2), related to the identification of Class I areas outside of Washington that may be affected by emissions from within the State and consultation with affected States.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Calculations of Baseline, Current, and Natural Visibility Conditions; Progress to Date; and the Uniform Rate of Progress</HD>
                <P>Section 51.308(f)(1) requires States to determine the following for “each mandatory Class I Federal area located within the State”: baseline visibility conditions for the most impaired and clearest days, natural visibility conditions for the most impaired and clearest days, progress to date for the most impaired and clearest days, the differences between current visibility conditions and natural visibility conditions, and the URP. This section also provides the option for States to propose adjustments to the URP line for a Class I area to account for visibility impacts from anthropogenic sources outside the United States and/or the impacts from wildland prescribed fires that were conducted for certain, specified objectives. 40 CFR 51.308(f)(1)(vi)(B).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Tracking Visibility in Washington</HD>
                <P>The Washington submission addresses baseline, current and natural visibility conditions for each of the IMPROVE stations as required by the 2017 Regional Haze Rule and the EPA's technical guidance on tracking visibility progress. Ecology reviewed visibility data from 2000 through 2018 and determined that current visibility at all Class I areas for both the clearest and most impaired days had improved since the baseline period, satisfying the Regional Haze Rule requirement of no degradation in visibility for the clearest days since the baseline period. In addition, all areas met the 2018 URP for the most impaired days as shown in Table 2 of this document. Additionally, most areas, including Olympic National Park, North Cascades National Park, Glacier Peak Wilderness, Mount Rainier National Park, Goat Rocks Wilderness, and Mount Adams Wilderness, have already met the projected 2028 URP for the most impaired days based on 2014 through 2018 monitoring data.</P>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 40 CFR 51.308(f)(1)(vi), Washington used modeling performed by the WRAP to adjust the URP for certain international anthropogenic sulfate impacts on the most impaired days. As noted in Chapter 9.1 of Washington's submission, “Washington's Class 1 areas are all affected by international anthropogenic contributions that Washington cannot control. Source apportionment results (Chapter 6) show that sulfates from international anthropogenic sources are expected to impact visibility more than in-State sources at all Washington Class 1 areas. Source apportionment results also show that nitrates from international anthropogenic sources are expected to impact visibility more than in-State sources at most Washington Class 1 areas, with the exception of Alpine Lakes Wilderness Area and Mount Rainier National Park.” Washington further explained that the methodology used by the WRAP to adjust the glidepath was consistent with methods described in the EPA's September 2019 regional haze modeling Technical Support Document included in the docket for this action. The EPA reviewed the 2028 URP adjustments and 2064 glidepath endpoints calculated by WRAP and confirmed that the values were similar to, but slightly lower than the corresponding 2028 URP adjustments and 2064 glidepath endpoints calculated by the EPA in our 2019 regional haze modeling Technical Support Document (Table 5-2 and Appendix E, respectively). Lastly, Washington did not adjust the glidepath to account for the impacts of wildland prescribed fires.
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         Chapters 9.2 through 9.9 of Washington's submission. “Adjusted 2064” represents adjustment calculated by the WRAP to account for international contribution of NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         and SO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs66,r50,10,8,10,8,10,10">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Table 2—Haze Indices (Deciviews) for Washington IMPROVE Stations on Most Impaired Days 
                        <SU>24</SU>
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Monitor ID</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Class I area</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Baseline
                            <LI>2000-2004</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            2018
                            <LI>URP</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Current
                            <LI>conditions</LI>
                            <LI>2014-2018</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            2028
                            <LI>URP</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Adjusted
                            <LI>2064</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Natural
                            <LI>2064</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">OLYM1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Olympic National Park</ENT>
                        <ENT>14.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>13.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">NOCA1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glacier Peak Wilderness Area; North Cascades National Park</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SNPA1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alpine Lakes Wilderness Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>15.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>13.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">MORA1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mount Rainier National Park</ENT>
                        <ENT>16.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>14.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>13.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">WHPA1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Goat Rocks Wilderness Area; Mount Adams Wilderness Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">PASA1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pasayten Wilderness Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="34800"/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs66,r50,10,10,10,12">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Table 3—Haze Indices (Deciviews) for Washington IMPROVE Stations on the Clearest Days 
                        <SU>25</SU>
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Monitor ID</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Class I area</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Baseline
                            <LI>2000-2004</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Current
                            <LI>conditions</LI>
                            <LI>2014-2018</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            2028
                            <LI>WRAP</LI>
                            <LI>projection</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Natural
                            <LI>2064</LI>
                            <LI>(unadjusted)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">OLYM1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Olympic National Park</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">NOCA1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glacier Peak Wilderness Area; North Cascades National Park</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SNPA1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alpine Lakes Wilderness Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">MORA1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mount Rainier National Park</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">WHPA1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Goat Rocks Wilderness Area; Mount Adams Wilderness Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">PASA1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pasayten Wilderness Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The EPA is proposing to find that Washington has submitted a regional haze plan that meets the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(f)(1) related to the calculations of baseline, current, and natural visibility conditions; progress to date; and the uniform rate of progress for the second implementation period. We are also proposing to approve Washington's adjustment to the uniform rate of progress as consistent with 40 CFR 51.308(f)(1)(iv).
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         Chapters 9.2 through 9.9 of Washington's submission.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Long-Term Strategy for Regional Haze</HD>
                <P>The long-term strategy “must include the enforceable emissions limitations, compliance schedules, and other measures that are necessary to make reasonable progress, as determined pursuant to (f)(2)(i) through (iv).” 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2).</P>
                <P>The regulation at 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i) provides the requirements for the four-factor analysis. The first step of this analysis entails selecting the sources to be evaluated for emission reduction measures. While States have discretion to choose any source selection methodology that is reasonable, whatever choices they make should be reasonably explained. To this end, 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i) requires that a State's SIP submission include “a description of the criteria it used to determine which sources or groups of sources it evaluated.” The technical basis for source selection, which may include methods for quantifying potential visibility impacts such as emissions divided by distance metrics, trajectory analyses, residence time analyses, and/or photochemical modeling, must also be appropriately documented, as required by 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iii).</P>
                <P>
                    Once a State has selected the set of sources, the next step is to determine the emissions reduction measures for those sources that are necessary to make reasonable progress for the second implementation period.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This is accomplished by considering the four factors—“the costs of compliance, the time necessary for compliance, and the energy and nonair quality environmental impacts of compliance, and the remaining useful life of any existing source subject to such requirements.” CAA 169A(g)(1). The EPA has explained that the four-factor analysis is an assessment of potential emission reduction measures (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     control options) for sources; Thus, for each source it has selected for four-factor analysis,
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     a State must consider a “meaningful set” of technically feasible control options for reducing emissions of visibility impairing pollutants. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 3088.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         The CAA provides that, “[i]n determining reasonable progress there shall be taken into consideration” the four statutory factors. CAA 169A(g)(1). However, in addition to four-factor analyses for selected sources, groups of sources, or source categories, a State may also consider additional emission reduction measures for inclusion in its long-term strategy, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         from other newly adopted, on-the-books, or on-the-way rules and measures for sources not selected for four-factor analysis for the second planning period.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         “Each source” or “particular source” is used here as shorthand. While a source-specific analysis is one way of applying the four factors, neither the statute nor the RHR requires States to evaluate individual sources. Rather, States have “the flexibility to conduct four-factor analyses for specific sources, groups of sources or even entire source categories, depending on State policy preferences and the specific circumstances of each State.” 82 FR 3078, January 10, 2017, at page 3088.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The EPA has also explained that, in addition to the four statutory factors, States have flexibility under the CAA and RHR to reasonably consider visibility benefits as an additional factor alongside the four statutory factors.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Ultimately, while States have discretion to reasonably weigh the factors and to determine what level of control is needed, 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i) provides that a State “must include in its implementation plan a description of . . . how the four factors were taken into consideration in selecting the measure for inclusion in its long-term strategy.”
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         See, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Responses to Comments on Protection of Visibility: Amendments to Requirements for State Plans; Proposed Rule (81 FR 26942, May 4, 2016) (December 2016), Docket Number EPA-HQ-OAR-2015-0531, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency at 186.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As explained above, 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i) requires States to determine the emission reduction measures for sources that are necessary to make reasonable progress by considering the four factors. Pursuant to 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2), measures that are necessary to make reasonable progress towards the national visibility goal must be included in a State's long-term strategy and in its SIP. If the outcome of a four-factor analysis is that an emissions reduction measure is necessary to make reasonable progress towards remedying existing or preventing future anthropogenic visibility impairment, that measure must be included in the SIP.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Selection of Sources for Washington's Long-Term Strategy</HD>
                <P>
                    In its submission, Washington conducted technical analyses to identify sources and source categories with the largest potential to contribute to visibility impairment at visibility monitoring sites in Washington and other States. Washington used a “Q/d methodology.” Specifically, Washington's submission determined “Q/d” where “Q” is a source's emissions and “d” is the distance from the source to the nearest Class I area. Washington calculated Q/d values for major and non-major point sources using the sum of all actual emissions of sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, ammonia, and particulate matter less than 10 microns in diameter (as measured in tons per year), divided by the distance to a Class I area (measured in kilometers from the facility to the nearest boundary of the Class I area) for all Class I areas within 400 km of the source. Ecology used Washington's 2014 point-source emissions data to calculate Q values, noting that the WRAP used 2014 as the base year for modeling because it was the most recent year of certified available data when the analysis was initiated. Washington determined that major sources contribute 90 percent of the total Q/d 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34801"/>
                    value from all stationary sources even though they represent only 10 percent of the total number of all stationary sources. Therefore, Washington chose a Q/d ≥ 10 to capture major stationary sources that contribute over 80 percent of haze-causing emissions from stationary sources. Using this threshold, Washington selected 16 facilities for further analysis.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Under the Washington Clean Air Act, Revised Code of Washington (RCW) 70A.15.2230 
                    <E T="03">RACT requirements,</E>
                     Ecology is generally required to evaluate emissions controls on a source category basis when there are 3 or more existing sources from the same category being considered for controls.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As shown in Table 4, in Washington there were two source categories with three or more facilities above a Q/d=10, refineries (4 facilities) and the pulp and paper sector (6 facilities at the time of the screening determination). Other source categories did not meet the threshold of three or more sources above Q/d=10 (electricity generation—1 facility, alumina refining and aluminum production—2 facilities, cement manufacturing—1 facility, flat glass manufacture—1 facility).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         “Reasonably available control technology” (RACT) means the lowest emission limit that a particular source or source category is capable of meeting by the application of control technology that is reasonably available considering technological and economic feasibility. RACT is determined on a case-by-case basis for an individual source or source category taking into account the impact of the source upon air quality, the availability of additional controls, the emission reduction to be achieved by additional controls, the impact of additional controls on air quality, and the capital and operating costs of the additional controls. RACT requirements for a source or source category shall be adopted only after notice and opportunity for comment are afforded.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Consistent with this source category approach, to ensure that all facilities in the State for the refinery sector and pulp and paper sector were included in the screening, Washington added two additional sources with a Q/d ≤ 10 to the source selection list. One facility was Packaging Corporation of America (Q/d = 9.4), a paperboard mill, to remain consistent with the 6 other pulp and paper facilities screened in with a Q/d ≥ 10. Ecology also added U.S. Oil (Q/d = 3.2), an oil refinery, to remain consistent with the 4 other oil refineries screened in with a Q/d ≥ 10.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s75,7,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Table 4—Sources Selected for Evaluation in Washington's Long-Term Strategy</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Facility</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Q/d</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Nearest Class I area</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Source category</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TransAlta Centralia Generation, LLC</ENT>
                        <ENT>149.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mount Rainier NP</ENT>
                        <ENT>Electricity Generation.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">McKinley Paper Company</ENT>
                        <ENT>83.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Olympic NP</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pulp and Paper.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Alcoa Primary Metals Wenatchee Works</ENT>
                        <ENT>80.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alpine Lakes Wilderness</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alumina Refining and Aluminum Production.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Alcoa Primary Metals Intalco Works</ENT>
                        <ENT>71.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>North Cascades NP</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alumina Refining and Aluminum Production.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">BP Cherry Point Refinery</ENT>
                        <ENT>36.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>North Cascades NP</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petroleum Refineries.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tesoro Northwest Company</ENT>
                        <ENT>30.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>Olympic NP</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petroleum Refineries.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">WestRock Tacoma</ENT>
                        <ENT>27.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mount Rainier NP</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pulp and Paper.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Nippon Dynawave Packaging Company Longview</ENT>
                        <ENT>25.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mount Adams Wilderness</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pulp and Paper.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Puget Sound Refining Company (Shell)</ENT>
                        <ENT>24.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>Olympic NP</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petroleum Refineries.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pt Townsend Paper Corporation</ENT>
                        <ENT>24.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>Olympic NP</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pulp and Paper.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ash Grove Cement Co, E Marginal</ENT>
                        <ENT>23.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alpine Lakes Wilderness</ENT>
                        <ENT>Cement Manufacturing.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Cosmo Specialty Fibers, Inc.</ENT>
                        <ENT>16.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>Olympic NP</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pulp and Paper.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">WestRock Longview, LLC</ENT>
                        <ENT>15.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mount Adams Wilderness</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pulp and Paper.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Georgia-Pacific Consumer Operations LLC</ENT>
                        <ENT>14.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mount Hood Wilderness</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pulp and Paper.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Phillips 66</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>North Cascades NP</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petroleum Refineries.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Cardinal FG Winlock</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mount Rainier NP</ENT>
                        <ENT>Flat Glass Manufacture.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Packaging Corporation of America (PCA) Wallowa</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>Eagle Cap Wilderness</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pulp and Paper.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">U.S. Oil &amp; Refining Co</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mount Rainier NP</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petroleum Refineries.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    In addition to selecting and evaluating point sources for four-factor analysis, Washington also used EPA emissions inventory data from 2014 and 2017 to review emissions from other source categories such as on-road mobile sources, nonroad vehicles, commercial marine vessels, home heating (wood) and other non-point area sources, agriculture and fugitive dust, prescribed fire, and agricultural fire. The submission addresses these sectors and their potential to contribute to visibility impairment in Chapter 4 
                    <E T="03">Emissions Inventory</E>
                     and Chapter 8 
                    <E T="03">Long-term Strategy for Visibility Improvement</E>
                     of Washington's submission.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. The EPA's Evaluation of Washington's Long-Term Strategy Controls</HD>
                <P>The regulation at 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i) requires States to evaluate and determine the emission reduction measures that are necessary to make reasonable progress by applying the four statutory factors to sources in a control analysis. These factors are the cost of compliance, the time necessary for compliance, the energy and non-air quality environmental impacts, and the remaining useful life of any potentially affected sources. As laid out in further detail in the following paragraphs, the EPA is proposing to find that Washington's January 28, 2022, submission satisfies the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i) related to evaluating sources and determining the emission reduction measures necessary for reasonable progress. EPA also notes that, as depicted in Table 7 of this document, 2028 projected visibility in all Class I areas impacted by sources in Washington are below the URP. Indeed, current visibility (as reflected in Table 2 of this document) in all but two Class I areas in Washington is already below the URP. Thus, Washington has presumptively demonstrated reasonable progress for the second planning period.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Mobile Source Sector</HD>
                <P>
                    Washington's long-term strategy emphasizes the importance of already enacted Federal and State mobile source controls, and ongoing vehicle fleet turnover, in reducing regional haze precursors.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     With respect to nitrate contribution, on-road mobile emissions accounted for 55% of anthropogenic 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34802"/>
                    NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions from Washington in 2014. Washington adopted, and the EPA approved into the Washington SIP, Washington Administrative Code (WAC), Chapter 173-423 
                    <E T="03">Low Emission Vehicles</E>
                     (86 FR 61708, November 8, 2021). The WRAP modeling projects on-road mobile emissions to decline significantly from 130,500 tons per year in 2014 to 34,366 tons per year in 2028 due to the mobile source controls relied upon in Washington's long-term strategy. Since the EPA has already approved these rules into the SIP, there is no action to take at this time other than acknowledging Washington's inclusion of mobile source controls as part of the long-term strategy. Washington's mobile source program addresses visibility impairment in Class I areas within Washington State and Class I areas in other States.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         Washington's January 28, 2022, submission, Chapter 8. 
                        <E T="03">Long-term Strategy for Visibility Improvement.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Oil Refinery Sector</HD>
                <P>
                    Five petroleum refineries are located in northwest Washington. The refineries are: British Petroleum Cherry Point (BP Cherry Point), Shell Anacortes Refinery (Shell), Marathon Anacortes Refinery (Tesoro), Ferndale Refinery (Phillips 66), and U.S. Oil Refinery (U.S. Oil). As indicated in Table 4 of this document, Ecology selected the facilities for four-factor analysis based on the Q/d screening process.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Ecology notified each of these facilities that Ecology selected them for analysis under the four factors via letters dated May 31, 2019.
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On November 27, 2019, Ecology requested that the facilities perform four-factor analyses of equipment at the refineries, which all the facilities submitted by Ecology's May 1, 2020, deadline.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The results of these four-factor analyses are listed in Table 5 of this document with the determination that additional controls are not cost effective; or in the case of low NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     burners (LNB) at certain units at the Shell facility the four-factor analysis explains, “Cost calculations are preliminary, and unit-specific engineering will be required to determine technical feasibility and cost of implementation. Additional engineering is expected to result in substantial additional control costs that cannot be quantified based on currently available information about modifications needed at these units.” 
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         Appendix G of Washington's submission.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         Appendix P of Washington's submission.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         Appendix P of Washington's submission, at page P-147.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         Selective catalytic reduction.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         Ultra low-NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         burners.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         Low-NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         burner.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,xs48,xs70,10,10">
                    <TTITLE>Table 5—Four-Factor Cost-Effectiveness Determinations for the Refinery Sector</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Facility</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Unit</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Pollutant</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Control
                            <LI>technology</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>ton</LI>
                            <LI>reduction</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>reduction</LI>
                            <LI>(TPY)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">British Petroleum Cherry Point (BP Cherry Point)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Crude Charge Heater
                            <LI>South Vacuum Heater</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR 
                            <SU>35</SU>
                            <LI>SCR</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            $32,049
                            <LI>60,160</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            421.5
                            <LI>32.5</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Naphtha HDS Charge Heater</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>70,260</ENT>
                        <ENT>19.0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Naphtha HDS Stripper Reboiler</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>43,854</ENT>
                        <ENT>24.7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>#1 Reformer Heaters</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>24,378</ENT>
                        <ENT>321.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>#2 Reformer</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>29,289</ENT>
                        <ENT>63.7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Hydrocracker R-4 Heater</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>23,194</ENT>
                        <ENT>26.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>#1 H2 Plant ((North and South Furnaces)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            ULNB 
                            <SU>36</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>49,432</ENT>
                        <ENT>66.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>78,082</ENT>
                        <ENT>141.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>ULNB with SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>84,156</ENT>
                        <ENT>141.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Boiler 5</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>126,958</ENT>
                        <ENT>13.0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ferndale Refinery (Phillips 66)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Crude Heater 1F-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>
                                LNB 
                                <SU>37</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            12,225
                            <LI>14,271</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            159.1
                            <LI>26.8</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>#2 Crude Heater 1F-1A</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            40,111
                            <LI>19,636</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            37.6
                            <LI>10.9</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Alkylation Heater 17F-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>81,410</ENT>
                        <ENT>19.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>#3 Pretreater Heater18F-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            127,630
                            <LI>35,848</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            9.1
                            <LI>3.4</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>#3 Reformer Heater18F-21</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            32,207
                            <LI>15,998</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            37.3
                            <LI>5.4</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>18F-22 (Included with Above for SCR)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            32,207
                            <LI>15,998</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            37.3
                            <LI>5.4</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>#3 Reformer Heater18F-23</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            32,207
                            <LI>15,998</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            37.3
                            <LI>5.4</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>18F-24 (Included with Above for SCR)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            32,207
                            <LI>15,998</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            37.3
                            <LI>5.4</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>No. 1 Boiler 22F-1C</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>224,104</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>No. 2 Boiler 22F-1A</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            51,067
                            <LI>9,643</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            29.1
                            <LI>8.5</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>No. 3 Boiler 22F-1B</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            42,634
                            <LI>7,572</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            37.1
                            <LI>10.8</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>DHT Heater 33F-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>312,383</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>S-Zorb Heater 38F-100(CNG)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>479,473</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Shell Anacortes Refinery (Shell)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1A-F5</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>19,906</ENT>
                        <ENT>69.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>1A-F8</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>45,593</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>15F-100</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>30,859</ENT>
                        <ENT>18.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>7C-F4</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>25,693</ENT>
                        <ENT>35.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>11H-102</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>53,289</ENT>
                        <ENT>16.7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>10H-101</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            12,010
                            <LI>2,758</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            58.8
                            <LI>17.2</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="34803"/>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>10H-102</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            12,010
                            <LI>2,002</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            58.8
                            <LI>22.9</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>10H-104</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            16,813
                            <LI>4,354</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            18.9
                            <LI>10.2</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>ECB1</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            12,774
                            <LI>1,166</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            164.2
                            <LI>147.3</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Marathon Anacortes Refinery (Tesoro)</ENT>
                        <ENT>FCCU/COBs</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,381</ENT>
                        <ENT>747.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Crude Heater 2</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            16,086
                            <LI>6,470</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            125.7
                            <LI>114.8</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Vacuum Flasher Heater</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>35,276</ENT>
                        <ENT>51.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>CCU Feed Heater</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            332,721
                            <LI>172,807</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            4.7
                            <LI>3.4</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>DHT Feed Heater</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            84,710
                            <LI>50,296</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            16.5
                            <LI>11.1</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Boiler 1</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            10,060
                            <LI>8,682</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            178.9
                            <LI>113.9</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Boiler 2</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            10,513
                            <LI>9,491</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            171.1
                            <LI>104.2</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Boiler 3</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>79,240</ENT>
                        <ENT>15.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>NHT Feed Heater</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            114,739
                            <LI>58,926</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            14.0
                            <LI>9.2</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>CR Feed Heater</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            21,196
                            <LI>14,458</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            137.1
                            <LI>104.7</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>NHT Column C-6600 Reboiler</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            103,459
                            <LI>53,802</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            15.4
                            <LI>10.1</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">U.S. Oil Refinery (U.S. Oil)</ENT>
                        <ENT>B-4</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            21,847
                            <LI>6,131</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            22.5
                            <LI>11.0</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>B-5</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            44,584
                            <LI>16,282</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            9.4
                            <LI>3.8</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>H-11</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SCR
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            18,387
                            <LI>11,018</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            28.4
                            <LI>9.0</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>In the January 28, 2022, SIP submission, Washington considered the four-factor analyses provided by the refineries and summarized in Table 5, of this document. According to the January 28, 2022, SIP submission, Washington did not explicitly determine that controls on oil refinery sources are necessary for reasonable progress, however, based on the State's consideration of the four statutory factors, and considering visibility conditions for Class I areas impacted by Washington are projected to be below the URP in 2028, with “on the books” controls, we have determined that Washington has presumptively demonstrated reasonable progress for the second implementation period. Thus, no additional measures for oil refinery sources are necessary to make reasonable progress during the second planning period.</P>
                <P>
                    The EPA acknowledges that in Chapter 10 
                    <E T="03">Future Planning Process and Summary</E>
                     of the January 2022 submission Ecology stated its intent to supplement the regional haze SIP with the findings of its State-initiated RACT process to determine if additional controls may be reasonable for this sector under the State's RACT statute (Revised Code of Washington Section 70A.15.2230). This process is not yet complete. Nevertheless, for the purposes of Regional Haze, the January 28, 2022 submission demonstrates that Washington has met its obligations under 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Chemical Pulp and Paper Sector</HD>
                <P>
                    Chemical pulping processes use a combination of high temperature and alkaline (kraft) or acidic (sulfite) chemicals to break the chemical bonds of the lignin in the preparation of pulp, paper, and paperboard. On September 10, 2019, Ecology requested four-factor analyses from the seven chemical pulp mills operating in Washington State at that time.
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The four-factor analyses submitted by the mills all determined that additional emission controls are not reasonable.
                    <SU>39</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The results of these four-factor analyses are summarized in Table 6 of this document.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         An eighth facility, Georgia-Pacific Consumer Operations LLC, was no longer operating as a Kraft mill in 2019 and would have to apply as a new source if it ever wanted to become a chemical pulp mill in the future, which would result in evaluation of emission controls requirements under the new source review permitting program.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         Appendix O of Washington's submission.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         Wet Electrostatic Precipitator.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>41</SU>
                         Electrostatic Precipitator Upgrade.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         Selective Non-Catalytic Reduction.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,xs48,xs70,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 6—Four-Factor Cost-Effectiveness for the Pulp and Paper Sector</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Facility</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Unit</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Pollutant</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Control
                            <LI>technology</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per ton
                            <LI>reduction</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Port Townsend Paper Corporation</ENT>
                        <ENT>Recovery Furnace</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                            <LI>
                                PM
                                <E T="0732">10</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            WESP 
                            <SU>40</SU>
                            <LI>
                                ESP upgrade 
                                <SU>41</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            $14,461
                            <LI>12,571</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="34804"/>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Lime Kiln</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>WESP</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,367</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Power Boiler #10</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SNCR 
                            <SU>42</SU>
                            <LI>SCR</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            11,794
                            <LI>12,648</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Package Boiler</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SNCR
                            <LI>SCR</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            53,398
                            <LI>72,954</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">WestRock Longview Mill</ENT>
                        <ENT>Recovery Furnace #19</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                            <LI>
                                PM
                                <E T="0732">10</E>
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                SO
                                <E T="0732">2</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            WESP
                            <LI>ESP upgrade</LI>
                            <LI>Wet scrubber</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            15,687
                            <LI>13,952</LI>
                            <LI>102,975</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Recovery Furnace #22</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                            <LI>
                                PM
                                <E T="0732">10</E>
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                SO
                                <E T="0732">2</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            WESP
                            <LI>ESP upgrade</LI>
                            <LI>Wet scrubber</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            23,247
                            <LI>20,527</LI>
                            <LI>47,596</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Lime Kiln #4</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>WESP</ENT>
                        <ENT>16,960</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Lime Kiln #5</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                            <LI>
                                PM
                                <E T="0732">10</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            WESP
                            <LI>ESP upgrade</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            40,845
                            <LI>24,807</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Power Boiler #20</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>SCR</ENT>
                        <ENT>15,116</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Nippon Dynawave Packaging Company</ENT>
                        <ENT>Recovery Furnace #10</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                            <LI>
                                PM
                                <E T="0732">10</E>
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                SO
                                <E T="0732">2</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            WESP
                            <LI>ESP upgrade</LI>
                            <LI>Wet scrubber</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            25,383
                            <LI>21,726</LI>
                            <LI>207,035</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Hogged Fuel Boiler #11</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>ESP upgrade</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,086</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Power Boiler #6</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SNCR
                            <LI>SCR</LI>
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            14,242
                            <LI>17,042</LI>
                            <LI>12,093</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Power Boiler #7</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SNCR
                            <LI>SCR</LI>
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            11,603
                            <LI>13,884</LI>
                            <LI>9,543</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Power Boiler #9</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SNCR
                            <LI>SCR</LI>
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            7,068
                            <LI>6,819</LI>
                            <LI>4,081</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Boiler #11</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                            <LI>
                                SO
                                <E T="0732">2</E>
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            WESP
                            <LI>Wet scrubber</LI>
                            <LI>SNCR</LI>
                            <LI>SCR</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            15,391
                            <LI>11,884</LI>
                            <LI>5,672</LI>
                            <LI>6,198</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">PCA Wallula Mill</ENT>
                        <ENT>#2 Recovery Furnace</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                            <LI>
                                PM
                                <E T="0732">10</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            WESP
                            <LI>ESP upgrade</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            276,008
                            <LI>75,751</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>#3 Recovery Furnace</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                            <LI>
                                PM
                                <E T="0732">10</E>
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                SO
                                <E T="0732">2</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            WESP
                            <LI>ESP upgrade</LI>
                            <LI>Wet scrubber</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            413,630
                            <LI>118,265</LI>
                            <LI>27,910</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Lime Kiln</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>WESP</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,985</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Hogged Fuel Boiler</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            ESP upgrade
                            <LI>SNCR</LI>
                            <LI>SCR</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            8,962
                            <LI>8,566</LI>
                            <LI>8,662</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>#1 Power Boiler</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SNCR
                            <LI>SCR</LI>
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            14,003
                            <LI>13,586</LI>
                            <LI>8,732</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>#2 Power Boiler</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SNCR
                            <LI>SCR</LI>
                            <LI>LNB</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            11,754
                            <LI>11,177</LI>
                            <LI>7,162</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">WestRock Tacoma Mill</ENT>
                        <ENT>Recovery Furnace #4</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                            <LI>
                                PM
                                <E T="0732">10</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            WESP
                            <LI>ESP upgrade</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            7,949
                            <LI>6,464</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Lime Kiln #1</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>WESP</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,099</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Lime Kiln #2</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>WESP</ENT>
                        <ENT>17,375</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Power Boiler #6</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SNCR
                            <LI>SCR</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            5,615
                            <LI>5,639</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"/>
                        <ENT>Power Boiler #7</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            PM
                            <E T="0732">10</E>
                            <LI>
                                PM
                                <E T="0732">10</E>
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            WESP
                            <LI>ESP upgrade</LI>
                            <LI>SNCR</LI>
                            <LI>SCR</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            15,543
                            <LI>12,050</LI>
                            <LI>7,030</LI>
                            <LI>7,395</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">GP Camas</ENT>
                        <ENT>#5 Power Boiler</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            NO
                            <E T="0732">X</E>
                            <LI>
                                NO
                                <E T="0732">X</E>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            SNCR
                            <LI>SCR</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            13,636
                            <LI>12,413</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    Based on the State's consideration of the four statutory factors, Washington determined that additional controls are not necessary for reasonable progress on pulp and paper sources during the second planning period.
                    <SU>43</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Like the refinery sector, Ecology's January 28, 2022 submission discussed the potential for additional analysis or possible additional controls under the State RACT process. The EPA reviewed the four factor analyses in Washington's SIP submission and proposes to agree that no additional controls on the selected pulp and paper facilities are necessary for reasonable progress during the second planning period.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>43</SU>
                         Washington's January 28, 2022, submission, at page 179-180.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="34805"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Cardinal Glass</HD>
                <P>
                    Cardinal FG Company Winlock (Cardinal Glass) operates a flat glass manufacturing plant in Lewis County, Washington. Ecology originally selected this facility for review under the regional haze program because it had a Q/d value of 10.7 for Mount Rainier National Park, based on 2014 emissions inventory data. On February 11, 2021, Southwest Clean Air Agency (SWCAA), the local clean air agency with direct jurisdiction over Cardinal Glass, issued a final permit (Permit 20-3409) and associated Technical Support Document (TSD) establishing a minor source best available control technology (BACT) determination for the Glass Furnace/Annealing Lehr unit at Cardinal Glass for NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     control.
                    <SU>44</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">207_2021_Cardinal_TSD.pdf</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">206b_Cardinal Glass permit_20-3409ADP.pdf</E>
                         included in the docket for this action.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    This BACT determination included a selective catalytic reduction (SCR) system with ammonia injection capable of reducing NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions by a minimum of 80%, low sulfur fuel and spray dryer system using a sodium carbonate solution for control of SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    , and an electrostatic precipitator for control of particulate matter. In Chapter 7.4 
                    <E T="03">Facility Specific Reasonableness Analyses,</E>
                     Ecology considered the cost of compliance, time necessary for compliance, energy and non-air quality environmental impacts of compliance, and the remaining useful life at Cardinal Glass and determined that installing SCR on the Glass Furnace to achieve 80% NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     reduction is necessary for reasonable progress. SWCAA subsequently issued and Washington submitted as part of its January 28, 2022 SIP submission a permit requiring Cardinal Glass to install and operate SCR on the Glass Furnace and to meet a NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emission limit of 101.8 lbs. NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    /hr (24-hr avg) during normal operations, using an emissions factor of 1.63 lbs. NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    /per ton of glass (30-day avg).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Washington's determination of the controls necessary for reasonable progress at Cardinal Glass is consistent with the regional haze rule. SCR is the top-level NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     control for industrial point sources, obviating the need for Washington to consider less effective controls. Thus, Washington was reasonable in aligning its consideration of SCR with SWCAA's BACT determination in the agency's 2021 TSD.
                </P>
                <P>
                    By extension, Washington was reasonable in relying upon the expertise of the local permitting authority in determining the feasibility of SCR and the achievable emission rate when considering installation of SCR under the four statutory factors. We acknowledge comments submitted during the State public comment period that SCR has been demonstrated to achieve upwards of 90% NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     control in certain applications.
                    <SU>45</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     However, installation of SCR on flat glass furnaces is relatively rare and still a relatively new application of the control technology in the glass industry. A search of the RACT/BACT/LAER Clearinghouse identified only a single flat glass plant in the U.S. equipped with SCR.
                    <SU>46</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This plant had undergone permitting under the Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) program in 2014, and the resulting BACT determination for NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     was the installation of SCR at 80% control efficiency.
                    <SU>47</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>45</SU>
                         Appendix U of Washington's submission, at page 29.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>46</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">207b_20250304 RBLC search glass-NOx.pdf</E>
                         included in the docket for this action.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>47</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">207c_SJVAPCD Guardian permit C-598-4-21.pdf</E>
                         included in the docket for this action.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Ash Grove Cement</HD>
                <P>Ash Grove Cement Company (Ash Grove) operates a cement kiln in the Duwamish Industrial area of Seattle. The primary haze causing emissions at the plant come from the cement kiln and its associated clinker cooler baghouses. The existing particulate controls installed at the plant meet the regulatory requirements for dry material handling. The plant also complies with the Portland Cement Manufacturing National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP). This standard regulates particulate matter (PM) as a surrogate for metals (40 CFR part 63 subpart LLL). This NESHAP was last updated in 2018 when the EPA determined that there were no developments in practices, processes, and control technologies that warrant revisions to the Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) standards for this source category (83 FR 35122, July 25, 2018).</P>
                <P>
                    SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions at the plant come from burning sulfur containing fuels. The alkaline cement clinker removes some SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     from the combustion gases, which the facility uses as a primary method of SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     control. While the plant is capable of burning coal, natural gas, and tire-derived fuels, the facility has not used coal in recent years. Ecology noted that the primary focus of the State's analysis was NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     because current NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions at the facility are 20 times greater than SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions.
                    <SU>48</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Nevertheless, the State analyzed under the four statutory factors the feasibility of installing a wet scrubber at the facility for SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     control, determining that installation was not cost effective due to space constraints and the ensuing capital costs of facility rearrangement to accommodate a wet scrubber system.
                    <SU>49</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>48</SU>
                         Appendix W of Washington's submission, at page 34.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>49</SU>
                         Washington's submission, at page 167.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With respect to NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions, Ash Grove entered into a consent decree with the EPA, Ecology, the Puget Sound Clean Air Agency (PSCAA), and other State agencies in 2013.
                    <SU>50</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The consent decree required the Seattle facility to submit an optimization protocol for the Seattle Kiln. The purpose of the protocol was to optimize the operation of the Seattle Kiln to reduce NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions to the maximum extent practicable from that kiln. The EPA reviewed the optimization plan in consultation with PSCAA. On June 30, 2016, the facility submitted the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     demonstration period report and data related to optimization. On August 25, 2016, the EPA, in consultation with Ecology and PSCAA, reviewed the data and approved the limit of 5.1 pounds of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     per ton of clinker on a 30-day rolling average. This ultimately resulted in the construction of selective non-catalytic reduction (SNCR) at Ash Grove.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>50</SU>
                         Appendix E of Washington's submission.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In Chapter 7.4 
                    <E T="03">Facility Specific Reasonableness Analyses</E>
                     of Washington's January 28, 2022, submission, Ecology evaluated the cost of compliance, time necessary for compliance, energy and non-air quality environmental impacts of compliance, and the remaining useful life in assessing potential additional controls. Ecology evaluated SCR for control of NO
                    <E T="52">X.</E>
                     Ecology concluded SCR was not reasonable due to space constraints requiring significant facility reconstruction and supporting equipment, which would increase costs to an unreasonable level.
                    <SU>51</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Thus, Washington determined that no additional controls are necessary at Ash Grove to meet reasonable progress in the second planning period.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>51</SU>
                         Washington's submission, at page 138.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">TransAlta Centralia Generation (TransAlta)</HD>
                <P>
                    During the first regional haze planning period, TransAlta was subject to BART (40 CFR 51.308(e)). In 2011, Ecology issued Order # 6426 to address BART requirements for NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     which the EPA approved in 2012.
                    <SU>52</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Among other requirements, this 2011 order required the installation of an SNCR emission control device as BART for NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    . In 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34806"/>
                    2020, Ecology revised Order #6426 to establish a more stringent NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions limitation. The EPA approved the revised Order #6426 on May 7, 2021 (86 FR 24502). In considering this relatively recent update to Order #6426, Ecology determined that existing controls at TransAlta are adequate to meet reasonable progress. The EPA agrees with this determination. We note that emissions controls on TransAlta Centralia Generation address visibility impacts to Class I areas in Washington and Class I areas in other States.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>52</SU>
                         77 FR 72742 (December 6, 2012). The EPA previously approved controls for SO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         and PM as meeting BART (68 FR 34821, June 11, 2003).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Primary Aluminum Production</HD>
                <P>
                    Ecology used Washington's 2014 point-source emissions data to calculate Q values for initial Q/d source screening. Therefore, Ecology selected both Alcoa Primary Metals Wenatchee Works (Q/d = 80.9) and Alcoa Primary Metals Intalco Works Ferndale (Q/d = 71.7) for consideration under the four statutory factors. Subsequently, Alcoa curtailed the Wenatchee facility in 2015 and the Ferndale facility in 2020, with announcements that Alcoa planned permanent closure at both facilities. In response to these curtailments and the lack of current emissions upon which to base a four-factor analysis, Ecology negotiated and submitted for incorporation into the SIP agreed orders for both facilities. Subsequently, both facilities closed permanently with Ecology terminating the operating permits.
                    <SU>53</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Any future sources at these sites would need to comply with the new source review permitting process, including a determination of BACT for major sources, and compliance with WAC 173-400-117 
                    <E T="03">Special Protection Requirements for Federal Class I Areas,</E>
                     as applicable. Therefore, the EPA is not proposing to approve or incorporate by reference the obsolete orders now that the two facilities are permanently closed. Also, as discussed in section V.B of this document, the EPA is proposing to remove and/or revise regulatory text in 40 CFR 52.2470(d), 52.2498, 52.2500, and 52.2502 related to these permanently closed facilities. The permanent closure of these facilities will improve visibility in Class I areas in Washington as well as Class I areas in other States. Visibility impacts in other Class I areas were in part attributable to the SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions from these sources.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>53</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">203_Alcoa Ferndale permit termination.pdf</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">204_AlcoaWenatchee-AirOperatingPermit-TerminationLetter.pdf,</E>
                         included in the docket for this action.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Summary of the EPA's Evaluation of Washington's Long-Term Strategy</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on the foregoing, Washington's long-term strategy contains enforceable emission limitations the State determined are necessary for reasonable progress based on consideration of the four statutory factors. EPA also notes that as shown in Table 7 of this document, all Washington Class I areas have 2028 visibility projections below the URP, and all out-of-State Class I areas impacted by Washington have 2028 projections below the URP when adjusted for international contribution.
                    <SU>54</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These 2028 projections include anticipated emissions reductions from the revised Order #6426 at the TransAlta facility, already approved in the SIP, as well as the Cardinal Glass controls which Ecology determined were necessary for reasonable progress during the second implementation planning period. Washington did not include potential reductions that may ensue from the State's RACT process for refineries and pulp and paper facilities in the 2028 projections. Additional emissions reductions from this effort would further improve visibility in impacted Class I areas beyond what the State determined was necessary for reasonable progress in the second planning period. In sum, Washington selected a number of sources, evaluated emissions control measures, and considered the four statutory factors. In light of these facts, the EPA is proposing to determine that Washington met the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(i).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>54</SU>
                         “Availability of Modeling Data and Associated Technical Support Document for the EPA's Updated 2028 Visibility Air Quality Modeling.” EPA Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, Research Triangle Park (September 19, 2019). 
                        <E T="03">See 201_updated_2028_regional_haze_modeling-tsd-2019.pdf</E>
                         included in the docket for this action.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Additional Long-Term Strategy Requirements</HD>
                <P>The consultation requirements of section 51.308(f)(2)(ii) provides that States must consult with other States that are reasonably anticipated to contribute to visibility impairment in a Class I area to develop coordinate emission management strategies containing the emission reductions measures that are necessary to make reasonable progress. Section 51.308(f)(2)(ii)(A) and (B) require States to consider the emission reduction measures identified by other States as necessary for reasonable progress and to include agreed upon measures in their SIPs, respectively. Section 51.308(f)(2)(ii)(C) speaks to what happens if States cannot agree on what measures are necessary to make reasonable progress.</P>
                <P>The documentation requirement of 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iii) provides that States may meet their obligations to document the technical bases on which they are relying to determine the emission reductions measures that are necessary to make reasonable progress through an RPO, as long as the process has been “approved by all State participants.”</P>
                <P>Section 51.308(f)(2)(iii) also requires that the emissions information considered to determine the measures that are necessary to make reasonable progress include information on emissions for the most recent year for which the State has submitted triennial emissions data to the EPA (or a more recent year), with a 12-month exemption period for newly submitted data.</P>
                <P>
                    Ecology participated in and provided documentation of the WRAP intra- and inter-regional planning organization consultation processes. Ecology also had direct consultations with Idaho, Nevada, and Oregon to discuss potential impacts on Washington Class I areas and the potential impacts of Washington sources on Class I areas outside the State, as documented in Appendix R of the January 28, 2022, submission. Chapter 6.8 
                    <E T="03">Other Mandatory Class 1 Areas Impacted by Washington Anthropogenic Emissions</E>
                     of the January 28, 2022, submission contains the list of out of State Class I areas potentially impacted by Washington.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In reviewing the contribution modeling of these out-of-State impacted Class I areas, Ecology found that the majority of anthropogenic emissions originating in Washington are from mobile sources (nitrates) and non-electric generating units (sulfates). With respect to sulfates, Ecology noted that 64% of the modeled SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions (7,729 tons) were from the two permanently closed aluminum facilities in Washington (Alcoa Wenatchee and Alcoa Intalco) described in section IV.E.b of this document. In light of the PSAT analysis and the cessation of emissions from the aluminum facilities, Ecology determined that measures to address visibility impacts in Class I areas within Washington were sufficient to address significant impacts to Class I areas outside of Washington.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In making the determination above, Washington considered measures already approved into the SIP that will have emissions reductions during the 2018-2028 second planning period. These measures include Order 6426, which imposed BART requirements at the TransAlta Centralia facility. With respect to nitrate contribution, on-road 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34807"/>
                    mobile emissions accounted for 55% of anthropogenic NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions from Washington in 2014, with dramatic reductions projected during the planning period.
                    <SU>55</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>55</SU>
                         See Washington's January 28, 2022, submission, at page 69.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Based on this analysis, Ecology determined that the controls Washington considered as necessary for reasonable progress based on impacts to Washington Class I areas are sufficient to address impacts in out of State Class I areas. The Washington regional haze plan also details the State's coordination under 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(ii)(C) by participating in the WRAP's consultation process and direct consultation with Idaho, Nevada, and Oregon during which no disagreements were raised by other States with respect to Washington's planning efforts. In our review, Washington appropriately consulted with other States regarding emissions that are reasonably anticipated to contribute to visibility impairment in Class I areas. We are therefore proposing to determine that Washington met the requirements of section 51.308(f)(2)(ii).</P>
                <P>
                    As previously discussed in section II.B of this document, Washington chose to rely on WRAP technical information, modeling, and analysis to support development of its long-term strategy. The WRAP technical analyses on which Washington relied are listed in the State's submission and includes source contribution assessments and evaluations of emission reductions based on the anticipated control measures.
                    <SU>56</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The anticipated emissions reductions for Cardinal Glass and TransAlta were incorporated into the 2028 projections modeled by the WRAP.
                    <SU>57</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As discussed in more detail in section IV.F of this document, the 2028 projections modeled by the WRAP for “on the books” controls (Cardinal Glass and TransAlta) are below the 2028 URP glidepath for all Washington Class I areas. Section 51.308(f)(2)(iii) also requires that the emissions information considered to determine the measures that are necessary to make reasonable progress include information on emissions for the most recent year for which the State has submitted triennial emissions data to the EPA (National Emissions Inventory or NEI). Chapter 4 
                    <E T="03">Emissions Inventory</E>
                     of Ecology's January 2022 submission contains comprehensive emissions inventory data based on the 2014 and 2017 NEI data. Additional emissions inventory data, through 2021, is available in the docket for this action.
                    <SU>58</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, the EPA proposes to approve Washington's submission as meeting the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iii).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>56</SU>
                         January 28, 2022 Washington SIP submission, Chapter 5 Regional Haze Modeling.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>57</SU>
                         January 28, 2022 Washington SIP submission, at page 43.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>58</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">202_Washington RH Emission Trends.xlsx.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Five Additional Factors</HD>
                <P>In developing its long-term strategy, a State must also consider five additional factors set forth at 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iv). The factors are: (1) emission reductions due to ongoing air pollution control programs, including measures to address reasonably attributable visibility impairment; (2) measures to mitigate the impacts of construction activities; (3) source retirement and replacement schedules; (4) smoke management practices for agricultural and forestry burning; and (5) anticipated net effect on visibility over the period of the long-term strategy. The following paragraphs address each of the five additional factors.</P>
                <P>
                    In Chapter 8 
                    <E T="03">Long-Term Strategy for Visibility Improvement,</E>
                     of Washington's submission, Ecology addresses the five additional factors of 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iv) in developing its long-term strategy. Pursuant to 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iv)(A), Washington detailed the existing and ongoing State and Federal emission control programs that contribute to emission reductions through 2028. The Washington regional haze SIP highlights the programs for mobile sources being implemented in Washington State.
                    <SU>59</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Many of these same measures, as well as other measures for the nonroad mobile source category, also mitigate the impacts of construction activities as required by 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iv)(B).
                    <SU>60</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>59</SU>
                         January 28, 2022, Washington SIP submission, Chapter 8.2 Washington's approach to long-term strategy.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>60</SU>
                         January 28, 2022, Washington SIP submission, Chapter 8.6 Controls on visibility-impairing pollutants not in previous RH SIP.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iv)(C), Washington addressed source retirements and replacement schedules in Chapter 8.6 
                    <E T="03">Controls on Visibility-Impairing Pollutants not in Previous RH SIP</E>
                     of Washington's submission. The primary source retirement considered in developing the 2028 emission projections was the implementation of Order 6426 at the TransAlta facility, submitted as part of the regional haze plan for the first implementation period (77 FR 72742, December 6, 2012).
                </P>
                <P>
                    In considering smoke management as required in 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iv)(D), Washington explained that it addresses smoke management through its SIP-approved smoke management plan.
                    <SU>61</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The open burning and agricultural burning rules under WAC 173-425 and WAC 173-430 regulate the types of open burning within the State and imposes requirements for mitigating the impacts on air quality. Washington also has several existing measures that help improve visibility at Class I areas including SIP-approved residential woodstove restrictions in WAC 173-433.
                    <SU>62</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>61</SU>
                         88 FR 54240, August 10, 2023.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>62</SU>
                         79 FR 26628, May 9, 2014.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Washington considered the anticipated net effect of projected changes in emissions as required by 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iv)(E) by discussing, in Chapter 5 
                    <E T="03">Regional Haze Modeling</E>
                     of its January 28, 2022, submission, the photochemical modeling for the 2018-2028 period it conducted in collaboration with the WRAP. Washington has reasonably considered each of the five additional factors under 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iv) in its January 28, 2022, submission. Accordingly, EPA proposes to approve Washington's submission as meeting the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(iv).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Reasonable Progress Goals</HD>
                <P>
                    The regulation at 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3) contains the requirements pertaining to RPGs for each Class I area. The regulation at 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(i) requires a State in which a Class I area is located to establish RPGs—one each for the most impaired and clearest days—reflecting the visibility conditions that will be achieved at the end of the implementation period as a result of the emission limitations, compliance schedules and other measures required under paragraph (f)(2) to be in States' long-term strategies, as well as implementation of other CAA requirements. The long-term strategies as reflected by the RPGs must provide for an improvement in visibility on the most impaired days relative to the baseline period and ensure no degradation on the clearest days relative to the baseline period. Section 51.308(f)(3)(ii) applies in circumstances in which a Class I area's RPG for the most impaired days represents a slower rate of visibility improvement than the uniform rate of progress calculated under 40 CFR 51.308(f)(1)(vi). Under 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(ii)(A), if the State in which a mandatory Class I area is located establishes an RPG for the most impaired days that provides for a slower rate of visibility improvement than the URP, the State must demonstrate that there are no additional emission reduction measures for anthropogenic 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34808"/>
                    sources or groups of sources in the State that would be reasonable to include in its long-term strategy. The regulation at 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(ii)(B) requires that if a State contains sources that are reasonably anticipated to contribute to visibility impairment in a Class I area in another State, and the RPG for the most impaired days in that Class I area is above the URP, the upwind State must provide the same demonstration.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Chapter 3 
                    <E T="03">Current Visibility Conditions in Washington's Class I Areas</E>
                     of Washington's January 28, 2022, submission summarizes baseline visibility conditions (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     visibility conditions during the baseline period) for the most impaired and clearest days, as well as information on natural visibility conditions and the calculated uniform rate of progress in 2018. Chapter 9 
                    <E T="03">Reasonable Progress Goals</E>
                     shows the 2028 calculated uniform rate of progress and the anticipated 2028 projections modeled by the WRAP to represent reasonable progress goals for the most impaired days. Washington's submission also compares the modeled 2028 projections to the baseline for the clearest days. The 2028 projections are based on the WRAP's modeling of the significant anticipated reductions from Washington's mobile source regulations under the SIP approved WAC, Chapter 173-423 
                    <E T="03">Low Emission Vehicles,</E>
                    <SU>63</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     as well as anticipated reductions from stationary source controls for TransAlta and Cardinal Glass.
                    <SU>64</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>63</SU>
                         86 FR 61705 (November 8, 2021). Following the EPA's SIP approval, Washington subsequently renamed Chapter 173-423 WAC to the “Clean Vehicles Program” following Washington's adoption of the zero-emission vehicle standards effective December 30, 2021 (WSR 21-24-059).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>64</SU>
                         Puget Sound Clean Air Agency's April 29, 2022, permit modification to install and operate SNCR at the Ash Grove facility occurred after the WRAP modeling, and these emission reductions would be in addition to the emissions reductions calculated by the WRAP.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Regional Haze Rule at 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(i) requires that a State in which a mandatory Class I area is located must establish reasonable progress goals that reflect the visibility conditions that are projected to be achieved by the end of the applicable implementation period as a result of those enforceable emissions limitations, compliance schedules, and other measures required under the long-term strategy for regional haze that can be fully implemented by the end of the applicable implementation period.</P>
                <P>
                    In developing the uniform rate of progress for comparison to the reasonable progress goals, the 2017 Regional Haze Rule includes a provision that allows States to propose an adjustment to the glidepath to account for impacts from anthropogenic sources outside the U.S. if the adjustment has been developed through scientifically valid data and methods. The EPA's visibility guidance states “to calculate the proposed adjustment(s), the State must add the estimated impact(s) to the natural visibility condition and compare the baseline visibility condition for the most impaired days to the resulting sum.” In 2019, the EPA conducted modeling to assist States in the development of Regional Haze SIPs for the second implementation period. In particular, the modeling provided the EPA's first comprehensive estimate of international anthropogenic emissions contributions to visibility impairment at Class I areas.
                    <SU>65</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Washington used similar adjusted glidepaths calculated by the WRAP to account for impacts from anthropogenic sources outside the United States, which used a more conservative 2064 endpoint adjustment relative to the 2019 modeling conducted by the EPA. The calculated 2028 projections representing “on the books” controls at the time of the WRAP modeling are all below the unadjusted 2028 uniform rate of progress glidepath for all Washington Class I areas, except the Pasayten Wilderness Area. In the case of the Pasayten Wilderness Area, significant wildfire events influenced the underlying 2014 to 2018 data used in the modeling, with corresponding impacts to future year projections.
                    <SU>66</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     However, once adjusted for anthropogenic sources outside the United States, the 2028 projections calculated for the Pasayten Wilderness Area also meet the 2028 URP as shown in Table 7 of this document. For the most impaired days, the 2028 projections represent an improvement relative to both current visibility conditions and baseline visibility conditions, as stipulated in 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(i). The 2028 projections modeled for the most impaired days are presented in Table 7 of this document, along with unadjusted and adjusted 2028 uniform rate of progress as calculated by the WRAP.
                    <SU>67</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>65</SU>
                         Availability of Modeling Data and Associated Technical Support Document for the EPA's Updated 2028 Visibility Air Quality Modeling, September 2019.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>66</SU>
                         Washington's January 28, 2022, submission at page 60.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>67</SU>
                         Chapter 9.8 
                        <E T="03">Summary</E>
                         of Washington's January 28, 2022, submission.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs66,r50,10,10,10,10,10">
                    <TTITLE>Table 7—Modeled 2028 Projections for the Most Impaired Days</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Monitor ID</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Class I area</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Baseline
                            <LI>2000-2004</LI>
                            <LI>(dv)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Current
                            <LI>conditions</LI>
                            <LI>2014-2018</LI>
                            <LI>(dv)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">WRAP 2028 projections (dv)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            2028 Unadjusted
                            <LI>glidepath 20% most impaired days</LI>
                            <LI>(dv)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            2028
                            <LI>Adjusted</LI>
                            <LI>URP glidepath</LI>
                            <LI>
                                (dv) 
                                <SU>68</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">OLYM</ENT>
                        <ENT>Olympic National Park</ENT>
                        <ENT>14.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">NOCA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Glacier Peak Wilderness Area
                            <LI>and North Cascades National Park</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>12.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SNPA</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alpine Lakes Wilderness Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>15.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">MORA</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mount Rainier National Park</ENT>
                        <ENT>16.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>13.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>13.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">WHPA</ENT>
                        <ENT>Goat Rocks Wilderness Area and Mount Adams Wilderness Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">PASA</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pasayten Wilderness Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    For
                    <FTREF/>
                     the clearest days, the 2028 projections represent an improvement relative to both current visibility conditions and baseline visibility conditions, required under 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(i), as shown in Table 8 of this document.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>68</SU>
                         Adjusted by the WRAP to account for international anthropogenic contribution, as discussed further in section IV.F of this document.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="34809"/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs66,r50,10,10,10">
                    <TTITLE>Table 8—2028 WRAP Projections for the Clearest Days</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Monitor ID</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Class I area</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Baseline
                            <LI>2000-2004</LI>
                            <LI>(dv)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Current
                            <LI>conditions</LI>
                            <LI>2014-2018</LI>
                            <LI>(dv)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            WRAP 2028
                            <LI>projections</LI>
                            <LI>(dv)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">OLYM</ENT>
                        <ENT>Olympic National Park</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.37</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">NOCA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Glacier Peak Wilderness Area
                            <LI>and North Cascades National Park</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>3.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.38</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SNPA</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alpine Lakes Wilderness Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">MORA</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mount Rainier National Park</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.68</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">WHPA</ENT>
                        <ENT>Goat Rocks Wilderness Area and Mount Adams Wilderness Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.91</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">PASA</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pasayten Wilderness Area</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.46</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    Chapter 8.2 
                    <E T="03">Washington's Approach to Long-Term Strategy</E>
                     of Washington's January 28, 2022, submission, describes the regional haze precursor reductions anticipated from SIP-approved regulatory updates to Chapter 173-423 WAC 
                    <E T="03">Low Emission Vehicles.</E>
                    <SU>69</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The emissions reductions are anticipated to reduce NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions from a 2014 baseline of 130,500 tons per year to 34,366 tons per year in 2028.
                    <SU>70</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These reductions are the primary factor in driving the modeled 2028 projections well below the 2028 uniform rate of progress for most Class I areas in the State, along with the State's implementation of Order 6426 for BART at the TransAlta facility, submitted as part of the regional haze plan for the first implementation period. Consistent with 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(i), these enforceable emission limitations are adopted into Washington's SIP. Accordingly, EPA proposes to approve Washington's submission as meeting the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(i).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>69</SU>
                         86 FR 61705 (November 8, 2021), renamed to the 
                        <E T="03">Clean Vehicles Program</E>
                         with subsequent State updates effective December 30, 2021, and January 19, 2023.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>70</SU>
                         January 28, 2022, SIP submission at page 68.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Because 2028 projections based on measures “on the books” are already below the glidepath for Washington Class I areas, the demonstration requirement under 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(ii)(A) is not triggered. Under 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(ii)(B), a State that contains sources that are reasonably anticipated to contribute to visibility impairment in a Class I area in another State for which a demonstration by the other State is required under 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(ii)(A) must demonstrate that there are no additional emission reduction measures that would be reasonable to include in its long-term strategy.</P>
                <P>
                    Several Class I areas in Central and Southern Oregon had 2028 reasonable progress goals at or slightly above the unadjusted glidepath. For policy reasons, the State of Oregon chose not to adjust the glidepath to account for impacts from anthropogenic sources outside the United States. However, Oregon determined based on an SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     analysis of these Class I areas that, “contribution seems to be significantly from international anthropogenic sources and is projected to decrease by 77% as new standards for international marine shipping fuels take effect in 2020.” 
                    <SU>71</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Using Oregon's Q/d screening methodology to identify sources that are reasonably anticipated to contribute to visibility impairment, only the Mount Hood and Eagle Cap Wilderness are potentially affected by Washington sources.
                    <SU>72</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Both of these areas have reasonable progress goals well below the unadjusted 2028 uniform rate of progress.
                    <SU>73</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, Washington does not have an obligation under 40 CFR 51.308(f)(3)(ii)(B). We also note that Washington conducted State-to-State consultation with Idaho, Oregon, Nevada, and the WRAP States generally, and no disagreements under 40 CFR 51.308(f)(2)(ii)(C) were identified by any other State.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>71</SU>
                         April 29, 2022 Oregon SIP submission, at page 17.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>72</SU>
                         April 29, 2022 Oregon SIP submission, Chapter 3.3 Impact of facilities in other States on Oregon Class 1 areas.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>73</SU>
                         April 29, 2022 Oregon SIP submission, Chapter 5.1 Reasonable progress goals for Class I Areas
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Monitoring Strategy and Other Implementation Plan Requirements</HD>
                <P>Section 51.308(f)(6) specifies that each comprehensive revision of a State's regional haze SIP must contain or provide for certain elements, including monitoring strategies, emissions inventories, and any reporting, recordkeeping and other measures needed to assess and report on visibility. A main requirement of this section is for States with Class I areas to submit monitoring strategies for measuring, characterizing, and reporting on visibility impairment. Compliance with this requirement may be met through participation in the Interagency Monitoring of Protected Visual Environments (IMPROVE) network.</P>
                <P>
                    Chapter 10.1 
                    <E T="03">Future Planning Process</E>
                     of Washington's submission describes Washington's participation and continued commitment to support the IMPROVE monitoring network to measure, characterize and report aerosol monitoring data for long-term reasonable progress tracking. Ecology “will collaborate with the EPA, FLMs, other States, Tribes, and the IMPROVE committee to ensure adequate and representative data collection and reporting by the IMPROVE program.” 
                    <SU>74</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>74</SU>
                         January 28, 2022, SIP submission at page 236.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Section 51.308(f)(6)(i) requires SIPs to provide for the establishment of any additional monitoring sites or equipment needed to assess whether reasonable progress goals to address regional haze for all mandatory Class I Federal areas within the State are being achieved. Regional haze data for Washington Class I areas are shown in Table 1 of this document. The monitoring stations are primarily operated and maintained by the U.S. Forest Service, except for the OLYM1, NOCA1, and MORA1 IMPROVE monitoring stations operated and maintained by the National Park Service. As noted in Washington's monitoring strategy chapter, Washington would rely on the IMPROVE Steering Committee to advise if conditions changed such that additional monitors were necessary.</P>
                <P>
                    Section 51.308(f)(6)(ii) requires SIPs to provide for procedures by which monitoring data and other information are used in determining the contribution of emissions from within the State to regional haze visibility impairment at mandatory Class I Federal areas both within and outside the State. Washington relied on the WRAP source apportionment modeling and the weighted emission potential (WEP) analysis to help discern the degree to which different sectors affect visibility in each Class I area. The source apportionment and WEP analysis are 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34810"/>
                    based on data from WRAP's Technical Support System website 
                    <SU>75</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for the Round 2 regional haze analysis.
                    <SU>76</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section 51.308(f)(6)(iii) does not apply to Washington, as it has Class I areas.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>75</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">http://views.cira.colostate.edu/tssv2/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>76</SU>
                         January 28, 2022, Washington SIP submission, Chapter 5. 
                        <E T="03">Regional Haze Modeling.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Section 51.308(f)(6)(iv) requires the SIP to provide for the reporting of all visibility monitoring data to the Administrator at least annually for each Class I area in the State. As noted above, the IMPROVE monitoring stations in Washington are operated and maintained by the U.S Forest Service and the National Park Service. The monitoring strategy for Washington relies upon the continued availability of the IMPROVE network.</P>
                <P>Section 51.308(f)(6)(v) requires SIPs to provide for a Statewide inventory of emissions of pollutants that are reasonably anticipated to cause or contribute to visibility impairment, including emissions for the most recent year for which data are available and estimates of future projected emissions. It also requires a commitment to update the inventory periodically. Washington provides for emissions inventories and estimates for future projected emissions by participating in the WRAP regional planning organization (RPO) and complying with EPA's Air Emissions Reporting Rule (AERR). In 40 CFR part 51, subpart A, the AERR requires States to submit updated emissions inventories for criteria pollutants to EPA's Emissions Inventory System (EIS) every three years. The emission inventory data is used to develop the NEI, which provides for, among other things, a triennial Statewide inventory of pollutants that are reasonably anticipated to cause or contribute to visibility impairment.</P>
                <P>
                    Chapter 4. 
                    <E T="03">Emissions Inventory</E>
                     of Washington's submission includes tables of NEI data.
                    <SU>77</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The source categories of the emissions inventories are point sources, nonpoint sources, non-road mobile sources, on-road mobile sources, and fire events. Washington included NEI emissions inventories based on 2014 data, with updates to include 2017 data when it became available. Washington observed that Statewide 2014 NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions are primarily from mobile sources, at about 55% of the inventory, with another 25% of the inventory coming from nonroad mobile sources. The SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     inventory largely consists of point source emissions at 51% of the 2014 baseline inventory. However, this contribution will decline significantly with Alcoa's determination to permanently close both aluminum smelters in the State. SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions from commercial marine vehicles are also anticipated to decline significantly from 35% of the baseline inventory to 3% of the projected 2028 inventory due to low-sulfur fuels and port electrification efforts.
                    <SU>78</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For particulate matter, depending on the year, wildfires generate the majority of PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     emissions in Washington. The primary anthropogenic sources are non-point, including fugitive dust (agriculture, construction, and roads) and residential wood combustion.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>77</SU>
                         January 28, 2022, submission, at pages 68-72.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>78</SU>
                         January 28, 2022, submission, at page 68.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Section 51.308(f)(6)(v) also requires States to include estimates of future projected emissions and include a commitment to update the inventory periodically. Washington relied on the WRAP 2028 emissions projections for WRAP States. WRAP completed two 2028 projected emissions modeling cases—a 2028 base case and a 2028 control case that considers implementation of the controls, including point source reductions at TransAlta and Cardinal Glass.
                    <SU>79</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>79</SU>
                         January 28, 2022 Washington SIP submission, page 165.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The EPA proposes to find that Washington has met the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(f)(6) as described in the preceding paragraphs of this document, including through its continued participation in the IMPROVE network and the WRAP and its on-going compliance with the AERR, and that no further elements are necessary at this time for Washington to assess and report on visibility pursuant to 40 CFR 51.308(f)(6)(vi).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Requirements for Periodic Reports Describing Progress Towards the Reasonable Progress Goals</HD>
                <P>The regulation at 40 CFR 51.308(f)(5) requires that periodic comprehensive revisions of States' regional haze plans also address the progress report requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(g)(1) through (5). The purpose of these requirements is to evaluate progress towards the applicable RPGs for each Class I area within the State and each Class I area outside the State that may be affected by emissions from within that State. 40 CFR 51.308(g)(1) and (2) apply to all States and require a description of the status of implementation of all measures included in a State's first implementation period regional haze plan and a summary of the emission reductions achieved through implementation of those measures. The regulation at 40 CFR 51.308(g)(3) applies only to States with Class I areas within their borders and requires such States to assess current visibility conditions, changes in visibility relative to baseline (2000-2004) visibility conditions, and changes in visibility conditions relative to the period addressed in the first implementation period progress report. The regulation at 40 CFR 51.308(g)(4) applies to all States and requires an analysis tracking changes in emissions of pollutants contributing to visibility impairment from all sources and sectors since the period addressed by the first implementation period progress report. This provision further specifies the year or years through which the analysis must extend depending on the type of source and the platform through which its emission information is reported. Finally, 40 CFR 51.308(g)(5), which also applies to all States, requires an assessment of any significant changes in anthropogenic emissions within or outside the State have occurred since the period addressed by the first implementation period progress report, including whether such changes were anticipated and whether they have limited or impeded expected progress towards reducing emissions and improving visibility.</P>
                <P>
                    Washington's submission outlines the progress report requirements under 40 CFR 51.308(g) and identifies the chapters where the relevant information is addressed.
                    <SU>80</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Washington's 2017 5-year progress report describes the Best Available Retrofit Technology controls already imposed and implemented at BP Cherry Point Refinery, Intalco (Ferndale), Tesoro, Alcoa Wenatchee Works, Lafarge Cement, Weyerhaeuser Corporation (Longview), TransAlta, and Port Townsend Paper.
                    <SU>81</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     None of these controls changed since the 2017 progress report except the installation of a neural network and a more stringent NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions limit at the TransAlta facility.
                    <SU>82</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>80</SU>
                         January 28, 2022, submission, Chapter 1.3 Progress Report Requirements.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>81</SU>
                         83 FR 36752 (July 31, 2018).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>82</SU>
                         January 28, 2022, submission, pages 172 and 173.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Chapter 4.3 
                    <E T="03">Emissions Inventory Comparison</E>
                     of Washington's January 28, 2022, submission shows the most recent 2017 NEI data for sources subject to control in the first implementation period and describes the emissions decline anticipated from implementation of BART controls at the TransAlta facility. The EPA proposes to find that Washington has met the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(g)(1) and (2) because the submission, in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34811"/>
                    conjunction with the 2017 progress report, describes the measures included in the long-term strategy from the first implementation period, as well as the status of their implementation and the emission reductions achieved through such implementation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Washington's submission included summaries of the visibility conditions and the trend of the 5-year averages through 2018 at Class I areas in the State.
                    <SU>83</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As shown in Tables 2 and 3 of this document, the submission included the 5-year baseline (2000-2004) visibility conditions for the clearest and most impaired days. The submission also included the current 5-year status (2014-2018) for the clearest and most impaired days. The submission also illustrated in Chapter 3.1 
                    <E T="03">Overview of Visibility Conditions in Washington</E>
                     the visibility metrics levels at each Class I area, including the 5-year rolling average for the clearest and most impaired days. The EPA therefore proposes to find that Washington has satisfied the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(g)(3).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>83</SU>
                         January 28, 2022, submission, Chapter 3. 
                        <E T="03">Current Visibility Conditions in Washington's Class 1 Areas.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 40 CFR 51.308(g)(4), Washington included a detailed analysis of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    , SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    , PM
                    <E T="52">10</E>
                    , PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                    , VOCs, and NH
                    <E T="52">3</E>
                     emissions for 2014 and 2017 in the January 28, 2022, submission.
                    <SU>84</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Additionally, the RH Emission Trends spreadsheet, included in the docket for this action, provides a summary of emissions of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    , SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    , PM
                    <E T="52">10</E>
                    , PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                    , VOCs, and NH
                    <E T="52">3</E>
                     from all sources and activities, including from point, nonpoint, non-road mobile, and on-road mobile sources, for the time period from 2002 to 2021.
                    <SU>85</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>84</SU>
                         January 28, 2022, submission, at pages 68-72.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>85</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/air-emissions-inventories/air-pollutant-emissions-trends-data.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The reductions achieved by Washington's emission control measures are seen in the emissions inventory. Based on Washington's submission, and the supplemental information in the Washington RH Emission Trends spreadsheet, NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions have continuously declined in Washington from 2002 through 2021, especially in the point, nonroad and onroad mobile sectors. NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions are expected to continue to decrease as fleet turnover occurs and the older more polluting vehicles and equipment are replaced by newer, cleaner ones. During that period, onroad sources contributed 65% of the emissions, followed by nonroad sources contributing 21%, and NEI point and nonpoint sources contributing 13%.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Emissions of SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     have shown a significant decline in Washington over the period 2002 to 2021, particularly in the point, and onroad and nonroad mobile sectors. NEI point and nonpoint emissions have declined 83%. Onroad SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     mobile source emissions have declined 95% and nonroad sources have declined 97%. These reductions are primarily from electric utility and industrial fuel combustion, as well as low sulfur fuel regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    PM
                    <E T="52">10</E>
                     emissions declined 25% for the period from 2002 to 2021, with onroad mobile source emissions declining 52% and nonroad sources declining 59%. Overall PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     emissions declined with the removal of wildfire emissions, with onroad mobile source emissions declining 74% and nonroad sources declining 59% due to Federal engine standards.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Overall VOC emissions declined, with onroad mobile source emissions declining 75% and nonroad sources declining 62% due to Federal engine standards. Ammonia (NH
                    <E T="52">3</E>
                    ) emissions increased from 2002 to 2021; however, this might be due to changes in the emissions inventory reporting with the “miscellaneous” category experiencing significant growth.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The EPA is proposing to find that Washington has satisfied the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(g)(4) by providing emissions information for NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    , SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    , PM
                    <E T="52">10</E>
                    , PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                    , VOCs, and NH
                    <E T="52">3</E>
                     broken down by type of source. The emissions data in the submission 
                    <SU>86</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the supplemental trend information 
                    <SU>87</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     support the assessment that anthropogenic haze-causing pollutant emissions in Washington have decreased during the reporting period and that changes in emissions have not limited or impeded progress in reducing pollutant emissions and improving visibility. The EPA is proposing to find that Washington has met the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(g)(5).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>86</SU>
                         January 28, 2022, submission, Chapter 4. 
                        <E T="03">Emissions Inventory.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>87</SU>
                         Washington RH Emission Trends.xlsx.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Requirements for State and Federal Land Manager Coordination</HD>
                <P>Section 169A(d) of the Clean Air Act requires States to consult with FLMs before holding the public hearing on a proposed regional haze SIP, and to include a summary of the FLMs' conclusions and recommendations in the notice to the public. In addition, 40 CFR 51.308(i)(2)'s FLM consultation provision requires a State to provide FLMs with an opportunity for consultation that is early enough in the State's policy analyses of its emission reduction obligation so that information and recommendations provided by the FLMs' can meaningfully inform the State's decisions on its long-term strategy. If the consultation has taken place at least 120 days before a public hearing or public comment period, the opportunity for consultation will be deemed early enough, Regardless, the opportunity for consultation must be provided at least sixty days before a public hearing or public comment period at the State level. Section 51.308(i)(2) also provides two substantive topics on which FLMs must be provided an opportunity to discuss with States: assessment of visibility impairment in any Class I area and recommendations on the development and implementation of strategies to address visibility impairment. Section 51.308(i)(3) requires States, in developing their implementation plans, to include a description of how they addressed FLMs' comments.</P>
                <P>
                    Chapter 1.4 
                    <E T="03">Regional Haze State Implementation Plan Development</E>
                     and Appendix A of Ecology's January 28, 2022, submission discusses Washington's consultation and coordination with Federal Land Managers. The Federal Land Managers and Ecology are partners in the WRAP, and as partners, engaged early in inter-State coordination calls and WRAP technical support system development calls. Ecology provided a draft of the regional haze plan to the U.S. Forest Service and National Park Service on September 22, 2020. Additionally, Ecology met or held conference calls with the National Park Service on June 9, 2017, August 8, 2017, March 14, 2018, July 16, 2020, and October 6, 2020. The U.S. Forest Service and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service participated in many of these meetings and consultations, as well. Ecology received comments from the National Parks service in several communications between November 19, 2020 and June 29, 2021. Ecology summarized the dates and topics of the National Parks Service comments received in Appendix A of the January 28, 2022, submission along with Ecology's responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Washington took the administrative steps to provide the Federal Land Managers an opportunity to review and provide feedback on the State's draft plan for the January 2022 submission. Therefore, we are proposing to find that the submission meets the consultation requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(i).
                    <PRTPAGE P="34812"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Proposed Action</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Proposed Approval of the Regional Haze Plan for the Second Implementation Period</HD>
                <P>For the reasons set forth in this rulemaking, EPA is proposing to approve Washington's January 28, 2022, SIP submittal as satisfying the regional haze requirements for the second planning period contained in 40 CFR 51.308(f).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Proposed Revision to Incorporation by Reference and Federal Implementation Plan</HD>
                <P>
                    On June 11, 2014 (79 FR 33438), as part of the regional haze SIP for the first planning period, the EPA approved Administrative Order No. 7837, Revision 1, for the Alcoa Intalco Works facility located in Ferndale, Washington. In the same action the EPA promulgated Federal implementation plan (FIP) requirements under 40 CFR 52.2500 
                    <E T="03">Best available retrofit technology requirements for the Intalco Aluminum Corporation (Intalco Works) primary aluminum plant—Better than BART Alternative</E>
                     and 40 CFR 52.2502 
                    <E T="03">Best available retrofit technology requirements for the Alcoa Inc.—Wenatchee Works primary aluminum smelter.</E>
                     Section IV of this document explains that the two Alcoa aluminum smelters in Washington both permanently closed with termination of the operating permits. Therefore, we are proposing to remove from the incorporation by reference in 40 CFR 52.2470(d), Administrative Order No. 7837, Revision 1, for the Alcoa Intalco Works in Ferndale. We are also proposing to remove the FIP requirements for both closed facilities in 40 CFR 52.2500 and 52.2502, along with revising cross references to these provisions in 40 CFR 52.2498(c).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    In this document, the EPA is proposing to include regulatory text in an EPA final rule that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is proposing to both incorporate by reference the source-specific provisions described in section IV. of this document and to remove obsolete source-specific provisions described in section V. of this document. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and at the EPA Region 10 Office (please contact the person identified in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this document for more information).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Clean Air Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve State choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves State law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by State law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) because SIP actions are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866;</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a State program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act.</P>
                <P>In addition, this action is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal Governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000). Nevertheless, we provided an opportunity for consultation to all Tribes in Washington in letters dated June 27, 2022, included in the docket for this action.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>
                        (Authority: 42 U.S.C. 7401 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        )
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: July 11, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Emma Pokon,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region 10.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13957 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R06-OAR-2020-0164; FRL-12896-01-R6]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; Texas; Reasonably Available Control Technology in the Dallas-Fort Worth Ozone Nonattainment Area</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to the Federal Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act), the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve revisions to the Texas State Implementation Plan (SIP). The revisions were submitted by the Texas Commission on Environmental Quality (TCEQ) on May 12, 2020, and May 13, 2020, and address certain CAA requirements for the Dallas-Fort Worth (DFW) Serious Nonattainment Area (NAA) for the 2008 ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS). Specifically, EPA is proposing to approve the revisions to 30 Texas Administrative Code (TAC) Chapter 117 to implement the major source Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT) requirement for Nitrogen Oxides (NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                        ), as addressed in the NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         RACT analysis and negative declaration included with the Serious area Attainment Demonstration (AD) SIP revision. The volatile organic compounds (VOC) portion of the RACT analysis in the Serious area AD submittal is addressed in a separate action.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments must be received on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <PRTPAGE P="34813"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by Docket No. EPA-R06-OAR-2020-0164 at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or via email to 
                        <E T="03">ahuja.anupa@epa.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Once submitted, comments cannot be edited or removed from 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                        . The EPA may publish any comment received to its public docket. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Multimedia submissions (audio, video, etc.) must be accompanied by a written comment. The written comment is considered the official comment and should include discussion of all points you wish to make. The EPA will generally not consider comments or comment contents located outside of the primary submission (
                        <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                         on the web, cloud, or other file sharing system). For additional submission methods, please contact Anupa Ahuja, (214) 665-2701, 
                        <E T="03">ahuja.anupa@epa.gov.</E>
                         For the full EPA public comment policy, information about CBI or multimedia submissions, and general guidance on making effective comments, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         The index to the docket for this action is available electronically at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         While all documents in the docket are listed in the index, some information may not be publicly available due to docket file size restrictions or content (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         CBI).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Anupa Ahuja, EPA Region 6 Office, Infrastructure and Ozone Section, 214-665-2701, 
                        <E T="03">ahuja.anupa@epa.gov.</E>
                         We encourage the public to submit comments via 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Please call or email the contact listed above if you need alternative access to material indexed but not provided in the docket.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Throughout this document wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean the EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the CAA, EPA promulgated an 8-hour ozone standard of 0.075 parts per million (ppm) in 2008, which is more protective than the previous 1997 8-hour ozone standard (73 FR 16436, March 27, 2008).
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On May 21, 2012, EPA published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     the initial designations and classifications for the 2008 8-hour ozone standard (77 FR 30088). The DFW 10-county area (Collin, Dallas, Denton, Ellis, Johnson, Kaufman, Parker, Rockwall, Tarrant, and Wise counties) 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     was initially classified as Moderate nonattainment for the 2008 ozone NAAQS. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 30147. On August 23, 2019, the EPA reclassified the DFW NAA from Moderate to Serious for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS (84 FR 44238, August 23, 2019).
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Under its Serious classification, pursuant to CAA sections 182(c) and 182(f), Texas must ensure NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     RACT is in place for all major sources (50 tpy or greater) of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     in the DFW NAA.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         On October 26, 2015, (80 FR 65292) EPA adopted another revision to the Ozone standard (2015 8-hour ozone standard), but the 2008 standard remains in place. This notice concerns the Serious area RACT requirements under the 2008 standard.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         For the previous 8-hour ozone standard (the 1997 8-hour ozone standard, 0.080 ppm), the DFW ozone NAA included the same counties, aside from Wise County. Effective January 19, 2011, EPA published a final determination of failure to attain and reclassification of the DFW 9-county area from a moderate to a serious nonattainment area for the 1997 eight-hour ozone standard (75 FR 79302, December 20, 2010).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The DFW NAA missed the Serious area attainment date and thus was reclassified to Severe (87 FR 60926, October 7, 2022). This action does not address the DFW Severe NAA RACT requirements or the DFW NAA for the 2015 ozone NAAQS.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Section 172(c)(1) of the CAA requires that SIPs for nonattainment areas “provide for the implementation of all reasonably available control measures as expeditiously as practicable (including such reductions in emissions from existing sources in the area as may be obtained through the adoption, at a minimum, of reasonably available control technology) and shall provide for attainment of the primary National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS).” The EPA has interpreted this to mean that RACT is the lowest emissions limitation that a particular source is capable of meeting by the application of control technology that is reasonably available, considering technological and economic feasibility.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section 182 of the CAA requires that states must ensure RACT is in place for each source category for which EPA has issued a control techniques guidelines (CTG), and for any major source not covered by a CTG. CAA section 182(c) defines “major stationary source” as one that emits or has the potential to emit 50 tons per year (tpy) or more of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    . EPA issues CTGs and each CTG describes techniques available for reducing emissions of VOC from a category of sources, and states recommended levels of control.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     EPA also issues Alternative Control Techniques (ACTs) for NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    . ACTs provide information on available control technologies and their respective cost effectiveness at the time the ACT was issued. ACTs provide information related to control of both major and minor sources, but states are only required to provide for RACT at major sources of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         44 FR 53762, September 17, 1979.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In 2015, EPA published the final SIP Requirements Rule (SRR) for implementing the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS (80 FR 12279, March 6, 2015). EPA described in the SRR an approach “. . . allowing in some cases for states to conclude that sources already addressed by RACT determinations for the 1-hour and/or the 1997 ozone NAAQS do not need to implement additional controls to meet the 2008 ozone NAAQS RACT requirement” and noted that “in some cases, a new RACT determination would result in the same or similar control technology under the 1-hour or 1997 standard because fundamental control techniques, as described in the CTGs and ACTs, are still applicable.” Importantly, EPA stated that while states should refer to the existing CTGs and ACTs for purposes of informing their RACT requirements, in doing an updated assessment of RACT for the nonattainment the state should also refer to “. . . all relevant information (including recent technical information and information received during the public comment period) that is available at the time that they are developing their RACT SIPs for the 2008 ozone NAAQS.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. TCEQ SIP Submissions</HD>
                <P>
                    On May 12, 2020, TCEQ submitted to EPA a SIP revision to 30 TAC Chapter 117 to implement the major source RACT requirements for NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     associated with its Serious classification for the 2008 ozone NAAQS. TCEQ also submitted to EPA on May 13, 2020, the DFW Serious area AD SIP revision that included a RACT demonstration and analysis for NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    , a negative declaration for the nitric or adipic acid manufacturing category of emission sources, and a discussion of cement kilns operating in the nonattainment area.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. TCEQ SIP Revision for Control of Air Pollution From Nitrogen Oxides, 30 TAC Chapter 117</HD>
                <P>
                    On May 12, 2020, the EPA received the TCEQ's submitted rule revisions to 30 TAC Chapter 117 “Control of Air Pollution from Nitrogen Oxides”. The proposed revisions revise 30 TAC Chapter 117 to amend the definition of the DFW NAA to include Wise County and extend the implementation of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34814"/>
                    Serious area RACT to new major sources of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     in the DFW NAA, including Wise County.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In EPA's action reclassifying the DFW NAA as Serious for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS, Wise County was reclassified from Moderate to Serious nonattainment. 80 FR 44238 (August 23, 2019). The State revised Chapter 117 to implement RACT requirements for all major sources of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     in all ten counties of the DFW Serious ozone NAA as required by CAA sections 172(c)(1), 182(c), and 182(f). The new Serious major source levels are set at 50 tpy for the DFW NAA in these rule changes. The Chapter 117 changes ensure major sources of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions in Wise County are now subject to RACT requirements under the Serious classification.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         In 2011, the DFW 9-county area was reclassified from a Moderate to a Serious nonattainment area under the 1997 eight-hour ozone standard (75 FR 79302, December 20, 2010).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                    B. TCEQ SIP Revision for the DFW NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     RACT Demonstration and Analysis, DFW AD, Appendix F
                </HD>
                <P>
                    The TCEQ analysis for NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     sources in the DFW NAA can be found in Chapter 4 of the AD, Section 4.5.2 (RACT Analysis, NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     RACT Determination), and Appendix F (Reasonably Available Control Technology Analysis) of the May 13, 2020, SIP submittal. A copy of Appendix F is also included in the docket to our action.
                </P>
                <P>
                    TCEQ reviewed the EPA's ACT documents to identify potential source categories of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions. TCEQ also reviewed the point source emissions inventory and Title V databases to identify all major sources of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions. TCEQ's assessment included sources that reported actual emissions as low as 25 tpy of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     to account for the difference between actual and potential emissions.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Negative Declaration Submitted To EPA on May 13, 2020</HD>
                <P>For the source category “Nitric and Adipic Acid Manufacturing”, Texas stated that there no existing nitric or adipic acid manufacturing plants in the DFW NAA area. TCEQ also stated that for sites with cement kilns in Ellis County, no sites have used wet kilns since 2015, having replaced higher-emitting wet kilns with dry kilns.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. EPA's Evaluation</HD>
                <P>A detailed analysis is provided in the Technical Support Document (TSD) for this action and other supporting documents are available in the docket for this action.</P>
                <P>
                    EPA has reviewed the proposed RACT analysis in the AD, appendix F, and the proposed and final record provided by TCEQ for Chapter 117 rule revisions which includes explanations and determinations on NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     control technologies, economic and technical feasibility, and NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions reductions expected. In addition, EPA examined recent relevant technical information, including best available control technology (BACT) determinations, recent documents issued by the EPA that contained information on the performance of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     control technologies, resulting emissions reductions, and other state rules to compare to Texas' SIP submittal and in other states where similar source categories exist in NAAs.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These documents are identified in the TSD and are available in the public docket to this action.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         2017 OTC White Paper on Control Technologies and OTC State Regulations for Nitrogen Oxides (NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                        ) Emissions from Eight Source Categories, 2019 OTC Regulatory and Technical Guideline for Control of Nitrogen Oxides (NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                        ) Emissions from Natural Gas Pipeline Compressor Fuel-Fired Prime Movers, 2023 EGU NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         Mitigation Strategies Final Rule TSD, 2023 Final Non-EGU Sectors TSD.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    EPA finds that a comparison of Texas' NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     emissions rates to other state's rates, recent BACT determinations, and the Texas rulemaking and AD records provide sufficient justification that the control technologies included in the previously approved Chapter 117 rules continue to comprise RACT level of control for the DFW nonattainment area for the 2008 ozone NAAQS.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Proposed Action</HD>
                <P>The EPA is proposing to determine that the SIP revisions submitted by TCEQ on May 12, 2020, and May 13, 2020, fulfill the Serious RACT requirements for the DFW nonattainment area for the 2008 ozone NAAQS. The EPA is also proposing to approve the concurrent Chapter 117 rule revisions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely proposes to approve state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) because SIP actions are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866;</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a state program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act.</P>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the proposed rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 52</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>
                        42 U.S.C. 7401 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 16, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Walter Mason,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region 6.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13930 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="34815"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Parts 52 and 81</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R03-OAR-2024-0624; FRL-12500-01-R3]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; Pennsylvania; Redesignation of the Beaver County Nonattainment Area to Attainment and Approval of the Area's Maintenance Plan for the 2010 1-Hour Primary Sulfur Dioxide National Ambient Air Quality Standard</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a state implementation plan (SIP) revision and redesignation request submitted on August 12, 2024 by the Pennsylvania Department of Environmental Protection (PADEP). The SIP revision asks the EPA to redesignate the Beaver County, Pennsylvania area from nonattainment to attainment for the 2010 1-hour primary sulfur dioxide (SO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        ) national ambient air quality standard (NAAQS). The revision also asks the EPA to approve into the SIP the Commonwealth's maintenance plan for the 2010 1-hour primary SO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         NAAQS for the Beaver County area. This action is being taken under the Clean Air Act (CAA).
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments must be received on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2024-0624 at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         or via email to 
                        <E T="03">gordon.mike@epa.gov.</E>
                         For comments submitted at 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov,</E>
                         follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Once submitted, comments cannot be edited or removed from 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov.</E>
                         For either manner of submission, the EPA may publish any comment received to its public docket. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be confidential business information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Multimedia submissions (audio, video, etc.) must be accompanied by a written comment. The written comment is considered the official comment and should include discussion of all points you wish to make. The EPA will generally not consider comments or comment contents located outside of the primary submission (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         on the web, cloud, or other file sharing system). For additional submission methods, please contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">For Further Information Contact</E>
                         section. For the full EPA public comment policy, information about CBI or multimedia submissions, and general guidance on making effective comments, please visit 
                        <E T="03">www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Philip McGuire, Planning &amp; Implementation Branch (3AD30), Air &amp; Radiation Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region III, 1600 John F. Kennedy Boulevard, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania 19103. The telephone number is (215) 814-2251. Mr. McGuire can also be reached via electronic mail at 
                        <E T="03">mcguire.philip@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Nonattainment Designation</HD>
                <P>
                    On June 22, 2010, the EPA revised the primary SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS, establishing a new 1-hour primary standard of 75 parts per billion (ppb).
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Under the EPA's regulations at title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 50, the 2010 1-hour SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS is met at a monitoring site when the design value 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     is less than or equal to 75 ppb (based on the rounding convention in 40 CFR part 50, appendix T).
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Ambient air quality monitoring data for the 3-year period must meet a data completeness requirement. A year meets data completeness requirements when all four quarters are complete, and a quarter is complete when at least 75 percent of the sampling days in the quarter have complete data. A sampling day has complete data if 75 percent of the hourly concentration values, including State-flagged data affected by exceptional events which have been approved for exclusion by the Administrator, are reported.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         75 FR 35520, June 22, 2010.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         For the 2010 1-hour SO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         NAAQS, the design value is calculated as the 3-year average of the annual 99th percentile of daily maximum 1-hour average concentrations of SO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         40 CFR 50.17.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         40 CFR part 50, appendix T, section 3.1(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Upon promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS, the CAA requires the EPA to designate as nonattainment any area that does not meet (or that contributes to ambient air quality in a nearby area that does not meet) the NAAQS.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On August 5, 2013, the EPA designated a portion of Beaver County, Pennsylvania (hereafter the “Beaver County NAA”), as nonattainment for the 2010 1-hour primary SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS, effective October 4, 2013.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The designation was based on violating air quality monitoring data for calendar years 2009-2011. The Beaver County NAA consists of 6 municipalities including: Industry Borough, Shippingport Borough, Midland Borough, Brighton Township, Potter Township, and Vanport Township.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This action established an attainment date five years after the effective date for the areas designated as nonattainment for the 2010 SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     by October 4, 2018). The Commonwealth was also required to submit an attainment plan SIP revision for the Beaver County NAA to the EPA that met the requirements of CAA sections 110, 172(c) and 191-192 within 18 months of the October 4, 2013, effective date of designation (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     by April 4, 2015).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         CAA section 107(d)(1)(A)(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         78 FR 47191, August 5, 2013.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         A list of Pennsylvania's attainment status designations is available at 40 CFR 81.339.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Relevant Historical SIP Actions</HD>
                <P>
                    The EPA did not receive an attainment plan SIP revision for the Beaver County NAA by the April 4, 2015 deadline and subsequently on March 18, 2016, the EPA published a finding of failure to submit indicating that Pennsylvania did not submit the required SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     attainment plan.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This finding initiated a clock under CAA section 179(a) for the potential imposition of new source review sanctions 18 months after the effective date of the finding and the potential imposition of highway funding sanctions 6 months following that, in accordance with CAA section 179(b) and 40 CFR 52.31. Additionally, under CAA section 110(c), the finding triggered a requirement for the EPA to promulgate a Federal implementation plan (FIP) within two years of the effective date of the finding unless, by that time, Pennsylvania made the necessary complete submittal, and the EPA approved the submittal.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         81 FR 14736, March 18, 2016.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Ultimately, Pennsylvania did submit an attainment plan SIP revision on September 29, 2017. The EPA issued an October 5, 2017 letter to Pennsylvania finding the attainment plan submittal complete and noting the stopping of the sanctions' deadline. As a result, these CAA section 179(b) sanctions were not imposed.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The EPA proposed approving the attainment plan SIP revision submittal on October 5, 2018,
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and issued a final approval on October 1, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34816"/>
                    2019.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This approval ended the requirement for the EPA to promulgate a FIP under CAA section 110(c).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         Both the 2017 attainment plan submittal and EPA completeness letter are available in the docket for this action and are titled 
                        <E T="03">Beaver County September 2017 Attainment Plan</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">EPA Letter of Completeness dated October 5, 2017,</E>
                         respectively.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         83 FR 50314, October 5, 2018.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         84 FR 51988, October 1, 2019.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Relevant to this action, on August 12, 2024, PADEP submitted a revision to its SIP for the inclusion of a maintenance plan for the 2010 1-hour primary SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS and requested a concurrent redesignation of the Beaver County NAA to attainment for the 2010 1-hour primary SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         Available in the docket for this action as 
                        <E T="03">Beaver_SO2_RR_and_MP.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Redesignation to Attainment Criteria</HD>
                <P>
                    After a State has submitted a redesignation request for a nonattainment area, the EPA must assess if the statutory criteria identified in CAA section 107(d)(3)(E) have been met to redesignate the area to attainment. These conditions include: (1) the EPA has determined that the applicable NAAQS has been attained; (2) the applicable SIP has been fully approved by the EPA under CAA section 110(k); (3) the EPA has determined that the improvement in the area's air quality is due to permanent and enforceable reductions in emissions; (4) the area has a fully approved maintenance plan, including a contingency plan, under CAA section 175A; and (5) the State has met all applicable requirements for the area under CAA section 110 and part D. The EPA has provided direction for how it would consider if these conditions have been met in the April 23, 2014 memorandum “Guidance for 1-Hour SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     Nonattainment Area SIP Submissions” (2014 SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     Guidance).
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         Available in the docket for this action as 
                        <E T="03">2014_SO2_Guidance</E>
                         and at 
                        <E T="03">www.epa.gov/sites/default/files/2016-06/documents/20140423guidance_nonattainment_sip.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Maintenance Plan Approval Criteria</HD>
                <P>
                    CAA section 175A and additional EPA guidance, including the September 4, 1992 memorandum “Procedures for Processing Requests to Redesignate Areas to Attainment” (Calcagni Memo),
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     identify the required elements for an approvable maintenance plan for areas seeking redesignation from nonattainment to attainment. Under CAA section 175A, the plan must demonstrate continued attainment of the applicable NAAQS for at least 10 years after the EPA approves a redesignation request to attainment. Eight years after the redesignation, the State must submit a revised maintenance plan demonstrating that attainment will continue to be maintained for an additional 10 years following the initial 10-year period. To address the possibility of future NAAQS violations, the maintenance plan must contain contingency measures, as the EPA deems necessary, to assure prompt correction of any future NAAQS violations, in this case the 2010 1-hour SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS. The Calcagni Memo provides further guidance on the content of a maintenance plan, explaining that a maintenance plan should address five requirements: (1) an attainment emissions inventory that identifies the level of emissions in the area which is sufficient to attain the NAAQS; (2) a maintenance demonstration that shows future emissions of a pollutant will not exceed the level of the attainment inventory; (3) the continued operation of a monitoring network that conforms to 40 CFR part 58; (4) a means for verifying the continued attainment of the NAAQS; and (5) a contingency plan to correct any violation of the NAAQS in the area following redesignation of the area.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Available in the docket for this action as 
                        <E T="03">Calcagni_Memo</E>
                         and at 
                        <E T="03">www.epa.gov/sites/default/files/2016-03/documents/calcagni_memo__procedures_for_processing_requests_to_redesignate_areas_to_attainment_090492.pdf.</E>
                         Both the 2014 SO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         Guidance and Calcagni Memo provide similar guidance on redesignation requests and maintenance plans and these reference documents may be used interchangeably in this action.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Summary of SIP Revision and EPA Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    The EPA's evaluation of Pennsylvania's redesignation request and maintenance plan for the Beaver County NAA is based on consideration of the five redesignation criteria provided under CAA section 107(d)(3)(E) and relevant guidance, including the aforementioned 2014 SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     Guidance and Calcagni Memo.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                    A. Criterion (1)—The Beaver County SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     Nonattainment Area Has Attained the 2010 1-Hour SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS
                </HD>
                <P>
                    CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(i) requires that the EPA determine that a nonattainment area has attained the applicable NAAQS in order to redesignate the area to attainment. In assessing if the area has attained the NAAQS, the 2014 SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     Guidance stipulates that the EPA can interdependently consider two components to support an attainment determination: air quality monitoring data and air quality modeling data.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">2014_SO2_Guidance,</E>
                         at 62.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Beaver County NAA contains one operational SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     monitor site, located in Brighton Township (Air Quality System (AQS) Site ID 42-007-0005). The Brighton monitor has been in operation since 1994 when active SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     sources and emissions within the area were substantially different than current conditions, due to facility shutdowns in more recent years. Since the 2013-2015 period, the Brighton monitor has been in attainment of the 2010 1-hour primary SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS with the most recent design value for the 2021-2023 period measuring 5 parts per billion (ppb), though this design value did not meet data completeness requirements. Previously, PADEP also operated a second SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     monitor in the vicinity of the Beaver NAA. The Hookstown monitor (AQS Site ID 42-007-0002) was located approximately 4.5 miles southwest of the edge of the Beaver NAA and was in operation from 1983 until 2022. The Hookstown monitor was in attainment of the 2010 1-hour primary SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS since the 2010-2012 period with the most recent design value for the 2020-2022 period measuring 11 ppb, though this design value did not meet data completeness requirements. Design values for both the Brighton and Hookstown monitors are reported in Table 1 in this document.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="11" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,10,10,10,10,10,10,10,10,10,10">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Table 1—2014-2023 SO
                        <E T="0732">2</E>
                         Design Values for Beaver County Nonattainment Area Monitor Sites
                    </TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Parts per billion]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Monitor site</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2012-2014</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2013-2015</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2014-2016</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2015-2017</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2016-2018</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2017-2019</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2018-2020</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2019-2021</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2020-2022</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2021-2023</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Brighton</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 109</ENT>
                        <ENT>39</ENT>
                        <ENT>33</ENT>
                        <ENT>27</ENT>
                        <ENT>22</ENT>
                        <ENT>17</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 6</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 5</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Hookstown</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 31</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                        <ENT>27</ENT>
                        <ENT>21</ENT>
                        <ENT>21</ENT>
                        <ENT>17</ENT>
                        <ENT>16</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 13</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 11</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* Indicates year in which the design value did not meet data completeness requirements.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    Pennsylvania's 2017 attainment plan contained an attainment demonstration which utilized allowable SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emission limits from stationary sources within the Beaver County NAA to inform several modeling analyses for SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                      
                    <PRTPAGE P="34817"/>
                    emissions.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These modeling analyses were based on emissions limits for large, stationary sources of SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    , which, when enacted, would ensure that the Beaver County NAA would attain the 2010 1-hour primary SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS. The 2014 SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     Guidance states that the EPA may make a determination of attainment based on this attainment plan modeling, eliminating the need for separate actual emissions-based modeling to support a redesignation request—provided that the source characteristics are still reasonably represented and that the control strategy in the SIP has been fully implemented.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">Beaver County September 2017 Attainment Plan,</E>
                         available in the docket for this action.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">2014_SO_Guidance,</E>
                         at 50.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Since Pennsylvania's 2017 submittal of this attainment plan modeling—which EPA approved in 2019 (84 FR 51988, October 1, 2019)—operations at large, stationary SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     sources within the Beaver County NAA have changed, but the EPA has determined that source characteristics are reasonably represented. Specifically, the 2019 closure of the Bruce Mansfield facility has reduced SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions within the Beaver County NAA by approximately 4,427 tons per year from 2018 levels. Conversely, the Shell ethane cracker, which utilized an emission rate of 21 tons per year in the attainment plan modeling, was permitted an increased emission limit of 22.4 tons per year—though, it should be recognized that the Shell facility has not emitted greater than 1 ton of SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     per year since coming online. Despite these changes, the source characteristics are still reasonably represented as the closure of the Bruce Mansfield facility leads to a modeled overestimation of actual operations of SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     sources within the Beaver County NAA and the 1.4 ton per year increase to the Shell ethane cracker permitted limit is negligible in the context of the approximately 4,427 ton per year reduction from the Bruce Mansfield closure.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The 2014 SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     Guidance further states that a demonstration that the control strategy in the SIP has been fully implemented will also be pertinent for making the determination of attainment.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Pennsylvania has submitted information detailed in its redesignation request and maintenance plan to confirm that the control strategy outlined in the SIP has been fully implemented. Specific measures identified in the control strategy include emissions restrictions at the Bruce Mansfield facility and reactivation restrictions at the Allegheny and Tsingshan Stainless Acquisition Melt Shop, which was shut down in 2018.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As the Bruce Mansfield facility has closed and the Allegheny and Tsingshan Stainless Melt Shop facility has since been permanently removed from service, these facilities are in compliance with the proposed control strategy.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These implemented permanent and federally enforceable control measures have aided in reducing the actual total emissions from large, stationary SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     sources in the Beaver County NAA to 4,539 tons per year (as of 2018),
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which is well below the revised total emissions limits proposed for Beaver County NAA facilities in the 2017 attainment demonstration modeling (32,420 tons per year),
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thus contributing to bringing the Beaver County NAA into attainment. The closure of the Bruce Mansfield facility in 2019 led to an additional reduction of approximately 4,427 tons of SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     from 2018 levels, bringing current total SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions in the Beaver County NAA closer to approximately 100 tons per year.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         Ibid.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         The Allegheny and Tsingshan Stainless facility was transferred to Allegheny and Tsingshan Stainless LLC by Jewel Acquisition on February 27, 2018. Supplemental information in the docket for this action may refer to this facility as under ownership of either Allegheny and Tsingshan Stainless or Jewel.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         Documentation of these closures is in 
                        <E T="03">Beaver_SO2_RR_and_MP_App_B_Facilities,</E>
                         available in the docket for this action.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">Beaver_SO2_RR_and_MP,</E>
                         at 12.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">Beaver County September 2017 Attainment Plan,</E>
                         at 14.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As the source characteristics within the Beaver County NAA are still reasonably represented and the control strategy in the SIP has been fully implemented, the EPA may make a determination of attainment based on this attainment plan modeling. In this action, the EPA proposes to find that the air quality modeling data demonstrate that the Beaver County NAA has attained the 2010 1-hour primary SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS, with the air quality monitoring data further supporting this conclusion.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Criterion (2)—Pennsylvania Has a Fully Approved SIP Under Section 110(k)</HD>
                <P>
                    CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(ii) requires that the EPA fully approve the applicable implementation plan for the area under CAA section 110(k) in order to redesignate that area to attainment. An area cannot be redesignated to attainment if a required element of the SIP is the subject of a disapproval; a finding of failure to submit, or failure to implement the SIP; or a partial, conditional, or limited approval.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The 2017 attainment plan SIP was initially proposed for EPA approval on October 5, 2018 
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and received final EPA approval on October 1, 2019.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The approved elements from the 2017 attainment plan include a 2011 base year emissions inventory, a control strategy and air quality modeling demonstration, a reasonable available control measures/reasonably available control technology (RACM/RACT) analysis, a reasonable further progress (RFP) analysis, contingency measures, and nonattainment new source review (NNSR) regulations. As such, the EPA has fully approved the applicable Pennsylvania SIP for the Beaver County NAA under section 110(k) of the CAA for all requirements applicable for purposes of redesignation.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">2014_SO2_Guidance,</E>
                         at 64.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         83 FR 50314, October 5, 2018.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         84 FR 51988, October 1, 2019.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                    C. Criterion (3)—The Air Quality Improvement in the Beaver County SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     Nonattainment Area is Due to Permanent and Enforceable Reductions in Emissions
                </HD>
                <P>For redesignating a nonattainment area to attainment, CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(iii) requires the EPA to determine that the air quality improvement in the area is due to permanent and enforceable reductions in emissions resulting from implementation of the SIP, applicable Federal air pollution control regulations, and other permanent and enforceable reductions. The EPA proposes to find that Pennsylvania has demonstrated that the requirements of CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(iii) have been met.</P>
                <P>
                    Specifically, the closures of multiple facilities aided in a substantial decrease in SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions, and consequently, lower SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     concentrations in the Beaver County NAA. These closures include the following shutdowns: the Horsehead/Monaca Smelter in 2013, the AES Beaver Valley facility in 2015, the Allegheny and Tsingshan Stainless Melt Shop in 2018, and the Bruce Mansfield facility in 2019.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Collectively, these closures account for a reduction of approximately 26,458 tons of SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emitted per year from 2011 levels.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Calcagni Memo states that “[e]mission reductions from source shutdowns can 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34818"/>
                    be considered permanent and enforceable to the extent that those shutdowns have been reflected in the SIP and all applicable permits have been modified accordingly,” and therefore these shutdowns are considered permanent and enforceable.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Furthermore, the recently constructed Shell ethane cracker and the nearby IPSCO Koppel facility have had SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions limits included in their operating permits to preserve air quality improvements in the Beaver County NAA.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         Documentation of the closures of the Horsehead/Monaca Smelter and AES Beaver Valley are in 
                        <E T="03">Beaver County September 2017 Attainment Plan_App_A_Facility_Closures,</E>
                         available in the docket for this action. Documentation of the closures of the Allegheny and Tsingshan Stainless Melt Shop and the Bruce Mansfield facility are in 
                        <E T="03">Beaver_SO2_RR_and_MP_App_B_Facilities,</E>
                         available in the docket for this action.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         Based on reported 2011 SO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         emissions from these facilities, see 
                        <E T="03">Beaver_SO2_RR_and_MP,</E>
                         at 12.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">Calcagni_Memo,</E>
                         at 10.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         Documentation of each facility's operating permit is in 
                        <E T="03">Beaver_SO2_RR_and_MP_App_B_Facilities.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Collectively, facility closures and the permitted SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions rates resulted in an actual decrease of approximately 22,052 tons of SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emitted per year from 2011 to 2018. This is approximately an 83% reduction from 2011 levels of 26,622 tons of SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emitted per year.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As this reduction comes from facility closures and permit-controlled emission limits, the EPA proposes to find the air quality improvement in the Beaver County NAA to be due to permanent and enforceable reductions in emissions.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">Beaver_SO4_RR_and_MP,</E>
                         at 11.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                    D. Criterion (4)—The Beaver County SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     Nonattainment Area Has a Fully Approved Maintenance Plan Pursuant to Section 175A of the CAA
                </HD>
                <P>
                    To redesignate a NAA to attainment, CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(iv) requires the EPA to determine that the area has a fully approved maintenance plan pursuant to section 175A of the CAA. In conjunction with its request to redesignate the Beaver County NAA to attainment for the 2010 1-hour primary SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS, the State submitted a SIP revision to provide for the maintenance of the 2010 1-hour primary SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS for at least 10 years after the effective date of redesignation to attainment. The EPA is proposing to find that this maintenance plan meets the requirements for approval under section 175A of the CAA.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Maintenance Plan Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    CAA section 175A sets forth the elements of a maintenance plan. Under section 175A, the plan must demonstrate continued attainment of the applicable NAAQS for at least 10 years after the Administrator approves a redesignation request to attainment. Eight years after the redesignation, the State must submit a revised maintenance plan demonstrating that attainment will continue to be maintained for an additional 10 years following the initial 10-year period. To address the possibility of future NAAQS violations, the maintenance plan must contain contingency measures as the EPA deems necessary to assure prompt correction of any future NAAQS violations, here the 2010 1-hour primary SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS. As noted above, the Calcagni Memo provides further guidance on the content of a maintenance plan, explaining that a maintenance plan should address five requirements: (1) the attainment emissions inventory; (2) maintenance demonstration; (3) monitoring; (4) verification of continued attainment; and (5) a contingency plan.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As discussed in detail below, the EPA is proposing to determine that Pennsylvania's submitted maintenance plan meets the requirements in CAA section 175A and is thus proposing to approve it as a revision to the Beaver County portion of the Pennsylvania SIP.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">Calcagni_Memo,</E>
                         at pp. 8-13.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Attainment Emissions Inventory</HD>
                <P>
                    In a maintenance plan, states are required to submit an emissions inventory to identify the level of emissions in the area which is sufficient to attain and maintain the relevant NAAQS, which is called the attainment inventory. This inventory is used as the basis for future, projected emission inventories that are used to show the area will remain in attainment. Pennsylvania submitted a 2018 SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions inventory as the attainment inventory with its maintenance plan. This represented a year in which SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions were at levels required to demonstrate attainment of the 2010 SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For the 2018 attainment year inventory, Pennsylvania directly used point source emissions reported to Pennsylvania for 2018, except for the Heritage Valley Beaver heliport,
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which was projected from the 2017 National Emission Inventory (NEI).
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The point source emissions for the Beaver County NAA were verified against the EPA's emissions inventory system (EIS) and the EPA found them to be acceptable. Projected emissions for area sources in 2018 were estimated from the 2017 NEI emission data and growth factors developed by the Mid-Atlantic Regional Air Management Association (MARAMA), Inc. These growth factors are developed based on forecasts from various databases and tools, including the Energy Information Administration's 2019 and 2020 Annual Energy Outlook, the 2016 NEI Collaborative data for the rail and the oil and gas Source Classification Codes, and other sources that are detailed in the submitted maintenance plan.
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Area source emissions were estimated based on the relative percentage of the Beaver County population residing in the Beaver County NAA and the resulting factor allocated the appropriate fraction of the County's total emissions to the Beaver County NAA.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         Referred to as MCBC heliport in 
                        <E T="03">Beaver_SO2_RR_and_MP.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         The NEI is a comprehensive and detailed estimate of air emissions of criteria pollutants, criteria precursors, and hazardous air pollutants from air emissions sources. The NEI is released every three years based primarily upon data provided by State, local, and Tribal air agencies for sources in their jurisdictions and supplemented by data developed by the U.S. EPA, available at 
                        <E T="03">www.epa.gov/air-emissions-inventories/national-emissions-inventory-nei.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">Beaver_SO2_RR_and_MP,</E>
                         at 18.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Nonroad and onroad mobile source emissions for 2017 were obtained from the EPA's Motor Vehicle Emissions Simulator (MOVES) model, specifically the MOVES2014b version. PADEP executed the MOVES2014b modeling runs for nonroad mobile sources and utilized a contractor to run the model for onroad mobile source emissions.</P>
                <P>
                    Projected inventories from the attainment inventory demonstrate that the area will continue to remain in attainment throughout the first maintenance period. Pennsylvania developed 2028 and 2036 emission projections for the interim and maintenance plan end year, respectively. Projected emissions for these years—as well as the base year inventory—are available in Table 2 in this document. Projected emissions for point and area sources were estimated, as previously described for area sources, from the 2017 NEI and growth factors developed by MARAMA. Point sources that have shut down since the 2018 base year were excluded from the 2028 and 2036 projections, namely the Bruce Mansfield facility. Nonroad and onroad mobile source emissions for the projected years 2028 and 2036 were estimated from the MOVES2014b version. MOVES2014b modeling runs were once again executed by PADEP for nonroad mobile source emissions and by the contractor for onroad mobile source emissions. Additional details on some of the assumptions and inputs to the model are available in the redesignation request and its associated Appendices C5 and C6.
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">Beaver_SO2_RR_and_MP,</E>
                         at 21; 
                        <E T="03">Beaver_SO2_RR_and_MP_App_C5_Mobile_inv_narrative;</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">Beaver_SO2_RR_and_MP_App_C6_Mobile_Beaver_SO2_Summary.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="34819"/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,12,15,20">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Emissions Inventories for the Beaver County Nonattainment Area </TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>
                        [Tons of SO
                        <E T="0732">2</E>
                         per year]
                    </TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Sector</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            2018 Actual
                            <LI>emissions</LI>
                            <LI>(base year)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            2028 Projected
                            <LI>emissions</LI>
                            <LI>(interim year)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            2036 Projected
                            <LI>emissions</LI>
                            <LI>(maintenance year)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Point Sources</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,539</ENT>
                        <ENT>80</ENT>
                        <ENT>94</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Area Sources</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Nonroad Mobile Sources</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Onroad Mobile Sources</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,544</ENT>
                        <ENT>87</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 101</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* Discrepancy in summed emissions is due to rounding.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Maintenance Demonstration</HD>
                <P>
                    The Calcagni memo describes two ways for a State to demonstrate maintenance of the NAAQS for a period of at least 10 years following the redesignation of the area: (1) the State can show that future emissions of a pollutant will not exceed the level of the attainment inventory, or (2) the State can model to show that the future mix of sources and emission rates will not cause a violation of the standard.
                    <SU>36</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Pennsylvania's projected actual emissions for the interim year of 2028 and for the maintenance year of 2036 are both below the total attainment inventory, which is acceptable for showing maintenance in the Beaver County NAA, as shown in Table 2 in this document.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">Calcagni_Memo,</E>
                         at 9.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Monitoring Network</HD>
                <P>
                    The 2014 SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     Guidance indicates that once an area has been redesignated to attainment, the state should continue to operate an appropriate air quality monitoring network as provided under 40 CFR part 58 to verify the attainment status of the area. Pennsylvania has committed to continued operation of its SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     monitoring network in the Beaver County NAA to verify the attainment status. Also, Pennsylvania will continue to submit an annual monitoring network plan to the EPA for approval, in accordance with 40 CFR 58.10. No changes will be made to the existing network unless pre-approved by the EPA. The EPA proposes to find that these measures are sufficient for purposes of the maintenance plan.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Verification of Continued Attainment</HD>
                <P>
                    The 2014 SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     Guidance states that each air agency should ensure that it has the legal authority to implement and enforce all measures necessary to attain and maintain the 2010 SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS. The air agency's submittal should indicate how it will track the progress of the maintenance plan for the area either through air quality monitoring or modeling.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Pennsylvania Air Pollution Control Act (APCA) section 4(27) grants PADEP the legal authority to implement all measures necessary to enforce the APCA, including maintaining the 2010 1-hour primary SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS. In addition, PADEP has indicated it will track the progress of the maintenance plan through an integrated approach utilizing air quality monitoring data and emissions inventories.
                </P>
                <P>
                    As previously indicated, PADEP will continue to operate its SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     monitoring network to verify the attainment status of the Beaver County NAA. PADEP will also use emissions inventories—developed annually for major point sources and triennially for area and mobile sources—to assess emissions trends. PADEP has also committed to submitting an additional SIP revision 8 years following redesignation to establish the Commonwealth's plan for maintaining the 2010 SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS for an additional 10 years, as required by CAA section 175A(b).
                </P>
                <P>The EPA proposes to find that these proposed measures will provide for verifying continued attainment within the Beaver County NAA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Contingency Measures</HD>
                <P>Section 175A(d) of the CAA requires that a maintenance plan include such contingency measures as the EPA deems necessary to assure that the State will promptly correct a violation of the NAAQS that occurs after redesignation. The maintenance plan should identify the contingency measures to be adopted, a schedule and procedure for adoption and implementation, and a time limit for action by the State. A State should also identify specific indicators to be used to determine when the contingency measures need to be implemented. The maintenance plan must also include a requirement that a State will continue to implement all measures with respect to control of the pollutant that were contained in the SIP before redesignation of the area to attainment.</P>
                <P>
                    Pennsylvania has committed to continuing implementation of all applicable measures indicated in the SIP after redesignation of the Beaver County NAA.
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Furthermore, Pennsylvania has identified a triggering indicator for its contingency measures, a schedule for implementing these potential measures, and has specified potential options to correct any NAAQS violation.
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">Beaver_SO2_RR_and_MP,</E>
                         at 23.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">Beaver_SO2_RR_and_MP,</E>
                         at 23 and 
                        <E T="03">Beaver County September 2017 Attainment Plan,</E>
                         at 37-39.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     monitoring data will serve as the primary trigger for any responses to prevent or correct a NAAQS violation in the Beaver County NAA. If a 1-hour daily maximum concentration exceeding 75 ppb is registered at a PADEP-operated SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     monitor in the Beaver County NAA, PADEP will proceed with an investigation and enforcement, as appropriate. The 2017 attainment plan details that within 5 business days of the identified exceedance, the PADEP Bureau of Air Quality monitoring division will contact the Air Resource Management Division Chief and the Southwest Regional Office Air Program Manager to report the monitored data. If it is deemed necessary to take action, section 4(27) of the Pennsylvania APCA authorizes PADEP to take any action it deems necessary, such as the issuance of orders to take corrective action and the assessment of civil penalties.
                </P>
                <P>
                    As the 2036 projected inventory estimates approximately 100 tons of SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions per year compared to the approximately 4,500 tons of SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     emissions per year in the 2018 attainment year inventory, it is not expected that there will be a future monitor exceedance in the Beaver County NAA. Nevertheless, Pennsylvania has committed to adopting and implementing corrective actions, as necessary and appropriate.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34820"/>
                </P>
                <P>The EPA proposes to find that these contingency measures are sufficient. Consistent with the above proposed findings, the EPA proposes to find that Pennsylvania's submitted maintenance plan meets the requirements set forth in CAA section 175A and EPA guidance, and is proposing to approve the maintenance plan as a revision to the Pennsylvania SIP.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Criterion (5)—Pennsylvania Has Met All Applicable Requirements Under Section 110 and Part D of Title I of the CAA</HD>
                <P>In accordance with section 107(d)(3)(E)(v) of the CAA, to redesignate the Beaver County NAA to attainment, Pennsylvania must meet all requirements applicable to the Beaver County NAA under CAA section 110 (general SIP requirements) and part D of title I of the CAA (SIP requirements for nonattainment areas).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Section 110 General Requirements for SIPs</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to CAA section 110(a)(1), whenever new or revised NAAQS are promulgated, the CAA requires States to submit a plan (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     SIP) for the implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of such NAAQS. Section 110(a)(2) of title I of the CAA contains the general requirements for a SIP, also known as “infrastructure” requirements. These requirements include, but are not limited to, the following: submittal of a SIP that has been adopted by the state after reasonable public notice and hearing; provisions for establishment and operation of appropriate procedures needed to monitor ambient air quality; implementation of a source permit program; provisions for the implementation of part C requirements (Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD)) and provisions for the implementation of part D requirements (Nonattainment New Source Review (NNSR) permit programs); provisions for air pollution modeling; and provisions for public and local agency participation in planning and emission control rule development.
                </P>
                <P>
                    CAA section 110(a)(2)(D) requires that SIPs contain certain measures to prevent sources in a state from significantly contributing to air quality problems in another state. To implement this provision, the EPA has required certain states to establish programs to address the interstate transport of air pollutants.
                    <SU>39</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The section 110(a)(2)(D) requirements for a state are not linked with a particular nonattainment area's designation and classification in that state. The EPA has concluded that the requirements linked with a particular nonattainment area's designation and classifications are the relevant measures to evaluate in reviewing a redesignation request. The transport SIP submittal requirements, where applicable, continue to apply to a state regardless of the designation of any one particular area in the state. Thus, the EPA has concluded that the CAA's interstate transport requirements should not be construed to be applicable requirements for purposes of redesignation.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         See Nitrogen Oxides (NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                        ) SIP Call and amendments to the NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         SIP Call (64 FR 26298, May 14, 1999 and 65 FR 11222, March 2, 2000), and the Cross-State Air Pollution Rule (CSAPR) Update (81 FR 74504, October 26, 2016).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In addition, the EPA has concluded other section 110 elements—those that are neither connected with nonattainment plan submissions nor linked with an area's attainment status—are not applicable requirements for purposes of redesignation. The area will still be subject to these requirements after the area is redesignated. The section 110 and part D requirements which are linked with a particular area's designation and classification are the relevant measures to evaluate in reviewing a redesignation request. This approach is consistent with the EPA's existing policy on applicability (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     for redesignations) of conformity and oxygenated fuels requirements, as well as with section 184 ozone transport requirements. See Reading, Pennsylvania, proposed and final rules (61 FR 53174-53176, October 10, 1996), (62 FR 24826, May 7, 2008); Cleveland-Akron-Loraine, Ohio, final rule (61 FR 20458, May 7,1996); and Tampa, Florida, final rule (60 FR 62748, December 7, 1995). See also the discussion on this issue in the Cincinnati, Ohio, redesignation (65 FR 37890, June 19, 2000), and in the Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania, redesignation (66 FR 50399, October 19, 2001).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The EPA approved elements of Pennsylvania's June 15, 2014 SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     infrastructure SIP submittal on August 5, 2015.
                    <SU>40</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As explained previously, certain general requirements of CAA section 110(a)(2) are statewide requirements that are not linked to the nonattainment status of the Beaver County NAA and are therefore not “applicable requirements” for the purpose of reviewing Pennsylvania's redesignation request. Because Pennsylvania satisfies the general SIP elements and requirements set forth in CAA section 110(a)(2) applicable to and necessary for SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     redesignation with the EPA's August 5, 2015 approval of the infrastructure SIP, the EPA proposes to conclude that Pennsylvania has satisfied the criterion of section 107(d)(3)(E)(v) related to section 110(a)(2) of the CAA.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         80 FR 46494, August 5, 2015.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Part D Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    In addition to the CAA section 110 requirements, section 107(d)(3)(E)(v) requires that the state meet all the requirements applicable to the nonattainment area “under part D of this subchapter” for the nonattainment area to be redesignated. Both section 107 and part D are within Title 1 of the CAA. Part D, entitled “Plan Requirements for Nonattainment Areas,” consists of six subparts, of which only subparts 1 and 5 are applicable to SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     nonattainment areas. Subpart 1 (sections 171 through 179B) contains provisions that can apply to all nonattainment areas for all criteria pollutants, while subpart 5 (sections 191 and 192) contains additional provisions for SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    , NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    , or lead nonattainment areas. The requirements applicable to this redesignation regarding the 2010 SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS are discussed below, as applicable to SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Subpart 1 Requirements</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Section 172 Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    CAA section 172 requires states with nonattainment areas to submit plans that provide for timely attainment of the NAAQS. More specifically, CAA section 172(c) contains general requirements for nonattainment plans. A thorough discussion of these requirements is found in the General Preamble for Implementation of title I.
                    <SU>41</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>41</SU>
                         57 FR 13498, April 16, 1992.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As noted in the General Preamble, certain attainment-related planning requirements under CAA section 172(c) no longer have meaning for an area that is already attaining the NAAQS, and therefore are not applicable for purposes of redesignation. For example, for an area that is already attaining the NAAQS, there would be nothing for the State to provide to show reasonable further progress to attainment in that area. Similarly, the CAA section 172 requirements for the attainment demonstration, implementation of reasonably available control measures, including reasonably available control technology, and contingency measures that are triggered if an area fails to meet RFP or fails to attain are also not applicable for purposes of redesignation.</P>
                <P>
                    With respect to CAA section 172(c)(3), Pennsylvania was required to submit an actual current emissions inventory with its attainment plan.
                    <SU>42</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Pennsylvania had 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34821"/>
                    submitted a base year inventory with its attainment plan SIP on September 29, 2017 and the EPA approved this element on October 1, 2019.
                    <SU>43</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         With respect to CAA section 172(c)(5), Pennsylvania is required to have a permit program 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        for the construction and operation of new or modified major stationary sources within the nonattainment area. Discussion on this requirement is provided in section II.E.2.a.2. “Section 173 Requirements,” in this document.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>43</SU>
                         84 FR 51988, October 1, 2019.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Section 173 Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 173 of the CAA includes requirements for permit programs that are required in a nonattainment area for new sources as required by section 172(c)(5), known as nonattainment new source review (NNSR). However, the EPA has a longstanding interpretation that because the NNSR permit program is replaced by the prevention of significant deterioration (PSD) permit program upon an area's redesignation to attainment, nonattainment areas seeking redesignation to attainment do not need a fully approved part D NNSR program to be redesignated. A more detailed rationale for this view is described in a memorandum from Mary Nichols, Assistant Administrator for Air and Radiation, dated October 14, 1994, entitled, “Part D New Source Review Requirements for Areas Requesting Redesignation to Attainment.” 
                    <SU>44</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Nevertheless, the EPA notes that Pennsylvania's Code has SIP-approved NNSR and PSD programs found at 25 Pa. Code 127.201-127.218 for NNSR and at 25 Pa. Code 127.81-127.83 for PSD. Pennsylvania's PSD regulations merely incorporate by reference the Federal PSD regulations found at 40 CFR part 52. Beaver County has therefore addressed all required provisions for the permitting of sources in NAAs, including NNSR. See 40 CFR 52.2020(c). Pennsylvania's PSD program will become applicable for SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     in the Beaver County NAA if redesignation to attainment is finalized.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         Available in the docket for this action as 
                        <E T="03">Nichols_Memo</E>
                         and at 
                        <E T="03">www.epa.gov/sites/default/files/2015-07/documents/101494m.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Section 175A Requirements</HD>
                <P>CAA section 175A requires that states seeking redesignation of an area to attainment submit a “maintenance plan” containing certain elements. Pennsylvania included a maintenance plan for the Beaver County NAA with its August 12, 2024 redesignation request, which the EPA is proposing to approve in conjunction with the redesignation, and it is discussed in detail in section II.D, Criterion (4) of this document.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Section 176 Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 176(c) of the CAA requires that Federal actions conform to the air quality planning goals in the applicable SIP. The requirement to determine conformity applies to transportation plans, programs, and projects that are developed, funded, or approved under title 23 of the United States Code and the Federal Transit Act (transportation conformity) as well as to all other Federally-supported or funded projects (general conformity). Section 176(c) of the CAA also requires that states establish criteria and procedures to ensure that Federally-supported or funded transportation plans, transportation improvement programs (TIPs) and projects conform to the goals of the applicable SIP. This is referred to as a transportation conformity SIP. In the preamble to the January 1993 proposed transportation conformity rule, the EPA stated that, “[b]ased on available emissions information, EPA believes highway and transit motor vehicles are not significant sources of lead or sulfur dioxide. Therefore, transportation plans, TIPs, and projects are presumed to conform to the applicable implementation plans for these pollutants.” 
                    <SU>45</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In November 1993, the EPA finalized its transportation conformity regulations. One section of those regulations addressed the geographic applicability of the transportation conformity regulations. The regulation stated at that time that, “[t]he provisions of this subpart apply with respect to emissions of the following criteria pollutants: Ozone, carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, and particles with an aerodynamic diameter less than or equal to a nominal 10 micrometers (PM
                    <E T="52">10</E>
                    ).” 
                    <SU>46</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Based on this provision, transportation conformity does not apply in nonattainment or maintenance areas for SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    . Therefore, a transportation conformity SIP is not required for SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     nonattainment and maintenance areas and is not necessary for an SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     nonattainment area to be redesignated to attainment, and the EPA's transportation conformity rules do not apply to SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     for the Beaver County NAA.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>45</SU>
                         58 FR 3776, January 11, 1993.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>46</SU>
                         This provision has been revised to include particles with an aerodynamic diameter less than or equal to a nominal 2.5 micrometers (PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                        ). See 40 CFR 93.102(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Section 179 Requirements</HD>
                <P>Section 179(a) of the CAA addresses potential sanctions for the failure of a State to submit certain required SIP elements by statutory deadlines. The EPA is not aware of any missing or incomplete Beaver County planning elements subject to section 179(a) of the CAA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Subpart 5 Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    The subpart 5 requirements, which consist of sections 191 and 192 of the CAA, are specific provisions applicable to SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    , NO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     or lead nonattainment areas. Section 191 of the CAA requires states with areas designated nonattainment for SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    , NO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     or lead after November 15, 1990, to submit within 18 months of the designation an implementation plan meeting the requirements of part D.
                    <SU>47</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The substance of the required plans is established by section 172(c). Section 192 sets forth attainment dates for nonattainment areas under section 191.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>47</SU>
                         Pennsylvania submitted this attainment plan on September 29, 2017, and EPA finalized approval of this SIP revision on October 1, 2019. Additional background on this process is provided in section I.B. “
                        <E T="03">Relevant Historical SIP Actions,”</E>
                         in this document.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    , CAA section 192(a) requires that attainment plans provide for attainment of the primary Standard as expeditiously as possible, but no later than five years from the date of the nonattainment designation. The EPA designated the Beaver County NAA as nonattainment on August 5, 2013, with an attainment date of October 4, 2018. However, because the EPA is reviewing a redesignation request under CAA section 107(d)(3)(E), rather than a determination of attainment under CAA section 179(c), the determination of whether the Area attained by the attainment date set forth in section 192 is not applicable to this action proposing approval of Pennsylvania's redesignation request.
                </P>
                <P>Based on the above, the EPA is proposing to find that Pennsylvania has satisfied the applicable requirements for the redesignation of the Beaver County NAA under section 110 and part D of title I of the CAA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Proposed Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The EPA's review of this material indicates that the Beaver County NAA has met the criteria necessary under CAA section 107(d)(3)(E) for the EPA to redesignate the Beaver County NAA from nonattainment to attainment for the 2010 SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS. Accordingly, the EPA is proposing to approve Pennsylvania's redesignation request for the Beaver County NAA, which was submitted on August 12, 2024. Final approval of Pennsylvania's redesignation request would change the legal designation of the portion of Beaver County designated nonattainment at 40 CFR 81.339 to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34822"/>
                    attainment for the 2010 1-hour SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS. Essential to the potential redesignation, the EPA is also proposing to approve Pennsylvania's maintenance plan, which is designed to ensure that the potentially redesignated Beaver County NAA will continue to maintain the SO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                     NAAQS for ten years following potential redesignation. The EPA is soliciting public comments on the issues discussed in this document. These comments will be considered before taking final action.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Clean Air Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by State law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) because SIP actions are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866:</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a state program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act.</P>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>
                        <E T="03">40 CFR Part 52</E>
                    </CFR>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides.</P>
                    <CFR>
                        <E T="03">40 CFR Part 81</E>
                    </CFR>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Amy Van Blarcom-Lackey,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region III.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13946 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>49 CFR Part 393</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2014-0083; Docket No. FMCSA-2022-0004]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2126-AB63</RIN>
                <SUBAGY>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>49 CFR Part 571</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. NHTSA-2016-0087]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2127-AK92</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards; Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations; Parts and Accessories Necessary for Safe Operation; Speed Limiting Devices; Withdrawal</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) and National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM); advance notice of supplemental proposed rulemaking (ANSPRM); withdrawal.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA and NHTSA withdraw the September 7, 2016 joint NPRM that proposed to require that heavy vehicles (those with a gross vehicle weight rating (GVWR) of more than 11,793 kilograms (26,000 pounds)) be equipped with a speed limiting device that is maintained at a set speed. FMCSA also withdraws its May 4, 2022 ANSPRM, which announced FMCSA's intent to proceed with a speed limiter rulemaking. The ANSPRM stated that FMCSA was preparing a supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (SNPRM) to propose that motor carriers operating commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce with a gross vehicle weight or GVWR of at least 11,794 kilograms (26,001 pounds), whichever is greater, and that are equipped with an engine control unit (ECU) capable of governing the maximum speed, be required to limit the CMV to a speed to be determined by the rulemaking and to maintain that ECU setting for the service life of the vehicle. In light of significant policy and safety concerns and continued data gaps that create considerable uncertainty about the estimated costs, benefits, and other impacts of the proposed rule, FMCSA and NHTSA have decided to withdraw the proposal.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA and NHTSA withdraw the NPRM published September 7, 2016, at 81 FR 61942 as of July 24, 2025. FMCSA withdraws the ANSPRM published May 4, 2022, at 87 FR 26317 as of July 24, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">FMCSA:</E>
                         Mr. David Sutula, Chief, Vehicle and Roadside Operations Division, FMCSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001; (202) 366-2551; 
                        <E T="03">MCPSV@dot.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">NHTSA:</E>
                         Mr. Markus Price, Office of Vehicle Rulemaking; (202) 366-1810; 
                        <E T="03">markus.price@dot.gov;</E>
                         or Mr. David Jasinski, Office of Chief Counsel; 
                        <E T="03">david.jasinski@dot.gov.</E>
                         Mailing address of these officials: NHTSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On September 7, 2016, in response to separate petitions 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     from the American 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34823"/>
                    Trucking Associations (ATA) and Schneider National, Inc. et al. (including 9 other ATA-member motor carriers), NHTSA and FMCSA issued a joint NPRM proposing to require heavy vehicles with a GVWR of more than 11,793 kilograms (26,000 pounds) be equipped with a speed limiting device initially set to a speed no greater than a speed to be specified in a final rule. NHTSA and FMCSA also proposed to require motor carriers operating such vehicles in interstate commerce to maintain the speed limiting devices for the service life of the vehicle (81 FR 61942). NHTSA and FMCSA requested comment on speeds ranging from 60 to 68 miles per hour (mph). The estimated economic impacts of the joint NPRM varied widely based upon the set speed, with annual costs ranging from $209 million to $1.561 billion. The Agencies also estimated that, at a 65 mph set speed, the proposed rule would save between 63 and 214 lives annually, monetized at between $716 million and $2.4 billion using both the value of statistical life in 2013 as well as economic costs and would also result in $848 million in fuel and emissions savings based on then-current price estimates.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         These petitions were granted. By granting a petition, NHTSA and FMCSA agreed to commence a rulemaking action, which was accomplished by publishing the NPRM. The ATA petition can be found at 
                        <E T="03">
                            https://www.regulations.gov/document/
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            NHTSA-2007-26851-0005
                        </E>
                         and the Schneider National, Inc. et al. petition can be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/NHTSA-2007-26851-0001.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The NPRM was based on a review of the available data, which suggested that limiting the speed of these heavy vehicles would reduce the severity of crashes involving these vehicles. However, NHTSA and FMCSA were not able to estimate the effects of speed reduction on the number of crashes occurring (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     collision avoidance), and the proposal did not include estimated costs or benefits related to crash reductions or increases. The NPRM sought comment on the analysis of the costs and benefits of amending the Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards (FMVSS) and Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) to require speed limiting devices and their usage.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Comments were solicited on the NPRM for a total of 90 days, ending December 7, 2016. A total of 7,225 comments were received by that date 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     from individuals, motor carriers, industry organizations, and advocacy groups.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         FMCSA received a total of 4,633 comments, and NHTSA received a total of 2,592 comments.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of Comments to the NPRM</HD>
                <P>
                    Individual drivers supporting the NPRM discussed a variety of topics. Many drivers of light vehicles (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     vehicles with a GVWR of less than 3,856 kilograms (8,500 pounds)) supported the NPRM, stating that it would contribute to overall driving safety. They gave numerous examples of perceived dangerous driving by heavy vehicles based upon personal experiences and asserted that slowing down heavy vehicles would improve safety. Many individuals who responded in favor of the NPRM indicated that the rule should be expanded to apply to all heavy vehicles that already have speed governing equipment installed by the manufacturer.
                </P>
                <P>Individual drivers opposed to the NPRM raised concerns about a host of potential impacts. The most common concern was about the potential speed differential between speed-limited heavy vehicles and light vehicles. Commenters indicated the relative differences in vehicle speeds could lead to more interactions between heavy vehicles heavy and light vehicles and could lead to increased or risky driving behavior by light vehicles trying to pass the slower heavy vehicles. Many commenters stated that the proposed requirements would slow traffic in general, particularly if two speed-limited heavy vehicles tried to pass one another. Some commenters stated that speed limiters would lead to increased speeding by heavy vehicles on surface streets with lower speed limits due to drivers trying to make up time. Others stated that the proposed rule would amount to government over-regulation, and result in increased costs for the trucking industry and slower overall delivery times. Commenters suggested increasing training for both heavy truck and light vehicle drivers as well as the alternative of increasing enforcement of existing speed limit laws.</P>
                <P>The comments received from industry and advocacy groups were also mixed. Those in favor of the proposed rule, like Coach USA, supported a 68 mph speed limit, indicating that, as of December 2016, they have been using speed limiters in their fleet of buses for about 10 years, and that their speed limiters are set to 68 mph. The Insurance Institute for Highway Safety (IIHS) supported the NPRM, stating that lowering speeds would also lower the kinetic energy of crashes (thus reducing injuries), and that speed differentials already exist between trucks and cars on the highway. IIHS stated that the rule should require speed limiters to be added to existing heavy vehicles. Some opposing the rule, like the Michigan Department of Transportation (MDOT), stated that it would set a national speed limit for trucks, preempting State laws. MDOT also stated that the increased speed differential between heavy vehicles and light vehicles would possibly lead to more crashes. The Owner-Operator Independent Drivers Association (OOIDA) stated that speed limiters would increase driver fatigue and “[t]he agencies have made no attempt to examine the externalities of a speed limiter mandate other than to evaluate the societal costs incurred at the event of a heavy vehicle crash, whereas congestion costs are largely omitted.”</P>
                <P>In the NPRM, three different speed limits were analyzed for heavy vehicles: 60, 65, and 68 mph. Analysis was conducted on each speed limit with the predicted improvement to safety given for each speed. The NPRM requested that commenters indicate which speed would be most appropriate. Relatively few of the commenters responded to this request. Among those that did, the preferred speed was nearly evenly split among the three proposed speeds.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FMCSA ANSPRM</HD>
                <P>
                    On May 4, 2022, FMCSA published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (87 FR 26317) an ANSPRM announcing the Agency's intent to proceed with a speed limiter rulemaking to follow up on the joint 2016 NPRM. The ANSPRM explained that FMCSA intended to issue an SNPRM that, if adopted, would impose speed limitations on certain CMVs subject to the FMCSRs. Specifically, the Agency indicated that it would propose to require motor carriers to limit speeds for certain CMVs operated in interstate commerce that were already equipped with an electronic engine control unit (ECU) capable of setting speed limits. The maximum speed of affected CMVs was to be determined by the rulemaking, and motor carriers would have been required to maintain that maximum limit in the ECU for the service life of the vehicle.
                </P>
                <P>
                    FMCSA solicited comments concerning the ANSPRM for a total of 75 days, ending July 18, 2022. A total of 15,638 comments were received by that date. The comments were from individuals, motor carriers, industry associations, safety advocacy groups, technology developers, governmental entities, and research organizations. The issues raised by commenters to the ANSPRM, both supporting and opposing, were largely identical to those raised by commenters to the 2016 NPRM. Public comments were varied in both support and opposition to the proposals discussed in the ANSPRM. In many cases, a given commenter argued both in support of certain provisions of a proposed rule and in opposition to other provisions. Commenters included CMV drivers, trucking and bus companies, industry associations, safety 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34824"/>
                    organizations, technology developers, a research institute, and a non-law enforcement governmental entity. The comments and FMCSA responses are organized topically and summarized below.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Support for Moving Forward With the Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Overall, approximately 300 comments provided some type of support for continued development of the proposals described in the ANSPRM. Commenters supporting the notice generally identified increased highway safety and positive impacts on truck drivers, the trucking industry, the economy, and the environment as reasons to support the ECU carrier-based approach. Commenters that included a government entity, safety organizations, and industry organizations, such as The Trucking Alliance, National Safety Council, Safe Operating Speed Alliance, C.R. England, Inc, National Transportation Safety Board, Truckload Carriers Association (TCA), The Law Firm for Truck Safety LLP, Institute for Safer Trucking, and Road Safe America supported the implementation of required speed limiter technology throughout the trucking industry in order to increase highway safety overall for all drivers and vehicles. Certain commenters, including Road Safe America, TCA, The Law Firm for Truck Safety LLP, and Advocates, supported using speed limiting devices and stated that the technology has been around for some time. A few even suggested maximum speeds to be considered in a proposed rulemaking. The Law Firm for Truck Safety LLP supported the ANSPRM and cited the positive impacts the proposal would have on truck drivers based on interviews of truck drivers conducted in the summer of 2022.</P>
                <P>Certain individuals and safety organizations believed that the proposals would improve fuel efficiency and provide positive impacts on the environment. These commenters included The Law Firm for Truck Safety, LLP, and IIHS, which also supported the ANSPRM from a carrier-based approach.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Opposition to Moving Forward With the Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>More than 15,000 comments included statements opposing the rulemaking. Some questioned FMCSA's authority and whether the proposal would reduce highway safety by creating speed differentials and increasing traffic congestion. The opponents also cited potential impacts on the industry, driver pay, the economy, and the environment.</P>
                <P>Commenters questioning FMCSA's statutory authority included the Texas Public Policy Foundation and several industry organizations, including OOIDA; AWM Associates, LLC; and SSTL Inc. Numerous individuals, companies and industry organizations such as OOIDA, United Parcel Service, and Real Women in Trucking, cited concerns that there would be a reduction in highway safety due to speed differentials and traffic congestion that would potentially reduce drivers' ability to merge or pass and would thereby increase traffic, which could lead to fatigue, aggressive driving, and other less safe driving situations.</P>
                <P>Several commenters, including OOIDA, indicated that limiting a truck's speed would have adverse impacts on driver's' incomes, because reducing travel speeds would reduce the number of miles traveled as well as the number of pick-ups and deliveries. Other commenter issues included higher fuel costs, impacts to driver well-being and ease of parking due to additional hours a driver might have to spend driving to complete a job. Those commenters included OOIDA, the American Bus Association, and the Kansas Livestock Association. There were similar concerns regarding impacts to the trucking industry, economy, and environment. Numerous agricultural organizations and many individuals expressed concerns related to supply chain issues that they stated would place small business owners at a disadvantage in meeting deadlines. Many individual commenters also expressed concern that the proposal would cause drivers to leave the industry, which many noted is already experiencing a driver shortage.</P>
                <P>A few commenters also expressed opposition to a carrier-based approach, stating that most vehicle crashes are caused by passenger cars, and some even suggested training drivers in all license classes to be aware of CMVs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rationale for Withdrawal</HD>
                <P>NHTSA and FMCSA have determined that the 2016 NPRM lacks a sufficiently clear and compelling safety justification for its implementation and raises significant concerns regarding federalism. NHTSA and FMCSA's research and analyses contained significant data gaps regarding potential safety benefits and economic impacts, and information obtained through the public comment process did not provide the information necessary to proceed to a final rule. NHTSA and FMCSA therefore withdraw the September 7, 2016 NPRM. For the same reasons, FMCSA also withdraws the May 4, 2022 ANSPRM.</P>
                <P>The benefits estimation in the NPRM was based on the value of equivalent lives saved, plus property damage reduction, plus fuel savings. This analysis had limitations, which together create significant uncertainty regarding its conclusions.</P>
                <P>
                    First, considering advancements made in crash avoidance technologies in recent years, NHTSA and FMCSA believe there is a large degree of uncertainty about the baseline number of crashes (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the crashes projected to occur without the rulemaking in the future), which calls into question the magnitude of the estimated safety benefits of the rulemaking. In particular, rear-end crashes involving heavy vehicles (where the truck is the striking vehicle) could be reduced by crash avoidance technologies designed to mitigate or prevent such crashes, such as automatic emergency braking (AEB) and forward collision warning (FCW).
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     An increasing percentage of vehicles, including heavy vehicles, will be equipped with crash avoidance technologies in the future as more fleet owners purchase trucks with those technologies.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         These technologies are being installed on both passenger vehicles and heavy vehicles and will thus potentially alter impact speeds in complex ways as all vehicles achieve more efficient braking capability than reflected in the current on-road fleet.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         In 2020, the market share rate of AEB was estimated to be less than 50 percent of new class 8 truck sales. (See the report, “Research and Testing to Accelerate Voluntary Adoption of Automatic Emergency Braking (AEB) on Commercial Vehicles,” 
                        <E T="03">https://rosap.ntl.bts.gov/view/dot/49335.</E>
                        ) Also see the discussion of projected AEB penetration rates in chapter 4 of the Preliminary Regulatory Impact Analysis for the joint NHTSA and FMCSA NPRM on heavy vehicle AEB (2127-AM36, 2126-AC49) at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/document/NHTSA-2023-0023-0009.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On October 16, 2015, NHTSA granted a petition for rulemaking to establish a safety standard to require automatic forward collision avoidance and mitigation systems on certain heavy vehicles (80 FR 62487). On July 6, 2023, NHTSA and FMCSA published a joint NPRM proposing to adopt a new FMVSS to require AEB systems on heavy vehicles, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     vehicles with a GWVR greater than 4,536 kilograms (10,000 pounds), and new FMCSRs to require mandated AEB and electronic stability control (ESC) systems to be active during vehicle operation (88 FR 43174). An AEB system uses multiple sensor technologies and sub-systems that work together to sense when the vehicle is in a crash imminent situation and applies the vehicle brakes automatically if the driver has not done 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34825"/>
                    so or applies more braking force automatically to supplement the driver's applied braking. The NPRM followed NHTSA's 2015 grant of the petition mentioned above. The NPRM also responded to a mandate under section 23010 of the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act (IIJA) (Pub. L. 117-58, 135 Stat. 429, 766, Nov. 15, 2021). IIJA section 23010 directs the Department to prescribe an FMVSS that requires heavy CMVs with an FMVSS-required electronic stability control (ESC) system to be equipped with an AEB system. IIJA section 23010 further directs the Department to prescribe an FMCSR that requires such heavy CMVs to use their FMVSS-mandated AEB systems at any time the CMV is operating. The NPRM proposed FMCSRs requiring the ESC and AEB systems to be active during vehicle operation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    NHTSA and FMCSA believe a portion of the crashes that they assumed would be mitigated by speed limiters may also be mitigated by AEB and FCW systems. ATA commented that safety technologies such as AEB and adaptive cruise control have evolved since the publication of the 2016 NPRM and may mitigate some of the concerns about speed differentials, productivity, and safety. Both ATA and Road Safe America advocated for establishing a higher speed limiter setting of 70 mph for vehicles equipped with and using AEB and AEC. However, OOIDA 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and an anonymous commenter expressed concern that AEB triggers false or unexpected activation of the brake system and causes dangerous driving situations. Because advanced crash avoidance technologies that could prevent or mitigate crashes affected by the 2016 NPRM were not considered, the baseline in the analysis may not accurately project potential safety benefits and costs of speed limiting devices. Regulation in this area should not proceed until a more certain assessment of the effect of advanced crash avoidance technologies can be made, which would inform the analysis of the potential impacts of speed limiter technologies. The voluntary development and adoption of new crash-avoidance technologies, such as AEB, demonstrates that markets are progressing toward goals similar to those a speed limiter regulation would be expected to achieve. All recently manufactured heavy vehicles come equipped with the speed limiting devices (in the form of ECUs); the withdrawal of the NPRM and ANSPRM has no impact on the ability of operators to use those devices to manage speeds. Various operators have set maximum speeds voluntarily, in part to realize many of the fuel-saving and assumed safety benefits that users attribute to the devices. The withdrawal of the proposal will have no effect on the availability of speed limiting devices and the ability of operators to limit the speed of their own vehicles if they so choose.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         OOIDA's March 2021 letter to Secretary Buttigieg may be found in the docket for this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Second, the NPRM did not include an estimate of crashes avoided or caused. It remains unclear whether implementing the NPRM would lead to a net increase in crashes, including those involving motorists striking the rear of CMVs at a device-limited speed, which NHTSA and FMCSA have been unable to quantify. Research varies on the topic of speed differentials and their impact on crash rates.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         VTRC, 
                        <E T="03">The Safety Impacts of Differential Speed Limits on Rural Interstate Highways,</E>
                         FHWA-HRT-04-156, Sept. 2004; Idaho Transportation Department Planning Division. 
                        <E T="03">Evaluation of the Impacts of Reducing Truck Speeds on Interstate Highways in Idaho,</E>
                         Phase III, Final Report Dec., 2000, National Institute for Advanced Transportation Technology University of Idaho.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The comments did not include any clear research not already cited in the 2016 NPRM that could be used to establish the safety impacts associated with crash avoidance characteristics of the proposed rule. NHTSA and FMCSA received some comments that referenced international studies that reported specific changes in crash rates during the time period for which speed limiting devices were implemented internationally; however, it is not clear that these rate changes can be attributed to speed limiting devices, or that the same crash rate changes could be anticipated for traffic conditions in the United States.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     One concern about international studies is that drivers behave differently in different countries and have different risk-tolerances. In addition, trucks in other countries may differ from those in the U.S. in terms of size and shape. Other comments referenced another study that was unable to provide specific quantitative risks associated with the installation of speed limiting devices and the risks associated with different car and truck travel speeds.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     NHTSA and FMCSA do not have reliable estimates of crash avoidance benefits based on trucks driving at lower speeds or of a possible reduction in safety resulting from the risks associated with speed differentials.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Comment from Advocates for Highway and Auto Safety, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/document/NHTSA-2016-0087-2216.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Gates, Timothy, et al. 
                        <E T="03">Safety and Operational Impacts of Differential Speed Limits on Two-Lane Rural Highways in Montana [Final Report].</E>
                         July 2016. Available at 
                        <E T="03">https://rosap.ntl.bts.gov/view/dot/31482.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Third, Executive Order (E.O.) 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review (58 FR 51735 (Oct. 4, 1993)), directs agencies to tailor their regulations to impose the least burden on society, including individuals and businesses of differing sizes, consistent with obtaining the regulatory objectives, considering, among other things, and to the extent practicable, the costs of cumulative regulations. The crash avoidance technologies under development may achieve the safety goals of this rulemaking better than a speed limiter requirement. The potential effects of the rulemaking on trucking commerce are difficult to predict because they would affect a wide range of economic activities, a limited subset of which were explored in the Preliminary Regulatory Impact Analysis (PRIA) and NPRM. As discussed in the PRIA and NPRM, NHTSA and FMCSA are unable to predict the secondary impacts of a speed limiter requirement, such as the rebound effect (as the fuel used per mile would likely decline) and driver wage rates (which have historically been based on miles, rather than hours, driven), which could have significant impacts on the trucking industry.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Moreover, NHTSA and FMCSA estimated that the rulemaking could put small owner-operators at a disadvantage in some circumstances, resulting in a reduction in profits (81 FR 61942, 61694).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The rebound effect is defined as “secondary impacts that are difficult to quantify because the response of manufacturers and drivers is difficult to predict.” See Preliminary Regulatory Impact Analysis and Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis FMVSS No. 140 Speed Limiting Devices. NHTSA Office of Regulatory Analysis and Evaluation, p. 167. This document can be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/document/NHTSA-2016-0087-0002.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Fourth, E.O. 14219, Ensuring Lawful Governance and Implementing the President's “Department of Government Efficiency” Deregulatory Initiative (90 FR 10583 (Feb. 25, 2025)), directs agencies to rescind regulations that are unlawful or undermine the National interest. It establishes classes of regulations that should be reviewed for rescission or modification, including “(iii) regulations that are based on anything other than the best reading of the underlying statutory authority or prohibition.” In light of comments from the Texas Public Policy Foundation and OOIDA stating that the 2016 NPRM would violate section 205(d) of the National Highway System Designation Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-59, 109 Stat. 568, 577, Nov. 28, 1995, which repealed the national maximum speed limit 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34826"/>
                    enacted in 1975 that was formerly codified at 23 U.S.C. 154), the proposed rule could be viewed as inconsistent with the prohibition on the adoption of traffic safety regulations in 49 U.S.C. 31147(a). Therefore, NHTSA and FMCSA believe it is appropriate to withdraw this rulemaking, consistent with the intent of E.O. 14219.
                </P>
                <P>Fifth, NHTSA and FMCSA are concerned about the uncertainty regarding industry response to daily driving distance limitations that could result from the rulemaking. Because the speeds under consideration were all below the legal speed limit applicable to these vehicles on many of the Nation's highways, the rulemaking would reduce the maximum potential distance a driver could theoretically travel in a single day within the maximum allowed hours of service if the driver is currently driving the maximum number of hours allowed by law. NHTSA and FMCSA assumed that industry would respond through a combination of increased driver efficiency and team driving when such response is feasible and practicable, but other responses, such as adding additional trucks to move the same amount of goods, might also occur. NHTSA and FMCSA did not consider the possibility that the rulemaking could result in an increase in the overall number of trucks required to be on the roads, which would lead to increased costs for those trucks, reduced overall fuel savings and environmental benefits, and possible safety disbenefits from greater exposure of drivers of light vehicles to vehicles with substantial speed differentials.</P>
                <P>Sixth, NHTSA and FMCSA attempted to estimate the aggregate economic value lost due to the depreciation of goods as a result of slower travel speeds but have been unable to consider how the cost would be distributed across industry sectors, particularly to deliveries that are time-sensitive, such as those in the agricultural industry. While commenters suggested that the rule would affect certain industry sectors disproportionately, they did not provide data to enable NHTSA and FMCSA to quantify this effect.</P>
                <P>Seventh, while NHTSA and FMCSA considered the costs to truck operators resulting from longer travel times, they have been unable to account for the potential delays and other costs to other road users, caused by factors such as decreased speed of other vehicles traveling resulting from an inability to pass slower moving heavy vehicles. Although the potential for delays to other road uses was an issue raised by many commenters, they did not provide data enabling NHTSA and FMCSA to quantify the magnitude of this effect.</P>
                <P>Finally, if implemented, the proposal could have, over time, displaced State authority to set speed limits for heavy vehicles, given that the speeds under consideration in the 2016 NPRM (60 mph, 65 mph, and 68 mph) are below the maximum posted daytime speed limits on many roads, including rural Interstates in over half of the States. Because many States have determined that it is safe for heavy vehicles to operate above 68 mph on certain roads, the rulemaking would, in effect, undercut the ability of those States to set the speed limits they have deemed appropriate on their roadways.</P>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, for the reasons discussed above, the NPRM published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on September 7, 2016 at 81 FR 61942, is hereby withdrawn. FMCSA also withdraws the May 4, 2022 ANSPRM. This action is considered a deregulatory action under E.O. 14192, Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation (90 FR 9065, Jan. 31, 2025), as it withdraws an NPRM that was issued before January 20, 2025 that was determined to be “significant” under E.O. 12866.
                </P>
                <P>Issued under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.87 concerning FMCSA, and 49 CFR 1.95, 501.4, and 501.5 concerning NHTSA.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>For FMCSA:</P>
                    <NAME>Sue Lawless,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Administrator.</TITLE>
                    <P>For NHTSA:</P>
                    <NAME>Peter Simshauser,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief Counsel.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13928 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
    </PRORULES>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>140</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, July 24, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Notices</UNITNAME>
    <NOTICES>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="34827"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding: whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology Comments regarding these information collections are best assured of having their full effect if received by August 25, 2025. Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function
                </P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agricultural Marketing Service</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Dairy Products Mandatory Sales Reporting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0581-0274.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Summary of Collection:</E>
                     The Mandatory Price Reporting Act of 2010 amended section 273(d) of the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946 (the Act), requiring the Secretary of Agriculture (Secretary) to establish an electronic reporting system for certain manufacturers of dairy products to report sales information under a mandatory dairy product reporting program.
                </P>
                <P>Data collection for cheddar cheese, butter, dry whey, or nonfat dry milk sales is limited to manufacturing plants producing annually 1 million pounds or more of one of the surveyed commodities specified in the mandatory reporting requirements of the Dairy Products Reporting Programs (7 CFR 1170.7 through 1170.12). AMS administers programs that facilitate the efficient, fair marketing of U.S. agricultural products, including food, fiber, and specialty crops. The data collected on these surveys enables AMS to report information in a timely manner and promote competition in the dairy industry. Additionally, the sales information reported is used by USDA to calculate minimum prices paid to dairy farmers or their cooperative associations for milk marketed through the Federal milk marketing order system. Finally, reports are used to verify compliance with marketing order regulations.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Need and Use of the Information:</E>
                     Survey respondents are required to submit weekly sales information through a secure internet connection using a username and password to report prices. After the respondent has logged onto the web-based software, they are directed to the appropriate electronic weekly product forms to be completed. The Dairy Products Sales Survey Annual Validation Worksheet is conducted in person and submitted on forms. Follow-ups, where necessary to obtain missing information, are conducted by phone. The forms being submitted for approval list the questions the respondents complete: total pounds sold, total dollars, and the price per pound. Data received from these surveys is used by USDA to calculate minimum prices for raw milk marketed through the Federal milk marketing order system. In addition, USDA publishes aggregate weekly market information based on survey results. This information is used by industry members to make informed decisions about the marketing of dairy products. During routine audits, USDA compares information reported on these forms with manufacturer records to verify compliance with DPMRP Regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description of Respondents:</E>
                     Businesses or other for profits—Cheddar Cheese, 40 lb. Blocks.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     180.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Responses:</E>
                     Reporting: On occasion; Weekly; Annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     1,397.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Levi S. Harrell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Departmental Information Collection Clearance Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13958 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 3410-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Nutrition Service</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National School Lunch, Special Milk, and School Breakfast Programs, National Average Payments/Maximum Reimbursement Rates</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Nutrition Service, USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This Notice announces the annual adjustments to the national average payments, the amount of money the Federal Government provides States for lunches, afterschool snacks, and breakfasts served to children participating in the National School Lunch and School Breakfast Programs; to the maximum reimbursement rates, the maximum per lunch rate from Federal funds that a State can provide a school food authority for lunches served to children participating in the National School Lunch Program; and to the rate of reimbursement for a half-pint of milk served to non-needy children in a school or institution that participates in the Special Milk Program for Children. The annual payments and rates adjustments for the National School Lunch and School Breakfast Programs reflect changes in the Food Away From Home series of the Consumer Price Index for All Urban 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34828"/>
                        Consumers. The annual rate adjustment for the Special Milk Program reflects changes in the Producer Price Index for Fluid Milk Products. Further adjustments are made to these rates to reflect higher costs of providing meals in Alaska, Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico, and Virgin Islands. The payments and rates are prescribed on an annual basis each July.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>These rates are in effect from July 1, 2025, through June 30, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Penny Burke, Branch Chief, Program Monitoring and Operational Support Division, Child Nutrition Programs, FNS USDA, 1320 Braddock Place, Suite 401, Alexandria, VA 22314, 720-822-8597.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Special Milk Program for Children</E>
                    —Pursuant to section 3 of the Child Nutrition Act of 1966, as amended (42 U.S.C. 1772), the Department announces the rate of reimbursement for a half pint of milk served to non-needy children in a school or institution that participates in the Special Milk Program for Children. This rate is adjusted annually to reflect changes in the Producer Price Index for Fluid Milk Products, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">National School Lunch and School Breakfast Programs</E>
                    —Pursuant to sections 11 and 17A of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act, (42 U.S.C. 1759a and 1766a), and section 4 of the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1773), the Department annually announces the adjustments to the National Average Payment Factors and to the maximum Federal reimbursement rates for lunches and afterschool snacks served to children participating in the National School Lunch Program and breakfasts served to children participating in the School Breakfast Program. Adjustments are prescribed each July 1, based on changes in the Food Away From Home series of the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the Department of Labor.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Lunch Payment Levels</E>
                    —Section 4 of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1753) provides general cash for food assistance payments to States to assist schools in purchasing food. The Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act provides two different section 4 payment levels for lunches served under the National School Lunch Program. The lower payment level applies to lunches served by school food authorities in which less than 60 percent of the lunches served in the school lunch program during the second preceding school year were served free or at a reduced price. The higher payment level applies to lunches served by school food authorities in which 60 percent or more of the lunches served during the second preceding school year were served free or at a reduced price.
                </P>
                <P>To supplement these section 4 payments, section 11 of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1759 (a)) provides special cash assistance payments to aid schools in providing free and reduced-price lunches. The section 11 National Average Payment Factor for each reduced-price lunch served is set at 40 cents less than the factor for each free lunch.</P>
                <P>As authorized under sections 8 and 11 of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1757 and 1759a), maximum reimbursement rates for each type of lunch are prescribed by the Department in this Notice. These maximum rates are to ensure equitable disbursement of Federal funds to school food authorities.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Performance-based Reimbursement</E>
                    —In addition to the funding mentioned above, school food authorities certified as meeting the meal pattern and nutrition standard requirements set forth in 7 CFR parts 210 and 220 are eligible to receive performance-based cash assistance for each reimbursable lunch served (an additional nine cents per lunch available beginning July 1, 2024, and adjusted annually thereafter).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Afterschool Snack Payments in Afterschool Care Programs</E>
                    —Section 17A of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1766a) establishes National Average Payments for free, reduced price and paid afterschool snacks as part of the National School Lunch Program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Breakfast Payment Factors</E>
                    —Section 4 of the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1773) establishes National Average Payment Factors for free, reduced price, and paid breakfasts served under the School Breakfast Program and additional payments for free and reduced-price breakfasts served in schools determined to be in “severe need” because they serve a high percentage of free and reduced eligible children.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adjusted Payments</HD>
                <P>
                    The following specific section 4, section 11, and section 17A National Average Payment Factors and maximum reimbursement rates for lunch, the afterschool snack rates, and the breakfast rates are in effect from July 1, 2025, through June 30, 2026. Due to a higher cost of living, the average payments and maximum reimbursements for Alaska, Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico, and Virgin Islands are higher than those for all other States. The District of Columbia uses figures specified for the contiguous States. These rates do not include the value of USDA Foods or cash-in-lieu of USDA Foods which schools receive as additional assistance for each meal served to participants under the Program. A notice announcing the value of USDA Foods and cash-in-lieu of USDA Foods is published separately in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>Adjustments to the national average payment rates for all lunches served under the National School Lunch Program, breakfasts served under the School Breakfast Program, and afterschool snacks served under the National School Lunch Program are rounded down to the nearest whole cent.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Milk Program Payments</HD>
                <P>For the period July 1, 2025, through June 30, 2026, the rate of reimbursement for a half pint of milk served to a non-needy child in a school or institution that participates in the Special Milk Program is 26.75 cents. This change is based on the 0.67 percent decrease in the Producer Price Index for Fluid Milk Products from May 2024 to May 2025.</P>
                <P>As a reminder, schools or institutions with pricing programs that elect to serve milk free to eligible children continue to receive the average cost of a half pint of milk (the total cost of all milk purchased during the claim period divided by the total number of purchased half pints) for each half pint served to an eligible child.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">National School Lunch Program Payments</HD>
                <P>
                    Overall, payments for the National School Lunch Program and the Afterschool Snack Program increased due to a 3.85 percent increase in the national average payment rates for schools and residential child care institutions for the period July 1, 2025, through June 30, 2026 in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for the Food Away From Home series during the 12-month period May 2024 to May 2025 (from a level of 367.099 in May 2024, as previously published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     to 381.228 in May 2025).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">These changes are reflected below.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Section 4 National Average Payment Factors</E>
                    —In school food authorities that served less than 60 percent free and reduced-price lunches in School Year 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34829"/>
                    (SY) 2023-2024, the payments for meals served are: 
                    <E T="03">Contiguous States</E>
                    —paid rate—44 cents (2 cents increase from the 2024-2025 rate), free and reduced price rate—44 cents (2 cents increase), maximum rate—52 cents (2 cents increase); 
                    <E T="03">Alaska</E>
                    —paid rate—71 cents (2 cents increase), free and reduced price rate—71 cents (2 cents increase), maximum rate—83 cents (4 cents increase); 
                    <E T="03">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico, and Virgin Islands</E>
                    —paid rate—57 cents (2 cents increase), free and reduced price rate—57 cents (2 cents increase), maximum rate—67 cents (3 cents increase).
                </P>
                <P>
                    In school food authorities that served 60 percent or more free and reduced price lunches in School Year 2023-2024, payments are: 
                    <E T="03">Contiguous States</E>
                    —paid rate—46 cents (2 cents increase), free and reduced price rate—46 cents (2 cents increase), maximum rate—52 cents (2 cents increase); 
                    <E T="03">Alaska</E>
                    —paid rate—73 cents (2 cents increase), free and reduced price rate—73 cents (2 cents increase), maximum rate—83 cents (4 cents increase); 
                    <E T="03">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Virgin Islands</E>
                    —paid rate—59 cents (2 cents increase), free and reduced price rate—59 cents (2 cents increase), maximum rate—67 cents (3 cents increase).
                </P>
                <P>School food authorities certified to receive the performance-based cash assistance will receive an additional 9 cents (adjusted annually) added to the above amounts as part of their section 4 payments.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Section 11 National Average Payment Factors</E>
                    —
                    <E T="03">Contiguous States</E>
                    —free lunch—4 dollars and 16 cent (15 cents increase from the SY 2024-2025 rate), reduced price lunch—3 dollars and 76 cents (15 cents increase); 
                    <E T="03">Alaska</E>
                    —free lunch—6 dollars and 74 cents (25 cents increase), reduced price lunch—6 dollars and 34 cents (25 cents increase); 
                    <E T="03">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Virgin Islands</E>
                    —free lunch—5 dollars and 41 cent (20 cents increase), reduced price lunch—5 dollars and 1 cent (20 cents increase).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Afterschool Snacks in Afterschool Care Programs</E>
                    —The payments are: 
                    <E T="03">Contiguous States</E>
                    —free snack—1 dollar and 26 cents (5 cents increase from the SY 2024-2025), reduced price snack—63 cents (3 cents increase), paid snack—11 cents (no change); 
                    <E T="03">Alaska</E>
                    —free snack-2 dollar and 4 cents (7 cent increase), reduced price snack—1 dollar and 2 cents (4 cents increase), paid snack—18 cents (no change); 
                    <E T="03">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Virgin Islands</E>
                    —free snack—1 dollar and 64 cents (6 cents increase), reduced price snack—82 cents (3 cents increase), paid snack—15 cents (1 cent increase)
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">School Breakfast Program Payments</HD>
                <P>
                    Overall, payments for the National School Breakfast Program increased due to a 3.85 percent increase in the national average payment rates for schools and residential child care institutions for the period July 1, 2025 through June 30, 2026 in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers in the Food Away from Home series during the 12-month period May 2024 to May 2025 (from a level of 367.099 in May 2024, as previously published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     to 381.228 in May 2025).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">These changes are reflected below.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    For schools “not in severe need” the payments are: 
                    <E T="03">Contiguous States</E>
                    —free breakfast—2 dollars and 46 cents (9 cents increase from the SY 2024-2025 rate), reduced price breakfast—2 dollars and 16 cents (9 cents increase), paid breakfast—40 cents (1 cent increase); 
                    <E T="03">Alaska</E>
                     free breakfast—3 dollars and 95 cents (15 cents increase), reduced price breakfast—3 dollars and 65 cents (15 cents increase), paid breakfast—62 cents (2 cents increase); 
                    <E T="03">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Virgin Islands</E>
                    —free breakfast—3 dollars and 18 cents (12 cents increase), reduced price breakfast—2 dollars and 88 cents (12 cents increase), paid breakfast—51 cents (2 cents increase).
                </P>
                <P>
                    For schools in “severe need” the payments are: 
                    <E T="03">Contiguous States</E>
                    —free breakfast—2 dollars and 94 cents (10 cents increase from the SY 2024-2025), reduced price breakfast—2 dollars and 64 cents (10 cents increase), paid breakfast—40 cents (1 cent increase); 
                    <E T="03">Alaska</E>
                    —free breakfast—4 dollars and 73 cents (17 cents increase), reduced price breakfast—4 dollars and 43 cents (17 cents increase), paid breakfast—62 cents (2 cents increase); 
                    <E T="03">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Virgin Islands</E>
                    —free breakfast—3 dollars and 81 cents (14 cents increase), reduced price breakfast—3 dollars and 51 cents (14 cents increase), paid breakfast—51 cents (2 cents increase).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Payment Chart</HD>
                <P>The following chart illustrates the lunch National Average Payment Factors with the sections 4 and 11 already combined to indicate the per lunch amount; the maximum lunch reimbursement rates; the reimbursement rates for afterschool snacks served in afterschool care programs; the breakfast National Average Payment Factors including severe need schools; and the milk reimbursement rate. All amounts are expressed in dollars or fractions thereof. The payment factors and reimbursement rates used for the District of Columbia are those specified for the contiguous States.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,9,9,9,9,9,9">
                    <TTITLE>School Programs—Meal, Snack and Milk Payments to States and School Food Authorities</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Expressed in dollars or fractions thereof; effective from: July 1, 2025-June 30, 2026]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            National School Lunch Program 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Less than
                            <LI>60%</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Less than
                            <LI>60% +</LI>
                            <LI>
                                9 cents 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            60% or
                            <LI>more</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            60% or
                            <LI>more</LI>
                            <LI>
                                + 9 cents 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Maximum
                            <LI>rate</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Maximum
                            <LI>rate +</LI>
                            <LI>
                                9 cents 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Contiguous States:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Paid</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.44</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.53</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.46</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.55</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.52</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.61</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Reduced Price</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.20</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.29</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.22</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.31</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.37</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.46</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Free</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.60</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.69</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.62</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.71</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.77</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.86</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Alaska:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Paid</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.71</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.80</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.73</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.82</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.83</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.92</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Reduced Price</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.05</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.14</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.07</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.16</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.31</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.40</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Free</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.45</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.54</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.47</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.56</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.71</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Virgin Islands:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Paid</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.57</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.66</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.59</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.68</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.67</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.76</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Reduced Price</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.58</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.67</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.60</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.69</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.79</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.88</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Free</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.98</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.07</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.09</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.19</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.28</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="34830"/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2(0,,),ns,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,18,18">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">School Breakfast Program</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Non-severe
                            <LI>need</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1"> Severe need</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Contiguous States:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Paid</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.40</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.40</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Reduced Price</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.16</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.64</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Free</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.46</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.94</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Alaska:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Paid</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.62</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.62</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Reduced Price</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.65</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.43</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Free</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.95</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.73</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Virgin Islands:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Paid</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.51</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.51</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Reduced Price</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.88</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.51</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Free</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.18</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.81</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2(0,,),ns,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,xs130">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Special Milk Program</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">All milk</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Paid milk</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Free milk</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pricing Programs Without Free Option</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.2675</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>N/A.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pricing Programs With Free Option</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.2675</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Average Cost Per 
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                             Pint of Milk.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Nonpricing Programs</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.2675</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>N/A.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2(0,,),ns,tp0,p1,8/9,i1" CDEF="s200,18">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">Afterschool Snacks Served in Afterschool Care Programs</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="22">Contiguous States:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Paid</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.11</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Reduced Price</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.63</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Free</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.26</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Alaska:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Paid</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.18</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Reduced Price</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.02</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Free</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.04</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Virgin Islands:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Paid</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.15</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Reduced Price</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.82</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Free</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.64</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Payment listed for Free and Reduced Price Lunches include both section 4 and section 11 funds.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Performance-based cash reimbursement (adjusted annually for inflation). 
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>This action is not a rule as defined by the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612) and thus is exempt from the provisions of that Act. This notice has been determined to be exempt under Executive Order 12866.</P>
                <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507), no new recordkeeping or reporting requirements have been included that are subject to approval from the Office of Management and Budget.</P>
                <P>National School Lunch, School Breakfast, and Special Milk Programs are listed in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance under No. 10.555, No. 10.553, and No. 10.556, respectively, and are subject to the provisions of Executive Order 12372, which requires intergovernmental consultation with State and local officials (See 2 CFR 415.3-415.6).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Sections 4, 8, 11, and 17A of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act, as amended, (42 U.S.C. 1753, 1757, 1759a, 1766a) and sections 3 and 4(b) of the Child Nutrition Act, as amended, (42 U.S.C. 1772 and 42 U.S.C. 1773(b)).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>James C. Miller,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator, Food and Nutrition Service, USDA.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13879 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-30-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Nutrition Service</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Child and Adult Care Food Program: National Average Payment Rates, Day Care Home Food Service Payment Rates, and Administrative Reimbursement Rates for Sponsoring Organizations of Day Care Homes for the Period July 1, 2025, Through June 30, 2026</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Nutrition Service, Agriculture (USDA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice announces the annual adjustments to the national average payment rates for meals and snacks served in child care centers, outside-school-hours care centers, at-risk afterschool care centers, and adult day care centers; the food service payment rates for meals and snacks served in day care homes; and the administrative reimbursement rates for sponsoring organizations of day care homes, to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index. Further adjustments are made to these rates to reflect the higher costs of providing meals in Alaska, Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands. The adjustments contained in this notice are made on an annual basis each July, as required by the laws and regulations governing the Child and Adult Care Food Program.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>These rates are in effect from July 1, 2025, through June 30, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Penny Burke, Branch Chief, Program Monitoring and Operational Support Division, Child Nutrition Programs, FNS USDA, 1320 Braddock Place, Suite 401, Alexandria, Virginia 22314, 720-822-8597.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to sections 4, 11, and 17 of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1753, 1759a and 1766), section 4 of the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1773) and 7 CFR 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34831"/>
                        226.4, 226.12 and 226.13 of the Program regulations, notice is hereby given of the new payment rates for institutions participating in the Child and Adult Care Food Program. As provided for under the law, all rates in the Child and Adult Care Food Program must be revised annually, on July 1, to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index (CPI), published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of Labor, for the most recent 12-month period. These rates are in effect during the period of July 1, 2025, through June 30, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adjusted Payments</HD>
                    <P>
                        The following national average payment factors and food service payment rates for meals and snacks are in effect from July 1, 2025, through June 30, 2026. All amounts are expressed in dollars or fractions thereof. Due to a higher cost of living, the reimbursements for Alaska, Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico, and Virgin Islands are higher than those for all other States. The District of Columbia uses the figures specified for the contiguous States. These rates do not include the value of USDA Foods or cash-in-lieu of USDA Foods, which institutions receive as additional assistance for each lunch or supper served to participants under the Program. A notice announcing the value of USDA Foods and cash-in-lieu of USDA Foods is published separately in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>Adjustments to the national average payment rates for all meals served under the Child and Adult Care Food Program are rounded down to the nearest whole cent.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">National Average Payment Rates for Centers</HD>
                    <P>
                        The changes in the national average payment rates for centers reflect a 3.85 percent increase during the 12-month period from May 2024 to May 2025 (from 367.099 in May 2024, as previously published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , to 381.228 in May 2025) in the Food Away From Home series of the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Payments for breakfasts served are: Contiguous States</E>
                        —paid rate—40 cents (1 cent increase from the 2024-2025 rate), reduced price rate—2 dollar and 16 cents (9 cents increase), free rate—2 dollars and 46 cents (9 cents increase); 
                        <E T="03">Alaska</E>
                        —paid rate—62 cents (2 cents increase), reduced price rate—3 dollars and 65 cents (15 cents increase), free rate—3 dollars and 95 cents (15 cents increase); 
                        <E T="03">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Virgin Islands</E>
                        —paid rate—51 cents (2 cents increase), reduced price rate-2 dollars and 88 cents (12 cents increase), free rate—3 dollars and 18 cents (12 cents increase).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Payments for lunch or supper served are: Contiguous States</E>
                        —paid rate—44 cents (2 cents increase), reduced price rate—4 dollars and 20 cents (17 cents increase), free rate—4 dollars and 60 cents (17 cents increase); 
                        <E T="03">Alaska</E>
                        —paid rate—71 cents (2 cents increase), reduced price rate—7 dollars and 5 cents (27 cents increase), free rate—7 dollars and 45 cents (27 cents increase); 
                        <E T="03">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Virgin Islands</E>
                        —paid rate—57 cents (2 cents increase), reduced price rate—5 dollars and 58 cents (22 cents increase), free rate—5 dollars and 98 cents (22 cents increase).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Payments for snacks served are: 
                        <E T="03">Contiguous States</E>
                        —paid rate—11 cents (no change), reduced price rate—63 cents (3 cents increase), free rate—1 dollar and 26 cents (5 cents increase); 
                        <E T="03">Alaska</E>
                        —paid rate—18 cents (no change), reduced price rate—1 dollar and 2 cents (4 cent increase), free rate—2 dollars and 4 cents (7 cents increase); 
                        <E T="03">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Virgin Islands</E>
                        —paid rate—15 cents (1 cent increase), reduced price rate—82 cents (3 cents increase), free rate—1 dollar and 64 cents (6 cents increase).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Food Service Payment Rates for Day Care Homes</HD>
                    <P>
                        The changes in the food service payment rates for day care homes reflect a 2.23 percent increase during the 12-month period from May 2024 to May 2025 (from 305.679 in May 2024, as previously published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , to 312.491 in May 2025) in the Food At Home series of the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Payments for breakfast served are: Contiguous States</E>
                        —Tier I—1 dollar and 70 cents (4 cent increase from the 2024-2025 rate) and Tier II—61 cents (1 cents increase); 
                        <E T="03">Alaska</E>
                        —Tier I—2 dollars and 72 cents (6 cents increase) and Tier II—95 cents (2 cent increase); 
                        <E T="03">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Virgin Islands</E>
                        —Tier I—2 dollar and 19 cents (5 cents increase) and Tier II—77 cents (1 cent increase).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Payments for lunch and supper served are: Contiguous States</E>
                        —Tier I—3 dollars and 22 cents (7 cents increase) and Tier II—1 dollar and 94 cents (4 cents increase); 
                        <E T="03">Alaska</E>
                        —Tier I—5 dollars and 22 cents (12 cents increase) and Tier II—3 dollars and 15 cents (7 cents increase); 
                        <E T="03">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Virgin Islands</E>
                        —Tier I—4 dollars and 18 cents (9 cents increase) and Tier II—2 dollar and 52 cents (5 cents increase).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Payments for snacks served are: Contiguous States</E>
                        —Tier I—96 cents (3 cent increase) and Tier II—26 cents (no change); 
                        <E T="03">Alaska</E>
                        —Tier I—1 dollar and 55 cents (3 cents increase) and Tier II—43 cents (1 cent increase); 
                        <E T="03">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Virgin Islands</E>
                        —Tier I—1 dollar and 24 cents (2 cents increase) and Tier II—34 cents (1 cent increase).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Reimbursement Rates for Sponsoring Organizations of Day Care Homes</HD>
                    <P>
                        The changes in the administrative reimbursement rates for sponsoring organizations of day care homes reflect a 2.35 percent increase during the 12-month period, May 2024 to May 2025 (from 314.069 in May 2024, as previously published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , to 321.465 in May 2025) in the series for All Items of the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Monthly administrative payments to sponsors for each sponsored day care home are: 
                        <E T="03">Contiguous States</E>
                        —Initial 50 homes—150 dollars (3 dollar increase from 2024-2025 annual level), next 150 homes—115 dollars (3 dollar increase), next 800 homes—89 dollars (2 dollar increase), each additional home—79 dollars (2 dollar increase); 
                        <E T="03">Alaska</E>
                        —Initial 50 homes—244 dollars (6 dollar increase), next 150 homes—186 dollars (5 dollar increase), next 800 homes—145 dollars (3 dollar increase), each additional home—128 dollars (3 dollar increase); 
                        <E T="03">Guam, Hawaii, Puerto Rico and Virgin Islands</E>
                        —Initial 50 homes—195 dollars (4 dollar increase), next 150 homes—149 dollars (4 dollar increase), next 800 homes—116 dollars (2 dollar increase), each additional home—102 dollars (2 dollar increase).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Payment Chart</HD>
                    <P>The following chart illustrates the national average payment factors and food service payment rates for meals and snacks in effect from July 1, 2025, through June 30, 2026.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-30-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="508">
                        <PRTPAGE P="34832"/>
                        <GID>EN24JY25.000</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>This action is not a rule as defined by the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612) and thus is exempt from the provisions of that Act. This notice has been determined to be exempt under Executive Order 12866.</P>
                    <P>Child and Adult Care Food Program is listed in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance under No. 10.558 and is subject to the provisions of Executive Order 12372, which requires intergovernmental consultation with State and local officials. (See 2 CFR 415.3-415.6).</P>
                    <P>This notice imposes no new reporting or recordkeeping provisions that are subject to OMB review in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3518).</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                         Sections 4(b)(2), 11a, 17(c) and 17(f)(3)(B) of the Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (42 U.S.C. 1753(b)(2), 1759a, 1766(f)(3)(B) and section 4(b)(1)(B) of the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1773(b)(1)(B)).
                    </P>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>James C. Miller,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Administrator, Food and Nutrition Service, USDA.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13892 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-30-C</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="34833"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Natural Resources Conservation Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID: NRCS-2025-0005]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Request for Renewal of a Currently Approved Information Collection; Composting and Food Waste Reduction (CFWR) Cooperative Agreements</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Urban Agriculture and Innovative Production, Natural Resources Conservation Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice invites the general public and other public agencies to comment on this proposed information collection. This collection is an extension, without change, of a currently approved collection for reporting progress on a Composting and Food Waste Reduction Cooperative Agreement.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments must be received on or before September 22, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments may be sent to: Sharonte Williams, Natural Resources Conservation Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 3737 Government St., Alexandria, LA 71302. Comments may also be submitted via fax to the attention of Sharonte Williams at 202-981-1653 or via email to 
                        <E T="03">sharonte.williams@usda.gov.</E>
                         Comments will also be accepted through the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for submitting comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments will be a matter of public record.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Requests for additional information or copies of this information collection should be directed to Sharonte Williams at 202-981-1653 or via email to 
                        <E T="03">sharonte.williams@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments are invited on:</E>
                     (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions that were used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Office of Urban Agriculture and Innovative Production (OUAIP) Reporting Form.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     NRCS-OUAIP-1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     0578-0033.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Expiration Date:</E>
                     12-31-2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Extension, without change, of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The 2018 Farm Bill authorized the FPAC mission area and NRCS to carry out pilot projects under which local and municipal governments enter into cooperative agreements to develop and test strategies for planning and implementing municipal composting plans and food waste reduction plans. The NRCS-OUAIP-1 form was created to ensure the standardization of data collection across projects to determine the efficiency and efficacy of program deliverables. The form is designed to increase collection efficientcy and ease the burden of recipient reporting through clearly defined data targets, no new reporting burden is being added.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     State, Local and Tribal Government: Local governments are the primary recipients of CFWR awards and will be exclusively affected but with no additional reporting requirments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     We expect 100 respondents to be affected, submitting reports directly to NRCS as part of the reporting requirments listed in their agreements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     See supporting document, varying responses per document.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     1,125.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     See supporting document, varying responses per document.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden on Respondents:</E>
                     281 non-exempt hours. See the table below for estimated total annual burden for respondents.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,14,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Respondent</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated number of
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Responses annually per respondent</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total annual responses (col. bxc)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated average number of hours per
                            <LI>response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated total hours
                            <LI>(col. dxe)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Reporting Burden</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">OUAIP Progress Report (OMB #0578-0033)</ENT>
                        <ENT>75</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>150</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>150</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Project Summary</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Negotiated Indirect Cost Rate Agreement (NICRA/De Minimus)—</ENT>
                        <ENT>75</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>75</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.25</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Notice of Award (signature only)</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.50</ENT>
                        <ENT>13</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Request for Advance or Reimbursement (OMB #4040-0012) *</ENT>
                        <ENT>75</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Application for Federal Assistance * (OMB #4040-0020)</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Budget Information for Non-Construction * (4040-0006)</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Federal Financial Report * (OMB #4040-0014)</ENT>
                        <ENT>75</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>150</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Certificate Regarding Lobbying (OMB #4040-0013) *</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.50</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Disclosure of Lobbying Activities (OMB #4040-0013) *</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Reporting Burden</ENT>
                        <ENT>750</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,125</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,157</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Aubrey Bettencourt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator, Natural Resources Conservation Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13941 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-16-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting of the New Mexico Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Announcement of Virtual Business Meetings.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34834"/>
                        the New Mexico Advisory Committee (Committee) to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a series of business meetings via ZoomGov on the following dates and times listed. The purpose of these meetings is for the Committee to discuss and finalize their report on immigrant detention centers in New Mexico.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>These business meetings will take place on:</P>
                </DATES>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Monday, July 28, 2025, from 1:00 p.m.-2:00 p.m. MT</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Thursday, August 28, 2025, from 12:00 p.m.-1:00 p.m. MT</FP>
                <P>Zoom Webinar Link to Join (Audio/Visual):</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • ** Monday, July 28th: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.zoomgov.com/webinar/register/WN_jZnsidvdSzm9CzqREwv8Rg</E>
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Thursday, August 28th: https://www.zoomgov.com/webinar/register/WN_4q77ec5uTmyRb7a8qADvXQ</FP>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Brooke Peery, Designated Federal Officer, at 
                        <E T="03">bpeery@usccr.gov</E>
                         or (202) 701-1376.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Committee meetings are available to the public through the registration link above. Any interested member of the public may listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Per the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Closed captioning will be available for individuals who are deaf, hard of hearing, or who have certain cognitive or learning impairments. To request additional accommodations, please email Angelica Trevino, Support Specialist, at 
                    <E T="03">atrevino@usccr.gov</E>
                     at least ten (10) days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Brooke Peery (DFO) at 
                    <E T="03">bpeery@usccr.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meetings will be available via 
                    <E T="03">www.facadatabase.gov</E>
                     under the Commission on Civil Rights, New Mexico Advisory Committee link. Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">http://www.usccr.gov,</E>
                     or may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at 
                    <E T="03">atrevino@usccr.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Welcome &amp; Roll Call</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Approval of Minutes</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Committee Discussion</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Public Comment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Adjournment</FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Exceptional Circumstance:</E>
                     Pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.150, the notice for this meeting is given less than 15 calendar days prior to the meeting due to availability of Committee members.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13940 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting of the Alaska Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), that the Alaska Advisory Committee (Committee) to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a virtual business meeting via Zoom on Friday, August 8, 2025, from 1:00 p.m. to 2:00 p.m. Alaska time. The purpose of this meeting is to discuss potential topics.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Friday, August 8, 2025, from 1:00 p.m.-2:00 p.m. Alaska Time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be held via Zoom Webinar.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Registration Link (Audio/Visual): https://www.zoomgov.com/j/1609472497.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Join by Phone (Audio Only):</E>
                         (833) 435-1820 USA Toll Free; Webinar ID: 160 947 2497.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Kayla Fajota, Designated Federal Officer (DFO) at 
                        <E T="03">kfajota@usccr.gov</E>
                         or (434) 515-2395.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Committee meetings are available to the public through the videoconference link above. Any interested member of the public may listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Per the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Closed captions will be provided for individuals who are deaf, hard of hearing, or who have certain cognitive or learning impairments. To request additional accommodations, please email Angelica Trevino, Support Services Specialists, at 
                    <E T="03">atrevino@usccr.gov</E>
                     at least 10 business days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Kayla Fajota (DFO) at 
                    <E T="03">kfajota@usccr.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meetings will be available via 
                    <E T="03">www.facadatabase.gov</E>
                     under the Commission on Civil Rights, Alaska Advisory Committee link. Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">http://www.usccr.gov,</E>
                     or may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at 
                    <E T="03">atrevino@usccr.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Welcome and Roll Call</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Presentation of Project Proposals</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Discussion: Concept Stage</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Next Steps</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Public Comment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Adjournment</FP>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13945 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6335-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="34835"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting of the Nebraska Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Announcement of meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the Nebraska Advisory Committee (Committee) to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a series of business meetings via web conference. The purpose of the meetings will be to discuss their draft report on the effects of the Covid-19 pandemic on education in the state.</P>
                </SUM>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be held via Zoom.</P>
                    <P>Thursday, August 21, 2025 from 11:30 a.m.-1:00 p.m. Central Time</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Registration Link</E>
                         (
                        <E T="03">Audio</E>
                        /
                        <E T="03">Visual</E>
                        ): 
                        <E T="03">https://www.zoomgov.com/webinar/register/WN_yWidX5HxSnS3HmG7r5bUuQ.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>• Join by Phone (Audio Only): 1-833-435-1820 USA Toll Free; Meeting ID: 161 063 6408.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Victoria Moreno, DFO, at 
                        <E T="03">vmoreno@usccr.gov</E>
                         or by phone at 434-515-0204.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Members of the public may listen to the discussions through the above call-in numbers (audio only) or online registration links (audio/visual). An open comment period at each meeting will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Individuals who are deaf, deafblind, and/or hard of hearing may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and meeting ID number.</P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public are entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meetings. Written comments may be emailed to Victoria Moreno at 
                    <E T="03">vmoreno@usccr.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meetings. Records of the meetings will be available via 
                    <E T="03">www.facadatabase.gov</E>
                     under the Commission on Civil Rights, Nebraska Advisory Committee link. Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">http://www.usccr.gov,</E>
                     or may contact the Regional Programs Unit at the above email or street address.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Welcome and Roll Call</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Chair's Comments</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Committee Business</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Public Comment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Adjournment</FP>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13951 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting of the Oregon Advisory Committee</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Announcement of virtual business meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) that the Oregon Advisory Committee (Committee) to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a virtual business meeting via ZoomGov on Thursday, July 31, 2025, from 12:30 p.m.-2:00 p.m. PT. The purpose of the meeting is to discuss and possibly vote on potential topics.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will take place on Thursday, July 31, 2025, from 12:30 p.m.-2:00 p.m. PT.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Webinar Zoom Registration Link (Audio/Visual): https://www.zoomgov.com/j/1602137224.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Join by Phone (Audio only):</E>
                         (833) 435-1820 USA Toll Free; Webinar ID: 160 213 7224.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Kayla Fajota, Designated Federal Officer (DFO) at 
                        <E T="03">kfajota@usccr.gov</E>
                         or by phone at (434) 515-2395.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Committee meetings are available to the public through the videoconference link above. Any interested member of the public may listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Per the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Closed captioning will be available for individuals who are deaf, hard of hearing, or who have certain cognitive or learning impairments. To request additional accommodations, please email Angelica Trevino, Support Services Specialist, 
                    <E T="03">atrevino@usccr.gov</E>
                     at least 10 business days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments can be sent via email to Kayla Fajota (DFO) at 
                    <E T="03">kfajota@usccr.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meetings will be available via 
                    <E T="03">www.facadatabase.gov</E>
                     under the Commission on Civil Rights, Oregon Advisory Committee link. Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">http://www.usccr.gov,</E>
                     or may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at 
                    <E T="03">atrevino@usccr.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Welcome and Roll Call</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Announcements</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Presentation of Project Proposals</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Discussion: Concept Stage</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Possible Vote: Project Topic</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Next Steps</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Public Comment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VIII. Adjournment</FP>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13942 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6335-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting of the South Carolina Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="34836"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, that the South Carolina Advisory Committee (Committee) to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a public business meeting via Zoom. The purpose of this meeting is to continue discussing potential civil rights topics of study.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Tuesday, August 5, 2025, from 1:00 p.m.-2:30 p.m. Eastern Time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be held via Zoom Webinar.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Registration Link (Audio/Visual): https://www.zoomgov.com/webinar/register/WN_cvWijf6LTju03Pa1GmkVWg.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Join by Phone (Audio Only):</E>
                         (833) 435-1820 USA Toll-Free; Meeting ID: 160 120 9713.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Victoria Moreno, Designated Federal Officer, at 
                        <E T="03">vmoreno@usccr.gov</E>
                         or (434) 515-0204.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This Committee meeting is available to the public through the registration link above. Any interested members of the public may attend this meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make oral comments as time allows. Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Closed captioning is available by selecting “CC” in the meeting platform. To request additional accommodations, please email 
                    <E T="03">svillanueva@usccr.gov</E>
                     at least 10 business days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public are entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the scheduled meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Sarah Villanueva at 
                    <E T="03">svillanueva@usccr.gov.</E>
                     Persons who desire additional information may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at (434) 515-0204.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meetings will be available via the file sharing website, 
                    <E T="03">https://bit.ly/3YnhKJx.</E>
                     Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">http://www.usccr.gov,</E>
                     or may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at 
                    <E T="03">svillanueva@usccr.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Welcome &amp; Roll Call</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Civil Rights Discussion</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Public Comment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Next Steps</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Adjournment</FP>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13943 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting of the Ohio Advisory Committee; Revision</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; revision of briefing time for August 19.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Commission on Civil Rights published a notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on Friday, July 11, 2025, concerning a panel briefing of the Ohio Advisory Committee. For this August 19th briefing, the meeting time has been revised to 1:30 p.m. Eastern Time from the original time of 12:00 p.m. Eastern Time.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mallory Trachtenberg, 
                        <E T="03">mtrachtenberg@usccr.gov</E>
                         or 1-202-809-9618.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Revision:</E>
                         In the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on Friday, July 11, 2025, in FR Document Number 2025-12929, on pages 30840, in the second and third columns, correct the meeting time to: Tuesday, August 19, 2025, from 1:30 p.m.-2:30 p.m. Eastern Time.
                    </P>
                    <SIG>
                        <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                        <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13949 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meetings of the Illinois Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public meetings.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, that the Illinois Advisory Committee (Committee) to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a public business meeting the last Wednesday of the month (August 2025 through October 2025) via Zoom at 3:00 p.m. CT. The purpose of these meetings is to discuss civil rights concerns in the state.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                </DATES>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Wednesday, August 27, 2025, from 3:00 p.m. to 4:30 p.m. Central Time</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Wednesday, September 24, 2025, from 3:00 p.m. to 4:30 p.m. Central Time</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Wednesday, October 29, 2025, from 3:00 p.m. to 4:30 p.m. Central Time</FP>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The meetings will be held via Zoom Webinar. Members of the public only need to register once.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Registration Link (Audio/Visual) for All Meetings: https://www.zoomgov.com/webinar/register/WN_LDjkSSL6S6mGKkjcBQ0uUQ.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Join by Phone (Audio Only) for All Meetings:</E>
                         (833) 435-1820 USA Toll-Free; Meeting ID: 161 970 8403.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ana Victoria Fortes, Designated Federal Officer, at 
                        <E T="03">afortes@usccr.gov</E>
                         or (202) 681-0857.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This committee meeting is available to the public through the registration link above. Any interested member of the public may listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Per the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any charges incurred. Callers will incur no charge for calls initiated over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Closed captioning will be available for individuals who are deaf, hard of hearing, or who have certain cognitive or learning impairments. To request additional accommodations, please email Liliana Schiller, Support Services Specialist, at 
                    <E T="03">lschiller@usccr.gov</E>
                     at least 10 business days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public are entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Ana Victoria Fortes at 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34837"/>
                    <E T="03">afortes@usccr.gov.</E>
                     Persons who desire additional information may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at (202) 681-0857.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meetings will be available via this file sharing website. Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">http://www.usccr.gov,</E>
                     or may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at the above phone number.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Welcome &amp; Roll Call</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Discussion: Civil Rights in Illinois</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Public Comment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Next Steps</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Adjournment</FP>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13944 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Census Bureau</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Decennial Census Temporary, Intermittent Applicant Information Collection</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    The Department of Commerce will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. We invite the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed, and continuing information collections, which helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. Public comments were previously requested via the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on December 6, 2024, during a 60-day comment period. This notice allows for an additional 30 days for public comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     U.S. Census Bureau, Department of Commerce.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Decennial Census Temporary, Intermittent Applicant Information Collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0607-XXXX.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number(s):</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Regular submission, New Information Collection Request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     11,970 job applicants, with an estimated 7,358 becoming job candidates.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     Job applicants = .61 hours and job candidates = .19 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Burden Hours:</E>
                     8,731.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     The Census Bureau is implementing an electronic Decennial Census Temporary, Intermittent Applicant Information Collection to gather information from job seekers needed to fill temporary, intermittent Decennial Census Program positions, starting with the 2026 Census Test. Questions used to qualify and select applicants for positions are in the job application information section of the collection. This section collects Social Security numbers, date of birth, contact information, citizenship status, selective service and veterans' preference status and documentation, Federal employment/annuity status, access to transportation, hours of availability and related job experience. The supplemental voluntary applicant information section includes questions found on the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission's (EEOC's) common use form 3046-0046, Demographic Information on Applicants for Federal Employment, developed to support EEOC Management Directive 715. The voluntary questions also include recruiting sources and education questions to help improve future recruiting efforts.
                </P>
                <P>This collection gathers basic information needed for all temporary, intermittent decennial positions, streamlining the application process for both the applicant and the Census Bureau, by allowing applicants to be considered for several positions with one set of application data. To further evaluate each applicant's fit for positions, as part of the Decennial Census Temporary, Intermittent Applicant Information Collection, applicants will answer position related assessment/test and self-response interview questions.</P>
                <P>The Census Bureau discontinued a similar collection for the Current Surveys, Special Census, and Decennial Census Programs under OMB No. 0607-0139.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Persons interested in working on decennial census operations/activities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     One response is needed from each interested applicant or candidate. If an applicant becomes a candidate for more than one position, one response is needed for each position, any questions previously answered will just need verification.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Legal Authority:</E>
                     Title 13, U.S.C, Chapter 1, Subchapter II, Section 23(a) and 23(c); Title 5 U.S.C., Part II Chapter 13; Title 5, U.S.C., Part III, Subpart B, Chapter 33, Subchapter I; Executive Order 9397; Executive Order 10566; Section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973; Title 5 U.S.C. Part III, Subpart F, Chapter 72, Subchapter I, Section 7201; 29 CFR part 1607.4, Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This information collection request may be viewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov.</E>
                     Follow the instructions to view the Department of Commerce collections currently under review by OMB.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function and entering the title of the collection.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sheleen Dumas,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Departmental PRA Compliance Officer, Office of the Under Secretary for Economic Affairs, Commerce Department.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13991 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-07-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[S-235-2025]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Foreign-Trade Zone 222; Application for Subzone; Ryder Integrated Logistics, Inc.; Hope Hull, Alabama</SUBJECT>
                <P>An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the Montgomery Area Chamber of Commerce, grantee of FTZ 222, requesting subzone status for the facility of Ryder Integrated Logistics, Inc., located in Hope Hull, Alabama. The application was submitted pursuant to the provisions of the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on July 21, 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed subzone (171.02 acres) is located at 7300 Celebration Way, Hope Hull, Alabama. No authorization for production activity has been requested at this time. The proposed subzone would be subject to the existing activation limit of FTZ 222.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34838"/>
                </P>
                <P>In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Juanita Chen of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to review the application and make recommendations to the Executive Secretary.</P>
                <P>
                    Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary and sent to: 
                    <E T="03">ftz@trade.gov</E>
                    . The closing period for their receipt is September 2, 2025. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted through September 17, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A copy of the application will be available for public inspection in the “Online FTZ Information Section” section of the FTZ Board's website, which is accessible via 
                    <E T="03">www.trade.gov/ftz</E>
                    . 
                </P>
                <P>
                    For further information, contact Juanita Chen at 
                    <E T="03">juanita.chen@trade.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Elizabeth Whiteman, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13948 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 a.m.] </FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[A-570-010, C-570-011]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Products, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, From the People's Republic of China: Final Results of Changed Circumstances Reviews, and Revocation of the Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Orders, in Part</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) is issuing the final results of changed circumstances review (CCR) of the antidumping duty (AD) and countervailing duty (CVD) orders on crystalline silicon photovoltaic products, whether or not assembled into modules (solar products), from the People's Republic of China (China) to revoke the order, in part, with respect to certain small, low-wattage, off-grid crystalline silicon photovoltaic (CSPV) cells.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable July 24, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Tyler O'Daniel, Office of Policy Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6030.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On February 18, 2015, Commerce published the AD and CVD orders on solar products from China.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On August 28, 2024, Lutron, a domestic producer, importer and exporter of subject merchandise, requested that Commerce conduct changed circumstances reviews (CCRs) to find that it is appropriate to revoke the 
                    <E T="03">Orders,</E>
                     in part, with respect to certain small, low-wattage, off-grid CSPV cells, pursuant to section 751(b)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), and 19 CFR 351.216(b).
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Lutron's CCR request included a letter from the American Alliance for Solar Manufacturing (the Alliance) (a coalition of domestic producers of solar cells), which stated that the Alliance did not oppose the partial revocation of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     proposed by Lutron.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On October 21, 2024, we published the notice of initiation of the requested CCRs.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In the 
                    <E T="03">Initiation Notice,</E>
                     we invited interested parties to provide comments and/or factual information regarding these CCRs, including comments on industry support and the proposed partial revocation language.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We received no comments or factual information.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Certain Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Products from the People's Republic of China: Antidumping Duty Order; and Amended Final Affirmative Countervailing Duty Determination and Countervailing Duty Order,</E>
                         80 FR 8592 (February 18, 2015) (
                        <E T="03">Orders</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Lutron's Letter, “Lutron Electronics Co., Inc.'s Request for Changed Circumstances Reviews and Request to Combine Initiation and Preliminary Results,” dated August 28, 2024 (CCR Request).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at Exhibit 2 and 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Products, Whether or Not Assembled into Modules, from the People's Republic of China: Notice of Initiation of Changed Circumstances Reviews, and Consideration of Revocation of the Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Orders, in Part,</E>
                         89 FR 84120 (October 21, 2024) (
                        <E T="03">Initiation Notice</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.,</E>
                         89 FR at 84121.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On April 28, 2025, Commerce preliminarily found that producers accounting for substantially all of the domestic production of the products to which the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     pertain lack interest in the relief provided by the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     with respect to CSPV cells, and announced its intention to revoke, in part, the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     with respect to these products.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commerce provided interested parties with the opportunity to comment and request a public hearing regarding the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results.</E>
                     Commerce did not receive any comments or a request for a hearing from interested parties. As a result, the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                     are hereby adopted as the final results of this CCR and no decision memoranda accompany this notice.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Products, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, From the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Results of Changed Circumstances Reviews, and Intent To Revoke the Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Orders, in Part,</E>
                         90 FR 17565 (April 28, 2025) (
                        <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Results of Changed Circumstances Reviews and Revocation of the Orders, in Part</HD>
                <P>
                    In light of Lutron's request, and domestic interested parties' lack of interest in maintaining the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     with respect to the products under consideration, Commerce continues to find, pursuant to sections 751(d)(1) and 782(h)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.222(g), that changed circumstances exist that warrant revocation of the Orders, in part. No interested party opposed this partial revocation. Moreover, no parties provided other information or evidence that calls into question the partial revocation described in the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Specifically, because producers accounting for substantially all the production of the domestic like product to which the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     pertain have not expressed interest in maintaining the relief provided by the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     with respect to CSPV cells, as described below, Commerce is revoking the 
                    <E T="03">Orders,</E>
                     in part, with respect to CSPV cells with the following physical characteristics:
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        Also excluded from the scope of these 
                        <E T="03">Orders</E>
                         are off-grid CSPV panels in rigid form, with or without a glass cover, permanently attached to an aluminum extrusion that is an integral component of an automation device that controls natural light, whether or not assembled into a fully completed automation device that controls natural light, with the following characteristics:
                    </P>
                    <P>1. A total power output of 20 watts or less per panel;</P>
                    <P>2. A maximum surface area of 1,000 cm2 per panel;</P>
                    <P>
                        3. Does not include a built-in inverter for powering third party devices.
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         CCR Request at 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The scope description below includes this new exclusion.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Orders</HD>
                <P>
                    The merchandise covered by these 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     is modules, laminates and/or panels consisting of crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, whether or not partially or fully assembled into other products, including building integrated materials. For purposes of these 
                    <E T="03">Orders,</E>
                     subject merchandise includes modules, laminates and/or panels assembled in China consisting of crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells produced in a customs territory other than China.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Subject merchandise includes modules, laminates and/or panels assembled in China consisting of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34839"/>
                    crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells of thickness equal to or greater than 20 micrometers, having a p/n junction formed by any means, whether or not the cell has undergone other processing, including, but not limited to, cleaning, etching, coating, and/or addition of materials (including, but not limited to, metallization and conductor patterns) to collect and forward the electricity that is generated by the cell.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Excluded from the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     are thin film photovoltaic products produced from amorphous silicon (a-Si), cadmium telluride (CdTe), or copper indium gallium selenide (CIGS).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Also excluded from the scope of these 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     are modules, laminates and/or panels assembled in China, consisting of crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, not exceeding 10,000 mm2 in surface area, that are permanently integrated into a consumer good whose function is other than power generation and that consumes the electricity generated by the integrated crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells. Where more than one module, laminate and/or panel is permanently integrated into a consumer good, the surface area for purposes of this exclusion shall be the total combined surface area of all modules, laminates and/or panels that are integrated into the consumer good.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Further, also excluded from the scope of these 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     are any products covered by the existing antidumping and countervailing duty orders on crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, whether or not assembled into modules, laminates and/or panels, from China.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, from the People's Republic of China: Amended Final Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value, and Antidumping Duty Order,</E>
                         77 FR 73018 (December 7, 2012); 
                        <E T="03">see also Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, from the People's Republic of China: Countervailing Duty Order,</E>
                         77 FR 73017 (December 7, 2012).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                  
                <P>
                    Additionally, excluded from the scope of these 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     are solar panels that are: (1) less than 300,000 mm2 in surface area; (2) less than 27.1 watts in power; (3) coated across their entire surface with a polyurethane doming resin; and (4) joined to a battery charging and maintaining unit (which is an acrylonitrile butadiene styrene (ABS) box that incorporates a light emitting diode (LED)) by coated wires that include a connector to permit the incorporation of an extension cable. The battery charging and maintaining unit utilizes high-frequency triangular pulse waveforms designed to maintain and extend the life of batteries through the reduction of lead sulfate crystals. The above-described battery charging and maintaining unit is currently available under the registered trademark “SolarPulse.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    Also excluded from the scope of these 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     are off-grid crystalline silicon photovoltaic panels without a glass cover with the following characteristics: (1) total power output of 500 watts or less per panel; (2) maximum surface area of 8,000 cm2 per panel; (3) unit does not include a built-in inverter; (4) unit has visible parallel grid collector metallic wire lines every 2-40 millimeters across each solar panel (depending on model); (5) solar cells are encased in laminated frosted PET material without stitching; (6) the panel is encased in polyester fabric with visible stitching which includes a Velcro-type storage pocket and unit closure, or encased within a Neoprene clamshell (depending on model); and (7) includes LED indicator.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Additionally excluded from the scope of these 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     are off-grid small portable crystalline silicon photovoltaic panels, with or without a glass cover, with the following characteristics: (1) a total power output of 200 watts or less per panel; (2) a maximum surface area of 16,000 cm2 per panel; (3) no built-in inverter; (4) an integrated handle or a handle attached to the package for ease of carry; (5) one or more integrated kickstands for easy installation or angle adjustment; and (6) a wire of not less than 3 meters either permanently connected or attached to the package that terminates in an 8mm diameter male barrel connector.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Also excluded from the scope of these 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     are off-grid CSPV panels in rigid form, with or without a glass cover, permanently attached to an aluminum extrusion that is an integral component of an automation device that controls natural light, whether or not assembled into a fully completed automation device that controls natural light, with the following characteristics: (1) A total power output of 20 watts or less per panel; (2) A maximum surface area of 1,000 cm2 per panel; (3) Does not include a built-in inverter for powering third party devices.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Merchandise covered by these 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     is currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) under subheadings 8501.61.0000, 8507.20.8030, 8507.20.8040, 8507.20.8060, 8507.20.8090, 8541.40.6015, 8541.40.6020, 8541.40.6030, 8541.40.6035 and 8501.31.8000. These HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes; the written description of the scope of these 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     is dispositive.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Orders.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Application of the Final Results of the CCRs</HD>
                <P>
                    Lutron requested that Commerce apply the final results of these reviews to “all unliquidated entries of the merchandise covered by the revocation that are not covered by the final results of an administrative review or automatic liquidation instruction.” 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section 751(d)(3) of the Act provides that “{a} determination under this section to revoke an order . . . shall apply with respect to unliquidated entries of the subject merchandise which are entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date determined by the administering authority.” Commerce's general practice is to instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to liquidate without regard to antidumping and countervailing duties, and to refund any estimated antidumping and countervailing duties on, all unliquidated entries of the merchandise covered by a revocation that are not covered by the final results of an administrative review or automatic liquidation.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         CCR Request at 13.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Certain Pasta from Italy: Final Results of Countervailing Duty Changed Circumstances Review and Revocation, In Part,</E>
                         76 FR 27634 (May 12, 2011); 
                        <E T="03">Stainless Steel Bar from the United Kingdom: Notice of Final Results of Changed Circumstances Review and Revocation of Order, in Part,</E>
                         72 FR 65706 (November 23, 2007); 
                        <E T="03">Notice of Final Results of Antidumping Duty Changed Circumstances Review and Revocation of Order In Part: Certain Corrosion-Resistant Carbon Steel Flat Products from Germany,</E>
                         71 FR 66163 (November 13, 2006); 
                        <E T="03">Notice of Final Results of Antidumping Duty Changed Circumstances Reviews and Revocation of Orders in Part: Certain Corrosion-Resistant Carbon Steel Flat Products from Canada and Germany,</E>
                         71 FR 14498 (March 22, 2006); and 
                        <E T="03">Notice of Final Results of Antidumping Duty Changed Circumstances Review, and Determination to Revoke Order in Part: Certain Cased Pencils from the People's Republic of China,</E>
                         68 FR 62428 (November 4, 2003).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results,</E>
                     we stated our intent that “the partial revocation will be retroactively applied to unliquidated entries of merchandise subject to the CCR that were entered or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption, on or after the day following the last day of the period covered by the most recently completed administrative reviews of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders,</E>
                     and which are not covered by automatic liquidation,” and invited comments.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We received no comments on the effective date of the partial revocation. Therefore, Commerce is applying the partial revocation to unliquidated 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34840"/>
                    entries of merchandise subject to the CCRs that were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption, on or after December 1, 2022 for the 
                    <E T="03">AD Order</E>
                     and January 1, 2022 for the 
                    <E T="03">CVD Order.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Preliminary Results.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Instructions to U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP)</HD>
                <P>
                    Because we determine that there are changed circumstances that warrant the revocation of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders,</E>
                     in part, we will instruct CBP to liquidate without regard to antidumping and countervailing duties, and to refund any estimated antidumping and countervailing duties on, all unliquidated entries of the merchandise covered by this partial revocation on or after December 1, 2022 for the 
                    <E T="03">AD Order</E>
                     and January 1, 2022 for the 
                    <E T="03">CVD Order.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Commerce intends to issue instructions to CBP no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of these final results of CCRs in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . If a timely summons is filed at the U.S. Court of International Trade, the instructions will direct CBP not to liquidate relevant entries until the time for parties to file a request for a statutory injunction has expired (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     within 90 days of publication).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Protective Order</HD>
                <P>This notice serves as a final reminder to parties subject to an administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under an APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to a judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>We are issuing and publishing the final results of the CCR in accordance with sections 751(b) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.216, 19 CFR 351.221(c)(3), and 19 CFR 351.222(g).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 18, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Christopher Abbott,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Policy and Negotiations, performing the non-exclusive functions and duties of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13954 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[A-583-853]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Certain Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Products, Whether or Not Assembled into Modules, From Taiwan: Final Results of Changed Circumstances Reviews, and Revocation of the Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Orders, in Part</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) is issuing the final results of changed circumstances review (CCR) of the antidumping duty (AD) order on crystalline silicon photovoltaic products, whether or not assembled into modules (solar products), from Taiwan to revoke the order, in part, with respect to certain crystalline silicon photovoltaic (CSPV) cells.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable July 24, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Tyler O'Daniel, Office of Policy, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6030.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On February 18, 2015, Commerce published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     the antidumping duty order on solar products from Taiwan.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On August 28, 2024, Lutron Electronics Co., Inc. (Lutron), a domestic producer, importer and exporter of subject merchandise, requested that Commerce conduct a changed circumstances review (CCR) to find that it is appropriate to revoke the 
                    <E T="03">Order,</E>
                     in part, with respect to certain small, low-wattage, off-grid (CSPV) cells pursuant to section 751(b)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), and 19 CFR 351.216(b).
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On October 21, 2024, Commerce published the notice of initiation of the requested CCR.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In the 
                    <E T="03">Initiation Notice,</E>
                     Commerce invited interested parties to provide comments and/or factual information regarding the CCR, including comments on industry support and the proposed partial revocation language.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We received no comments or factual information.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Certain Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Products from Taiwan: Antidumping Duty Order,</E>
                         80 FR 8596 (February 18, 2015) (
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Lutron's Letter, “Lutron Electronics Co., Inc.'s Request for Changed Circumstances Reviews and Request to Combine Initiation and Preliminary Results,” dated August 28, 2024 (CCR Request).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Products, Whether or Not Assembled into Modules, from the People's Republic of Taiwan: Notice of Initiation of Changed Circumstances Review, and Consideration of Revocation of the Antidumping Order in Part,</E>
                         89 FR 84118 (October 21, 2024) (
                        <E T="03">Initiation Notice</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.,</E>
                         89 FR at 84118.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On April 23, 2025, Commerce preliminarily found that producers accounting for substantially all of the domestic production of the products to which the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     pertains lack interest in the relief provided by the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     with respect to CSPV cells, and announced its intention to revoke, in part, the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     with respect to these products.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commerce provided interested parties with the opportunity to comment and request a public hearing regarding the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results.</E>
                     Commerce did not receive any comments or a request for a hearing from interested parties. As a result, the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                     are hereby adopted as the final results of this CCR and no decision memoranda accompany this notice.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, From Taiwan: Preliminary Results of Changed Circumstances Reviews, and Intent To Revoke the Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Orders, in Part,</E>
                         90 FR 17048 (April 23, 2025) (
                        <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Results of Changed Circumstances Review and Revocation of the Order, in Part</HD>
                <P>
                    In light of Lutron's request, and domestic interested parties' lack of interest in maintaining the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     with respect to the products under consideration, Commerce continues to find, pursuant to sections 751(d)(1) and 782(h)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.222(g), that changed circumstances exist that warrant revocation of the 
                    <E T="03">Order,</E>
                     in part. No interested party opposed this partial revocation. Moreover, no parties provided other information or evidence that calls into question the partial revocation described in the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results.</E>
                     Specifically, because producers accounting for substantially all the production of the domestic like product to which the Order pertains have not expressed interest in maintaining the relief provided by the Order with respect to CSPV cells, as described below, Commerce is revoking the 
                    <E T="03">Order,</E>
                     in part, with respect to CSPV cells with the following physical characteristics:
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        Also excluded from the scope of this 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         are off-grid CSPV panels in rigid form, with or without a glass cover, permanently attached to an aluminum extrusion that is an integral component of an automation device that controls natural light, whether or not assembled into a fully completed automation 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34841"/>
                        device that controls natural light, with the following characteristics:
                    </P>
                    <P>1. A total power output of 20 watts or less per panel;</P>
                    <P>2. A maximum surface area of 1,000 cm2 per panel;</P>
                    <P>
                        3. Does not include a built-in inverter for powering third party devices.
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CCR Request at Exhibit 1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>The scope description below includes this new exclusion.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Order</HD>
                <P>
                    The merchandise covered by the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     is crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, and modules, laminates, and/or panels, consisting of crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, whether or not partially or fully assembled into other products, including building integrated materials.
                </P>
                <P>Subject merchandise includes crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells of thickness equal to or greater than 20 micrometers, having a p/n junction formed by any means, whether or not the cell has undergone other processing, including, but not limited to, cleaning, etching, coating, and/or addition of materials (including, but not limited to, metallization and conductor patterns) to collect and forward the electricity that is generated by the cell.</P>
                <P>
                    Modules, laminates, and panels produced in a third-country from cells produced in Taiwan are covered by the 
                    <E T="03">Order.</E>
                     However, modules, laminates, and panels produced in Taiwan from cells produced in a third-country are not covered by the 
                    <E T="03">Order.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Excluded from the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     are thin film photovoltaic products produced from amorphous silicon (a-Si), cadmium telluride (CdTe), or copper indium gallium selenide (CIGS).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Also excluded from the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     are crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, not exceeding 10,000mm2 in surface area, that are permanently integrated into a consumer good whose function is other than power generation and that consumes the electricity generated by the integrated crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells. Where more than one cell is permanently integrated into a consumer good, the surface area for purposes of this exclusion shall be the total combined surface area of all cells that are integrated into the consumer good.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Further, also excluded from the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     are any products covered by the existing antidumping and countervailing duty orders on crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, whether or not assembled into modules, from the People's Republic of China (China).
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, from the People's Republic of China: Amended Final Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value, and Antidumping Duty Order,</E>
                         77 FR 73018 (December 7, 2012); 
                        <E T="03">see also Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, from the People's Republic of China: Countervailing Duty Order,</E>
                         77 FR 73017 (December 7, 2012).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Also excluded from the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     are modules, laminates, and panels produced in China from crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells produced in Taiwan that are covered by an existing proceeding on such modules, laminates, and panels from China.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, excluded from the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     are solar panels that are: (1) less than 300,000mm2 in surface area; (2) less than 27.1 watts in power; (3) coated across their entire surface with a polyurethane doming resin; and (4) joined to a battery charging and maintaining unit (which is an acrylonitrile butadiene styrene (ABS) box that incorporates a light emitting diode (LED) by coated wires that include a connector to permit the incorporation of an extension cable. The battery charging and maintaining unit utilizes high-frequency triangular pulse waveforms designed to maintain and extend the life of batteries through the reduction of lead sulfate crystals. The above-described battery charging and maintaining unit is currently available under the registered trademark “SolarPulse.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    Also excluded from the scope of this 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     are off-grid CSPV panels in rigid form, with or without a glass cover, permanently attached to an aluminum extrusion that is an integral component of an automation device that controls natural light, whether or not assembled into a fully completed automation device that controls natural light, with the following characteristics: (1) A total power output of 20 watts or less per panel; (2) A maximum surface area of 1,000 cm2 per panel; (3) Does not include a built-in inverter for powering third party devices.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Merchandise covered by the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     is currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff System of the United States (HTSUS) under subheadings 8501.61.0000, 8507.20.8030, 8507.20.8040, 8507.20.8060, 8507.20.8090, 8541.40.6020, 8541.40.6030, and 8501.31.8000. These HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes; the written description of the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     is dispositive.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Order.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Application of the Final Results of the CCR</HD>
                <P>
                    Lutron requested that Commerce apply the final results of this review to “all unliquidated entries of the merchandise covered by the revocation that are not covered by the final results of an administrative review or automatic liquidation instruction.” 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section 751(d)(3) of the Act provides that Commerce determines the date of application of the revocation of an order.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results,</E>
                     we stated our intent that “the partial revocation will be retroactively applied to unliquidated entries of merchandise subject to the CCR that were entered or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption, on or after the day following the last day of the period covered by the most recently completed administrative reviews of the 
                    <E T="03">Order,</E>
                     and which are not covered by automatic liquidation,” and invited comments.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As explained above, we received no comments opposing the intended retroactive application of the partial revocation. Therefore, Commerce is applying the partial revocation to unliquidated entries of merchandise subject to the CCRs that were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption, on or after February 1, 2021.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         CCR Request at 13.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 751(d)(3) of the Act (stating that a “determination under this section to revoke an order or finding or terminate a suspended investigation shall apply with respect to unliquidated entries of the subject merchandise which are entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date determined by the administering authority”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Preliminary Results.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Instructions to U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP)</HD>
                <P>
                    Because we determine that there are changed circumstances that warrant the revocation of the 
                    <E T="03">Order,</E>
                     in part, we will instruct CBP to liquidate without regard to antidumping and countervailing duties, and to refund any estimated antidumping and countervailing duties deposited on all unliquidated entries of the merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after February 1, 2021, that are covered by this partial revocation of the 
                    <E T="03">Order.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Commerce intends to issue instructions to CBP no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of the final result of this CCR in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . If a timely summons is filed at the U.S. Court of International Trade, the instructions will direct CBP not to liquidate relevant entries until the time for parties to file a request for a statutory 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34842"/>
                    injunction has expired (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     within 90 days of publication).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Protective Order</HD>
                <P>This notice serves as a final reminder to parties subject to an administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under an APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to a judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>We are issuing and publishing the final results of the CCR in accordance with sections 751(b) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.216, 19 CFR 351.221(c)(3), and 19 CFR 351.222(g).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 18, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Christopher Abbott,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Policy and Negotiations, performing the non-exclusive functions and duties of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13955 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[A-201-847]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes From Mexico: Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2022-2023</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that producers/exporters of heavy-walled rectangular welded carbon steel pipes and tubes (HWR) from Mexico made sales of subject merchandise at less than normal value during the period of review (POR), September 1, 2022, through August 31, 2023.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable July 24, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Katie Smith, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-0557.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On October 23, 2024, Commerce published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                     of the 2022-2023 administrative review 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the antidumping duty order on heavy walled rectangular welded carbon steel pipes and tubes from Mexico.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On December 9, 2024, Commerce tolled the deadlines of all administrative review results by 90 days.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On May 16, 2025, Commerce extended the deadline for the final results of this review until July 21, 2025.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes from Mexico: Preliminary Results and Recission in Part, of the Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2022-2023,</E>
                         89 FR 84530 (October 23, 2024) (
                        <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                        ), and accompanying Preliminary Decision Memorandum.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Heavy Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes from the Republic of Korea, Mexico, and the Republic of Turkey: Antidumping Duty Orders,</E>
                         81 FR 62865 (September 13, 2016) (
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Tolling of Deadlines for Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Proceedings,” dated December 10, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Extension of the Deadline for Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review,” dated May 16, 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    This review covers eight companies, including two mandatory respondents, Maquilacero S.A. de C.V. (Maquilacero) and Productos Laminados de Monterrey S.A. de C.V. (Prolamsa), for individual examination. We invited interested parties to comment on the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results.</E>
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We received case briefs from Maquilacero and Nucor Tubular Products Inc. (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the petitioner) 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and received rebuttal briefs from Maquilacero, Prolamsa, and the petitioner.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For a complete description of the events that occurred since the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results, see</E>
                     the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commerce conducted this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(B) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Preliminary Results.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Maquilacero's Letter, “Maquilacero S.A. de C.V's Case Brief,” dated November 22, 2024; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Petitioner's Letter, “Petitioner's Case Brief,” dated November 22, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Maquilacero's Letter, “Maquilacero S.A. de C.V's Rebuttal Brief,” dated November 27, 2024; Prolamsa's Letter, “Rebuttal Brief,” dated November 27, 2024; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Petitioner's Letter, “Petitioner's Rebuttal Brief,” dated November 27, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Issues and Decision Memorandum for the Final Results of the Antidumping Duty Administrative Review: Heavy-Walled Rectangular Welded Carbon Steel Pipes and Tubes from Mexico; 2022-2023,” dated concurrently with, and hereby adopted by, this notice (Issues and Decision Memorandum).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Order</HD>
                <P>
                    The merchandise subject to the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     is HWR pipes and tubes from Mexico. A complete description of the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     is contained in the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis of Comments Received</HD>
                <P>
                    All issues raised in case and rebuttal briefs by interested parties in this administrative review are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum and are listed in the appendix to this notice. The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at 
                    <E T="03">http://access.trade.gov.</E>
                     In addition, a complete version of the Issues and Decision Memorandum can be accessed directly at 
                    <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov/public/FRNoticesListLayout.aspx.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Changes Since the Preliminary Results</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on a review of the record and comments received from interested parties regarding the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results,</E>
                     and for the reasons explained in the Issues and Decision Memorandum, we made certain changes to the weighted-average dumping margin calculations for Maquilacero and Prolamsa for the final results of review.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On June 13 and June 16, 2025, respectively, the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit (Federal Circuit) issued mandates based on the Federal Circuit's opinions in 
                    <E T="03">Marmen</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">Stupp.</E>
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In its opinions, the Federal Circuit held that it is unreasonable to use the Cohen's 
                    <E T="03">d</E>
                     test when the Cohen's 
                    <E T="03">d</E>
                     test is applied to data that do not satisfy certain statistical criteria. Accordingly, in an effort to comply with the Federal Circuit's holdings regarding the Cohen's 
                    <E T="03">d</E>
                     test, Commerce has revised the differential pricing analysis used in these final results, as described in the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Marmen Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States,</E>
                         134 F.4th 1334 (Fed. Cir. 2025) (
                        <E T="03">Marmen</E>
                        ); 
                        <E T="03">Stupp Corp.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States,</E>
                         2025 U.S. App. LEXIS 9616 (Fed. Cir. 2025) (non-precedential) (
                        <E T="03">Stupp</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         Although Commerce's preference is to provide interested parties with an opportunity to comment, given the impending statutory deadline of section 751(a)(2)(B)(iii) of the Act for the final results of this administrative review (July 21, 2025), there is insufficient time to allow for comments on the revised differential pricing analysis and related calculations for comment in this administrative review.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rates for Companies Not Selected for Individual Examination</HD>
                <P>
                    The statute and Commerce's regulations do not address the establishment of a rate to be applied to individual companies not selected for examination when Commerce limits its examination in an administrative review pursuant to section 777A(c)(2) of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34843"/>
                    Act. Generally, Commerce looks to section 735(c)(5) of the Act, which provides for calculating the all-others rate in an investigation, for guidance when calculating the rate for companies which Commerce did not examine in an administrative review. Under section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act, the all others rate is normally an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding rates that are zero, 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     less than 0.5 percent), or determined entirely on the basis of facts available.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For these final results of review, we calculated a weighted-average dumping margin for both mandatory respondents, Maquilacero and Prolamsa, that are not zero, 
                    <E T="03">de minimis,</E>
                     or based entirely on the basis of facts available. Accordingly, Commerce is assigning to the companies not individually examined, listed in the chart below, a margin which is the weighted average of Maquilacero's and Prolamsa's calculated weighted-average dumping margins.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Calculation of the Weighted-Average Dumping Margin for Non-Selected Companies for the Final Results,” dated concurrently with this notice.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Results of the Review</HD>
                <P>As a result of this review, we determine the following estimated weighted-average dumping margin exists for the period September 1, 2022, through August 31, 2023:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s150,20">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Producer/exporter</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Weighted-average dumping margin
                            <LI>(percent)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Maquilacero S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.77</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">Productos Laminados de Monterrey S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>14.03</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Review Specific Rate for Non-Examined Companies</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Aceros del Toro S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Aceros El Fraile S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Acro Metal S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Border Assembly S. de R.L. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Buffalo Tube S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Fortacero S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Forza Steel, S.A. DE C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Grupo Collado S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Industrias Monterrey S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Perfiles y Herrajes L.M., S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Placa y Fierro de Monterrey S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">PYTCO S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Regiomontana de Perfiles y Tubos S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tuberias Procarsa S.A. de C.V</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Disclosure</HD>
                <P>
                    Commerce intends to disclose the calculations performed in connection with these final results of review to interested parties within five days after public announcement of the final results or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of the notice of final results in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Assessment Rates</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.212(b)(1), Commerce has determined, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise in accordance with the final results of this review.</P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.212(b)(1), we calculated importer-specific 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     duty assessment rates based on the ratio of the total amount of dumping calculated for each importer's examined sales and the total entered value of those sales. Where either the respondent's weighted-average dumping margin is zero or 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     within the meaning of 19 CFR 351.106(c)(1), or an importer-specific assessment rate is 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     less than 0.5 percent), we will instruct CBP to liquidate the appropriate entries without regard to antidumping duties.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For entries of subject merchandise during the POR produced by Maquilacero and Prolamsa for which it did not know that its merchandise was destined for the United States, we will instruct CBP to liquidate such entries at the all-others rate established in the less-than-fair-value (LTFV) investigation of 4.91 percent 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem,</E>
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     if there is no rate for the intermediate company(ies) involved in the transaction.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Order.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Commerce intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of the final results of this review in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . If a timely summons is filed at the U.S. Court of International Trade, the assessment instructions will direct CBP not to liquidate relevant entries until the time for parties to file a request for a statutory injunction has expired (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     within 90 days of publication).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cash Deposit Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    Upon publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the following cash deposit requirements will be effective for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date of the final results of this administrative review, as provided by section 751(a)(2) of the Act: (1) the cash deposit rate for the companies subject to this review will be equal to the weighted-average dumping margin established in the “Finals Results of the Review” section above; (2) for merchandise exported by producers or exporters not covered in this review but covered in a prior completed segment of the proceeding, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the company-specific rate published in the completed segment for the most recent period; (3) if the exporter is not a firm covered in this review, a prior review, or the LTFV investigation, but the producer has been covered in a prior completed segment of this proceeding, then the cash deposit rate will be the rate established in the completed 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34844"/>
                    segment for the most recent period for the producer of the merchandise; and (4) the cash deposit rate for all other producers or exporters will continue to be 4.91 percent, the all-others rate established in the LTFV investigation for this proceeding.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These cash deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Importers</HD>
                <P>This notice serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in Commerce's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Protective Order</HD>
                <P>This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to an administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under the APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>We are issuing and publishing this notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(5) and 19 CFR 351.213(h)(1).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Christopher Abbott,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Policy and Negotiations, performing the non-exclusive functions and duties of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <APPENDIX>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Appendix</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">List of Topics Discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Summary</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Background</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        III. Scope of the 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        IV. Changes Since the 
                        <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Differential Pricing Analysis</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Discussion of the Issues</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 1: Whether to to Apply the Transactions Disregarded Adjustment to Maquilacero's Reported Cost of Coils Purchased from Affiliated Parties</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 2: Whether to Exclude Certain Line Items from Maquilacero's General and Administrative (G&amp;A) Expenses Calculation</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 3: Whether to Adjust Maquilacero's Claimed Scrap Offset</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 4: Whether to Apply a Smoothing Adjustment to Prolamsa's Reported Quarterly Weighted-Average Per-Unit Direct Material (DIRMAT)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 5: Whether to Adjust Prolamsa's Total Cost of Manufacture (TOTCOM) to Account for the Cost Reconciliation Discrepancy</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 6: Whether to Adjust Maquilacero's Margin Program</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 7: Whether Tecnicas De Fluidos S.A. de C.V's (TEFLU) Products Fall Within the Scope</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 8: Whether to Collapse Maquilacero and TEFLU</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 9: Treatment of Maquilacero's Virtual Sales</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 10: Usage of the Differential Pricing Analysis</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Recommendation</FP>
                </APPENDIX>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13985 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[C-557-833]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Float Glass Products From Malaysia: Preliminary Negative Critical Circumstances Determination in the Countervailing Duty Investigation</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily determines that critical circumstances do not exist with respect to imports of float glass products in the countervailing duty (CVD) investigation of float glass products from Malaysia. The period of investigation is January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable July 24, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Mira Warrier or Benjamin Nathan, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue  NW Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-8031 or (202) 482-3834, respectively.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Commerce published the notice of initiation of this investigation on January 8, 2025.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On May 7, 2025, Vitro Flat Glass, LLC and Vitro Meadville Flat Glass, LLC (the petitioners) filed a timely critical circumstances allegation, pursuant to pursuant to section 703(e)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), and 19 CFR 351.206, that critical circumstances exist with respect to float glass products from Malaysia.
                    <SU>2 </SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commerce published its preliminary CVD determination on May 19, 2025.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Float Glass Products from the People's Republic of China and Malaysia: Initiation of Countervailing Duty Investigations,</E>
                         90 FR 1443 (January 8, 2025) (
                        <E T="03">Initiation Notice</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Petitioners” Letter, “Petitioner's Allegation of Critical Circumstances,” dated May 7, 2025 (Critical Circumstances Allegation).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Float Glass Products from Malaysia: Preliminary Affirmative Countervailing Duty Determination and Alignment of Final Determination With Final Antidumping Duty Determination,</E>
                         90 FR 21278 (May 19, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In accordance with sections 703(e)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206(c)(1) and (2)(ii), because the petitioners submitted the critical circumstances allegations more than 30 days before the scheduled date of the final determinations, Commerce will make preliminary findings as to whether there is a reasonable basis to believe or suspect that critical circumstances exist. Section 703(e)(1) of the Act provides that Commerce will preliminarily determine that critical circumstances exist in a CVD investigation if there is a reasonable basis to believe or suspect that: (A) the alleged countervailable subsidy is inconsistent with the World Trade Organization Agreement on Subsidies and Countervailing Measures (SCM Agreement); 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and (B) there have been massive imports of the subject merchandise over a relatively short period.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Commerce limits its critical circumstances findings to those subsidies contingent upon export performance or use of domestic over imported goods (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         those prohibited under Article 3 of the SCM Agreement). 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Final Affirmative Countervailing Duty Determination and Final Negative Critical Circumstances Determination: Carbon and Certain Alloy Steel Wire from Germany,</E>
                         67 FR 55808, 55809-10 (August 30, 2002).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Critical Circumstances Allegation</HD>
                <P>
                    The petitioner alleges that imports of float glass products from Malaysia were massive over a relatively short period, and provided monthly import data comparing a base period of August 2024 through November 2024, to a comparison period of December 2024 through March 2025.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The petitioner's allegation of massive imports utilizes base and comparison periods established in accordance with 19 CFR 351.206(i) and reflects an increase of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34845"/>
                    27.5 percent in U.S. float glass product imports from Malaysia, which is “massive” under section 703(e)(1)(b) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206(h)(2).
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The petitioners also allege that there is a reasonable basis to believe that there are subsidies in this investigation which are inconsistent with the SCM Agreement.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Critical Circumstances Allegation at Exhibit 1.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 771(8)(A) of the Act.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Alleged Countervailable Subsidies Are Inconsistent With the SCM Agreement</HD>
                <P>
                    Commerce considered the evidence on the record pertaining to the petitioner's allegation that the Pioneer Status Direct Tax Incentives, Double Deduction for Promotion of Exports, and Policy Lending from Chinese Banks for Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) Capacity Cooperation Projects are inconsistent with the SCM Agreement because they are export-contingent.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Record evidence in the Initiation Checklist indicates that the Double Deduction for Promotion of Exports provides a deduction to companies on expenses related to the export of goods (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     export contingent) which would render the program inconsistent with the SCM Agreement.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Critical Circumstances Allegation at 3-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Commerce initiated an investigation into an export specific allegation of a tax exemption under Malaysia's 2018 Sales Tax Act; however, no determination has been made as to whether it is countervailable or whether the alleged program is inconsistent with the SCM Agreement. Commerce considered evidence on the record pertaining to the petitioner's allegation of the Pioneer Status Direct Tax Incentives and Policy Lending from Chinese Banks for BRI and preliminarily rendered both programs to not be inconsistent with the SCM Agreement.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Massive Imports</HD>
                <P>
                    In determining whether there have been “massive imports” over a “relatively short period,” pursuant to section 703(e)(1)(B) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206(h), Commerce normally compares the import volumes of the subject merchandise for at least three months immediately preceding the filing of the petition (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the “base period”) to a comparable period of at least three months following the filing of the petition (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the “comparison period”). Commerce's practice is to include as many months of data as are available up to and including the month of publication of the CVD preliminary determination. Imports normally will be considered massive when imports during the comparison period have increased by 15 percent or more compared to imports during the base period.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The regulations also provide that if Commerce finds that importers, exporters, or producers had reason to believe, at some time prior to the beginning of the proceeding, that a proceeding was likely, Commerce may consider a period of not less than three months from that earlier time.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In this case, Commerce compared the import volumes of subject merchandise for an equivalent period immediately preceding, and following, the filing of the petition.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.206(h)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.206(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         We note that we are able to analyze six months prior to and following the petition for the mandatory respondents, and five months prior to and following the petition for non-selected producers/exporters. For more information, see Memorandum, “Analysis of Critical Circumstances,” dated concurrently with this notice (Critical Circumstances Memo).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Preliminary Determination</HD>
                <P>
                    Because the petition was filed on November 21, 2024, to determine whether there was a massive surge in imports for the cooperating mandatory respondent, Commerce compared the total volume of shipments during the period June 2024 through November 2024 with the volume of shipments during the following six-month period of December 2024 through May 2025 for mandatory respondents Jinjing Malaysia and Xinyi Malaysia.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For all other producers/exporters, because country-wide data for May are not yet available, we compared the period July 2024 through November 2024 with the period December 2024 through April 2025.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     With respect to Jinjing Malaysia, Xinyi Malaysia, and all other producers/exporters, we preliminarily determine that there was no massive surge in imports between the base and comparison periods.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Critical Circumstances Memo.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Conclusion</HD>
                <P>
                    For the investigation, based on the criteria and findings discussed above, as well as the mandatory respondent specific-analysis and all others specific-analysis explained in the accompanying Critical Circumstances Memo,
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     we preliminarily determine that critical circumstances do not exist regarding Jinjing Malaysia, Xinyi Malaysia, and all other producers/exporters.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Critical Circumstances Determination</HD>
                <P>We will make a final critical circumstances determination concerning critical circumstances in the final CVD determination, which is currently due no later than November 28, 2025.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Comment</HD>
                <P>
                    Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance. Interested parties will be notified of the timeline for the submission of case briefs and written comments at a later date.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Administrative Protective Order, Service, and Other Procedures in Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Proceedings,</E>
                         88 FR 67069, 67077 (September 29, 2023).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) Notification</HD>
                <P>In accordance with sections 703(f) and 733(f) of the Act, we will notify the ITC of these preliminary determinations of critical circumstances.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 703(f), 733(f), and 777(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 17, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Christopher Abbott,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Policy and Negotiations, performing the non-exclusive functions and duties of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC> [FR Doc. 2025-13947 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[A-570-979, C-570-980]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, From the People's Republic of China: Final Results of Changed Circumstances Reviews, and Revocation of the Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Orders, in Part</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) is issuing the final results of changed circumstances reviews (CCRs) of the antidumping duty (AD) and countervailing duty (CVD) orders on crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, whether or not assembled into modules (solar cells), 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34846"/>
                        from the People's Republic of China (China) to revoke the orders, in part, with respect to certain crystalline silicon photovoltaic (CSPV) cells.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable July 24, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Tyler O'Daniel, Office of Policy, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6030.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On December 7, 2012, Commerce published the AD and CVD orders on solar cells from China.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On August 28, 2024, Lutron Electronics Co., Inc. (Lutron), a domestic producer, importer and exporter of subject merchandise, requested that Commerce conduct a changed circumstances reviews (CCRs) to find that it is appropriate to revoke the 
                    <E T="03">Orders,</E>
                     in part, with respect to certain small, low-wattage, off-grid (CSPV) cells pursuant to section 751(b)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), and 19 CFR 351.216(b).
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On October 21, 2024, Commerce published the notice of initiation of the requested CCRs.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In the 
                    <E T="03">Initiation Notice,</E>
                     Commerce invited interested parties to provide comments and/or factual information regarding these CCRs, including comments on industry support and the proposed partial revocation language.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We received no comments or factual information.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, from the People's Republic of China: Amended Final Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value, and Antidumping Duty Order,</E>
                         77 FR 73018 (December 7, 2012) (
                        <E T="03">AD Order</E>
                        ); 
                        <E T="03">see also Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, from the People's Republic of China: Countervailing Duty Order,</E>
                         77 FR 73017 (December 7, 2012) (
                        <E T="03">CVD Order</E>
                        ) (collectively, 
                        <E T="03">Orders</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Lutron's Letter, “Lutron Electronics Co., Inc.'s Request for Changed Circumstances Reviews and Request to Combine Initiation and Preliminary Results,” dated August 28, 2024 (CCR Request).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Products, Whether or Not Assembled into Modules, from the People's Republic of China: Notice of Initiation of Changed Circumstances Review, and Consideration of Revocation of the Antidumping Order in Part,</E>
                         89 FR 84114 (October 21, 2024) (
                        <E T="03">Initiation Notice</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.,</E>
                         89 FR at 84117.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On April 23, 2025, Commerce preliminarily found that producers accounting for substantially all of the domestic production of the products to which the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     pertain lack interest in the relief provided by the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     with respect to CSPV cells, and announced its intention to revoke, in part, the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     with respect to these products.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commerce provided interested parties with the opportunity to comment and request a public hearing regarding the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results.</E>
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commerce did not receive any comments or a request for a hearing from interested parties. As a result, the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                     are hereby adopted as the final results of this CCR and no decision memoranda accompany this notice.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Crystalline Silicon Photovoltaic Cells, Whether or Not Assembled Into Modules, from Taiwan: Preliminary Results of Changed Circumstances Reviews, and Intent To Revoke the Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Orders, in Part,</E>
                         90 FR 17048 (April 23, 2025) (
                        <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Results of Changed Circumstances Reviews and Revocation of the Orders, in Part</HD>
                <P>
                    In light of Lutron's request, and domestic interested parties' lack of interest in maintaining the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     with respect to the products under consideration, Commerce continues to find, pursuant to sections 751(d)(1) and 782(h)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.222(g), that changed circumstances exist that warrant revocation of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders,</E>
                     in part. No interested party opposed this partial revocation. Moreover, no parties provided other information or evidence that calls into question the partial revocation described in the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results.</E>
                     Specifically, because producers accounting for substantially all the production of the domestic like product to which the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     pertain have not expressed interest in maintaining the relief provided by the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     with respect to CSPV cells, as described below, Commerce is revoking the 
                    <E T="03">Orders,</E>
                     in part, with respect to CSPV cells with the following physical characteristics: 
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        Also excluded from the scope of these 
                        <E T="03">Orders</E>
                         are off-grid CSPV panels in rigid form, with or without a glass cover, permanently attached to an aluminum extrusion that is an integral component of an automation device that controls natural light, whether or not assembled into a fully completed automation device that controls natural light, with the following characteristics:
                    </P>
                    <P>1. A total power output of 20 watts or less per panel;</P>
                    <P>2. A maximum surface area of 1,000 cm2 per panel;</P>
                    <P>
                        3. Does not include a built-in inverter for powering third party devices.
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CCR Request at 3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>The scope description below includes this new exclusion.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Orders</HD>
                <P>
                    The merchandise covered by these 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     is crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, and modules, laminates, and panels, consisting of crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, whether or not partially or fully assembled into other products, including, but not limited to, modules, laminates, panels and building integrated materials.
                </P>
                <P>Subject merchandise includes crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells of thickness equal to or greater than 20 micrometers, having a p/n junction formed by any means, whether or not the cell has undergone other processing, including, but not limited to, cleaning, etching, coating, and/or addition of materials (including, but not limited to, metallization and conductor patterns) to collect and forward the electricity that is generated by the cell.</P>
                <P>
                    Modules, laminates, and panels produced in a third country from cells produced in China are covered by the 
                    <E T="03">Orders;</E>
                     however, modules, laminates, and panels produced in China from cells produced in a third country are not covered by the 
                    <E T="03">Orders.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Excluded from the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     are thin film photovoltaic products produced from amorphous silicon (a-Si), cadmium telluride (CdTe), or copper indium gallium selenide (CIGS).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Also excluded from the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     are crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, not exceeding 10,000 mm2 in surface area, that are permanently integrated into a consumer good whose function is other than power generation and that consumes the electricity generated by the integrated crystalline silicon photovoltaic cell. Where more than one cell is permanently integrated into a consumer good, the surface area for purposes of this exclusion shall be the total combined surface area of all cells that are integrated into the consumer good.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Further, also excluded from the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     are panels with surface area from 3,450 mm2 to 33,782 mm2 with one black wire and one red wire (each of type 22 AWG or 24 AWG not more than 206 mm in length when measured from panel extrusion), and not exceeding 2.9 volts, 1.1 amps, and 3.19 watts. For the purposes of this exclusion, no panel shall contain an internal battery or external computer peripheral ports.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Initiation Notice,</E>
                         89 FR at 84117.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Also excluded from the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     are:
                </P>
                <P>1. Off grid CSPV panels in rigid form with a glass cover, with the following characteristics:</P>
                <P>(A) a total power output of 100 watts or less per panel;</P>
                <P>
                    (B) a maximum surface area of 8,000 cm2 per panel;
                    <PRTPAGE P="34847"/>
                </P>
                <P>(C) do not include a built-in inverter;</P>
                <P>(D) must include a permanently connected wire that terminates in either an 8 mm male barrel connector, or a two-port rectangular connector with two pins in square housings of different colors;</P>
                <P>(E) must include visible parallel grid collector metallic wire lines every 1-4 millimeters across each solar cell; and  </P>
                <P>(F) must be in individual retail packaging (for purposes of this provision, retail packaging typically includes graphics, the product name, its description and/or features, and foam for transport); and</P>
                <P>2. Off grid CSPV panels without a glass cover, with the following characteristics:</P>
                <P>(A) a total power output of 100 watts or less per panel;</P>
                <P>(B) a maximum surface area of 8,000 cm2 per panel;</P>
                <P>(C) do not include a built-in inverter;</P>
                <P>(D) must include visible parallel grid collector metallic wire lines every 1-4 millimeters across each solar cell; and</P>
                <P>(E) each panel is</P>
                <P>1. permanently integrated into a consumer good;</P>
                <P>2. encased in a laminated material without stitching, or</P>
                <P>3. has all of the following characteristics: (i) the panel is encased in sewn fabric with visible stitching, (ii) includes a mesh zippered storage pocket, and (iii) includes a permanently attached wire that terminates in a female USB-A connector.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, the following CSPV panels are excluded from the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders:</E>
                </P>
                <P>1. Off-grid CSPV panels in rigid form with a glass cover, with each of the following physical characteristics, whether or not assembled into a fully completed off-grid hydropanel whose function is conversion of water vapor into liquid water:</P>
                <P>(A) A total power output of no more than 80 watts per panel;</P>
                <P>(B) A surface area of less than 5,000 cm2 per panel;</P>
                <P>(C) Do not include a built-in inverter;</P>
                <P>(D) Do not have a frame around the edges of the panel;</P>
                <P>(E) Include a clear glass back panel; and</P>
                <P>(F) Must include a permanently connected wire that terminates in a two-port rectangular connector.</P>
                <P>
                    Modules, laminates, and panels produced in a third country from cells produced in China are covered by the 
                    <E T="03">Orders;</E>
                     however, modules, laminates, and panels produced in China from cells produced in a third country are not covered by the 
                    <E T="03">Orders.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Additionally excluded from the scope of these 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     are off-grid small portable crystalline silicon photovoltaic panels, with or without a glass cover, with the following characteristics: (1) a total power output of 200 watts or less per panel; (2) a maximum surface area of 16,000 cm2 per panel; (3) no built-in inverter; (4) an integrated handle or a handle attached to the package for ease of carry; (5) one or more integrated kickstands for easy installation or angle adjustment; and (6) a wire of not less than 3 meters either permanently connected or attached to the package that terminates in an 8mm diameter male barrel connector.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Also excluded from the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     are off-grid crystalline silicon photovoltaic panels in rigid form with a glass cover, with each of the following physical characteristics, whether or not assembled into a fully completed off-grid hydropanel whose function is conversion of water vapor into liquid water:
                </P>
                <P>(A) A total power output of no more than 180 watts per panel at 155 degrees Celsius;</P>
                <P>(B) A surface area of less than 16,000 square centimeters (cm2) per panel;</P>
                <P>(C) Include a keep-out area of approximately 1,200 cm2 around the edges of the panel that does not contain solar cells;</P>
                <P>(D) Do not include a built-in inverter;</P>
                <P>(E) Do not have a frame around the edges of the panel;</P>
                <P>(F) Include a clear glass back panel;</P>
                <P>(G) Must include a permanently connected wire that terminates in a two-port rounded rectangular, sealed connector;</P>
                <P>(H) Include a thermistor installed into the permanently connected wire before the two-port connector; and</P>
                <P>(I) Include exposed positive and negative terminals at opposite ends of the panel, not enclosed in a junction box.</P>
                <P>
                    Also excluded from the scope of these 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     are off-grid CSPV panels in rigid form, with or without a glass cover, permanently attached to an aluminum extrusion that is an integral component of an automation device that controls natural light, whether or not assembled into a fully completed automation device that controls natural light, with the following characteristics: (1) A total power output of 20 watts or less per panel; (2) A maximum surface area of 1,000 cm2 per panel; (3) Does not include a built-in inverter for powering third party devices.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Merchandise covered by these 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     is currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff System of the United States (HTSUS) under subheadings 8501.71.0000, 8501.72.1000, 8501.72.2000, 8501.72.3000, 8501.72.9000, 8501.80.1000, 8501.80.2000, 8501.80.3000, 8501.80.9000, 8507.20.8010, 8507.20.8031, 8507.20.8041, 8507.20.8061, 8507.20.8091, 8541.42.0010, and 8541.43.0010. These HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes; the written description of the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     are dispositive.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Orders.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Application of the Final Results of the CCRs</HD>
                <P>
                    Lutron requested that Commerce apply the final results of these reviews to “all unliquidated entries of the merchandise covered by the revocation that are not covered by the final results of an administrative review or automatic liquidation instruction.” 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section 751(d)(3) of the Act provides that Commerce determine the date of application of the revocation of an order.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results,</E>
                     we stated our intent that “the partial revocation will be retroactively applied to unliquidated entries of merchandise subject to the CCR that were entered or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption, on or after the day following the last day of the period covered by the most recently completed administrative reviews of the 
                    <E T="03">Order,</E>
                     and which are not covered by automatic liquidation,” and invited comments.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As explained above, we received no comments opposing the intended retroactive application of the partial revocation. Therefore, Commerce is applying the partial revocation to unliquidated entries of merchandise subject to the CCRs that were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption, on or after December 1, 2022 for the 
                    <E T="03">AD Order</E>
                     and January 1, 2022 for the 
                    <E T="03">CVD Order.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Initiation Notice,</E>
                         89 FR at 84117.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 751(d)(3) of the Act (stating that a “determination under this section to revoke an order or finding or terminate a suspended investigation shall apply with respect to unliquidated entries of the subject merchandise which are entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date determined by the administering authority”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Preliminary Results.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Instructions to U.S. Customs and Border Protection CBP</HD>
                <P>
                    Because we determine that there are changed circumstances that warrant the revocation of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders,</E>
                     in part, we will instruct CBP to liquidate without regard to antidumping and countervailing duties, and to refund any estimated antidumping and countervailing duties deposited on all unliquidated entries of the merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34848"/>
                    for consumption on or after December 1, 2022 for the 
                    <E T="03">AD Order</E>
                     and January 1, 2022 for the 
                    <E T="03">CVD Order,</E>
                     that are covered by this partial revocation of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders.</E>
                     Commerce intends to issue instructions to CBP no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of these final results of CCRs in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . If a timely summons is filed at the U.S. Court of International Trade, the instructions will direct CBP not to liquidate relevant entries until the time for parties to file a request for a statutory injunction has expired (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     within 90 days of publication).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Protective Order</HD>
                <P>This notice serves as a final reminder to parties subject to an administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under an APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to a judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>We are issuing and publishing the final results of the CCRs in accordance with sections 751(b) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.216, 19 CFR 351.221(c)(3), and 19 CFR 351.222(g).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 18, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Christopher Abbott,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Policy and Negotiations, performing the non-exclusive functions and duties of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13953 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF045]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Magnuson-Stevens Act Provisions; General Provisions for Domestic Fisheries; Coastal Pelagic Species Fishery; Application for Exempted Fishing Permits; 2025-2026 Fishing Year</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of receipt of application; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Regional Administrator, West Coast Region, NMFS, has made a preliminary determination that an exempted fishing permit (EFP) application warrants further consideration. This application, from the California Wetfish Producers Association (CWPA), requests an exemption from the expected prohibition on primary directed fishing for Pacific sardine during the 2025-2026 fishing year as part of industry-based scientific research. NMFS requests public comment on this application.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received by August 8, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2025-0306, by the following method:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Electronic Submissions:</E>
                         Submit all public comments via the Federal e-Rulemaking Portal. Visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and type NOAA-NMFS-2025-0306 in the Search box. Click the “Comment” icon, complete the required fields, and enter or attach your comments. The EFP applications will be available under Supporting and Related Materials through the same link.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         Comments sent by any other method, to any other address or individual, or received after the end of the comment period, may not be considered by NMFS. All comments received are a part of the public record and will generally be posted for public viewing on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         without change. All personal identifying information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         name, address, 
                        <E T="03">etc.</E>
                        ), confidential business information, or otherwise sensitive information submitted voluntarily by the sender will be publicly accessible. NMFS will accept anonymous comments (enter “N/A” in the required fields if you wish to remain anonymous).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Laura Gray, West Coast Region, NMFS, (301) 427-8490, 
                        <E T="03">laura.gray@noaa.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Approving this EFP application would be authorized under the Coastal Pelagic Species (CPS) Fishery Management Plan (FMP) and regulations at 50 CFR 600.745, which allow NMFS Regional Administrators to authorize EFPs for fishing activities that would otherwise be prohibited.</P>
                <P>At its April 2025 meeting, the Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) recommended that NMFS approve an EFP application for the 2025-2026 Pacific sardine fishing year. This application from the CWPA is a request for an exemption from the expected prohibition on primary directed fishing for Pacific sardine during the 2025-2026 fishing year; the purpose of the permit is to collect Pacific sardine as part of industry-based scientific research and maintain a continuous time series of fishery-dependent data. This EFP would extend the work previously authorized by NMFS across 6 consecutive fishing years.</P>
                <P>
                    The Council considered this EFP application concurrently with the 2025-2026 annual harvest specifications for Pacific sardine because Pacific sardine catch under the EFP would be accounted for under the proposed annual catch limit, which is 2,200 metric tons (mt). This EFP requests an allowance of up to 520 mt of Pacific sardine to be harvested during the 2025-2026 fishing year. The primary directed fishery for Pacific sardine has been closed since 2015 and, consequently, scientists at the Southwest Fisheries Science Center (SWFSC) have a limited amount of fishery-dependent data to use in their stock assessment. The goal of this EFP project is to continue a time series of fishery-dependent biological data (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     age and growth data), for potential use in Pacific sardine stock assessments. If approved, this EFP would allow up to eight participating vessels to directly harvest up to 520 mt of Pacific sardine during the 2025-2026 fishing year using methods developed in coordination with SWFSC, and consistent with approvals granted since 2020. Harvests under this EFP would occur monthly in nearshore waters of both southern California and the central California coast. A portion of each landing would be retained for biological sampling by the California Department of Fish and Wildlife, and the remainder would be sold by participating fishermen and processors to offset research costs and avoid unnecessary discard.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If NMFS does not issue this EFP, the requested tonnage of 520 mt would be available for harvest by other permissible fishing activities during the 2025-2026 fishing year (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     live bait or minor directed harvest).
                </P>
                <P>
                    NMFS may approve and issue permits to participating vessels after publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and the close of the public comment period. NMFS will consider comments submitted in deciding whether to approve the application as requested. NMFS may approve the application in its entirety or may make any alterations needed to achieve the goals of the EFP project and the CPS FMP. NMFS may also approve different amounts of Pacific sardine for the EFP project if any changes are made to the 2025-2026 proposed sardine harvest specifications before final implementation.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>
                        (Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        )
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="34849"/>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kelly Denit,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13915 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XE983]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to the Hydaburg Seaplane Base Refurbishment Project in Hydaburg, Alaska</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; issuance of incidental harassment authorization.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>NMFS has received a request from the Alaska Department of Transportation and Public Facilities (DOT&amp;PF) for the re-issuance of a previously issued incidental harassment authorization (IHA) with the only change being effective dates. The initial IHA authorized take of nine species of marine mammals by Level A and Level B harassment incidental to construction associated with the Hydaburg Seaplane Base Refurbishment Project in Hydaburg, Alaska. The project has been delayed and none of the work covered in the initial IHA has been conducted. The scope of the activities and anticipated effects remain the same, authorized take numbers are not changed, and the required mitigation, monitoring, and reporting remains the same as included in the initial IHA. NMFS is, therefore, issuing a second identical IHA to cover the incidental take analyzed and authorized in the initial IHA.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The initial IHA was effective from September 15, 2024, through September 14, 2025. This authorization is effective for one year from the date of notification by the IHA-holder, not to exceed one year from the date of issuance (July 17, 2025).</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        An electronic copy of the final 2024 IHA previously issued to the DOT&amp;PF, the DOT&amp;PF's application, and the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notices proposing and issuing the initial IHA may be obtained by visiting 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/action/alaska-department-transportation-and-public-facilities-hydaburg-seaplane-base-refurbishment.</E>
                         In case of problems accessing these documents, please call the contact listed below (see 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Jenna Harlacher, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA; 16 U.S.C. 1361 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) directs the Secretary of Commerce (as delegated to NMFS) to allow, upon request, the incidental, but not intentional, taking of small numbers of marine mammals by U.S. citizens who engage in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographical region if certain findings are made and either regulations are issued or, if the taking is limited to harassment, a notice of a proposed authorization is provided to the public for review.
                </P>
                <P>An authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth.</P>
                <P>NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.</P>
                <P>The MMPA states that the term “take” means to harass, hunt, capture, kill or attempt to harass, hunt, capture, or kill any marine mammal.</P>
                <P>Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance, which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Request</HD>
                <P>
                    On January 9, 2024, NMFS published final notice of our issuance of an IHA authorizing take of marine mammals incidental to the Hydaburg Seaplane Base refurbishment project (89 FR 1066, January 9, 2024). The effective dates of that IHA were September 15, 2024, through September 14, 2025. On June 3, 2025, the DOT&amp;PF informed NMFS that the project was delayed due to scheduling constraints and funding availability. None of the work identified in the initial IHA (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     pile driving and removal) has occurred. The DOT&amp;PF submitted a request that we reissue an identical IHA in order to conduct the construction work that was analyzed and authorized through the previously issued IHA. Therefore, re-issuance of the IHA is appropriate. The proposed IHA would be valid for the statutory maximum of 1 year from the date of effectiveness, and will become effective upon written notification from the applicant to NMFS, but not beginning later than 1 year from the date of issuance or extending beyond 2 years from the date of issuance.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Specified Activity and Anticipated Impacts</HD>
                <P>The planned activities (including mitigation, monitoring, and reporting), authorized incidental take, and anticipated impacts on the affected stocks are the same as those analyzed and authorized through the previously issued IHA.</P>
                <P>DOT&amp;PF, in cooperation with the Federal Aviation Administration, is planning maintenance improvements to the existing Hydaburg Seaplane Base as part of the Hydaburg Seaplane Base Refurbishment Project. The existing facility has experienced deterioration in recent years, and DOT&amp;PF has conducted several repair projects. The facility is near the end of its useful life, and replacement of the existing float structures is required to continue safe operation in the future. The in-water portion of the project would include the removal of five existing steel piles and installation of eight permanent steel piles to support replacement of the floating dock structure. Up to 10 temporary steel piles would be installed to support permanent pile installation and would be removed following completion of permanent pile installation. Activities included as part of the project with potential to affect marine mammals include vibratory removal, down-the-hole installation, and vibratory and impact installation of steel pipe piles. The location, timing, and nature of the activities, including the types of equipment planned for use, are identical those described in the initial IHA. The mitigation and monitoring are also as prescribed in the initial IHA.</P>
                <P>
                    Species that are expected to be taken by the planned activity include 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34850"/>
                    humpback whale (
                    <E T="03">Megaptera novaeangliae</E>
                    ), minke whale (
                    <E T="03">Balaenoptera acutorostrata</E>
                    ), killer whale (
                    <E T="03">Orcinus orca</E>
                    ), Pacific white-sided dolphin (
                    <E T="03">Lagenorhynchus obliquidens</E>
                    ), Dall's porpoise (
                    <E T="03">Phocoenoides dalli</E>
                    ), harbor porpoise (
                    <E T="03">Phocoena phocoena</E>
                    ), Steller sea lion (
                    <E T="03">Eumetopias jubatus</E>
                    ), harbor seal (
                    <E T="03">Phoca vitulina</E>
                    ), and northern elephant seal (
                    <E T="03">Mirounga angustirostris</E>
                    ). A description of the methods and inputs used to estimate take anticipated to occur and, ultimately, the take that was authorized is found in the previous documents referenced above. The data inputs and methods of estimating take are identical to those used in the initial IHA. NMFS has reviewed recent stock assessment reports, information on relevant unusual mortality events, and recent scientific literature, and determined that no new information affects our original analysis of impacts or take estimate under the initial IHA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We refer to the documents related to the previously issued IHA, which include the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice of the issuance of the initial 2024 IHA for the DOT&amp;PF's construction work (89 FR 1066, January 9, 2024), the DOT&amp;PF's application, the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice of the proposed IHA (88 FR 45774, July 17, 2023), and all associated references and documents.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>The DOT&amp;PF will conduct activities as analyzed in the initial 2024 IHA. As described above, the number of authorized takes of the same species and stocks of marine mammals are identical to the numbers that were found to meet the negligible impact and small numbers standards and authorized under the initial IHA and no new information has emerged that would change those findings. The re-issued 2025 IHA includes identical required mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures as the initial IHA, and there is no new information suggesting that our analysis or findings should change.</P>
                <P>Based on the information contained here and in the referenced documents, NMFS has determined the following: (1) the required mitigation measures will effect the least practicable impact on marine mammal species or stocks and their habitat; (2) the authorized takes will have a negligible impact on the affected marine mammal species or stocks; (3) the authorized takes represent small numbers of marine mammals relative to the affected stock abundances; and (4) the DOT&amp;PF's activities will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on taking for subsistence purposes as no relevant subsistence uses of marine mammals are implicated by this action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    To comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and NOAA Administrative Order (NAO) 216-6A, NMFS must review our proposed action with respect to environmental consequences on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This action is consistent with categories of activities identified in Categorical Exclusion B4 (incidental take authorizations with no anticipated serious injury or mortality) of the Companion Manual for NOAA Administrative Order 216-6A, which do not individually or cumulatively have the potential for significant impacts on the quality of the human environment and for which we have not identified any extraordinary circumstances that would preclude this categorical exclusion. Accordingly, NMFS determined that the issuance of the initial IHA qualified to be categorically excluded from further NEPA review. NMFS has preliminarily determined that the application of this categorical exclusion remains appropriate for this reissued IHA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Endangered Species Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 7(a)(2) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (ESA; 16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) requires that each Federal agency insure that any action it authorizes, funds, or carries out is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat. To ensure ESA compliance for the issuance of IHAs, NMFS consults internally whenever we propose to authorize take for endangered or threatened species.
                </P>
                <P>There is one marine mammal species (Mexico DPS humpback whales) with confirmed occurrence in the project area that is listed as threatened under the ESA. AKRO issued a biological opinion on December 19, 2023, under section 7 of the ESA, on the issuance of an IHA to the DOT&amp;PF under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA by the NMFS Office of Protected Resources. The biological opinion concluded that the proposed action is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of Mexico DPS humpback whales, and this remains valid for the reissued IHA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authorization</HD>
                <P>NMFS has issued an IHA to the DOT&amp;PF for in-water construction activities associated with the specified activity, effective for one year from the date of effectiveness. All previously described mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements from the initial 2024 IHA are incorporated.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 18, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Shannon Bettridge,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13881 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">COMMITTEE FOR PURCHASE FROM PEOPLE WHO ARE BLIND OR SEVERELY DISABLED</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Procurement List; Additions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Additions to the Procurement List.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This action adds service(s) to the Procurement List that will be furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date added to and deleted from the Procurement List:</E>
                         August 24, 2025
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 355 E Street SW, Suite 325, Washington, DC 20024.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For further information or to submit comments contact: Michael R. Jurkowski, Telephone: (703) 489-1322 or email 
                        <E T="03">CMTEFedReg@AbilityOne.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additions</HD>
                <P>On April 25, 2025, the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled (operating as the U.S. AbilityOne Commission) published an initial notice of proposed additions to the Procurement List. (90 FR 17423). The Committee determined that the service listed below is suitable for procurement by the Federal Government and has added this service to the Procurement List as a mandatory purchase for the contracting activity listed. In accordance with 41 CFR 51-5.3(b), the mandatory purchase requirement is limited to the contracting activity listed at the location listed, and in accordance with 41 CFR 51-5.2, the Committee has authorized the nonprofit agency listed as the mandatory source of supply.</P>
                <P>
                    After consideration of the material presented to it concerning capability of qualified nonprofit agencies to provide the service(s) and impact of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34851"/>
                    additions on the current or most recent contractors, the Committee has determined that the service(s) listed below are suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act Certification</HD>
                <P>I certify that the following action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The major factors considered for this certification were:</P>
                <P>1. The action will not result in any additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities other than the small organizations that will furnish the service(s) to the Government.</P>
                <P>2. The action will result in authorizing small entities to furnish the service(s) to the Government.</P>
                <P>3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the service(s) proposed for addition to the Procurement List.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">End of Certification</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, the following service(s) are added to the Procurement List:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Service(s)</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Service Type:</E>
                         Warehouse Support Service
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory for:</E>
                         US Navy, NAVSUP Fleet Logistics Center Jacksonville, Naval Station Mayport, Mayport, FL
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Challenge Enterprises of North Florida, Inc., Green Cove Springs, FL
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         DEPT OF THE NAVY, NAVSUP FLT LOG CTR JACKSONVILLE
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Michael R. Jurkowski,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Business Operations.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13919 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6353-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMITTEE FOR PURCHASE FROM PEOPLE WHO ARE BLIND OR SEVERELY DISABLED</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Procurement List; Proposed Additions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed additions to the Procurement List.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Committee is proposing to add service(s) to the Procurement List that will be furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before: August 24, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 355 E Street SW, Suite 325, Washington, DC 20024.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For further information or to submit comments contact: Michael R. Jurkowski, Telephone: (703) 489-1322 or email 
                        <E T="03">CMTEFedReg@AbilityOne.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503(a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3. Its purpose is to provide interested persons an opportunity to submit comments on the proposed actions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additions</HD>
                <P>In accordance with 41 CFR 51-5.3(b), the Committee intends to add this services requirement to the Procurement List as a mandatory purchase only for contracting activity listed at the location listed with the proposed qualified nonprofit agency as the authorized source of supply. Prior to adding the service to the Procurement List, the Committee will consider other pertinent information, including information from Government personnel and relevant comments from interested parties regarding the Committee's intent to geographically limit this services requirement.</P>
                <P>The following service(s) are proposed for addition to the Procurement List for production by the nonprofit agencies listed:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Service(s)</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Service Type:</E>
                         Base Supply Center
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Mandatory for:</E>
                         U.S. Census Bureau, National Processing Center, Jeffersonville, IN
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Authorized Source of Supply:</E>
                         Industries for the Blind and Visually Impaired, Inc., West Allis, WI
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Contracting Activity:</E>
                         US CENSUS BUREAU, DEPT OF COMMERCE CENSUS
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Michael R. Jurkowski,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Business Operations.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13918 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6353-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">U.S. INTERNATIONAL DEVELOPMENT FINANCE CORPORATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[DFC-013]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; Comments Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. International Development Finance Corporation (DFC).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, agencies are required to publish a Notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notifying the public that the agency is renewing an existing information collection for OMB review and approval and requests public review and comment on the submission. The agencies received no comments in response to the sixty (60) day notice. The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional thirty (30) days for public comments to be submitted. Comments are being solicited on the need for the information; the accuracy of the burden estimate; the quality, practical utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize reporting the burden, including automated collected techniques and uses of other forms of technology.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received by August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments and requests for copies of the subject information collection may be sent by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Deborah Papadopoulos, Agency Submitting Officer, U.S. International Development Finance Corporation, 1100 New York Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20527.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: fedreg@dfc.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the agency name and agency form number or OMB form number for this information collection. Electronic submissions must include the agency form number in the subject line to ensure proper routing. Please note that all written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Agency Submitting Officer: Deborah Papadopoulos, (202) 357-3979.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The agency received no comments in response to the sixty (60) day notice published in 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     volume 90 page 21906 on May 22, 2025. Upon publication of this notice, DFC will submit to OMB a request for approval of the following information collection.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary Form Under Review</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Loan Transaction and Qualifying Loan Schedule Reports.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension without change of a currently approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency Form Number:</E>
                     DFC-013.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Form Number:</E>
                     3015-0011.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Semi-annual.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Number of Respondents:</E>
                     300.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time Per Respondent:</E>
                     4 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     2,400.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Semi-annual reporting by partner financial institutions via the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34852"/>
                    Loan Transaction and Qualifying Loan Schedule Reports will be required to monitor financial compliance with the business terms in loan and bond guarantees administered by the DFC's Office of Portfolio Monitoring and Management and to analyze the guaranty portfolio and loans placed under guaranty coverage. The information collected in the reports may also play a role, when coupled with other methods and tools, in evaluating program effectiveness.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Lisa Wischkaemper,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrative Counsel, Office of the General Counsel.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13938 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3210-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">U.S. INTERNATIONAL DEVELOPMENT FINANCE CORPORATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[DFC-001A, DFC001B]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; Comments Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. International Development Finance Corporation (DFC).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, agencies are required to publish a Notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notifying the public that the agency is renewing an existing information collection for OMB review and approval and requests public review and comment on the submission. The agencies received no comments in response to the sixty (60) day notice. The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional thirty (30) days for public comments to be submitted. Comments are being solicited on the need for the information; the accuracy of the burden estimate; the quality, practical utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize reporting the burden, including automated collected techniques and uses of other forms of technology.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received by September 22, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments and requests for copies of the subject information collection may be sent by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Deborah Papadopoulos, Agency Submitting Officer, U.S. International Development Finance Corporation, 1100 New York Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20527.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: fedreg@dfc.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the agency name and agency form number or OMB form number for this information collection. Electronic submissions must include the agency form number in the subject line to ensure proper routing. Please note that all written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Agency Submitting Officer: Deborah Papadopoulos, (202) 357-3979.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The agency received no comments in response to the sixty (60) day notice published in 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     volume 90 page 21907 on May 22, 2025. Upon publication of this notice, DFC will submit to OMB a request for approval of the following information collection.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary Form Under Review</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Application for Finance. Application for Direct Equity Investment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension without change of a currently approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency Form Number:</E>
                     DFC-001A, DFC-001B.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Form Number:</E>
                     3015-0004.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Once per investor per project.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit; not-for-profit institutions; individuals.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Number of Respondents:</E>
                     320.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     1.5 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     480 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Application for Finance is the principal document used by DFC to determine the proposed transaction's eligibility for debt financing and collects information for financial underwriting analysis. The Application for Direct Equity Investment collects information for direct equity applications.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Lisa Wischkaemper,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrative Counsel, Office of the General Counsel.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13939 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3210-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Department of the Air Force</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[AFIT PLA 2025-01]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intent To Grant an Exclusive Patent License</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Department of the Air Force, Department of Defense.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of intent.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to the Bayh-Dole Act and implementing regulations, the Department of the Air Force hereby gives notice of its intent to grant an exclusive patent license to Intuiscan ATC Technologies, LLC, a corporation of the state of Ohio having a place of business at 71 Lochinvar Ct., Xenia, OH 45385.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written objections must be filed no later than fifteen (15) calendar days after the date of publication of this Notice.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit written objections to Karleine M. Justice, AFIT Office of Research and Technology Applications (ORTA), 2950 Hobson Way, Bldg. 641, Rm. 101C, Wright-Patterson AFB, OH 45433-7765; 
                        <E T="03">Phone:</E>
                         (937) 656-0754; or 
                        <E T="03">Email:</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">karleine.justice.1@us.af.mil.</E>
                         Include Docket No. AFIT PLA 2025-01 in the subject line of the message.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Karleine M. Justice, AFIT Office of Research and Technology Applications (ORTA), 2950 Hobson Way, Bldg. 641, Rm. 101C, Wright-Patterson AFB, OH 45433-7765; 
                        <E T="03">Phone:</E>
                         (937) 656-0754; or 
                        <E T="03">Email:</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">karleine.justice.1@us.af.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Patent Application(s)</HD>
                <P>An apparatus and method of presenting air traffic data to an air traffic controller are provided. Air traffic data including a two-dimensional spatial location and altitude for a plurality of aircraft is received. A disparity value is determined based on the altitude for each aircraft of the plurality of aircraft. Left and right eye images are generated of the plurality of aircraft where at least one of the left and right eye images is based on the determined disparity value. The left and right eye images are simultaneously displayed to the air traffic controller on a display. The simultaneously displayed images provide an apparent three-dimensional separation of each of the aircraft of the plurality of aircraft on the display.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Intellectual Property</HD>
                <P>
                    U.S. Patent No. 9,667,947 B2, issued on May 30, 2017, and entitled “
                    <E T="03">Stereoscopic 3-D Presentation for Air Traffic Control Digital Radar Displays.”</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Department of the Air Force may grant the prospective license unless a timely objection is received that sufficiently shows the grant of the license would be inconsistent with the Bayh-Dole Act or implementing regulations. A competing application for a patent license agreement, completed in compliance with 37 CFR 404.8 and received by the Air Force within the period for timely objections, will be treated as an objection and may be 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34853"/>
                    considered as an alternative to the proposed license.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 35 U.S.C. 209; 37 CFR 404.)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Tommy W. Lee,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Air Force Federal Register Liaison Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13986 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3911-44-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Department of the Air Force</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[25-0005809-AFRL/RY]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intent To Grant a Partially Exclusive Patent License</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Department of the Air Force, Department of Defense.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of intent.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to the Bayh-Dole Act and implementing regulations, the Department of the Air Force hereby gives notice of its intent to grant a partially exclusive patent license to Parcell Company, a corporation of the state of Ohio having a place of business at 2335 Westbrooke Dr., Columbus, OH 43228.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written objections must be filed no later than fifteen (15) calendar days after the date of publication of this Notice.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit written objections to Robert Barnes, Office of Research and Technology Applications (ORTA), 2241 Avionics Circle, Building 620, First floor, Wright-Patterson AFB, OH 45433-7304; 
                        <E T="03">Phone:</E>
                         (937) 713-8511; or 
                        <E T="03">Email:</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">arfl.ry.orta@us.af.mil.</E>
                         Include Docket No. 25-0005809-AFRL/RY in the subject line of the message.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Robert Barnes, Office of Research and Technology Applications (ORTA), 2950 Hobson Way, Bldg. 641, Rm. 101C, Wright-Patterson AFB, OH 45433-7765; 
                        <E T="03">Phone:</E>
                         (937) 713-8511; or 
                        <E T="03">Email:</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">robert.barnes.36.ctr@us.af.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Patent Application(s)</HD>
                <P>Protection and integration of proprietary data in an open system architecture, which includes at least one sub-system, and which must comply with an open standard interface mandated by the system owner. The open standard interface defines the set of messages or signals which may be exchanged by sub-system components. The sub-system provider computer is granted a bridge node to instantiate within their controlled sub-system boundary. The bridge node communicates with the sub-system components via the interchangeable open standard interface and relays messages or signals to other sub-system bridge nodes through a shared common bus. The sub-system provider may protect their proprietary data in their standard interface implementation from the system owner and/or other sub-system providers in the overall system. This is achieved by removing the need for sub-system providers to share their open standard interface implementations with each other in order to integrate together into the overall system.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Intellectual Property</HD>
                <P>
                    U.S. Patent No. 10,901,928 B2, issued on January 26, 2021, and entitled “
                    <E T="03">Data Access Control in an Open System Architecture.</E>
                    ”
                </P>
                <P>The Department of the Air Force may grant the prospective license unless a timely objection is received that sufficiently shows the grant of the license would be inconsistent with the Bayh-Dole Act or implementing regulations. A competing application for a patent license agreement, completed in compliance with 37 CFR 404.8 and received by the Air Force within the period for timely objections, will be treated as an objection and may be considered as an alternative to the proposed license.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 35 U.S.C. 209; 37 CFR 404.)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Tommy W. Lee,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Air Force Federal Register Liaison Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13987 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3911-44-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DELAWARE RIVER BASIN COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Hearing and Business Meeting; August 6, 2025 and September 10, 2025</SUBJECT>
                <P>Notice is hereby given that the Delaware River Basin Commission will hold a public hearing on Wednesday, August 6, 2025. A business meeting will be held the following month on Wednesday, September 10, 2025. Both the hearing and the business meeting are open to the public and both will be conducted virtually.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Hearing.</E>
                     The Commission will conduct the public hearing virtually on August 6, 2025, commencing at 1:30 p.m. Hearing items will include draft dockets for withdrawals, discharges, and other projects that could have a substantial effect on the basin's water resources. A list of the projects scheduled for hearing, including project descriptions, along with links to draft docket approvals will be posted on the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">www.drbc.gov,</E>
                     in a long form of this notice at least ten days before the hearing date.
                </P>
                <P>Written comments on matters scheduled for hearing on August 6, 2025 will be accepted through 5:00 p.m. on Monday, August 11, 2025.</P>
                <P>The public is advised to check the Commission's website periodically during the ten days prior to the hearing date, as items scheduled for hearing may be postponed if additional time is needed to complete the Commission's review. Items also may be added up to ten days prior to the hearing date. In reviewing docket descriptions, the public is asked to be aware that the details of projects may change during the Commission's review, which is ongoing.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Business Meeting.</E>
                     The business meeting on September 10, 2025 will begin at 10:30 a.m. and will include: adoption of the Minutes of the Commission's June 11, 2025 business meeting; announcements of upcoming meetings and events; a report on hydrologic conditions; reports by the Executive Director and the Commission's General Counsel; and consideration of any items for which a hearing has been completed or is not required. The agenda is expected to include consideration of the draft dockets for withdrawals, discharges, and other projects that were subjects of the public hearing on August 6, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>After all scheduled business has been completed and as time allows, the business meeting will be followed by up to one hour of Open Public Comment, an opportunity to address the Commission off the record on any topic concerning management of the basin's water resources outside the context of a duly noticed, on-the-record public hearing.</P>
                <P>
                    There will be no opportunity for additional public comment for the record at the September 10, 2025 business meeting on items for which a hearing was completed on August 6, 2025 or a previous date. Commission consideration on September 10, 2025 of items for which the public hearing is closed may result in approval of the item as proposed, approval with changes, denial, or deferral. When the Commissioners defer an action, they may announce an additional period for written comment on the item, with or without an additional hearing date, or they may take additional time to consider the input they have already received without requesting further public input. Any deferred items will be 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34854"/>
                    considered for action at a public meeting of the Commission on a future date.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Advance Registration and Sign-Up for Oral Comment.</E>
                     Links for registration to attend the virtual public hearing and business meeting will be posted at 
                    <E T="03">www.drbc.gov</E>
                     at least ten days before each meeting date. Registrants who wish to comment on the record during the public hearing on August 6, 2025 or to address the Commissioners informally during the Open Public Comment session following the meeting on September 10, 2025 as time allows, will be asked to so indicate when registering. The Commission's public hearing, business meeting, and Open Public Comment session will also be livestreamed on YouTube at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.youtube.com/@DRBC_1961.</E>
                     For assistance, please contact Ms. Patricia Hausler of the Commission staff, at 
                    <E T="03">patricia.hausler@drbc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Addresses for Written Comment.</E>
                     Written comment on items scheduled for hearing may be made through the Commission's web-based comment system, a link to which is provided at 
                    <E T="03">www.drbc.gov.</E>
                     Use of the web-based system ensures that all submissions are captured in a single location and their receipt is acknowledged. Exceptions to the use of this system are available based on need, by writing to the attention of the Commission Secretary, DRBC, P.O. Box 7360, 25 Cosey Road, West Trenton, NJ 08628-0360. For assistance, please contact Patricia Hausler at 
                    <E T="03">patricia.hausler@drbc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accommodation for Special Needs.</E>
                     Closed captioning will be available on both webinar and live-stream platforms. Those with limited internet access may listen and speak at virtual public meetings of the DRBC using any of several toll-free phone numbers that will be provided to all virtual meeting registrants.
                </P>
                <P>Other individuals in need of an accommodation as provided for in the Americans with Disabilities Act who wish to attend the virtual hearing or business meeting should contact the Commission Secretary directly at 609-477-7203 or through the Telecommunications Relay Services (TRS) at 711, to discuss how we can accommodate your needs.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Additional Information, Contacts.</E>
                     Additional public records relating to hearing items may be examined at the Commission's offices by appointment by contacting Donna Woolf, 609-477-7222. For other questions concerning hearing items, please contact David Kovach, Project Review Manager, at 609-477-7264.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority.</E>
                     Delaware River Basin Compact, Public Law 87-328, Approved September 27, 1961, 75 Statutes at Large, 688, sec. 14.4.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 17, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Pamela M. Bush,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Commission Secretary and Assistant General Counsel.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13962 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6360-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ELECTION ASSISTANCE COMMISSION </AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Voting System Manufacturer Registration, Application for Testing, Anomaly Reporting and Root Cause Analysis, Survey and Submission to OMB of Proposed Collection of Information</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Election Assistance Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), and as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, the U.S. Election Assistance Commission (EAC) gives notice that it is requesting from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for the extension of information collection of four Testing and Certification forms. OMB approval is requested for 3 years.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments should be submitted by 11:59pm on Monday, August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submission of Comments: Comments on the proposed Testing and Certification forms should be submitted electronically via 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         (docket documents ID: EAC-2025-0001-0002, EAC-2025-0001-0003, EAC-2025-0001-0004, EAC-2025-0001-0004). Written comments on the proposed information collection can also be sent to the U.S. Election Assistance Commission, 633 3rd Street NW, Suite 200, Washington, DC 20001, Attn: Testing &amp; Certification.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Paul Aumayr, Senior Election Technology Specialist, Testing and Certification Program, Washington DC (301)-563-3919. All requests and submissions should be identified by the title of the information collection.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Titles and OMB Number:</E>
                     Manufacturer Registration, Application for Testing, Voting System Anomaly Reporting and Root Cause Analysis; OMB Number 3265-0024.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Purpose</HD>
                <P>Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party.</P>
                <P>
                    This proposed information collection was previously published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on Thursday, May 15, 2025, and allowed 60 days for public comment. The purpose of this Notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comment from all interested individuals and organizations.
                </P>
                <P>The EAC Testing and Certification Program assists state and local election officials by providing voting machine testing and certification. This program is a requirement of the Help America Vote Act (HAVA) of 2002, legislation that created the EAC and mandated that the Commission provide certification, decertification, and recertification of voting systems.</P>
                <P>The program is seeking to extend the publishing of four forms. These are to be used to collect key information concerning voting system manufacturers and their systems, as well as information regarding anomalies in voting systems used in federal elections. These forms collect:</P>
                <P>• The voting system manufacturer registration form collects information on the ownership, contact details for certain directors and senior staff, and the quality processes for manufacturers who wish to participate in the EAC's Testing and Certification program.</P>
                <P>• The voting system application collects administrative information on new or modified voting systems that are being submitted for testing by a registered voting system manufacturer.</P>
                <P>• The voting system anomaly report will collect initial anomaly information as reported by voting system manufacturers and election officials.</P>
                <P>• The root cause analysis form collects information on voting system anomalies, test results, and findings.</P>
                <P>This information is collected to improve the quality of voting systems used in federal elections.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Comments</HD>
                <P>The EAC is soliciting public comments to permit the EAC to:</P>
                <P>
                    • Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the EAC's Testing and Certification Program.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34855"/>
                </P>
                <P>• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.</P>
                <P>• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Voting System Manufacturers, and State and Local Election Officials.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Annual Reporting Burden</HD>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Annual Burden Estimates</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Instrument</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                            <LI>per year</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>hours per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Manufacturer
                            <LI>Registration Form</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Voting System
                            <LI>Certification</LI>
                            <LI>Application Form</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Field Anomaly
                            <LI>Reporting Form</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Voting System
                            <LI>Root Cause</LI>
                            <LI>Analysis</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                        <ENT>150</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>26</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>172</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Burden in hours</E>
                    —172 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Burden cost</E>
                    —$14,876.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Seton Parsons,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Counsel, U.S. Election Assistance Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13959 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-71-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intent To Publish the 45Z Emissions Value Request Process</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of intent and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) provides notice of intent to publish the Emissions Value Request Process in support of the U.S. Department of the Treasury's (Treasury) and Internal Revenue Service's (IRS) administration of the clean fuel production credit. Additionally, DOE invites public comment on a proposed collection of information that DOE is developing for submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments must be received by September 22, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments may be sent to John Cabaniss, 1000 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20585, 202-287-5531, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">EERE_Bioenergy@ee.doe.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        A copy of this information collection request, with applicable supporting documentation, may be obtained by contacting John Cabaniss at 
                        <E T="03">EERE_Bioenergy@ee.doe.gov</E>
                         or 202-287-5531. Communication via email is preferred.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>As part of the Inflation Reduction Act of 2022 (Pub. L. 117-169), Congress created a tax credit for clean transportation fuel production (section 45Z credit). The amount of the credit is determined, in part, by the lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions rate of the production of the transportation fuel. On January 10, 2025, Treasury and the IRS issued a notice of intent to propose regulations addressing the clean fuel production credit determined under section 45Z, which applies to eligible transportation fuel produced domestically after December 31, 2024, that is sold by December 31, 2027. Notice 2025-10. In a companion notice issued on January 10, 2025, Treasury and IRS provide initial guidance on emissions rates under the section 45Z credit, including an initial table that sets forth emissions rates for similar categories and types of fuel as required under section 45Z(b)(1)(B). Notice 2025-11.</P>
                <P>
                    Section 45Z(b)(1)(D) provides that for any transportation fuel for which an emissions rate has not been established under section 45Z(b)(1)(B), a taxpayer producing such type or category of fuel may file a petition with the Treasury Secretary for determination of a provisional emissions rate (PER). As provided in Notice 2025-10 and Notice 2025-11, Treasury and the IRS intend to provide guidance at a later time related to the PER petition process, including the process for obtaining an emissions value from the DOE that a taxpayer requesting a PER (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     applicant) will use to request a PER determination. The IRS will not accept requests for PER determinations for the section 45Z credit, and the DOE will not issue emissions values, until after such guidance is published.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. DOE Emissions Value Request Process</HD>
                <P>
                    For purposes of the section 45Z PER process, an emissions value is a value obtained from DOE setting forth DOE's analytical assessment of the lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions rate associated with the production of a type of transportation fuel using a particular primary feedstock and pathway. DOE anticipates providing an emissions value request process similar to that provided for the tax credit for clean hydrogen production (Internal Revenue Code section 45V).
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     DOE contemplates that an applicant would complete a front-end engineering and design (FEED) study or similar indicia of project maturity, as determined by the DOE, prior to requesting an emissions value from DOE.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         DOE guidance on the section 45V Emissions Value Request process is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.energy.gov/eere/45v-emissions-value-request.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="34856"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. FEED Study</HD>
                <P>The DOE has initially determined that a FEED study completed based on an Association for Advanced Cost Engineering (AACE) Class 3 Cost Estimate is necessary to sufficiently indicate commercial project maturity for robust emissions analysis. DOE seeks comments on whether alternative appropriate methods for demonstrating project readiness exist.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Emissions Value Request</HD>
                <P>In order to request an emissions value from the DOE for a given fuel, DOE is considering a requirement for applicants to submit the following information to the DOE: (1) specific sections of the FEED study, as described in the DOE's section 45Z Emissions Value Request process instructions (Instructions; discussed in Section III of this document); and (2) a completed section 45Z Emissions Value Request Form, as described in the Instructions. Additionally, the Emissions Value Request may contain any additional information that may be beneficial to DOE in completing a lifecycle GHG analysis of the fuel for which the applicant is requesting an emissions value. Such additional information would be optional, and the applicant's Emissions Value Request would be considered complete regardless of whether any additional information is provided.</P>
                <P>In order to file an Emissions Value Request Application, applicants would first be required to send an email to a designated DOE email stating their intent to submit an Emissions Value Request and the name of the applicant's organization. The DOE would then send the applicant an email with a link to a secure folder to which the applicant would upload the Emissions Value Request.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>Comments are requested on the DOE's contemplated Emissions Value Request process, including (1) whether additional procedures should be implemented to effectuate the Emissions Value Request process; (2) information to be collected and whether additional information should be considered by DOE in evaluating an Emissions Value Request; and (3) any other aspects of the Emissions Value Request process.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) (PRA) generally requires that a Federal agency obtain the approval of OMB before collecting information from the public, whether such collection of information is mandatory, voluntary, or required to obtain or retain a benefit. A Federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid control number.</P>
                <P>The collection of information described in this document would include reporting and third-party disclosure requirements. This collection is necessary for certain fuel producers to obtain an emissions value which they may use to petition the IRS for a PER in order to claim the section 45Z credit. This information would generally be used by the DOE to assist applicants in obtaining their emissions values and may be provided to the IRS for tax compliance purposes.</P>
                <P>This document addresses a collection of information related to submitting an Emissions Value Request and supporting documentation to DOE to enable DOE to provide an analytical assessment of the lifecycle GHG emissions of the applicant's fuel production. Prior to the opening of the Emissions Value Request process, DOE will publish on its website Instructions for submitting an Emissions Value Request and other application material.</P>
                <P>The Emissions Value Request will require that applicants provide specific sections of a FEED Study based on an AACE Class 3 Cost Estimate and other detailed fuel production and emissions information. The information submitted with Emissions Value Request Applications would allow the DOE to prepare its analytical assessments of the production of a type of transportation fuel using a particular primary feedstock and pathway for which applicants are requesting emissions values, which are necessary for fuel producers whose fuel's type, pathway, or primary feedstock is not included in the applicable section 45Z emissions rate table published by Treasury and IRS.</P>
                <P>To assist with the collection of information, the DOE will provide administration services for the Emissions Value Request process. Among other things, the DOE will utilize an electronic file sharing system to receive and review Emissions Value Requests and to provide Calculated Emissions Value Letters to applicants. The DOE may provide information received or developed by the DOE to the IRS. These collection requirements will be submitted to OMB under 1910-NEW for review and approval in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.10. The likely respondents are businesses and individuals.</P>
                <P>A summary of paperwork burden estimates for the Emissions Value Request process is as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated number of respondents:</E>
                     200.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated burden per response:</E>
                     40.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated frequency of response:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated total burden hours:</E>
                     8,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Comments are requested on the collection requirements for the DOE's Emissions Value Request process. Written comments for the proposed information collection should be submitted to the point of contact specified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this document by the date specified in the 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     section of this document.
                </P>
                <P>Comments are specifically requested concerning:</P>
                <P>1. Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of DOE, including whether the information will have practical utility.</P>
                <P>2. The accuracy of the estimated burden associated with the proposed collection of information.</P>
                <P>3. How the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected may be enhanced.</P>
                <P>4. How the burden of complying with the proposed collection of information may be minimized, including through the application of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>5. Estimates of capital costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide the requested information.</P>
                <P>
                    Once approved by OMB under the DOE OMB Control Number 1910-NEW and the Emissions Value Request process is open, notice will be given in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Signing Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    This document of the Department of Energy was signed on July 21, 2025, by Lou Hrkman, Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, pursuant to delegated authority from the Secretary of Energy. That document with the original signature and date is maintained by DOE. For administrative purposes only, and in compliance with requirements of the Office of the Federal Register, the undersigned DOE Federal Register Liaison Officer has been authorized to sign and submit the document in electronic format for publication, as an official document of the Department of Energy. This administrative process in no way alters the legal effect of this document upon publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="34857"/>
                    <DATED>Signed in Washington, DC, on July 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jennifer Hartzell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Alternate Federal Register Liaison Officer, U.S. Department of Energy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13912 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6450-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. RD25-1-000, RD25-2-000, RD25-3-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Commission Information Collection Activities (FERC-725G) Comment Request; Revision</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) is soliciting public comment on proposed revisions of the currently approved information collection, Mandatory Reliability Standards, Revised Protection and Control Reliability Standards (PRC): Reliability Standards PRC-028-1 (Disturbance Monitoring and Reporting Requirements for Inverter-Based Resources) and PRC-002-5 (Disturbance Monitoring and Reporting Requirements); 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and (3) proposed Reliability Standard PRC-030-1 (Unexpected Inverter-Based Resource Event Mitigation). The 60-day notice published on February 26, 2025; no comments were received during the comment period.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             NERC Petition, Docket No. RD25-2-000 (NERC PRC-028-1 Petition).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on the collection of information are due August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send written comments on FERC-725G to OMB through 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRA/icrPublicCommentRequest?ref_nbr=202507-1902-002.</E>
                         You can also visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                         and use the drop-down under “Currently under Review” to select the “Federal Energy Regulatory Commission” where you can see the open opportunities to provide comments. Comments should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Please submit a copy of your comments to the Commission via email to 
                        <E T="03">DataClearance@FERC.gov.</E>
                         You must specify the Docket No. (RD25-1-000, RD25-1-000, RD25-3-000) and the FERC Information Collection number (FERC-725G) in your email. If you are unable to file electronically, comments may be filed by USPS mail or by hand (including courier) delivery:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail via U.S. Postal Service Only:</E>
                         Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Secretary of the Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">All other delivery methods:</E>
                         Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Secretary of the Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, MD 20852.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         To view comments and issuances in this docket, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/eLibrary/search.</E>
                         Once there, you can also sign-up for automatic notification of activity in this docket.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Kayla Williams, (202) 502-6468. 
                        <E T="03">DataClearance@FERC.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     FERC-725G, (Mandatory Reliability Standards: PRC Reliability Standards) and
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control No.:</E>
                     FERC-725G (1902-0252).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of FERC-725G—Mandatory Reliability Standards, PRC Standards: for PRC-028-1, PRC-002-5, and PRC-030-1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Reliability Standards pertaining to disturbance monitoring and reporting requirements for IBRs and unexpected IBR event mitigation as well as the IBR definition are being proposed. The Commission approved the proposed IBR definition and Reliability Standards PRC-028-1, PRC-002-5, and PRC-030-1 pursuant to section 215(d)(2) of the FPA because the definition and the Standards help ensure the availability of data from synchronous generating resources and IBRs; the Standards also create requirements for a documented process to identify unexpected IBR events and to develop corrective action plans, as needed.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission bases its paperwork burden estimates on the additional paperwork burden presented by the proposed revisions to Reliability Standard PRC-002-5 and new Reliability Standards PRC-028-1 and PRC-030-1. The new glossary term Inverter-Based Resource (IBR) is not expected to generate any new burden as it is a definition used within the body of Reliability Standards. Reliability Standards are objective-based and allow entities to choose compliance approaches best tailored to their systems. As of November 20, 2024, the NERC Compliance Registry identified 12 reliability coordinators, 325 transmission owners, and 1,238 generator owners as unique U.S. entities that are subject to mandatory compliance with Reliability Standard PRC-002-5. Additionally, these entities will have additional burdens given that the revisions to Reliability Standard PRC-002-5 will focus on synchronous generation and updates to SER, FR, and DDR data being supplied to the reliability coordinator, regional entity, or NERC. Burden estimates for the unique U.S. entities for new PRC-028-1 and PRC-030-1 are taken from numbers supplied by NERC, with 591 registered generator owners that own bulk electric system solar and wind facilities and a median 755 generator owners that own non bulk electric system facilities. Based on these assumptions, we estimate the following reporting burden:
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The “Number of Entity” data is compiled from the November 20, 2024, edition of the NERC Compliance Registry.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The estimated hourly cost (salary plus benefits) is a combination of the following categories from the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) website,
                        <E T="03">http://www.bls.gov/oes/current/naics2_22.htm:</E>
                         75% of the average of an Electrical Engineer (17-2071) $79.31/hr., $79.31 × 0.75 = $59.4825 ($59.48/hour); and 25% of an Information and Record Clerk (43-4199) $44.74/hr., $44.74 × 0.25 = 11.185 ($11.19/hour); for a total of ($59.48 + $11.19 = $70.67/hour).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The “Number of Entity” data is compiled from the November 20, 2024, edition of the NERC Compliance Registry.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The estimated hourly cost (salary plus benefits) is a combination of the following categories from the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) website,
                        <E T="03">http://www.bls.gov/oes/current/naics2_22.htm:</E>
                         75% of the average of an Electrical Engineer (17-2071) $79.31/hr., $79.31 × 0.75 = $59.4825 ($59.48/hour); and 25% of an Information and Record Clerk (43-4199) $44.74/hr., $44.74 × 0.25 = $11.185 ($11.19/hour); for a total of ($59.48 + $11.19 = $70.67/hour).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The “Number of Entity” data is compiled from the November 20, 2024, edition of the NERC Compliance Registry.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         The estimated hourly cost (salary plus benefits) is a combination of the following categories from the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) website 
                        <E T="03">http://www.bls.gov/oes/current/naics2_22.htm:</E>
                         75% of the average of an Electrical Engineer (17-2071) $79.31/hr., 79.31 × 0.75 = 59.4825 ($59.48/hour); and 25% of an Information and Record Clerk (43-4199) $44.74/hr., $44.74 × 0.25% = 11.185 ($11.19/hour); for a total of ($59.48 + $11.19 = $70.67/hour).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="34858"/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Proposed Changes in Burden PRC-002-5 Docket No. RD25-1</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Reliability standard</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Type and number of 
                            <LI>
                                entity 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>responses per entity</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total number of responses</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average number of burden hours per response 
                            <SU>3</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25"/>
                        <ENT>(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1) * (2) = (3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(3) * (4) = (5)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Annual Collection PRC-002-5 FERC-725G</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Annual review and record retention</ENT>
                        <ENT>12 (RC)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>8 hrs. $ 70.67/hr</ENT>
                        <ENT>96 hrs. $ 6,784.32</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">325 (TO)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>325</ENT>
                        <ENT>8 hrs. $ 70.67/hr</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,600 hrs. $ 183,742.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>1,238 (GO)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,238</ENT>
                        <ENT>8 hrs. $ 70.67/hr</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.904 hrs. $ 699,915.68</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total for PRC-002-5</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,575</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>12,600 hrs. $ 890,442.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,12,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Proposed Burden PRC-028-1 Docket No. RD25-2</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Reliability standard</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Type and number of 
                            <LI>
                                entity 
                                <SU>4</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of 
                            <LI>annual </LI>
                            <LI>responses per entity</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total number of responses</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average number of 
                            <LI>burden hours per </LI>
                            <LI>
                                response 
                                <SU>5</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1) * (2) = (3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(3) * (4) = (5)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Annual Collection PRC-028-1 FERC-725G</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Annual review and record retention</ENT>
                        <ENT>591 (BES IBR GO)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>591</ENT>
                        <ENT>80 hrs. $ 70.67/hr</ENT>
                        <ENT>47,280 hrs. $ 3,341,277.60</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>755 (Non-BES IBR GO)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>755</ENT>
                        <ENT>80 hrs. $ 70.67/hr</ENT>
                        <ENT>60,400 hrs. $ 4,268,468.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total for PRC-028-1</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,346</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>107,680 hrs. $ 7,609,745.60</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,12,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Proposed Burden PRC-030-1 Docket No. RD25-3</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Reliability standard</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Type and number of 
                            <LI>
                                entity 
                                <SU>6</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of 
                            <LI>annual </LI>
                            <LI>responses per entity</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total number of responses</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average number of 
                            <LI>burden hours per </LI>
                            <LI>
                                response 
                                <SU>7</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1) * (2) = (3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(3) * (4) = (5)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Annual Collection PRC-030-1 FERC-725G</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Annual review and record retention</ENT>
                        <ENT>591 (BES IBR GO)</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>296</ENT>
                        <ENT>40 hrs. $ 70.67/hr</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,840 hrs. $ 836,732.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>755 (Non-BES IBR GO)</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>378</ENT>
                        <ENT>40hrs. $ 70.67/hr</ENT>
                        <ENT>15,120 hrs. $ 1,068,530.40</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total for PRC-030-1</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>674</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>26,960 hrs. $ 1,905,263.20</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The responses and burden hours for Years 1-3 will total respectively as follows:</P>
                <P>• Year 1-3 each: for proposed Reliability standard PRC-002-5 will be 1,575 responses; 12,600 hours;</P>
                <P>• Year 1-3 each: for proposed Reliability Standard PRC-028-1 will be 1,346 responses; 107,680 hours; and</P>
                <P>• Year 1-3 each: for proposed Reliability Standard PRC-030-1 will be 674 responses; 26,960 hours.</P>
                <P>• The annual cost burden for each Year 1-3 is $890,442.00 for proposed Reliability Standard PRC-002-5; $7,609,745.60 for Proposed Reliability Standard PRC-028-1; and $1,905,263.20 for proposed Reliability Standard PRC-030-1.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     Comments are invited on: (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden and cost of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: July 18, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13880 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="34859"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 2727-092]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Black Bear Hydro Partners, LLC; Notice of Waiver Period for Water Quality Certification Application</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    On July 21, 2025, the Maine Department of Environmental Protection (Maine DEP) submitted to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) notice that it received a request for a Clean Water Act section 401(a)(1) water quality certification as defined in 40 CFR 121.5, from the Black Bear Hydro Partners, LLC, in conjunction with the above captioned project on June 18, 2025. Pursuant to the Commission's regulations,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     we hereby notify the Maine DEP of the following:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         18 CFR 5.23(b)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Date of Receipt of the Certification Request:</E>
                     June 18, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Reasonable Period of Time to Act on the Certification Request:</E>
                     One year (June 18, 2026).
                </P>
                <P>If Maine DEP fails or refuses to act on the water quality certification request on or before the above date, then the certifying authority is deemed waived pursuant to section 401(a)(1) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1341(a)(1).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13992 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>The following notice of meeting is published pursuant to section 3(a) of the government in the Sunshine Act (Pub. L. 94-409), 5 U.S.C. 552b:</P>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY HOLDING MEETING: </HD>
                    <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATE AND TIME: </HD>
                    <P>July 24, 2025, 10:00 a.m.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PLACE: </HD>
                    <P>Room 2C, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426. Open to the public.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS: </HD>
                    <P>Open.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">MATTERS TO BE CONSIDERED: </HD>
                    <P>Agenda.</P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Note</E>
                        —Items listed on the agenda may be deleted without further notice.
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P> Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Telephone (202) 502-8400.</P>
                    <P>For a recorded message listing items Stricken from or added to the meeting, call (202) 502-8627.</P>
                    <P>
                        This is a list of matters to be considered by the Commission. It does not include a listing of all documents relevant to the items on the agenda. All public documents, however, may be viewed online at the Commission's website at 
                        <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/eLibrary/search</E>
                         using the eLibrary link.
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs36,r100,r150">
                    <TTITLE>1127th—Meeting</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Open; July 24, 2025, 10:00 a.m.]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Item No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Docket No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Company</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Administrative</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">A-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>AD25-1-000</ENT>
                        <ENT>Agency Administrative Matters.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">A-2</ENT>
                        <ENT>AD25-2-000</ENT>
                        <ENT>Customer Matters, Reliability, Security and Market Operations.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Electric</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">E-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>RM25-3-000</ENT>
                        <ENT>Reliability Standards for Frequency and Voltage Protection Settings and Ride-Through for Inverter-Based Resources.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E-2</ENT>
                        <ENT>ER24-2045-000, ER24-2045-002</ENT>
                        <ENT>PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E-3</ENT>
                        <ENT>EL24-50-001</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Salsa Solar Energy, LLC and Towner Wind Energy III LLC</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Public Service Company of Colorado</E>
                            .
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E-4</ENT>
                        <ENT>ER25-2320-000</ENT>
                        <ENT>North Hills Wind Project, LLC.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">E-5</ENT>
                        <ENT>ER24-1156-002, ER24-1156-003</ENT>
                        <ENT> Florida Power &amp; Light Company.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Gas</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">G-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>IS20-108-004, IS21-133-001, OR21-1-001 (Consolidated)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            TransCanada Keystone Pipeline, LP. 
                            <E T="03">Husky US Marketing LLC and Phillips 66 Company</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">TransCanada Keystone Pipeline, LP</E>
                            .
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Hydro</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">H-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>P-15320-001</ENT>
                        <ENT>Stirling T. Hebenstreit.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">H-2</ENT>
                        <ENT>P-13739-007</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Lock +
                            <E T="0731">TM</E>
                             Hydro Friends Fund XLII, LLC.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">H-3</ENT>
                        <ENT>ZZ25-8-000</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tennessee Valley Authority.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Certificates</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">C-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>CP24-520-000</ENT>
                        <ENT>El Paso Natural Gas Company, L.L.C.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">C-2</ENT>
                        <ENT>CP24-529-000</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tennessee Gas Pipeline Company, L.L.C.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">C-3</ENT>
                        <ENT>CP24-494-000 </ENT>
                        <ENT>Black Bayou Gas Storage, LLC.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    A free webcast of this event is available through the Commission's website. Anyone with internet access who desires to view this event can do so by navigating to 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    's Calendar of Events and locating this event in the Calendar. The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission provides technical support for the free webcasts. Please call (202) 502-8680 or email 
                    <E T="03">customer@ferc.gov</E>
                     if you have any questions.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34860"/>
                </P>
                <P>Immediately following the conclusion of the Commission Meeting, a press briefing will be held in the Commission Meeting Room. Members of the public may view this briefing in the designated overflow room. This statement is intended to notify the public that the press briefings that follow Commission meetings may now be viewed remotely at Commission headquarters but will not be telecast.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued: July 17, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13916 Filed 7-22-25; 11:15 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. RM01-5-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Electronic Tariff Filings; Notice of Changes to the Establishment of Effective Dates for Filings Initially Accepted With Indeterminate Effective Dates (12/31/9998)</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that effective July 28, 2025, the Commission is modifying its eTariff program as it applies to filings that establish effective dates in proceedings in which the Commission had previously accepted proposed tariff records with indeterminate effective dates (12/31/9998). The revised process is intended to improve the accuracy of the data in eTariff. Under the revision, filers need to use the same process to designate an accepted tariff record with a 12/31/9998 date as overtaken by events (OBE) as they currently use to designate a pending tariff record as OBE. Companies with outstanding obligations to make compliance or informational filings to establish effective dates for filings using 12/31/9998 dates should follow this procedure.</P>
                <P>
                    The following provides a more detailed description of how the process will work. The need for this procedure arises when an eTariff filer needs Commission acceptance of its filing before it can establish an effective date for the tariff record(s).
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Under current procedures, the filer includes a 12/31/9998 placeholder date as its proposed record effective date in its initial filing (Filing 1). If the Commission accepts that filing, the tariff record(s) are then designated as “accepted” in eTariff.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         A common example is when, a filer makes a proposal to establish a new service and does not know the effective date because it wants Commission acceptance of the filing before it makes the investment needed for implementation and does not know how long implementation will take.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>After this revision to eTariff, once the filer knows the effective date of the tariff record(s) previously accepted by the Commission, the filer will be required to make a compliance filing (Filing 2) to establish the actual effective date for the tariff record(s) and to designate the original accepted tariff record(s) in Filing 1 as OBE. Under this procedure, the filer must make a compliance filing in the same docket as Filing 1 by using the associated filing identifier (associated_filing_id) at the filing level. The filing must include a tariff record(s) with the actual effective date(s) for the previously-accepted tariff record(s) and that also includes, at the tariff record level, the associated filing identifier (associated_filing_id), associated record id (associated_record_id), and associated option code (associated_option_code) of each original tariff record accepted with a 12/31/9998 date. Filers should note that this process can be used only to designate as OBE an accepted tariff record with a 12/31/9998 date and cannot be used to designate as OBE other accepted or effective tariff records.</P>
                <P>
                    For more information, contact 
                    <E T="03">Michael.Goldenberg@ferc.gov, James.Sarikas@ferc.gov,</E>
                     or the eTariff Advisory Staff at 202-502-6501 or at 
                    <E T="03">etariffresponse@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13996 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CP25-519-000; Docket No. PF24-5-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Gulfstream LNG Development, LLC; Notice of Application and Establishing Intervention Deadline</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that on July 7, 2025, Gulfstream LNG Development, LLC (Gulfstream LNG), 1000 N Post Oak Road, Suite 220, Houston, Texas 77055, filed an application under section 3(a) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) and Part 153 of the Commission's regulations requesting authorization for its Gulfstream LNG Project (Project). Specifically, Gulfstream LNG proposes to site, construct, and operate a liquefied natural gas export facility in Plaquemines Parish, Louisiana. The proposed Project consists of three liquefaction trains with a total liquefaction capacity of four million metric tonnes per annum, a truck loading facility, two berths, a 200,000 cubic meter storage tank, and appurtenances, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open for public inspection.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Commission provides all interested persons an opportunity to view and/or print the contents of this document via the internet through the Commission's Home Page (
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ). From the Commission's Home Page on the internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field.
                </P>
                <P>
                    User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at 
                    <E T="03">ferconlinesupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     or the Public Reference Room at (202) 502-8371, TTY (202) 502-8659. Email the Public Reference Room at 
                    <E T="03">public.referenceroom@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any questions regarding the proposed project should be directed to Howard L. Nelson, Attorney, Greenberg Traurig, LLP, 2101 L Street NW, Suite 1000, Washington, DC 20037, by phone at (202) 331-3163, or by email at 
                    <E T="03">nelsonh@gtlaw.com.</E>
                </P>
                <P>On May 16, 2024, the Commission granted Gulfstream LNG's request to utilize the Pre-Filing Process and assigned Docket No. PF24-5-000 to staff activities involved in the Project. Now, as of the filing of the July 7, 2025 application, the Pre-Filing Process for this project has ended. From this time forward, this proceeding will be conducted in Docket No. CP25-519-000 as noted in the caption of this Notice.</P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: complete its environmental review and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34861"/>
                    Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or environmental assessment (EA) for this proposal. The filing of an EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         18 CFR 157.9.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Water Quality Certification</HD>
                <P>Gulfstream LNG stated that a water quality certificate under section 401 of the Clean Water Act is required for the project from Louisiana Department of Environmental Quality. When available, Gulfstream LNG should submit to the Commission a copy of the request for certification for the Commission authorization, including the date the request was submitted to the certifying agency, and either (1) a copy of the certifying agency's decision or (2) evidence of waiver of water quality certification.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation</HD>
                <P>There are three ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project: you can file comments on the project, you can protest the filing, and you can file a motion to intervene in the proceeding. There is no fee or cost for filing comments or intervening. The deadline for filing a motion to intervene is 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on August 11, 2025. How to file protests, motions to intervene, and comments is explained below.</P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Comments</HD>
                <P>Any person wishing to comment on the project may do so. Comments may include statements of support or objections, to the project as a whole or specific aspects of the project. The more specific your comments, the more useful they will be.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Protests</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to sections 157.10(a)(4) 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and 385.211 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Commission's regulations under the NGA, any person 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     may file a protest to the application. Protests must comply with the requirements specified in section 385.2001 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Commission's regulations. A protest may also serve as a motion to intervene so long as the protestor states it also seeks to be an intervenor.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         18 CFR 157.10(a)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.211.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Persons include individuals, organizations, businesses, municipalities, and other entities. 18 CFR 385.102(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.2001.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To ensure that your comments or protests are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments on or before August 11, 2025.</P>
                <P>There are three methods you can use to submit your comments or protests to the Commission. In all instances, please reference the Project docket number CP25-519-000 in your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    (1) You may file your comments electronically by using the eComment feature, which is located on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                     under the link to Documents and Filings. Using eComment is an easy method for interested persons to submit brief, text-only comments on a project;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (2) You may file your comments or protests electronically by using the eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) under the link to Documents and Filings. With eFiling, you can provide comments in a variety of formats by attaching them as a file with your submission. New eFiling users must first create an account by clicking on “eRegister.” You will be asked to select the type of filing you are making; first select “General” and then select “Comment on a Filing”; or
                </P>
                <P>(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments or protests by mailing them to the following address below. Your written comments must reference the Project docket number (CP25-519-000).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">To file via USPS:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">To file via any other courier:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments (options 1 and 2 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or 
                    <E T="03">FercOnlineSupport@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>Persons who comment on the environmental review of this project will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, and will receive notification when the environmental documents (EA or EIS) are issued for this project and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process.</P>
                <P>The Commission considers all comments received about the project in determining the appropriate action to be taken. However, the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. To become a party, you must intervene in the proceeding. For instructions on how to intervene, see below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Interventions</HD>
                <P>
                    Any person, which includes individuals, organizations, businesses, municipalities, and other entities,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     has the option to file a motion to intervene in this proceeding. Only intervenors have the right to request rehearing of Commission orders issued in this proceeding and to subsequently challenge the Commission's orders in the U.S. Circuit Courts of Appeal.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.102(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    To intervene, you must submit a motion to intervene to the Commission in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the regulations under the NGA 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     by the intervention deadline for the project, which is August 11, 2025. As described further in Rule 214, your motion to intervene must state, to the extent known, your position regarding the proceeding, as well as your interest in the proceeding. For an individual, this could include your status as a landowner, ratepayer, resident of an impacted community, or recreationist. You do not need to have property directly impacted by the project in order to intervene. For more information about motions to intervene, refer to the FERC website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/resources/guides/how-to/intervene.asp.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.214.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         18 CFR 157.10.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>There are two ways to submit your motion to intervene. In both instances, please reference the Project docket number CP25-519-000 in your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    (1) You may file your motion to intervene by using the Commission's eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) under the link to Documents and Filings. New eFiling users must first create an account by clicking on 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34862"/>
                    “eRegister.” You will be asked to select the type of filing you are making; first select “General” and then select “Intervention.” The eFiling feature includes a document-less intervention option; for more information, visit 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/document-less-intervention.pdf.;</E>
                     or
                </P>
                <P>(2) You can file a paper copy of your motion to intervene, along with three copies, by mailing the documents to the address below. Your motion to intervene must reference the Project docket number CP25-519-000.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">To file via USPS:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">To file via any other courier:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission encourages electronic filing of motions to intervene (option 1 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or 
                    <E T="03">FercOnlineSupport@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Protests and motions to intervene must be served on the applicant either by mail or email at: Howard L. Nelson, Attorney, Greenberg Traurig, LLP, 2101 L Street NW, Suite 1000, Washington, DC 20037 or by email (with a link to the document) at 
                    <E T="03">nelsonh@gtlaw.com.</E>
                     Any subsequent submissions by an intervenor must be served on the applicant and all other parties to the proceeding. Contact information for parties can be downloaded from the service list at the eService link on FERC Online. Service can be via email with a link to the document.
                </P>
                <P>
                    All timely, unopposed 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     motions to intervene are automatically granted by operation of Rule 214(c)(1).
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Motions to intervene that are filed after the intervention deadline are untimely, and may be denied. Any late-filed motion to intervene must show good cause for being late and must explain why the time limitation should be waived and provide justification by reference to factors set forth in Rule 214(d) of the Commission's Rules and Regulations.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies (paper or electronic) of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The applicant has 15 days from the submittal of a motion to intervene to file a written objection to the intervention.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.214(c)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.214(b)(3) and (d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Tracking the Proceeding</HD>
                <P>
                    Throughout the proceeding, additional information about the project will be available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC website at 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                     using the “eLibrary” link as described above. The eLibrary link also provides access to the texts of all formal documents issued by the Commission, such as orders, notices, and rulemakings.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. For more information and to register, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/esubscription.asp.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intervention Deadline:</E>
                     5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on August 11, 2025.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13990 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings #1</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG25-397-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     SMT Houston IV LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     SMT Houston IV LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     7/21/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250721-5086.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/11/25.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-2537-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: 1166R47 Oklahoma Municipal Power Authority NITSA and NOA—Amended to be effective 9/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     7/21/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250721-5028.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/11/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-2898-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     64NB 8me LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Initial Rate Filing: Application for Market-Based Rate Authorization, Request for Related Waivers to be effective 7/19/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     7/18/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250718-5122.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/8/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-2899-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Entergy Arkansas, LLC, Entergy Louisiana, LLC, Entergy Mississippi, LLC, Entergy New Orleans, LLC, Entergy Texas, Inc., Entergy Services, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     205(d) Rate Filing: Entergy Arkansas, LLC submits tariff filing per 35.13(a)(2)(iii: MSS-4R Nuclear PTC to be effective 9/15/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     7/18/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250718-5126.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/8/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-2900-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     205(d) Rate Filing: Amendment to ISA, Service Agreement No. 4316; Queue Position No. AE2-183 to be effective 9/20/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     7/21/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250721-5020.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/11/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-2901-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     205(d) Rate Filing: Amendment to GIA, SA No. 7392; Project Identifier No. AF2-234 (amend) to be effective 9/20/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     7/21/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250721-5021.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/11/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-2902-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     ISO New England Inc., Maine Electric Power Company, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     205(d) Rate Filing: Maine Electric Power Company, Inc. submits tariff filing per 35.13(a)(2)(iii: ISO-NE and MEPCO; Revisions to Attachment H of the OATT to be effective 9/20/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     7/21/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250721-5037.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/11/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-2904-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Mid-Atlantic Interstate Transmission, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     205(d) Rate Filing: MAIT submits amnded IA—SA No. 7222 to be effective 9/20/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     7/21/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250721-5063.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/11/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-2905-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     American Transmission Systems, Incorporated.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     205(d) Rate Filing: ATSI submits admnd Construction Agmt SA No. 7179 to be effective 9/20/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     7/21/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250721-5064.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 8/11/25.
                </P>
                <PRTPAGE P="34863"/>
                <P>
                    The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
                    <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/idmws/search/fercgensearch.asp</E>
                    ) by querying the docket number.
                </P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf</E>
                    . For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organization, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13997 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 6972-035]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Ampersand Hollow Dam Hydro, LLC; Notice of Application for Surrender of License Accepted for Filing, Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:</P>
                <P>
                    a. 
                    <E T="03">Application Type:</E>
                     Surrender of license.
                </P>
                <P>
                    b. 
                    <E T="03">Project No:</E>
                     6972-035.
                </P>
                <P>
                    c. 
                    <E T="03">Date Filed:</E>
                     March 6, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    d. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant:</E>
                     Ampersand Hollow Dam Hydro, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    e. 
                    <E T="03">Name of Project:</E>
                     Hollow Dam Hydroelectric Project.
                </P>
                <P>
                    f. 
                    <E T="03">Location:</E>
                     The project is located on the West Branch Oswegatchie River in the town of Fowler, St. Lawrence County, New York. The project does not occupy any federal lands.
                </P>
                <P>
                    g. 
                    <E T="03">Filed Pursuant to:</E>
                     Federal Power Act, 16 U.S.C. 791a-825r.
                </P>
                <P>
                    h. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant Contact:</E>
                     Sayad Moudachirou, Ampersand Energy, 717 Atlantic Avenue, Suite 1A, Boston MA 02111, 
                    <E T="03">sayad@ampersandenergy.com,</E>
                     617-933-7206.
                </P>
                <P>
                    i. 
                    <E T="03">FERC Contact:</E>
                     Diana Shannon, (202) 502-6136, 
                    <E T="03">diana.shannon@ferc.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    j. 
                    <E T="03">Cooperating agencies:</E>
                     With this notice, the Commission is inviting federal, state, local, and Tribal agencies with jurisdiction and/or special expertise with respect to environmental issues affected by the proposal, that wish to cooperate in the preparation of any environmental document, if applicable, to follow the instructions for filing such requests described in item k below. Cooperating agencies should note the Commission's policy that agencies that cooperate in the preparation of any environmental document cannot also intervene. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     94 FERC ¶ 61,076 (2001).
                </P>
                <P>
                    k. 
                    <E T="03">Deadline for filing comments, motions to intervene, and protests:</E>
                     August 20, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, motions to intervene, and protests using the Commission's eFiling system at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling.asp.</E>
                     Commenters can submit brief comments up to 6,000 characters, without prior registration, using the eComment system at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/ecomment.asp.</E>
                     For assistance, please contact FERC Online Support at 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     (866) 208-3676 (toll free), or (202) 502-8659 (TTY). In lieu of electronic filing, you may submit a paper copy. Submissions sent via the U.S. Postal Service must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426. Submissions sent via any other carrier must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, MD 20852. The first page of any filing should include the docket number P-6972-035. Comments emailed to Commission staff are not considered part of the Commission record.
                </P>
                <P>The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person whose name appears on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.</P>
                <P>
                    l. 
                    <E T="03">Description of Request:</E>
                     In 2021, the applicant notified the Commission of its intent to relicense the 1.06 MW project. However, a lease agreement with the dam owner could not be obtained and the applicant now proposes to surrender the project. As part of decommissioning, the applicant proposes to remove: (1) all electrical equipment from the control room and de-energize the switchyard; (2) the generator-turbine unit; and (3) the trashracks. The dam, fencing, portage, takeout facilities, and parking area will be left in place. In addition, the applicant proposes to repaint the dam danger and portage signs. The boat barrier at the project will be left in place. No modifications to the dam or control room and no ground-disturbance is proposed. Flow will continue to be spilled over the dam or through the bypass gate following surrender of the project.
                </P>
                <P>
                    m. 
                    <E T="03">Locations of the Application:</E>
                     This filing may be viewed on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov</E>
                     using the “eLibrary” link. Enter the docket number excluding the last three digits in the docket number field to access the document. You may also register online at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/esubscription.asp</E>
                     to be notified via email of new filings and issuances related to this or other pending projects. For assistance, call 1-866-208-3676 or email 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     for TTY, call (202) 502-8659. Agencies may obtain copies of the application directly from the applicant.
                </P>
                <P>n. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.</P>
                <P>
                    o. 
                    <E T="03">Comments, Protests, or Motions to Intervene:</E>
                     Anyone may submit comments, a protest, or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210, .211, .214, respectively. In determining the appropriate action to take, the Commission will consider all protests or other comments filed, but only those who file a motion to intervene in accordance with the Commission's Rules may become a party to the proceeding. Any comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be received 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34864"/>
                    on or before the specified comment date for the particular application.
                </P>
                <P>
                    p. 
                    <E T="03">Filing and Service of Documents:</E>
                     Any filing must (1) bear in all capital letters the title “COMMENTS”, “PROTEST”, or “MOTION TO INTERVENE” as applicable; (2) set forth in the heading the name of the applicant and the project number of the application to which the filing responds; (3) furnish the name, address, and telephone number of the person commenting, protesting or intervening; and (4) otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 385.2001 through 385.2005. All comments, motions to intervene, or protests must set forth their evidentiary basis. Any filing made by an intervenor must be accompanied by proof of service on all persons listed in the service list prepared by the Commission in this proceeding, in accordance with 18 CFR 385.2010.
                </P>
                <P>
                    q. The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members, and others access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13995 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OPP-2025-0756; FRL-12903-01-OCSPP]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>
                    Request for Nominations of 
                    <E T="0714">ad hoc</E>
                     Expert Reviewers; Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act Scientific Advisory Panel; Determining the Absence of Novel Proteins in the Saliva of Genetically Engineered Mosquitoes for Mosquito Control; Meetings
                </SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA or “Agency”) is seeking public nominations of scientific and technical experts that EPA can consider for service as 
                        <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                         reviewers assisting the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act Scientific Advisory Panel (FIFRA SAP) for the review of design considerations for genetically engineered (GE) mosquitoes for mosquito control and for the review of information on the absence of novel proteins in the saliva of GE female mosquitoes. EPA currently anticipates selecting approximately 6-9 
                        <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                         reviewers and plans to make the list of candidates under consideration as prospective 
                        <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                         reviewers for this review available for public comment. EPA is also announcing that a virtual public meeting of the FIFRA SAP is scheduled for November 3-5, 2025. In late August 2025, EPA plans to release the white paper to the FIFRA SAP for peer review, along with all background documents, related supporting materials, and charge questions provided to the FIFRA SAP. At that time, EPA will publish a separate document in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         to announce the availability of and solicit public comment on the draft documents and provide instructions for submitting comments and registering to provide oral comments at the November 3-5, 2025, meeting.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit your nominations on or before August 14, 2025.</P>
                    <P>
                        The following is a chronological listing of the dates for the specific activities that are described in more detail under 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>August 14, 2025—Deadline for submitting all nominations to EPA.</P>
                    <P>
                        November 3-5, 2025, from 10 a.m. to approximately 5:30 p.m. (ET)—The public virtual meeting will be held via a webcast platform such as “
                        <E T="03">Zoomgov.com</E>
                        ” and audio teleconference, and you must register to receive the links.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Nominations:</E>
                         Submit your nominations via email to 
                        <E T="03">OCSPP-PeerReview@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Special accommodations:</E>
                         For information on meeting access or services for individuals with disabilities, and to request accommodation for a disability, please contact the Designated Federal Official (DFO) listed under 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Contact the DFO, Alie Muneer, Mission Support Division, Office of Program Support, Office of Chemical Safety and Pollution Prevention, Environmental Protection Agency; telephone number: (202) 564-6369 or call the FIFRA SAP main office at (202) 564-8450; email address: 
                        <E T="03">muneer.alie@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. General Information</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. What action is the Agency taking?</HD>
                <P>
                    The Agency is seeking public nominations of scientific and technical experts that EPA can consider for service as 
                    <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                     peer reviewers for the FIFRA SAP peer review on determining the absence of novel proteins in the saliva of GE female mosquitoes for mosquito control. The EPA will also be soliciting comments from these experts on the approach and methodologies presented in the white paper. This white paper will be used to inform any changes to the draft memorandum for developers which will also be released for public comment and peer review.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This document provides instructions for submitting nominations for 
                    <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                     reviewers, requesting special accommodations for the public meeting, and accessing the materials provided to the FIFRA SAP. The EPA will publish a separate document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     in late August 2025 to announce the availability of and solicit public comment on the white paper, and to provide instructions for submitting comments, and registering to provide oral comments.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Does this action apply to me?</HD>
                <P>This action is directed to the public in general.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. What should I consider as I submit my nominations to EPA?</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Submitting Confidential Business Information (CBI).</E>
                     Do not submit CBI or other sensitive information to EPA through 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or email. If your nomination contains any information that you consider to be CBI or otherwise protected, please contact the DFO listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     to obtain special instructions before submitting that information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Tips for preparing comments.</E>
                     When preparing and submitting your comments, see Tips for Effective Comments at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">
                    II. Nominations of 
                    <E T="7462">ad hoc</E>
                     Peer Reviewers
                </HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. What is the purpose of the FIFRA SAP?</HD>
                <P>
                    The FIFRA SAP serves as one of the primary scientific peer review mechanisms of EPA's Office of Chemical Safety and Pollution Prevention (OCSPP) and is structured to provide independent scientific advice, information, and recommendations to the EPA Administrator on pesticides 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34865"/>
                    and pesticide-related issues as to the impact of regulatory actions on human health and the environment. The FIFRA SAP is a federal advisory committee established in 1975 under FIFRA that operates in accordance with requirements of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. 10). The FIFRA SAP is composed of a permanent Panel consisting of seven members who are appointed by the EPA Administrator from nominees provided by the National Institutes of Health and the National Science Foundation. FIFRA established a Science Review Board (SRB) consisting of at least 60 scientists who are available to the FIFRA SAP on an 
                    <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                     basis to assist in reviews conducted by the FIFRA SAP. As a scientific peer review mechanism, the FIFRA SAP provides comments, evaluations, and recommendations to improve the effectiveness and quality of analyses made by Agency scientists. Members of the FIFRA SAP are scientists who have sufficient professional qualifications, including training and experience, to provide expert advice and recommendations to the Agency. While there are 60 members of the SRB who can be selected as 
                    <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                     peer reviewers, there is often a specific scientific expertise needed and thus, as with this FRN, the Agency is soliciting additional 
                    <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                     peer reviewers.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Why is EPA seeking nominations for ad hoc peer reviewers?</HD>
                <P>
                    As part of a broader process for developing a pool of candidates for FIFRA SAP peer reviews, EPA is asking the public and stakeholder communities for nominations of scientific and technical experts that EPA can consider as prospective candidates for service as 
                    <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                     reviewers assisting the FIFRA SAP with this peer review. Any interested person or organization may nominate qualified individuals for consideration as prospective candidates for this review by following the instructions provided in this document. Individuals may also self-nominate.
                </P>
                <P>Those who are selected from the pool of prospective candidates will be invited to attend the public meeting and to participate in the discussion of key issues and assumptions at the meeting. In addition, they will be asked to review and help finalize the meeting minutes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. What expertise is sought for this peer review?</HD>
                <P>Individuals nominated for this FIFRA SAP peer review, should have expertise in one or more of the following areas:</P>
                <P>1. Analytical methods for nucleic acid and protein detection</P>
                <P>2. Molecular Biology</P>
                <P>3. Mosquito Biology</P>
                <P>4. Entomology</P>
                <P>Nominees should be scientists who have sufficient professional qualifications, including training and experience, to be capable of providing expert comments on the scientific issues for this review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. How do I make a nomination?</HD>
                <P>
                    By the deadline indicated under 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                    , submit your nomination via email to the mailbox identified in 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Each nomination should include the following: Contact information for the person or entity making the nomination; name, affiliation, and contact information for the nominee; and the disciplinary and specific areas of expertise of the nominee.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Will ad hoc peer reviewers be subjected to an ethics review?</HD>
                <P>
                    FIFRA SAP members and 
                    <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                     peer reviewers are subject to the provisions of the Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Executive Branch at 5 CFR part 2635, conflict of interest statutes in Title 18 of the United States Code and related regulations. In anticipation of this requirement, prospective candidates for service on the FIFRA SAP will be asked to submit confidential financial information which shall fully disclose, among other financial interests, the candidate's employment, stocks and bonds, and where applicable, sources of research support. EPA will evaluate the candidates' financial disclosure forms to assess whether there are financial conflicts of interest, appearance of a loss of impartiality, or any prior involvement with the development of the documents under consideration (including previous scientific peer review) before the candidate is considered further for service.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. How will EPA select the ad hoc peer reviewers?</HD>
                <P>
                    The selection of scientists to serve as 
                    <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                     peer reviewers for the FIFRA SAP is based on the function of the Panel and the expertise needed to address the Agency's charge to the Panel. Interested scientists will be eligible to serve irrespective of their membership on any advisory committee to a federal department or Agency or their employment by a federal department or Agency, other than EPA. Other factors considered during the selection process include availability of the prospective candidate to fully participate in the Panel's review, ability to be hired as an EPA Special Government Employee, absence of any conflicts of interest or appearance of loss of impartiality, independence with respect to the matters under review, and lack of bias. Although financial conflicts of interest, the appearance of loss of impartiality, lack of independence, and bias may result in non-selection, the absence of such concerns does not assure that a candidate will be selected to serve on the FIFRA SAP.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Numerous qualified candidates are often identified for FIFRA SAP peer reviews. Therefore, selection decisions involve carefully weighing a number of factors including the candidates' areas of expertise and professional qualifications and achieving an overall balance of different scientific perspectives across peer reviewers. The Agency will consider all nominations of prospective candidates for service as 
                    <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                     peer reviewers for the FIFRA SAP that are received on or before the date listed in the 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     section of this document. However, the final selection of 
                    <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                     peer reviewers is a discretionary function of the Agency. At this time, EPA anticipates selecting approximately 6-9 
                    <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                     peer reviewers for this FIFRA SAP peer review.
                </P>
                <P>
                    EPA plans to make a list of candidates under consideration as prospective 
                    <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                     peer reviewers for this FIFRA SAP peer review available for public comment in August 2025. The list will be available in the docket at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     (docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2025-0756 and on the FIFRA SAP website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/sap.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Public Virtual Meeting of the FIFRA SAP</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. What is the purpose of this public meeting?</HD>
                <P>The focus of the virtual public meeting is to seek the FIFRA's SAP review and input on determining the absence of novel proteins in the saliva of GE female mosquitoes for mosquito control. This includes specific aspects of the Agency's draft memorandum that provides considerations for developers of GE mosquitoes. Feedback from this review will be considered in the development of a final memorandum.</P>
                <P>
                    EPA intends to announce in late August 2025 in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register,</E>
                     the availability of and solicit public comment on the white paper, at which time EPA will provide instructions for submitting public comments for the Agency's and FIFRA SAP 
                    <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                     peer reviewers' consideration.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34866"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Why did EPA develop these documents?</HD>
                <P>
                    Genetic engineering can be used to develop modified mosquitoes for mosquito control purposes. A hallmark of GE mosquitoes is their species-specific mode-of-action, as they rely on the mating of modified male mosquitoes with wild-type females that are present in the treatment area. GE male mosquitoes express reproductive incompatibilities that are designed to reduce the number of offspring emerging from these matings (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     full sterility or sex-specific sterility). When released in quantities and at frequencies sufficient to outcompete the wild-type males, fewer mosquitoes of that species emerge in the treatment area, reducing its population size over time. GE mosquitoes may be engineered to carry one or more genes that code for a pesticidal trait as well as other genes that are integral to its function; such as those coding for markers that allow for the visual detection of the introduced genetic cassette. To date, EPA has granted one Experimental Use Permit for a GE 
                    <E T="03">Ae. aegypti</E>
                     product, called OX5034, for which the company is now seeking a commercial registration. Similar GE mosquito products are currently in various stages of development.
                </P>
                <P>For novel types of pesticides, such as a GE mosquito, EPA determines on a case-by-case basis the data and information needed to support the risk assessments. The base data are anchored in the established tiered biochemical data requirements at 40 CFR part 158. This information is then supplemented with product-specific information, such as the biology of the particular GE mosquito and any novel exposure potentials.</P>
                <P>In the United States, various species of mosquitoes are known to transmit diseases that are of concern to humans, livestock, or wildlife. As such, these same species of mosquitoes may be engineered with the goal of reducing their population. For the human health assessment, determining the likelihood of the presence of GE females in the environment is important as female mosquitoes (but not males) bite humans and therefore may pose a unique intradermal route of pesticide exposure. Generally, the number of GE females in the environment is expected to be very low, however some GE females may either be incidentally released and/or emerge in the environment from matings.</P>
                <P>EPA performs human health risk assessments and by definition risk is a function of both hazard and exposure. Eliminating the dermal exposure route by ensuring the absence of GE proteins in the saliva of GE females would therefore eliminate the overall potential for risk from these novel proteins through that route. To that end, the EPA has developed a draft memorandum that outlines genetic design considerations to minimize the likelihood for an engineered protein to be present in the saliva of GE females and to provide recommendations on specific tests to empirically determine protein absence in the saliva. The outlined considerations will reduce the likelihood of developing GE mosquitoes that produce and/or secrete novel proteins into the saliva and the analytical methods will ensure that the potential for dermal exposure, and thus risk, to GE proteins is eliminated.</P>
                <P>EPA will be soliciting advice from the SAP on specific aspects of the Agency's draft memorandum for developers of GE mosquitoes and case studies with the intent to provide additional acceptable methodologies. If appropriate, based on the recommendations from the FIFRA SAP, EPA will update, and release the final memorandum to provide support to developers of these technologies on how EPA will utilize the data in its human health risk assessment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. How can I access the documents submitted for review to the FIFRA SAP?</HD>
                <P>
                    The EPA is planning to release the white paper, the background documents, related supporting materials, and the charge questions to the FIFRA SAP in late August 2025 as described in Unit I.A. EPA will publish a separate document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     to announce the availability of and solicit public comment on the draft documents and provide instructions for submitting comments and registering to provide oral comments. These materials will be available in the docket through 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     (Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OPP-2025-0756) and the FIFRA SAP website.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. How can I participate in the public virtual meeting?</HD>
                <P>
                    The public virtual meeting will be held via a webcast platform such as “
                    <E T="03">Zoomgov.com</E>
                    ” and audio teleconference. You must register online to receive the webcast meeting link and audio teleconference information. Please follow the registration instructions that will be announced on the FIFRA SAP website in August 2025. You may subscribe to the following listserv for alerts regarding this and other FIFRA SAP-related activities: 
                    <E T="03">https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USAEPAOPPT/subscriber/new?topic_id=USAEPAOPPT_101.T.</E>
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>
                        (Authority: 5 U.S.C. 10; 7 U.S.C. 136 
                        <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                         21 U.S.C. 301 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        )
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: July 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Nancy B. Beck,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Principal Deputy Assistant Administrator, Office of Chemical Safety and Pollution Prevention.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13909 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OAR-2020-0664; FRL-12902-01-OMS]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; NSPS for Emission Guidelines and Compliance Times for Small Municipal Waste Combustion Units Constructed on or Before August 30, 1999 (Renewal)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has submitted an information collection request (ICR), NSPS for Emission Guidelines and Compliance Times for Small Municipal Waste Combustion Units Constructed on or before August 30, 1999 (EPA ICR Number 1901.09, OMB Control Number 2060-0424) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through July 31, 2025. Public comments were previously requested via the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on August 6, 2024 during a 60-day comment period. This notice allows for an additional 30 days for public comments.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments may be submitted on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number EPA-HQ-OAR-2020-0664, to EPA online using 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         (our preferred method), by email to 
                        <E T="03">a-and-r-docket@epa.gov,</E>
                         or by mail to: EPA Docket Center, Environmental Protection Agency, Mail Code 28221T, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34867"/>
                        the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Submit written comments and recommendations to OMB for the proposed information collection within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Muntasir Ali, Sector Policies and Program Division, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standard, D243-05, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (919) 541-0833; email address: 
                        <E T="03">ali.muntasir@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through July 31, 2025. An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    Public comments were previously requested via the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on August 6, 2024 during a 60-day comment period (89 FR 63933). This notice allows for an additional 30 days for public comments. Supporting documents, which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting, are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or in person at the EPA Docket Center, WJC West, Room 3334, 1301 Constitution Ave. NW, Washington, DC. The telephone number for the Docket Center is 202-566-1744. For additional information about EPA's public docket, visit 
                    <E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/dockets.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Emission Guidelines and Compliance Times for Small Municipal Waste Combustion Units Constructed on or Before August 30, 1999 were originally promulgated in December 1995, but were vacated by the Federal Court during March 1997. Subsequently, the Emission Guidelines were re-proposed on August 30, 1999; and promulgated on December 6, 2000. The Emission Guidelines regulate organics (dioxin/furans), metals (cadmium, lead, mercury), particulate matter, and acid gases (hydrogen chloride, sulfur dioxide, and nitrogen oxides) for small Municipal Waste Combustion (MWC) units. Small MWC units are MWC units with capacities to combust greater than 35 tons per day (tpd) and less than 250 tons per day (tpd) of municipal solid waste. The Emission Guidelines contain monitoring, reporting, and recordkeeping requirements that are to be included in state plans. If a State/Local Agency does not develop, adopt, and submit an approvable State plan, then facilities in that state are subject to the Federal Plan (Federal Plan Requirements for Small Municipal Waste Combustion Units Constructed On or Before August 30, 1999 (40 CFR part 62, subpart JJJ)), adopted on January 31, 2003. The Federal Plan implements the emission guidelines in jurisdictions that have not developed an approved State Plan. These regulations do not directly apply to small MWC unit owners and operators. However, MWC unit owners and operators must comply with either the State or Federal plans to implement the emission guidelines contained in this Subpart. This Information Collection Request (ICR) identifies the burden to both respondents (owners or operators of small MWC units) and the Designated Administrator (either state/local agencies or the Federal government) to implement the emission guidelines imposed by the State plans. This information is being collected to assure compliance with 40 CFR part 60, subpart BBBB.
                </P>
                <P>In general, all Emission Guidelines require initial notifications, performance tests, and periodic reports by the owners/operators of the affected facilities. They are also required to maintain records of the occurrence and duration of any startup, shutdown, or malfunction in the operation of an affected facility, or any period during which the monitoring system is inoperative. These notifications, reports, and records are essential in determining compliance, and are required of all affected facilities subject to these Emission Guidelines.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Numbers:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/affected entities:</E>
                     Small MWC units constructed on or before August 30, 1999.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's obligation to respond:</E>
                     Mandatory (40 CFR part 60, subpart BBBB).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated number of respondents:</E>
                     14 (total).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of response:</E>
                     Initially, annually, and semiannually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated burden:</E>
                     55,600 hours (per year). Burden is defined at 5 CFR 1320.03(b).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated cost:</E>
                     $5,321,000 (per year), which includes $411,000 annualized capital or operation &amp; maintenance costs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Changes in the estimates:</E>
                     There is a decrease of 30,900 hours in the total estimated respondent burden compared with the ICR currently approved by OMB. This decrease is due to more accurate estimates of existing sources. The EPA has determined that several sources have closed since the previously-approved ICR renewal. Because there is a decrease in the number of respondents, there is also a decrease in the capital/O&amp;M costs from the most recently approved ICR. The capital/O&amp;M costs were increased from 2009 $ to 2023 $ using the CEPCI CE Index; however, the result is a net decrease in the capital/O&amp;M costs.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Courtney Kerwin,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Information Engagement Division.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13921 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OPPT-2025-0626]; FRL-12886-01-OCSPP]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Approval of a Test Marketing Exemption for a New Chemical Under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA or the Agency) is providing notice of its approval of an application for test marketing exemption (TME) under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA). EPA has designated this application as T-24-0001. The test marketing conditions are described in the TME application and in this document.</P>
                </SUM>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2025-0626, is available online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Additional information about dockets generally, along with instructions for visiting the docket in-person, is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">For technical information:</E>
                         Meg Victor, New Chemicals Division (7405M), Office of Pollution Prevention and Toxics, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (202) 343-9193; email address: 
                        <E T="03">victor.meg@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">For general information:</E>
                         The TSCA-Hotline, ABVI-Goodwill, 422 South Clinton Ave., Rochester, NY 14620; 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34868"/>
                        telephone number: (202) 554-1404; email address: 
                        <E T="03">TSCA-Hotline@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Does this action apply to me?</HD>
                <P>This action provides information directed to the public in general and to the chemical manufacturer that submitted to EPA the TME application designated T-24-0001.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. What action is the Agency taking?</HD>
                <P>
                    This document provides notice of EPA's approval of an application for test marketing exemption (TME) under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA). EPA also provides information on its website about exemption applications reviewed under TSCA, including exemption applications received, the date of receipt, and the status and effective date of EPA's decision on its website at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/reviewing-new-chemicals-under-toxic-substances-control-act-tsca/exemptions-table.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. What is the Agency's authority for taking this action?</HD>
                <P>TSCA section 5(h)(1) authorizes EPA to exempt persons from premanufacture notification (PMN) requirements and permit them to manufacture (which includes import) new chemicals for test marketing purposes, if the Agency finds that the manufacture, processing, distribution in commerce, use, and disposal of the chemicals for test marketing purposes will not present any unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment, including an unreasonable risk to a potentially exposed or susceptible subpopulation identified by the Administrator for the specific conditions of use identified in the application. EPA's regulations implementing TSCA section 5(h)(1) are at 40 CFR 720.38.</P>
                <P>
                    TSCA section 5(h)(6) requires EPA to publish in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice of receipt of an application for a TME and of the disposition of the application. The implementing regulation (40 CFR 720.38(d)) requires EPA to publish a notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     explaining the reasons for approval or denial.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Summary of Test Marketing Exemption Application</HD>
                <P>• TME Application No.: T-24-0001.</P>
                <P>• Date of Receipt: April 15, 2024.</P>
                <P>• Notice of Receipt: May 21, 2024 (89 FR 44674; FRL-11683-04-OCSPP).</P>
                <P>• Applicant: Zschimmer &amp; Schwarz.</P>
                <P>• Chemical: Isomerized alkane derivs. (generic name).</P>
                <P>• Use: Raw material in ester manufacturing, to be fully consumed.</P>
                <P>• Production Volume: 50,000 kilograms per year.</P>
                <P>• Number of Customers: None.</P>
                <P>• Test Marketing Period: 365 days, commencing on first day of commercial manufacture.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. EPA Approval of the Test Marketing Exemption</HD>
                <P>EPA approved the TME application designated as T-24-0001 on December 19, 2024. EPA determined that test marketing the new chemical substance, under the conditions set out in the TME application, will not present any unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment, including to a potentially exposed or susceptible subpopulation identified by the Administrator for the specific conditions of use identified in the application.</P>
                <P>The test marketing period, production volume, number of customers, and use must not exceed specifications in the application. All other conditions and restrictions described in the application and in this document must also be met.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. What restrictions apply to this TME?</HD>
                <P>EPA may impose restrictions considered appropriate by the Agency on test marketing activities and may modify or revoke this TME upon receipt of any information that indicates the test marketing activity may present an unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment. The following additional restrictions apply to this TME:</P>
                <P>• A bill of lading accompanying each shipment must state that the use of the chemical is restricted to that approved in the TME.</P>
                <P>• The applicant shall maintain the following records for 5 years after the date they are created and shall make them available for inspection or copying in accordance with TSCA section 11:</P>
                <P>• Records of the quantity of the TME chemical produced and the date of manufacture;</P>
                <P>• Records of dates of the shipments to each customer and the quantities supplied in each shipment; and</P>
                <P>• Copies of the bill of lading that accompanies each shipment of the TME chemical.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. What was EPA's risk assessment for this TME?</HD>
                <P>EPA did not identify unreasonable risks to health or the environment for the test market chemical under the intended conditions of use described in the TME application. EPA estimated that the chemical has high environmental toxicity; however, the chemical substance will not be released to water. Additionally, EPA identified potential risks to workers, which are addressed by the personal protective equipment requirements in the Safety Data Sheet for the chemical substance. Therefore, the test market activities will not present any unreasonable risk of injury to human health or the environment, including an unreasonable risk to a potentially exposed or susceptible subpopulation identified by the Administrator for the specific conditions of use identified in the application.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Can EPA change its decision on this TME in the future?</HD>
                <P>The Agency reserves the right to rescind approval or modify the conditions and restrictions of an exemption upon the receipt or evaluation of any information, new or existing, that indicates the test marketing activities may present an unreasonable risk of injury to human health or the environment.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     15 U.S.C. 2601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Tyler Lloyd,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Supervisor, New Chemicals Risk Management Branch 3, New Chemicals Division, Office of Pollution Prevention and Toxics.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13908 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL ELECTION COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">TIME AND DATE: </HD>
                    <P>Thursday, September 4, 2025, 10:00 a.m.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PLACE: </HD>
                    <P>Hybrid meeting: 1050 First Street NE, Washington, DC (12th Floor) and virtual.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS: </HD>
                    <P>The September 4, 2025 Open Meeting has been canceled.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P>Myles Martin, Deputy Press Officer. Telephone: (202) 694-1221.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Vicktoria J. Allen,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary of the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13914 Filed 7-22-25; 11:15 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6715-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL MEDIATION AND CONCILIATION SERVICE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Request for Arbitration Panel</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service (FMCS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="34869"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>30-Day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service (FMCS), invites the public and other Federal Agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection request, Request for Arbitration Panel, FMCS Form R-43. This information collection request will be submitted for approval to the Office of Management Budget (OMB) in compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). The Request for Arbitration Panel, FMCS Form R-43, allows FMCS to comply with its statutory obligation to make governmental facilities available for voluntary arbitration. To carry out this policy, FMCS have issued regulations which provide for the operation and maintenance of a roster of professional arbitrators. The arbitrators are private citizens, not employees of FMCS, and are paid by the parties for hearing and deciding the issues submitted under a collective bargaining agreement and in other circumstances. The Request for Arbitration Panel, FMCS Form R-43, is used by the parties, labor and management individually or jointly, to request that FMCS furnish a list of arbitrators.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be submitted on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments, identified by the Request for Arbitration Panel, FMCS Form R-43, through one of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email:</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">register@fmcs.gov;</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Office of General Counsel, One Independence Square, 250 E. St. SW, Washington, DC, 20427.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Karen Pierce, 202-606-3672, 
                        <E T="03">kpierce@fmcs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Copies of the agency form are available here. Paper copies are available from the Office of Client Services by emailing Karen Pierce at the email address above. Please ask for the Request for Arbitration Panel, FMCS Form R-43.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. 60-Day Comment Period</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCS published a 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice, with a 60-day public comment period soliciting comments, of the following collection of information on May 20, 2025, 90 FR 21481. FMCS received no comments.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>FMCS solicits comments to:</P>
                <P>i. Evaluate whether the proposed collections of information are necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.</P>
                <P>ii. Enhance the accuracy of the agency's estimates of the burden of the proposed collection of information.</P>
                <P>iii. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.</P>
                <P>iv. Minimize the burden of the collections of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic collection technologies or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Information Collection Request</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Request for Arbitration Panel (FMCS Form R-43).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     3076-0016.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Extension without change of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Federal government; Private sector, businesses or other for-profits and not-for-profit institutions; and State and local governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     In most instances, this form is completed once a year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Burden:</E>
                     The total annual burden estimate is that FMCS will receive approximately 10,000 responses per year, one response per year. This form takes about 10 minutes to complete.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Information Collection Requirement</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Purpose and Description of Data Collection:</E>
                     Title II of the Labor Management Relations Act of 1947, 29 U.S.C. 171(b), provides that “the settlement of issues between employers and employees through collective bargaining may advance by making available full and adequate governmental facilities for conciliation, mediation, and voluntary arbitration . . .” Pursuant to the statute and 29 CFR part 1404, FMCS has long maintained a roster of qualified, private sector labor arbitrators to hear disputes arising under collective bargaining agreements and provide fact finding and interest arbitration.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Use of Results:</E>
                     The FMCS uses the information received to facilitate the processing of the parties' request for arbitration assistance.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. The Official Record</HD>
                <P>The official records are electronic records.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Anna Davis,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>General Counsel, Performing the Duties of Director.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13927 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6732-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Secretary</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Interest Rate on Overdue Debts</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    Section 30.18 of the Department of Health and Human Services' claims collection regulations (45 CFR part 30) provides that the Secretary shall charge an annual rate of interest, which is determined and fixed by the Secretary of the Treasury after considering private consumer rates of interest on the date that the Department of Health and Human Services becomes entitled to recovery. The rate cannot be lower than the Department of Treasury's current value of funds rate or the applicable rate determined from the “Schedule of Certified Interest Rates with Range of Maturities” unless the Secretary waives interest in whole or part, or a different rate is prescribed by statute, contract, or repayment agreement. The Secretary of the Treasury may revise this rate quarterly. The Department of Health and Human Services publishes this rate in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    The current rate of 11
                    <FR>5/8</FR>
                    %, as fixed by the Secretary of the Treasury, is certified for the quarter ended June 30, 2025. This rate is based on the Interest Rates for Specific Legislation, “National Health Services Corps Scholarship Program (42 U.S.C. 254o(b)(1)(A))” and “National Research Service Award Program (42 U.S.C. 288(c)(4)(B)).” This interest rate will be applied to overdue debt until the Department of Health and Human Services publishes a revision.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>David C. Horn,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Financial Policy and Reporting.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13910 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4150-04-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Center For Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.</P>
                <P>
                    The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34870"/>
                    and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Fellowships and Mentored Training in Hepatology, Toxicology and Xenobiotic Metabolism and Disposition.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         August 19, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Charlene J. Repique, Ph.D., MS, Scientific Review Officer, Review Branch, DEA, NIDDK, National Institutes of Health, Room 7347, 6707 Democracy Boulevard, Bethesda, MD 20892-5452, (301) 451-3638, 
                        <E T="03">charlene.repique@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Contracts: Mouse Repository.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         August 21, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         1:00 p.m. to 3:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate contract proposals.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Nadeem Khan, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Research Technology and Contract Review Branch, Division of Extramural Activities, 9609 Medical Center Drive, Room 7W260, National Cancer Institute, NIH, Bethesda, MD 20892, (240) 276-5856, 
                        <E T="03">nadeem.khan@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel, PAR Panel: Shared Instrumentation: Electron Microscopy.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         September 18, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:30 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Adam Lawrence Heuberger, Ph.D., Scientific Review Branch, National Institute of General Medical Sciences, 45 Center Drive MSC 6200, Bethesda, MD 20892, 
                        <E T="03">adam.heuberger@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.306, Comparative Medicine; 93.333, Clinical Research, 93.306, 93.333, 93.337, 93.393-93.396, 93.837-93.844, 93.846-93.878, 93.892, 93.893, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Sterlyn H. Gibson, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Specialist Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13877 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Library of Medicine; Notice of Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Board of Regents of the National Library of Medicine.</P>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting. The meeting can be accessed from the NIH Videocast at the following link: 
                    <E T="03">https://videocast.nih.gov/</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable materials, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Board of Regents of the National Library of Medicine.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         October 27-28, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Open:</E>
                         October 27, 2028, 12:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         Program Discussion.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Library of Medicine, Building 38, 2nd Floor, The Lindberg Room, 8600 Rockville Pike, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Closed:</E>
                         October 28, 2025, 10:00 a.m. to 11:00 a.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Library of Medicine, Building 38, 2nd Floor, The Lindberg Room, 8600 Rockville Pike, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Open:</E>
                         October 28, 2025, 11:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         Program Discussion.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Library of Medicine, Building 38, 2nd Floor, The Lindberg Room, 8600 Rockville Pike, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Michelle Krever, Committee Management Specialist, Division of Extramural Programs, National Library of Medicine, National Institutes of Health, 6705 Rockledge Drive, Suite 301, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-496-6132, 
                        <E T="03">kreverm1@mail.nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <FP>Any member of the public may submit written comments no later than 15 days in advance of the meeting. Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.</FP>
                    <P>In the interest of security, NIH has stringent procedures for entrance into NIH federal property. Visitors will be asked to show one form of identification (for example, a government-issued photo ID, driver's license, or passport) and to state the purpose of their visit.</P>
                    <P>
                        Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page: 
                        <E T="03">www.nlm.nih.gov/od/bor/bor.html,</E>
                         where an agenda and any additional information for the meeting will be posted when available. This meeting will be broadcast to the public, and available for viewing at 
                        <E T="03">http://videocast.nih.gov</E>
                         on October 27-28, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program No. 93.879, Medical Library Assistance, National Institutes of Health, HHS).</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Bruce A. George, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13970 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases; Notice of Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Board of Scientific Counselors, NIDDK.</P>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting. The meeting can be accessed from the NIH Videocast at the following link: 
                    <E T="03">https://videocast.nih.gov/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be closed to the public as indicated below in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended for the review, discussion, and evaluation of individual grant applications conducted by the National Institute Of Diabetes And Digestive And Kidney Diseases, including consideration of personnel qualifications and performance, and the competence of individual investigators, the disclosure of which would 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34871"/>
                    constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Board of Scientific Counselors, NIDDK.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 30-31, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Open:</E>
                         March 30, 2026, 10:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         Introductions and Overview.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institute of Health, Building 10, 10 Center Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Closed:</E>
                         March 31, 2026, 10:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate personal qualifications and performance, and competence of individual Investigators.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institute of Health, Building 10, 10 Center Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Michael W. Krause, Ph.D., Scientific Director, NIDDK, National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases, National Institute of Health, Building 5, Room B104, Bethesda, MD 20892-1818, (301) 402-4633 
                        <E T="03">mwkrause@helix.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>
                        In the interest of security, NIH has procedures at 
                        <E T="03">https://security.nih.gov/visitors/Pages/visitor-campus-access.aspx</E>
                         for entrance into on-campus and off-campus facilities. All visitor vehicles, including taxicabs, hotel, and airport shuttles will be inspected before being allowed on campus. Visitors attending a meeting on campus or at an off-campus federal facility will be asked to show one form of identification (for example, a government-issued photo ID, driver's license, or passport) and to state the purpose of their visit.
                    </FP>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.847, Diabetes, Endocrinology and Metabolic Research; 93.848, Digestive Diseases and Nutrition Research; 93.849, Kidney Diseases, Urology and Hematology Research, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Bruce A. George, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13964 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Center For Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.</P>
                <P>The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; In Vitro Assessment of Antimicrobial Agents (IVAAA) N01—Task Area A: Bacteria, Fungi and Toxins.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         August 21-22, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate contract proposals.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Annie Walker-Abbey, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, (240) 627-3390, 
                        <E T="03">aabbey@mail.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Risk, Prevention and Health Behavior Integrated Review Group; Biobehavioral Medicine and Health Outcomes Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         September 15-16, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:30 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Mark A Vosvick, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 3110, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 402-4128, 
                        <E T="03">mark.vosvick@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.306, Comparative Medicine; 93.333, Clinical Research, 93.306, 93.333, 93.337, 93.393-93.396, 93.837-93.844, 93.846-93.878, 93.892, 93.893, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Bruce A. George, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13967 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Institute of Environmental Health Sciences; Notice of Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Advisory Environmental Health Sciences Council.</P>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting. The meeting can be accessed from the NIH Videocast at the following link: 
                    <E T="03">https://videocast.nih.gov/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Advisory Environmental Health Sciences Council September 2025 NAEHSC Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         September 10, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Open:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 11:15 a.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         Call to Order and Opening Remarks, Review of Confidentiality and Conflict of Interest, Consideration of Previous Meeting Minutes, Report of the NIEHS Director, and Report of the DERT Director.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         NIEHS/National Institutes of Health, Building 4401, East Campus, 79 T.W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709, Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Open:</E>
                         11:30 a.m. to 12:45 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         NIEHS Scientific Concept 1.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         NIEHS/National Institutes of Health, Building 4401, East Campus, 79 T.W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709, Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Open:</E>
                         1:00 p.m. to 2:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         NIEHS Scientific Concept 2 and 3.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         NIEHS/National Institutes of Health, Building 4401, East Campus, 79 T.W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709, Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Closed:</E>
                         2:45 p.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate review of Confidentiality and Conflict of Interest, Consideration of Grant Applications, and Consideration of Intramural BSC Report.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         NIEHS/National Institutes of Health, Building 4401, East Campus, 79 T.W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709, Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         David M. Balshaw, Ph.D., Director,  Division of Extramural Research and Training, National Institute of Environmental Health Sciences, P.O. Box 12233, MD EC-27, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709-2233, 984-287-3234 
                        <E T="03">balshaw@niehs.nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <FP>Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.</FP>
                    <P>
                        Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's website: 
                        <E T="03">
                            https://
                            <PRTPAGE P="34872"/>
                            www.niehs.nih.gov/about/boards/naehsc,
                        </E>
                         where an agenda and any additional information for the meeting will be posted when available.
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.115, Biometry and Risk Estimation—Health Risks from Environmental Exposures; 93.142, NIEHS Hazardous Waste Worker Health and Safety Training; 93.143, NIEHS Superfund Hazardous Substances—Basic Research and Education; 93.894, Resources and Manpower Development in the Environmental Health Sciences; 93.113, Biological Response to Environmental Health Hazards; 93.114, Applied Toxicological Research and Testing, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Bruce A. George,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13966 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases; Notice of Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases Advisory Council.</P>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting. The meeting can be accessed from the NIH Videocast at the following link: 
                    <E T="03">https://videocast.nih.gov/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases Advisory Council.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         September 17-18, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Open:</E>
                         September 17, 2026, 8:30 a.m. to 4:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         Council Business.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Building 31, C Wing 6th Floor Conference Room, 31 Center Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (In Person and Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Open:</E>
                         September 17, 2026, 1:00 p.m. to 2:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         KUH Open session.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health Building 31 C Wing 6th Floor Conference Room (KUH), 31 Center Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (In Person and Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Open:</E>
                         September 17, 2026, 1:00 p.m. to 2:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         DEM Open Session.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Building 31, C Wing 6th Floor Conference Room, F&amp;G (DEM), 31 Center Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (In Person and Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Open:</E>
                         September 17, 2026, 1:00 p.m. to 2:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         DDN Open session.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Building 31, C Wing 6th Floor Conf. Room B (DDN), 31 Center Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (In Person and Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Closed:</E>
                         September 17, 2026, 2:30 p.m. to 3:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Building 31, C Wing 6th Floor Conf. Room A (DDN), 31 Center Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (In Person and Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Closed:</E>
                         September 17, 2026, 2:30 p.m. to 3:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Building 31, C Wing 6th Floor Conference Room B (KUH), 31 Center Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (In Person and Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Closed:</E>
                         September 17, 2026, 2:30 p.m. to 3:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Building 31, C Wing 6th Floor Conference Room F&amp;G (DEM), 31 Center Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (In Person and Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Closed:</E>
                         September 17, 2026, 3:45 p.m. to 4:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate Reports of Subcommittees and Consideration of Applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Building 31, C Wing 6th Floor Conference Room F&amp;G, 31 Center Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (In Person and Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Karl F. Malik, Ph.D., Director, Division of Extramural Activities, National Institutes of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases, 6707 Democracy Blvd., Room 7329, MSC 5452, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 594-4757, 
                        <E T="03">malikk@niddk.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the interest of security, NIH has procedures at 
                        <E T="03">https://security.nih.gov/visitors/Pages/visitor-campus-access.aspx</E>
                         for entrance into on-campus and off-campus facilities. All visitor vehicles, including taxicabs, hotel, and airport shuttles will be inspected before being allowed on campus. Visitors attending a meeting on campus or at an off-campus federal facility will be asked to show one form of identification (for example, a government-issued photo ID, driver's license, or passport) and to state the purpose of their visit.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.niddk.nih.gov/about-niddk/advisory-coordinating-committees/national-diabetes-digestive-kidney-diseases-advisory-council,</E>
                         where an agenda and any additional information for the meeting will be posted when available.
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.847, Diabetes, Endocrinology and Metabolic Research; 93.848, Digestive Diseases and Nutrition Research; 93.849, Kidney Diseases, Urology and Hematology Research, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Bruce A. George, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13963 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Center For Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.</P>
                <P>The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The contract proposals and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the contract proposals, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel Contracts: NCI Research and Development.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         August 15, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate contract proposals.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         David G. Ransom, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Special Review Branch, Division of Extramural Activities, 9609 Medical Center Drive, Room 7W124, National Cancer Institute, NIH, Rockville, MD 20850, (240) 276-6351, 
                        <E T="03">david.ransom@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <FP>
                        (Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.306, Comparative Medicine; 93.333, Clinical Research, 93.306, 93.333, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34873"/>
                        93.337, 93.393-93.396, 93.837-93.844, 93.846-93.878, 93.892, 93.893, National Institutes of Health, HHS)
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Bruce A. George, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13971 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed Collection: 30-Day Comment Request; National Cancer Institute (NCI) Generic Clearance for Application Information From Fellows, Interns, and Trainees</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Institutes of Health, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the requirement of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 to provide an opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects, the National Institutes of Health, National Cancer Institute (NCI) will publish periodic summaries of proposed projects to be submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments regarding this information collection are best assured of having their full effect if received within 30 days of the date of this publication.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and instruments, contact Melissa Park, PRA Liaison, Office of Management Policy and Compliance, National Cancer Institute, 9609 Medical Center Drive, Room 2E196, Bethesda, Maryland 20892 or call non-toll-free number (240) 276-5717 or email your request, including your address to: 
                        <E T="03">melissa.park@nih.gov.</E>
                         Formal requests for additional plans and instruments must be requested in writing.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This proposed information collection was previously published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on April 30, 2025 (Vol. 90 FR 17938) and allowed 60 days for public comment. No public comments were received. The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comment. The National Cancer Institute (NCI), National Institutes of Health, may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection that has been extended, revised, or implemented on or after October 1, 1995, unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
                </P>
                <P>In compliance with Section 3507(a)(1)(D) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the National Institutes of Health (NIH) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request for review and approval of the information collection listed below.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Proposed Collection Title:</E>
                     National Cancer Institute (NCI) Generic Clearance for Application Information from Fellows, Interns, and Trainees, 0925-0761, Expiration Date 7/31/2025, EXTENSION, National Cancer Institute (NCI), National Institutes of Health (NIH).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Need and Use of Information Collection:</E>
                     The “Generic Clearance for Application Information from Fellows, Interns, and Trainees” request supports research experiences for high school, post-baccalaureate (including post-masters) individuals, graduate students, and postdoctoral fellows, interns, and trainees in a multidisciplinary environment at the NCI. This information collection request is for applications, reference letters, letters of intent and interest, and other related documentation necessary for various Divisions, Offices, and Centers at NCI to evaluate the eligibility, merits, and quality of potential candidates. The applications will also assist in matching potential candidates to various training and internship programs. The information is for internal use to make decisions about candidates invited to visit and attend NCI fellowships, internships, and other training opportunities.
                </P>
                <P>OMB approval is requested for 3 years. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The total estimated annualized burden hours are 22,215 hours.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Annualized Burden Hours</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Category of respondent</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses per respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average time per response
                            <LI>(in hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total annual burden hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Individuals (Applicants)</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,873</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>45/60</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,405</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Individuals (Reference Letters)</ENT>
                        <ENT>29,619</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>30/60</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,810</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>39,492</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>22,215</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 21, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melissa Park,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Project Clearance Liaison, National Cancer Institute, National Institutes of Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13878 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Human Genome Research Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Advisory Council for Human Genome Research.</P>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications and/or contract proposals, the disclosure of which would 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34874"/>
                    constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Advisory Council for Human Genome Research.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         September 15, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Human Genome Research Institute, National Institutes of Health, 6700B Rockledge Drive, Suite 1100, Rockledge, MD 20892 (Video Assisted Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Jennifer L. Troyer, Ph.D., Director, Division of Extramural Operations National Human Genome Research Institute, National Institutes of Health, 6700B Rockledge Drive, Suite 1100, Rockledge, MD 20892, (301) 480-3565, 
                        <E T="03">troyerj@mail.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.</FP>
                    <P>
                        Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page: 
                        <E T="03">http://www.genome.gov/council,</E>
                         where an agenda and any additional information for the meeting will be posted when available.
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.172, Human Genome Research, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Bruce A. George, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13968 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases; Notice of Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Board of Scientific Counselors, NIDDK.</P>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting. The meeting can be accessed from the NIH Videocast at the following link: 
                    <E T="03">https://videocast.nih.gov/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>The meeting will be closed to the public as indicated below in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended for the review, discussion, and evaluation of individual grant applications conducted by the National Institute Of Diabetes And Digestive And Kidney Diseases, including consideration of personnel qualifications and performance, and the competence of individual investigators, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Board of Scientific Counselors, NIDDK.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         October 8-9, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Open:</E>
                         October 08, 2026, 10:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         Introductions and Overview.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institute of Health, Building 10, 31 Center Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Closed:</E>
                         October 09, 2026, 10:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate personal qualifications and performance, and competence of individual Investigators.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institute of Health, Building 10, 31 Center Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Michael W. Krause, Ph.D., Scientific Director, NIDDK, National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases, National Institute of Health, Building 5, Room B104, Bethesda, MD 20892-1818, (301) 402-4633, 
                        <E T="03">mwkrause@helix.nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <FP>
                        In the interest of security, NIH has procedures at 
                        <E T="03">https://security.nih.gov/visitors/Pages/visitor-campus-access.aspx</E>
                         for entrance into on-campus and off-campus facilities. All visitor vehicles, including taxicabs, hotel, and airport shuttles will be inspected before being allowed on campus. Visitors attending a meeting on campus or at an off-campus federal facility will be asked to show one form of identification (for example, a government-issued photo ID, driver's license, or passport) and to state the purpose of their visit.
                    </FP>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.847, Diabetes, Endocrinology and Metabolic Research; 93.848, Digestive Diseases and Nutrition Research; 93.849, Kidney Diseases, Urology and Hematology Research, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Bruce A. George, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13965 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health </SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Center for Scientific Review; Amended Notice of Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel, Topics in basic neurovascular biology, neurodegeneration, and neurological disorders, August 01, 2025, 10:00 a.m. to August 01, 2025, 05:30 p.m., National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 which was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on July 01, 2025, 90 FR 28755, Doc Number 2025-12277.
                </P>
                <P>This meeting is being amended to change the start and end time from 10:00 a.m.-5:30 p.m. to 9:30 a.m.-5:00 p.m. The meeting is closed to the public.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 21, 2025</DATED>
                    <NAME>Sterlyn H. Gibson, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Specialist Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13876 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Human Genome Research Institute; Notice of Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Advisory Council for Human Genome Research.</P>
                <P>
                    This is a hybrid meeting held in-person and virtually. The open session is open to the public and anyone who wants to attend can attend virtually as indicated below. Individuals who plan to view the virtual meeting and need special assistance or other reasonable accommodation should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting. The meeting will be videocast and can be accessed from 
                    <E T="03">https://videocast.nih.gov/.</E>
                     Any member of the public may submit written comments no later than 15 days after the meeting.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Advisory Council for Human Genome Research.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         September 16, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 1:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To discuss matters of program relevance and reports of Institute Director and Institute Staff.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Human Genome Research Institute, National Institutes of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34875"/>
                        Health, 6700B Rockledge Drive, Suite 1100, Rockledge, MD 20892 (Video Assisted Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Jennifer L. Troyer, Ph.D., Director, Division of Extramural Operations, National Human Genome Research Institute, National Institutes of Health, 6700B Rockledge Drive, Suite 1100, Rockledge, MD 20892, (301) 480-3565, 
                        <E T="03">troyerj@mail.nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <FP>
                        Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person. The URL link to this meeting is: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.genome.gov/about-nhgri/Institute-Advisors/National-Advisory-Council-for-Human-Genome-Research.</E>
                         Any member of the public may submit written comments no later than 15 days after the meeting.
                    </FP>
                    <P>
                        Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page: 
                        <E T="03">http://www.genome.gov/council,</E>
                         where an agenda and any additional information for the meeting will be posted when available.
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.172, Human Genome Research, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Bruce A. George, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13969 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Transportation Security Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Intent To Request a Revision From OMB of One Current Public Collection of Information: Department of Homeland Security Traveler Redress Inquiry Program (DHS TRIP)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Transportation Security Administration, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Transportation Security Administration (TSA) invites public comment on one currently approved Information Collection Request (ICR), Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number 1652-0044, abstracted below that we will submit to OMB for a revision in compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). The ICR describes the nature of the information collection and its expected burden. The collection involves the submission of identifying the travel experience information submitted by individuals requesting redress through the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Traveler Redress Inquiry Program (TRIP).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Send your comments by September 22, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments may be emailed to 
                        <E T="03">TSAPRA@tsa.dhs.gov</E>
                         or delivered to the TSA PRA Officer, Information Technology, TSA-11, Transportation Security Administration, 6595 Springfield Center Drive, Springfield, VA 20598-6011.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Christina A. Walsh at the above address, or by telephone (571) 227-2062.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid OMB control number. The ICR documentation will be available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov</E>
                     upon its submission to OMB. Therefore, in preparation for OMB review and approval of the following information collection, TSA is soliciting comments to—
                </P>
                <P>(1) Evaluate whether the proposed information requirement is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden;</P>
                <P>(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Information Collection Requirement</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number 1652-0044; Department of Homeland Security Traveler Redress Inquiry Program (DHS TRIP).</E>
                     DHS TRIP is a single point of contact for individuals who have inquiries or seek resolution regarding difficulties they have experienced during their travel screening. These difficulties could include: (1) denied or delayed boarding; (2) denied or delayed entry into or departure from the United States at a port of entry; or (3) identified for additional (secondary) screening at our Nation's transportation facilities, including airports, seaports, train stations and land borders. The TSA manages the DHS TRIP office on behalf of DHS. To request redress, individuals are asked to provide identifying information, as well as details of their travel experience in two surveys.
                </P>
                <P>The DHS TRIP office serves as a centralized intake office for traveler requests for redress and uses the online Traveler Inquiry Form to collect requests for redress. DHS TRIP then passes the information to the relevant DHS TRIP practitioner office(s), including components of DHS, the U.S. Department of State, and the U.S. Department of Justice, to process the request, as appropriate. Participating DHS components include TSA, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, the National Protection and Programs Directorate's Office of Biometric Information Management, Office of Civil Rights and Civil Liberties, and the Privacy Office, along with the U.S. Department of State, Bureau of Consular Affairs, and the U.S. Department of Justice, Terrorist Screening Center. This collection serves to distinguish misidentified individuals from an individual actually on any watch list that DHS uses, to initiate the correction of erroneous information about an individual contained in government-held records, which are leading to travel difficulties, and, where appropriate, to help streamline and expedite future check-in or border crossing experiences. It also serves to obtain information about the redress applicants’ level of satisfaction with the DHS TRIP application process with the aim of using this information to identify areas for improvement.</P>
                <P>
                    Due to its importance in air transportation, the United States was elected to the Governing Council during the 2019 International Civil Aviation Organization Assembly. The International Civil Aviation Organization creates regulations for aviation safety, security, efficiency and regularity and environmental protection. The organization also creates standards to provide uniformity in regulations, procedures and organization in relation to aircraft, personnel, airways, and auxiliary services in order to improve air navigation. TSA is revising the information collection to comply with a Government Accountability Office recommendation to update the surveys to include opportunities for suggestions and feedback on the application process.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As a result, TSA revised the two surveys, adding additional questions and providing open text for respondents to provide suggestions and feedback on the application and the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34876"/>
                    redress processes. TSA also has made non-substantial changes to the application, correcting a typo and changing the phrase “Name of Entry into the U.S.” to “Name at Entry into the U.S.”
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         GAO-25-106333 Terrorist Watchlist: Actions Needed to Improve Nomination and Redress for U.S. Persons.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>DHS estimates completing the form, and gathering and submitting the information will take approximately 0.5 hours. The annual respondent population was derived from data contained within the DHS case management database and reflects the actual number of respondents for the most recent calendar year. The estimated annual number of burden hours for passengers seeking redress, based on 26,000 annual respondents, is 13,000 hours (26,000 × 0.5 hours). DHS estimates 10 percent of the 26,000 respondents completing the form will complete the two surveys to share details of their application experience. The completion of the surveys will take approximately 7 minutes (Survey 1, 5 minutes + Survey 2, 2 minutes), giving an estimated annual number of burden hours as 303 (2,600 × .1167). The total estimated annual number of burden hours for this collection is 13,303 (13,000 + 303) hours.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Christina A. Walsh,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, Information Technology, Transportation Security Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13956 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOUSING AND URBAN DEVELOPMENT</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FR-7104-N-12; OMB Control No.: 2577-0029]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Allocation of Operating Fund Grant Under the Operating Fund Formula: Data Collection</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Assistant Secretary for Public and Indian Housing (PIH), HUD.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comments from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments Due Date:</E>
                         September 22, 2025.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection can be sent within 60 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Interested persons are also invited to submit comments regarding this proposal and comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Dawn Martin, Program Analyst, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Room 3180, Washington, DC 20410-5000.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Eva Fulton, Program Analyst, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Washington, DC 20410; email 
                        <E T="03">PIH-PRApubliccomments@hud.gov,</E>
                         telephone (202) 402-5847. This is not a toll-free number. HUD welcomes and is prepared to receive calls from individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing, as well as individuals with speech or communication disabilities. To learn more about how to make an accessible telephone call, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/consumers/guides/telecommunications-relay-service-trs.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Fulton.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Overview of Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Allocation of Operating Funds under the Operating Fund Formula: Data Collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Approval Number:</E>
                     2577-0029.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     HUD-52722, HUD-52723, HUD-52719, SF-424, SF-LLL, and SF-425.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description of the need for the information and proposed use:</E>
                     Public Housing Agencies (PHAs) submits project level budget data annually to HUD field offices. HUD field offices review and accept the data which is used as the basis for obligating the Operating Fund grant. The information is necessary to calculate the eligibility for the operating fund grant under the Operating Funding Program regulations, 24 CFR part 990. HUD provides Operating Funds on a calendar year basis to PHAs to operate and maintain their public housing projects.
                </P>
                <P>HUD collects information for the HUD-52723 and HUD-52722 through web-based forms in the Public Housing Portal. PHAs must submit this data “on regular and timely basis” to HUD “to ensure accurate calculation” of Operating Fund eligible, 24 CFR 990.200(c). HUD requires PHAs complete the SF-424 and SF-LLL to make the following certifications:</P>
                <P>
                    By signing this application, I certify under the penalty of perjury (1) to the statements contained in the list of certifications and (2) that the statements herein are true, complete and accurate to the best of my knowledge. I also provide the required assurances and agree to comply with any resulting terms if I accept an award. I am aware that any false, fictitious, or fraudulent statements or claims may subject me to criminal, civil, or administrative penalties. (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     18 U.S.C. 287, 1001, 1010, 1012 and 1014; and 31 U.S.C. 3729 and 3802). I certify the following:
                </P>
                <P>a. In accordance with 24 CFR 990.215, I hereby certify that the public housing agency is in compliance with the annual income reexamination requirements and that rents and utility allowance calculations have been or will be adjusted in accordance with current HUD requirements and regulations.</P>
                <P>b. If applicable—In accordance with § 213 of Title II of Division L of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2024, Public Law 118-42 (approved March 9, 2024) and if subsequent acts containing the same provisions, I hereby certify that the public housing agency has 400 or fewer units and is implementing asset management.</P>
                <P>c. If applicable—In accordance with 24 CFR 990.255 through 990.290—Compliance of Asset Management Requirements, I hereby certify that the public housing agency has 250 units or more and is in compliance with asset management. I understand that in accordance with 24 CFR 990.190(f), PHAs that are not in compliance with asset management will forfeit the asset management fee.</P>
                <P>d. I certify that the amount of Operating Subsidy stated in this form is an estimate based on the Operating Subsidy eligibility for the public housing agency from the previous funding year.</P>
                <P>
                    e. I acknowledge that HUD obligates Operating Subsidy in the beginning of the funding year based on an estimate of Operating Subsidy eligibility for the public housing agency and that HUD calculates the remaining obligations on cumulative basis based on the Operating Fund Formula in accordance with 24 CFR 990 and data collected in the form HUD-52723 and HUD updates eligibility throughout the funding year.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34877"/>
                </P>
                <P>f. I agree that the public housing agency shall not draw down any excess funds when the estimated eligibility exceeds any project's actual eligibility and notify the appropriate HUD office; and that HUD offsets, de-obligates, or require repayment of any Operating Subsidies for any project deemed ineligible or any project overfunded based on incorrect estimates.</P>
                <P>g. In accordance with Section 235 of the Department of Housing and Urban Development Appropriation Act of 2020 I hereby certify that the PHA is in compliance with the Annual Contributions Contract as was in effect on December 31, 2017.</P>
                <P>h. Waste, Fraud, Abuse, and Whistleblower Protections. Any person who becomes aware of the existence or apparent existence of fraud, waste or abuse of any HUD award must report such incidents to both the HUD official responsible for the award and to HUD's Office of Inspector General (OIG). HUD OIG is available to receive allegations of fraud, waste, and abuse related to HUD programs via its hotline number (1-800-347-3735) and its online hotline form. You must comply with 41 U.S.C. 4712, which includes informing your employees in writing of their rights and remedies, in the predominant native language of the workforce. Under 41 U.S.C. 4712, employees of a government contractor, subcontractor, grantee, and subgrantee—as well as a personal services contractor—who make a protected disclosure about a Federal grant or contract cannot be discharged, demoted, or otherwise discriminated against as long as they reasonably believe the information they disclose is evidence of:</P>
                <P>1. Gross mismanagement of a Federal contract or grant;</P>
                <P>2. Waste of Federal funds;</P>
                <P>3. Abuse of authority relating to a Federal contract or grant;</P>
                <P>4. Substantial and specific danger to public health and safety; or</P>
                <P>5. Violations of law, rule, or regulation related to a Federal contract or grant.</P>
                <P>i. I agree that the public housing agency:</P>
                <P>1. Shall not use grant funds to promote “gender ideology,” as defined in Executive Order (E.O.) 14168, Defending Women from Gender Ideology Extremism and Restoring Biological Truth to the Federal Government;</P>
                <P>2. Is in compliance, in all respects, with all applicable Federal anti-discrimination laws is material to the U.S. Government's payment decisions for purposes of section 3729(b)(4) of title 31, United States Code;</P>
                <P>3. Certifies that it does not operate any programs that violate any applicable Federal anti-discrimination laws, including Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964;</P>
                <P>4. Shall not use any grant funds to fund or promote elective abortions, as required by E.O. 14182, Enforcing the Hyde Amendment; and that</P>
                <P>5. Notwithstanding anything in the NOFO or Application, this Grant shall not be governed by Executive Orders revoked by E.O. 14154, including E.O. 14008, or NOFO requirements implementing Executive Orders that have been revoked. NOFO requirements implementing Executive Orders that have been revoked.</P>
                <P>j. I agree that the public housing agency must administer its grant in accordance with all applicable immigration restrictions and requirements, including the eligibility and verification requirements that apply under title IV of the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996, as amended (8 U.S.C. 1601-1646) (PRWORA) and any applicable requirements that HUD, the Attorney General, or the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services may establish from time to time to comply with PRWORA, Executive Order 14218, or other Executive Orders or immigration laws.</P>
                <P>k. If applicable—No state or unit of general local government that receives funding under this grant may use that funding in a manner that by design or effect facilitates the subsidization or promotion of illegal immigration or abets policies that seek to shield illegal aliens from deportation.</P>
                <P>l. Unless excepted by PRWORA, I agree that the public housing agency must use SAVE, or an equivalent verification system approved by the Federal government, to prevent any Federal public benefit from being provided to an ineligible alien who entered the United States illegally or is otherwise unlawfully present in the United States.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Public Housing Agencies.
                </P>
                <P>The estimated burden hours and the cost for the respondents are below:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,12,15">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Information collection</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Frequency of response</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Responses per annum</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Burden hour per response</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Annual burden hours</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Hourly cost per response</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Annual cost</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">HUD-52723</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.167</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.167</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.33</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,310</ENT>
                        <ENT>$48.12</ENT>
                        <ENT>$111,157.20</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">HUD-52722</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.167</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.167</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.42</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,940</ENT>
                        <ENT>48.12</ENT>
                        <ENT>141,472.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">HUD-52719</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                        <ENT>48.12</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,443,60</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Appeals (a)</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                        <ENT>27</ENT>
                        <ENT>48.12</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,299.24</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Appeals (c)—PHA</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>120</ENT>
                        <ENT>48.12</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,774.40</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01" O="xl">Appeals (c)—Contractor.</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>55</ENT>
                        <ENT>550</ENT>
                        <ENT>100.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>55,000.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Appeals (d)</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>1000</ENT>
                        <ENT>48.12</ENT>
                        <ENT>48,120.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Appeals (e)—PHA</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>60</ENT>
                        <ENT>48.12</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,887.20</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01" O="xl">Appeals (e)—Contractor.</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>55</ENT>
                        <ENT>165</ENT>
                        <ENT>100.00</ENT>
                        <ENT>16,500.00</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SF-424</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SF-LLL</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">SF-425</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,109</ENT>
                        <ENT>~1.17</ENT>
                        <ENT>~1.17</ENT>
                        <ENT>~0.54</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,202</ENT>
                        <ENT>~53.27</ENT>
                        <ENT>383,654</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The estimated annualized cost to respondents is based on the latest available (May 2024) Bureau of Labor Statistics' national hourly mean rates for Financial Specialists (Occupation Code: 13-2000) which is $48.12 per hour. (
                    <E T="03">https://data.bls.gov/oes/#/industry/000000</E>
                    ). Required by 24 CFR part 990.250 (b)(1) and (2), PHAs must submit an independent cost assessment of its developments with their appeal for (c) appeals for specific local conditions or (e) appeals to substitute actual project cost data (see Exhibit D). HUD estimates PHAs submit 13 appeals annually that require the PHA to include independent cost assessment. HUD estimates the average time to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34878"/>
                    conduct an independent cost assessment is 55 hours and the average nationwide rate is $100.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Solicitation of Public Comment</HD>
                <P>This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </P>
                <P>HUD encourages interested parties to submit comments in response to these questions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Authority </HD>
                <P>Section 2 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3507.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Laura Kunkel,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Policy, Programs, and Legislative Initiatives.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13903 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4210-67-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Geological Survey</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USGS-2025-0009; OMB Control Number 1028-0114; GX25DK20UFD6100]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; National Ground-Water Monitoring Network Cooperative Funding Application</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Geological Survey, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Information Collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) is proposing to renew an information collection.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments by one of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                          
                        <E T="03">Internet:</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Search for and submit comments on Docket No. USGS-2025-0009.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                          
                        <E T="03">U.S. Mail:</E>
                         USGS, Information Collections Clearance Officer, 12201 Sunrise Valley Drive, MS 159, Reston, VA 20192.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rodney Caldwell by email at 
                        <E T="03">caldwell@usgs.gov,</E>
                         or by telephone at (406) 461-6931. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States. You may also view the ICR at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the PRA of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice with a 60-day public comment period soliciting comments on this collection of information was published on May 14, 2025 (90 FR 20486). No comments were received.
                </P>
                <P>As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, we are again soliciting comments from the public and other Federal agencies on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether or not the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether or not the information will have practical utility.</P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) How the agency might minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of response.
                </P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information (PII) in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your PII—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your PII from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The USGS administers the National Ground-Water Monitoring Network (NGWMN) which was developed through work with the Federal Advisory Committee on Water Information (ACWI) and its Subcommittee on Ground Water (SOGW). This network is required as part of Public Law 111-11, Title IX, Subtitle F—Secure Water, section 9507, “Water Data Enhancement by United States Geological Survey,” codified at 42 U.S.C. 10367.
                </P>
                <P>The NGWMN consists of an aggregation of wells and springs from existing Federal, State, Tribal, and local groundwater monitoring networks. To support data providers for the NGWMN, the USGS will be providing funding through cooperative agreements to water-resource agencies that collect groundwater data.</P>
                <P>
                    The USGS will be soliciting applications for funding that will request information from the agency collecting the data. Elements will include contact information (phone number and email address), and a proposal describing their proposed work in support of the NGWMN. The proposal will describe the groundwater networks to be included in the NGWMN, the purpose of the networks, and the principal aquifers that are monitored. Proposals may include work to become a new data provider to the NGWMN, support for maintaining connections to agency databases, and work to enhance NGWMN sites (updating metadata, well maintenance, well drilling, and support for continuous water-level monitoring equipment). Proposals require estimates of costs to complete the above tasks and a timeline for planned completion. The proposals will be reviewed by the USGS and the NGWMN Program Board who will make funding recommendations.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34879"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     National Ground-Water Monitoring Network Cooperative Funding Application.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1028-0114.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Renewal of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Multi-state, state, or local water-resources agencies who operate groundwater monitoring networks.
                </P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P> Estimated hours were increased from previous estimates in the 60-Day notice due to a more detailed analysis of historical trends and additional information recently provided by individuals familiar with the collection.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     40.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     40.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Completion Time per Response:</E>
                     31 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     1,240 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Mandatory to be considered for funding.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     Annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Non hour Burden Cost:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct, or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    The authority for this action is the PRA of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Derek D. Bussan,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, WMA Observing Systems Division.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13984 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4338-11-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation Nos. 701-TA-768-770 and 731-TA-1751-1754 (Preliminary)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Steel Concrete Reinforcing Bar From Algeria, Bulgaria, Egypt, and Vietnam</SUBJECT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>
                    On the basis of the record 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     developed in the subject investigations, the United States International Trade Commission (“Commission”) determines, pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”), that there is a reasonable indication that an industry in the United States is materially injured by reason of imports of steel concrete reinforcing bar from Algeria, Bulgaria, Egypt, and Vietnam, provided for in subheadings 7213.10.0000, 7214.20.0000, and 7228.30.8010 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, that are alleged to be sold in the United States at less than fair value (“LTFV”) and imports of the subject merchandise from Egypt and Vietnam that are alleged to be subsidized by the governments of Egypt and Vietnam.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                     
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The record is defined in § 207.2(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 207.2(f)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         90 FR 27838, June 30, 2025; 90 FR 27846, June 30, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         On June 15, 2025, the Office of the United States Trade Representative advised the Commission via letter of its determination that Algeria is not a Subsidies Agreement country. The Commission did not make a preliminary determination for the countervailing duty investigation concerning Algeria. See 19 U.S.C. 1671(c). See also correspondence from Jennifer Thornton, General Council, Office of the United States Trade Representative, “Status of Algeria Under the Tariff Act of 1930, As Amended” issued July 15, 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Commencement of Final Phase Investigations</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to section 207.18 of the Commission's rules, the Commission also gives notice of the commencement of the final phase of its investigations. The Commission will issue a final phase notice of scheduling, which will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     as provided in § 207.21 of the Commission's rules, upon notice from the U.S. Department of Commerce (“Commerce”) of affirmative preliminary determinations in the investigations under §§ 703(b) or 733(b) of the Act, or, if the preliminary determinations are negative, upon notice of affirmative final determinations in those investigations under §§ 705(a) or 735(a) of the Act. Parties that filed entries of appearance in the preliminary phase of the investigations need not enter a separate appearance for the final phase of the investigations. Any other party may file an entry of appearance for the final phase of the investigations after publication of the final phase notice of scheduling. Industrial users, and, if the merchandise under investigation is sold at the retail level, representative consumer organizations have the right to appear as parties in Commission antidumping and countervailing duty investigations. The Secretary will prepare a public service list containing the names and addresses of all persons, or their representatives, who are parties to the investigations. As provided in section 207.20 of the Commission's rules, the Director of the Office of Investigations will circulate draft questionnaires for the final phase of the investigations to parties to the investigations, placing copies on the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS, 
                    <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov</E>
                    ), for comment.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>On June 4, 2025, Rebar Trade Action Coalition, Washington, DC filed petitions with the Commission and Commerce, alleging that an industry in the United States is materially injured or threatened with material injury by reason of subsidized imports of steel concrete reinforcing bar from Algeria, Egypt, and Vietnam and LTFV imports of steel concrete reinforcing bar from Algeria, Bulgaria, Egypt, and Vietnam. Accordingly, effective June 4, 2025, the Commission instituted countervailing duty investigation Nos. 701-TA-768-770 and antidumping duty investigation Nos. 731-TA-1751-1754 (Preliminary).</P>
                <P>
                    Notice of the institution of the Commission's investigations and of a public conference to be held in connection therewith was given by posting copies of the notice in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, Washington, DC, and by publishing the notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of June 10, 2025 (90 FR 24410). The Commission conducted its conference on June 25, 2025. All persons who requested the opportunity were permitted to participate.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission made these determinations pursuant to §§ 703(a) and 733(a) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1671b(a) and 1673b(a)). It completed and filed its determinations in these investigations on July 21, 2025. The views of the Commission are contained in USITC Publication 5653 (July 2025), entitled 
                    <E T="03">Steel Concrete Reinforcing Bar from Algeria, Bulgaria, Egypt, and Vietnam: Investigation Nos. 701-TA-768-770 and 731-TA-1751-1754 (Preliminary).</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13952 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Number 1105-0094]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Revision of a Currently Approved Collection; Comments Requested: Title—Special Deputation Forms</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Marshals Service, Department of Justice.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <PRTPAGE P="34880"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Marshals Service (USMS), Department of Justice (DOJ), will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until September 22, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Assistant Chief Karl Slazer/Management Support Division, US Marshals Service Headquarters, 1215 S Clark St., Ste. 10017, Arlington, VA 22202-4387, by telephone at 703-740-2316 or by email at 
                        <E T="03">karl.slazer@usdoj.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Bureau of Justice Statistics, including whether the information will have practical utility;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether and if so how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    —Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The USMS is authorized to deputize selected persons to perform the functions of a Special Deputy U.S. Marshal whenever the law enforcement needs of the USMS so require and as designated by the Associate Attorney General pursuant to 28 CFR 0.19(a)(3). USMS Special Deputation files serve as a centralized record of the special deputations granted by the USMS to assist in tracking, controlling and monitoring the Special Deputation Program.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">The Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                     Special Deputation Forms.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">The agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department sponsoring the collection:</E>
                </P>
                <P>a. USM-3A Application for Special Deputation/Sponsoring Federal Agency Information,</P>
                <P>b. USM-3C Group Special Deputation Request.</P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Affect public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as the obligation to respond:</E>
                     State, Local, and Tribal Governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond:</E>
                </P>
                <P>a. USM-3A Application for Special Deputation/Sponsoring Federal Agency Information:</P>
                <P>i. It is estimated 8,000 respondents will utilize the form, and it will take each respondent approximately 10 minutes to complete the form.</P>
                <P>b. USM-3C Group Special Deputation Request:</P>
                <P>i. It is estimated 300 respondents will utilize the form, and it will take each respondent approximately 15 minutes to complete the form.</P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total annual burden (in hours) associated with the collection:</E>
                </P>
                <P>a. USM-3A Application for Special Deputation/Sponsoring Federal Agency Information:</P>
                <P>i. The estimated public burden associated with this collection is 1,333 hours. It is estimated that applicants will take 10 minutes to complete a Form USM-3A. In order to calculate the public burden for Form USM-3A, USMS multiplied 10 by 8,000 and divided by 60 (the number of minutes in an hour), which equals 1,333 total annual burden hours.</P>
                <P>b. USM-3C Group Special Deputation Request:</P>
                <P>i. The estimated public burden associated with this collection is 75 hours. It is estimated that applicants will take 15 minutes to complete a Form USM-3C. In order to calculate the public burden for Form USM-3C, USMS multiplied 15 by 300 and divided by 60 (the number of minutes in an hour), which equals 75 total annual burden hours.</P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total annual cost burden associated with the collection, if applicable:</E>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,11,10,12,9,12">
                    <TTITLE>Total Burden Hours</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Frequency
                            <LI>(annually)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Time per
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(mins)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ex: Survey (individuals or households)</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,333</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Ex: Survey (individuals or households)</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>75</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Unduplicated Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,300</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>8,300</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>1,408</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="34881"/>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Cost Burden:</E>
                     $0.00.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">If additional information is required contact:</E>
                     Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218, Washington, DC.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Darwin Arceo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Department Clearance Officer for PRA, U.S. Department of Justice.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13935 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4410-04-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Number 1110-0026]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Revision of a Previously Approved Collection; Title—Federal Firearms Licensee (FFL) Enrollment/National Instant Criminal Background Check System (NICS) E-Check Enrollment Form, Federal Firearms Licensee (FFL) Officer/Employee Acknowledgment of Responsibilities Under the NICS Form, Responsibilities of a Federal Firearms Licensee (FFL) Under the National Instant Criminal Background Check System (NICS) Form</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Department of Justice, Federal Bureau of Investigation, Criminal Justice Information Services Division.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Justice (DOJ), Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Division, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until September 22, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Jill Montgomery, FBI NICS Section, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, WV 26306, or 
                        <E T="03">jamontgomery@fbi.gov,</E>
                         304-709-1476.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Bureau of Justice Statistics, including whether the information will have practical utility;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether and if so how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    —Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Brady Handgun Violence Prevention Act of 1993 required the United States Attorney General to establish a National Instant Criminal Background Check System that any federal firearms licensee (FFL) may contact, by telephone or other electronic means, for information to be supplied immediately on whether receipt of a firearm by a prospective purchaser would violate State or Federal law. Information pertaining to FFLs who may contact the NICS is being collected to manage and control access to the NICS and to the NICS Electronic (E-Check), to ensure appropriate resources are available to support the NICS, and also to ensure the privacy and security of NICS information. More information can be obtained at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fbi.gov/services/cjis/nics.</E>
                     The proposed 2025 revision to the form captures four new fields. The first two fields ask for the FFL's date of birth and mother's maiden name for security measures. An additional question is asked if an FFL operates in a point of contact (POC) state. If the FFL answers in the affirmative, the FFL is asked to initial to acknowledge use of the FBI NICS for authorized purposes only so they may avail themselves of the additional resources for FFLs from POC states as they become available.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Revision of a previously approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">The Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                     Federal Firearms Licensee (FFL) Enrollment/National Instant Criminal Background Check System (NICS) E-Check Enrollment Form, Federal Firearms Licensee (FFL) Officer/Employee Acknowledgment of Responsibilities under the NICS Form, Responsibilities of a Federal Firearms Licensee (FFL) under the National Instant Criminal Background Check System (NICS) Form.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">The agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department sponsoring the collection:</E>
                     Federal Firearms Licensee (FFL) Enrollment/NICS E-Check Enrollment Form.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as the obligation to respond:</E>
                     Affected Public—Any FFL or Point of Contact (POC) state requesting access to conduct National Instant Criminal Background Check System (NICS) checks telephonically or by the internet through the NICS E-Check. The obligation to respond is required in order to required obtain/the ability to utilize the NICS system to conduct background checks.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond:</E>
                     The entire process of reading the material and completing the forms would take 15 minutes per respondent. The average hour burden for completing the forms and reading the material would be 6,160 × 15/60 = 1,540 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total annual burden (in hours) associated with the collection:</E>
                     The average hour burden for completing the forms and reading the material would be 6,160 × 15/60 = 1,540 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total annual cost burden associated with the collection, if applicable:</E>
                     $0. Forms are available online and can be signed digitally. Copies and postage costs are no longer applicable.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34882"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,11,10,12,9,12">
                    <TTITLE>Total Burden Hours</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Frequency
                            <LI>(time)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Time per
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(min)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Read and complete survey</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,160</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,160</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,540</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Unduplicated Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,160</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,160</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,540</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">If additional information is required contact:</E>
                     Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218, Washington, DC.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Darwin Arceo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Department Clearance Officer for PRA, U.S. Department of Justice. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13934 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4410-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Number 1122-0NEW]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; New Collection; Semi-Annual and Annual Performance Reporting Data Catalog for Formula and Discretionary Grant Programs</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office on Violence Against Women, Department of Justice.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Office on Violence Against Women, Department of Justice, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until September 22, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Tiffany Watson, Office on Violence Against Women, at 202-307-6026 or 
                        <E T="03">Tiffany.Watson@usdoj.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Office on Violence Against Women, including whether the information will have practical utility;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether and if so, how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    —Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Office on Violence Against Women (OVW)'s formula and discretionary grant programs were authorized through the Violence Against Women Act of 1994 (VAWA) and subsequent legislation, including VAWA reauthorizations in 2000, 2005, 2013 and 2022. The four formula programs are STOP (Services, Training, Officers, Prosecutors), SASP (Sexual Assault Services Program), State Coalitions, and Tribal Coalitions. Funding under OVW's two largest formula grant programs—the STOP and SASP Programs—is distributed to states and territories according to a statutory formula. The STOP and SASP Administrators in each state and territory then make subgrants to organizations within their states and territories. OVW posts notices of funding opportunities for each discretionary program every fiscal year and, after a competitive application review process, makes awards directly to local, state, and Tribal governments, courts, non-profit organizations, community-based organizations, secondary schools, institutions of higher education, state and Tribal coalitions and any other organizations authorized to receive funding under the different grant programs. OVW grants help develop effective responses to violence against women through activities that include direct services, crisis intervention, transitional housing, legal assistance to survivors, court improvement, and training for law enforcement and courts. OVW determines grantee performance measures and reporting requirements for each grant program based on the authorizing statute and what is necessary for monitoring the awards. The questions on each grant program's performance report form address the different types of permissible grant-funded activities as outlined in the purpose areas in each program's authorizing statute.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Currently, OVW uses up to 19 individual OMB-approved PDF forms to collect performance and monitoring data from grantees. These forms each collect slightly different data points and may use different questions to collect information about the same activities. OVW is submitting this new information collection request to consolidate existing and previously OMB-approved OVW information collections under a single collection with a new consolidated OMB number. This “new” collection would simply aggregate and streamline the performance reporting process covered by the 19 approved collections. This request leverages technology to streamline, modernize, and reduce paperwork.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34883"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s150,10">
                    <TTITLE>Previous Information Collection Requests</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Program title</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">OMB No.</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Services, Training, Officers, Prosecutors (STOP) Violence Against Women Formula Grant Program</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0003</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Grants to Combat Violent Crimes on Campuses</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0005</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Grants to Improve Criminal Justice Response and Enforcement of Protection Orders</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0006</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Legal Assistance for Victims Grant Program</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0007</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Training and Services to End Abuse in Later Life</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0008</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">State and Territory Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault Coalitions Program</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0010</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Grants to Tribal Domestic Violence and Sexual Assault Coalitions Program</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0011</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Education, Training, and Enhanced Services to End Violence Against and Abuse of Individuals with Disabilities and Deaf People</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0012</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rural Domestic Violence, Dating Violence, Sexual Assault, Stalking and Child Abuse Enforcement Assistance</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0013</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Transitional Housing Grants for Victims of Domestic Violence, Dating Violence, Sexual Assault or Stalking</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0016</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Training and Technical Assistance Initiative</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0017</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Grants to Indian Tribal Governments Program</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0018</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01" O="xl">Grants to Enhance Culturally Specific Services for Victims of Domestic Violence, Dating Violence, Sexual Assault, and Stalking Program.</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0021</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Sexual Assault Services Formula Grant Program (SASP)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0022</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Sexual Assault Services Culturally Specific Program</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0023</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tribal Sexual Assault Services Program</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0024</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Grants to Engage Men and Boys as Allies in the Prevention of Violence Against Women and Girls Program</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0027</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Children and Youth Exposed to Violence Program</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0028</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Grants to Support Families in the Justice System</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-0032</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s150,r80">
                    <TTITLE>Current Information Collection Request</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Program title</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">OMB No.</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Semi-annual and Annual Performance Reporting Data Catalog for Formula and Discretionary Grant Programs</ENT>
                        <ENT>1122-XXXX, U.S. Department of Justice, Office on Violence Against Women.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>To prepare and inform this new request for a consolidated OMB number, OVW has reviewed all previously collected questions. OVW reduced unnecessary or repetitive questions and revised questions to ensure consistency across programs. The purpose of obtaining a new, consolidated OMB number for OVW's performance reporting data catalog is to align approval for this information collection with the mechanism through which OVW plans to collect the data. All grant performance data elements will be maintained in a data catalog in a web-based platform which builds tailored collection instruments for each grant program. This performance report technology pulls the relevant questions from the approved, streamlined data catalog to replicate the “performance reporting form” that has previously been approved by OMB. OVW intends to discontinue its use of individual fillable PDF forms with program-specific OMB approval numbers and utilize this streamlined web-based performance reporting platform for collecting all performance reporting data under a single OMB-approval number. This overarching data catalog aggregates the previously approved number of respondents and public burden hours.</P>
                <P>The data obtained through this new aggregated collection will be used to provide information to Congress on the grant funding, including the effectiveness of grant-funded activities, monitor grant funded activities, and assess the extent to which OVW grant program goals are achieved. There are three sets of respondents: formula grant program state administrators, formula program subgrantees, and discretionary program grantees.</P>
                <P>This nimble and efficient approach provides many benefits to OVW and increases the practical utility of data collection. Merging these collections will streamline the OMB approval extension process. This modernized system enables OVW to revise questions, simplify data collection, and respond to Administration directives or future revisions to the authorizing statutes. The new data collection system will enhance the quality, utility, and timeliness of the data collected by OVW. OVW anticipates that the data collected will be of higher quality and utility due to the increased ease of reporting, the enhanced clarity of questions, as well as a reduction in quantitative data collected. Finally, due to better and more timely data, OVW will rigorously and efficiently engage in grantee monitoring.</P>
                <P>Finally, this request will minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond. The electronic, user-friendly format will reduce the amount of time spent navigating the reporting form and increase operational efficiency. The functionality of the new platform allows for increased ease of use, as well as enhanced legibility for grantees. The consolidation of questions across program forms also facilitates consistency as grantees collect the same data across multiple grant programs, reducing unnecessary or repetitive data collection.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     New collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                     Semi-annual and Annual Performance Reporting Data Catalog for Formula and Discretionary Grant Programs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department of Justice sponsoring the collection:</E>
                     Form Number: 1122-XXXX. U.S. Department of Justice, Office on Violence Against Women.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as a brief abstract:</E>
                     The affected public includes grantees and subgrantees of federal grant programs authorized by the Violence Against Women Act of 1994 (as amended) and administered by the Office on Violence Against Women. These include formula grant program administrators/grantees and subgrantees and discretionary grant program grantees.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34884"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond/reply:</E>
                     It is estimated that it will take the approximately 6,112 respondents, which include grantees and subgrantees under formula and discretionary programs authorized by the Violence Against Women Act of 1994 (as amended) and administered by the Office on Violence Against Women, approximately 60 minutes to complete a performance reporting form that is specific to the OVW grant program under which they receive funding. In addition, a grantee or subgrantee will only be required to complete the sections of the form that pertain to those specific activities that are supported by federal funding and permissible under the authorizing legislation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection:</E>
                     The total hour burden to complete the data collection form is 9,112 hours, that is 3,112 formula program grantees and subgrantees completing a form once a year with an estimated completion time for the form being one hour and 3,000 discretionary program grantees completing a form twice a year with an estimated completion time of one hour.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total annual cost burden associated with the collection, if applicable:</E>
                     The annualized costs to the Federal Government resulting from the OVW staff review of the performance reports submitted by grantees are estimated to be $800,000. This includes the cost of building and maintaining this data collection as well as administrative costs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,11,xs60,xs48,9,7">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Frequency</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Time per
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(min)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Formula Administrator Performance Reporting Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>112</ENT>
                        <ENT>Annually</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 time</ENT>
                        <ENT>60 </ENT>
                        <ENT>112 </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Formula Subgrantee Performance Reporting Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>Annually</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 time</ENT>
                        <ENT>60 </ENT>
                        <ENT>3,000 </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Discretionary Performance Reporting Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>Semi-annually</ENT>
                        <ENT>2 times</ENT>
                        <ENT>60 </ENT>
                        <ENT>6,000 </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            <E T="03">Total</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">9,112</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">If additional information is required contact:</E>
                     Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218, Washington, DC.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Darwin Arceo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Department Clearance Officer for PRA, U.S. Department of Justice.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13932 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4410-FX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Number 1121-0111]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Revision of a Currently Approved Collection: National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Justice Statistics, Department of Justice.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS), Department of Justice (DOJ) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until September 22, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Rachel Morgan, Chief, Victimization Statistics Unit, Bureau of Justice Statistics, 999 N Capitol Street NE, Washington, DC 20531 (email: 
                        <E T="03">BJSPRA.Comments@ojp.usdoj.gov;</E>
                         telephone: 202-307-0765).
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Bureau of Justice Statistics, including whether the information will have practical utility;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether and if so how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    —Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS) provides national data on the level and change of criminal victimization both reported and not reported to police in the United States. The NCVS instrument measures victimization and incident characteristics and includes two periodic modules on police performance and community safety. The 2026 NCVS includes a sample redesign which updates the first stage of the NCVS sample selection to reflect changes in the U.S. population based on the 2020 decennial census.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">The Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                     National Crime Victimization Survey.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">The agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department sponsoring the collection:</E>
                     The form numbers for the questionnaire are the NCVS-1 and NCVS-2. The applicable component within the Department of Justice is the Bureau of Justice Statistics, in the Office of Justice Programs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as the obligation to respond:</E>
                     Affected Public: Persons 12 years or older living in sampled households located throughout 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34885"/>
                    the United States. The obligation to respond is voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond:</E>
                     The estimate annual number of respondents is 157,439. The time per response is 34.4 minutes to complete the NCVS instrument. it will take the average non-interview respondent (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     nonrespondent) an estimated 9.3 minutes to respond; the average follow-up interview is estimated at 7 minutes; and the average follow-up for a non-interview is estimated at 1 minute.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total annual burden (in hours) associated with the collection:</E>
                     The total annual burden hours for this collection is 123,202 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total annual cost burden associated with the collection, if applicable:</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,11,10,12,9,12">
                    <TTITLE>Total Burden Hours</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Frequency</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Time per
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(min)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Interviewed</ENT>
                        <ENT>91,312</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>182,624</ENT>
                        <ENT>34.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>104,698</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Non-interviewed</ENT>
                        <ENT>56,772</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>113,544</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>17,599</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Re-interview (Interviews)</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,484</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,484</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>873</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Re-interview (Non-interviews)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,871</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,871</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>31</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Unduplicated Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>157,439</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>305,523</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>123,202</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">If additional information is required contact:</E>
                     Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218, Washington, DC.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Darwin Arceo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Department Clearance Officer for PRA, U.S. Department of Justice.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13931 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4410-18-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Number 1121-0102]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension, With Changes, of a Currently Approved: Title—National Prisoner Statistics program (NPS)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Justice Statistics, Department of Justice.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS), Department of Justice (DOJ) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until September 22, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        If you have comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Derek Mueller, Statistician, Bureau of Justice Statistics, 999 N Capitol St. NE, 8th Floor, Washington, DC 20531 (email: 
                        <E T="03">bjspra.comments@ojp.usdoj.gov;</E>
                         telephone: 202-307-0765).
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Bureau of Justice Statistics, including whether the information will have practical utility;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether and if so, how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    —Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Through the National Prisoner Statistics program (NPS), the Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS) collects annual aggregate counts of prisoners in the custody and under the jurisdiction of state and federal correctional authorities, as well as the number of persons admitted or released. BJS uses the NPS to report each year on the changes to and movement through state and federal prison systems by sentenced individuals. These statistics contribute fundamentally to BJS's mission of describing the movements of persons through the criminal justice system. Revisions to the collection include removing the HIV/AIDS module from the survey in part due to minimal year over year change in counts. These items may be included with other health-related questions in periodic supplements as part of the NPS program. Additionally, BJS plans to cognitively test a new format for collecting race and ethnicity data in alignment with the revised 2024 OMB Statistical Policy Directive No. 15. Additionally, BJS will assess the availability of more detailed race and ethnicity information within the respondents' data systems.
                </P>
                <P>Overview of This Information Collection</P>
                <P>
                    (1) 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Extension, With Changes, of a Current Approved Collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (2) 
                    <E T="03">The Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                     National Prisoner Statistics program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (3) 
                    <E T="03">The agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department sponsoring the collection:</E>
                     Form numbers for the questionnaire are NPS-1B (Summary of Sentenced Population Movement) and NPS-1B(T) (Prisoner Population Report—U.S. Territories). The applicable component within the Department of Justice is the Bureau of Justice Statistics, in the Office of Justice Programs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (4) 
                    <E T="03">Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as a brief abstract:</E>
                     For the NPS-1B form, 51 central reporters (one from each state and the Federal Bureau of Prisons) 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34886"/>
                    responsible for keeping records on inmates will be asked to provide information for the following categories:
                </P>
                <P>(a) As of December 31, the number of incarcerated males and females within their custody and under their jurisdiction with maximum sentences of more than one year, one year or less, and unsentenced;</P>
                <P>(b) The number of incarcerated individuals housed in privately operated facilities, county or other local authority correctional facilities, or in other state or Federal facilities on December 31;</P>
                <P>(c) Prison admission information in the calendar year for the following categories: new court commitments, parole violators, other conditional release violators returned, transfers from other jurisdictions, AWOLs and escapees returned, and returns from appeal and bond;</P>
                <P>(d) Prison release information in the calendar year for the following categories: expirations of sentence, commutations, other conditional releases, probations, supervised mandatory releases, paroles, other conditional releases, deaths by cause, AWOLs, escapes, transfers to other jurisdictions, and releases to appeal or bond;</P>
                <P>(e) Number of incarcerated individuals under jurisdiction on December 31 by race and Hispanic origin;</P>
                <P>(f) Number of incarcerated individuals under physical custody on December 31 classified as non-citizens, U.S. citizens, and unsentenced;</P>
                <P>(g) Number of incarcerated individuals under physical custody on December 31 who are citizens of the U.S. with maximum sentences of more than one year, one year or less, and unsentenced;</P>
                <P>(h) The source of U.S. citizenship data; and</P>
                <P>(i) The aggregated rated, operational, and/or design capacities, by sex, of the state/BOP's correctional facilities at year-end.</P>
                <P>For the NPS-1B(T) form, five central reporters from the U.S. Territories and Commonwealths of Guam, Puerto Rico, the Northern Mariana Islands, the Virgin Islands, and American Samoa will be asked to provide information for the following categories for the calendar year just ended, and, if available, for the previous calendar year:</P>
                <P>(a) As of December 31, the number of incarcerated males and females within their custody and under their jurisdiction with maximum sentences of more than one year, one year or less and unsentenced; and an assessment of the completeness of these counts (complete, partial, or estimated);</P>
                <P>(b) The number of incarcerated individuals under jurisdiction on December 31 but in the custody of facilities operated by other jurisdictions' authorities solely to reduce prison overcrowding;</P>
                <P>(c) Number of incarcerated individuals under jurisdiction on December 31 by race and Hispanic origin;</P>
                <P>(d) The aggregated rated, operational, and/or design capacities, by sex, of the territory's/Commonwealth's correctional facilities at year-end.</P>
                <P>The Bureau of Justice Statistics uses this information in published reports and for the U.S. Congress, Executive Office of the President, practitioners, researchers, students, the media, and others interested in criminal justice statistics.</P>
                <P>
                    (5) 
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     The obligation to respond is voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (6) 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond:</E>
                     Data collection conducted in 2026, 2027, and 2028 (collecting prison data from 2025, 2026, and 2027, respectively) will require each respondent to spend an average of 4.5 total hours to respond to the NPS-1B form. 5 respondents, each taking an average of 2 hours to respond to the NPS-1B(T) form. The burden estimates are based on feedback from respondents, and the burden is reduced from the previous clearance due to the removal of the HIV/AIDS module.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (7) 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     NPS-1B will take an average of 300 minutes (5 hours) or NPS 1B-T will take an average of 60 minutes (1 hour) to complete.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (8) 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Each respondent will complete the NPS-1B or NPS 1B-T once.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (9) 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection:</E>
                     There is an estimated 795 total burden hours associated with this collection for the three years of data collection, or approximately 265 hours for each year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (10) 
                    <E T="03">Total Estimate Annual Other Costs Burden:</E>
                     $577,000.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,11,6,10,7,7,10">
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Jurisdiction &amp; form</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Freq.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Time per
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Hourly
                            <LI>rate *</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Monetized
                            <LI>value of</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                            <LI>time</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">State departments of corrections and the Federal Bureau of Prisons (NPS-1B)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Assemble and report data
                            <LI>Non-response follow-up contact, clarification questions (if needed)</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            51
                            <LI>51</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            1
                            <LI>1</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            270
                            <LI>20</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            229.5
                            <LI>17</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            $38.50
                            <LI>38.50</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            $8,835.75
                            <LI>654.50</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Review and approve final data tabulations</ENT>
                        <ENT>51</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>38.50</ENT>
                        <ENT>327.50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">U.S. Territories and Commonwealths (NPS-1B(T))</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Assemble and report data
                            <LI>Non-response follow-up contact, clarification questions (if needed)</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            5
                            <LI>5</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            1
                            <LI>1</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            100
                            <LI>15</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            8.3
                            <LI>1.3</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            38.50
                            <LI>38.50</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            319.55
                            <LI>50.05</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,n,s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Review and approve final data tabulations</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>38.50</ENT>
                        <ENT>15.40</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>56</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>265</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>10,202.75</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="34887"/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">If additional information is required contact:</E>
                     Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218, Washington, DC 20530.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Darwin Arceo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Department Clearance Officer for PRA, U.S. Department of Justice.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13933 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4410-18-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. OSHA-2025-0004]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>McNally Tunneling Corp./ASI Marine Southerly Tunnel and Consolidation Project; Application for Permanent Variance and Interim Order; Grant of Interim Order; Request for Comments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In this notice, OSHA announces the application of McNally Tunneling Corp./ASI Marine (McNally/ASI Marine) for a permanent variance and interim order from provisions of the OSHA standard that regulates work in compressed air environments, presents the agency's preliminary finding on McNally/ASI Marine's application and announces the grant of an interim order. OSHA invites the public to submit comments on the variance application to assist the agency in determining whether to grant the applicant a permanent variance based on the conditions specified in this application.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments, information, documents in response to this notice, and request for a hearing on or before August 25, 2025. The interim order described in this notice will become effective on July 24, 2025, and shall remain in effect until the completion of the Southerly Tunnel and Consolidation (SOTC) Project for Cleveland, Ohio, the interim order is modified or revoked, or OSHA publishes a decision on the permanent variance application.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronically:</E>
                         You may submit comments, including attachments, electronically at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Follow the instructions online for making electronic submissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions must include the agency's name and the docket number for this rulemaking (Docket No. OSHA-2025-0004). All comments, including any personal information you provide, are placed in the public docket without change and may be made available online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Therefore, OSHA cautions commenters about submitting information they do not want made available to the public or submitting materials that contain personal information (either about themselves or others), such as Social Security numbers and birthdates.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         To read or download comments or other material in the docket, go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Documents in the docket (including this 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice) are listed in the 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         index; however, some information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download through the website. All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection through the OSHA Docket Office. Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350 (TTY (877) 889-5627) for assistance in locating docket submissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Extension of comment period:</E>
                         Submit requests for an extension of the comment period on or before August 25, 2025 to the Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities, Directorate of Technical Support and Emergency Management, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room N-3653, Washington, DC 20210, or by fax to (202) 693-1644.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Information regarding this notice is available from the following sources:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Press inquiries:</E>
                         Contact Mr. Frank Meilinger, Director, OSHA Office of Communications, U.S. Department of Labor; telephone: (202) 693-1999; email: 
                        <E T="03">meilinger.francis2@dol.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">General and technical information:</E>
                         Contact Mr. Kevin Robinson, Director, Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities, Directorate of Technical Support and Emergency Management, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor; telephone: (202) 693-1911; email: 
                        <E T="03">robinson.kevin@dol.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Copies of this Federal Register notice.</E>
                         Electronic copies of this 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice are available at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         This 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice, as well as news releases and other relevant information, also are available at OSHA's web page at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.osha.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Hearing Requests.</E>
                         According to 29 CFR 1905.15, hearing requests must include: (1) a concise statement of facts detailing how the permanent variance would affect the requesting party; (2) a specification of any statement or representation in the variance application that the commenter denies, and a concise summary of the evidence offered in support of each denial; and (3) any views or arguments on any issue of fact or law presented in the variance application.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Notice of Application</HD>
                <P>On July 16, 2024, McNally Tunneling Corp./ASI Marine (McNally/ASI or the applicant), submitted under Section 6(d) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (OSH Act; 29 U.S.C. 655) and 29 CFR 1905.11 (variances and other relief under section 6(d)) an application for a permanent variance from several provisions of the OSHA standard that regulates work in compressed air, 1926.803 of 1926 Subpart S—Underground Construction, Caissons, Cofferdams, and Compressed Air, and an interim order allowing it to proceed while OSHA considers the request for a permanent variance (OSHA-2025-0004-0002). This notice addresses McNally/ASI's application for a permanent variance and interim order for construction of the Southerly Tunnel and Consolidation (SOTC) Project in Cleveland, Ohio, only and is not applicable to future McNally/ASI Marine or McNally-related joint venture tunneling projects.</P>
                <P>
                    Specifically, this notice addresses McNally/ASI Marine's application for a permanent variance and interim order from the provisions of the standard that: (1) prohibit compressed-air worker exposure to pressures exceeding 50 pounds per square inch (p.s.i.) except in an emergency (29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5)); 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (2) require the use of the decompression values specified in decompression tables in Appendix A of the compressed-air standard for construction (29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1)); and (3) require the use of automated operational controls and a special decompression chamber (29 CFR 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34888"/>
                    1926.803(g)(1)(iii) and .803(g)(1)(xvii), respectively).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The decompression tables in Appendix A of subpart S express the maximum working pressures as pounds per square inch gauge (p.s.i.g.), with a maximum working pressure of 50 p.s.i.g. Therefore, throughout this notice, OSHA expresses the 50 p.s.i. value specified by 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5) as 50 p.s.i.g., consistent with the terminology in Appendix A, Table 1 of subpart S.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>OSHA has previously approved nearly identical provisions when granting several other very similar variances, as discussed in more detail in Section II. OSHA preliminarily concludes that the proposed variance is appropriate, grants an interim order temporarily allowing the proposed activity, and seeks comment on the proposed variance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Background</HD>
                <P>The applicant is a contractor that works on complex underground tunnel projects using innovations in tunnel-excavation methods. The applicant's workers engage in the construction of tunnels using advanced shielded mechanical excavation techniques in conjunction with an earth pressure balanced micro-tunnel boring machine (TBM). Using shielded mechanical excavation techniques, in conjunction with precast concrete tunnel liners and backfill grout, TBMs provide methods to achieve the face pressures required to maintain a stabilized tunnel face through various geologies and isolate that pressure to the forward section (the excavation working chamber) of the TBM.</P>
                <P>McNally/ASI Marine asserts that generally it bores tunnels using a TBM at levels below the water table through soft soils consisting of clay, silt, and sand. TBMs are capable of maintaining pressure at the tunnel face, and stabilizing existing geological conditions, through the controlled use of a mechanically driven cutter head, bulkheads within the shield, ground-treatment foam, and a screw conveyor that moves excavated material from the working chamber. The forward-most portion of the TBM is the working chamber, and this chamber is the only pressurized segment of the TBM. Within the shield, the working chamber consists of two sections: the forward working chamber and the staging chamber. The forward working chamber is immediately behind the cutter head and tunnel face. The staging chamber is behind the forward working chamber and between the man-lock door, and the entry door to the forward working chamber.</P>
                <P>The TBM has twin man-locks located between the pressurized working chamber and the non-pressurized portion of the machine. Each man-lock has two compartments. This configuration allows workers to access the man-locks for compression and decompression, and medical personnel to access the man-locks if required in an emergency.</P>
                <P>McNally/ASI Marine's variance application indicated that the maximum pressure to which it is likely to expose workers during project interventions for the SOTC Project is 58 p.s.i. Therefore, to work effectively, McNally/ASI Marine must perform hyperbaric interventions in compressed air at pressures 16 percent higher than the maximum pressure specified by the existing OSHA standard, 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5), which states: “No employee shall be subjected to pressure exceeding 50 p.s.i.g. except in emergency” (see footnote 1).</P>
                <P>McNally/ASI Marine employs specially trained personnel for the construction of the tunnel. To keep the machinery working effectively, McNally asserts that these workers must periodically enter the excavation working chamber of the TBM to perform hyperbaric interventions during which workers would be exposed to air pressures up to 58 p.s.i.g., which exceeds the maximum pressure specified by the existing OSHA standard at 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5). These interventions consist of conducting inspections or maintenance work on the cutter-head structure and cutting tools of the TBM, such as changing replaceable cutting tools and disposable wear bars, and, in rare cases, repairing structural damage to the cutter head. These interventions are the only time that workers are exposed to compressed air. Interventions in the working chamber (the pressurized portion of the TBM) take place only after halting tunnel excavation and preparing the machine and crew for an intervention.</P>
                <P>During interventions, workers enter the working chamber through one of the twin man-locks that open into the staging chamber. To reach the forward part of the working chamber, workers pass through a door in a bulkhead that separates the staging chamber from the forward working chamber. The man-locks and the working chamber are designed to accommodate three people, which is the maximum crew size allowed under the proposed variance. When the required decompression times are greater than work times, the twin man-locks allow for crew rotation. During crew rotation, one crew can be compressing or decompressing while the second crew is working. Therefore, the working crew always has an unoccupied man-lock at its disposal.</P>
                <P>McNally/ASI Marine asserts that these innovations in tunnel excavation have greatly reduced worker exposure to hazards of pressurized air work because they have eliminated the need to pressurize the entire tunnel for the project and would thereby reduce the number of workers exposed, as well as the total duration of exposure, to hyperbaric pressure during tunnel construction. These advances in technology substantially modified the methods used by the construction industry to excavate subaqueous tunnels compared to caisson work.</P>
                <P>In addition to the reduced exposures resulting from the innovations in tunnel-excavation methods, McNally/ASI Marine asserts that innovations in hyperbaric medicine and technology improve the safety of decompression from hyperbaric exposures. These procedures, however, would deviate from the decompression process that OSHA requires for construction in 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5) and (f)(1) and the decompression tables in Appendix A of 29 CFR 1926, subpart S. Nevertheless, according to McNally/ASI Marine, their use of decompression protocols incorporating oxygen is more efficient, effective, and safer for tunnel workers than compliance with the decompression tables specified by the existing OSHA standard.</P>
                <P>McNally/ASI Marine therefore believes its workers will be at least as safe under its proposed alternatives as they would be under OSHA's standard because of the reduction in number of workers and duration of hyperbaric exposures, a better application of hyperbaric medicine, and the development of a project-specific Hyperbaric Operations Manual (HOM), (OSHA-2025-0004-0003) that requires specialized medical support and hyperbaric supervision to provide assistance to a team of specially trained man-lock attendants; and hyperbaric or compressed-air workers (CAWs).</P>
                <P>Based on an initial review of McNally/ASI Marine's application for a permanent variance and interim order for the construction of the SOTC Project in Cleveland, Ohio, OSHA has preliminarily determined that McNally/ASI Marine has proposed an alternative that would provide a workplace at least as safe and healthful as that provided by the standard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. The Variance Application</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to the requirements of OSHA's variance regulations (29 CFR 1905.11), the applicant has certified that it notified its workers 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the variance application and request for interim order by posting, at prominent locations where it normally posts workplace notices, a summary of the application and information specifying where the workers can examine a copy of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34889"/>
                    application. In addition, the applicant informed its workers and their representatives of their rights to petition the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health for a hearing on the variance application.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         See the definition of “Affected employee or worker” in section V.D of this Notice.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. OSHA History of Approval of Nearly Identical Variance Requests</HD>
                <P>OSHA has previously approved several nearly identical variances involving the same types of tunneling equipment used for similar projects. OSHA notes that it granted several subaqueous tunnel construction permanent variances from the same provisions of OSHA's compressed-air standard (29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5), (f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii)) that are the subject of the present application: (1) Impregilo, Healy, Parsons, Joint Venture (IHP JV) for the Anacostia River Tunnel in Washington, DC (80 FR 50652, August 20, 2015); (2) Traylor JV for the Blue Plains Tunnel in Washington, DC (80 FR 16440, March 27, 2015); (3) Tully/OHL USA Joint Venture for the New York Economic Development Corporation's New York Siphon Tunnel project (79 FR 29809, May 23, 2014); (4) Salini-Impregilo/Healy Joint Venture for the Northeast Boundary Tunnel in Washington, DC (85 FR 27767, May 11, 2020); (5) McNally/Kiewit SST for the Shoreline Storage Tunnel in Cleveland, Ohio (88 FR 15080, March 10, 2023); (6) Traylor Shea Joint Venture for the Alexandria RiverRenew Tunnel Project in Alexandria, Virginia and Washington, DC (88 FR 15090, March 10, 2023); (7) Traylor-Sundt Joint Venture, for the Integrated Pipeline Tunnel Project in Dallas, Texas (88 FR 83152, November 28, 2023); (8) Ballard Marine Construction for the Bay Park Conveyance Tunnel Project in Nassau County, New York (89 FR 8442, February 7, 2024); and (9) Ballard Marine Construction for the Lower Olentangy Tunnel Project in Columbus, Ohio (89 FR 78906, September 26, 2024). OSHA also granted an interim order to Ballard Marine Construction for the Suffolk County, New York Outfall Tunnel Project (86 FR 5253, January 19, 2021). The proposed alternate conditions in this notice are nearly identical to the alternate conditions of the previous permanent variances and interim orders. OSHA is not aware of any injuries or other safety issues that arose from work performed under these conditions in accordance with the previous variances.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Variance From Paragraph (e)(5) of 29 CFR 1926.803, Prohibition of Exposure to Pressure Greater Than 50 p.s.i.g. (See Footnote 1)</HD>
                <P>The applicant states that it may perform hyperbaric interventions at pressures up to 58 p.s.i.g. in the working chamber of the TBM; this pressure exceeds the pressure limit of 50 p.s.i. specified for nonemergency purposes by 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5). The TBM has twin man-locks, with each man-lock having two compartments. This configuration allows workers to access the man-locks for compression and decompression, and medical personnel to access the man-locks if required in an emergency.</P>
                <P>TBMs are capable of maintaining pressure at the tunnel face, and stabilizing existing geological conditions, through the controlled use of a mechanically driven cutter head, bulkheads within the shield, ground-treatment foam, and a screw conveyor that moves excavated material from the working chamber. As noted earlier, the forward-most portion of the TBM is the working chamber, and this chamber is the only pressurized segment of the TBM. Within the shield, the working chamber consists of two sections: the staging chamber and the forward working chamber. The staging chamber is the section of the working chamber between the man-lock door and the entry door to the forward working chamber. The forward working chamber is immediately behind the cutter head and tunnel face.</P>
                <P>McNally/ASI Marine will pressurize the working chamber to the level required to maintain a stable tunnel face. Pressure in the staging chamber ranges from atmospheric (no increased pressure) to a maximum pressure equal to the pressure in the working chamber. The applicant asserts that they may have to perform interventions at pressures up to 58 p.s.i.g.</P>
                <P>
                    During interventions, workers enter the working chamber through one of the twin man-locks that open into the staging chamber. To reach the forward part of the working chamber, workers pass through a door in a bulkhead that separates the staging chamber from the forward working chamber. The maximum crew size allowed in the forward working chamber is three. At certain hyperbaric pressures (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     when decompression times are greater than work times), the twin man-locks allow for crew rotation. During crew rotation, one crew can be compressing or decompressing while the second crew is working. Therefore, the working crew always has an unoccupied man-lock at its disposal.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Further, the applicant asserts that it has developed a project-specific HOM (OSHA-2025-0004-0003) that describes in detail the hyperbaric procedures, the required medical examination used during the tunnel-construction project, the standard operating procedures and the emergency and contingency procedures. The procedures include using experienced and knowledgeable man-lock attendants who have the training and experience necessary to recognize and treat decompression illnesses and injuries. The attendants are under the direct supervision of the hyperbaric supervisor and attending physician. In addition, procedures include medical screening and review of prospective compressed-air workers (CAWs). The purpose of this screening procedure is to vet prospective CAWs with medical conditions (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     deep vein thrombosis, poor vascular circulation, and muscle cramping) that could be aggravated by sitting in a cramped space (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     a man-lock) for extended periods, or by exposure to elevated pressures and compressed gas mixtures. A transportable recompression chamber (shuttle) is available to extract workers from the hyperbaric working chamber for emergency evacuation and medical treatment; the shuttle attaches to the topside medical lock, which is a large recompression chamber. The applicant believes that the procedures included in the HOM provide safe work conditions when interventions are necessary, including interventions above 50 p.s.i.g.
                </P>
                <P>OSHA has comprehensively reviewed the project-specific HOM and has determined that the safety and health instructions and measures it specifies are appropriate, conform with the conditions in the variance, and adequately protect the safety and health of the CAWs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Variance From Paragraph (f)(1) of 29 CFR 1926.803, Requirement To Use OSHA Decompression Tables</HD>
                <P>
                    OSHA's compressed-air standard for construction requires decompression in accordance with the decompression tables in Appendix A of 29 CFR 1926, subpart S (see 29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1)). As an alternative to the OSHA decompression tables, the applicant proposes to use newer decompression schedules (the 1992 French Decompression Tables) that rely on staged decompression and supplement breathing air used during decompression with air or oxygen (as 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34890"/>
                    appropriate).
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The applicant asserts decompression protocols using the 1992 French Decompression Tables for air or oxygen as specified by the SOTC Project-specific HOM are safer for tunnel workers than the decompression protocols specified in Appendix A of 29 CFR 1926, subpart S. Accordingly, the applicant would commit to following the decompression procedures described in that HOM, which would require it to follow the 1992 French Decompression Tables to decompress compressed-air worker (CAWs) after they exit the hyperbaric conditions in the working chamber.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         In 1992, the French Ministry of Labour replaced the 1974 French Decompression Tables with the 1992 French Decompression Tables, which differ from OSHA's decompression tables in Appendix A by using: (1) staged decompression as opposed to continuous (linear) decompression; (2) decompression tables based on air or both air and pure oxygen; and (3) emergency tables when unexpected exposure times occur (up to 30 minutes above the maximum allowed working time).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Depending on the maximum working pressure and exposure times, the 1992 French Decompression Tables provide for air decompression with or without oxygen. McNally/ASI Marine asserts that oxygen decompression has many benefits, including (1) keeping the partial pressure of nitrogen in the lungs as low as possible; (2) keeping external pressure as low as possible to reduce the formation of bubbles in the blood; (3) removing nitrogen from the lungs and arterial blood and increasing the rate of nitrogen elimination; (4) improving the quality of breathing during decompression stops so that workers are less tired and to prevent bone necrosis; (5) reducing decompression time by about 33 percent as compared to air decompression; and (6) reducing inflammation.</P>
                <P>In addition, the project-specific HOM requires a physician certified in hyperbaric medicine to manage the medical condition of CAWs during hyperbaric exposures and decompression. A trained and experienced man-lock attendant is also required to be present during hyperbaric exposures and decompression. This man-lock attendant is to operate the hyperbaric system to ensure compliance with the specified decompression table. A hyperbaric supervisor (competent person), who is trained in hyperbaric operations, procedures, and safety, directly oversees all hyperbaric interventions, and ensures that staff follow the procedures delineated in the HOM or by the attending physician.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Variance From Paragraph (g)(1)(iii) of 29 CFR 1926.803, Automatically Regulated Continuous Decompression</HD>
                <P>The applicant is applying for a permanent variance from the OSHA standard at 29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(iii), which requires automatic controls to regulate decompression. As noted above, the applicant is committed to conducting the staged decompression according to the 1992 French Decompression Tables under the direct control of the trained man-lock attendant and under the oversight of the hyperbaric supervisor.</P>
                <P>Breathing air under hyperbaric conditions increases the amount of nitrogen gas dissolved in a CAW's tissues. The greater the hyperbaric pressure under these conditions and the more time spent under the increased pressure, the greater the amount of nitrogen gas dissolved in the tissues. When the pressure decreases during decompression, tissues release the dissolved nitrogen gas into the blood system, which then carries the nitrogen gas to the lungs for elimination through exhalation. Releasing hyperbaric pressure too rapidly during decompression can increase the size of the bubbles formed by nitrogen gas in the blood system, resulting in decompression illness (DCI), commonly referred to as “the bends.” This description of the etiology of DCI is consistent with current scientific theory and research on the issue (see footnote 12 in this notice discussing a 1985 NIOSH report on DCI).</P>
                <P>
                    The 1992 French Decompression Tables proposed for use by the applicant provide for stops during worker decompression (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     staged decompression) to control the release of nitrogen gas from tissues into the blood system. Studies show that staged decompression, in combination with other features of the 1992 French Decompression Tables such as the use of oxygen, result in a lower incidence of DCI than the use of automatically regulated continuous decompression.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, the applicant asserts that staged decompression administered in accordance with its HOM is at least as effective as an automatic controller in regulating the decompression process because the HOM includes a hyperbaric supervisor (a competent person experienced and trained in hyperbaric operations, procedures, and safety) who directly supervises all hyperbaric interventions and ensures that the man-lock attendant, who is a competent person in the manual control of hyperbaric systems, follows the schedule specified in the decompression tables, including stops.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         See, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Dr. Eric Kindwall, EP (1997), Compressed air tunneling and caisson work decompression procedures: development, problems, and solutions. 
                        <E T="03">Undersea and Hyperbaric Medicine,</E>
                         24(4), pp. 337-345. This article reported 60 treated cases of DCI among 4,168 exposures between 19 and 31 p.s.i.g. over a 51-week contract period, for a DCI incidence of 1.44 percent for the decompression tables specified by the OSHA standard. Dr. Kindwall notes that the use of automatically regulated continuous decompression in the Washington State safety standards for compressed-air work (from which OSHA derived its decompression tables) was at the insistence of contractors and the union, and against the advice of the expert who calculated the decompression table and recommended using staged decompression. Dr. Kindwall then states, “Continuous decompression is inefficient and wasteful. For example, if the last stage from 4 p.s.i.g. . . . to the surface took 1h, at least half the time is spent at pressures less than 2 p.s.i.g. . . ., which provides less and less meaningful bubble suppression . . . .” In addition, Dr. Kindwall addresses the continuous-decompression protocol in the OSHA compressed-air standard for construction, noting that “[a]side from the tables for saturation diving to deep depths, no other widely used or officially approved diving decompression tables use straight line, continuous decompressions at varying rates. Stage decompression is usually the rule, since it is simpler to control.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Variance From Paragraph (g)(1)(xvii) of 29 CFR 1926.803, Requirement of Special Decompression Chamber</HD>
                <P>The OSHA compressed-air standard for construction requires employers to use a special decompression chamber of sufficient size to accommodate all CAWs being decompressed at the end of the shift when total decompression time exceeds 75 minutes (see 29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(xvii)). Use of the special decompression chamber enables CAWs to move about and flex their joints to prevent neuromuscular problems during decompression.</P>
                <P>
                    Space limitations in the TBM do not allow for the installation and use of an additional special decompression lock or chamber. The applicant proposes that it be permitted to rely on the man-locks and staging chamber in lieu of adding a separate, special decompression chamber. Because only a few workers out of the entire crew are exposed to hyperbaric pressure, the man-locks (which, as noted earlier, connect directly to the working chamber) and the staging chamber are of sufficient size to accommodate all of the exposed workers during decompression. The applicant uses the existing man-locks, each of which adequately accommodates a three-member crew for this purpose when decompression lasts up to 75 minutes. When decompression exceeds 75 minutes, crews can open the door connecting the two compartments in each man-lock (during decompression stops) or exit the man-
                    <PRTPAGE P="34891"/>
                    lock and move into the staging chamber where additional space is available. The applicant asserts that this alternative arrangement is as effective as a special decompression chamber in that it has sufficient space for all the CAWs at the end of a shift and enables the CAWs to move about and flex their joints to prevent neuromuscular problems.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Agency Preliminary Determinations</HD>
                <P>After reviewing the proposed alternatives, OSHA has preliminarily determined that the applicant's proposed alternatives on the whole, subject to the conditions in the request and imposed by this interim order, provide measures that are as safe and healthful as those required by the cited OSHA standards addressed in section II of this document.</P>
                <P>In addition, OSHA has preliminarily determined that each of the following alternatives are at least as effective as the specified OSHA requirements:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5)</HD>
                <P>McNally has developed, and proposed to implement, effective alternative measures to the prohibition of using compressed air under hyperbaric conditions exceeding 50 p.s.i. The proposed alternative measures include use of engineering and administrative controls of the hazards associated with work performed in compressed-air conditions exceeding 50 p.s.i. while engaged in the construction of a subaqueous tunnel using advance shielded mechanical-excavation techniques in conjunction with the TBM. Prior to conducting interventions in the TBM's pressurized working chamber, McNally/ASI Marine halts tunnel excavation and prepares the machine and crew to conduct the interventions. Interventions involve inspection, maintenance, or repair of the mechanical-excavation components located in the working chamber.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. 29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1)</HD>
                <P>
                    McNally/ASI Marine has proposed to implement equally effective alternative measures to the requirement in 29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1) for compliance with OSHA's decompression tables. The HOM specifies the procedures and personnel qualifications for performing work safely during the compression and decompression phases of interventions. The HOM also specifies the decompression tables the applicant proposes to use (the 1992 French Decompression Tables). Depending on the maximum working pressure and exposure times during the interventions, the tables provide for decompression using air, pure oxygen, or a combination of air and oxygen. The decompression tables also include delays or stops for various time intervals at different pressure levels during the transition to atmospheric pressure (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     staged decompression). In all cases, a physician certified in hyperbaric medicine will manage the medical condition of CAWs during decompression. In addition, a trained and experienced man-lock attendant, experienced in recognizing decompression sickness or illnesses and injuries, will be present. Of key importance, a hyperbaric supervisor (competent person), trained in hyperbaric operations, procedures, and safety, will directly supervise all hyperbaric operations to ensure compliance with the procedures delineated in the project-specific HOM or by the attending physician.
                </P>
                <P>
                    As it did when granting the nine previous tunneling permanent variances to IHP JV, Traylor JV, Tully JV, Salini-Impregilo JV, McNally/Kiewit, Traylor-Shea, Traylor-Sundt JV, Ballard (Lower Olentangy), Ballard (Bay Park), and one interim order to Ballard (Suffolk), OSHA conducted a review of the scientific literature and concluded that the alternative decompression method (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the 1992 French Decompression Tables) McNally/ASI Marine proposed would be at least as safe as the decompression tables specified by OSHA when applied by trained medical personnel under the conditions that would be imposed by the proposed variance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Some of the literature indicates that it may be safer, concluding that decompression performed in accordance with these tables resulted in a lower occurrence of DCI than decompression conducted in accordance with the decompression tables specified by the standard. For example, H.L. Andersen studied the occurrence of DCI at maximum hyperbaric pressures ranging from 4 p.s.i.g. to 43 p.s.i.g. during construction of the Great Belt Tunnel in Denmark (1992-1996).
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This project used the 1992 French Decompression Tables to decompress the workers during part of the construction. Andersen observed 6 DCI cases out of 7,220 decompression events and reported that switching to the 1992 French Decompression tables reduced the DCI incidence to 0.08 percent compared to a previous incidence rate of 0.14 percent. The DCI incidence in the study by H.L. Andersen is substantially less than the DCI incidence reported for the decompression tables specified in Appendix A.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Anderson HL (2002). Decompression sickness during construction of the Great Belt tunnel, Denmark. 
                        <E T="03">Undersea and Hyperbaric Medicine,</E>
                         29(3), pp. 172-188.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    OSHA found no studies in which the DCI incidence reported for the 1992 French Decompression Tables were higher than the DCI incidence reported for the OSHA decompression tables.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Le Péchon JC, Barre P, Baud JP, Ollivier F (September 1996). Compressed air work—French Tables 1992—operational results. 
                        <E T="03">JCLP Hyperbarie Paris, Centre Medical Subaquatique Interentreprise, Marseille: Communication a l'EUBS,</E>
                         pp. 1-5 (see Ex. OSHA-2012-0036-0005).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    OSHA's experience with the other previous tunneling permanent variances, which all incorporated nearly identical decompression plans and did not result in safety issues, also provides evidence that the alternative procedure as a whole is at least as effective for this type of tunneling project as compliance with OSHA's decompression tables. The experience of State Plans 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that either granted variances (Nevada, Oregon and Washington) 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or promulgated a new standard (California) 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for hyperbaric exposures occurring during similar subaqueous tunnel-construction work, provide additional evidence of the effectiveness of this alternative procedure.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Under Section 18 of the OSH Act, Congress expressly provides that States and U.S. territories may adopt, with Federal approval, a plan for the development and enforcement of occupational safety and health standards. OSHA refers to such States and territories as “State Plans.” Occupational safety and health standards developed by State Plans must be at least as effective in providing safe and healthful employment and places of employment as the Federal standards (29 U.S.C. 667).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         These state variances are available in the docket for the 2015 Traylor JV variance: Exs. OSHA-2012-0035-0006 (Nevada), OSHA-2012-0035-0005 (Oregon), and OSHA-2012-0035-0004 (Washington).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         See California Code of Regulations, Title 8, Subchapter 7, Group 26, Article 154, available at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.dir.ca.gov/title8/sb7g26a154.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. 29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(iii)</HD>
                <P>
                    McNally/ASI Marine developed, and proposed to implement, an equally effective alternative to 29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(iii), which requires the use of automatic controllers that continuously decrease pressure to achieve decompression in accordance with the tables specified by the standard. The applicant's alternative includes using the 1992 French Decompression Tables for guiding staged decompression to achieve lower occurrences of DCI, using a trained and competent attendant for implementing appropriate hyperbaric entry and exit procedures, and providing a competent hyperbaric supervisor and attending physician certified in hyperbaric medicine to oversee all hyperbaric operations.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34892"/>
                </P>
                <P>In reaching this preliminary conclusion, OSHA again notes the experience of previous nearly identical tunneling variances, the experiences of State Plans, and a review of the literature and other information noted earlier.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. 29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(xvii)</HD>
                <P>McNally/ASI Marine developed, and proposed to implement, an effective alternative to the use of the special decompression chamber required by 29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(xvii). The TBM's man-lock and working chamber appear to satisfy all of the conditions of the special decompression chamber, including that they provide sufficient space for the maximum crew of three CAWs to stand up and move around, and safely accommodate decompression times up to 360 minutes. Therefore, again noting OSHA's previous experience with nearly identical tunneling variances including the same alternative, OSHA preliminarily determined that the TBM's man-lock and working chamber function as effectively as the special decompression chamber required by the standard.</P>
                <P>Pursuant to section 6(d) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 655), and based on the record discussed above, the agency preliminarily finds that when the employer complies with the conditions of the proposed variance, the working conditions of the employer's workers would be at least as safe and healthful as if the employer complied with the working conditions specified by paragraphs (e)(5), (f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii) of 29 CFR 1926.803.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Grant of Interim Order, Proposal for Permanent Variance, and Request for Comment</HD>
                <P>OSHA hereby announces the preliminary decision to grant an interim order allowing McNally/ASI Marine's CAWs to perform interventions in hyperbaric conditions not exceeding 58 p.s.i.g. during the SOTC Project, subject to the conditions that follow in this document. This interim order will remain in effect until completion of the SOTC Project or until the agency modifies or revokes the interim order or makes a decision on McNally/ASI Marine's application for a permanent variance. During the period starting with the publication of this notice until completion of the SOTC Project, or until the agency modifies or revokes the interim order or makes a decision on its application for a permanent variance, the applicant is required to comply fully with the conditions of the interim order as an alternative to complying with the following requirements of 29 CFR 1926.803 (hereafter, the standard) that:</P>
                <P>1. Prohibit exposure to pressure greater than 50 p.s.i. (29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5));</P>
                <P>2. Require the use of decompression values specified by the decompression tables in Appendix A of the compressed-air standard (29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1));</P>
                <P>3. Require the use of automated operational controls (29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(iii)); and</P>
                <P>4. Require the use of a special decompression chamber (29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(xvii)).</P>
                <P>
                    In order to avail itself of the interim order, McNally/ASI Marine must: (1) comply with the conditions listed in the interim order for the period starting with the grant of the interim order and ending with McNally/ASI Marine's completion of the SOTC Project (or until the agency modifies or revokes the interim order or makes a decision on its application for a permanent variance); (2) comply fully with all other applicable provisions of 29 CFR part 1926; and (3) provide a copy of this 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice to all employees affected by the proposed conditions, including the affected employees of other employers, using the same means it used to inform these employees of its application for a permanent variance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    OSHA is also proposing that the same requirements (see above section III) would apply to a permanent variance if OSHA ultimately issues one for this project. OSHA requests comment on those conditions as well as OSHA's preliminary determination that the specified alternatives and conditions would provide a workplace as safe and healthful as those required by the standard from which a variance is sought. After reviewing comments, OSHA will publish in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     the agency's final decision approving or rejecting the request for a permanent variance.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Description of the Specified Conditions of the Interim Order and the Application for a Permanent Variance</HD>
                <P>This section describes the alternative means of compliance with 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5), (f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii) and provides additional detail regarding the proposed conditions that form the basis of McNally/ASI Marine's application for an interim order and for a permanent variance. The conditions are listed below. For brevity, the discussion that follows refers only to the permanent variance, but the same conditions apply to the interim order.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition A: Scope</HD>
                <P>The scope of the proposed permanent variance would limit coverage to the work situations specified. Clearly defining the scope of the proposed permanent variance provides McNally/ASI Marine, McNally/ASI Marine's employees, potential future applicants, other stakeholders, the public, and OSHA with necessary information regarding the work situations in which the proposed permanent variance would apply. To the extent that McNally/ASI Marine exceeds the defined scope of this variance, it would be required to comply with OSHA's standards.</P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 29 CFR 1905.11, an employer (or class or group of employers) 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     may request a permanent variance for a specific workplace or workplaces. If OSHA approves a permanent variance, it would apply only to the specific employer(s) that submitted the application and only to the specific workplace or workplaces designated as part of the project. In this instance, if OSHA were to grant a permanent variance, it would apply to only the applicant, McNally/ASI Marine and only the SOTC Project. As a result, it is important to understand that if OSHA were to grant McNally/ASI Marine a permanent variance, it would not apply to any other employers, such as other joint ventures the applicant may undertake in the future.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         A class or group of employers (such as members of a trade alliance or association) may apply jointly for a Variance provided an authorized representative for each employer signs the application and the application identifies each employer's affected facilities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition B: Duration</HD>
                <P>The interim order is only intended as a temporary measure pending OSHA's decision on the permanent variance, so this condition specifies the duration of the order. If OSHA approves a permanent variance, it would specify the duration of the permanent variance as the remainder of the SOTC Project.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition C: List of Abbreviations</HD>
                <P>The proposed condition defines a number of abbreviations used in the proposed permanent variance. OSHA believes that defining these abbreviations serves to clarify and standardize their usage, thereby enhancing the applicant's and its employees' understanding of the conditions specified by the proposed permanent variance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition D: Definitions</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed condition defines a series of terms, mostly technical terms, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34893"/>
                    used in the proposed permanent variance to standardize and clarify their meaning. OSHA believes that defining these terms serves to enhance the applicant's and its employees' understanding of the conditions specified by the proposed permanent variance.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition E: Safety and Health Practices</HD>
                <P>
                    This proposed condition requires the applicant to develop and submit to OSHA an HOM specific to the SOTC Project at least six months before using the TBM for tunneling operations. The applicant must also submit, at least six months before using the TBM, proof that the TBM's hyperbaric chambers have been designed, fabricated, inspected, tested, marked, and stamped in accordance with the requirements of ASME PVHO-1.2019 (or the most recent edition of 
                    <E T="03">Safety Standards for Pressure Vessels for Human Occupancy</E>
                    ). These requirements ensure that the applicant develops hyperbaric safety and health procedures suitable for the project.
                </P>
                <P>The submission of the HOM to OSHA, which McNally/ASI Marine has already completed, enables OSHA to determine whether the safety and health instructions and measures it specifies are appropriate to the field conditions of the tunnel (including expected geological conditions), conform to the conditions of the variance; and adequately protect the safety and health of the CAWs. It also facilitates OSHA's ability to ensure that the applicant is complying with these instructions and measures. The requirement for proof of compliance with ASME PVHO-1.2019 is intended to ensure that the equipment is structurally sound and capable of performing to protect the safety of the employees exposed to hyperbaric pressure.</P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, the proposed condition includes a series of related hazard prevention and control requirements and methods (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     decompression tables, job hazard analyses (JHA), operations and inspections checklists, incident investigation, and recording and notification to OSHA of recordable hyperbaric injuries and illnesses) designed to ensure the continued effective functioning of the hyperbaric equipment and operating system.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition F: Communication</HD>
                <P>This proposed condition requires the applicant to develop and implement an effective system of information sharing and communication. Effective information sharing and communication are intended to ensure that affected workers receive updated information regarding any safety-related hazards and incidents, and corrective actions taken, prior to the start of each shift. The proposed condition also requires the applicant to ensure that reliable means of emergency communications are available and maintained for affected workers and support personnel during hyperbaric operations. The availability of such reliable means of communications would enable affected workers and support personnel to respond quickly and effectively to hazardous conditions or emergencies that may develop during TBM operations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition G: Worker Qualification and Training</HD>
                <P>This proposed condition requires the applicant to develop and implement an effective qualification and training program for affected workers. The proposed condition specifies the factors that an affected worker must know to perform safely during hyperbaric operations, including how to enter, work in, and exit from hyperbaric conditions under both normal and emergency conditions. Having well-trained and qualified workers performing hyperbaric intervention work is intended to ensure that they recognize, and respond appropriately to, hyperbaric safety and health hazards. These qualification and training requirements enable affected workers to cope effectively with emergencies, as well as the discomfort and physiological effects of hyperbaric exposure, thereby preventing worker injury, illness, and fatalities.</P>
                <P>Paragraph (2)(e) of this proposed condition requires the applicant to provide affected workers with information they can use to contact the appropriate healthcare professionals if the workers believe they are developing hyperbaric-related health effects. This requirement provides for early intervention and treatment of DCI and other health effects resulting from hyperbaric exposure, thereby reducing the potential severity of these effects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition H: Inspections, Tests, and Accident Prevention</HD>
                <P>Proposed Condition H requires the applicant to develop, implement and operate a program of frequent, and regular inspections of the TBM's hyperbaric equipment and support systems, and associated work areas. This condition would help to ensure the safe operation and physical integrity of the equipment and work areas necessary to conduct hyperbaric operations. The condition would also enhance worker safety by reducing the risk of hyperbaric-related emergencies.</P>
                <P>Paragraph (3) of this proposed condition requires the applicant to document tests, inspections, corrective actions, and repairs involving the TBM, and maintain these documents at the jobsite for the duration of the job. This requirement would provide the applicant with information needed to schedule tests and inspections to ensure the continued safe operation of the equipment and systems, and to determine that the actions taken to correct defects in hyperbaric equipment and systems were appropriate, prior to returning them to service.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition I: Compression and Decompression</HD>
                <P>This proposed condition would require the applicant to consult with the designated medical advisor regarding special compression or decompression procedures appropriate for any unacclimated CAW and then implement the procedures recommended by the medical consultant. This proposed provision would ensure that the applicant consults with the medical advisor, and involves the medical advisor in the evaluation, development, and implementation of compression or decompression protocols appropriate for any CAW requiring acclimation to the hyperbaric conditions encountered during TBM operations. Accordingly, CAWs requiring acclimation would have an opportunity to acclimate prior to exposure to these hyperbaric conditions. OSHA believes this condition would prevent or reduce adverse reactions among CAWs to the effects of compression or decompression associated with the intervention work they perform in the TBM.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition J: Recordkeeping</HD>
                <P>Under OSHA's existing recordkeeping requirements in 29 CFR part 1904 regarding Recording and Reporting Occupational Injuries and Illnesses, McNally/ASI Marine must maintain a record of any recordable injury, illness, or fatality (as defined by 29 CFR part 1904) resulting from exposure of an employee to hyperbaric conditions by completing the OSHA Form 301 Incident Report and OSHA Form 300 Log of Work Related Injuries and Illnesses. The applicant did not seek a variance from this standard and therefore must comply fully with those requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    Examples of important information to include on the OSHA Form 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report (along with the corresponding question on the form) are:
                    <PRTPAGE P="34894"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Q14</HD>
                <P>• the task performed;</P>
                <P>
                    • the composition of the gas mixture (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     air or oxygen);
                </P>
                <P>• an estimate of the CAW's workload;</P>
                <P>• the maximum working pressure;</P>
                <P>• temperature in the work and decompression environments;</P>
                <P>• unusual occurrences, if any, during the task or decompression</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Q15</HD>
                <P>• time of symptom onset;</P>
                <P>• duration between decompression and onset of symptoms</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Q16</HD>
                <P>• type and duration of symptoms;</P>
                <P>• a medical summary of the illness or injury</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Q17</HD>
                <P>• duration of the hyperbaric intervention;</P>
                <P>• possible contributing factors;</P>
                <P>
                    • the number of prior interventions completed by the injured or ill CAW; and the pressure to which the CAW was exposed during those interventions.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         See 29 CFR 1904 Recording and Reporting Occupational Injuries and Illnesses 
                        <E T="03">(http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show_document?p_table=STANDARDS&amp;p_id=9631);</E>
                         recordkeeping forms and instructions 
                        <E T="03">(http://www.osha.gov/recordkeeping/RKform300pkg-fillable-enabled.pdf</E>
                        ); and OSHA Recordkeeping Handbook 
                        <E T="03">(http://www.osha.gov/recordkeeping/handbook/index.html</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Proposed Condition J would add additional reporting responsibilities, beyond those already required by the OSHA standard. The applicant would be required to maintain records of specific factors associated with each hyperbaric intervention. The information gathered and recorded under this provision, in concert with the information provided under proposed Condition K (using OSHA Form 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report to investigate and record hyperbaric recordable injuries as defined by 29 CFR 1904.4, 1904.7, 1904.8—1904.12), would enable the applicant and OSHA to assess the effectiveness of the permanent variance in preventing DCI and other hyperbaric-related effects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition K: Notifications</HD>
                <P>Under the proposed condition, the applicant is required, within specified periods of time, to notify OSHA of: (1) any recordable injury, illness, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, loss of an eye, or fatality that occurs as a result of hyperbaric exposures during TBM operations; (2) provide OSHA a copy of the hyperbaric exposures incident investigation report (using OSHA Form 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report) of these events within 24 hours of the incident; (3) include on OSHA Form 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report information on the hyperbaric conditions associated with the recordable injury or illness, the root-cause determination, and preventive and corrective actions identified and implemented; (4) provide the certification that affected workers were informed of the incident and the results of the incident investigation; (5) notify OSHA's Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities (OTPCA) and the Cleveland Ohio OSHA Area Office within 15 working days should the applicant need to revise the HOM to accommodate changes in its compressed-air operations that affect McNally/ASI Marine's ability to comply with the conditions of the proposed permanent variance; and (6) provide OTPCA and the Cleveland Ohio Area Office, at the end of the project, with a report evaluating the effectiveness of the decompression tables.</P>
                <P>It should be noted that the requirement for completing and submitting the hyperbaric exposure-related (recordable) incident investigation report (OSHA 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report) is more restrictive than the current recordkeeping requirement of completing OSHA Form 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report within 7 calendar days of the incident (1904.29(b)(3)). This modified, more stringent incident investigation and reporting requirement is restricted to intervention-related hyperbaric (recordable) incidents only. Providing rapid notification to OSHA is essential because time is a critical element in OSHA's ability to determine the continued effectiveness of the variance conditions in preventing hyperbaric incidents, and the applicant's identification and implementation of appropriate corrective and preventive actions.</P>
                <P>Further, these notification requirements also enable the applicant, its employees, and OSHA to assess the effectiveness of the permanent variance in providing the requisite level of safety to the applicant's workers and based on this assessment, whether to revise or revoke the conditions of the proposed permanent variance. Timely notification permits OSHA to take whatever action may be necessary and appropriate to prevent possible further injuries and illnesses. Providing notification to employees informs them of the precautions taken by the applicant to prevent similar incidents in the future.</P>
                <P>Additionally, this proposed condition requires the applicant to notify OSHA if it ceases to do business, has a new address or location for the main office, or transfers the operations covered by the proposed permanent variance to a successor company. In addition, the condition specifies that the transfer of the permanent variance to a successor company must be approved by OSHA. These requirements allow OSHA to communicate effectively with the applicant regarding the status of the proposed permanent variance and expedite the agency's administration and enforcement of the permanent variance. Stipulating that an applicant is required to have OSHA's approval to transfer a variance to a successor company provides assurance that the successor company has knowledge of, and will comply with, the conditions specified by proposed permanent variance, thereby ensuring the safety of workers involved in performing the operations covered by the proposed permanent variance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Specific Conditions of the Interim Order and the Proposed Permanent Variance</HD>
                <P>
                    The following conditions apply to the interim order OSHA is granting to McNally/ASI Marine for the SOTC Project. These conditions specify the alternative means of compliance with the requirements of paragraphs 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5), (f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii). In addition, these conditions are specific to the alternative means of compliance with the requirements of paragraphs 29 CFR 1926.803 (e)(5), (f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii) that OSHA is proposing for McNally/ASI Marine's permanent variance. To simplify the presentation of the conditions, OSHA generally refers only to the conditions of the proposed permanent variance, but the same conditions apply to the interim order except where otherwise noted.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         In these conditions, OSHA is using the future conditional form of the verb (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         “would”), which pertains to the application for a permanent variance (designated as “permanent variance”) but the conditions are mandatory for purposes of the interim order.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The conditions would apply with respect to all employees of McNally/ASI Marine exposed to hyperbaric conditions. These conditions are outlined in this Section:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Scope</HD>
                <P>
                    The interim order applies, and the permanent variance would apply only when McNally/ASI Marine stops the tunnel-boring work, pressurizes the working chamber, and the CAWs either 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34895"/>
                    enter the working chamber to perform an intervention (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     inspect, maintain, or repair the mechanical-excavation components), or exit the working chamber after performing interventions.
                </P>
                <P>The interim order and proposed variance apply only to work:</P>
                <P>1. That occurs in conjunction with construction of the SOTC Project, a tunnel constructed using advanced shielded mechanical-excavation techniques and involving operation of an TBM;</P>
                <P>2. In the TBM's forward section (the working chamber) and associated hyperbaric chambers used to pressurize and decompress employees entering and exiting the working chamber; and</P>
                <P>3. Performed in compliance with all applicable provisions of 29 CFR part 1926 except for the requirements specified by 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5), (f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Duration</HD>
                <P>The interim order granted to McNally/ASI Marine will remain in effect until McNally/ASI Marine completes the SOTC Project, OSHA modifies or revokes this interim order, or OSHA grants McNally/ASI's request for a permanent variance. The proposed permanent variance, if granted, would remain in effect until the completion of McNally/ASI's SOTC Project or until modified or revoked by OSHA pursuant to 29 CFR 1905.13(a)(2).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. List of Abbreviations</HD>
                <P>Abbreviations used throughout this proposed permanent variance would include the following:</P>
                <P>1. CAW—Compressed-air worker</P>
                <P>2. CFR—Code of Federal Regulations</P>
                <P>3. DCI—Decompression Illness</P>
                <P>4. DMT—Diver Medical Technician</P>
                <P>5. TBM—Tunnel Boring Machine</P>
                <P>6. HOM—Hyperbaric Operations Manual</P>
                <P>7. JHA—Job hazard analysis</P>
                <P>8. OSHA—Occupational Safety and Health Administration</P>
                <P>9. OTPCA—Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Definitions</HD>
                <P>The following definitions would apply to this proposed permanent variance. These definitions would supplement the definitions in McNally/ASI Marine's project-specific HOM.</P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Affected employee or worker</E>
                    —an employee or worker who is affected by the conditions of this proposed permanent variance, or any one of his or her authorized representatives. The term “employee” has the meaning defined and used under the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 651 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Atmospheric pressure</E>
                    —the pressure of air at sea level, generally 14.7 pounds per square inch absolute (p.s.i.a)., 1 atmosphere absolute, or 0 p.s.i.g.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Compressed-air worker</E>
                    —an individual who is specially trained and medically qualified to perform work in a pressurized environment while breathing air at pressures not exceeding 50 p.s.i.g.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Competent person</E>
                    —an individual who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions that are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         Adapted from 29 CFR 1926.32(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Decompression illness</E>
                    —an illness (also called decompression sickness or “the bends”) caused by gas bubbles appearing in body compartments due to a reduction in ambient pressure. Examples of symptoms of decompression illness include, but are not limited to: joint pain (also known as the “bends” for agonizing pain or the “niggles” for slight pain); areas of bone destruction (termed dysbaric osteonecrosis); skin disorders (such as cutis marmorata, which causes a pink marbling of the skin); spinal cord and brain disorders (such as stroke, paralysis, paresthesia, and bladder dysfunction); cardiopulmonary disorders, such as shortness of breath; and arterial gas embolism (gas bubbles in the arteries that block blood flow).
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         See Appendix 10 of “A Guide to the Work in Compressed-Air Regulations 1996,” published by the United Kingdom Health and Safety Executive available from NIOSH at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/docket/archive/pdfs/NIOSH-254/compReg1996.pdf</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Note:</E>
                     Health effects associated with hyperbaric intervention, but not considered symptoms of DCI, can include: barotrauma (direct damage to air-containing cavities in the body such as ears, sinuses, and lungs); nitrogen narcosis (reversible alteration in consciousness that may occur in hyperbaric environments and is caused by the anesthetic effect of certain gases at high pressure); and oxygen toxicity (a central nervous system condition resulting from the harmful effects of breathing molecular oxygen (O
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    ) at elevated partial pressures).
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Diver Medical Technician—</E>
                    Member of the dive team who is experienced in first aid.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">Earth Pressure Balanced Micro Tunnel Boring Machine</E>
                    —the machinery used to excavate a tunnel.
                </P>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">Hot work</E>
                    —any activity performed in a hazardous location that may introduce an ignition source into a potentially flammable atmosphere.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         Also see 29 CFR 1926.1202 for examples of hot work.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    9. 
                    <E T="03">Hyperbaric</E>
                    —at a higher pressure than atmospheric pressure.
                </P>
                <P>
                    10. 
                    <E T="03">Hyperbaric intervention</E>
                    —a term that describes the process of stopping the TBM and preparing and executing work under hyperbaric pressure in the working chamber for the purpose of inspecting, replacing, or repairing cutting tools and/or the cutterhead structure.
                </P>
                <P>
                    11. 
                    <E T="03">Hyperbaric Operations Manual</E>
                    —a detailed, project-specific health and safety plan developed and implemented by McNally/ASI Marine for working in compressed air during the SOTC Project.
                </P>
                <P>
                    12. 
                    <E T="03">Job hazard analysis</E>
                    —an evaluation of tasks or operations to identify potential hazards and to determine the necessary controls.
                </P>
                <P>
                    13. 
                    <E T="03">Man-lock</E>
                    —an enclosed space capable of pressurization and used for compressing or decompressing any employee or material when either is passing into, or out of, a working chamber.
                </P>
                <P>
                    14. 
                    <E T="03">Medical Advisor</E>
                    —medical professional experienced in the physical requirements of compressed air work and the treatment of decompression illness.
                </P>
                <P>
                    15. 
                    <E T="03">Pressure</E>
                    —a force acting on a unit area. Usually expressed as pounds per square inch (p.s.i.).
                </P>
                <P>
                    16. 
                    <E T="03">p.s.i.a.</E>
                    —pounds per square inch absolute, or absolute pressure, is the sum of the atmospheric pressure and gauge pressure. At sea level, atmospheric pressure is approximately 14.7 p.s.i.a. Adding 14.7 to a pressure expressed in units of p.s.i.g. will yield the absolute pressure, expressed as p.s.i.a.
                </P>
                <P>
                    17. 
                    <E T="03">p.s.i.g.</E>
                    —pounds per square inch gauge, a common unit of pressure; pressure expressed as p.s.i.g. corresponds to pressure relative to atmospheric pressure. At sea level, atmospheric pressure is approximately 14.7 p.s.i.a Subtracting 14.7 from a pressure expressed in units of p.s.i.a. yields the gauge pressure, expressed as p.s.i.g. At sea level, the gauge pressure is 0 psig.
                </P>
                <P>
                    18. 
                    <E T="03">Qualified person</E>
                    —an individual who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate, or professional standing, or who, by extensive knowledge, training, and experience, successfully demonstrates an ability to solve or resolve problems relating to the subject matter, the work, or the project.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         Adapted from 29 CFR 1926.32(m).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="34896"/>
                <P>
                    19. 
                    <E T="03">Working chamber</E>
                    —an enclosed space in the TBM in which CAWs perform interventions, and which is accessible only through a man-lock.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Safety and Health Practices</HD>
                <P>1. McNally/ASI Marine would have to adhere to the project-specific HOM submitted to OSHA as part of the application (see OSHA-2025-0004-0003). The HOM provides the minimum requirements regarding expected safety and health hazards (including anticipated geological conditions) and hyperbaric exposures during the tunnel-construction project.</P>
                <P>
                    2. McNally/ASI Marine would have to demonstrate that the TBM on the project is designed, fabricated, inspected, tested, marked, and stamped in accordance with the requirements of ASME PVHO-1.2019 (or most recent edition of 
                    <E T="03">Safety Standards for Pressure Vessels for Human Occupancy</E>
                    ) for the TBM's hyperbaric chambers.
                </P>
                <P>3. McNally/ASI Marine would have to implement the safety and health instructions included in the manufacturer's operations manuals for the TBM, and the safety and health instructions provided by the manufacturer for the operation of decompression equipment.</P>
                <P>4. McNally/ASI Marine would have to ensure that there are no exposures to pressures greater than 58 p.s.i.g.</P>
                <P>5. McNally/ASI Marine would have to ensure that air or oxygen is the only breathing gas in the working chamber.</P>
                <P>6. McNally/ASI Marine would have to follow the 1992 French Decompression Tables for air or oxygen decompression as specified in the HOM; specifically, the extracted portions of the 1992 French Decompression tables titled, “French Regulation Air Standard Tables.”</P>
                <P>7. McNally/ASI Marine would have to equip man-locks used by employees with an air or oxygen delivery system, as specified by the HOM, for the project. McNally/ASI Marine would be required not to store in the tunnel any oxygen or other compressed gases used in conjunction with hyperbaric work.</P>
                <P>8. Workers performing hot work under hyperbaric conditions would have to use flame-retardant personal protective equipment and clothing.</P>
                <P>9. In hyperbaric work areas, McNally/ASI Marine would have to maintain an adequate fire-suppression system approved for hyperbaric work areas.</P>
                <P>
                    10. McNally/ASI Marine would have to develop and implement one or more Job Hazard Analysis (JHA) for work in the hyperbaric work areas, and review, periodically and as necessary (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     after making changes to a planned intervention that affects its operation), the contents of the JHAs with affected employees. The JHAs would have to include all the job functions that the risk assessment 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     indicates are essential to prevent injury or illness.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         See ANSI/AIHA Z10-2012, American National Standard for Occupational Health and Safety Management Systems, for reference.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>11. McNally/ASI Marine would have to develop a set of checklists to guide compressed-air work and ensure that employees follow the procedures required by the proposed permanent variance and this interim order (including all procedures required by the HOM approved by OSHA for the project, which this proposed variance would incorporate by reference). The checklists would have to include all steps and equipment functions that the risk assessment indicates are essential to prevent injury or illness during compressed-air work.</P>
                <P>12. McNally/ASI Marine would have to ensure that the safety and health provisions of this project-specific HOM adequately protect the workers of all contractors and subcontractors involved in hyperbaric operations for the project to which the HOM applies.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Communication</HD>
                <P>McNally/ASI Marine would have to:</P>
                <P>1. Prior to beginning a shift, implement a system that informs workers exposed to hyperbaric conditions of any hazardous occurrences or conditions that might affect their safety, including hyperbaric incidents, gas releases, equipment failures, earth or rock-slides, cave-ins, flooding, fires, or explosions.</P>
                <P>2. Provide a power-assisted means of communication among affected workers and support personnel in hyperbaric conditions where unassisted voice communication is inadequate.</P>
                <P>(a) Use an independent power supply for powered communication systems, and these systems would have to operate such that use or disruption of any one phone or signal location will not disrupt the operation of the system from any other location.</P>
                <P>(b) Test communication systems at the start of each shift and as necessary thereafter to ensure proper operation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Worker Qualifications and Training</HD>
                <P>McNally/ASI Marine would have to:</P>
                <P>1. Ensure that each affected worker receives effective training on how to safely enter, work in, exit from, and undertake emergency evacuation or rescue from, hyperbaric conditions, and document this training.</P>
                <P>2. Provide effective instruction on hyperbaric conditions, before beginning hyperbaric operations, to each worker who performs work, or controls the exposure of others, and document this instruction. The instruction would need to include:</P>
                <P>(a) The physics and physiology of hyperbaric work;</P>
                <P>(b) Recognition of pressure-related injuries;</P>
                <P>
                    (c) Information on the causes and recognition of the signs and symptoms associated with decompression illness, and other hyperbaric intervention-related health effects (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     barotrauma, nitrogen narcosis, and oxygen toxicity);
                </P>
                <P>(d) How to avoid discomfort during compression and decompression;</P>
                <P>(e) Information the workers can use to contact the appropriate healthcare professionals should the workers have concerns that they may be experiencing adverse health effects from hyperbaric exposure; and</P>
                <P>(f) Procedures and requirements applicable to the employee in the project-specific HOM.</P>
                <P>
                    3. Repeat the instruction specified in paragraph (G)(2)(b) of this proposed condition periodically and as necessary (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     after making changes to its hyperbaric operations).
                </P>
                <P>4. When conducting training for its hyperbaric workers, make this training available to OSHA personnel and notify the OTPCA at OSHA's National Office and OSHA's Cleveland Ohio Area Office before the training takes place.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Inspections, Tests, and Accident Prevention</HD>
                <P>1. McNally/ASI Marine would have to initiate and maintain a program of frequent and regular inspections of the TBM's hyperbaric equipment and support systems (such as temperature control, illumination, ventilation, and fire-prevention and fire-suppression systems), and hyperbaric work areas, as required under 29 CFR 1926.20(b)(2), including:</P>
                <P>(a) Developing a set of checklists to be used by a competent person in conducting weekly inspections of hyperbaric equipment and work areas; and</P>
                <P>(b) Ensuring that a competent person conducts daily visual checks and weekly inspections of the TBM.</P>
                <P>2. Remove from service any equipment that constitutes a safety hazard until it corrects the hazardous condition and has the correction approved by a qualified person.</P>
                <P>
                    3. McNally/ASI Marine would have to maintain records of all tests and inspections of the TBM, as well as associated corrective actions and repairs, at the job site for the duration of the job.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34897"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Compression and Decompression</HD>
                <P>McNally/ASI Marine would have to consult with its attending physician concerning the need for special compression or decompression exposures appropriate for CAWs not acclimated to hyperbaric exposure.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. Recordkeeping</HD>
                <P>In addition to completing OSHA Form 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report and OSHA Form 300 Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses, McNally/ASI Marine would have to maintain records of:</P>
                <P>
                    1. The date, times (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     time compression started, time spent compressing, time performing intervention, time spent decompressing), and pressure for each hyperbaric intervention.
                </P>
                <P>2. The names of all supervisors and DMTs involved for each intervention.</P>
                <P>3. The name of each individual worker exposed to hyperbaric pressure and the decompression protocols and results for each worker.</P>
                <P>4. The total number of interventions and the amount of hyperbaric work time at each pressure.</P>
                <P>5. The results of the post-intervention physical assessment of each CAW for signs and symptoms of decompression illness, barotrauma, nitrogen narcosis, oxygen toxicity or other health effects associated with work in compressed air for each hyperbaric intervention.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">K. Notifications</HD>
                <P>1. To assist OSHA in administering the conditions specified herein, McNally/ASI Marine would have to:</P>
                <P>
                    (a) Notify the OTPCA and the Cleveland, Ohio Area Office at 
                    <E T="03">www.osha.gov/contactus/byoffice</E>
                     of any recordable injury, illness, or fatality (by submitting the completed OSHA Form 301 Injuries and Illness Incident Report) resulting from exposure of an employee to hyperbaric conditions, including those that do not require recompression treatment (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     nitrogen narcosis, oxygen toxicity, barotrauma), but still meet the recordable injury or illness criteria of 29 CFR 1904. The notification would have to be made within 8 hours of the incident or 8 hours after becoming aware of a recordable injury, illness, or fatality; a copy of the incident investigation (OSHA Form 301 Injuries and Illness Incident Report) must be submitted to OSHA within 24 hours of the incident or 24 hours after becoming aware of a recordable injury, illness, or fatality. In addition to the information required by OSHA Form 301 Injuries and Illness Incident Report, the incident-investigation report would have to include a root-cause determination, and the preventive and corrective actions identified and implemented.
                </P>
                <P>(b) Provide certification to the Cleveland Ohio Area Office within 15 working days of the incident that McNally/ASI Marine informed affected workers of the incident and the results of the incident investigation (including the root-cause determination and preventive and corrective actions identified and implemented).</P>
                <P>(c) Notify the OTPCA and the Cleveland Ohio Area Office within 15 working days and in writing, of any change in the compressed-air operations that affects McNally/ASI Marine's ability to comply with the proposed conditions specified herein.</P>
                <P>(d) Upon completion of the SOTC Project, evaluate the effectiveness of the decompression tables used throughout the project, and provide a written report of this evaluation to the OTPCA and the Cleveland Ohio Area Office.</P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P> The evaluation report would have to contain summaries of: (1) The number, dates, durations, and pressures of the hyperbaric interventions completed; (2) decompression protocols implemented (including composition of gas mixtures (air and/or oxygen), and the results achieved; (3) the total number of interventions and the number of hyperbaric incidents (decompression illnesses and/or health effects associated with hyperbaric interventions as recorded on OSHA Form 301 Injuries and Illness Incident Report and OSHA Form 300 Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses, and relevant medical diagnoses, and treating physicians' opinions); and (4) root causes of any hyperbaric incidents, and preventive and corrective actions identified and implemented.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>(e) To assist OSHA in administering the proposed conditions specified herein, inform the OTPCA and the Cleveland Ohio Area Office as soon as possible, but no later than seven (7) days, after it has knowledge that it will:</P>
                <P>(i) Cease doing business;</P>
                <P>(ii) Change the location and address of the main office for managing the tunneling operations specified herein; or</P>
                <P>(iii) Transfer the operations specified herein to a successor company.</P>
                <P>(f) Notify all affected employees of this proposed permanent variance by the same means required to inform them of its application for a variance.</P>
                <P>2. OSHA would have to approve the transfer of the proposed permanent variance to a successor company through a new application for a permanent variance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Authority and Signature</HD>
                <P>Amanda Laihow, Acting Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210, authorized the preparation of this notice. Accordingly, the agency is issuing this notice pursuant to 29 U.S.C. 655(d), Secretary of Labor's Order No. 7-2025 (90 FR 27878, June 30, 2025), and 29 CFR 1905.11.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed at Washington, DC, on July 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Amanda Laihow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13889 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. OSHA-2025-0005]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Japan Electrical Safety &amp; Environment Technology Laboratories: Grant of Recognition</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In this notice, OSHA announces the final decision to grant recognition to Japan Electrical Safety &amp; Environment Technology Laboratories (JET), for recognition as a Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratory (NRTL).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Recognition as a NRTL becomes effective on July 24, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Information regarding this notice is available from the following sources:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Press inquiries:</E>
                         Contact Mr. Frank Meilinger, Director, OSHA Office of Communications, U.S. Department of Labor, telephone: (202) 693-1999; email: 
                        <E T="03">meilinger.francis2@dol.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">General and technical information:</E>
                         Contact Mr. Kevin Robinson, Director, Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities, Directorate of Technical Support and Emergency Management, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, phone: (202) 693-1911 or email: 
                        <E T="03">robinson.kevin@dol.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Many of OSHA's workplace standards require that a NRTL test and certify certain types of equipment as safe for use in the workplace. NRTLs are independent laboratories that meet OSHA's requirements for performing safety testing and certification of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34898"/>
                    products used in the workplace. To obtain and retain OSHA recognition, the NRTLs must meet the requirements in the NRTL Program regulations at 29 CFR 1910.7. More specifically, to be recognized by OSHA, an organization must: (1) have the appropriate capability to test, evaluate, and approve products to assure their safe use in the workplace; (2) be completely independent of employers subject to the tested equipment requirements, and manufacturers and vendors of products for which OSHA requires certification; (3) have internal programs that ensure proper control of the testing and certification process; and (4) have effective reporting and complaint handling procedures. Recognition is an acknowledgement by OSHA that the NRTL has the capabilities to perform independent safety testing and certification of the specific products covered within the NRTL's scope of recognition and is not a delegation or grant of government authority. Recognition of a NRTL by OSHA also allows employers to use products certified by that NRTL to meet those OSHA standards that require product testing and certification.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The agency processes applications for initial recognition following requirements in Appendix A of 29 CFR 1910.7. This appendix requires OSHA to publish two notices in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     in processing an application. In the first notice, OSHA announces the application, provides its preliminary findings, and solicits comments on its preliminary findings. In the second notice, the agency provides its final decision on the application and sets forth the NRTL's scope of recognition.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Notice of Final Decision</HD>
                <P>
                    OSHA hereby gives notice of the agency's decision to grant recognition to Japan Electrical Safety &amp; Environment Technology Laboratories (JET) as a NRTL. According to public information (see 
                    <E T="03">https://www.jet.or.jp/en/company/history.html</E>
                    ) JET states that it is an internationally accredited testing laboratory. In its application, JET lists the current address of its headquarters as: Japan Electrical Safety &amp; Environment Technology Laboratories, 5-14-12, Yoyogi, Shibuya-ku, Tokyo Japan. OSHA has determined that JET has the capability to perform as a NRTL as outlined in 29 CFR 1910.7.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Each NRTL's scope of recognition has two elements: (1) the type(s) of products the NRTL may test, with each type specified by its applicable test standard; and (2) the recognized site(s) that have the technical capability to perform the product-testing and product-certification activities for the applicable test standards within the NRTL's scope of recognition. JET applied on August 7, 2018, for three recognized sites and one recognized test standard (OSHA-2025-0005-0002). This application was amended on March 3, 2025, to remove one of the three sites requested in the original application (OSHA-2025-0005-0003). OSHA published the preliminary notice announcing JET's application for recognition in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on April 25, 2025 (90 FR 17462). The agency requested comments by May 27, 2025, but it received no comments in response to this notice. OSHA is now proceeding with this final notice to grant recognition to JET as a NRTL.
                </P>
                <P>
                    To obtain or review copies of all public documents pertaining to JET's application, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or contact the Docket Office at (202) 693-2350 (TTY (877) 889-5627). Docket No. OSHA-2025-0005 contains all materials in the record concerning JET's recognition.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Final Decision and Order</HD>
                <P>OSHA staff performed a detailed analysis of JET's application packet and reviewed other pertinent information. OSHA staff also performed a comprehensive on-site assessment of JET's testing facilities, at JET Tokyo and Fukushima, Japan on May 13-15, 2024. Based on the review of this evidence, OSHA finds that JET meets the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.7 for recognition as a NRTL, subject to the limitations and conditions listed below. OSHA, therefore, is proceeding with this final notice to grant recognition to JET as a NRTL. The following sections set forth the scope of recognition included in JET's grant of recognition.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Standard Approved for Recognition</HD>
                <P>OSHA limits JET's scope of recognition to testing and certification of products for demonstration of conformance to the test standard listed in Table 1 below.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="02" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r100">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Appropriate Test Standard for Inclusion in JET's NRTL Scope of Recognition</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Test standard</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Test standard title</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">UL 1741</ENT>
                        <ENT>Inverters, Converters, and Controllers for Use in Independent Power Systems</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        * OSHA notes that the title to this standard in the table is taken from OSHA's List of Appropriate Test Standards (see 
                        <E T="03">https://www.osha.gov/nationally-recognized-testing-laboratory-program/list-standards</E>
                        ). This title is not the same as the title currently used by the Standards Developing Organization that issued the test standard. OSHA intends to update the List of Appropriate Test Standards to reflect the currently used title in the near future.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Sites Approved for Recognition</HD>
                <P>OSHA limits JET's scope of recognition to include two sites:</P>
                <P>(1) Japan Electrical Safety &amp; Technology Laboratories, 5-14-12, Yoyogi, Shibuya-ku, Tokyo, Japan; and</P>
                <P>(2) Japan Electrical Safety &amp; Technology Laboratories, 2-2-9, Machiikedai, Koriyama-city, Fukushima-prefecture, Japan.</P>
                <P>OSHA's recognition of these sites limits JET to performing product testing and certifications only for the test standard in JET's scope of recognition.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Conditions</HD>
                <P>In addition to those conditions already required by 29 CFR 1910.7, JET also must abide by the following conditions of the recognition:</P>
                <P>1. JET must inform OSHA as soon as possible, in writing, of any change of ownership, facilities, or key personnel, and of any major change in the operations as a NRTL, and provide details of the change(s);</P>
                <P>2. JET must meet all the terms of the recognition and comply with all OSHA policies pertaining to this recognition; and</P>
                <P>3. JET must continue to meet the requirements for recognition, including all previously published conditions on JET's scope of recognition, in all areas for which it has recognition.</P>
                <P>Pursuant to the authority in 29 CFR 1910.7, OSHA hereby grants recognition to JET as a NRTL, subject to these limitations and conditions specified above.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Authority and Signature</HD>
                <P>
                    Amanda Laihow, Acting Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, authorized the preparation of this notice. Accordingly, the agency is issuing this notice pursuant to 29 U.S.C. 657(g)(2), Secretary of Labor's Order No. 7-2025 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34899"/>
                    (90 FR 27878, June 30, 2025) and 29 CFR 1910.7.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed at Washington, DC, on July 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Amanda Laihow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13887 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. OSHA-2009-0025]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>UL LLC: Grant of Expansion of Recognition and Modification to the NRTL Program's List of Appropriate Test Standards</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In this notice, OSHA announces the final decision to expand the scope of recognition for UL LLC, as a Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratory (NRTL). Additionally, OSHA will add one standard to the NRTL Program's List of Appropriate Test Standards.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The expansion of the scope of recognition becomes effective on July 24, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Information regarding this notice is available from the following sources:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Press inquiries:</E>
                         Contact Mr. Frank Meilinger, Director, OSHA Office of Communications, U.S. Department of Labor, telephone: (202) 693-1999; email: 
                        <E T="03">meilinger.francis2@dol.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">General and technical information:</E>
                         Contact Mr. Kevin Robinson, Director, Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities, Directorate of Technical Support and Emergency Management, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, phone: (202) 693-1911 or email: 
                        <E T="03">robinson.kevin@dol.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Notice of the Final Decision</HD>
                <P>OSHA hereby gives notice of the expansion of the scope of recognition of UL LLC (UL) as a NRTL. UL's expansion covers the addition of one test site and two test standards to the NRTL scope of recognition.</P>
                <P>OSHA recognition of a NRTL signifies that the organization meets the requirements specified in 29 CFR 1910.7. Recognition is an acknowledgment that the organization can perform independent safety testing and certification of the specific products covered within the scope of recognition. Each NRTL's scope of recognition includes (1) the type of products the NRTL may test, with each type specified by the applicable test standard and (2) the recognized site(s) that has/have the technical capability to perform the product-testing and product-certification activities for test standards within the NRTL's scope. Recognition is not a delegation or grant of government authority; however, recognition enables employers to use products approved by the NRTL to meet OSHA standards that require product testing and certification.</P>
                <P>
                    The agency processes applications by a NRTL for initial recognition, as well as for an expansion or renewal of recognition, following requirements in Appendix A to 29 CFR 1910.7. This appendix requires that the agency publish two notices in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     in processing an application. In the first notice, OSHA announces the application and provides the preliminary finding. In the second notice, the agency provides the final decision on the application. These notices set forth the NRTL's scope of recognition or modifications of that scope. OSHA maintains an informational web page for each NRTL, including UL, which details that NRTL's scope of recognition. These pages are available from the OSHA website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.osha.gov/dts/otpca/nrtl/index.html</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>UL submitted three applications for expansion of the NRTL scope of recognition. The first application, dated November 29, 2022 (OSHA-2009-0025-0069), requested expanded recognition as a NRTL to include one additional test site located at: Phu Thai Vietnam, Lot DH, Lai Vu Industrial Park. UL submitted a second application, dated March 19, 2024 (OSHA-2009-0025-0070), requesting the addition of one test standard to the NRTL scope of recognition. A third application was submitted on November 15, 2024 (OSHA-2009-0025-0071), requesting the addition of one test standard to the NRTL scope of recognition. In total, the expansion applications requested the addition of one test site and two test standards to the NRTL scope of recognition.</P>
                <P>OSHA staff performed an on-site review of UL's testing facility in UL Vietnam on August 4-6, 2024, in which assessors found some nonconformances with the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.7. UL addressed these issues sufficiently, and OTPCA preliminarily determined that OSHA should grant the application requests to add this one test site and these two test standards to UL's NRTL scope of recognition.</P>
                <P>
                    OSHA published the preliminary notice announcing UL's expansion applications in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on April 25, 2025 (90 FR 17467). The agency requested comments by May 12, 2025, however no comments were received in response to this notice. OSHA is now proceeding with this notice to grant expansion of UL's scope of recognition.
                </P>
                <P>
                    To obtain or review copies of all public documents pertaining to the UL expansion applications, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or contact the Docket Office (202) 693-2350 (TTY (877) 889-5627). Docket No. OSHA-2009-0025 contains all materials in the record containing UL's NRTL recognition.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Final Decision and Order</HD>
                <P>
                    OSHA staff examined UL's expansion applications, conducted a detailed on-site assessment, and examined other pertinent information. Based on review of this evidence, OSHA finds that UL meets the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.7 for expansion of recognition, subject to the specified limitations and conditions. OSHA, therefore, is proceeding with this final notice to grant UL's scope of recognition. OSHA limits the expansion of UL's recognition to include the site located at: Phu Thai Vietnam, Lot DH, Lai Vu Industrial Park and two additional testing standards. OSHA's recognition of the site limits UL to performing product testing and certifications only to the test standards for which the site has the proper capability and programs, and for test standards in UL's scope of recognition. This limitation is consistent with the recognition that OSHA grants to other NRTLs that operate multiple sites. Additionally, OSHA grants UL expansion of the NRTL scope of recognition to include the additional test standards listed below in Table 1 below:
                    <PRTPAGE P="34900"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r200">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Appropriate Test Standards for Inclusion in UL's NRTL Scope of Recognition</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Test standard</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Test standard title</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">UL 60335-2-29</ENT>
                        <ENT>Household and Similar Electrical Appliances—Safety—Part 2-29: Particular Requirements for Battery Chargers.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">UL 2056 *</ENT>
                        <ENT>Power Banks.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* Represents standard that OSHA is adding to the NRTL Program's List of Appropriate Test Standards.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>OSHA's recognition of any NRTL for a particular test standard is limited to equipment or materials for which OSHA standards require third-party testing and certification before using them in the workplace. Consequently, if a test standard also covers any products for which OSHA does not require such testing and certification, a NRTL's scope of recognition does not include these products.</P>
                <P>In this notice, OSHA also announces the final decision to add one new test standard to the NRTL Program's List of Appropriate Test Standards. Table 2 below lists the standard that is new to the NRTL Program. OSHA has determined that this test standard is an appropriate test standard and will add it to the NRTL Program's List of Appropriate Test Standards.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r100">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Standard OSHA Is Adding to the NRTL Program's List of Appropriate Test Standards</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Test standard </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Test standard title</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">UL 2056</ENT>
                        <ENT>Power Banks.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The American National Standards Institute (ANSI) may approve the test standard listed above as an American National Standard. However, for convenience, we may use the designation of the standards-developing organization for the standard as opposed to the ANSI designation. Under the NRTL Program's policy (see OSHA Instruction CPL 01-00-004, Chapter 2, Section VIII), any NRTL recognized for a particular test standard may use either the proprietary version of the test standard or the ANSI version of that standard. Contact ANSI to determine whether a test standard is currently ANSI-approved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Conditions</HD>
                <P>In addition to those conditions already required by 29 CFR 1910.7, UL must abide by the following conditions of the recognition:</P>
                <P>1. UL must inform OSHA as soon as possible, in writing, of any change of ownership, facilities, or key personnel, and of any major change in its operations as a NRTL, and provide details of the change(s);</P>
                <P>2. UL must meet all the terms of its recognition and comply with all OSHA policies pertaining to this recognition; and</P>
                <P>3. UL must continue to meet the requirements for recognition, including all previously published conditions on UL's scope of recognition, in all areas for which it has recognition.</P>
                <P>Pursuant to the authority in 29 CFR 1910.7, OSHA hereby expands the scope of recognition of UL as a NRTL, subject to the limitations and conditions specified above. Additionally, OSHA will add one standard to the NRTL Program's List of Appropriate Test Standards.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Authority and Signature</HD>
                <P>Amanda Laihow, Acting Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210, authorized the preparation of this notice. Accordingly, the agency is issuing this notice pursuant to 29 U.S.C. 657(g)(2), Secretary of Labor's Order No. 7-2027 (90 FR 27878; June 30, 2025), and 29 CFR 1910.7.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed at Washington, DC, on July 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Amanda Laihow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13888 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. OSHA-2006-0048]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>NSF International: Application for Expansion of Recognition</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In this notice, OSHA announces the application of NSF International for expansion of the scope of recognition as a Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratory (NRTL) and presents the agency's preliminary finding to grant the application.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments, information, and documents in response to this notice, or requests for an extension of time to make a submission, on or before August 8, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments may be submitted as follows:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronically:</E>
                         You may submit comments, including attachments, electronically at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions must include the agency's name and the docket number for this rulemaking (Docket No. OSHA-2006-0048). All comments, including any personal information you provide, are placed in the public docket without change and may be made available online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        . Therefore, OSHA cautions commenters about submitting information they do not want made available to the public, or submitting materials that contain personal information (either about themselves or others), such as Social Security numbers and birthdates.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         To read or download comments or other material in the docket, go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        . Documents in the docket (including this 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice) are listed in the 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         index; however, some information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download through the website. All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection through the OSHA Docket Office. Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350 (TTY (877) 889-5627) for assistance in locating docket submissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Extension of comment period:</E>
                         Submit requests for an extension of the comment period on or before August 8, 2025 to the Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities, Directorate of Technical Support and Emergency Management, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room N-3653, Washington, DC 20210, or by fax to (202) 693-1644.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Information regarding this notice is available from the following sources:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Press inquiries:</E>
                         Contact Mr. Frank Meilinger, Director, OSHA Office of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34901"/>
                        Communications, phone: (202) 693-1999 or email: 
                        <E T="03">meilinger.francis2@dol.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">General and technical information:</E>
                         Contact Mr. Kevin Robinson, Director, Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities, Directorate of Technical Support and Emergency Management, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, phone: (202) 693-1911 or email: 
                        <E T="03">robinson.kevin@dol.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Notice of the Application for Expansion</HD>
                <P>OSHA is providing notice that NSF International (NSF), is applying for expansion of the current recognition as a NRTL. NSF requests the addition of four test standards to the NRTL scope of recognition.</P>
                <P>OSHA's recognition of a NRTL signifies that the organization meets the requirements specified in 29 CFR 1910.7. Recognition is an acknowledgment that the organization can perform independent safety testing and certification of the specific products covered within the scope of recognition. Each NRTL's scope of recognition includes: (1) the type of products the NRTL may test, with each type specified by the applicable test standard; and (2) the recognized site(s) that has/have the technical capability to perform the product-testing and product-certification activities for test standards within the NRTL's scope. Recognition is not a delegation or grant of government authority; however, recognition enables employers to use products approved by the NRTL to meet OSHA standards that require product testing and certification.</P>
                <P>
                    The agency processes applications by a NRTL for initial recognition and for an expansion or renewal of this recognition, following requirements in Appendix A to 29 CFR 1910.7. This appendix requires that the agency publish two notices in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     in processing an application. In the first notice, OSHA announces the application and provides a preliminary finding. In the second notice, the agency provides a final decision on the application. These notices set forth the NRTL's scope of recognition or modifications of that scope. OSHA maintains an informational web page for each NRTL, including NSF, which details the NRTL's scope of recognition. These pages are available from the OSHA website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.osha.gov/dts/otpca/nrtl/index.html</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. General Background on the Application</HD>
                <P>NSF submitted an application to OSHA for expansion of the NRTL scope of recognition on April 11, 2023 (OSHA-2006-0048-0019), requesting the addition of four standards to the NRTL scope of recognition. OSHA staff performed a detailed analysis of the application packet and reviewed other pertinent information. OSHA did not perform an on-site review in response to this application. OSHA staff has preliminarily determined that OSHA should grant the application for test standard expansion.</P>
                <P>Table 1, below, lists the appropriate test standards found in NSF's application for expansion for testing and certification of products under the NRTL Program.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r200">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Proposed Appropriate Test Standards for Inclusion in NSF's NRTL Scope of Recognition</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Test standard</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Test standard title</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">UL 60335-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Safety of Household and Similar Electrical Appliances, Part 1: General Requirements.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">UL 60335-2-24</ENT>
                        <ENT>Safety Requirements for Household and Similar Electrical Appliances, Part 2: Refrigerating Appliances, Ice-Cream Appliances, and Ice-Makers.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">UL 60335-2-89</ENT>
                        <ENT>Household and Similar Electrical Appliances-Safety-Part 2-89: Particular Requirements for Commercial Refrigerating Appliances with an Incorporated or Remote Refrigerant Unit or Compressor.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">UL 61010-2-030</ENT>
                        <ENT>Safety Requirements for Electrical Equipment for Measurement, Control, and Laboratory Use—Part 2-030: Particular Requirements for Testing and Measuring Circuits.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Preliminary Findings on the Application</HD>
                <P>NSF submitted an acceptable application for expansion of the scope of recognition. OSHA's review of the application files and pertinent documentation indicates that NSF has met the requirements prescribed by 29 CFR 1910.7 for expanding the recognition to include the addition of the four test standards for NRTL testing and certification listed in Table 1. This preliminary finding does not constitute an interim or temporary approval of NSF's application.</P>
                <P>OSHA seeks comment on this preliminary determination.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Public Participation</HD>
                <P>OSHA welcomes public comment as to whether NSF meets the requirements of 29 CFR 1910.7 for expansion of recognition as a NRTL. Comments should consist of pertinent written documents and exhibits.</P>
                <P>Commenters needing more time to comment must submit a request in writing, stating the reasons for the request by the due date for comments. OSHA will limit any extension to 10 days unless the requester justifies a longer time period. OSHA may deny a request for an extension if it is not adequately justified.</P>
                <P>
                    To review copies of the exhibits identified in this notice, as well as comments submitted to the docket, contact the Docket Office, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor. These materials also are generally available online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. OSHA-2006-0048 (for further information, see the “Docket” heading in the section of this notice titled 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>OSHA staff will review all comments to the docket submitted in a timely manner. After addressing the issues raised by these comments, staff will make a recommendation to the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health on whether to grant NSF's application for expansion of the scope of recognition. The Assistant Secretary will make the final decision on granting the application. In making this decision, the Assistant Secretary may undertake other proceedings prescribed in Appendix A to 29 CFR 1910.7.</P>
                <P>
                    OSHA will publish a public notice of the final decision in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Authority and Signature</HD>
                <P>Amanda Laihow, Acting Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210, authorized the preparation of this notice. Accordingly, the agency is issuing this notice pursuant to 29 U.S.C. 657(g)(2), Secretary of Labor's Order No. 7-2025 (90 FR 27878; June 30, 2025), and 29 CFR 1910.7.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="34902"/>
                    <DATED>Signed at Washington, DC, on July 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Amanda Laihow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13884 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. OSHA-2025-0002]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>CBNA/Halmar Joint Venture; Application for Permanent Variance and Interim Order; Grant of Interim Order; Request for Comments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In this notice, OSHA announces the application of CBNA/Halmar Joint Venture (CBNA) for a permanent variance and interim order from provisions of the OSHA standard that regulates work in compressed-air environments, presents the agency's preliminary finding on CBNA's application, and announces the grant of an interim order. OSHA invites the public to submit comments on the variance application to assist the agency in determining whether to grant the applicant a permanent variance based on the conditions specified in this application.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments, information, documents in response to this notice, and request for a hearing on or before August 25, 2025. The interim order described in this notice will become effective on July 24, 2025, and shall remain in effect until the completion of the Potomac River Tunnel Project in Washington, DC, the interim order is modified or revoked, or OSHA publishes a decision on the permanent variance application.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronically:</E>
                         You may submit comments, including attachments, electronically at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Follow the instructions online for making electronic submissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions must include the agency's name and the docket number for this rulemaking (Docket No. OSHA-2025-0002). All comments, including any personal information you provide, are placed in the public docket without change and may be made available online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        . Therefore, OSHA cautions commenters about submitting information they do not want made available to the public or submitting materials that contain personal information (either about themselves or others), such as Social Security numbers and birthdates.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         To read or download comments or other material in the docket, go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        . Documents in the docket (including this 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice) are listed in the 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         index; however, some information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download through the website. All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection through the OSHA Docket Office. Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350 (TTY (877) 889-5627) for assistance in locating docket submissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Extension of comment period:</E>
                         Submit requests for an extension of the comment period on or before August 25, 2025 to the Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities, Directorate of Technical Support and Emergency Management, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room N-3653, Washington, DC 20210, or by fax to (202) 693-1644.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Information regarding this notice is available from the following sources:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Press inquiries:</E>
                         Contact Mr. Frank Meilinger, Director, OSHA Office of Communications, U.S. Department of Labor; telephone: (202) 693-1999; email: 
                        <E T="03">meilinger.francis2@dol.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">General and technical information:</E>
                         Contact Mr. Kevin Robinson, Director, Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities, Directorate of Technical Support and Emergency Management, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor; telephone: (202) 693-1911; email: 
                        <E T="03">robinson.kevin@dol.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Copies of this</E>
                          
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">notice.</E>
                         Electronic copies of this 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice are available at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        . This 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice, as well as news releases and other relevant information, also are available at OSHA's web page at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.osha.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Hearing Requests.</E>
                         According to 29 CFR 1905.15, hearing requests must include: (1) a concise statement of facts detailing how the permanent variance would affect the requesting party; (2) a specification of any statement or representation in the variance application that the commenter denies, and a concise summary of the evidence offered in support of each denial; and (3) any views or arguments on any issue of fact or law presented in the variance application.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Notice of Application</HD>
                <P>On April 1, 2024, CBNA/Halmar Joint Venture (CBNA or the applicant), submitted under Section 6(d) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (the Act), 29 U.S.C. 655, and 29 CFR 1905.11 (variances and other relief under Section 6(d)) an application for a permanent variance from several provisions of the OSHA standard that regulates work in compressed air, 1926.803 of 1926 Subpart S—Underground Construction, Caissons, Cofferdams, and Compressed Air, and an interim order allowing it to proceed while OSHA considers the request for a permanent variance (OSHA-2025-0002-0002). This notice addresses CBNA's application for a permanent variance and interim order for construction of the Potomac River Tunnel Project in Washington, DC only and is not applicable to future CBNA tunneling projects.</P>
                <P>Specifically, this notice addresses CBNA's application for a permanent variance and interim order from the provisions of the standard that: (1) require the use of the decompression values specified in decompression tables in Appendix A of subpart S (29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1)); and (2) require the use of automated operational controls and a special decompression chamber (29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(iii) and (xvii), respectively).</P>
                <P>OSHA has previously approved nearly identical provisions when granting several other very similar variances, as discussed in more detail in Section II. OSHA preliminarily concludes that the proposed variance is appropriate, grants an interim order temporarily allowing the proposed activity, and seeks comment on the proposed variance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The applicant is a contractor that works on complex tunnel projects using innovations in tunnel-excavation methods. The applicant's workers engage in the construction of tunnels using advanced shielded mechanical excavation techniques in conjunction with an earth pressure balanced micro-tunnel boring machine (TBM). Using shielded mechanical excavation techniques, in conjunction with precast concrete tunnel liners and backfill grout, TBMs provide methods to achieve 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34903"/>
                    the face pressures required to maintain a stabilized tunnel face through various geologies and isolate that pressure to the forward section (the excavation working chamber) of the TBM.
                </P>
                <P>CBNA asserts that it bores tunnels using a TBM at levels below the water table through soft soils consisting of clay, silt and sand. TBMs are capable of maintaining pressure at the tunnel face and stabilizing existing geological conditions through the controlled use of a mechanically driven cutter head, bulkheads within the shield, ground-treatment foam, and a screw conveyor that moves excavated material from the working chamber. The forward-most portion of the TBM is the working chamber, and this chamber is the only pressurized segment of the TBM. Within the shield, the working chamber consists of two sections: the forward working chamber and the staging chamber. The forward working chamber is immediately behind the cutter head and tunnel face. The staging chamber is behind the forward working chamber and between the man-lock door and the entry door to the forward working chamber.</P>
                <P>The TBM has twin man-locks located between the pressurized working chamber and the non-pressurized portion of the machine. Each man-lock has two compartments. This configuration allows workers to access the man-locks for compression and decompression, and medical personnel to access the man-locks if required in an emergency.</P>
                <P>
                    CBNA's Hyperbaric Operations Manual (HOM) for the Potomac River Tunnel Project (OSHA-2025-0002-0003) indicates that the maximum pressure to which it is likely to expose workers during project interventions for the tunnel drives associated with the Potomac River Tunnel Project is 49.5 per square inch gauge (p.s.i.g). The applicant will pressurize the working chamber to the level required to maintain a stable tunnel face, which for this project CBNA estimates will be up to a pressure not exceeding 49.5 p.s.i.g., which does not exceed the maximum pressure specified by the OSHA standard at 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5).
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     CBNA is not seeking a variance from this provision of the compressed-air standard.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The decompression tables in Appendix A of subpart S express the working pressures as pounds per square inch gauge (p.s.i.g.). Therefore, throughout this notice, OSHA expresses the p.s.i. value specified by 29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5) as p.s.i.g., consistent with the terminology in Appendix A, Table 1 of subpart S.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>CBNA employs specially trained personnel for the construction of the tunnel. To keep the machinery working effectively, CBNA asserts that these workers must periodically enter the excavation working chamber of the TBM to perform hyperbaric interventions during which workers would be exposed to air pressures up to 49.5 p.s.i.g., These interventions consist of conducting inspections or maintenance work on the cutter-head structure and cutting tools of the TBM, such as changing replaceable cutting tools and disposable wear bars, and, in rare cases, repairing structural damage to the cutter head. These interventions are the only time that workers are exposed to compressed air. Interventions in the working chamber (the pressurized portion of the TBM) take place only after halting tunnel excavation and preparing the machine and crew for an intervention.</P>
                <P>During interventions, workers enter the working chamber through one of the twin man-locks that open into the staging chamber. To reach the forward part of the working chamber, workers pass through a door in a bulkhead that separates the staging chamber from the forward working chamber. The man-locks and the working chamber are designed to accommodate three people, which is the maximum crew size allowed under the proposed variance. When the required decompression times are greater than work times, the twin man-locks allow for crew rotation. During crew rotation, one crew can be compressing or decompressing while the second crew is working. Therefore, the working crew always has an unoccupied man-lock at its disposal.</P>
                <P>CBNA asserts that these innovations in tunnel excavation have greatly reduced worker exposure to hazards of pressurized air work because they have eliminated the need to pressurize the entire tunnel for the project and would thereby reduce the number of workers exposed, as well as the total duration of exposure, to hyperbaric pressure during tunnel construction. These advances in technology substantially modified the methods used by the construction industry to excavate subaqueous tunnels compared to caisson work.</P>
                <P>In addition to the reduced exposures resulting from the innovations in tunnel-excavation methods, CBNA asserts that innovations in hyperbaric medicine and technology improve the safety of decompression from hyperbaric exposures. These procedures, however, would deviate from the decompression process that OSHA requires for construction in 29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1) and the decompression tables in Appendix A of 29 CFR 1926, subpart S. Nevertheless, according to CBNA, their use of decompression protocols incorporating oxygen is more efficient, effective, and safer for tunnel workers than compliance with the decompression tables specified by the existing OSHA standard.</P>
                <P>CBNA therefore believes its workers will be at least as safe under its proposed alternatives as they would be under OSHA's standard because of the reduction in number of workers and duration of hyperbaric exposures, better application of hyperbaric medicine, and the development of a project-specific HOM that requires specialized medical support and hyperbaric supervision to provide assistance to a team of specially trained man-lock attendants and hyperbaric or compressed-air workers (CAWs).</P>
                <P>Based on an initial review of CBNA's application for a permanent variance and interim order for the construction of the Potomac River Tunnel Project in Washington, DC, OSHA has preliminarily determined that CBNA has proposed an alternative that would provide a workplace at least as safe and healthful as that provided by the standard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. The Variance Application</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to the requirements of OSHA's variance regulations (29 CFR part 1905), the applicant has certified that it notified its workers 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the variance modification application and request for interim order by posting, at prominent locations where it normally posts workplace notices, a summary of the application and information specifying where the workers can examine a copy of the application. In addition, the applicant informed its workers and their representatives of their rights to petition the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health for a hearing on the variance application.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         See the definition of “Affected employee or worker” in section V.D of this notice.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. OSHA History of Approval of Nearly Identical Variance Requests</HD>
                <P>
                    OSHA has previously approved several nearly identical variances involving the same types of tunneling equipment used for similar projects. OSHA notes that it granted several subaqueous tunnel construction permanent variances from the same provisions of OSHA's compressed-air standard (29 CFR 1926.803(e)(5), (f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii)) that are the subject of the present application: (1) Impregilo Healy Parsons Joint Venture (IHP JV) for the Anacostia River Tunnel 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34904"/>
                    in Washington, DC (80 FR 50652, August 20, 2015); (2) Traylor JV for the Blue Plains Tunnel in Washington, DC (80 FR 16440, March 27, 2015); (3) Tully/OHL USA JV for the New York Economic Development Corporation's New York Siphon Tunnel project (79 FR 29809, May 23, 2014); (4) Salini-Impregilo/Healy JV for the Northeast Boundary Tunnel in Washington, DC (85 FR 27767, May 11, 2020); (5) McNally/Kiewit SST for the Shoreline Storage Tunnel in Cleveland, Ohio (88 FR 15080, March 10, 2023); (6) Traylor Shea JV for the Alexandria RiverRenew Tunnel Project in Alexandria, Virginia and Washington, DC (88 FR 15090, March 10, 2023); (7) Traylor-Sundt Joint Venture, for the Integrated Pipeline Tunnel Project in Dallas, Texas (88 FR 83152, November 28, 2023); (8) Ballard Marine Construction for the Bay Park Conveyance Tunnel Project in Nassau County, New York (89 FR 8442, February 7, 2024); and (9) Ballard Marine Construction for the Lower Olentangy Tunnel Project in Columbus, Ohio (89 FR 78906, September 26, 2024). OSHA also granted an interim order to Ballard Marine Construction for the Suffolk County, New York Outfall Tunnel Project (86 FR 5253, January 19, 2021). The proposed alternate conditions in this notice are nearly identical to the alternate conditions of the previous permanent variances and the interim order.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OSHA is not aware of any injuries or other safety issues that arose from work performed under these conditions in accordance with the previous variances.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Most of the other subaqueous tunnel construction variances allowed further deviation from OSHA standards by permitting employee exposures above 50 p.s.i.g. based on the composition of the soil and the amount of water above the tunnel for various sections of those projects. The current proposed variance includes substantively the same safeguards as the variances that OSHA granted previously, even though employees will only be exposed to pressures up to 49.5 p.s.i.g.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Variance From Paragraph (f)(1) of 29 CFR 1926.803, Requirement To Use OSHA Decompression Tables</HD>
                <P>
                    OSHA's compressed-air standard for construction requires decompression in accordance with the decompression tables in Appendix A of 29 CFR 1926, subpart S (see 29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1)). As an alternative to the OSHA decompression tables, the applicant proposes to use newer decompression schedules (the 1992 French Decompression Tables) that rely on staged decompression and supplement breathing air used during decompression with air or oxygen (as appropriate).
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The applicant asserts decompression protocols using the 1992 French Decompression Tables for air or oxygen as specified by the Potomac River Tunnel Project-specific HOM are safer for tunnel workers than the decompression protocols specified in Appendix A of 29 CFR 1926, subpart S. Accordingly, the applicant would commit to following the decompression procedures described in that HOM, which would require it to follow the 1992 French Decompression Tables to decompress CAWs after they exit the hyperbaric conditions in the working chamber.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         In 1992, the French Ministry of Labour replaced the 1974 French Decompression Tables with the 1992 French Decompression Tables, which differ from OSHA's decompression tables in Appendix A by using: (1) staged decompression as opposed to continuous (linear) decompression; (2) decompression tables based on air or both air and pure oxygen; and (3) emergency tables when unexpected exposure times occur (up to 30 minutes above the maximum allowed working time).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Depending on the maximum working pressure and exposure times, the 1992 French Decompression Tables provide for air decompression with or without oxygen. CBNA asserts that oxygen decompression has many benefits, including (1) keeping the partial pressure of nitrogen in the lungs as low as possible; (2) keeping external pressure as low as possible to reduce the formation of bubbles in the blood; (3) removing nitrogen from the lungs and arterial blood and increasing the rate of nitrogen elimination; (4) improving the quality of breathing during decompression stops so that workers are less tired and to prevent bone necrosis; (5) reducing decompression time by about 33 percent as compared to air decompression; and (6) reducing inflammation.</P>
                <P>In addition, the project-specific HOM requires a physician certified in hyperbaric medicine to manage the medical condition of CAWs during hyperbaric exposures and decompression. A trained and experienced man-lock attendant is also required to be present during hyperbaric exposures and decompression. This man-lock attendant is to operate the hyperbaric system to ensure compliance with the specified decompression table. A hyperbaric supervisor, who is trained in hyperbaric operations, procedures, and safety, directly oversees all hyperbaric interventions and ensures that staff follow the procedures delineated in the HOM or by the attending physician.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Variance From Paragraph (g)(1)(iii) of 29 CFR 1926.803, Automatically Regulated Continuous Decompression</HD>
                <P>The applicant is applying for a permanent variance from the OSHA standard at 29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(iii), which requires automatic controls to regulate decompression. As noted above, the applicant is committed to conducting the staged decompression according to the 1992 French Decompression Tables under the direct control of the trained man-lock attendant and under the oversight of the hyperbaric supervisor.</P>
                <P>Breathing air under hyperbaric conditions increases the amount of nitrogen gas dissolved in a CAW's tissues. The greater the hyperbaric pressure under these conditions and the more time spent under the increased pressure, the greater the amount of nitrogen gas dissolved in the tissues. When the pressure decreases during decompression, tissues release the dissolved nitrogen gas into the blood system, which then carries the nitrogen gas to the lungs for elimination through exhalation. Releasing hyperbaric pressure too rapidly during decompression can increase the size of the bubbles formed by nitrogen gas in the blood system, resulting in decompression illness (DCI), commonly referred to as “the bends.” This description of the etiology of DCI is consistent with current scientific theory and research on the issue.</P>
                <P>
                    The 1992 French Decompression Tables proposed for use by the applicant provide for stops during worker decompression (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     staged decompression) to control the release of nitrogen gas from tissues into the blood system. Studies show that staged decompression, in combination with other features of the 1992 French Decompression Tables such as the use of oxygen, result in a lower incidence of DCI than the use of automatically regulated continuous decompression.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                      
                    <PRTPAGE P="34905"/>
                    In addition, the applicant asserts that staged decompression administered in accordance with its HOM is at least as effective as an automatic controller in regulating the decompression process because the HOM includes a hyperbaric supervisor who directly supervises all hyperbaric interventions and ensures that the man-lock attendant, who is a competent person in the manual control of hyperbaric systems, follows the schedule specified in the decompression tables, including stops.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         See, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Dr. Eric Kindwall, EP (1997), Compressed air tunneling and caisson work decompression procedures: development, problems, and solutions. 
                        <E T="03">Undersea and Hyperbaric Medicine,</E>
                         24(4), pp. 337-345. This article reported 60 treated cases of DCI among 4,168 exposures between 19 and 31 p.s.i.g. over a 51-week contract period, for a DCI incidence of 1.44% for the decompression tables specified by the OSHA standard. Dr. Kindwall notes that the use of automatically regulated continuous decompression in the Washington State safety standards for compressed-air work (from which OSHA derived its decompression tables) was at the insistence of contractors and the union, and against the advice of the expert who calculated the decompression table and recommended using staged decompression. Dr. Kindwall then states, “Continuous decompression is inefficient and wasteful. For example, if the last stage from 4 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        p.s.i.g. . . . to the surface took 1h, at least half the time is spent at pressures less than 2 p.s.i.g. . . ., which provides less and less meaningful bubble suppression . . . .” In addition, Dr. Kindwall addresses the continuous-decompression protocol in the OSHA compressed-air standard for construction, noting that “[a]side from the tables for saturation diving to deep depths, no other widely used or officially approved diving decompression tables use straight line, continuous decompressions at varying rates. Stage decompression is usually the rule, since it is simpler to control.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Variance From Paragraph (g)(1)(xvii) of 29 CFR 1926.803, Requirement of Special Decompression Chamber</HD>
                <P>The OSHA compressed-air standard for construction requires employers to use a special decompression chamber of sufficient size to accommodate all CAWs being decompressed at the end of the shift when total decompression time exceeds 75 minutes (see 29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(xvii)). Use of the special decompression chamber enables CAWs to move about and flex their joints to prevent neuromuscular problems during decompression.</P>
                <P>Space limitations in TBM do not allow for the installation and use of an additional special decompression lock or chamber. The applicant proposes that it be permitted to rely on the man-locks and staging chamber in lieu of adding a separate, special decompression chamber. Because only a few workers out of the entire crew are exposed to hyperbaric pressure, the man-locks (which, as noted earlier, connect directly to the working chamber) and the staging chamber are of sufficient size to accommodate all of the exposed workers during decompression. The applicant uses the existing man-locks, each of which adequately accommodates a three-member crew for this purpose when decompression lasts up to 75 minutes. When decompression exceeds 75 minutes, crews can open the door connecting the two compartments in each man-lock (during decompression stops) or exit the man-lock and move into the staging chamber where additional space is available. The applicant asserts that this alternative arrangement is as effective as a special decompression chamber in that it has sufficient space for all the CAWs at the end of a shift and enables the CAWs to move about and flex their joints to prevent neuromuscular problems.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Agency Preliminary Determinations</HD>
                <P>After reviewing the proposed alternatives, OSHA has preliminarily determined that the applicant's proposed alternatives on the whole, subject to the conditions in the request and imposed by this interim order, provide measures that are as safe and healthful as those required by the cited OSHA standards addressed in section II of this notice.</P>
                <P>In addition, OSHA has preliminarily determined that each of the following alternatives are at least as effective as the specified OSHA requirements:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. 29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1)</HD>
                <P>
                    CBNA has proposed to implement equally effective alternative measures to the requirement in 29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1) for compliance with OSHA's decompression tables. The project-specific HOM specifies the procedures and personnel qualifications for performing work safely during the compression and decompression phases of interventions. The HOM also specifies the decompression tables the applicant proposes to use (the 1992 French Decompression Tables). Depending on the maximum working pressure and exposure times during the interventions, the tables provide for decompression using air, pure oxygen, or a combination of air and oxygen. The decompression tables also include delays or stops for various time intervals at different pressure levels during the transition to atmospheric pressure (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     staged decompression). In all cases, a physician certified in hyperbaric medicine will manage the medical condition of CAWs during decompression. In addition, a trained and experienced man-lock attendant, experienced in recognizing decompression sickness or illnesses and injuries, will be present. Of key importance, a hyperbaric supervisor, trained in hyperbaric operations, procedures, and safety, will directly supervise all hyperbaric operations to ensure compliance with the procedures delineated in the project-specific HOM or by the attending physician.
                </P>
                <P>
                    As it did when granting the nine previous tunneling permanent variances to IHP JV, Traylor JV, Tully JV, Salini-Impregilo JV, McNally/Kiewit, Traylor-Shea, Traylor-Sundt JV, Ballard (Lower Olentangy), Ballard (Bay Park) and one interim order to Ballard (Suffolk), OSHA conducted a review of the scientific literature and concluded that the alternative decompression method (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the 1992 French Decompression Tables) CBNA proposed would be at least as safe as the decompression tables specified by OSHA when applied by trained medical personnel under the conditions that would be imposed by the proposed variance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Some of the literature indicates that the alternative decompression method may be safer, concluding that decompression performed in accordance with these tables resulted in a lower occurrence of DCI than decompression conducted in accordance with the decompression tables specified by the standard. For example, H.L. Andersen studied the occurrence of DCI at maximum hyperbaric pressures ranging from 4 p.s.i.g. to 43 p.s.i.g. during construction of the Great Belt Tunnel in Denmark (1992-1996).
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This project used the 1992 French Decompression Tables to decompress the workers during part of the construction. Andersen observed 6 DCI cases out of 7,220 decompression events and reported that switching to the 1992 French Decompression tables reduced the DCI incidence to 0.08% compared to a previous incidence rate of 0.14%. The DCI incidence in the study by H.L. Andersen is substantially less than the DCI incidence reported for the decompression tables specified in Appendix A.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Anderson HL (2002). Decompression sickness during construction of the Great Belt tunnel, Denmark. 
                        <E T="03">Undersea and Hyperbaric Medicine</E>
                        , 29(3), pp. 172-188.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    OSHA found no studies in which the DCI incidence reported for the 1992 French Decompression Tables were higher than the DCI incidence reported for the OSHA decompression tables.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Le Péchon JC, Barre P, Baud JP, Ollivier F (September 1996). Compressed air work—French Tables 1992—operational results. 
                        <E T="03">JCLP Hyperbarie Paris, Centre Medical Subaquatique Interentreprise, Marseille: Communication a l'EUBS,</E>
                         pp. 1-5 (see Ex. OSHA-2012-0036-0005).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    OSHA's experience with the previous several variances, which all incorporated nearly identical decompression plans and did not result in safety issues, also provides evidence that the alternative procedure as a whole is at least as effective for this type of tunneling project as compliance with OSHA's decompression tables. The experience of State Plans 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that either 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34906"/>
                    granted variances (Nevada, Oregon and Washington) 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or promulgated a new standard (California) 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for hyperbaric exposures occurring during similar subaqueous tunnel-construction work, provide additional evidence of the effectiveness of this alternative procedure.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Under section 18 of the OSH Act, Congress expressly provides that States and U.S. territories may adopt, with Federal approval, a plan for the development and enforcement of occupational safety and health standards. OSHA refers to such States and territories as “State Plan States” Occupational safety and health standards developed by State Plan States must be at least as effective in providing safe and healthful 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        employment and places of employment as the Federal standards (29 U.S.C. 667).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         These state variances are available in the docket for the 2015 Traylor JV variance: Exs. OSHA-2012-0035-0006 (Nevada), OSHA-2012-0035-0005 (Oregon), and OSHA-2012-0035-0004 (Washington).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         See California Code of Regulations, Title 8, Subchapter 7, Group 26, Article 154, available at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.dir.ca.gov/title8/sb7g26a154.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. 29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(iii)</HD>
                <P>CBNA developed, and proposed to implement, an equally effective alternative to 29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(iii), which requires the use of automatic controllers that continuously decrease pressure to achieve decompression in accordance with the tables specified by the standard. The applicant's alternative includes using the 1992 French Decompression Tables for guiding staged decompression to achieve lower occurrences of DCI, using a trained and competent attendant for implementing appropriate hyperbaric entry and exit procedures, and providing a competent hyperbaric supervisor and attending physician certified in hyperbaric medicine to oversee all hyperbaric operations.</P>
                <P>In reaching this preliminary conclusion, OSHA again notes the experience of previous nearly identical tunneling variances, the experiences of State Plan States, and a review of the literature and other information noted earlier.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. 29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(xvii)</HD>
                <P>CBNA developed, and proposed to implement, an effective alternative to the use of the special decompression chamber required by 29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(xvii). The TBM's man-lock and working chamber appear to satisfy all of the conditions of the special decompression chamber, including that they provide sufficient space for the maximum crew of three CAWs to stand up and move around, and safely accommodate decompression times up to 360 minutes. Therefore, again noting OSHA's previous experience with nearly identical variances including the same alternative, OSHA preliminarily determined that the TBM's man-lock and working chamber function as effectively as the special decompression chamber required by the standard.</P>
                <P>Pursuant to section 6(d) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 655), and based on the record discussed above, the agency preliminarily finds that when the employer complies with the conditions of the proposed variance, the working conditions of the employer's workers would be at least as safe and healthful as if the employer complied with the working conditions specified by paragraphs (f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii) of 29 CFR 1926.803.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Grant of Interim Order, Proposal for Permanent Variance, and Request for Comment</HD>
                <P>OSHA hereby announces the preliminary decision to grant an interim order allowing CBNA's CAWs to perform interventions in hyperbaric conditions not exceeding 50 p.s.i.g. during the Potomac River Tunnel Project, subject to the conditions that follow in this document. This interim order will remain in effect until completion of the Potomac River Tunnel Project or until the agency modifies or revokes the interim order or makes a final decision on CBNA's application for a permanent variance. During the period starting with the publication of this notice until completion of the Potomac River Tunnel Project, or until the agency modifies or revokes the interim order or makes a final decision on the application for a permanent variance, CBNA is required to comply fully with the conditions of the interim order as an alternative to complying with the following requirements of 29 CFR 1926.803 (hereinafter, the standard) that:</P>
                <P>1. Require the use of decompression values specified by the decompression tables in Appendix A of the compressed-air standard (29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1));</P>
                <P>2. Require the use of automated operational controls (29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(iii)); and</P>
                <P>3. Require the use of a special decompression chamber (29 CFR 1926.803(g)(1)(xvii)).</P>
                <P>
                    In order to avail itself of the interim order, CBNA must: (1) comply with the conditions listed in the interim order for the period starting with the grant of the interim order and ending with CBNA's completion of the Potomac River Tunnel Project (or until the agency modifies or revokes the interim order or makes a decision on its application for a permanent variance); (2) comply fully with all other applicable provisions of 29 CFR part 1926; and (3) provide a copy of this 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice to all employees affected by the proposed conditions, including the affected employees of other employers, using the same means it used to inform these employees of its application for a permanent variance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    OSHA is also proposing that the same requirements (see above section III) would apply to a permanent variance if OSHA ultimately issues one for this project. OSHA requests comment on those conditions as well as OSHA's preliminary determination that the specified alternatives and conditions would provide a workplace as safe and healthful as those required by the standard from which a variance is sought. After reviewing comments, OSHA will publish in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     the agency's final decision granting or denying a permanent variance.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Description of the Specified Conditions of the Interim Order and the Application for a Permanent Variance</HD>
                <P>This section describes the alternative means of compliance with 29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii) and provides additional detail regarding the proposed conditions that form the basis of CBNA's application for an interim order and permanent variance. The conditions are listed below. For brevity, the discussion that follows refers only to the permanent variance, but the same conditions apply to the interim order.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition A: Scope</HD>
                <P>The scope of the proposed permanent variance would limit coverage to the work situations specified. Clearly defining the scope of the proposed permanent variance provides CBNA, CBNA's employees, potential future applicants, other stakeholders, the public, and OSHA with necessary information regarding the work situations in which the proposed permanent variance would apply. To the extent that CBNA exceeds the defined scope of this variance, it would be required to comply with OSHA's standards.</P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 29 CFR 1905.11, an employer (or class or group of employers) 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     may request a permanent variance for a specific workplace or workplaces. If OSHA approves a permanent variance, it would apply only to the specific employer(s) that submitted the application and only to the specific workplace or workplaces designated as part of the project. In this 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34907"/>
                    instance, if OSHA were to grant a permanent variance, it would apply to only the applicant, CBNA, and only the Potomac River Tunnel Project. As a result, it is important to understand that if OSHA were to grant CBNA a permanent variance, it would not apply to any other employers, or to projects the applicant may undertake in the future.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         A class or group of employers (such as members of a trade alliance or association) may apply jointly for a variance provided an authorized representative for each employer signs the application and the application identifies each employer's affected facilities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition B: Duration</HD>
                <P>The interim order is only intended as a temporary measure pending OSHA's decision on the permanent variance, so this condition specifies the duration of the order. If OSHA approves a permanent variance, it would specify the duration of the permanent variance as the remainder of the Potomac River Tunnel Project.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition C: List of Abbreviations</HD>
                <P>The proposed condition defines a number of abbreviations used in the proposed permanent variance. OSHA believes that defining these abbreviations serve to clarify and standardize their usage, thereby enhancing the applicant's and its employees' understanding of the conditions specified by the proposed permanent variance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition D: Definitions</HD>
                <P>The proposed condition defines a series of terms, mostly technical terms, used in the proposed permanent variance to standardize and clarify their meaning. OSHA believes that defining these terms serves to enhance the applicant's and its employees' understanding of the conditions specified by the proposed permanent variance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition E: Safety and Health Practices</HD>
                <P>
                    This proposed condition requires the applicant to develop and submit to OSHA a HOM specific to the Potomac River Tunnel Project at least six months before using the TBM for tunneling operations. The applicant must also submit, at least six months before using the TBM, proof that the TBM's hyperbaric chambers have been designed, fabricated, inspected, tested, marked, and stamped in accordance with the requirements of ASME PVHO-1.2019 (or the most recent edition of 
                    <E T="03">Safety Standards for Pressure Vessels for Human Occupancy</E>
                    ). These requirements ensure that the applicant develops hyperbaric safety and health procedures suitable for the project.
                </P>
                <P>The submission of the HOM to OSHA, which CBNA has already completed, enables OSHA to determine whether the safety and health instructions and measures it specifies are appropriate to the field conditions of the tunnel (including expected geological conditions), conform to the conditions of the variance, and adequately protect the safety and health of the CAWs. It also facilitates OSHA's ability to ensure that the applicant is complying with these instructions and measures. The requirement for proof of compliance with ASME PVHO-1.2019 is intended to ensure that the equipment is structurally sound and capable of performing to protect the safety of the employees exposed to hyperbaric pressure.</P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, the proposed condition includes a series of related hazard prevention and control requirements and methods (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     decompression tables, job hazard analyses (JHA), operations and inspections checklists, incident investigation, and recording and notification to OSHA of recordable hyperbaric injuries and illnesses) designed to ensure the continued effective functioning of the hyperbaric equipment and operating system.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition F: Communication</HD>
                <P>This proposed condition requires the applicant to develop and implement an effective system of information sharing and communication. Effective information sharing and communication are intended to ensure that affected workers receive updated information regarding any safety-related hazards and incidents, and corrective actions taken, prior to the start of each shift. The proposed condition also requires the applicant to ensure that reliable means of emergency communications are available and maintained for affected workers and support personnel during hyperbaric operations. The availability of such reliable means of communications would enable affected workers and support personnel to respond quickly and effectively to hazardous conditions or emergencies that may develop during TBM operations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition G: Worker Qualification and Training</HD>
                <P>This proposed condition requires the applicant to develop and implement an effective qualification and training program for affected workers. The proposed condition specifies the factors that an affected worker must know to perform safely during hyperbaric operations, including how to enter, work in, and exit from hyperbaric conditions under both normal and emergency conditions. Having well-trained and qualified workers performing hyperbaric intervention work is intended to ensure that they recognize, and respond appropriately to, hyperbaric safety and health hazards. These qualification and training requirements enable affected workers to cope effectively with emergencies, as well as the discomfort and physiological effects of hyperbaric exposure, thereby preventing worker injury, illness, and fatalities.</P>
                <P>Paragraph (2)(e) of this proposed condition requires the applicant to provide affected workers with information they can use to contact the appropriate healthcare professionals if the workers believe they are developing hyperbaric-related health effects. This requirement provides for early intervention and treatment of DCI and other health effects resulting from hyperbaric exposure, thereby reducing the potential severity of these effects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition H: Inspections, Tests, and Accident Prevention</HD>
                <P>Proposed Condition H requires the applicant to develop, implement, and operate a program of frequent and regular inspections of the TBM's hyperbaric equipment and support systems, and associated work areas. This condition would help to ensure the safe operation and physical integrity of the equipment and work areas necessary to conduct hyperbaric operations. The condition would also enhance worker safety by reducing the risk of hyperbaric-related emergencies.</P>
                <P>Paragraph (3) of this proposed condition requires the applicant to document tests, inspections, corrective actions, and repairs involving the TBM, and maintain these documents at the jobsite for the duration of the job. This requirement would provide the applicant with information needed to schedule tests and inspections to ensure the continued safe operation of the equipment and systems, and to determine that the actions taken to correct defects in hyperbaric equipment and systems were appropriate, prior to returning them to service.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition I: Compression and Decompression</HD>
                <P>
                    This proposed condition would require the applicant to consult with the designated medical advisor regarding special compression or decompression procedures appropriate for any unacclimated CAW and then implement the procedures recommended by the medical consultant. This proposed provision would ensure that the applicant consults with the medical advisor, and involves the medical 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34908"/>
                    advisor in the evaluation, development, and implementation of compression or decompression protocols appropriate for any CAW requiring acclimation to the hyperbaric conditions encountered during TBM operations. Accordingly, CAWs requiring acclimation would have an opportunity to acclimate prior to exposure to these hyperbaric conditions. OSHA believes this condition would prevent or reduce adverse reactions among CAWs to the effects of compression or decompression associated with the intervention work they perform in the TBM.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition J: Recordkeeping</HD>
                <P>Under OSHA's existing recordkeeping requirements in 29 CFR part 1904 regarding Recording and Reporting Occupational Injuries and Illnesses, the employer must maintain a record of any recordable injury, illness, or fatality (as defined by 29 CFR part 1904) resulting from exposure of an employee to hyperbaric conditions by completing the OSHA Form 301 Incident Report and OSHA Form 300 Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses. The applicant did not seek a variance from this standard and therefore CBNA must comply fully with those requirements.</P>
                <P>Examples of important information to include on the OSHA Form 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report (along with the corresponding questions on the form) are:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Q14</HD>
                <P>• the task performed;</P>
                <P>
                    • the composition of the gas mixture (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     air or oxygen);
                </P>
                <P>• an estimate of the CAW's workload;</P>
                <P>• the maximum working pressure;</P>
                <P>• temperature in the work and decompression environments;</P>
                <P>• unusual occurrences, if any, during the task or decompression</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Q15</HD>
                <P>• time of symptom onset;</P>
                <P>• duration between decompression and onset of symptoms</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Q16</HD>
                <P>• type and duration of symptoms;</P>
                <P>• a medical summary of the illness or injury</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Q17</HD>
                <P>• duration of the hyperbaric intervention;</P>
                <P>• possible contributing factors;</P>
                <P>
                    • the number of prior interventions completed by the injured or ill CAW; and the pressure to which the CAW was exposed during those interventions.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         See 29 CFR 1904 Recording and Reporting Occupational Injuries and Illnesses 
                        <E T="03">(http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owadisp.show_document?p_table=STANDARDS&amp;p_id=9631);</E>
                         recordkeeping forms and instructions 
                        <E T="03">(http://www.osha.gov/recordkeeping/RKform300pkg-fillable-enabled.pdf);</E>
                         and OSHA Recordkeeping Handbook 
                        <E T="03">(http://www.osha.gov/recordkeeping/handbook/index.html).</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Proposed Condition J would add additional reporting responsibilities, beyond those already required by the OSHA standard. The applicant would be required to maintain records of specific factors associated with each hyperbaric intervention. The information gathered and recorded under this provision, in concert with the information provided under proposed Condition K (using OSHA Form 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report to investigate and record hyperbaric recordable injuries as defined by 29 CFR 1904.4, 1904.7, 1904.8-1904.12), would enable the applicant and OSHA to assess the effectiveness of the permanent variance in preventing DCI and other hyperbaric-related effects.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Condition K: Notifications</HD>
                <P>Under the proposed condition, the applicant is required, within specified periods of time, to notify OSHA of: (1) any recordable injury, illness, in-patient hospitalization, amputation, loss of an eye, or fatality that occurs as a result of hyperbaric exposures during TBM operations within 8 hours; (2) provide OSHA a copy of the hyperbaric exposures incident investigation report (using OSHA Form 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report) of these events within 24 hours of the incident; (3) include on OSHA Form 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report information on the hyperbaric conditions associated with the recordable injury or illness, the root-cause determination, and preventive and corrective actions identified and implemented; (4) provide the certification along with the OSHA Form 310, that affected workers were informed of the incident and the results of the incident investigation; (5) notify OSHA's Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities (OTPCA) and the OSHA Baltimore/Washington Area Office within 15 working days should the applicant need to revise the HOM to accommodate changes in its compressed-air operations that affect CBNA's ability to comply with the conditions of the proposed permanent variance; and (6) provide OTPCA and the OSHA Baltimore/Washington Area Office, at the end of the project, with a report evaluating the effectiveness of the decompression tables within 30 days of the completion of the Potomac River Tunnel Project.</P>
                <P>It should be noted that the requirement for completing and submitting the hyperbaric exposure-related (recordable) incident investigation report (OSHA 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report) is more restrictive than the current recordkeeping requirement of completing OSHA Form 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report within 7 calendar days of the incident (1904.29(b)(3)). This modified, more stringent incident investigation and reporting requirement is restricted to intervention-related hyperbaric (recordable) incidents only. Providing rapid notification to OSHA is essential because time is a critical element in OSHA's ability to determine the continued effectiveness of the variance conditions in preventing hyperbaric incidents, and the applicant's identification and implementation of appropriate corrective and preventive actions.</P>
                <P>Further, these notification requirements also enable the applicant, its employees, and OSHA to assess the effectiveness of the permanent variance in providing the requisite level of safety to the applicant's workers and based on this assessment, whether to revise or revoke the conditions of the proposed permanent variance. Timely notification permits OSHA to take whatever action may be necessary and appropriate to prevent possible further injuries and illnesses. Providing notification to employees informs them of the precautions taken by the applicant to prevent similar incidents in the future.</P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, this proposed condition requires the applicant to notify OSHA no later than seven (7) days of having knowledge that it will cease to do business, have a new address or location for the main office, or transfer the operations covered by the proposed permanent variance to a successor company. In addition, the condition specifies that the transfer of the permanent variance to a successor company must be approved by OSHA. These requirements allow OSHA to communicate effectively with the applicant regarding the status of the proposed permanent variance and expedite the agency's administration and enforcement of the permanent variance. Stipulating that an applicant is required to have OSHA's approval to transfer a variance to a successor company provides assurance that the successor company has knowledge of, and will comply with, the conditions specified by the proposed permanent variance, thereby ensuring the safety of workers involved in performing the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34909"/>
                    operations covered by the proposed permanent variance.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Specific Conditions of the Interim Order and the Proposed Permanent Variance</HD>
                <P>
                    The following conditions apply to the interim order OSHA is granting to CBNA for the Potomac River Tunnel Project. These conditions specify the alternative means of compliance with the requirements of paragraphs 29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii). In addition, these conditions are specific to the alternative means of compliance with these requirements that OSHA is proposing for CBNA's permanent variance. To simplify the presentation of the conditions, OSHA generally refers only to the conditions of the proposed permanent variance, but the same conditions apply to the interim order except where otherwise noted.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         In these conditions, OSHA is using the future conditional form of the verb (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         “would”), which pertains to the application for a permanent variance (designated as “Permanent Variance”) but the conditions are mandatory for purposes of the interim order.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The conditions would apply with respect to all employees of CBNA exposed to hyperbaric conditions. These conditions are outlined in this section:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Scope</HD>
                <P>
                    The interim order applies, and the permanent variance would apply only when CBNA stops the tunnel-boring work, pressurizes the working chamber, and the CAWs either enter the working chamber to perform an intervention (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     inspect, maintain, or repair the mechanical-excavation components), or exit the working chamber after performing interventions.
                </P>
                <P>The interim order and proposed permanent variance apply only to work:</P>
                <P>1. That occurs in conjunction with construction of the Potomac River Tunnel Project, a tunnel constructed using advanced shielded mechanical-excavation techniques and involving operation of an TBM;</P>
                <P>2. In the TBM's forward section (the working chamber) and associated hyperbaric chambers used to pressurize and decompress employees entering and exiting the working chamber; and</P>
                <P>3. Performed in compliance with all applicable provisions of 29 CFR part 1926 except for the requirements specified by 29 CFR 1926.803(f)(1), (g)(1)(iii), and (g)(1)(xvii).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Duration</HD>
                <P>The interim order granted to CBNA will remain in effect until CBNA completes the Potomac River Tunnel Project, OSHA modifies or revokes this interim order, or OSHA grants CBNA's request for a permanent variance. The proposed permanent variance, if granted, would remain in effect until the completion of CBNA's Potomac River Tunnel Project or until modified or revoked by OSHA pursuant to 29 CFR 1905.13(a)(2).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. List of Abbreviations</HD>
                <P>Abbreviations used throughout this proposed permanent variance would include the following:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">1. CAW—Compressed-air worker</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">2. CFR—Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">3. DCI—Decompression Illness</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">4. DMT—Diver Medical Technician</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">5. TBM—Earth Pressure Balanced Tunnel Boring Machine</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">6. HOM—Hyperbaric Operations Manual</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">7. JHA—Job hazard analysis</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">8. OSHA—Occupational Safety and Health Administration</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">9. OTPCA—Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Definitions</HD>
                <P>The following definitions would apply to this proposed permanent variance. These definitions would supplement the definitions in CBNA's project-specific HOM.</P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Affected employee or worker</E>
                    —an employee or worker who is affected by the conditions of this proposed permanent variance, or any one of his or her authorized representatives. The term “employee” has the meaning defined and used under the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 651 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Atmospheric pressure</E>
                    —the pressure of air at sea level, generally 14.7 pounds per square inch absolute (p.s.i.a)., 1 atmosphere absolute, or 0 p.s.i.g.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Compressed-air worker</E>
                    —an individual who is specially trained and medically qualified to perform work in a pressurized environment while breathing air at pressures not exceeding 49.5 p.s.i.g.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Competent person</E>
                    —an individual who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions that are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Adapted from 29 CFR 1926.32(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Decompression illness</E>
                    —an illness (also called decompression sickness or “the bends”) caused by gas bubbles appearing in body compartments due to a reduction in ambient pressure. Examples of symptoms of decompression illness include, but are not limited to: joint pain (also known as the “bends” for agonizing pain or the “niggles” for slight pain); areas of bone destruction (termed dysbaric osteonecrosis); skin disorders (such as cutis marmorata, which causes a pink marbling of the skin); spinal cord and brain disorders (such as stroke, paralysis, paresthesia, and bladder dysfunction); cardiopulmonary disorders, such as shortness of breath; and arterial gas embolism (gas bubbles in the arteries that block blood flow).
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         See Appendix 10 of “A Guide to the Work in Compressed-Air Regulations 1996,” published by the United Kingdom Health and Safety Executive available from NIOSH at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/docket/archive/pdfs/NIOSH-254/compReg1996.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Health effects associated with hyperbaric intervention, but not considered symptoms of DCI, can include: barotrauma (direct damage to air-containing cavities in the body such as ears, sinuses, and lungs); nitrogen narcosis (reversible alteration in consciousness that may occur in hyperbaric environments and is caused by the anesthetic effect of certain gases at high pressure); and oxygen toxicity (a central nervous system condition resulting from the harmful effects of breathing molecular oxygen (O
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        ) at elevated partial pressures).
                    </P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Diver Medical Technician—</E>
                    Member of the dive team who is experienced in first aid.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">Earth Pressure Balanced Tunnel Boring Machine</E>
                    —the machinery used to excavate a tunnel.
                </P>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">Hot work</E>
                    —any activity performed in a hazardous location that may introduce an ignition source into a potentially flammable atmosphere.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         Also see 29 CFR 1926.1202 for examples of hot work.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    9. 
                    <E T="03">Hyperbaric</E>
                    —at a higher pressure than atmospheric pressure.
                </P>
                <P>
                    10. 
                    <E T="03">Hyperbaric intervention</E>
                    —a term that describes the process of stopping the TBM and preparing and executing work under hyperbaric pressure in the working chamber for the purpose of inspecting, replacing, or repairing cutting tools and/or the cutterhead structure.
                </P>
                <P>
                    11. 
                    <E T="03">Hyperbaric Operations Manual</E>
                    —a detailed, project-specific health and safety plan developed and implemented by CBNA for working in compressed air during the Potomac River Tunnel Project.
                </P>
                <P>
                    12. 
                    <E T="03">Job hazard analysis</E>
                    —an evaluation of tasks or operations to identify potential hazards and to determine the necessary controls.
                </P>
                <P>
                    13. 
                    <E T="03">Man-lock</E>
                    —an enclosed space capable of pressurization and used for compressing or decompressing any employee or material when either is 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34910"/>
                    passing into, or out of, a working chamber.
                </P>
                <P>
                    14. 
                    <E T="03">Medical Advisor</E>
                    —medical professional experienced in the physical requirements of compressed air work and the treatment of decompression illness.
                </P>
                <P>
                    15. 
                    <E T="03">Pressure</E>
                    —a force acting on a unit area. Usually expressed as pounds per square inch (p.s.i.).
                </P>
                <P>
                    16. 
                    <E T="03">p.s.i.a.</E>
                    —pounds per square inch absolute, or absolute pressure, is the sum of the atmospheric pressure and gauge pressure. At sea level, atmospheric pressure is approximately 14.7 p.s.i.a. Adding 14.7 to a pressure expressed in units of p.s.i.g. will yield the absolute pressure, expressed as p.s.i.a.
                </P>
                <P>
                    17. 
                    <E T="03">p.s.i.g.</E>
                    —pounds per square inch gauge, a common unit of pressure; pressure expressed as p.s.i.g. corresponds to pressure relative to atmospheric pressure. At sea level, atmospheric pressure is approximately 14.7 p.s.i.a Subtracting 14.7 from a pressure expressed in units of p.s.i.a. yields the gauge pressure, expressed as p.s.i.g. At sea level the gauge pressure is 0 psig.
                </P>
                <P>
                    18. 
                    <E T="03">Qualified person</E>
                    —an individual who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate, or professional standing, or who, by extensive knowledge, training, and experience, successfully demonstrates an ability to solve or resolve problems relating to the subject matter, the work, or the project.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         Adapted from 29 CFR 1926.32(m).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    19. 
                    <E T="03">Working chamber</E>
                    —an enclosed space in the TBM in which CAWs perform interventions, and which is accessible only through a man-lock.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Safety and Health Practices</HD>
                <P>1. CBNA would have to adhere to the project-specific HOM submitted to OSHA as part of the application (see OSHA-2025-0002-0003). The HOM provides the minimum requirements regarding expected safety and health hazards (including anticipated geological conditions) and hyperbaric exposures during the tunnel construction project.</P>
                <P>
                    2. CBNA would have to demonstrate that the TBM on the project is designed, fabricated, inspected, tested, marked, and stamped in accordance with the requirements of ASME PVHO-1.2019 (or most recent edition of 
                    <E T="03">Safety Standards for Pressure Vessels for Human Occupancy</E>
                    ) for the TBM's hyperbaric chambers.
                </P>
                <P>3. CBNA would have to implement the safety and health instructions included in the manufacturer's operations manuals for the TBM, and the safety and health instructions provided by the manufacturer for the operation of decompression equipment.</P>
                <P>4. CBNA would have to ensure that there are no exposures to pressures greater than 49.5 p.s.i.g.</P>
                <P>5. CBNA would have to ensure that air or oxygen is the only breathing gas in the working chamber.</P>
                <P>6. CBNA would have to follow the 1992 French Decompression Tables for air or oxygen decompression as specified in the HOM; specifically, the extracted portions of the 1992 French Decompression tables titled, “French Regulation Air Standard Tables.”</P>
                <P>7. CBNA would have to equip man-locks used by employees with an air or oxygen delivery system, as specified by the HOM for the project. CBNA would be prohibited from storing in the tunnel any oxygen or other compressed gases used in conjunction with hyperbaric work.</P>
                <P>8. Workers performing hot work under hyperbaric conditions would have to use flame-retardant personal protective equipment and clothing.</P>
                <P>9. In hyperbaric work areas, CBNA would have to maintain an adequate fire-suppression system approved for hyperbaric work areas.</P>
                <P>
                    10. CBNA would have to develop and implement one or more Job Hazard Analysis (JHA) for work in the hyperbaric work areas, and review, periodically and as necessary (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     after making changes to a planned intervention that affects its operation), the contents of the JHAs with affected employees. The JHAs would have to include all the job functions that the risk assessment 
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     indicates are essential to prevent injury or illness.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         See ANSI/AIHA Z10-2012, American National Standard for Occupational Health and Safety Management Systems, for reference.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>11. CBNA would have to develop a set of checklists to guide compressed-air work and ensure that employees follow the procedures required by the proposed permanent variance and this interim order (including all procedures required by the HOM approved by OSHA for the project, which this proposed variance would incorporate by reference). The checklists would have to include all steps and equipment functions that the risk assessment indicates are essential to prevent injury or illness during compressed-air work.</P>
                <P>12. CBNA would have to ensure that the safety and health provisions of this project-specific HOM adequately protect the workers of all contractors and subcontractors involved in hyperbaric operations for the project to which the HOM applies.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Communication</HD>
                <P>CBNA would have to:</P>
                <P>1. Prior to beginning a shift, implement a system that informs workers exposed to hyperbaric conditions of any hazardous occurrences or conditions that might affect their safety, including hyperbaric incidents, gas releases, equipment failures, earth or rock-slides, cave-ins, flooding, fires, or explosions.</P>
                <P>2. Provide a power-assisted means of communication among affected workers and support personnel in hyperbaric conditions where unassisted voice communication is inadequate.</P>
                <P>(a) Use an independent power supply for powered communication systems, and these systems would have to operate such that use or disruption of any one phone or signal location will not disrupt the operation of the system from any other location.</P>
                <P>(b) Test communication systems at the start of each shift and as necessary thereafter to ensure proper operation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Worker Qualifications and Training</HD>
                <P>CBNA would have to:</P>
                <P>1. Ensure that each affected worker receives effective training on how to safely enter, work in, exit from, and undertake emergency evacuation or rescue from, hyperbaric conditions, and document this training.</P>
                <P>2. Provide effective instruction on hyperbaric conditions, before beginning hyperbaric operations, to each worker who performs work, or controls the exposure of others, and document this instruction. The instruction would need to include:</P>
                <P>(a) The physics and physiology of hyperbaric work;</P>
                <P>(b) Recognition of pressure-related injuries;</P>
                <P>
                    (c) Information on the causes and recognition of the signs and symptoms associated with decompression illness, and other hyperbaric intervention-related health effects (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     barotrauma, nitrogen narcosis, and oxygen toxicity);
                </P>
                <P>(d) How to avoid discomfort during compression and decompression;</P>
                <P>(e) Information the workers can use to contact the appropriate healthcare professionals should the workers have concerns that they may be experiencing adverse health effects from hyperbaric exposure; and</P>
                <P>(f) Procedures and requirements applicable to the employee in the project-specific HOM.</P>
                <P>
                    3. Repeat the instruction specified in paragraph (G) of this proposed condition periodically and as necessary (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     after making changes to its hyperbaric operations).
                    <PRTPAGE P="34911"/>
                </P>
                <P>4. When conducting training for its hyperbaric workers, make this training available to OSHA personnel and notify the OTPCA at OSHA's national office and OSHA's Baltimore/Washington Area Office before the training takes place.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Inspections, Tests, and Accident Prevention</HD>
                <P>1. CBNA would have to initiate and maintain a program of frequent and regular inspections of the TBM's hyperbaric equipment and support systems (such as temperature control, illumination, ventilation, and fire-prevention and fire-suppression systems), and hyperbaric work areas, as required under 29 CFR 1926.20(b)(2), including:</P>
                <P>(a) Developing a set of checklists to be used by a competent person in conducting weekly inspections of hyperbaric equipment and work areas; and</P>
                <P>(b) Ensuring that a competent person conducts daily visual checks and weekly inspections of the TBM.</P>
                <P>2. Remove from service any equipment that constitutes a safety hazard until it corrects the hazardous condition and has the correction approved by a qualified person.</P>
                <P>3. CBNA would have to maintain records of all tests and inspections of the TBM, as well as associated corrective actions and repairs, at the job site for the duration of the tunneling project and for 90 days after the final project report is submitted to OSHA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Compression and Decompression</HD>
                <P>CBNA would have to consult with its attending physician concerning the need for special compression or decompression exposures appropriate for CAWs not acclimated to hyperbaric exposure.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. Recordkeeping</HD>
                <P>In addition to completing OSHA Form 301 Injury and Illness Incident Report and OSHA Form 300 Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses, CBNA would have to maintain records of:</P>
                <P>
                    1. The date, times (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     time compression started, time spent compressing, time performing intervention, time spent decompressing), and pressure for each hyperbaric intervention.
                </P>
                <P>2. The names of all supervisors and DMTs involved for each intervention.</P>
                <P>3. The name of each individual worker exposed to hyperbaric pressure and the decompression protocols and results for each worker.</P>
                <P>4. The total number of interventions and the amount of hyperbaric work time at each pressure.</P>
                <P>5. The results of the post-intervention physical assessment of each CAW for signs and symptoms of decompression illness, barotrauma, nitrogen narcosis, oxygen toxicity or other health effects associated with work in compressed air for each hyperbaric intervention.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">K. Notifications</HD>
                <P>1. To assist OSHA in administering the conditions specified herein, CBNA would have to:</P>
                <P>
                    (a) Notify the OTPCA and the OSHA Baltimore/Washington Area Office, at 
                    <E T="03">www.osha.gov/contactus/byoffice</E>
                     of any recordable injury, illness, or fatality (by submitting the completed OSHA Form 301 Injuries and Illness Incident Report) resulting from exposure of an employee to hyperbaric conditions, including those that do not require recompression treatment (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     nitrogen narcosis, oxygen toxicity, barotrauma), but still meet the recordable injury or illness criteria of 29 CFR 1904. The notification would have to be made within 8 hours of the incident or 8 hours after becoming aware of a recordable injury, illness, or fatality; a copy of the incident investigation (OSHA Form 301 Injuries and Illness Incident Report) must be submitted to OSHA within 24 hours of the incident or 24 hours after becoming aware of a recordable injury, illness, or fatality. In addition to the information required by OSHA Form 301 Injuries and Illness Incident Report, the incident-investigation report would have to include a root-cause determination, and the preventive and corrective actions identified and implemented.
                </P>
                <P>(b) Provide certification to the OSHA Baltimore/Washington Area Office within 15 working days of the incident that CBNA informed affected workers of the incident and the results of the incident investigation (including the root-cause determination and preventive and corrective actions identified and implemented).</P>
                <P>(c) Notify the OTPCA and the OSHA Baltimore/Washington Area Office within 15 working days and in writing, of any change in the compressed-air operations that affects CBNA's ability to comply with the proposed conditions specified herein.</P>
                <P>(d) Upon completion of the Potomac River Tunnel Project, evaluate the effectiveness of the decompression tables used throughout the project, and provide a written report of this evaluation to the OTPCA and the OSHA Baltimore/Washington Area Office within 30 days after the workers final day onsite.</P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P>The evaluation report would have to contain summaries of: (1) The number, dates, durations, and pressures of the hyperbaric interventions completed; (2) decompression protocols implemented (including composition of gas mixtures (air and/or oxygen), and the results achieved; (3) the total number of interventions and the number of hyperbaric incidents (decompression illnesses and/or health effects associated with hyperbaric interventions as recorded on OSHA Form 301 Injuries and Illness Incident Report and OSHA Form 300 Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses, and relevant medical diagnoses, and treating physicians' opinions); and (4) root causes of any hyperbaric incidents, and preventive and corrective actions identified and implemented.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>(e) To assist OSHA in administering the proposed conditions specified herein, inform the OTPCA and the OSHA Baltimore/Washington Area Office as soon as possible, but no later than seven (7) days, after it has knowledge that it will:</P>
                <P>(i) Cease doing business;</P>
                <P>(ii) Change the location and address of the main office for managing the tunneling operations specified herein; or</P>
                <P>(iii) Transfer the operations specified herein to a successor company.</P>
                <P>(f) Notify all affected employees of this proposed permanent variance by the same means required to inform them of its application for a permanent variance.</P>
                <P>2. OSHA would have to approve the transfer of the permanent variance to a successor company through a new application for a permanent variance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Authority and Signature</HD>
                <P>Amanda Laihow, Acting Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210, authorized the preparation of this notice. Accordingly, the agency is issuing this notice pursuant to 29 U.S.C. 655(6)(d), Secretary of Labor's Order No. 7-2025 (90 FR 27878, June 30, 2025), and 29 CFR 1905.11.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed at Washington, DC, on July 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Amanda Laihow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13885 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="34912"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NATIONAL ARCHIVES AND RECORDS ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[NARA-25-0009; NARA-2025-031]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Records Schedules; Availability and Request for Comments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability of proposed records schedules; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) publishes notice of certain Federal agency requests for records disposition authority (records schedules). We publish notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         and on 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         for records schedules in which agencies propose to dispose of records they no longer need to conduct agency business. We invite public comments on such records schedules.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>We must receive responses on the schedules listed in this notice by September 10, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view a records schedule in this notice, or submit a comment on one, use the following address: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/NARA-25-0009/document</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        This is a direct link to the schedules posted in the docket for this notice on 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                         You may submit comments by the following method:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         On the website, enter either of the numbers cited at the top of this notice into the search field. This will bring you to the docket for this notice, in which we have posted the records schedules open for comment. Each schedule has a `comment' button so you can comment on that specific schedule. For more information on 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         and on submitting comments, see their FAQs at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/faq.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        If you are unable to comment via 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov,</E>
                         you may email us at 
                        <E T="03">request.schedule@nara.gov</E>
                         for instructions on submitting your comment. You must cite the control number of the schedule you wish to comment on. You can find the control number for each schedule in parentheses at the end of each schedule's entry in the list at the end of this notice.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rachel Ban Tonkin, Records Management Operations, by email at 
                        <E T="03">rachel.bantonkin@nara.gov</E>
                         or at 301-837-2039. For information about records schedules, contact Records Management Operations by email at 
                        <E T="03">request.schedule@nara.gov</E>
                         or by phone at 301-837-2039.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Comment Procedures</HD>
                <P>We are publishing notice of records schedules in which agencies propose to dispose of records they no longer need to conduct agency business. We invite public comments on these records schedules, as required by 44 U.S.C. 3303a(a), and list the schedules at the end of this notice by agency and subdivision requesting disposition authority.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, this notice lists the organizational unit(s) accumulating the records or states that the schedule has agency-wide applicability. It also provides the control number assigned to each schedule, which you will need if you submit comments on that schedule. We have uploaded the records schedules and accompanying appraisal memoranda to the 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     docket for this notice as “other” documents. Each records schedule contains a full description of the records at the file unit level as well as their proposed disposition. The appraisal memorandum for the schedule includes information about the records.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We will post comments, including any personal information and attachments, to the public docket unchanged. Because comments are public, you are responsible for ensuring that you do not include any confidential or other information that you or a third party may not wish to be publicly posted. If you want to submit a comment with confidential information or cannot otherwise use the 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     portal, you may contact 
                    <E T="03">request.schedule@nara.gov</E>
                     for instructions on submitting your comment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We will consider all comments submitted by the posted deadline and consult as needed with the Federal agency seeking the disposition authority. After considering comments, we may or may not make changes to the proposed records schedule. The schedule is then sent for final approval by the Archivist of the United States. After the schedule is approved, we will post on 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     a “Consolidated Reply” summarizing the comments, responding to them, and noting any changes we made to the proposed schedule. You may elect at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     to receive updates on the docket, including an alert when we post the Consolidated Reply, whether or not you submit a comment. If you have a question, you can submit it as a comment, and can also submit any concerns or comments you would have to a possible response to the question. We will address these items in consolidated replies along with any other comments submitted on that schedule.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We will post schedules on our website in the Records Control Schedule (RCS) Repository, at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.archives.gov/records-mgmt/rcs,</E>
                     after the Archivist approves them. The RCS contains all schedules approved since 1973.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>Each year, Federal agencies create billions of records. To control this accumulation, agency records managers prepare schedules proposing retention periods for records and submit these schedules for NARA's approval. Once approved by NARA, records schedules provide mandatory instructions on what happens to records when no longer needed for current Government business. The records schedules authorize agencies to preserve records of continuing value in the National Archives or to destroy, after a specified period, records lacking continuing administrative, legal, research, or other value. Some schedules are comprehensive and cover all the records of an agency or one of its major subdivisions. Most schedules, however, cover records of only one office or program or a few series of records. Many of these update previously approved schedules, and some include records proposed as permanent.</P>
                <P>Agencies may not destroy Federal records without the approval of the Archivist of the United States. The Archivist grants this approval only after thorough consideration of the records' administrative use by the agency of origin, the rights of the Government and of private people directly affected by the Government's activities, and whether or not the records have historical or other value. Public review and comment on these records schedules is part of the Archivist's consideration process.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Schedules Pending</HD>
                <P>1. Department of Agriculture, Rural Development, Water and Environmental Program Records (DAA-0572-2025-0001).</P>
                <P>2. Department of Justice, Department-wide, Witness Security Program Records (DAA-0060-2022-0019).</P>
                <P>3. Department of State, Department-wide, Miscellaneous Unidentified (Records N2-59-25-001).</P>
                <P>4. Department of State, Records of the U.S. High Commissioner for Germany, Inventory Sheets (N2-466-24-001).</P>
                <P>
                    5. Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34913"/>
                    Adjudication Docket Records in Aviation Safety Proceedings and Acquisition Dispute Proceedings (DAA-0237-2024-0013).
                </P>
                <P>6. Department of Transportation, National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, Highway Safety Research Development Project Files (DAA-0416-2025-0003).</P>
                <P>7. Department of Transportation, National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, National Emergency Medical Services Information System (DAA-0416-2025-0002).</P>
                <P>8. Department of Transportation, Office of the Secretary of Transportation, Correspondence (DAA-0398-2024-0004).</P>
                <P>9. National Endowment for the Humanities, Agency Wide, Comprehensive Records Schedule (DAA-0288-2020-0014).</P>
                <P>10. United States Capitol Police, Agency-wide, Surveillance Recordings (DAA-0603-2024-0002).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>William P. Fischer,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Chief Records Officer for the U.S. Government.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13922 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7515-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NUCLEAR WASTE TECHNICAL REVIEW BOARD</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Board Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>The U.S. Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board will hold a hybrid (in-person/virtual) public meeting on August 27, 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Board meeting:</E>
                     August 27, 2025
                    <E T="03">—</E>
                    The U.S. Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board will hold a hybrid (in-person/virtual) meeting in Arlington, Virginia, on Wednesday, August 27, 2025, to receive program updates from Department of Energy's (DOE) Office of Spent Fuel and High-Level Waste Disposition, within the Office of Nuclear Energy (DOE-NE).
                </P>
                <P>Pursuant to its authority under section 5051 of Public Law 100-203, Nuclear Waste Policy Amendments Act (NWPAA) of 1987, the U.S. Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board will hold a hybrid (in-person/virtual) meeting in Arlington, Virginia, on Wednesday, August 27, 2025, to review information on the U.S. Department of Energy's (DOE) activities to manage spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste and to receive program updates from DOE's Office of Nuclear Energy (DOE-NE). Senior leaders from DOE-NE will provide an overview of the activities and new priorities of the DOE Office of Spent Fuel and High-Level Waste Disposition (NE-8). DOE staff will also provide updates on the activities of the Office of Disposal Research &amp; Development (NE-81), the Office of Storage &amp; Transportation (NE-82), and the Office of Consent-Based Siting (NE-83).</P>
                <P>
                    The hybrid (in-person/virtual) meeting will be held at the Crystal Gateway Marriott Hotel at 1700 Richmond Highway in Arlington, Virginia. The hotel telephone number is (703) 920-3230. The hotel website is 
                    <E T="03">www.marriott.com/en-us/hotels/wasgw-crystal-gateway-marriott/.</E>
                     On Wednesday, August 27, the meeting will begin at 8:00 a.m. Eastern Daylight Time (EDT) and is scheduled to adjourn at approximately 4:00 p.m. EDT. DOE speakers will be senior representatives of the Office of Spent Fuel and High-Level Waste Disposition. A detailed meeting agenda will be available on the Board's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nwtrb.gov</E>
                     approximately one week before the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>The meeting will be open to the public, and there will be an opportunity for public comment at the end of the meeting. Those attending the meeting in person and wishing to provide oral comments are encouraged to sign-in using the Public Comment Register at the check-in table near the entrance to the meeting room. Oral commenters will be taken in the order in which they signed in. Public comments may also be submitted during the meeting via the online meeting viewing platform, using the “Comment for the Record” form. Comments submitted online during the day of the meeting may be read into the record by Board staff during the public comment period if time allows. Depending on the number of speakers and online comments, a time limit on individual remarks may be set. Written comments of any length may be submitted to the Board staff by mail or electronic mail. Comments received in writing will be included in the meeting record, which will be posted on the Board's website. An archived recording of the meeting will be available on the Board's website following the meeting, and a transcript of the meeting will be available on the website by November 1, 2025.</P>
                <P>The Board is an independent federal agency in the Executive Branch. It was established in the Nuclear Waste Policy Amendments Act of 1987 (Pub. L. 100-203) to perform ongoing evaluation of the technical and scientific validity of U.S. Department of Energy activities related to developing and implementing a program for the management and disposal of spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste, in accordance with the terms of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended. Board members serve part-time and are appointed by the President from a list of nominees submitted by the National Academy of Sciences. The Board reports its findings, conclusions, and recommendations to Congress and the Secretary of Energy. Board reports, correspondence, congressional testimony, meeting transcripts, and related materials are posted on the Board's website.</P>
                <P>
                    For information regarding the meeting, contact Mr. Christopher Burk at 
                    <E T="03">burk@nwtrb.gov,</E>
                     or by phone at 703-235-4486, or Dr. Hundal “Andy” Jung at 
                    <E T="03">jung@nwtrb.gov.</E>
                     For information on meeting logistics, contact Ms. Davonya Barnes at 
                    <E T="03">barnes@nwtrb.gov,</E>
                     or by phone at 703-235-9141. All three may be reached by mail at 2300 Clarendon Boulevard, Suite 1300, Arlington, VA 22201-3367; or by fax at 703-235-4495.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: July 22, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Daniel Ogg, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Director, U.S. Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13936 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6820-AM-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">POSTAL REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Nos. MC2025-1577 and K2025-1570]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>New Postal Products</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Postal Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning a negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments are due:</E>
                         July 28, 2025.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.prc.gov.</E>
                         Those who cannot submit comments electronically should contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section by telephone for advice on filing alternatives.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Introduction</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        II. Public Proceeding(s)
                        <PRTPAGE P="34914"/>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Summary Proceeding(s)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405, the Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to Competitive negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition of a negotiated service agreement from the Competitive product list or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the Competitive product list.</P>
                <P>
                    The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">http://www.prc.gov</E>
                    ). Non-public portions of the Postal Service's request(s), if any, can be accessed through compliance with the requirements of 39 CFR 3011.301.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Docket No. RM2018-3, Order Adopting Final Rules Relating to Non-Public Information, June 27, 2018, Attachment A at 19-22 (Order No. 4679).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, that will be reviewed in a public proceeding as defined by 39 CFR 3010.101(p), the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each such request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 and 39 CFR 3000.114 (Public Representative). The Public Representative does not represent any individual person, entity or particular point of view, and, when Commission attorneys are appointed, no attorney-client relationship is established. Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each such request.</P>
                <P>The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) identified in Section II, if any, are consistent with the policies of title 39. Applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3035, and 39 CFR part 3041. Comment deadline(s) for each such request, if any, appear in Section II.</P>
                <P>
                    Section III identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, to add a standardized distinct product to the Competitive product list or to amend a standardized distinct product, the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. Standardized distinct products are negotiated service agreements that are variations of one or more Competitive products, and for which financial models, minimum rates, and classification criteria have undergone advance Commission review. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     39 CFR 3041.110(n); 39 CFR 3041.205(a). Such requests are reviewed in summary proceedings pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.325(c)(2) and 39 CFR 3041.505(f)(1). Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405(c)-(d), the Commission does not appoint a Public Representative or request public comment in proceedings to review such requests.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Public Proceeding(s)</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1577 and K2025-1570; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 79 to Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     July 18, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Katalin Clendenin; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     July 28, 2025.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Summary Proceeding(s)</HD>
                <P>None. See Section II for public proceedings.</P>
                <P>
                    This Notice will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Erica A. Barker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13911 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-FW-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">POSTAL SERVICE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">TIME AND DATE: </HD>
                    <P>Thursday, August 7, 2025, at 9:00 a.m.; and Thursday, August 7, 2025, at 3:00 p.m.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PLACE: </HD>
                    <P>Washington, DC, at U.S. Postal Service Headquarters, 475 L'Enfant Plaza SW, in the Benjamin Franklin Room.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS: </HD>
                    <P>Thursday, August 7, 2025, at 9:00 a.m.—Closed. Thursday, August 7, 2025, at 3:00 p.m.—Open.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">MATTERS TO BE CONSIDERED:</HD>
                    <P/>
                </PREAMHD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Meeting of the Board of Governors</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Thursday, August 7, 2025, at 9:00 a.m. (Closed)</HD>
                <P>1. Strategic Matters.</P>
                <P>2. Financial and Operational Matters.</P>
                <P>3. Administrative Matters.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Thursday, August 7, 2025, at 3:00 p.m. (Open)</HD>
                <P>1. Remarks of the Chairwoman of the Board of Governors.</P>
                <P>2. Remarks of the Postmaster General and CEO.</P>
                <P>3. Approval of the Meeting Minutes.</P>
                <P>4. Committee Reports.</P>
                <P>5. Quarterly Financial Report.</P>
                <P>6. Quarterly Service Performance Report.</P>
                <P>7. Approval of Tentative Agenda for November 14 Open Meeting.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">General Counsel Certification:</E>
                     The General Counsel of the United States Postal Service has certified that the meeting may be closed under the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b.
                </P>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION: </HD>
                    <P>Lucy C. Trout, Acting Secretary of the Board of Governors, U.S. Postal Service, 475 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Washington, DC 20260-1000. Telephone: (202) 268-4800.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Lucy C. Trout,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13913 Filed 7-22-25; 11:15 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-12-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-103513; File No. SR-CboeEDGX-2025-055]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe EDGX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Opening Process for Simple Orders in Exclusively Listed Index Option Classes</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>July 21, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on July 9, 2025, Cboe EDGX Exchange, Inc. (“Exchange” or ““EDGX””) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    Cboe EDGX Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “EDGX Options”) proposes to amend its opening process for simple orders in exclusively listed index option classes.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The text of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34915"/>
                    proposed rule change is provided in Exhibit 5.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         An “exclusively listed option” is an option that may trade exclusively on an exchange (and its 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        affiliated exchange) because the exchange has an exclusive license to list and trade the option or has the proprietary rights in the interest underlying the option. An exclusively listed option is different than a “singly listed option,” which is an option that is not an “exclusively listed option” but that is listed by one exchange and not by any other national securities exchange.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's website (
                    <E T="03">http://markets.cboe.com/us/options/regulation/rule_filings/edgx/</E>
                    ), and at the Exchange's Office of the Secretary.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 21.7 regarding its opening process for simple orders for products it may exclusively list on the Exchange.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The Exchange previously submitted the proposed rule change on May 27, 2025 (SR-CboeEDGX-2025-046). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 103205 (June 6, 2025), 90 FR 24845, (June 12, 2025) (SR-CboeEDGX-2025-046). The Exchange is withdrawing SR-CboeEDGX-2025-046 and submitting this filing to revise certain changes proposed in that filing
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Current Standard Opening Process</HD>
                <P>
                    Currently, following the occurrence of an opening rotation trigger pursuant to Rule 21.7(d), the System conducts an opening rotation for an option series. Following the opening rotation trigger, the System conducts the Maximum Composite Width Check pursuant to Rule 21.7(e)(1) to determine if a series is eligible to open. If the Composite Market 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of a series is not crossed, and the Composite Width 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the series is less than or equal to the Maximum Composite Width (as defined in Rule 21.7 (a)), the series is eligible to open. Additionally, if the Composite Market of a series is not crossed, and the Composite Width of the series is greater than the Maximum Composite Width, but there are (i) no non-M Capacity 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (a) market orders or (b) buy (sell) limit orders with prices higher (lower) than the Composite Market midpoint and (ii) no orders or quotes marketable against each other, the series is eligible to open. Once a series become eligible to open, the System conducts the opening auction for the series (
                    <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                     determines the opening trade price pursuant to Rule 21.7(e)(2) and opens the series pursuant to Rule 21.7(e)(3)). The Exchange may also determine to compel a series to open in the interest of fair and orderly markets, including if the opening width is wider than the Maximum Composite Width, pursuant to Rule 21.7(h).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The term “Composite Market” means the market for a series comprised of (1) the higher of the then-current best appointed Market-Maker bulk message bid on the Exchange and the away best bid (“ABB”) (if there is an ABB) and (2) the lower of the then-current best appointed Market-Maker bulk message offer on the Exchange and the away best offer (“ABO”) (if there is an ABO). The term “Composite Bid (Offer)” means the bid (offer) used to determine the Composite Market. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The term “Composite Width” means the width of the Composite Market (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the width between the Composite Bid and the Composite Offer) of a series. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         A non-M Capacity order is a non-Market Maker order. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 16.1, definition of Capacity for a list of other Capacities that may be attached to an order.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Currently, if a series cannot satisfy these conditions described above (and thus is not eligible to open), if there is no Composite Market, or if the Composite Market of a series is crossed, the series is ineligible to open.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     When that occurs, the Queuing Period 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for the series continues (including the dissemination of opening auction updates) until (i) the Maximum Composite Width Check is satisfied and the Composite Market is not crossed; (ii) there are (a) no non-M Capacity (x) market orders or (y) buy (sell) limit orders with prices higher (lower) than the Composite Market midpoint and (b) no orders or quotes marketable against each other if the Maximum Composite Width is not satisfied and the Composite Market is not crossed, or (iii) t the Exchange determines to open the series pursuant to Rule 21.7(h). As described further herein, the Exchange may now manually increase the prescribed Maximum Composite Width during the Queuing Period in order to open up an exclusively listed option series.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(e)(1)(C).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The term “Queuing Period” means the time period prior to the initiation of an opening rotation during which the System accepts orders and quotes in the Queuing Book (the book into which Users may submit orders for participation in the opening rotation) for participation in the opening rotation for the applicable trading session. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         the definition of Maximum Composite Width, which permits the Exchange to modify the Maximum Composite Width during the opening auction process (which modifications the Exchange disseminates to all subscribers via the Exchange's data feeds that deliver opening auction updates) in Rule 21.7(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Current Forced Opening Procedures for Equity and ETP Option Classes</HD>
                <P>
                    However, currently, if a series in an equity or ETP option class is unable to open because it does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width Check within an Exchange-designated time period and the Composite Market is not crossed, the System forces the series to open after that time period upon the System's observation of an ABBO 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (with a non-zero offer) for the series.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         The term “ABBO” means the best bid(s) or offer(s) disseminated by other Eligible Exchanges (as defined in Rule 27.1(a)(7)) and calculated by the Exchange based on market information the Exchange receives from OPRA. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 16.1.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(e)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Background on the Current Opening Procedures for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>
                    As mentioned above, and as described further herein, the Exchange may now manually force open a series that does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width by increasing the prescribed Maximum Composite Width during the Queuing Period in order to open up a series.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange currently exercises more discretion through this manual process then it would through the proposed automated process as it must manually review which series are not open and can determine whether it wants to force the series open. In neither the existing process nor in the proposed automated process through the proposed modified forced open rule is there are an ABBO looked to (as it does not exist).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         the definition of Maximum Composite Width, which permits the Exchange to modify the Maximum Composite Width during the opening auction process (which modifications the Exchange disseminates to all subscribers via the Exchange's data feeds that deliver opening auction updates) in Rule 21.7(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    However, under the existing manual process to increase the Maximum Composite Width, if there are no Market Maker orders, and thus no Composite Width for the Exchange to manually increase, a series will not open, unless the Exchange deems it necessary for fair and orderly markets and opens a series pursuant to Rule 21.7(h). The new rule proposes that a forced open shall occur if there is no Composite Market so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed. As described in further detail below, the Exchange believes this is in the best interest of market participants, as it is the case for some Market Makers that they may not provide on-screen liquidity until after 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34916"/>
                    they receive the opening trigger notification.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For these reasons, the Exchange believes it is in the best interest to open up these series even if no Composite Market exists and no non-M Capacity orders are crossed.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Of further note, the Exchange's affiliated options exchange, Cboe Exchange, Inc. (“Cboe Options”), generally has a strong floor presence for exclusively listed options, and it may be the case while there is no Composite Market on screen, that there are Market Makers on the floor that can fill customer orders. The Exchange and its affiliated options exchanges are all proposing to modify its existing forced opening procedures to include exclusively listed options.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange also notes that it may use Rule 21.7(h) to deviate from the standard opening process, including: (i) adjusting the timing of the opening rotation in any option class, (ii) modifying any time periods described in Rule 21.7, and (iii) compelling a series open, even if the Maximum Composite Width check is not satisfied, but these events may only happen manually if the Exchange determines it is necessary in the interests of a fair and orderly market. The Exchange notes that it will retain this authority still under the new proposed forced opening rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposed Forced Opening Procedures for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule change expands the existing forced opening provision to now apply to exclusively listed option series, except that (i) the ABBO will not be used as a triggering factor to open a series as there is no ABBO for the exclusively listed option series; (ii) if the Composite Market is too wide, a series will open so long as the Composite Market is not crossed and there are no non-M capacity orders that are crossed (unlike the existing forced opening provision which only requires that the Composite Market is not crossed and there is an ABBO) and (iii) the series may open if there is no Composite Market so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed.</P>
                <P>
                    Specifically, as proposed, if a series in an exclusively listed option class is unable to open because it does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width Check described above within a time period (which the Exchange determines for exclusively listed options 
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    ) after the occurrence of the opening rotation trigger for the class pursuant to Rule 21.7(d), and (i) the Composite Market is not crossed and no non-M Capacity orders are crossed or (ii) there is no Composite Market and there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed, the System forces the series to open after that time period. For a series subject to a forced opening, the opening trade price determination and series open set forth in Rule 21.7(e)(2) and (3) (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the opening auction) do not occur; instead, the System opens the series without a trade. This will permit a series to open for trading on the Exchange even though the market for the series on the Exchange may be wide (or if there are no quotes or orders on the book).
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As described above, the two primary distinctions between the existing manual process that is used to manually open exclusively listed options, where the Maximum Composite Width is manually widened, and the proposed forced opening process for exclusively listed options, are (i) the proposed automated process is more efficient and transparent process and (ii) an exclusively listed option series may still open even if there is no Composite Market so long as no non-M Capacity orders are crossed. However, as previously noted, the Exchange may also open up a series if it deems so necessary in the interest of a fair and orderly market pursuant to Rule 21.7(h).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The proposed rule change permits the Exchange to determine a different time period for all exclusively listed options than the time period determined for equity and ETP classes.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that a wide market is not a reason enough for not opening as a wide market may occur at any point during the trading day. As described further herein, it is more of a risk for participants to keep the market closed, preventing participants from managing their position exposure as other markets are already open.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    If a series satisfies the Maximum Composite Width Check prior to the end of the Exchange-determined time period, the series opens pursuant to Rule 21.7(d)(2) and (3) (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the standard opening auction process occurs for the series). For example, suppose the Exchange determined the “forced opening” timer for exclusively listed option series to be three minutes. If the opening trigger for an exclusively listed option series occurs at 9:30:05 Eastern time but the series does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width Check after the trigger, the System will force the series open after 9:33:05 Eastern time. However, if the series satisfies the Maximum Composite Width Check at 9:32:30, the series will open at that time in accordance with the normal opening auction process. The current rule still allows the market to open even if the market is wide by (i) manually increasing the Maximum Composite Width 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or (ii) allowing the series to open in accordance with Rule 5.31(e)(1)(B), which allows the series to open if the Composite Market of a series is not crossed, and the Composite Width of the series is greater than the Maximum Composite Width, but there are (i) no non-M Capacity (a) market orders or (b) buy (sell) limit orders with prices higher (lower) than the Composite Market midpoint and (ii) no orders or quotes marketable against each other.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 13.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">No ABBO Requirement for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>Given the current method of manually increasing the Maximum Composite Width as a way to force a series open if it does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width, the Exchange believes the proposed rule is a better alternative to open up a series for trading, as it allows for greater transparency and clearer expectations for market participants, as well as taking away the possibility of error from manual human intervention. As described further herein, the ABBO is not a requirement for the standard opening process for any option classes, including equity and ETP option classes. Specifically, if no away markets are open in a series, there would be no ABBO for that series and thus the Composite Market for the series (and thus whether the series would open) would be based solely on the Exchange's market for the series. Further, if the ABBO is wider than the Exchange's market for a series, the ABBO is also not a factor into whether the System opened the series. In those cases, whether an equity or ETF option series satisfied the Maximum Composite Width check would be based solely on the Exchange's market. With respect to the forced opening process for equity and ETP option classes, it may even be the case that the ABBO is wider than the Exchange's market.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Differences Between the Forced Opening Process for Equity and ETP Option Classes and the Proposed Process for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that it previously adopted a similar process to force an open for series in an equity or exchange-traded product option classes.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The only substantive differences within these two processes is that (i) the process for exclusively listed options will not rely on the additional requirement that the system observes an ABBO after the designated time period passes since exclusively listed options will not have an ABBO as the products are not listed on any other exchange; (ii) the process for exclusively listed options will also require that there are 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34917"/>
                    no non-M Capacity orders that are crossing (this is not a requirement for the existing equity and ETP option classes); and (iii) exclusively listed option series may open if there is no Composite Market so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossing.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 90969 (January 22, 2021), 86 FR 7433 (January 28, 2021) (SR-CboeEDGX-2021-005).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With the exception that there is not an ABBO that may be looked at first, that no non-M Capacity orders are crossed in the event the Composite Market is too wide, and that a Composite Market is not required to exist (so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed), all other protections that were put into place during the inception of the forced open for equity and ETP classes will also apply to the proposed forced open for exclusively listed options. Rule 21.7(f) provides that in the event of a forced opening of a series pursuant to proposed Rule 21.7(e)(4) or a compelled opening of a series pursuant to paragraph (h), the System enters all of a User's orders in that series in the Queuing Book 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     into the Book in the manner set forth in current Rule 21.7(f), unless a User instructs the System to cancel its market orders or all of its orders, in which case the System enters only the non-cancelled orders into the Book in this manner. Specifically, they will be processed in accordance with Rule 21.8 (as unexecuted orders and quotes are handled following the conclusion of the opening rotation), which describes how the System processes, handles, and executes orders. If any order or quote in the Queuing Book is marketable upon the forced opening (and the User does not instruct the System to cancel it as proposed), the System would execute marketable orders subject to the priority rules set forth in Rule 21.8. Any non-marketable order would enter the Book or cancel, subject to the User instructions. This proposed change provides Users with flexibility for automated handling of their orders in the event an exclusively listed option series opens with a wide market as opposed to the existing manual process where the Exchange manually increases the Maximum Composite Width to force an open.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         The term “Queuing Book” means the book into which Users may submit orders and quotes (and onto which GTC and GTD orders remaining on the Book from the previous trading session or trading day, as applicable, are entered) during the Queuing Period for participation in the applicable opening rotation. Orders and quotes on the Queuing Book may not execute until the opening rotation. The Queuing Book for the GTH opening auction process may be referred to as the “GTH Queuing Book,” and the Queuing Book for the RTH opening auction process may be referred to as the “RTH Queuing Book.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 13.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirements that the rules of an exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirement that the rules of an exchange not be designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In particular, the Exchange believes the proposed forced opening process for simple orders in its exclusively listed option series will remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system and protect investors. The proposed rule change will provide for a series to open for trading on the Exchange sooner than it may automatically open currently. The Exchange believes the proposed rule change will benefit investors, because it may permit these options to open sooner and increase the times during which investors may conduct trading in these options, allowing participants to trade, hedge exposure, and exit positions in a timely manner. While the width of Market-Maker quotes on the Exchange (and thus the Composite Width) for an exclusively listed option series may be wider than the Maximum Composite Width 
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or, no Market-Maker quotes for an exclusively listed option series are present in the book (and thus there is no Composite Market for the series), the Exchange believes it is reasonable to open the series after a certain amount of time has passed. The Exchange further notes that it does not believe wide Market Maker quotes in and of itself is an adequate reason to delay the opening, as that may occur at any time during the trading day. The Exchange understands from customers they would prefer to be able to begin trading the Exchange's exclusively listed index options without undue delay, even in a wide market, in a timeframe more closely aligned with equities and ETP options 
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (there have been delays as long as ten to fifteen minutes after markets open). A delayed opening may leave participants unable to efficiently hedge, exit, and otherwise manage positions as needed, particularly because the value of the index may be changing given that the stocks comprising the index are open for trading. As a result, a delayed opening may create more investment risk for market participants than opening with a market comprised of wide or no Market-Maker quotes (which as noted above, is a market condition that may occur at any time). Additionally, the proposed ability of Users to cancel orders in the event of a forced opening will provide Users with additional protection.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         The Exchange notes pursuant to 21.7(e)(1)(B), there are currently instances in which the Exchange will open for trading despite the Composite Market Width being larger than the Maximum Composite Width.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(e)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As discussed above, the Exchange currently has the authority, when it deems necessary, to deviate from the standard opening process, including: (i) adjusting the timing of the opening market rotation in any option class, (ii) modifying any time periods described in Rule 21.7, and (iii) compelling a series open, even if the Maximum Composite Width check is not satisfied, but these events may only happen manually if the Exchange determines it is necessary in the interests of a fair and orderly market.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed rule change is consistent with the authority granted under Rule 21.7(h). Furthermore, this proposed rule change creates an automated compelled opening in certain circumstances by not needing to rely on the manual process of increasing the Maximum Composite Width that may currently be used under the definition of Maximum Composite Width under Rule 21.7(a), with the exception that a series may be forced open under this proposed rule even if no Composite Market exists, so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders crossed. This will benefit investors by providing additional transparency to the Rules regarding when a series may open 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34918"/>
                    despite not satisfying the Maximum Composite Width check as well as remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system by automating an otherwise manual process. Furthermore, the Exchange believes it is in the best interest of investors to allow an exclusively listed option series to open even if there is no Composite Market, so long as no non-M Capacity orders are crossed. This continues to protect customer orders from executing at the open at a potentially erroneous price given that the requirement that there be no non-M Capacity orders crossed. By allowing these markets to open in a timely manner, market participants would be able to have their orders filled and manage their existing positions earlier, thus reducing potential investment risk associated with further delaying the open.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(h); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         definition of Maximum Composite Width and Opening Collar in Rule 21.7(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Further, as discussed above, the Exchange believes it is in the best interest of market participants to allow the Exchange discretion to determine a different time period for its exclusively listed options that may be different from the time period for its equity and ETP options. As noted, there are differences between these groups, notably, that exclusively listed options may also trade during the GTH trading session. Further, under Rule 21.7(h), the Exchange already has the authority to adjust any time periods under Rule 21.7, which include the forced open timers, when it deems necessary for a fair and orderly market. The Exchange proposes to make this discretion clear within the proposed rule, where the Exchange may have different timers for (i) equity and ETP options and (ii) exclusively listed options.</P>
                <P>Additionally, by establishing this process instead of manually increasing the Maximum Composite Width, the Exchange believes this provides greater transparency and clarity and better sets out expectations for participants. The Exchange notes that it still maintains its existing authority under Rule 21.7(h) to deviate from the standard manner of the opening auction process. The Exchange does not think that not having an ABBO (as none exists for exclusively listed options) is of note, as the Exchange manually forces an open now by increasing the Maximum Composite Width and an ABBO is not required under that procedure. Of further note, the ABBO is not a requirement for the standard opening process for any option classes, including equity and ETP option classes. Specifically, if no away markets are open inequity or ETP options, there would be no ABBO for that series and thus the Composite Market for the series (and thus whether the series would open) would be based solely on the Exchange's market for the series. Further, if the ABBO is wider than the Exchange's market for a series, the ABBO is also not a factor into whether the System opened the series. In those cases, whether an equity or ETF option series satisfied the Maximum Composite Width check would be based solely on the Exchange's market.</P>
                <P>Further, as previously discussed, the Exchange believes it furthers its goal of conducting fair and orderly markets by forcing its exclusively listed options to open if there is no Composite Market. In the event there is no Composite Market from there being no on-screen two-sided market from Market Maker bids and offers, and there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed, the Exchange believes it would benefit the market to move forward with opening, so customers may commence trading. As described above, the Exchange understands from market participants they would rather commence trading to manage their positions even if there are wide, or no, Market-Maker quotes on the book. Additionally, as previously noted the Exchange's affiliated options exchange, Cboe Exchange, Inc. generally has a strong floor presence for exclusively listed options, and it may be the case while there is no Composite Market on screen, that there are Market Makers on the floor that can fill customer orders. The Exchange and its affiliated options exchanges are all proposing to modify its existing forced opening procedures to include exclusively listed options.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because all Users may trade in any exclusively listed option series that opens subject to the proposed forced opening process. The proposed forced opening process for exclusively listed option series is also substantially similar to the current forced opening process for equity and ETP option series, with the exception that, (i) there is no ABBO for exclusively listed option series, and thus, is not a step in the forced opening process for the exclusively listed option series as described above; (ii) exclusively listed options shall also require that there are no non-M Capacity orders crossed; and (iii) a Composite Market is not required for exclusively listed options, as described above. Additionally, all Users will have the opportunity to instruct the System to cancel its market orders or all open orders in the event of a forced or otherwise manual opening. Cancellation of some or all of a User's orders in the event of such an opening would be voluntary and completely within the User's discretion.</P>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intermarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because the proposed rule change updates the opening process for exclusively listed options that may trade only on the Exchange. As discussed above, the proposed rule change will allow participants to begin trading, hedging exposure, and exiting positions in exclusively listed options in a timely manner, consistent with the timing and process the Exchange currently uses for equity and ETP options. The proposed flexibility for Users to instruct the System how to handle their orders in the event of a forced or manual opening applies only to how Users' orders on the Exchange will be handled in such a circumstance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not:</P>
                <P>A. significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest;</P>
                <P>B. impose any significant burden on competition; and</P>
                <P>
                    C. become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) 
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="34919"/>
                <P>At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission will institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-CboeEDGX-2025-055 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-CboeEDGX-2025-055. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-CboeEDGX-2025-055 and should be submitted on or before August 14, 2025.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13901 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-103510; File No. SR-CboeBZX-2025-092]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Fee Schedule Regarding Dedicated Cores</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>July 21, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on July 16, 2025, Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. (“Exchange” or “BZX”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items II and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend its fee schedule to adopt fees for Dedicated Cores. The text of the proposed rule change is provided in Exhibit 5.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's website (
                    <E T="03">http://markets.cboe.com/us/equities/regulation/rule_filings/BZX/</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend its fee schedule to adopt fees for Dedicated Cores.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The Exchange initially introduced pricing for Dedicated Cores on June 10, 2024 (SR-CboeBZX-2024-054). On August 1, 2024, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBZX-2024-075. On business date September 30, 2024, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBZX-2024-094. On November 26, 2024, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted this SR-CboeBZX-2024-122. On January 24, 2025, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBZX-2025-009. On March 12, 2025, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBZX-2025-041. On May 7, 2025, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBZX-2025-064. On July 2, 2025, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBZX-2025-085. On July 16, 2025, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted this filing.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    By way of background, the Exchange recently began to allow Users 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to assign a Single Binary Order Entry (“BOE”) logical order entry port 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to a single dedicated Central Processing Unit (CPU Core) (“Dedicated Core”). Historically, CPU Cores had been shared by logical order entry ports (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     multiple logical ports from multiple firms may connect to a single CPU Core). Use of Dedicated Cores however, can provide reduced latency, enhanced throughput, and improved performance since a firm using a Dedicated Core is utilizing the full processing power of a CPU Core instead of sharing that power with other firms. This offering is completely voluntary and is available to all Users that wish to purchase Dedicated Cores. Users may utilize BOE logical order entry ports on shared CPU Cores, either in lieu of, or in addition to, their use of Dedicated Core(s). As such, Users are able to operate across a mix of shared and dedicated CPU Cores which the Exchange believes provides additional risk and capacity management. Further, Dedicated Cores are not required nor necessary to participate on the Exchange 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34920"/>
                    and as such Users may opt not to use Dedicated Cores at all.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         A User may be either a Member or Sponsored Participant. The term “Member” shall mean any registered broker or dealer that has been admitted to membership in the Exchange, limited liability company or other organization which is a registered broker or dealer pursuant to Section 15 of the Act, and which has been approved by the Exchange. A Sponsored Participant may be a Member or non-Member of the Exchange whose direct electronic access to the Exchange is authorized by a Sponsoring Member subject to certain conditions. See Exchange Rule 11.3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Users may currently connect to the Exchange using a logical port available through an application programming interface (“API”), such as the Binary Order Entry (“BOE”) protocol. A BOE logical order entry port is used for order entry.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to assess the following monthly fees for Users that wish to use Dedicated Cores and adopt a maximum limit. First, the Exchange proposes to provide up to two Dedicated Cores to all Users who wish to use Dedicated Cores, at no additional cost. In the event that a User voluntarily chooses to use more than two Dedicated Cores, only then would the Exchange assess the following fees: $650 per Dedicated Core for 3-15 Dedicated Cores; $850 per Dedicated Core for 16-30 Dedicated Cores; and $1,050 per Dedicated Core for 31 or more Dedicated Cores. The proposed fees are progressive and the Exchange proposes to include the following example in the Fees Schedule to provide clarity as to how the fees will be applied. Particularly, the Exchange will provide the following example: if a User were to purchase 16 Dedicated Cores, it will be charged a total of $9,300 per month ($0 * 2) + ($650 * 13) + ($850 * 1). The Exchange also proposes to make clear in the Fees Schedule that the monthly fees are assessed and applied in their entirety and are not prorated. The Exchange notes the current standard fees assessed for BOE Logical Ports, whether used with Dedicated or shared CPU cores, will remain applicable and unchanged.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The Exchange currently assesses $550 per port per month. Port fees will also continue to be assessed on the first two Dedicated Cores that Users receive at no additional cost. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe BZX Equities Fee Schedule.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Since the Exchange currently has a finite amount of physical space in its data centers in which its servers (and therefore corresponding CPU Cores) are located, the Exchange also proposes to prescribe a maximum limit on the number of Dedicated Cores that Users may purchase each month. The purpose of establishing these limits is to manage the allotment of Dedicated Cores in a fair manner and to prevent the Exchange from being required to expend large amounts of limited resources in order to provide an unlimited number of Dedicated Cores. The Exchange previously established a limit for Members of a maximum number of 60 Dedicated Cores and Sponsoring Members a limit of a maximum number of 25 Dedicated Cores for each of their Sponsored Access relationships.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange has since been able to procure additional physical space in its third-party data century as well as additional servers with CPU Cores and also has a better understanding of User demand relative to its available space and available Dedicated Cores since the initial launch of Dedicated Cores. After seeing increased User demand, the Exchange proposed to increase the cap and provided that Members will be limited to a maximum number of 80 Dedicated Cores and Sponsoring Members will be limited to a maximum number of 35 Dedicated Cores for each of their Sponsored Access relationships.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange noted at that time that it would continue monitoring Dedicated Core interest by all Users and allotment availability with the goal of increasing these limits to meet Users' needs if and when the demand is there and/or the Exchange is able to accommodate additional Dedicated Cores. Since then, the Exchange has determined that it is able to accommodate an increased cap relative to current demand. As such, the Exchange proposed to increase the cap to 120 Dedicated Cores for Members, effective December 1, 2024.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Sponsoring Members will continue to be limited to a maximum of 35 Dedicated Cores for each of their Sponsored Access relationships.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 100395 (June 21, 2024), 89 FR 53687 (June 27, 2024) (SR-CboeBZX-2024-054).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 101302 (October 10, 2024), 89 FR 83727 (October 17, 2024) (SR-CboeBZX-2024-094).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The prescribed maximum quantity of Dedicated Cores for Members applies regardless of whether that Member purchases the Dedicated Cores directly from the Exchange and/or through a Service Bureau. In a Service Bureau relationship, a customer allows its MPID to be used on the ports of a technology provider, or Service Bureau. One MPID may be allowed on several different Service Bureaus.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         The fee tier(s) applicable to Sponsoring Members are determined on a per Sponsored Access relationship basis and not on the combined total of Dedicated Cores across Sponsored Users. For example, under the proposed changes, a Sponsoring Member that has three Sponsored Access relationships is entitled to a total of 105 Dedicated Cores for those 3 Sponsored Access relationships but would be assessed fees separately based on the 35 Dedicated Cores for each Sponsored User (instead of combined total of 105 Dedicated Cores). For example, a Sponsoring Member with 3 Sponsored Access relationships would pay $30,450 per month if each Sponsored Access relationship purchased the maximum 35 Dedicated Cores. More specifically, the Sponsoring Member would be provided 2 Dedicated Cores at no additional cost for each Sponsored User under Tier 1 (total of 6 Dedicated Cores at no additional cost) and provided an additional 8 Dedicated Cores at $650 each for each Sponsored User, 5 Dedicated Cores at $850 each for each Sponsored User and 20 Dedicated Cores at $1,050 each for each Sponsored User (combined total of 99 additional Dedicated Cores).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirements that the rules of an exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirement that the rules of an exchange not be designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers. The Exchange also believes the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)(4) 
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act, which requires that Exchange rules provide for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees, and other charges among its Members and other persons using its facilities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the proposal is reasonable because the Exchange is offering 
                    <E T="03">all</E>
                     User who voluntarily choose to utilize Dedicated Cores up to two Dedicated Cores at no additional cost. Notably, as of the beginning of May, of the Members that currently maintain Dedicated Cores, 23% maintain only 1 or 2 Dedicated Cores and therefore pay no additional fees.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange believes the proposed fees are reasonable because Dedicated Cores provide a valuable service in that it can provide reduced latency, enhanced throughput, and improved performance compared to use of a shared CPU Core since a firm using a Dedicated Core is utilizing the full processing power of a CPU Core. The Exchange also emphasizes however, that the use of Dedicated Cores is not necessary for trading and as noted above, is entirely optional. Users can also continue to access the Exchange through shared CPU Cores at no additional cost. Indeed, as of the beginning of May, only 36% of the Exchange's Members currently use Dedicated Cores and as noted above, of that 36%, only 23% take 1 or 2 Dedicated Cores at no additional cost. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34921"/>
                    Depending on a firm's specific business needs, the proposal enables Users to choose to use Dedicated Cores in lieu of, or in addition to, shared CPU Cores (or as emphasized, not use Dedicated Cores at all). If a User finds little benefit in having Dedicated Cores based on its business model and trading strategies, or determines Dedicated Cores are not cost-efficient for its needs or does not provide sufficient value to the firm, such User may continue its use of the shared CPU Cores, unchanged. The Exchange is not aware of any specific reason (operational or otherwise) why a firm would not partake in the use of the one to two free Dedicated Cores the Exchange offers. Indeed the Exchange does not believe that the set up a firm would undertake to use free Dedicated Cores offered by the Exchange is prohibitively difficult or burdensome; ultimately, whether or not a firm avails itself of the free Dedicated Cores is a business decision, and some firms may decide that the impact that Dedicated Cores may have is simply not beneficial or necessary to how that firm operates. The Exchange also has no plans to eliminate shared CPU Cores nor to require Users to purchase Dedicated Cores.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that its numbers only include Members since it does not have the same level of insight into customer segments for Sponsored Access.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange has seen general interest in Dedicated Cores from a variety of market participants, with varying size and business models. Such market participants include proprietary trading firms (who tend to be more latency sensitive), as well as sell-side market participants and buy-side market participants (who tend to be less latency sensitive). For background, proprietary trading firms utilize their own capital to trade without taking outside money from clients. Due to the nature of their respective businesses, the Exchange has classified proprietary trading firms as latency sensitive, and other groups, such as buy-side hedge funds, sell-side banks and sell-side non-banks (such as agency brokers) as non-latency sensitive. Proprietary trading firms' strategies may range from, market making, to relative value trading and arbitrage—these all rely on profiting from general market activity and, generally, requires faster entry and exit into trades and positions making proprietary trading firms more latency sensitive than other market segments. Buy-side hedge funds, banks and agency brokers are not as latency sensitive as, generally, the strategy for hedge funds is based on overall long-term positioning in the market, and banks and agency brokers may profit from commissions of customer order flow; both are generally strategies that are not reliant on speed to the same extent proprietary trading firms are. Further, Users have various reasons for obtaining Dedicated Cores. Some Users for example, may be seeking to further reduce latency or increase execution determinism, whereas others may use Dedicated Cores as a general risk mitigation by siloing their respective activity. For example, by using the Dedicated Core(s) to silo its respective activity, a firm may be able to mitigate risk during periods of heightened volatility as the firm will not need to compete for a shared resource (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the shared core). Of further note, as of the beginning of May, only 64% of Members that are propriety trading firms (who again, generally tend to be more latency sensitive) utilize Dedicated Cores, and of that 64%, 25% are only utilizing the 1 to 2 free Dedicated Cores available to all Users. As mentioned above, some non-latency sensitive firms have chosen to also adopt Dedicated Cores. As of the beginning of May, 21% of Members that are not latency sensitive utilize Dedicated Cores, and of that 21%, 20% are only utilizing the 1 to 2 free Dedicated Cores available to all Users.
                </P>
                <P>The lack of universal, or even widespread, adoption by all such users therefore demonstrates that purchasing Dedicated Cores is not effectively a requirement to compete for any one type of market participant, including latency sensitive market participants. Instead, Dedicated Cores are an optional and voluntary connectivity offering, which market participants are free to choose whether or not to utilize based on whether they meet their unique business needs. Moreover, the Exchange has received overwhelming positive feedback and support for Dedicated Cores from the firms that have chosen to utilize these in furtherance of their respective needs, with some Users even noting that they have moved more of their order flow to the Exchange and its affiliated equities exchanges (the “Equities Exchanges”) as they have noticed both better fills and greater consistency of order execution at the Equities Exchanges. This demonstrates that despite any incurred costs for Users that choose to purchase Dedicated Cores, it is ultimately a net win for them as they benefit from better execution. The Exchange believes it also demonstrates that Users find the proposed fees to be both reasonable and have benefited from purchasing or, are alternatively benefiting from the proposed one or two free Dedicated Cores available at no additional cost. The Exchange believes this is shown by both the level of demand for Dedicated Cores and the feedback from market participants that have used the Dedicated Cores for its unique business needs, including as described above. The Exchange also believes it's notable that no negative comment letters in connection with the proposed pricing have been received since the Exchange first filed proposed fees for Dedicated Cores back on June 10, 2024. Additionally, as noted earlier, Users can (and many have) decide that utilizing even a free Dedicated Core is not needed for their business. The Exchange also notes it has not received any feedback for Users that raise concerns over the barrier to entry to use Dedicated Cores, including notably the free Dedicated Cores—nor is the Exchange aware of any reason why a firm would ultimately choose not to use the free Dedicated Cores, other than it is not necessary for its business. Ultimately, this is a business decision that each User must make and is best suited to determine and will ultimately depend on the priorities and strategies of that User's respective business needs.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also notes that at least one other exchange also has a comparable offering.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Nasdaq Stock Market, LLC (“Nasdaq”), introduced the Dedicated Ouch Port Infrastructure in 2014 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which allows a member firm to assign up to 30 of its OUCH ports to a dedicated server infrastructure for its exclusive use.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Dedicated OUCH server handles only the subscribing member firm's message traffic sent through their ports on the Dedicated OUCH to Nasdaq's system.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Similarly, as previously described, a Dedicated Core only handles that subscribing firm's messaging activity. Nasdaq notes that with its Dedicated OUCH offering, member firms can develop a tailored solution by controlling their message traffic in order to optimize their trading strategies.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As described above with Dedicated Cores, one of the benefits is greater execution determinism as subscribers only need to account for their order flow when using a Dedicated Core, similar to the existing Nasdaq Dedicated OUCH offering. In addition to using Dedicated Cores and Dedicated OUCH for the purpose of greater 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34922"/>
                    execution determinism, firms may also use either offering for greater risk mitigation as, with either offering, the subscribing firm only needs to take their specific messaging traffic into account. Nasdaq notes as well that its Dedicated OUCH offering is wholly optional and therefore member firms are not compelled to subscribe and that its offering is pro-competitive as it adds an additional connectivity option available to Nasdaq members.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Similar to the Dedicated OUCH offering, the Exchange has noted that no User is required to purchase or to use the two free Dedicated Cores offered to all Users.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         The Nasdaq Stock Market, Equity 7 Pricing Schedule, Section 115(g)(3), Dedicated Ouch Port Infrastructure.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 70693 (October 16, 2013), 78 FR 62761 (October 22, 2013) (SR-NASDAQ-2013-131).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         supra note 15.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 70036 (July 25, 2013), 78 FR 45993 (July 30, 2013) (SR-NASDAQ-2013-097).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         Id.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         Id.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Despite these similarities, there are some differences. Specifically, with the Nasdaq OUCH offering, a member firm would need to purchase an entire server, of which, 30 OUCH ports could be utilized on the Dedicated OUCH server—a participant may purchase up to four Dedicated OUCH servers based on its needs.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In contrast, the Exchange's offering allows for a purchase by cores (as opposed to an entire server), allowing a participant to more efficiently scale its business by purchasing only the number of cores that it needs. Ultimately, the Exchange's offering is more akin to a service offering while the Nasdaq offering is more akin to an infrastructure offering (and as such, the pricing structure does differ)—both offerings better enable a firm to utilize the full processing power of a CPU Core.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">https://nasdaqtrader.com/Trader.aspx?id=OUCH#:~:text=Each%20server%20can%20house%20up%20to%20a%20maximum,Nasdaq%20Market%20Sales%20at%20%2B1%20800%20846%200477.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A Dedicated OUCH Port Infrastructure subscription is available to a member firm for a fee of $5,000 per month, which is in addition to the standard fees assessed for each OUCH port. A one-time installation fee of $5,000 is assessed to subscribers for each Dedicated OUCH Port Server subscription.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In contrast, the Exchange offers 1-2 Dedicated Cores at no cost, making this widely available to any participant who may find a benefit from using this offering. Additionally, by the Exchange not charging an installation fee upfront, participants are able to try the offering at no cost, by receiving up to two Dedicated Cores at no cost to the User. The Exchange's model allows for widespread participation by all who wish to use Dedicated Cores—the steep initial cost of Nasdaq's model of spending, at a minimum, $10,000 for the first month requires a heavy investment, which in the case of smaller participants, may not be feasible. In contrast, the Exchange's model of providing up to two Dedicated Cores at no cost, allows participants to easily utilize this service if they believe it is helpful for their business needs. Moreover, the Exchange's service offering also provides more Users with more modest CPU capacity needs a zero-cost option, as well as the ability to buy only as many Dedicated Cores that they need, whereas Nasdaq's Dedicated OUCH offering requires a User to buy all cores offered on a single server (even if a firm does not have the corresponding full amount of 30 ports), with no discounted or fee waiver for the first two cores, as well as no ability to buy fewer cores than necessary.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         See The Nasdaq Stock Market Rulebook, Equity 7 Pricing Schedule.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Lastly, the Exchange emphasizes that order processing itself is not affected by the introduction of Dedicated Cores. No relevant changes are intended to the matching engine, which is, and remains, the main component of the Exchange's infrastructure being responsible for the actual processing of orders. While Users of Dedicated Cores may notice a latency reduction, this is an inherent byproduct of introducing improved technology.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         Moreover, there has been a longstanding history of exchanges providing enhanced technology where the latency reduction that follows is a natural result. For example, other exchanges may offer a variety of co-location services where subscribers of these services may benefit from lower latency based on the specific offering they choose based on their business needs. 
                        <E T="03">See e.g.</E>
                        <E T="03">,</E>
                         The Nasdaq Stock Market General 8 Connectivity, Section 1 Co-Location Services (demonstrating a range of cabinet offerings).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also believes that the proposed Dedicated Core fees are equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because they continue to be assessed uniformly to similarly situated Users in that all Users who choose to purchase Dedicated Cores will be subject to the same proposed tiered fee schedule. Moreover, all Users are entitled to up to 2 Dedicated Cores at no additional cost and, as previously discussed, as of the beginning of May, 23% of all Members that take Dedicated Cores (including both latency sensitive and non-latency sensitive Members) take only 1 or 2 Dedicated Cores at no additional cost. The Exchange believes the proposed ascending fee structure is also reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory as it is designed so that firms that use a higher allotment of the Exchange's finite number of Dedicated Cores pay higher rates, rather than placing that burden on market participants that have more modest needs who will have the flexibility of obtaining Dedicated Cores at lower price points in the lower tiers. As such, the proposed fees do not favor certain categories of market participants in a manner that would impose a burden on competition; rather, the ascending fee structure reflects the (finite) resources consumed by the various needs of market participants—that is, the lowest Dedicated Core consuming Users pay the least, and highest Dedicated Core consuming Users pay the most. The Exchange believes that such pricing further creates a lower barrier to entry for all Users, making this service widely available to all who deem it helpful for their business, including those with more modest needs. Other exchanges similarly assess higher fees to those that consume more Exchange resources, including the Exchange on its options platform.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Moreover, those consuming more Dedicated Cores do so if they find a benefit in having higher quantities of Dedicated Cores based on their respective business needs. The proposed tier structure is also designed to encourage firms to manage their needs in a fair manner and to prevent the Exchange from being required to expend large amounts of limited resources in order to provide an additional number of Dedicated Cores or put the Exchange in a position that it cannot accommodate demand. Moreover, as discussed above and in more detail below, the Exchange cannot currently offer an unlimited number of Dedicated Cores due in part to physical space constraints in the third-party data center. The Exchange believes the proposed ascending fee structure is therefore another appropriate means, in conjunction with an established cap, to manage this finite resource and ensure the resource is apportioned more fairly.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See e.g.,</E>
                         Cboe U.S. Options Fee Schedule, BZX Options, Options Logical Port Fees, Ports with Bulk Quoting Capabilities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes it is reasonable to limit the number of Dedicated Cores Users can purchase because the Exchange has a finite amount of space in its third-party data centers to accommodate CPU cores, including Dedicated Cores. The Exchange must also take into account timing and cost considerations in procuring additional Dedicated Cores and related hardware such as servers, switches, optics and cables, as well as the readiness of the Exchange's data center space to accommodate additional Dedicated Cores in the Exchange's respective Order Handler Cabinets.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Moreover, procuring data center space has grown to be more challenging than it was five years ago with the increased demand for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34923"/>
                    data center space. For example, the U.S. colocation data center market has doubled in size in just four years. In addition to the Exchange's rollout of Dedicated Cores, the Exchange is mindful of its other business areas and the need to continue to be mindful of its existing, external restraints in procuring additional space in this area. The Exchange has, and will continue to, monitor market participant demand and space availability and endeavor to adjust the limit if and when the Exchange is able to acquire additional space and power within the third-party data centers and/or additional CPU Cores to accommodate additional Dedicated Cores.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange monitors its capacity and data center space and thus is in the best place to determine these limits and modify them as appropriate in response to changes to this capacity and space, as well as market demand. For example, the Exchange's affiliate Cboe EDGA Exchange, Inc. has increased the prescribed maximum limit three times since the launch of Dedicated Cores on its exchange on February 26, 2024 as a result of evaluating the demand relative to Dedicated Cores availability.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed increased limits continue to apply uniformly to similarly situated market participants (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     all Members are subject to the same limit and all Sponsored Participants are subject to the same limit, respectively). The Exchange believes it's not unfairly discriminatory to provide for different limits for different types of Users. For example, the Exchange believes it's not unfairly discriminatory to provide for an initial lower limit to be allocated for Sponsored Participants because unlike Members, Sponsored Participants are able to access the Exchange without paying a Membership Fee. Members also have more regulatory obligations and risk that Sponsored Participants do not. For example, while Sponsored Participants must agree to comply with the Rules of the Exchange, it is the Sponsoring Member of that Sponsored Participant that remains ultimately responsible for all orders entered on or through the Exchange by that Sponsored Participant. The industry also has a history of applying fees differently to Members as compared to Sponsored Participants.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Lastly, the Exchange believes its proposed maximum limits, and distinction between Members and Sponsored Participants, is another appropriate means to help the Exchange manage its allotment of Dedicated Cores and better ensure this finite resource is apportioned fairly.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that it cannot currently convert shared CPU cores into Dedicated Cores.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         As of the beginning of May, the Exchange noted that only one User that has Dedicated Cores is at or near the maximum limits. As of the beginning of May, the average number of Dedicated Cores used for the Exchange is 23.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 99983 (April 17, 2024), 89 FR 30418 (April 23, 2024) (SR-CboeEDGA-2024-014) Securities Exchange Act Release No. 100300 (June 10, 2024), 89 FR 50653 (June 14, 2024) (SR-CboeEDGA-2024-020); and Securities Exchange Act Release No. 100736 (August 21, 2024), 89 FR 67696 (August 15, 2024) (SR-CboeEDGA-2024-032).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See e.g.,</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 68342 (December 3, 2012), 77 FR 73096 (December 7, 2012) (SR-CBOE-2012-114).and Securities Exchange Act Release No. 66082 (January 3, 2012), 77 FR 1101 (January 9, 2012) (SR-C2-2011-041).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because the proposed tiered fee structure will apply equally to all similarly situated Users that choose to use Dedicated Cores. As discussed above, Dedicated Cores are optional and Users may choose to utilize Dedicated Cores, or not, based on their views of the additional benefits and added value provided by utilizing a Dedicated Core. The Exchange believes the proposed fees will be assessed proportionately to the potential value or benefit received by Users with a greater number of Dedicated Cores and notes that Users may determine at any time to cease using Dedicated Cores. As discussed, Users can also continue to access the Exchange through shared CPU Cores at no additional cost. Finally, all Users will be entitled to two Dedicated Cores at no additional cost.</P>
                <P>
                    Next, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change does not impose any burden on intermarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. As previously discussed, the Exchange operates in a highly competitive market, including competition for exchange memberships. Market Participants have numerous alternative venues that they may participate on, including 15 other equities exchanges, as well as off-exchange venues, where comparable products are available for trading. Indeed, participants can readily choose to submit their order flow to other exchange and off-exchange venues if they deem fee levels at those other venues to be more favorable. Further, as described above, Nasdaq also already provides a similar offering.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         The Nasdaq Stock Market, Equity 7 Pricing Schedule, Section 115(g)(3), Dedicated Ouch Port Infrastructure.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Moreover, the Commission has repeatedly expressed its preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. Specifically, in Regulation NMS, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.” 
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The fact that this market is competitive has also long been recognized by the courts. In NetCoalition v. Securities and Exchange Commission, the D.C. Circuit stated as follows: “[n]o one disputes that competition for order flow is `fierce.' . . . As the SEC explained, `[i]n the U.S. national market system, buyers and sellers of securities, and the broker-dealers that act as their order-routing agents, have a wide range of choices of where to route orders for execution'; [and] `no exchange can afford to take its market share percentages for granted' because `no exchange possesses a monopoly, regulatory or otherwise, in the execution of order flow from broker dealers'. . . .”.
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe its proposed change imposes any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 51808 (June 9, 2005), 70 FR 37496, 37499 (June 29, 2005).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         NetCoalition v. SEC, 615 F.3d 525, 539 (D.C. Cir. 2010) (quoting Securities Exchange Act Release No. 59039 (December 2, 2008), 73 FR 74770, 74782-83 (December 9, 2008) (SR-NYSEArca-2006-21)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and paragraph (f) of Rule 19b-4 
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder. At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34924"/>
                    Commission will institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-CboeBZX-2025-092 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-CboeBZX-2025-092. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-CboeBZX-2025-092 and should be submitted on or before August 14, 2025.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>35</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13895 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-103509; File No. SR-CBOE-2025-047]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Opening Process for Simple Orders in Exclusively Listed Index Option Classes</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>July 21, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on July 9, 2025, Cboe Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “Cboe Options”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    Cboe Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “Cboe Options”) proposes to amend its opening process for simple orders in exclusively listed index option classes.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The text of the proposed rule change is provided in Exhibit 5.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         An “exclusively listed option” is an option that may trade exclusively on an exchange (and its affiliated exchange) because the exchange has an exclusive license to list and trade the option or has the proprietary rights in the interest underlying the option. An exclusively listed option is different than a “singly listed option,” which is an option that is not an “exclusively listed option” but that is listed by one exchange and not by any other national securities exchange.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's website (
                    <E T="03">http://www.cboe.com/AboutCBOE/CBOELegalRegulatoryHome.aspx</E>
                    ) and at the Exchange's Office of the Secretary.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 5.31 regarding its opening process for simple orders for products it may exclusively list on the Exchange (except for SPX constituent option series on exercise settlement value determination dates 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    ).
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(j).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The Exchange previously submitted the proposed rule change on May 22, 2025 (SR-CBOE-2025-038). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 103184 (June 4, 2025), 90 FR 24471, (June 10, 2025) (SR-CBOE-2025-038). The Exchange is withdrawing SR-CBOE-2025-038 and submitting this filing to revise certain changes proposed in that filing
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Current Standard Opening Process</HD>
                <P>
                    Currently, following the occurrence of an opening rotation trigger pursuant to Rule 5.31(d), the System conducts an opening rotation for an option series. Following the opening rotation trigger, the System conducts the Maximum Composite Width Check pursuant to Rule 5.31(e)(1) to determine if a series is eligible to open. If the Composite Market 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of a series is not crossed, and the Composite Width 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the series is less than or equal to the Maximum Composite Width (as defined in Rule 5.31(a)), the series is eligible to open. Additionally, if the Composite Market of a series is not crossed, and the Composite Width of the series is greater than the Maximum Composite Width, but there are (i) no non-M Capacity 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (a) market orders or (b) buy (sell) limit orders with prices higher (lower) than the Composite Market midpoint and (ii) no orders or quotes marketable against each other, the series is eligible to open. Once a series become eligible to open, the System conducts the opening auction for the series (
                    <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                     determines the opening trade price pursuant to Rule 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34925"/>
                    5.31(e)(2) and opens the series pursuant to Rule 5.31(e)(3)). The Exchange may also determine to compel a series to open in the interest of fair and orderly markets, including if the opening width is wider than the Maximum Composite Width, pursuant to Rule 5.31(h).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The term “Composite Market” means the market for a series comprised of (1) the higher of the then-current best appointed Market-Maker bulk message bid on the Exchange and the away best bid (“ABB”) (if there is an ABB) and (2) the lower of the then-current best appointed Market-Maker bulk message offer on the Exchange and the away best offer (“ABO”) (if there is an ABO). The term “Composite Bid (Offer)” means the bid (offer) used to determine the Composite Market. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         The term “Composite Width” means the width of the Composite Market (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the width between the Composite Bid and the Composite Offer) of a series. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         A non-M Capacity order is a non-Market Maker order. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 1.1, definition of Capacity for a list of other Capacities that may be attached to an order.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Currently, if a series cannot satisfy these conditions described above (and thus is not eligible to open), if there is no Composite Market, or if the Composite Market of a series is crossed, the series is ineligible to open.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     When that occurs, the Queuing Period 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for the series continues (including the dissemination of opening auction updates) until (i) the Maximum Composite Width Check is satisfied and the Composite Market is not crossed; (ii) there are (a) no non-M Capacity (x) market orders or (y) buy (sell) limit orders with prices higher (lower) than the Composite Market midpoint and (b) no orders or quotes marketable against each other if the Maximum Composite Width is not satisfied and the Composite Market is not crossed, or (iii) the Exchange determines to open the series pursuant to Rule 5.31(h). As described further herein, the Exchange may now manually increase the prescribed Maximum Composite Width during the Queuing Period in order to open up an exclusively listed option series.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(e)(1)(C).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         The term “Queuing Period” means the time period prior to the initiation of an opening rotation during which the System accepts orders and quotes in the Queuing Book (the book into which Users may submit orders for participation in the opening rotation) for participation in the opening rotation for the applicable trading session. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         the definition of Maximum Composite Width, which permits the Exchange to modify the Maximum Composite Width during the opening auction process (which modifications the Exchange disseminates to all subscribers via the Exchange's data feeds that deliver opening auction updates) in Rule 5.31(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Current Forced Opening Procedures for Equity and ETP Options Classes</HD>
                <P>
                    However, currently, if a series in an equity or ETP option class is unable to open because it does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width Check within an Exchange-designated time period and the Composite Market is not crossed, the System forces the series to open after that time period upon the System's observation of an ABBO 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (with a non-zero offer) for the series.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         The term “ABBO” means the best bid(s) or offer(s) disseminated by other Eligible Exchanges (as defined in Rule 5.65) and calculated by the Exchange based on market information the Exchange receives from OPRA. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 1.1.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(e)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Background on the Current Opening Procedures for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>
                    As mentioned above, and as described further herein, the Exchange may now manually force open a series that does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width by increasing the prescribed Maximum Composite Width during the Queuing Period in order to open up a series.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange currently exercises more discretion through this manual process then it would through the proposed automated process as it must manually review which series are not open and can determine whether it wants to force the series open. In neither the existing process nor in the proposed automated process through the proposed modified forced open rule is there are an ABBO looked to (as it does not exist).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         the definition of Maximum Composite Width, which permits the Exchange to modify the Maximum Composite Width during the opening auction process (which modifications the Exchange disseminates to all subscribers via the Exchange's data feeds that deliver opening auction updates) in Rule 5.31(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>However, under the existing manual process to increase the Maximum Composite Width, if there are no Market Maker orders, and thus no Composite Width for the Exchange to manually increase, a series will not open, unless the Exchange deems it necessary for fair and orderly markets and opens a series pursuant to Rule 5.31(h). The new rule proposes that a forced open shall occur if there is no Composite Market so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed. As described in further detail below, the Exchange believes this is in the best interest of market participants, as the exclusively listed options generally have a strong floor presence in addition to the on-screen liquidity—it may be the case that while there is no Composite Market on screen, there are Market Makers on the floor that can fill the customer orders. Of further note, it is also the case for some Market Makers that they may not provide on-screen liquidity until after they receive the opening trigger notification. For these reasons, the Exchange believes it is in the best interest to open up these series even if no Composite Market exists and no non-M Capacity orders are crossed.</P>
                <P>The Exchange also notes that it may use Rule 5.31(h) to deviate from the standard opening process, including: (i) adjusting the timing of the opening rotation in any option class, (ii) modifying any time periods described in Rule 5.31, and (iii) compelling a series open, even if the Maximum Composite Width check is not satisfied, but these events may only happen manually if the Exchange determines it is necessary in the interests of a fair and orderly market. The Exchange notes that it will retain this authority still under the new proposed forced opening rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposed Forced Opening Procedures for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule change expands the existing forced opening provision to now apply to exclusively listed option series, except that (i) the ABBO will not be used as a triggering factor to open a series as there is no ABBO for the exclusively listed option series; (ii) if the Composite Market is too wide, a series will open so long as the Composite Market is not crossed and there are no non-M capacity orders that are crossed (unlike the existing forced opening provision which only requires that the Composite Market is not crossed and there is an ABBO) and (iii) the series may open if there is no Composite Market so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The proposed forced opening process has no impact on the modified opening auction process set forth in Rule 5.31(j) and would not apply to SPX constituent option series on exercise settlement value determination days.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Specifically, as proposed, if a series in an exclusively listed option class is unable to open because it does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width Check described above within a time period (which the Exchange determines for exclusively listed options 
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    ) after the occurrence of the opening rotation trigger for the class pursuant to Rule 5.31(d), and (i) the Composite Market is not crossed and no non-M Capacity orders are crossed or (ii) there is no Composite Market and there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed, the System forces the series to open after that time period. For a series subject to a forced opening, the opening trade price determination and series open set forth in Rule 5.31(e)(2) and (3) (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the opening auction) do not occur; instead, the System opens the series without a trade. This will permit a series to open for trading on the Exchange even though the market for the series on the Exchange may be wide (or if there are 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34926"/>
                    no quotes or orders on the book).
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As described above, the two primary distinctions between the existing manual process that is used to manually open exclusively listed options, where the Maximum Composite Width is manually widened, and the proposed forced opening process for exclusively listed options, are (i) the proposed automated process is more efficient and transparent process and (ii) an exclusively listed option series may still open even if there is no Composite Market so long as no non-M Capacity orders are crossed. However, as previously noted, the Exchange may also open up a series if it deems so necessary in the interest of a fair and orderly market pursuant to Rule 5.31(h).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         The proposed rule change permits the Exchange to determine one time period for all exclusively listed options and one time period for equity and ETP classes, which may be the same time period. The Exchange believes in doing so, it can best adapt to unique changes with its exclusively listed options to account for the fact that its exclusively listed options are also traded during GTH session and, in addition to being traded electronically (as the equity and ETP classes are), they are also traded open outcry as well.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that a wide market is not a reason enough for not opening as a wide market may occur at any point during the trading day. As described further herein, it is more of a risk for participants to keep the market closed, preventing participants from managing their position exposure as other markets are already open.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    If a series satisfies the Maximum Composite Width Check prior to the end of the Exchange-determined time period, the series opens pursuant to Rule 5.31(d)(2) and (3) (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the standard opening auction process occurs for the series). For example, suppose the Exchange determined the “forced opening” timer for exclusively listed option series to be three minutes. If the opening trigger for an exclusively listed option series occurs at 9:30:05 Eastern time but the series does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width Check after the trigger, the System will force the series open after 9:33:05 Eastern time. However, if the series satisfies the Maximum Composite Width Check at 9:32:30, the series will open at that time in accordance with the normal opening auction process. The current rule still allows the market to open even if the market is wide by (i) manually increasing the Maximum Composite Width 
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or (ii) allowing the series to open in accordance with Rule 5.31(e)(1)(B), which allows the series to open if the Composite Market of a series is not crossed, and the Composite Width of the series is greater than the Maximum Composite Width, but there are (i) no non-M Capacity (a) market orders or (b) buy (sell) limit orders with prices higher (lower) than the Composite Market midpoint and (ii) no orders or quotes marketable against each other.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 14.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">No ABBO Requirement for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>Given the current method of manually increasing the Maximum Composite Width as a way to force a series open if it does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width, the Exchange believes the proposed rule is a better alternative to open up a series for trading, as it allows for greater transparency and clearer expectations for market participants, as well as taking away the possibility of error from manual human intervention. As described further herein, the ABBO is not a requirement for the standard opening process for any option classes, including equity and ETP option classes. Specifically, if no away markets are open in a series, there would be no ABBO for that series and thus the Composite Market for the series (and thus whether the series would open) would be based solely on the Exchange's market for the series. Further, if the ABBO is wider than the Exchange's market for a series, the ABBO is also not a factor into whether the System opened the series. In those cases, whether an equity or ETF option series satisfied the Maximum Composite Width check would be based solely on the Exchange's market. With respect to the forced opening process for equity and ETP option classes, it may even be the case that the ABBO is wider than the Exchange's market.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Differences Between the Forced Opening Process for Equity and ETP Option Classes and the Proposed Process for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that it previously adopted a similar process to force an open for series in an equity or exchange-traded product option classes.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The only substantive differences within these two processes is that (i) the process for exclusively listed options will not rely on the additional requirement that the system observes an ABBO after the designated time period passes since exclusively listed options will not have an ABBO as the products are not listed on any other exchange ; (ii) the process for exclusively listed options will also require that there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossing (this is not a requirement for the existing equity and ETP option classes; and (iii) exclusively listed option series may open if there is no Composite Market so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossing.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 90967 (January 22, 2021), 86 FR 7429 (January 28, 2021) (SR-CBOE-2021-005).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With the exception that there is not an ABBO that may be looked at first, that no non-M Capacity orders are crossed in the event the Composite Market is too wide, and that a Composite Market is not required to exist (so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed), all other protections that were put into place during the inception of the forced open for equity and ETP classes will also apply to the proposed forced open for exclusively listed options. Rule 5.31(f) provides that in the event of a forced opening of a series pursuant to proposed Rule 5.31(e)(4) or a compelled opening of a series pursuant to paragraph (h), the System enters all of a User's orders in that series in the Queuing Book 
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     into the Book in the manner set forth in current Rule 5.31(f), unless a User instructs the System to cancel its market orders or all of its orders, in which case the System enters only the non-cancelled orders into the Book in this manner. Specifically, they will be processed in accordance with Rule 5.32 (as unexecuted orders and quotes are handled following the conclusion of the opening rotation), which describes how the System processes, handles, and executes orders. If any order or quote in the Queuing Book is marketable upon the forced opening (and the User does not instruct the System to cancel it as proposed), the System would execute marketable orders subject to the priority rules set forth in Rule 5.32. Any non-marketable order would enter the Book or cancel, subject to the User instructions. This proposed change provides Users with flexibility for automated handling of their orders in the event an exclusively listed option series opens with a wide market as opposed to the existing manual process where the Exchange manually increases the Maximum Composite Width to force an open.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         The term “Queuing Book” means the book into which Users may submit orders and quotes (and onto which GTC and GTD orders remaining on the Book from the previous trading session or trading day, as applicable, are entered) during the Queuing Period for participation in the applicable opening rotation. Orders and quotes on the Queuing Book may not execute until the opening rotation. The Queuing Book for the GTH opening auction process may be referred to as the “GTH Queuing Book,” and the Queuing Book for the RTH opening auction process may be referred to as the “RTH Queuing Book. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 14.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">SPX Constituent Option Series</HD>
                <P>
                    Lastly, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 5.31(e)(4) to not apply the proposed forced opening process to the opening of the SPX constituent option series on exercise settlement value determination dates, as the opening auction process currently set forth in Rule 5.31(j) to calculate the exercise or final settlement, as applicable, of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34927"/>
                    expiring VIX derivatives shall still apply to those series on those dates. Therefore, SPX constituent option series will open pursuant to Rule 5.31(j) on exercise settlement value determination dates.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirements that the rules of an exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirement that the rules of an exchange not be designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         Id.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In particular, the Exchange believes the proposed forced opening process for simple orders in its exclusively listed option series will remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system and protect investors. The proposed rule change will provide for a series to open for trading on the Exchange sooner than it may automatically open currently. The Exchange believes the proposed rule change will benefit investors, because it may permit these options to open sooner and increase the times during which investors may conduct trading in these options, allowing participants to trade, hedge exposure, and exit positions in a timely manner. While the width of Market-Maker quotes on the Exchange (and thus the Composite Width) for an exclusively listed option series may be wider than the Maximum Composite Width 
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or, no Market-Maker quotes for an exclusively listed option series are present in the book (and thus there is no Composite Market for the series), the Exchange believes it is reasonable to open the series after a certain amount of time has passed. The Exchange further notes that it does not believe wide Market Maker quotes in and of itself is an adequate reason to delay the opening, as that may occur at any time during the trading day. The Exchange understands from customers they would prefer to be able to begin trading the Exchange's exclusively listed index options without undue delay, even in a wide market, in a timeframe more closely aligned with equities and ETP options 
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (there have been delays as long as ten to fifteen minutes after markets open). A delayed opening may leave participants unable to efficiently hedge, exit, and otherwise manage positions as needed, particularly because the value of the index may be changing given that the stocks comprising the index are open for trading. As a result, a delayed opening may create more investment risk for market participants than opening with a market comprised of wide or no Market-Maker quotes (which as noted above, is a market condition that may occur at any time). Additionally, the proposed ability of Users to cancel orders in the event of a forced opening will provide Users with additional protection.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         The Exchange notes pursuant to Rule 5.31(e)(1)(B), there are currently instances in which the Exchange will open for trading despite the Composite Market Width being larger than the Maximum Composite Width.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(e)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As discussed above, the Exchange currently has the authority, when it deems necessary, to deviate from the standard opening process, including: (i) adjusting the timing of the opening rotation in any option class, (ii) modifying any time periods described in Rule 5.31, and (iii) compelling a series open, even if the Maximum Composite Width check is not satisfied, but these events may only happen manually if the Exchange determines it is necessary in the interests of a fair and orderly market.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed rule change is consistent with the authority granted under Rule 5.31(h). Furthermore, this proposed rule change creates an automated compelled opening in certain circumstances by not needing to rely on the manual process of increasing the Maximum Composite Width that may currently be used under the definition of Maximum Composite Width under Rule 5.31(a), with the exception that a series may be forced open under this proposed rule even if no Composite Market exists, so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders crossed. This will benefit investors by providing additional transparency to the Rules regarding when a series may open despite not satisfying the Maximum Composite Width check as well as remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system by automating an otherwise manual process. Furthermore, the Exchange believes it is in the best interest of investors to allow an exclusively listed option series to open even if there is no Composite Market, so long as no non-M Capacity orders are crossed, as there may be liquidity on the floor from Market Makers. This continues to protect customer orders from executing at the open at a potentially erroneous price given that the requirement that there be no non-M Capacity orders crossed. By allowing these markets to open in a timely manner, market participants would be able to have their orders filled and manage their existing positions earlier, thus reducing potential investment risk associated with further delaying the open.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(h).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Further, as discussed above, the Exchange believes it is in the best interest of market participants to allow the Exchange discretion to determine a different time period for its exclusively listed options that may be different from the time period for its equity and ETP options. As noted, there are differences that between these groups, notably, that exclusively listed options also trade in an open outcry market in addition to trading electronically (equity and ETP options are only traded electronically on the Exchange) and exclusively listed options may also trade during the GTH trading session. Further, under Rule 5.31(h), the Exchange already has the authority to adjust any time periods under Rule 5.31, which include the forced open timers, when it deems necessary for a fair and orderly market. The Exchange proposes to make this discretion clear within the proposed rule, where the Exchange may have different timers for (i) equity and ETP options and (ii) exclusively listed options.</P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, by establishing this process instead of manually increasing the Maximum Composite Width, the Exchange believes this provides greater transparency and clarity and better sets out expectations for participants. The Exchange notes that it still maintains its existing authority under Rule 5.31(h) to deviate from the standard manner of the opening auction process. The Exchange does not think that not having an ABBO (as none exists for exclusively listed options) is of note, as the Exchange manually forces an open now by increasing the Maximum Composite Width and an ABBO is not required under that procedure. Of further note, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34928"/>
                    the ABBO is not a requirement for the standard opening process for any option classes, including equity and ETP option classes. Specifically, if no away markets are open inequity or ETP options, there would be no ABBO for that series and thus the Composite Market for the series (and thus whether the series would open) would be based solely on the Exchange's market for the series. Further, if the ABBO is wider than the Exchange's market for a series, the ABBO is also not a factor into whether the System opened the series. In those cases, whether an equity or ETF option series satisfied the Maximum Composite Width check would be based solely on the Exchange's market.
                </P>
                <P>Further, as previously discussed, the Exchange believes it furthers its goal of conducting fair and orderly markets by forcing its exclusively listed options to open if there is no Composite Market. In the event there is no Composite Market from there being no on-screen two-sided market from Market Maker bids and offers, and there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed, the Exchange believes it is in the benefit of the market to move forward with opening, so customers may commence trading. As described above, there may be liquidity on the floor from Market Makers and the Exchange understands from market participants they would rather commence trading to manage their positions even if there are wide, or no, Market-Maker quotes on the book.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because all Users may trade in any exclusively listed option series that opens subject to the proposed forced opening process. The proposed forced opening process for exclusively listed option series is also substantially similar to the current forced opening process for equity and ETP option series, with the exception that, (i) there is no ABBO for exclusively listed option series, and thus, is not a step in the forced opening process for the exclusively listed option series; (ii) exclusively listed options shall also require that there are no non-M Capacity orders crossed; and (iii) a Composite Market is not required for exclusively listed options, as described above. Additionally, all Users will have the opportunity to instruct the System to cancel its market orders or all open orders in the event of a forced or otherwise manual opening. Cancellation of some or all of a User's orders in the event of such an opening would be voluntary and completely within the User's discretion.</P>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intermarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because the proposed rule change updates the opening process for exclusively listed options that may trade only on the Exchange. As discussed above, the proposed rule change will allow participants to begin trading, hedging exposure, and exiting positions in exclusively listed options in a timely manner, consistent with the timing and process the Exchange currently uses for equity and ETP options. The proposed flexibility for Users to instruct the System how to handle their orders in the event of a forced or manual opening applies only to how a User's orders on the Exchange will be handled in such a circumstance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not:</P>
                <P>A. significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest;</P>
                <P>B. impose any significant burden on competition; and</P>
                <P>
                    C. become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) 
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission will institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-CBOE-2025-047 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-CBOE-2025-047. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-CBOE-2025-047 and should be submitted on or before August 14, 2025.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13898 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="34929"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-103512; File No. SR-CboeBZX-2025-090]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Opening Process for Simple Orders in Exclusively Listed Index Option Classes</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>July 21, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on July 9, 2025, Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. (“Exchange” or “BZX”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “BZX Options”) proposes to amend its opening process for simple orders in exclusively listed index option classes.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The text of the proposed rule change is provided in Exhibit 5.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         An “exclusively listed option” is an option that may trade exclusively on an exchange (and its affiliated exchange) because the exchange has an exclusive license to list and trade the option or has the proprietary rights in the interest underlying the option. An exclusively listed option is different than a “singly listed option,” which is an option that is not an “exclusively listed option” but that is listed by one exchange and not by any other national securities exchange.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's website (
                    <E T="03">http://markets.cboe.com/us/equities/regulation/rule_filings/bzx/</E>
                    ), and at the Exchange's Office of the Secretary.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 21.7 regarding its opening process for simple orders for products it may exclusively list on the Exchange.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The Exchange previously submitted the proposed rule change on May 27, 2025 (SR-CboeEBZX-2025-073). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 103206 (June 6, 2025), 90 FR 24830, (June 12, 2025) (SR-CboeBZX-2025-073). The Exchange is withdrawing SR-CboeBZX-2025-073 and submitting this filing to revise certain changes proposed in that filing
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Current Standard Opening Process</HD>
                <P>
                    Currently, following the occurrence of an opening rotation trigger pursuant to Rule 21.7(d), the System conducts an opening rotation for an option series. Following the opening rotation trigger, the System conducts the Maximum Composite Width Check pursuant to Rule 21.7(e)(1) to determine if a series is eligible to open. If the Composite Market 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of a series is not crossed, and the Composite Width 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the series is less than or equal to the Maximum Composite Width (as defined in Rule 21.7(a)), the series is eligible to open. Additionally, if the Composite Market of a series is not crossed, and the Composite Width of the series is greater than the Maximum Composite Width, but there are (i) no non-M Capacity 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (a) market orders or (b) buy (sell) limit orders with prices higher (lower) than the Composite Market midpoint and (ii) no orders or quotes marketable against each other, the series is eligible to open. Once a series become eligible to open, the System conducts the opening auction for the series (
                    <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                     determines the opening trade price pursuant to Rule 21.7(e)(2) and opens the series pursuant to Rule 21.7(e)(3)). The Exchange may also determine to compel a series to open in the interest of fair and orderly markets, including if the opening width is wider than the Maximum Composite Width, pursuant to Rule 21.7(h).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The term “Composite Market” means the market for a series comprised of (1) the higher of the then-current best appointed Market-Maker bulk message bid on the Exchange and the away best bid (“ABB”) (if there is an ABB) and (2) the lower of the then-current best appointed Market-Maker bulk message offer on the Exchange and the away best offer (“ABO”) (if there is an ABO). The term “Composite Bid (Offer)” means the bid (offer) used to determine the Composite Market. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The term “Composite Width” means the width of the Composite Market (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the width between the Composite Bid and the Composite Offer) of a series. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         A non-M Capacity order is a non-Market Maker order. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 16.1, definition of Capacity for a list of other Capacities that may be attached to an order.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Currently, if a series cannot satisfy these conditions described above (and thus is not eligible to open), if there is no Composite Market, or if the Composite Market of a series is crossed, the series is ineligible to open.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     When that occurs, the Queuing Period 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for the series continues (including the dissemination of opening auction updates) until (i) the Maximum Composite Width Check is satisfied and the Composite Market is not crossed; (ii) there are (a) no non-M Capacity (x) market orders or (y) buy (sell) limit orders with prices higher (lower) than the Composite Market midpoint and (b) no orders or quotes marketable against each other if the Maximum Composite Width is not satisfied and the Composite Market is not crossed, or (iii) the Exchange determines to open the series pursuant to Rule 21.7(h). As described further herein, the Exchange may now manually increase the prescribed Maximum Composite Width during the Queuing Period in order to open up an exclusively listed option series.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(e)(1)(C).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The term “Queuing Period” means the time period prior to the initiation of an opening rotation during which the System accepts orders and quotes in the Queuing Book (the book into which Users may submit orders for participation in the opening rotation) for participation in the opening rotation for the applicable trading session. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         the definition of Maximum Composite Width, which permits the Exchange to modify the Maximum Composite Width during the opening auction process (which modifications the Exchange disseminates to all subscribers via the Exchange's data feeds that deliver opening auction updates) in Rule 21.7(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Current Forced Opening Procedures for Equity and ETP Option Classes</HD>
                <P>
                    However, currently, if a series in an equity or ETP option class is unable to open because it does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width Check within an Exchange-designated time period and the Composite Market is not crossed, the System forces the series to open after that time period upon the System's observation of an ABBO 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (with a non-zero offer) for the series.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         The term “ABBO” means the best bid(s) or offer(s) disseminated by other Eligible Exchanges (as defined in Rule 27.1(a)(7)) and calculated by the Exchange based on market information the Exchange receives from OPRA. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 16.1.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(e)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Background on the Current Opening Procedures for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>
                    As mentioned above, and as described further herein, the Exchange may now 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34930"/>
                    manually force open a series that does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width by increasing the prescribed Maximum Composite Width during the Queuing Period in order to open up a series.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange currently exercises more discretion through this manual process then it would through the proposed automated process as it must manually review which series are not open and can determine whether it wants to force the series open. In neither the existing process nor in the proposed automated process through the proposed modified forced open rule is there are an ABBO looked to (as it does not exist).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         the definition of Maximum Composite Width, which permits the Exchange to modify the Maximum Composite Width during the opening auction process (which modifications the Exchange disseminates to all subscribers via the Exchange's data feeds that deliver opening auction updates) in Rule 21.7(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    However, under the existing manual process to increase the Maximum Composite Width, if there are no Market Maker orders, and thus no Composite Width for the Exchange to manually increase, a series will not open, unless the Exchange deems it necessary for fair and orderly markets and opens a series pursuant to Rule 21.7(h). The new rule proposes that a forced open shall occur if there is no Composite Market so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed. As described in further detail below, the Exchange believes this is in the best interest of market participants, as it is the case for some Market Makers that they may not provide on-screen liquidity until after they receive the opening trigger notification.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For these reasons, the Exchange believes it is in the best interest to open up these series even if no Composite Market exists and no non-M Capacity orders are crossed.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Of further note, the Exchange's affiliated options exchange, Cboe Exchange, Inc. (“Cboe Options”), generally has a strong floor presence for exclusively listed options, and it may be the case while there is no Composite Market on screen, that there are Market Makers on the floor that can fill customer orders. The Exchange and its affiliated options exchanges are all proposing to modify its existing forced opening procedures to include exclusively listed options.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange also notes that it may use Rule 21.7(h) to deviate from the standard opening process, including: (i) adjusting the timing of the opening rotation in any option class, (ii) modifying any time periods described in Rule 21.7, and (iii) compelling a series open, even if the Maximum Composite Width check is not satisfied, but these events may only happen manually if the Exchange determines it is necessary in the interests of a fair and orderly market. The Exchange notes that it will retain this authority still under the new proposed forced opening rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposed Forced Opening Procedures for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule change expands the existing forced opening provision to now apply to exclusively listed option series, except that (i) the ABBO will not be used as a triggering factor to open a series as there is no ABBO for the exclusively listed option series; (ii) if the Composite Market is too wide, a series will open so long as the Composite Market is not crossed and there are no non-M capacity orders that are crossed (unlike the existing forced opening provision which only requires that the Composite Market is not crossed and there is an ABBO) and (iii) the series may open if there is no Composite Market so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed.</P>
                <P>
                    Specifically, as proposed, if a series in an exclusively listed option class is unable to open because it does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width Check described above within a time period (which the Exchange determines for exclusively listed options 
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    ) after the occurrence of the opening rotation trigger for the class pursuant to Rule 21.7(d), and (i) the Composite Market is not crossed and no non-M Capacity orders are crossed or (ii) there is no Composite Market and there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed, the System forces the series to open after that time period. For a series subject to a forced opening, the opening trade price determination and series open set forth in Rule 21.7(e)(2) and (3) (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the opening auction) do not occur; instead, the System opens the series without a trade. This will permit a series to open for trading on the Exchange even though the market for the series on the Exchange may be wide (or if there are no quotes or orders on the book).
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As described above, the two primary distinctions between the existing manual process that is used to manually open exclusively listed options, where the Maximum Composite Width is manually widened, and the proposed forced opening process for exclusively listed options, are (i) the proposed automated process is more efficient and transparent process and (ii) an exclusively listed option series may still open even if there is no Composite Market so long as no non-M Capacity orders are crossed. However, as previously noted, the Exchange may also open up a series if it deems so necessary in the interest of a fair and orderly market pursuant to Rule 21.7 (h).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The proposed rule change permits the Exchange to determine a different time period for all exclusively listed options than the time period determined for equity and ETP classes.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that a wide market is not a reason enough for not opening as a wide market may occur at any point during the trading day. As described further herein, it is more of a risk for participants to keep the market closed, preventing participants from managing their position exposure as other markets are already open.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    If a series satisfies the Maximum Composite Width Check prior to the end of the Exchange-determined time period, the series opens pursuant to Rule 21.7(d)(2) and (3) (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the standard opening auction process occurs for the series). For example, suppose the Exchange determined the “forced opening” timer for exclusively listed option series to be three minutes. If the opening trigger for an exclusively listed option series occurs at 9:30:05 Eastern time but the series does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width Check after the trigger, the System will force the series open after 9:33:05 Eastern time. However, if the series satisfies the Maximum Composite Width Check at 9:32:30, the series will open at that time in accordance with the normal opening auction process. The current rule still allows the market to open even if the market is wide by (i) manually increasing the Maximum Composite Width 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or (ii) allowing the series to open in accordance with Rule 21.7(e)(1)(B), which allows the series to open if the Composite Market of a series is not crossed, and the Composite Width of the series is greater than the Maximum Composite Width, but there are (i) no non-M Capacity (a) market orders or (b) buy (sell) limit orders with prices higher (lower) than the Composite Market midpoint and (ii) no orders or quotes marketable against each other.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 13.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">No ABBO Requirement for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>
                    Given the current method of manually increasing the Maximum Composite Width as a way to force a series open if it does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width, the Exchange believes the proposed rule is a better alternative to open up a series for trading, as it allows for greater transparency and clearer expectations for market participants, as well as taking away the possibility of error from manual human intervention. As described further herein, the ABBO is not a requirement for the standard opening process for any option classes, including equity and ETP option classes. Specifically, if no away markets 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34931"/>
                    are open in a series, there would be no ABBO for that series and thus the Composite Market for the series (and thus whether the series would open) would be based solely on the Exchange's market for the series. Further, if the ABBO is wider than the Exchange's market for a series, the ABBO is also not a factor into whether the System opened the series. In those cases, whether an equity or ETF option series satisfied the Maximum Composite Width check would be based solely on the Exchange's market. With respect to the forced opening process for equity and ETP option classes, it may even be the case that the ABBO is wider than the Exchange's market.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Differences Between the Forced Opening Process for Equity and ETP Option Classes and the Proposed Process for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that it previously adopted a similar process to force an open for series in an equity or exchange-traded product option classes.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The only substantive differences within these two processes is that (i) the process for exclusively listed options will not rely on the additional requirement that the system observes an ABBO after the designated time period passes since exclusively listed options will not have an ABBO as the products are not listed on any other exchange; (ii) the process for exclusively listed options will also require that there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossing (this is not a requirement for the existing equity and ETP option classes); and (iii) exclusively listed option series may open if there is no Composite Market so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossing.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See.</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 90968 (January 22, 2021), 86 FR 7443 (January 28, 2021) (SR-CboeBZX-2021-009).).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With the exception that there is not an ABBO that may be looked at first, that no non-M Capacity orders are crossed in the event the Composite Market is too wide, and that a Composite Market is not required to exist (so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed), all other protections that were put into place during the inception of the forced open for equity and ETP classes will also apply to the proposed forced open for exclusively listed options. Rule 21.7(f) provides that in the event of a forced opening of a series pursuant to proposed Rule 21.7(e)(4) or a compelled opening of a series pursuant to paragraph (h), the System enters all of a User's orders in that series in the Queuing Book 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     into the Book in the manner set forth in current Rule 21.7(f), unless a User instructs the System to cancel its market orders or all of its orders, in which case the System enters only the non-cancelled orders into the Book in this manner. Specifically, they will be processed in accordance with Rule 21.8 (as unexecuted orders and quotes are handled following the conclusion of the opening rotation), which describes how the System processes, handles, and executes orders. If any order or quote in the Queuing Book is marketable upon the forced opening (and the User does not instruct the System to cancel it as proposed), the System would execute marketable orders subject to the priority rules set forth in Rule 21.8. Any non-marketable order would enter the Book or cancel, subject to the User instructions. This proposed change provides Users with flexibility for automated handling of their orders in the event an exclusively listed option series opens with a wide market as opposed to the existing manual process where the Exchange manually increases the Maximum Composite Width to force an open.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         The term “Queuing Book” means the book into which Users may submit orders and quotes (and onto which GTC and GTD orders remaining on the Book from the previous trading session or trading day, as applicable, are entered) during the Queuing Period for participation in the applicable opening rotation. Orders and quotes on the Queuing Book may not execute until the opening rotation. The Queuing Book for the GTH opening auction process may be referred to as the “GTH Queuing Book,” and the Queuing Book for the RTH opening auction process may be referred to as the “RTH Queuing Book. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 13.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirements that the rules of an exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirement that the rules of an exchange not be designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In particular, the Exchange believes the proposed forced opening process for simple orders in its exclusively listed option series will remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system and protect investors. The proposed rule change will provide for a series to open for trading on the Exchange sooner than it may automatically open currently. The Exchange believes the proposed rule change will benefit investors, because it may permit these options to open sooner and increase the times during which investors may conduct trading in these options, allowing participants to trade, hedge exposure, and exit positions in a timely manner. While the width of Market-Maker quotes on the Exchange (and thus the Composite Width) for an exclusively listed option series may be wider than the Maximum Composite Width 
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or, no Market-Maker quotes for an exclusively listed option series are present in the book (and thus there is no Composite Market for the series), the Exchange believes it is reasonable to open the series after a certain amount of time has passed. The Exchange further notes that it does not believe wide Market Maker quotes in and of itself is an adequate reason to delay the opening, as that may occur at any time during the trading day. The Exchange understands from customers they would prefer to be able to begin trading the Exchange's exclusively listed index options without undue delay, even in a wide market, in a timeframe more closely aligned with equities and ETP options 
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (there have been delays as long as ten to fifteen minutes after markets open). A delayed opening may leave participants unable to efficiently hedge, exit, and otherwise manage positions as needed, particularly because the value of the index may be changing given that the stocks comprising the index are open for trading. As a result, a delayed opening may create more investment risk for market participants than opening with a market comprised of wide or no Market-Maker quotes (which as noted above, is 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34932"/>
                    a market condition that may occur at any time). Additionally, the proposed ability of Users to cancel orders in the event of a forced opening will provide Users with additional protection.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         The Exchange notes pursuant to Rule 21.7(e)(1)(B), there are currently instances in which the Exchange will open for trading despite the Composite Market Width being larger than the Maximum Composite Width.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(e)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As discussed above, the Exchange currently has the authority, when it deems necessary, to deviate from the standard opening process, including: (i) adjusting the timing of the opening rotation in any option class, (ii) modifying any time periods described in Rule 21.7, and (iii) compelling a series open, even if the Maximum Composite Width check is not satisfied, but that may only happen manually if the Exchange determines it is necessary in the interests of a fair and orderly market.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed rule change is consistent with the authority granted under Rule 21.7(h). Furthermore, this proposed rule change creates an automated compelled opening in certain circumstances by not needing to rely on the manual process of increasing the Maximum Composite Width that may currently be used under the definition of Maximum Composite Width under Rule 21.7(a), with the exception that a series may be forced open under this proposed rule even if no Composite Market exists, so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders crossed. This will benefit investors by providing additional transparency to the Rules regarding when a series may open despite not satisfying the Maximum Composite Width check as well as remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system by automating an otherwise manual process. Furthermore, the Exchange believes it is in the best interest of investors to allow an exclusively listed option series to open even if there is no Composite Market, so long as no non-M Capacity orders are crossed. This continues to protect customer orders from executing at the open at a potentially erroneous price given that the requirement that there be no non-M Capacity orders crossed. By allowing these markets to open in a timely manner, market participants would be able to have their orders filled and manage their existing positions earlier, thus reducing potential investment risk associated with further delaying the open.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.7(h); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         definition of Maximum Composite Width and Opening Collar in Rule 21.7(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Further, as discussed above, the Exchange believes it is in the best interest of market participants to allow the Exchange discretion to determine a different time period for its exclusively listed options that may be different from the time period for its equity and ETP options. As noted, there are differences between these groups, notably, that exclusively listed options may also trade during the GTH trading session. Further, under Rule 21.7(h), the Exchange already has the authority to adjust any time periods under Rule 21.7, which include the forced open timers, when it deems necessary for a fair and orderly market. The Exchange proposes to make this discretion clear within the proposed rule, where the Exchange may have different timers for (i) equity and ETP options and (ii) exclusively listed options.</P>
                <P>Additionally, by establishing this process instead of manually increasing the Maximum Composite Width, the Exchange believes this provides greater transparency and clarity and better sets out expectations for participants. The Exchange notes that it still maintains its existing authority under Rule 21.7(h) to deviate from the standard manner of the opening auction process. The Exchange does not think that not having an ABBO (as none exists for exclusively listed options) is of note, as the Exchange manually forces an open now by increasing the Maximum Composite Width and an ABBO is not required under that procedure. Of further note, the ABBO is not a requirement for the standard opening process for any option classes, including equity and ETP option classes. Specifically, if no away markets are open inequity or ETP options, there would be no ABBO for that series and thus the Composite Market for the series (and thus whether the series would open) would be based solely on the Exchange's market for the series. Further, if the ABBO is wider than the Exchange's market for a series, the ABBO is also not a factor into whether the System opened the series. In those cases, whether an equity or ETF option series satisfied the Maximum Composite Width check would be based solely on the Exchange's market.</P>
                <P>Further, as previously discussed, the Exchange believes it furthers its goal of conducting fair and orderly markets by forcing its exclusively listed options to open if there is no Composite Market. In the event there is no Composite Market from there being no on-screen two-sided market from Market Maker bids and offers, and there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed, the Exchange believes it would benefit the market to move forward with opening, so customers may commence trading. As described above, the Exchange understands from market participants they would rather commence trading to manage their positions even if there are wide, or no, Market-Maker quotes on the book. Additionally, as previously noted the Exchange's affiliated options exchange, Cboe Exchange, Inc. generally has a strong floor presence for exclusively listed options, and it may be the case while there is no Composite Market on screen, that there are Market Makers on the floor that can fill customer orders. The Exchange and its affiliated options exchanges are all proposing to modify its existing forced opening procedures to include exclusively listed options.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because all Users may trade in any exclusively listed option series that opens subject to the proposed forced opening process. The proposed forced opening process for exclusively listed option series is also substantially similar to the current forced opening process for equity and ETP option series, with the exception that, (i) there is no ABBO for exclusively listed option series, and thus, is not a step in the forced opening process for the exclusively listed option series as described above; (ii) exclusively listed options shall also require that there are no non-M Capacity orders crossed; and (iii) a Composite Market is not required for exclusively listed options, as described above. Additionally, all Users will have the opportunity to instruct the System to cancel its market orders or all open orders in the event of a forced or otherwise manual opening. Cancellation of some or all of a User's orders in the event of such an opening would be voluntary and completely within the User's discretion.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intermarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because the proposed rule change updates the opening process for exclusively listed options that may trade only on the Exchange. As discussed above, the proposed rule change will allow participants to begin trading, hedging exposure, and exiting positions in exclusively listed options in a timely manner, consistent with the timing and process the Exchange currently uses for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34933"/>
                    equity and ETP options. The proposed flexibility for Users to instruct the System how to handle their orders in the event of a forced or manual opening applies only to how Users' orders on the Exchange will be handled in such a circumstance.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not:</P>
                <P>A. significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest;</P>
                <P>B. impose any significant burden on competition; and</P>
                <P>
                    C. become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) 
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission will institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-CboeBZX-2025-090  on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-CboeBZX-2025-090. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-CboeBZX-2025-090 and should be submitted on or before August 14, 2025.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13902 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-103511; File No. SR-CboeBYX-2025-020]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe BYX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Fee Schedule Regarding Dedicated Cores</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>July 21, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on July 16, 2025, Cboe BYX Exchange, Inc. (“Exchange” or “BYX”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items II and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend its fee schedule to adopt fees for Dedicated Cores. The text of the proposed rule change is provided in Exhibit 5.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's website (
                    <E T="03">http://markets.cboe.com/us/equities/regulation/rule_filings/BYX/</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend its fee schedule to adopt fees for Dedicated Cores.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The Exchange initially adopted pricing for Dedicated Cores on May 6, 2024 (SR-CboeBYX-2024-014). On July 1, 2024, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBYX-2024-024. On August 1, 2024, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBYX-2024-028. On business date September 30, 2024, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBYX-2024-036. On November 26, 2024, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBYX-2024-043 and subsequently withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBYX-2024-044. On November 27, 2024, the Exchange withdraw that filing and submitted SR-CboeBYX-2024-045. On December 4, 2024, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBYX-2024-047. On January 24, 2025, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBYX-2025-001. On March 13, 2025, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBYX-2025-005. On May 7, 2025, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBYX-2025-010. On July 2, 2025, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted SR-CboeBYX-2025-018. On July 16, 2025, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted this filing.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    By way of background, the Exchange recently began to allow Users 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to assign 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34934"/>
                    a Single Binary Order Entry (“BOE”) logical order entry port 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to a single dedicated Central Processing Unit (CPU Core) (“Dedicated Core”). Historically, CPU Cores had been shared by logical order entry ports (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     multiple logical ports from multiple firms may connect to a single CPU Core). Use of Dedicated Cores however, can provide reduced latency, enhanced throughput, and improved performance since a firm using a Dedicated Core is utilizing the full processing power of a CPU Core instead of sharing that power with other firms. This offering is completely voluntary and is available to all Users that wish to purchase Dedicated Cores. Users may utilize BOE logical order entry ports on shared CPU Cores, either in lieu of, or in addition to, their use of Dedicated Core(s). As such, Users are able to operate across a mix of shared and dedicated CPU Cores which the Exchange believes provides additional risk and capacity management. Further, Dedicated Cores are not required nor necessary to participate on the Exchange and as such Users may opt not to use Dedicated Cores at all.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         A User may be either a Member or Sponsored Participant. The term “Member” shall mean any registered broker or dealer that has been admitted 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        to membership in the Exchange, limited liability company or other organization which is a registered broker or dealer pursuant to Section 15 of the Act, and which has been approved by the Exchange. A Sponsored Participant may be a Member or non-Member of the Exchange whose direct electronic access to the Exchange is authorized by a Sponsoring Member subject to certain conditions. See Exchange Rule 11.3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Users may currently connect to the Exchange using a logical port available through an application programming interface (“API”), such as the Binary Order Entry (“BOE”) protocol. A BOE logical order entry port is used for order entry.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to assess the following monthly fees for Users that wish to use Dedicated Cores and adopt a maximum limit. First, the Exchange proposes to provide up to two Dedicated Cores to all Users who wish to use Dedicated Cores, at no additional cost. In the event that a User voluntarily chooses to use more than two Dedicated Cores, only then would the Exchange assess the following fees: $650 per Dedicated Core for 3-10 Dedicated Cores; $850 per Dedicated Core for 11-15 Dedicated Cores; and $1,050 per Dedicated Core for 16 or more Dedicated Cores. The proposed fees are progressive and the Exchange proposes to include the following example in the Fees Schedule to provide clarity as to how the fees will be applied. Particularly, the Exchange will provide the following example: if a User were to purchase 11 Dedicated Cores, it will be charged a total of $6,050 per month ($0 * 2) + ($650 * 8) + ($850 * 1). The Exchange also proposes to make clear in the Fees Schedule that the monthly fees are assessed and applied in their entirety and are not prorated. The Exchange notes the current standard fees assessed for BOE Logical Ports, whether used with Dedicated or shared CPU cores, will remain applicable and unchanged.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The Exchange currently assesses $550 per port per month. Port fees will also continue to be assessed on the first two Dedicated Cores that Users receive at no additional cost. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe BYX Equities Fee Schedule.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Since the Exchange currently has a finite amount of physical space in its data centers in which its servers (and therefore corresponding CPU Cores) are located, the Exchange also proposes to prescribe a maximum limit on the number of Dedicated Cores that Users may purchase each month. The purpose of establishing these limits is to manage the allotment of Dedicated Cores in a fair manner and to prevent the Exchange from being required to expend large amounts of limited resources in order to provide an unlimited number of Dedicated Cores. The Exchange previously established a limit for Members of a maximum number of 60 Dedicated Cores and Sponsoring Members a limit of a maximum number of 25 Dedicated Cores for each of their Sponsored Access relationships.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange has since been able to procure additional servers with CPU Cores and also has a better understanding of User demand relative to its available space since the initial launch of Dedicated Cores. After seeing increased User demand, the Exchange proposed to increase that cap and provided that Members will be limited to a maximum number of 80 Dedicated Cores and Sponsoring Members will be limited to a maximum number of 35 Dedicated Cores for each of their Sponsored Access relationships.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange noted at that time that it would continue monitoring Dedicated Core interest by all Users and allotment availability with the goal of increasing these limits to meet Users' needs if and when the demand is there and/or the Exchange is able to accommodate additional Dedicated Cores. Since then, the Exchange has determined that it is able to accommodate an increased cap relative to current demand. As such, the Exchange proposed to increase the cap to 120 Dedicated Cores for Members, effective December 1, 2024.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Sponsoring Members will continue to be limited to a maximum of 35 Dedicated Cores for each of their Sponsored Access relationships.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 100476 (July 9, 2024), 89 FR 57482 (July 15, 2024) (SR-CboeBYX-2024-024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 101303 (October 10, 2024), 89 FR 83740 (October 17, 2024) (SR-CboeBYX-2024-036).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The prescribed maximum quantity of Dedicated Cores for Members applies regardless of whether that Member purchases the Dedicated Cores directly from the Exchange and/or through a Service Bureau. In a Service Bureau relationship, a customer allows its MPID to be used on the ports of a technology provider, or Service Bureau. One MPID may be allowed on several different Service Bureaus.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         The fee tier(s) applicable to Sponsoring Members are determined on a per Sponsored Access relationship basis and not on the combined total of Dedicated Cores across Sponsored Users. For example, under the proposed changes, a Sponsoring Member that has three Sponsored Access relationships is entitled to a total of 105 Dedicated Cores for those 3 Sponsored Access relationships but would be assessed fees separately based on the 35 Dedicated Cores for each Sponsored User (instead of combined total of 105 Dedicated Cores). For example, a Sponsoring Member with 3 Sponsored Access relationships would pay $30,450 per month if each Sponsored Access relationship purchased the maximum 35 Dedicated Cores. More specifically, the Sponsoring Member would be provided 2 Dedicated Cores at no additional cost for each Sponsored User under Tier 1 (total of 6 Dedicated Cores at no additional cost) and provided an additional 8 Dedicated Cores at $650 each for each Sponsored User, 5 Dedicated Cores at $850 each for each Sponsored User and 20 Dedicated Cores at $1,050 each for each Sponsored User (combined total of 99 additional Dedicated Cores).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirements that the rules of an exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirement that the rules of an exchange not be designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers. The Exchange also believes the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)(4) 
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act, which requires that Exchange rules provide for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees, and other charges among its 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34935"/>
                    Members and other persons using its facilities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the proposal is reasonable because the Exchange is offering 
                    <E T="03">all</E>
                     Users who voluntarily choose to utilize Dedicated Cores up to two Dedicated Cores at no additional cost. Notably, as of the beginning of May, of the Members that currently maintain Dedicated Cores, 43% maintain only 1 or 2 Dedicated Cores and therefore pay no additional fees.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange believes the proposed fees are reasonable because Dedicated Cores provide a valuable service in that it can provide reduced latency, enhanced throughput, and improved performance compared to use of a shared CPU Core since a firm using a Dedicated Core is utilizing the full processing power of a CPU Core. The Exchange also emphasizes however, that the use of Dedicated Cores is not necessary for trading and as noted above, is entirely optional. Users can also continue to access the Exchange through shared CPU Cores at no additional cost. Indeed, as of the beginning of May, only 35% of the Exchange's Members currently use Dedicated Cores and as noted above, of those who do, only 43% take only 1 or 2 Dedicated Cores at no additional cost. Depending on a firm's specific business needs, the proposal enables Users to choose to use Dedicated Cores in lieu of, or in addition to, shared CPU Cores (or as emphasized, not use Dedicated Cores at all). If a User finds little benefit in having Dedicated Cores based on its business model and trading strategies, or determines Dedicated Cores are not cost-efficient for its needs or does not provide sufficient value to the firm, such User may continue its use of the shared CPU Cores, unchanged. The Exchange is not aware of any specific reason (operational or otherwise) why a firm would not partake in the use of the one to two free Dedicated Cores the Exchange offers. Indeed the Exchange does not believe that the set up a firm would undertake to use free Dedicated Cores offered by the Exchange is prohibitively difficult or burdensome; ultimately, whether or not a firm avails itself of the free Dedicated Cores is a business decision, and some firms may decide that the impact that Dedicated Cores may have is simply not beneficial or necessary to how that firm operates. The Exchange also has no plans to eliminate shared CPU Cores nor to require Users to purchase Dedicated Cores.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that its numbers only include Members since it does not have the same level of insight into customer segments for Sponsored Access.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange has seen general interest in Dedicated Cores from a variety of market participants, with varying size and business models. Such market participants include proprietary trading firms (who tend to be more latency sensitive), as well as sell-side market participants and buy-side market participants (who tend to be less latency sensitive). For background, proprietary trading firms utilize their own capital to trade without taking outside money from clients. Due to the nature of their respective businesses, the Exchange has classified proprietary trading firms as latency sensitive, and other groups, such as buy-side hedge funds, sell-side banks and sell-side non-banks (such as agency brokers) as non-latency sensitive. Proprietary trading firms' strategies may range from, market making, to relative value trading and arbitrage—these all rely on profiting from general market activity and, generally, requires faster entry and exit into trades and positions making proprietary trading firms more latency sensitive than other market segments. Buy-side hedge funds, banks and agency brokers are not as latency sensitive as generally the strategy for hedge funds is based on overall long-term positioning in the market, and banks and agency brokers may profit from commissions of customer order flow; both are generally strategies that are not reliant on speed to the same extent proprietary trading firms are. Further, Users have various reasons for obtaining Dedicated Cores. Some Users for example, may be seeking to further reduce latency or increase execution determinism, whereas others may use Dedicated Cores as a general risk mitigation by siloing their respective activity. For example, by using the Dedicated Core(s) to silo its respective activity, a firm may be able to mitigate risk during periods of heightened volatility as the firm will not need to compete for a shared resource (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the shared core). Of further note, as of the beginning of May, only 64% of Members that are propriety trading firms (who again, generally tend to be more latency sensitive) utilize Dedicated Cores, and of that 64%, 43% are only utilizing the 1 to 2 free Dedicated Cores available to all Users. As mentioned above, some non-latency sensitive firms have chosen to also adopt Dedicated Cores. As of the beginning of May,19% of Members that are not latency sensitive utilize Dedicated Cores, and of that 19%, 38% are only utilizing the 1 to 2 free Dedicated Cores available to all Users.
                </P>
                <P>The lack of universal, or even widespread, adoption by all such users therefore demonstrates that purchasing Dedicated Cores is not effectively a requirement to compete for any one type of market participant, including latency sensitive market participants. Instead, Dedicated Cores are an optional and voluntary connectivity offering, which market participants are free to choose whether or not to utilize based on whether they meet their unique business needs. Moreover, the Exchange has received overwhelming positive feedback and support for Dedicated Cores from the firms that have chosen to utilize these in furtherance of their respective needs, with some Users even noting that they have moved more of their order flow to the Exchange and its affiliated equities exchanges (the “Equities Exchanges”) as they have noticed both better fills and greater consistency of order execution at the Equities Exchanges. This demonstrates that despite any incurred costs for Users that choose to purchase Dedicated Cores, it is ultimately a net win for them as they benefit from better execution. The Exchange believes it also demonstrates that Users find the proposed fees to be both reasonable and have benefited from purchasing or, are alternatively benefiting from the proposed one or two free Dedicated Cores available at no additional cost. The Exchange believes this is shown by both the level of demand for Dedicated Cores and the feedback from market participants that have used the Dedicated Cores for its unique business needs, including as described above. The Exchange also believes it's notable that no negative comment letters in connection with the proposed pricing have been received since the Exchange first filed proposed fees for Dedicated Cores back on May 6, 2024. Additionally, as noted earlier, Users can (and many have) decide that utilizing even a free Dedicated Core is not needed for their business. The Exchange also notes it has not received any feedback for Users that raise concerns over the barrier to entry to use Dedicated Cores, including notably the free Dedicated Cores—nor is the Exchange aware of any reason why a firm would ultimately choose not to use the free Dedicated Cores, other than it is not necessary for its business. Ultimately, this is a business decision that each User must make and is best suited to determine and will ultimately depend on the priorities and strategies of that User's respective business needs.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also notes that at least one other exchange also has a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34936"/>
                    comparable offering.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Nasdaq Stock Market, LLC (“Nasdaq”), introduced the Dedicated Ouch Port Infrastructure in 2014 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which allows a member firm to assign up to 30 of its OUCH ports to a dedicated server infrastructure for its exclusive use.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Dedicated OUCH server handles only the subscribing member firm's message traffic sent through their ports on the Dedicated OUCH to Nasdaq's system.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Similarly, as previously described, a Dedicated Core only handles that subscribing firm's messaging activity. Nasdaq notes that with its Dedicated OUCH offering, member firms can develop a tailored solution by controlling their message traffic in order to optimize their trading strategies.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As described above with Dedicated Cores, one of the benefits is greater execution determinism as subscribers only need to account for their order flow when using a Dedicated Core, similar to the existing Nasdaq Dedicated OUCH offering. In addition to using Dedicated Cores and Dedicated OUCH for the purpose of greater execution determinism, firms may also use either offering for greater risk mitigation as, with either offering, the subscribing firm only needs to take their specific messaging traffic into account. Nasdaq notes as well that its Dedicated OUCH offering is wholly optional and therefore member firms are not compelled to subscribe and that its offering is pro-competitive as it adds an additional connectivity option available to Nasdaq members.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Similar to the Dedicated OUCH offering, the Exchange has noted that no User is required to purchase or to use the two free Dedicated Cores offered to all Users.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         The Nasdaq Stock Market, Equity 7 Pricing Schedule, Section 115(g)(3), Dedicated Ouch Port Infrastructure.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 70693 (October 16, 2013), 78 FR 62761 (October 22, 2013) (SR-NASDAQ-2013-131).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         supra note 15.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 70036 (July 25, 2013), 78 FR 45993 (July 30, 2013) (SR-NASDAQ-2013-097).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         Id.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         Id.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Despite these similarities, there are some differences. Specifically, with the Nasdaq OUCH offering, a member firm would need to purchase an entire server, of which, 30 OUCH ports could be utilized on the Dedicated OUCH server—a participant may purchase up to four Dedicated OUCH servers based on its needs.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In contrast, the Exchange's offering allows for a purchase by cores (as opposed to an entire server), allowing a participant to more efficiently scale its business by purchasing only the number of cores that it needs. Ultimately, the Exchange's offering is more akin to a service offering while the Nasdaq offering is more akin to an infrastructure offering (and as such, the pricing structure does differ)—both offerings better enable a firm to utilize the full processing power of a CPU Core.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         See 
                        <E T="03">https://nasdaqtrader.com/Trader.aspx?id=OUCH#:~:text=Each%20server%20can%20house%20up%20to%20a%20maximum,Nasdaq%20Market%20Sales%20at%20%2B1%20800%20846%200477.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A Dedicated OUCH Port Infrastructure subscription is available to a member firm for a fee of $5,000 per month, which is in addition to the standard fees assessed for each OUCH port. A one-time installation fee of $5,000 is assessed to subscribers for each Dedicated OUCH Port Server subscription.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In contrast, the Exchange offers 1-2 Dedicated Cores at no cost, making this widely available to any participant who may find a benefit from using this offering. Additionally, by the Exchange not charging an installation fee upfront, participants are able to try the offering at no cost, by receiving up to two Dedicated Cores at no cost to the User. The Exchange's model allows for widespread participation by all who wish to use Dedicated Cores—the steep initial cost of Nasdaq's model of spending, at a minimum, $10,000 for the first month requires a heavy investment, which in the case of smaller participants, may not be feasible. In contrast, the Exchange's model of providing up to two Dedicated Cores at no cost, allows participants to easily utilize this service if they believe it is helpful for their business needs. Moreover, the Exchange's service offering also provides more Users with more modest CPU capacity needs a zero-cost option, as well as the ability to buy only as many Dedicated Cores that they need, whereas Nasdaq's Dedicated OUCH offering requires a User to buy all cores offered on a single server (even if a firm does not have the corresponding full amount of 30 ports), with no discounted or fee waiver for the first two cores, as well as no ability to buy fewer cores than necessary.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         See The Nasdaq Stock Market Rulebook, Equity 7 Pricing Schedule.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Lastly, the Exchange emphasizes that order processing itself is not affected by the introduction of Dedicated Cores. No relevant changes are intended to the matching engine, which is, and remains, the main component of the Exchange's infrastructure being responsible for the actual processing of orders. While Users of Dedicated Cores may notice a latency reduction, this is an inherent byproduct of introducing improved technology.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         Moreover, there has been a longstanding history of exchanges providing enhanced technology where the latency reduction that follows is a natural result. For example, other exchanges may offer a variety of co-location services where subscribers of these services may benefit from lower latency based on the specific offering they choose based on their business needs. 
                        <E T="03">See e.g.</E>
                        , The Nasdaq Stock Market General 8 Connectivity, Section 1 Co-Location Services (demonstrating a range of cabinet offerings).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also believes that the proposed Dedicated Core fees are equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because they continue to be assessed uniformly to similarly situated Users in that all Users who choose to purchase Dedicated Cores will be subject to the same proposed tiered fee schedule. Moreover, all Users are entitled to up to 2 Dedicated Cores at no additional cost and as previously discussed, as of the beginning of May, 43% of all Members that take Dedicated Cores (including both latency sensitive and non-latency sensitive Members) take only 1 or 2 Dedicated Cores at no additional cost. The Exchange believes the proposed ascending fee structure is also reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory as it is designed so that firms that use a higher allotment of the Exchange's finite number of Dedicated Cores pay higher rates, rather than placing that burden on market participants that have more modest needs who will have the flexibility of obtaining Dedicated Cores at lower price points in the lower tiers. As such, the proposed fees do not favor certain categories of market participants in a manner that would impose a burden on competition; rather, the ascending fee structure reflects the (finite) resources consumed by the various needs of market participants—that is, the lowest Dedicated Core consuming Users pay the least, and highest Dedicated Core consuming Users pay the most. The Exchange believes that such pricing further creates a lower barrier to entry for all Users, making this service widely available to all who deem it helpful for their business, including those with more modest needs. Other exchanges similarly assess higher fees to those that consume more Exchange resources.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Moreover, those consuming more Dedicated Cores do so if they find a benefit in having higher quantities of Dedicated Cores based on their respective business needs. The proposed tier structure is also designed to encourage firms to manage their needs in a fair manner and to prevent 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34937"/>
                    the Exchange from being required to expend large amounts of limited resources in order to provide an additional number of Dedicated Cores or put the Exchange in a position that it cannot accommodate demand. Moreover, as discussed above and in more detail below, the Exchange cannot currently offer an unlimited number of Dedicated Cores due in part to physical space constraints in the third-party data center. The Exchange believes the proposed ascending fee structure is therefore another appropriate means, in conjunction with an established cap, to manage this finite resource and ensure the resource is apportioned more fairly.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See e.g.,</E>
                         Cboe U.S. Options Fees Schedule, BZX Options, Options Logical Port Fees, Ports with Bulk Quoting Capabilities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes it is reasonable to limit the number of Dedicated Cores Users can purchase because the Exchange has a finite amount of space in its third-party data centers to accommodate CPU cores, including Dedicated Cores. The Exchange must also take into account timing and cost considerations in procuring additional Dedicated Cores and related hardware such as servers, switches, optics and cables, as well as the readiness of the Exchange's data center space to accommodate additional Dedicated Cores in the Exchange's respective Order Handler Cabinets.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Moreover, procuring data center space has grown to be more challenging than it was five years ago with the increased demand for data center space. For example, the U.S. colocation data center market has doubled in size in just four years. In addition to the Exchange's rollout of Dedicated Cores, the Exchange is mindful of its other business areas and the need to continue to be mindful of its existing, external restraints in procuring additional space in this area. The Exchange has, and will continue to, monitor market participant demand and space availability and endeavor to adjust the limit if and when the Exchange is able to acquire additional space and power within the third-party data centers and/or additional CPU Cores to accommodate additional Dedicated Cores.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange monitors its capacity and data center space and thus is in the best place to determine these limits and modify them as appropriate in response to changes to this capacity and space, as well as market demand. Indeed, the Exchange has already increased the prescribed maximum since the launch of Dedicated Cores on May 6, 2024 as a result of evaluating the demand relative to Dedicated Cores availability and proposes to increase the prescribed maximum again due to the Exchange's continued ability to support current demand relative to current availability.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As another example, the Exchange's affiliate Cboe EDGA Exchange, Inc. has increased the prescribed maximum limit three times since the launch of Dedicated Cores on its exchange on February 26, 2024 as a result of evaluating the demand relative to Dedicated Cores availability.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed increased limits continue to apply uniformly to similarly situated market participants (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     all Members are subject to the same limit and all Sponsored Participants are subject to the same limit, respectively). The Exchange believes it's not unfairly discriminatory to provide for different limits for different types of Users. For example, the Exchange believes it's not unfairly discriminatory to provide for an initial lower limit to be allocated for Sponsored Participants because unlike Members, Sponsored Participants are able to access the Exchange without paying a Membership Fee. Members also have more regulatory obligations and risk that Sponsored Participants do not. For example, while Sponsored Participants must agree to comply with the Rules of the Exchange, it is the Sponsoring Member of that Sponsored Participant that remains ultimately responsible for all orders entered on or through the Exchange by that Sponsored Participant. The industry also has a history of applying fees differently to Members as compared to Sponsored Participants.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Lastly, the Exchange believes its proposed maximum limits, and distinction between Members and Sponsored Participants, is another appropriate means to help the Exchange manage its allotment of Dedicated Cores and better ensure this finite resource is apportioned fairly.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that it cannot currently convert shared CPU cores into Dedicated Cores.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         As of the beginning of May, the Exchange does not have any Users that take Dedicated Cores at or near the maximum limits and the average number of Dedicated Cores used for the Exchange is 12.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 100476 (July 9, 2024), 89 FR 57482 (July 15, 2024) (SR-CboeBYX-2024-024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 99983 (April 17, 2024), 89 FR 30418 (April 23, 2024) (SR-CboeEDGA-2024-014) Securities Exchange Act Release No. 100300 (June 10, 2024), 89 FR 50653 (June 14, 2024) (SR-CboeEDGA-2024-020); and Securities Exchange Act Release No. 100736 (August 21, 2024), 89 FR 67696 (August 15, 2024) (SR-CboeEDGA-2024-032).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See e.g.,</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 68342 (December 3, 2012), 77 FR 73096 (December 7, 2012) (SR-CBOE-2012-114) and Securities Exchange Act Release No. 66082 (January 3, 2012), 77 FR 1101 (January 9, 2012) (SR-C2-2011-041).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because the proposed tiered fee structure will apply equally to all similarly situated Users that choose to use Dedicated Cores. As discussed above, Dedicated Cores are optional and Users may choose to utilize Dedicated Cores, or not, based on their views of the additional benefits and added value provided by utilizing a Dedicated Core. The Exchange believes the proposed fee will be assessed proportionately to the potential value or benefit received by Users with a greater number of Dedicated Cores and notes that Users may determine at any time to cease using Dedicated Cores. As discussed, Users can also continue to access the Exchange through shared CPU Cores at no additional cost. Finally, all Users will be entitled to two Dedicated Cores at no additional cost.</P>
                <P>
                    Next, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change does not impose any burden on intermarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. As previously discussed, the Exchange operates in a highly competitive market, including competition for exchange memberships. Market Participants have numerous alternative venues that they may participate on, including 15 other equities exchanges, as well as off-exchange venues, where comparable products are available for trading. Indeed, participants can readily choose to submit their order flow to other exchange and off-exchange venues if they deem fee levels at those other venues to be more favorable. Further, as described above, Nasdaq also already provides a similar offering.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         The Nasdaq Stock Market, Equity 7 Pricing Schedule, Section 115(g)(3), Dedicated Ouch Port Infrastructure.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Moreover, the Commission has repeatedly expressed its preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. Specifically, in Regulation NMS, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.” 
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The fact that this market is competitive has also long been recognized by the courts. In 
                    <E T="03">NetCoalition</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Securities and Exchange Commission,</E>
                     the D.C. Circuit 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34938"/>
                    stated as follows: “[n]o one disputes that competition for order flow is ‘fierce.’ . . . As the SEC explained, ‘[i]n the U.S. national market system, buyers and sellers of securities, and the broker-dealers that act as their order-routing agents, have a wide range of choices of where to route orders for execution’; [and] ‘no exchange can afford to take its market share percentages for granted’ because ‘no exchange possesses a monopoly, regulatory or otherwise, in the execution of order flow from broker dealers’. . . .”.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe its proposed change imposes any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 51808 (June 9, 2005), 70 FR 37496, 37499 (June 29, 2005).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">NetCoalition</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">SEC,</E>
                         615 F.3d 525, 539 (D.C. Cir. 2010) (quoting Securities Exchange Act Release No. 59039 (December 2, 2008), 73 FR 74770, 74782-83 (December 9, 2008) (SR-NYSEArca-2006-21)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and paragraph (f) of Rule 19b-4 
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder. At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission will institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-CboeBYX-2025-020 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-CboeBYX-2025-020. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-CboeBYX-2025-020 and should be submitted on or before August 14, 2025.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13897 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-34-103514; File No. 600-44]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>CME Securities Clearing, Inc.; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on Proceedings To Determine Whether To Grant or Deny an Application for Registration as a Clearing Agency Under Section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>July 21, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    On December 13, 2024, CME Securities Clearing, Inc. (“CMESC”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) an application on Form CA-1 (“Application”) under Section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) seeking to register as a clearing agency.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Notice of the Application was published for comment in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on January 22, 2025 (“Notice”),
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the Commission received comment letters in response.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On April 18, 2025, the Commission issued an order instituting proceedings to determine whether to grant or deny the Application (“OIP”),
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the Commission received additional comment letters, including letters from CMESC.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q-1. Non-confidential aspects of the Application, including any exhibits thereto cited in this order, are available on the Commission's website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules-regulations/other-commission-orders-notices-information/cme-form-ca-1.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Release No. 34-102200 (Jan. 15, 2025), 90 FR 7713 (Jan. 22, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The public comment file for the Application is available on the Commission's website at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/comments/600-44/600-44.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Release No. 34-102889 (Apr. 18, 2025), 90 FR 17269 (Apr. 24, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Section 19(a)(1)(B) of the Exchange Act provides that proceedings instituted to determine whether to deny an application for registration as a clearing agency shall be concluded within 180 days of the date of a publication of notice of the filing of the application for registration.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     At the conclusion of such proceedings, the Commission, by order, shall grant or deny such registration.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission may extend the time for conclusion of such proceedings for up to 90 days if it finds good cause for such extension and publishes its reasons for so finding.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Notice was published for comment in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on January 22, 2025.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The 180th day after publication of the Notice is July 21, 2025. The Commission is extending the time for granting or denying CMESC's Application for registration as a clearing agency for an additional 90 days.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(a)(1)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 2.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission finds good cause for extending the period for granting or denying CMESC's Application because the extension will provide additional time for the Commission to assess whether the Application satisfies the requirements of Section 17A of the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations thereunder for clearing agencies. In the OIP, the Commission sought comment regarding the Application's consistency with Section 17A(b)(3) of the Exchange Act. In addition, as described in the OIP, CMESC proposes a novel structure with two types of participants, Members and Users.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This novel structure affects the way in which CMESC conducts risk management, including its system for margin collection, risk surveillance, and the rules pursuant to which CMESC 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34939"/>
                    would manage the default of multiple participants, including both Members and Users.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, the Commission believes there is good cause to extend the time for conclusion of the proceedings for 90 days.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         90 FR at 17272.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, pursuant to Section 19(a)(1)(B) of the Exchange Act,
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Commission designates October 19, 2025, as the date by which the Commission shall either grant or deny CMESC's Application.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(a)(1)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By the Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>Vanessa A. Countryman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13917 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-103507; File No. SR-NYSEAMER-2025-42]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE American LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change to Temporarily Lower the Options Regulatory Fee (ORF)</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>July 21, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on July 16, 2025, NYSE American LLC (“NYSE American” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78a.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend the NYSE American Options Fee Schedule (“Fee Schedule”) regarding the Options Regulatory Fee (“ORF”). The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule to temporarily decrease the ORF from $0.0038 per contract to $0.0023 per contract, effective July 16, 2025.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         On July 1, 2025, the Exchange filed to amend the Fee Schedule (NYSEAMER-2025-39) and withdrew such filing on July 16, 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    As a general matter, the Exchange may only use regulatory funds such as the ORF “to fund the legal, regulatory, and surveillance operations” of the Exchange.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     More specifically, the ORF is designed to recover a material portion, but not all, of the Exchange's costs for the supervision and regulation of ATP Holders, including the Exchange's regulatory program and legal expenses associated with options regulation, such as the costs related to in-house staff, third-party service providers, and technology that facilitate regulatory functions such as surveillance, investigation, examinations, and enforcement (collectively, the “ORF Costs”). ORF funds may also be used for indirect expenses such as human resources and other administrative costs. The Exchange monitors the amount of revenue collected from the ORF to ensure that this revenue, in combination with other regulatory fees and fines, does not exceed regulatory costs.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The Exchange considers surveillance operations part of regulatory operations. The limitation on the use of regulatory funds also provides that they shall not be distributed. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Thirteenth Amended and Restated Operating Agreement of NYSE American LLC, Article IV, Section 4.05 and Securities Exchange Act Release No. 87993 (January 16, 2020), 85 FR 4050 (January 23, 2020) (SR-NYSEAMER-2020-04).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The ORF is assessed on ATP Holders for options transactions that are cleared by the ATP Holder through the Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) in the Customer range regardless of the exchange on which the transaction occurs and is collected from ATP Holder clearing firms by the OCC on behalf of NYSE American.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     All options transactions must clear via a clearing firm and such clearing firms can then choose to pass through all, a portion, or none of the cost of the ORF to its customers, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the entering firms. The Exchange notes that the costs relating to monitoring ATP Holders with respect to Customer trading activity are generally higher than the costs associated with monitoring ATP Holders that do not engage in Customer trading activity, which tends to be more automated and less labor-intensive. By contrast, regulating ATP Holders that engage in Customer trading activity is generally more labor intensive and requires a greater expenditure of human and technical resources as the Exchange needs to review not only the trading activity on behalf of Customers, but also the ATP Holder's relationship with its Customers via more labor-intensive exam-based programs.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As a result, the costs associated with administering the customer component of the Exchange's overall regulatory program are materially higher than the costs associated with administering the non-customer component (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     ATP Holder proprietary transactions) of its regulatory program.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Fee Schedule, Section VII.A., Options Regulatory Fee (“ORF”), 
                        <E T="03">available here, https://www.nyse.com/publicdocs/nyse/markets/american-options/NYSE_American_Options_Fee_Schedule.pdf.</E>
                         The Exchange uses reports from OCC when assessing and collecting the ORF. The ORF is not assessed on outbound linkage trades. An ATP Holder is not assessed the fee until it has satisfied applicable technological requirements necessary to commence operations on NYSE American. 
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that many of the Exchange's market surveillance programs require the Exchange to look at and evaluate activity across all options markets, such as surveillance for position limit violations, manipulation, front-running, and contrary exercise advice violations/expiring exercise declarations. The Exchange and other options SROs are parties to a 17d-2 agreement allocating among the SROs regulatory responsibilities relating to compliance by the common members with rules for expiring exercise declarations, position limits, OCC trade adjustments, and Large Option Position Report reviews. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 85097 (February 11, 2019), 84 FR 4871 (February 19, 2019).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Because the ORF is based on options transactions volume, the amount of ORF collected is variable. For example, if options transactions reported to OCC in a given month increase, the ORF collected from ATP Holders will likely increase as well. Similarly, if options transactions reported to OCC in a given month decrease, the ORF collected from 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34940"/>
                    ATP Holders will likely decrease as well. Accordingly, the Exchange monitors the amount of ORF collected to ensure that it does not exceed a material portion of ORF Costs. If the Exchange determines the amount of ORF collected exceeds or may exceed a material portion of ORF Costs, the Exchange will, as appropriate, adjust the ORF by submitting a fee change filing to the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”). Exchange rules establish that market participants must be notified of any change in the ORF via Trader Update at least 30 calendar days prior to the effective date of the change.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Fee Schedule, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 6.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on the Exchange's recent review of regulatory costs, ORF collections, and options transaction volume, the Exchange proposes to temporarily decrease the amount of ORF collected from $0.0038 per contract to $0.0023 per contract, effective July 1, 2025.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This proposed decrease will help ensure that the amount collected from the ORF, in combination with other regulatory fees and fines, does not exceed the Exchange's total regulatory costs. On May 30, 2025, the Exchange notified ATP Holders of the proposed change via Trader Update (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     at least 30 calendar days prior to the July 1st operative date) to afford market participants sufficient opportunity to configure their systems to account properly for the modified ORF.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The Exchange proposes to have an automatic sunset of the proposed fee on December 31, 2025. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Fee Schedule, Section VII.A., Options Regulatory Fee (“ORF”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.nyse.com/trader-update/history#110000949347.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The proposed change to the ORF is based on the Exchange's analysis of recent options volumes and its regulatory costs. The Exchange believes that, if the ORF is not adjusted, the ORF revenue to the Exchange year over year could exceed a material portion of the Exchange's ORF Costs. Over the past few years, the options industry has experienced high options trading volumes and volatility and, although the Exchange waived the ORF for the last two months of 2024,
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the persisting increased options volumes have impacted the Exchange's ORF collection.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 101866 (December 10, 2024), 89 FR 101674 (December 16, 2024) (SR-NYSEAMER-2024-63) (Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the NYSE American Options Fee Schedule To Modify the Options Regulatory Fee).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The table below reflects industry data from OCC and illustrates that both total average daily volume and customer average daily volume in 2025 increased over the already elevated levels in 2023 and 2024.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         The OCC publishes options and futures volume in a variety of formats, including daily and monthly volume by exchange, available here: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.theocc.com/Market-Data/Market-Data-Reports/Volume-and-Open-Interest/Monthly-Weekly-Volume-Statistics.</E>
                         The volume discussed in this filing is based on a compilation of OCC data for monthly volume of equity-based options and monthly volume of ETF-based options, in contract sides.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2023</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2024</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2025 YTD</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Customer ADV</ENT>
                        <ENT>35,327,417</ENT>
                        <ENT>39,365,049</ENT>
                        <ENT>46,831,086</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Total ADV</ENT>
                        <ENT>40,368,590</ENT>
                        <ENT>44,360,426</ENT>
                        <ENT>53,043,204</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    In addition, as shown in the table below, during 2025, options trading volumes have remained elevated and volatility has persisted.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Jan. 2025</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Feb. 2025</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Mar. 2025</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Apr. 2025</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">May 2025</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Customer ADV</ENT>
                        <ENT>46,758,284</ENT>
                        <ENT>48,508,333</ENT>
                        <ENT>46,281,134</ENT>
                        <ENT>47,786,196</ENT>
                        <ENT>46,234,519</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Total ADV</ENT>
                        <ENT>53,134,932</ENT>
                        <ENT>54,563,396</ENT>
                        <ENT>53,182,376</ENT>
                        <ENT>55,339,630</ENT>
                        <ENT>51,351,579</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    Because of the sustained impact of the trading volumes that have persisted through mid-2025, along with the difficulty of predicting whether and when volumes may return to historical levels, the Exchange proposes to temporarily decrease the ORF from July 1 through December 31, 2025, to help ensure that ORF collection will not exceed ORF Costs for 2025.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange cannot predict whether options volumes will remain at these levels going forward and projections for future regulatory costs are estimated, preliminary, and may change. However, the Exchange believes that the proposed change to the ORF would allow the Exchange to continue to monitor the amount collected from the ORF to help ensure that ORF collection, in combination with other regulatory fees and fines, does not exceed regulatory costs for 2025.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         After December 31, 2025, the Exchange proposes that the ORF rate automatically revert to $0.0038 per contract (the “sunset provision”). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Fee Schedule, Section VII.A., Options Regulatory Fee (“ORF”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Potential ORF Reform</HD>
                <P>The Exchange appreciates the evolving changes in the markets and regulatory environment and, in connection with industry and other feedback, has been evaluating the current methodologies and practices for the assessment and collection of ORF. The Exchange believes ORF reform is appropriate, including moving to a model in which ORF would be assessed only to transactions occurring on the Exchange. This would allow for consistent industry billing. The Exchange is committed to switching to a new, modified model as soon as a consistent framework has been established with the SEC, adopted by all the options exchanges, and necessary regulatory filings submitted. Until that time, the Exchange believes it is fair and reasonable to temporarily decrease the current ORF under the existing model.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also believes that the potential for ORF reform provides further support for the sunset provision included in this proposal because it will allow the Exchange to discuss its anticipated, or potential alternative, ORF methodology with ATP Holders between July 1 and December 31, 2025 (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the sunset date).
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that the existence of the proposed sunset date would not preclude the Exchange from filing to modify its ORF methodology prior to that date.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6(b) 
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act, in general, and Section 6(b)(4) and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34941"/>
                    (5) 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act, in particular, in that it is designed to provide for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees, and other charges among its members and other persons using its facilities and does not unfairly discriminate between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposal Is Reasonable</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is reasonable because it would help ensure that collections from the ORF do not exceed a material portion of the Exchange's ORF Costs. As noted above, the ORF is designed to recover a material portion, but not all, of the Exchange's ORF Costs.</P>
                <P>
                    Although there can be no assurance that the Exchange's final costs for 2025 will not differ materially from its expectations and prior practice, nor can the Exchange predict with certainty whether options volume will remain at current or similar levels going forward, the Exchange believes that the amount collected based on the current ORF rate, when combined with regulatory fees and fines, may result in collections in excess of the estimated ORF Costs for the year. Particularly, as noted above, the options market has continued to experience elevated volumes and volatility in 2025, thereby resulting in higher ORF collections than projected. The Exchange therefore believes that the proposed temporary decrease to the ORF is reasonable because it would help ensure that ORF collection does not exceed the ORF Costs for 2025. Particularly, the Exchange believes that this temporary reduction in the ORF, taken together with the Exchange's other regulatory fees and fines, would allow the Exchange to continue covering a material portion of ORF Costs, while lessening the potential for generating excess funds that may otherwise occur using the current rate. Per the sunset provision, the Exchange proposes to resume assessing its current ORF (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     $0.0038 per contract) after December 31, 2025. The Exchange believes that resumption of the ORF at the current rate on January 1, 2026 (unless the Exchange determines it necessary to adjust the ORF rate to help ensure that ORF collections do not exceed ORF Costs) is reasonable because it would permit the Exchange to resume collecting an ORF that is designed to recover a material portion, but not all, of the Exchange's projected ORF Costs. The Exchange's proposal to revert to its current ORF rate after December 31, 2025 is based on the Exchange's estimated projections for its regulatory costs, which are currently projected to increase in 2026, balanced with the increase in options volumes that has persisted into 2025 and that may continue into 2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange will continue to monitor ORF Costs in advance of the sunset date (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     December 31, 2025) and, if necessary, based on projected volumes and ORF Costs, will adjust the ORF rate to help ensure that ORF collections would not exceed a material portion of ORF Costs, adjust the ORF by submitting a proposed rule change and notifying ATP Holders of such change by Trader Update.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposal Is an Equitable Allocation of Fees</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes its proposal is an equitable allocation of fees among its market participants. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would not place certain market participants at an unfair disadvantage because it would apply equally to all ATP Holders on all their transactions that clear in the Customer range at the OCC and would allow the Exchange to continue to monitor the amount collected from the ORF to help ensure that ORF collection, in combination with other regulatory fees and fines, does not exceed regulatory costs. The Exchange also believes that reverting to the existing ORF after December 31, 2025, unless the Exchange determines it necessary to adjust the ORF to ensure that ORF collections do not exceed a material portion of ORF Costs, is equitable because the ORF would continue to apply equally to all ATP Holders on options transactions in the Customer range, at a rate designed to recover a material portion, but not all, of the Exchange's projected ORF Costs, based on current projections that such costs will increase in 2026.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposed Fee Is Not Unfairly Discriminatory</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposal is not unfairly discriminatory. The Exchange believes that the proposed temporary decrease to the ORF rate would not place certain market participants at an unfair disadvantage because it would apply to all ATP Holders subject to the ORF and would allow the Exchange to continue to monitor the amount collected from the ORF to help ensure that ORF collection, in combination with other regulatory fees and fines, does not exceed regulatory costs. The Exchange also has provided all such ATP Holders with 30 days' advance notice of the planned change to the ORF. Further, the Exchange believes that reverting to the existing ORF after December 31, 2025 (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the sunset date), unless the Exchange determines it necessary to adjust the ORF to ensure that ORF collections do not exceed a material portion of ORF Costs, is not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange would resume assessing the ORF (at its current rate) equally to all ATP Holders based on their transactions that clear in the Customer range at the OCC.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intramarket Competition.</E>
                     The Exchange believes the proposed change would not impose an undue burden on intramarket competition because the ORF is charged to all ATP Holders on all their transactions that clear in the Customer range at the OCC; thus, the amount of ORF imposed is based on the amount of Customer volume transacted. The Exchange believes that the proposed temporary decrease of the ORF would not place certain market participants at an unfair disadvantage because all options transactions must clear via a clearing firm. Such clearing firms can then choose to pass through all, a portion, or none of the cost of the ORF to its customers, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the entering firms. The ORF is collected from ATP Holder clearing firms by the OCC on behalf of the Exchange and is assessed on all options transactions cleared at the OCC in the Customer range.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also believes that reverting to the existing ORF after December 31, 2025 (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the sunset date)—unless the Exchange determines it necessary at that time to adjust the ORF to ensure that ORF collections do not exceed a material portion of ORF Costs—would not impose an undue burden on competition because it would permit the Exchange to resume assessing an ORF that is designed to recover a material portion, but not all, of the Exchange's projected ORF Costs, based on current projections that such costs will increase in 2026. As is the case today, the proposed reduced ORF rate would apply to all ATP Holders on their options transactions that clear in the Customer range at the OCC, which rate will automatically revert to the current ORF rate after December 31, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intermarket Competition.</E>
                     The proposed fee change is not designed to address any competitive issues. Rather, the proposed change is designed to help the Exchange adequately fund its regulatory activities while seeking to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34942"/>
                    ensure that total collections from regulatory fees do not exceed total regulatory costs.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and paragraph (f) of Rule 19b-4 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder. At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission will institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSEAMER-2025-42  on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEAMER-2025-42. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEAMER-2025-42 and should be submitted on or before August 14, 2025.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13894 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-103506; File No. SR-NYSEARCA-2025-52]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change to Temporarily Lower the Options Regulatory Fee (ORF)</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>July 21, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on July 16, 2025, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78a.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend the NYSE Arca Options Fee Schedule (“Fee Schedule”) regarding the Options Regulatory Fee (“ORF”). The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule to temporarily decrease the ORF from $0.0038 per contract to $0.0023 per contract, effective July 16, 2025.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         On July 1, 2025, the Exchange filed to amend the Fee Schedule (NYSEARCA-2025-49) and withdrew such filing on July 16, 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    As a general matter, the Exchange may only use regulatory funds such as the ORF “to fund the legal, regulatory, and surveillance operations” of the Exchange.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     More specifically, the ORF is designed to recover a material portion, but not all, of the Exchange's costs for the supervision and regulation of OTP Holders and OTP Firms (collectively, “OTP Holders”), including the Exchange's regulatory program and legal expenses associated with options regulation, such as the costs related to in-house staff, third-party service providers, and technology that facilitate regulatory functions such as surveillance, investigation, examinations, and enforcement (collectively, the “ORF Costs”). ORF funds may also be used for indirect expenses such as human resources and other administrative costs. The Exchange monitors the amount of revenue collected from the ORF to ensure that this revenue, in combination with other regulatory fees and fines, does not exceed regulatory costs.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The Exchange considers surveillance operations part of regulatory operations. The limitation on the use of regulatory funds also provides that they shall not be distributed. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Bylaws of NYSE Arca, Inc., Art. II, Sec. 2.03.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The ORF is assessed on OTP Holders for options transactions that are cleared by the OTP Holder through the Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) in the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34943"/>
                    Customer range regardless of the exchange on which the transaction occurs and is collected from OTP Holder clearing firms by the OCC on behalf of NYSE Arca.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     All options transactions must clear via a clearing firm and such clearing firms can then choose to pass through all, a portion, or none of the cost of the ORF to its customers, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the entering firms. The Exchange notes that the costs relating to monitoring OTP Holders with respect to Customer trading activity are generally higher than the costs associated with monitoring OTP Holders that do not engage in Customer trading activity, which tends to be more automated and less labor-intensive. By contrast, regulating OTP Holders that engage in Customer trading activity is generally more labor intensive and requires a greater expenditure of human and technical resources as the Exchange needs to review not only the trading activity on behalf of Customers, but also the OTP Holder's relationship with its Customers via more labor-intensive exam-based programs.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As a result, the costs associated with administering the customer component of the Exchange's overall regulatory program are materially higher than the costs associated with administering the non-customer component (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     OTP Holder proprietary transactions) of its regulatory program.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Fee Schedule, NYSE Arca GENERAL OPTIONS and TRADING PERMIT (OTP) FEES, Regulatory Fees, Options Regulatory Fee (“ORF”), 
                        <E T="03">available here, https://www.nyse.com/publicdocs/nyse/markets/arca-options/NYSE_Arca_Options_Fee_Schedule.pdf.</E>
                         The Exchange uses reports from OCC when assessing and collecting the ORF. The ORF is not assessed on outbound linkage trades. An OTP Holder is not assessed the fee until it has satisfied applicable technological requirements necessary to commence operations on NYSE Arca. 
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that many of the Exchange's market surveillance programs require the Exchange to look at and evaluate activity across all options markets, such as surveillance for position limit violations, manipulation, front-running, and contrary exercise advice violations/expiring exercise declarations. The Exchange and other options SROs are parties to a 17d-2 agreement allocating among the SROs regulatory responsibilities relating to compliance by the common members with rules for expiring exercise declarations, position limits, OCC trade adjustments, and Large Option Position Report reviews. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 85097 (February 11, 2019), 84 FR 4871 (February 19, 2019).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Because the ORF is based on options transactions volume, the amount of ORF collected is variable. For example, if options transactions reported to OCC in a given month increase, the ORF collected from OTP Holders will likely increase as well. Similarly, if options transactions reported to OCC in a given month decrease, the ORF collected from OTP Holders will likely decrease as well. Accordingly, the Exchange monitors the amount of ORF collected to ensure that it does not exceed a material portion of ORF Costs. If the Exchange determines the amount of ORF collected exceeds or may exceed a material portion of ORF Costs, the Exchange will, as appropriate, adjust the ORF by submitting a fee change filing to the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”). Exchange rules establish that market participants must be notified of any change in the ORF via Trader Update at least 30 calendar days prior to the effective date of the change.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Fee Schedule, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 6.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on the Exchange's recent review of regulatory costs, ORF collections, and options transaction volume, the Exchange proposes to temporarily decrease the amount of ORF collected from $0.0038 per contract to $0.0023 per contract, effective July 1, 2025.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This proposed decrease will help ensure that the amount collected from the ORF, in combination with other regulatory fees and fines, does not exceed the Exchange's total regulatory costs. On May 30, 2025, the Exchange notified OTP Holders of the proposed change via Trader Update (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     at least 30 calendar days prior to the July 1st operative date) to afford market participants sufficient opportunity to configure their systems to account properly for the modified ORF.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The Exchange proposes to have an automatic sunset of the proposed fee on December 31, 2025. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Fee Schedule, NYSE Arca GENERAL OPTIONS and TRADING PERMIT (OTP) FEES, Regulatory Fees, Options Regulatory Fee (“ORF”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.nyse.com/trader-update/history#110000949347.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The proposed change to the ORF is based on the Exchange's analysis of recent options volumes and its regulatory costs. The Exchange believes that, if the ORF is not adjusted, the ORF revenue to the Exchange year over year could exceed a material portion of the Exchange's ORF Costs. Over the past few years, the options industry has experienced high options trading volumes and volatility and, although the Exchange waived the ORF for the last two months of 2024,
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the persisting increased options volumes have impacted the Exchange's ORF collection.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 101868 (December 10, 2024), 89 FR 101650 (December 16, 2024) (SR-NYSEARCA-2024-90) (Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the NYSE Arca Options Fee Schedule To Modify the Options Regulatory Fee).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The table below reflects industry data from OCC and illustrates that both total average daily volume and customer average daily volume in 2025 increased over the already elevated levels in 2023 and 2024.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         The OCC publishes options and futures volume in a variety of formats, including daily and monthly volume by exchange, available here: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.theocc.com/Market-Data/Market-Data-Reports/Volume-and-Open-Interest/Monthly-Weekly-Volume-Statistics.</E>
                         The volume discussed in this filing is based on a compilation of OCC data for monthly volume of equity-based options and monthly volume of ETF-based options, in contract sides.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2023</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2024</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2025 YTD</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Customer ADV</ENT>
                        <ENT>35,327,417</ENT>
                        <ENT>39,365,049</ENT>
                        <ENT>46,831,086</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Total ADV</ENT>
                        <ENT>40,368,590</ENT>
                        <ENT>44,360,426</ENT>
                        <ENT>53,043,204</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    In addition, as shown in the table below, during 2025, options trading volumes have remained elevated and volatility has persisted.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Jan. 2025</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Feb. 2025</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Mar. 2025</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Apr. 2025</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">May 2025</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Customer ADV</ENT>
                        <ENT>46,758,284</ENT>
                        <ENT>48,508,333</ENT>
                        <ENT>46,281,134</ENT>
                        <ENT>47,786,196</ENT>
                        <ENT>46,234,519</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Total ADV</ENT>
                        <ENT>53,134,932</ENT>
                        <ENT>54,563,396</ENT>
                        <ENT>53,182,376</ENT>
                        <ENT>55,339,630</ENT>
                        <ENT>51,351,579</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="34944"/>
                <P>
                    Because of the sustained impact of the trading volumes that have persisted through mid-2025, along with the difficulty of predicting whether and when volumes may return to historical levels, the Exchange proposes to temporarily decrease the ORF from July 1 through December 31, 2025, to help ensure that ORF collection will not exceed ORF Costs for 2025.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange cannot predict whether options volumes will remain at these levels going forward and projections for future regulatory costs are estimated, preliminary, and may change. However, the Exchange believes that the proposed change to the ORF would allow the Exchange to continue to monitor the amount collected from the ORF to help ensure that ORF collection, in combination with other regulatory fees and fines, does not exceed regulatory costs for 2025.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         After December 31, 2025, the Exchange proposes that the ORF rate automatically revert to $0.0038 per contract (the “sunset provision”). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Fee Schedule, NYSE Arca GENERAL OPTIONS and TRADING PERMIT (OTP) FEES, Regulatory Fees, Options Regulatory Fee (“ORF”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Potential ORF Reform</HD>
                <P>The Exchange appreciates the evolving changes in the markets and regulatory environment and, in connection with industry and other feedback, has been evaluating the current methodologies and practices for the assessment and collection of ORF. The Exchange believes ORF reform is appropriate, including moving to a model in which ORF would be assessed only to transactions occurring on the Exchange. This would allow for consistent industry billing. The Exchange is committed to switching to a new, modified model as soon as a consistent framework has been established with the SEC, adopted by all the options exchanges, and necessary regulatory filings submitted. Until that time, the Exchange believes it is fair and reasonable to temporarily decrease the current ORF under the existing model.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also believes that the potential for ORF reform provides further support for the sunset provision included in this proposal because it will allow the Exchange to discuss its anticipated, or potential alternative, ORF methodology with OTP Holders between July 1 and December 31, 2025 (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the sunset date).
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that the existence of the proposed sunset date would not preclude the Exchange from filing to modify its ORF methodology prior to that date.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6(b) 
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act, in general, and Section 6(b)(4) and (5) 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act, in particular, in that it is designed to provide for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees, and other charges among its members and other persons using its facilities and does not unfairly discriminate between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposal Is Reasonable</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is reasonable because it would help ensure that collections from the ORF do not exceed a material portion of the Exchange's ORF Costs. As noted above, the ORF is designed to recover a material portion, but not all, of the Exchange's ORF Costs.</P>
                <P>
                    Although there can be no assurance that the Exchange's final costs for 2025 will not differ materially from its expectations and prior practice, nor can the Exchange predict with certainty whether options volume will remain at current or similar levels going forward, the Exchange believes that the amount collected based on the current ORF rate, when combined with regulatory fees and fines, may result in collections in excess of the estimated ORF Costs for the year. Particularly, as noted above, the options market has continued to experience elevated volumes and volatility in 2025, thereby resulting in higher ORF collections than projected. The Exchange therefore believes that the proposed temporary decrease to the ORF is reasonable because it would help ensure that ORF collection does not exceed the ORF Costs for 2025. Particularly, the Exchange believes that this temporary reduction in the ORF, taken together with the Exchange's other regulatory fees and fines, would allow the Exchange to continue covering a material portion of ORF Costs, while lessening the potential for generating excess funds that may otherwise occur using the current rate. Per the sunset provision, the Exchange proposes to resume assessing its current ORF (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     $0.0038 per contract) after December 31, 2025. The Exchange believes that resumption of the ORF at the current rate on January 1, 2026 (unless the Exchange determines it necessary to adjust the ORF rate to help ensure that ORF collections do not exceed ORF Costs) is reasonable because it would permit the Exchange to resume collecting an ORF that is designed to recover a material portion, but not all, of the Exchange's projected ORF Costs. The Exchange's proposal to revert to its current ORF rate after December 31, 2025 is based on the Exchange's estimated projections for its regulatory costs, which are currently projected to increase in 2026, balanced with the increase in options volumes that has persisted into 2025 and that may continue into 2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange will continue to monitor ORF Costs in advance of the sunset date (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     December 31, 2025) and, if necessary, based on projected volumes and ORF Costs, will adjust the ORF rate to help ensure that ORF collections would not exceed a material portion of ORF Costs, adjust the ORF by submitting a proposed rule change and notifying OTP Holders of such change by Trader Update.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposal Is an Equitable Allocation of Fees</HD>
                <P>The Exchange believes its proposal is an equitable allocation of fees among its market participants. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would not place certain market participants at an unfair disadvantage because it would apply equally to all OTP Holders on all their transactions that clear in the Customer range at the OCC and would allow the Exchange to continue to monitor the amount collected from the ORF to help ensure that ORF collection, in combination with other regulatory fees and fines, does not exceed regulatory costs. The Exchange also believes that reverting to the existing ORF after December 31, 2025, unless the Exchange determines it necessary to adjust the ORF to ensure that ORF collections do not exceed a material portion of ORF Costs, is equitable because the ORF would continue to apply equally to all OTP Holders on options transactions in the Customer range, at a rate designed to recover a material portion, but not all, of the Exchange's projected ORF Costs, based on current projections that such costs will increase in 2026.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">The Proposed Fee Is Not Unfairly Discriminatory</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposal is not unfairly discriminatory. The Exchange believes that the proposed temporary decrease to the ORF rate would not place certain market participants at an unfair disadvantage because it would apply to all OTP Holders subject to the ORF and would allow the Exchange to continue to monitor the amount collected from the ORF to help ensure that ORF collection, in combination with other regulatory fees and fines, does not exceed regulatory costs. The Exchange also has provided all such OTP Holders with 30 days' advance notice of the planned 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34945"/>
                    change to the ORF. Further, the Exchange believes that reverting to the existing ORF after December 31, 2025 (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the sunset date), unless the Exchange determines it necessary to adjust the ORF to ensure that ORF collections do not exceed a material portion of ORF Costs, is not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange would resume assessing the ORF (at its current rate) equally to all OTP Holders based on their transactions that clear in the Customer range at the OCC.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intramarket Competition.</E>
                     The Exchange believes the proposed change would not impose an undue burden on intramarket competition because the ORF is charged to all OTP Holders on all their transactions that clear in the Customer range at the OCC; thus, the amount of ORF imposed is based on the amount of Customer volume transacted. The Exchange believes that the proposed temporary decrease of the ORF would not place certain market participants at an unfair disadvantage because all options transactions must clear via a clearing firm. Such clearing firms can then choose to pass through all, a portion, or none of the cost of the ORF to its customers, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the entering firms. The ORF is collected from OTP Holder clearing firms by the OCC on behalf of the Exchange and is assessed on all options transactions cleared at the OCC in the Customer range.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also believes that reverting to the existing ORF after December 31, 2025 (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the sunset date)—unless the Exchange determines it necessary at that time to adjust the ORF to ensure that ORF collections do not exceed a material portion of ORF Costs—would not impose an undue burden on competition because it would permit the Exchange to resume assessing an ORF that is designed to recover a material portion, but not all, of the Exchange's projected ORF Costs, based on current projections that such costs will increase in 2026. As is the case today, the proposed reduced ORF rate would apply to all OTP Holders on their options transactions that clear in the Customer range at the OCC, which rate will automatically revert to the current ORF rate after December 31, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intermarket Competition.</E>
                     The proposed fee change is not designed to address any competitive issues. Rather, the proposed change is designed to help the Exchange adequately fund its regulatory activities while seeking to ensure that total collections from regulatory fees do not exceed total regulatory costs.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and paragraph (f) of Rule 19b-4 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder. At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission will institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSEARCA-2025-52  on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEARCA-2025-52. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEARCA-2025-52 and should be submitted on or before August 14, 2025.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13900 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-103508; File No. SR-C2-2025-016]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe C2 Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Opening Process for Simple Orders in Exclusively Listed Index Option Classes</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>July 21, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on July 9, 2025, Cboe C2 Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “C2”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    Cboe C2 Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “C2”) proposes to amend its opening process for simple orders in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34946"/>
                    exclusively listed index option classes.
                    <FTREF/>
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     The text of the proposed rule change is provided in Exhibit 5.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         An “exclusively listed option” is an option that may trade exclusively on an exchange (and its affiliated exchange) because the exchange has an exclusive license to list and trade the option or has the proprietary rights in the interest underlying the option. An exclusively listed option is different than a “singly listed option,” which is an option that is not an “exclusively listed option” but that is listed by one exchange and not by any other national securities exchange.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's website (
                    <E T="03">http://markets.cboe.com/us/options/regulation/rule_filings/ctwo/</E>
                    ) and at the Exchange's Office of the Secretary.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 5.31 regarding its opening process for simple orders for products it may exclusively list on the Exchange.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The Exchange previously submitted the proposed rule change on May 27, 2025 (SR-C2-2025-011). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 103207 (June 6, 2025), 90 FR 24819, (June 12, 2025) (SR-C2-2025-011). The Exchange is withdrawing SR-C2-2025-011 and submitting this filing to revise certain changes proposed in that filing.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Current Standard Opening Process</HD>
                <P>
                    Currently, following the occurrence of an opening rotation trigger pursuant to Rule 5.31(d), the System conducts an opening rotation for an option series. Following the opening rotation trigger, the System conducts the Maximum Composite Width Check pursuant to Rule 5.31(e)(1) to determine if a series is eligible to open. If the Composite Market 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of a series is not crossed, and the Composite Width 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the series is less than or equal to the Maximum Composite Width (as defined in Rule 5.31(a)), the series is eligible to open. Additionally, if the Composite Market of a series is not crossed, and the Composite Width of the series is greater than the Maximum Composite Width, but there are (i) no non-M Capacity 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (a) market orders or (b) buy (sell) limit orders with prices higher (lower) than the Composite Market midpoint and (ii) no orders or quotes marketable against each other, the series is eligible to open. Once a series become eligible to open, the System conducts the opening auction for the series (
                    <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                     determines the opening trade price pursuant to Rule 5.31(e)(2) and opens the series pursuant to Rule 5.31(e)(3)). The Exchange may also determine to compel a series to open in the interest of fair and orderly markets, including if the opening width is wider than the Maximum Composite Width, pursuant to Rule 5.31(h).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The term “Composite Market” means the market for a series comprised of (1) the higher of the then-current best appointed Market-Maker bulk message bid on the Exchange and the away best bid (“ABB”) (if there is an ABB) and (2) the lower of the then-current best appointed Market-Maker bulk message offer on the Exchange and the away best offer (“ABO”) (if there is an ABO). The term “Composite Bid (Offer)” means the bid (offer) used to determine the Composite Market. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The term “Composite Width” means the width of the Composite Market (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the width between the Composite Bid and the Composite Offer) of a series. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         A non-M Capacity order is a non-Market Maker order. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 1.1, definition of Capacity for a list of other Capacities that may be attached to an order.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Currently, if a series cannot satisfy these conditions described above (and thus is not eligible to open), if there is no Composite Market, or if the Composite Market of a series is crossed, the series is ineligible to open.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     When that occurs, the Queuing Period 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for the series continues (including the dissemination of opening auction updates) until (i) the Maximum Composite Width Check is satisfied and the Composite Market is not crossed; (ii) there are (a) no non-M Capacity (x) market orders or (y) buy (sell) limit orders with prices higher (lower) than the Composite Market midpoint and (b) no orders or quotes marketable against each other if the Maximum Composite Width is not satisfied and the Composite Market is not crossed, or (iii) the Exchange determines to open the series pursuant to Rule 5.31(h). As described further herein, the Exchange may now manually increase the prescribed Maximum Composite Width during the Queuing Period in order to open up an exclusively listed option series.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(e)(1)(C).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The term “Queuing Period” means the time period prior to the initiation of an opening rotation during which the System accepts orders and quotes in the Queuing Book (the book into which Users may submit orders for participation in the opening rotation) for participation in the opening rotation for the applicable trading session. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         the definition of Maximum Composite Width, which permits the Exchange to modify the Maximum Composite Width during the opening auction process (which modifications the Exchange disseminates to all subscribers via the Exchange's data feeds that deliver opening auction updates) in Rule 5.31(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Current Forced Opening Procedures for Equity and ETP Options Classes</HD>
                <P>
                    However, currently, if a series in an equity or ETP option class is unable to open because it does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width Check within an Exchange-designated time period and the Composite Market is not crossed, the System forces the series to open after that time period upon the System's observation of an ABBO 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (with a non-zero offer) for the series.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         The term “ABBO” means the best bid(s) or offer(s) disseminated by other Eligible Exchanges (as defined in Rule 5.65) and calculated by the Exchange based on market information the Exchange receives from OPRA. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 1.1.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(e)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Background on the Current Opening Procedures for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>
                    As mentioned above, and as described further herein, the Exchange may now manually force open a series that does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width by increasing the prescribed Maximum Composite Width during the Queuing Period in order to open up a series.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange currently exercises more discretion through this manual process then it would through the proposed automated process as it must manually review which series are not open and can determine whether it wants to force the series open. . In neither the existing process nor in the proposed automated process through the proposed modified forced open rule is there are an ABBO looked to (as it does not exist).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         the definition of Maximum Composite Width, which permits the Exchange to modify the Maximum Composite Width during the opening auction process (which modifications the Exchange disseminates to all subscribers via the Exchange's data feeds that deliver opening auction updates) in Rule 5.31(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    However, under the existing manual process to increase the Maximum Composite Width, if there are no Market Maker orders, and thus no Composite Width for the Exchange to manually increase, a series will not open, unless the Exchange deems it necessary for fair and orderly markets and opens a series 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34947"/>
                    pursuant to Rule 5.31(h). The new rule proposes that a forced open shall occur if there is no Composite Market so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed. As described in further detail below, the Exchange believes this is in the best interest of market participants, as it is the case for some Market Makers that they may not provide on-screen liquidity until after they receive the opening trigger notification.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For these reasons, the Exchange believes it is in the best interest to open up these series even if no Composite Market exists and no non-M Capacity orders are crossed.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Of further note, the Exchange's affiliated options exchange, Cboe Exchange, Inc. (“Cboe Options”) generally has a strong floor presence for exclusively listed options, and it may be the case while there is no Composite Market on screen, that there are Market Makers on the floor that can fill customer orders. The Exchange and its affiliated options exchanges are all proposing to modify its existing forced opening procedures to include exclusively listed options.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange also notes that it may use Rule 5.31(h) to deviate from the standard opening process, including: (i) adjusting the timing of the opening rotation in any option class, (ii) modifying any time periods described in Rule 5.31, and (iii) compelling a series open, even if the Maximum Composite Width check is not satisfied, but these events may only happen manually if the Exchange determines it is necessary in the interests of a fair and orderly market. The Exchange notes that it will retain this authority still under the new proposed forced opening rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposed Forced Opening Procedures for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule change expands the existing forced opening provision to now apply to exclusively listed option series, except that (i) the ABBO will not be used as a triggering factor to open a series as there is no ABBO for the exclusively listed option series; (ii) if the Composite Market is too wide, a series will open so long as the Composite Market is not crossed and there are no non-M capacity orders that are crossed (unlike the existing forced opening provision which only requires that the Composite Market is not crossed and there is an ABBO) and (iii) the series may open if there is no Composite Market so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed.</P>
                <P>
                    Specifically, as proposed, if a series in an exclusively listed option class is unable to open because it does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width Check described above within a time period (which the Exchange determines for exclusively listed options 
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    ) after the occurrence of the opening rotation trigger for the class pursuant to Rule 5.31(d), and (i) the Composite Market is not crossed and no non-M Capacity orders are crossed or (ii) there is no Composite Market and there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed, the System forces the series to open after that time period. For a series subject to a forced opening, the opening trade price determination and series open set forth in Rule 5.31(e)(2) and (3) (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the opening auction) do not occur; instead, the System opens the series without a trade. This will permit a series to open for trading on the Exchange even though the market for the series on the Exchange may be wide (or if there are no quotes or orders on the book).
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As described above, the two primary distinctions between the existing manual process that is used to manually open exclusively listed options, where the Maximum Composite Width is manually widened, and the proposed forced opening process for exclusively listed options, are (i) the proposed automated process is more efficient and transparent process and (ii) an exclusively listed option series may still open even if there is no Composite Market so long as no non-M Capacity orders are crossed. However, as previously noted, the Exchange may also open up a series if it deems so necessary in the interest of a fair and orderly market pursuant to Rule 5.31(h).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The proposed rule change permits the Exchange to determine different time periods for exclusively listed options than the time period determined for equity and ETP classes.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         The Exchange notes that a wide market is not a reason enough for not opening as a wide market may occur at any point during the trading day. As described further herein, it is more of a risk for participants to keep the market closed, preventing participants from managing their position exposure as other markets are already open.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    If a series satisfies the Maximum Composite Width Check prior to the end of the Exchange-determined time period, the series opens pursuant to Rule 5.31(d)(2) and (3) (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the standard opening auction process occurs for the series). For example, suppose the Exchange determined the “forced opening” timer for exclusively listed option series to be three minutes. If the opening trigger for an exclusively listed option series occurs at 9:30:05 Eastern time but the series does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width Check after the trigger, the System will force the series open after 9:33:05 Eastern time. However, if the series satisfies the Maximum Composite Width Check at 9:32:30, the series will open at that time in accordance with the normal opening auction process. The current rule still allows the market to open even if the market is wide by (i) manually increasing the Maximum Composite Width 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or (ii) allowing the series to open in accordance with Rule 5.31(e)(1)(B), which allows the series to open if the Composite Market of a series is not crossed, and the Composite Width of the series is greater than the Maximum Composite Width, but there are (i) no non-M Capacity (a) market orders or (b) buy (sell) limit orders with prices higher (lower) than the Composite Market midpoint and (ii) no orders or quotes marketable against each other.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 13.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">No ABBO Requirement for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>Given the current method of manually increasing the Maximum Composite Width as a way to force a series open if it does not satisfy the Maximum Composite Width, the Exchange believes the proposed rule is a better alternative to open up a series for trading, as it allows for greater transparency and clearer expectations for market participants, as well as taking away the possibility of error from manual human intervention. As described further herein, the ABBO is not a requirement for the standard opening process for any option classes, including equity and ETP option classes. Specifically, if no away markets are open in a series, there would be no ABBO for that series and thus the Composite Market for the series (and thus whether the series would open) would be based solely on the Exchange's market for the series. Further, if the ABBO is wider than the Exchange's market for a series, the ABBO is also not a factor into whether the System opened the series. In those cases, whether an equity or ETF option series satisfied the Maximum Composite Width check would be based solely on the Exchange's market. With respect to the forced opening process for equity and ETP option classes, it may even be the case that the ABBO is wider than the Exchange's market.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Differences Between the Forced Opening Process for Equity and ETP Option Classes and the Proposed Process for Exclusively Listed Options</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange notes that it previously adopted a similar process to force an open for series in an equity or exchange-traded product option classes.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The only substantive differences within 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34948"/>
                    these two processes is that (i) the process for exclusively listed options will not rely on the additional requirement that the system observes an ABBO after the designated time period passes since exclusively listed options will not have an ABBO as the products are not listed on any other exchange; (ii) the process for exclusively listed options will also require that there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossing (this is not a requirement for the existing equity and ETP option classes); and (iii) exclusively listed option series may open if there is no Composite Market so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossing.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 90966 (January 22, 2021), 86 FR 7426 (January 28, 2021) (SR-C2-2021-001).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With the exception that there is not an ABBO that may be looked at first, that no non-M Capacity orders are crossed in the event the Composite Market is too wide, and that a Composite Market is not required to exist (so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed), all other protections that were put into place during the inception of the forced open for equity and ETP classes will also apply to the proposed forced open for exclusively listed options. Rule 5.31(f) provides that in the event of a forced opening of a series pursuant to proposed Rule 5.31(e)(4) or a compelled opening of a series pursuant to paragraph (h), the System enters all of a User's orders in that series in the Queuing Book 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     into the Book in the manner set forth in current Rule 5.31(f), unless a User instructs the System to cancel its market orders or all of its orders, in which case the System enters only the non-cancelled orders into the Book in this manner. Specifically, they will be processed in accordance with Rule 5.32 (as unexecuted orders and quotes are handled following the conclusion of the opening rotation), which describes how the System processes, handles, and executes orders. If any order or quote in the Queuing Book is marketable upon the forced opening (and the User does not instruct the System to cancel it as proposed), the System would execute marketable orders subject to the priority rules set forth in Rule 5.32. Any non-marketable order would enter the Book or cancel, subject to the User instructions. This proposed change provides Users with flexibility for automated handling of their orders in the event an exclusively listed option series opens with a wide market as opposed to the existing manual process where the Exchange manually increases the Maximum Composite Width to force an open.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         The term “Queuing Book” means the book into which Users may submit orders and quotes (and onto which GTC and GTD orders remaining on the Book from the previous trading session or trading day, as applicable, are entered) during the Queuing Period for participation in the applicable opening rotation. Orders and quotes on the Queuing Book may not execute until the opening rotation. The Queuing Book for the GTH opening auction process may be referred to as the “GTH Queuing Book,” and the Queuing Book for the RTH opening auction process may be referred to as the “RTH Queuing Book. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 13.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirements that the rules of an exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirement that the rules of an exchange not be designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In particular, the Exchange believes the proposed forced opening process for simple orders in its exclusively listed option series will remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system and protect investors. The proposed rule change will provide for a series to open for trading on the Exchange sooner than it may automatically open currently. The Exchange believes the proposed rule change will benefit investors, because it may permit these options to open sooner and increase the times during which investors may conduct trading in these options, allowing participants to trade, hedge exposure, and exit positions in a timely manner. While the width of Market-Maker quotes on the Exchange (and thus the Composite Width) for an exclusively listed option series may be wider than the Maximum Composite Width 
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or, no Market-Maker quotes for an exclusively listed option series are present in the book (and thus there is no Composite Market for the series), the Exchange believes it is reasonable to open the series after a certain amount of time has passed. The Exchange further notes that it does not believe wide Market Maker quotes in and of itself is an adequate reason to delay the opening, as that may occur at any time during the trading day. The Exchange understands from customers they would prefer to be able to begin trading the Exchange's exclusively listed index options without undue delay, even in a wide market, in a timeframe more closely aligned with equities and ETP options 
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (there have been delays as long as ten to fifteen minutes after markets open). A delayed opening may leave participants unable to efficiently hedge, exit, and otherwise manage positions as needed, particularly because the value of the index may be changing given that the stocks comprising the index are open for trading. As a result, a delayed opening may create more investment risk for market participants than opening with a market comprised of wide or no Market-Maker quotes (which as noted above, is a market condition that may occur at any time). Additionally, the proposed ability of Users to cancel orders in the event of a forced opening will provide Users with additional protection.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         The Exchange notes pursuant to Rule 5.31(e)(1)(B), there are currently instances in which the Exchange will open for trading despite the Composite Market Width being larger than the Maximum Composite Width.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(e)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As discussed above, the Exchange currently has the authority, when it deems necessary, to deviate from the standard opening process, including: (i) adjusting the timing of the opening market rotation in any option class, (ii) modifying any time periods described in Rule 5.31, and (iii) compelling a series open, even if the Maximum Composite Width check is not satisfied, but these events may only happen manually if the Exchange determines it is necessary in the interests of a fair and orderly market.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed rule change is consistent with the authority granted under Rule 5.31(h). Furthermore, this proposed rule change creates an automated compelled opening in certain circumstances by not needing to rely on the manual process of increasing the Maximum Composite Width that may currently be used under the definition of Maximum Composite Width under 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34949"/>
                    Rule 5.31(a), with the exception that a series may be forced open under this proposed rule even if no Composite Market exists, so long as there are no non-M Capacity orders crossed. This will benefit investors by providing additional transparency to the Rules regarding when a series may open despite not satisfying the Maximum Composite Width check as well as remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system by automating an otherwise manual process. Furthermore, the Exchange believes it is in the best interest of investors to allow an exclusively listed option series to open even if there is no Composite Market, so long as no non-M Capacity orders are crossed. This continues to protect customer orders from executing at the open at a potentially erroneous price given that the requirement that there be no non-M Capacity orders crossed. By allowing these markets to open in a timely manner, market participants would be able to have their orders filled and manage their existing positions earlier, thus reducing potential investment risk associated with further delaying the open.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.31(h); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         definition of Maximum Composite Width and Opening Collar in Rule 5.31(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Further, as discussed above, the Exchange believes it is in the best interest of market participants to allow the Exchange discretion to determine a different time period for its exclusively listed options that may be different from the time period for its equity and ETP options. As noted, there are differences between these groups, notably, that exclusively listed options may also trade during the GTH trading session. Further, under Rule 5.31(h), the Exchange already has the authority to adjust any time periods under Rule 5.31, which include the forced open timers, when it deems necessary for a fair and orderly market. The Exchange proposes to make this discretion clear within the proposed rule, where the Exchange may have different timers for (i) equity and ETP options and (ii) exclusively listed options.</P>
                <P>Additionally, by establishing this process instead of manually increasing the Maximum Composite Width, the Exchange believes this provides greater transparency and clarity and better sets out expectations for participants. The Exchange notes that it still maintains its existing authority under Rule 5.31(h) to deviate from the standard manner of the opening auction process. The Exchange does not think that not having an ABBO (as none exists for exclusively listed options) is of note, as the Exchange manually forces an open now by increasing the Maximum Composite Width and an ABBO is not required under that procedure. Of further note, the ABBO is not a requirement for the standard opening process for any option classes, including equity and ETP option classes. Specifically, if no away markets are open inequity or ETP options, there would be no ABBO for that series and thus the Composite Market for the series (and thus whether the series would open) would be based solely on the Exchange's market for the series. Further, if the ABBO is wider than the Exchange's market for a series, the ABBO is also not a factor into whether the System opened the series. In those cases, whether an equity or ETF option series satisfied the Maximum Composite Width check would be based solely on the Exchange's market.</P>
                <P>Further, as previously discussed, the Exchange believes it furthers its goal of conducting fair and orderly markets by forcing its exclusively listed options to open if there is no Composite Market. In the event there is no Composite Market from there being no on-screen two-sided market from Market Maker bids and offers, and there are no non-M Capacity orders that are crossed, the Exchange believes it would benefit the market to move forward with opening, so customers may commence trading. As described above, the Exchange understands from market participants they would rather commence trading to manage their positions even if there are wide, or no, Market-Maker quotes on the book. Additionally, as previously noted the Exchange's affiliated options exchange, Cboe Exchange, Inc. generally has a strong floor presence for exclusively listed options, and it may be the case while there is no Composite Market on screen, that there are Market Makers on the floor that can fill customer orders. The Exchange and its affiliated options exchanges are all proposing to modify its existing forced opening procedures to include exclusively listed options.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because all Users may trade in any exclusively listed option series that opens subject to the proposed forced opening process. The proposed forced opening process for exclusively listed option series is also substantially similar to the current forced opening process for equity and ETP option series with the exception that, (i) there is no ABBO for exclusively listed option series, and thus, is not a step in the forced opening process for the exclusively listed option series as described above; (ii) exclusively listed options shall also require that there are no non-M Capacity orders crossed; and (iii) a Composite Market is not required for exclusively listed options, as described above. Additionally, all Users will have the opportunity to instruct the System to cancel its market orders or all open orders in the event of a forced or otherwise manual opening. Cancellation of some or all of a User's orders in the event of such an opening would be voluntary and completely within the User's discretion.</P>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intermarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because the proposed rule change updates the opening process for exclusively listed options that may trade only on the Exchange. As discussed above, the proposed rule change will allow participants to begin trading, hedging exposure, and exiting positions in exclusively listed options in a timely manner, consistent with the timing and process the Exchange currently uses for equity and ETP options. The proposed flexibility for Users to instruct the System how to handle their orders in the event of a forced or manual opening applies only to how a User's orders on the Exchange will be handled in such a circumstance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not:</P>
                <P>A. significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest;</P>
                <P>B. impose any significant burden on competition; and</P>
                <P>
                    C. become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34950"/>
                    Act 
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) 
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission will institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-C2-2025-016  on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-C2-2025-016. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-C2-2025-016 and should be submitted on or before August 14, 2025.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13899 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SMALL BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Disaster Declaration #21176 and #21177; TEXAS Disaster Number TX-20058]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Presidential Declaration Amendment of a Major Disaster for Public Assistance Only for the State of Texas</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Small Business Administration.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Amendment 4.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This is an amendment of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for Public Assistance Only for the State of Texas (FEMA-4879-DR), dated July 6, 2025.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Incident:</E>
                         Severe Storms, Straight-line Winds, and Flooding.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Issued on July 18, 2025.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Incident Period:</E>
                         July 2, 2025 and continuing.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Physical Loan Application Deadline Date:</E>
                         September 4, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Economic Injury (EIDL) Loan Application Deadline Date:</E>
                         April 6, 2026.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Visit the MySBA Loan Portal at https://lending.sba.gov</E>
                         to apply for a disaster assistance loan.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Sharon Henderson, Office of Disaster Recovery &amp; Resilience, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW, Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416, (202) 205-6734.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The notice of the President's major disaster declaration for Private Non-Profit organizations in the State of Texas, dated July 6, 2025, is hereby amended to include the following areas as adversely affected by the disaster.</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    <E T="03">Primary Counties:</E>
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Hamilton, Travis.</FP>
                <P>All other information in the original declaration remains unchanged.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Number 59008)</FP>
                    <FP>(Authority: 13 CFR 123.3(b).)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>James Stallings,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator, Office of Disaster Recovery &amp; Resilience.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13896 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8026-09-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2013-0123; FMCSA-2014-0103; FMCSA-2016-0003; FMCSA-2017-0058; FMCSA-2018-0137; FMCSA-2021-0013; FMCSA-2021-0017; FMCSA-2023-0018; FMCSA-2023-0019]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Hearing</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of renewal of exemptions; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA announces its decision to renew exemptions for 16 individuals from the hearing requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) for interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers. The exemptions enable these hard of hearing and deaf individuals to continue to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Each group of renewed exemptions were applicable on the dates stated in the discussions below and will expire on the dates provided below. Comments must be received on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments identified by Docket No. FMCSA-2013-0123, Docket No. FMCSA-2014-0103, Docket No. FMCSA-2016-0003, Docket No. FMCSA-2017-0058, Docket No. FMCSA-2018-0137, Docket No. FMCSA-2021-0013, Docket No. FMCSA-2021-0017, Docket No. FMCSA-2023-0018, or Docket No. FMCSA-2023-0019 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         insert the docket number (FMCSA-2013-0123, FMCSA-2014-0103, FMCSA-2016-0003, FMCSA-2017-0058, FMCSA-2018-0137, FMCSA-2021-0013, FMCSA-2021-0017, FMCSA-2023-0018, or FMCSA-2023-0019) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, and click on the “Comment” button. Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                        <PRTPAGE P="34951"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Dockets Operations; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         West Building Ground Floor, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal Holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To avoid duplication, please use only one of these four methods. See the “Public Participation” portion of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for instructions on submitting comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Evangela Hollowell, Acting Chief, Medical Programs Division, FMCSA, DOT, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, (202) 527-4750, 
                        <E T="03">fmcsamedical@dot.gov.</E>
                         Office hours are 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. If you have questions regarding viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Dockets Operations, (202) 366-9826.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Submitting Comments</HD>
                <P>If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (Docket No. FMCSA-2013-0123, Docket No. FMCSA-2014-0103, Docket No. FMCSA-2016-0003, Docket No. FMCSA-2017-0058, Docket No. FMCSA-2018-0137, Docket No. FMCSA-2021-0013, Docket No. FMCSA-2021-0017, Docket No. FMCSA-2023-0018, or Docket No. FMCSA-2023-0019), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    To submit your comment online, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     insert the docket number (FMCSA-2013-0123, FMCSA-2014-0103, FMCSA-2016-0003, FMCSA-2017-0058, FMCSA-2018-0137, FMCSA-2021-0013, FMCSA-2021-0017, FMCSA-2023-0018, or FMCSA-2023-0019) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, click the “Comment” button, and type your comment into the text box on the following screen. Choose whether you are submitting your comment as an individual or on behalf of a third party and then submit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8
                    <FR>1/2</FR>
                     by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Confidential Business Information (CBI)</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to the notice contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to the notice, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission that constitutes CBI as “PROPIN” to indicate it contains proprietary information. FMCSA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the Freedom of Information Act, and they will not be placed in the public docket of the notice. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Brian Dahlin, Chief, Regulatory Evaluation Division, Office of Policy, FMCSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001 or via email at 
                    <E T="03">brian.g.dahlin@dot.gov.</E>
                     At this time, you need not send a duplicate hardcopy of your electronic CBI submissions to FMCSA headquarters. Any comments FMCSA receives not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Viewing Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    To view comments go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Insert the docket number (FMCSA-2013-0123, FMCSA-2014-0103, FMCSA-2016-0003, FMCSA-2017-0058, FMCSA-2018-0137, FMCSA-2021-0013, FMCSA-2021-0017, FMCSA-2023-0018, or FMCSA-2023-0019) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, and click “Browse Comments.” If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting Dockets Operations on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Privacy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(6), DOT solicits comments from the public on the exemption requests. DOT posts these comments, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice DOT/ALL-14 FDMS (Federal Docket Management System), which can be reviewed under the “Department Wide System of Records Notices” link at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices.</E>
                     The comments are posted without edit and are searchable by the name of the submitter.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b) to grant exemptions from Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(a)). The Agency must provide the public an opportunity to inspect the information relevant to the application, including the applicant's safety analysis. The Agency must provide an opportunity for public comment on the request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Agency reviews the application, safety analyses, and public comments submitted and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such exemption, pursuant to the standard set forth in 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1). The Agency must publish its decision in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(b)). If granted, the notice will identify the regulatory provision from which the applicant will be exempt, the effective period, and all terms and conditions of the exemption (49 CFR 381.315(c)(1)). If the exemption is denied, the notice will explain the reason for the denial (49 CFR 381.315(c)(2)). The exemption may be renewed (49 CFR 381.300(b)). FMCSA grants medical exemptions from the FMCSRs for a 2-year period to align with the maximum duration of a driver's medical certification.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding hearing in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11) states that a person is 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34952"/>
                    physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person first perceives a forced whispered voice in the better ear at not less than 5 feet with or without the use of a hearing aid or, if tested by use of an audiometric device, does not have an average hearing loss in the better ear greater than 40 decibels at 500 Hz, 1,000 Hz, and 2,000 Hz with or without a hearing aid when the audiometric device is calibrated to American National Standard (formerly ASA Standard) Z24.5—1951.
                </P>
                <P>This standard was adopted in 1970 and was revised in 1971 to allow drivers to be qualified under this standard while wearing a hearing aid, (35 FR 6458, 6463 (Apr. 22, 1970) and 36 FR 12857 (July 8, 1971)).</P>
                <P>The 16 individuals listed in this notice have requested renewal of their exemptions from the hearing standard in § 391.41(b)(11), in accordance with FMCSA procedures. Accordingly, FMCSA has evaluated these applications for renewal on their merits and decided to extend each exemption for a renewable 2-year period.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested parties or organizations possessing information that would otherwise show that any, or all, of these drivers are not currently achieving the statutory level of safety should immediately notify FMCSA. The Agency will evaluate any adverse evidence submitted and, if safety is being compromised or if continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), FMCSA will take immediate steps to revoke the exemption of a driver.  </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Basis for Renewing Exemptions</HD>
                <P>In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), each of the 16 applicants have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the hearing requirement. The 16 drivers in this notice remain in good standing with the Agency. In addition, the Agency has reviewed each applicant's certified driving record from their State Driver's Licensing Agency (SDLA). The information obtained from each applicant's driving record provides the Agency with details regarding any moving violations or reported crash data, which demonstrates whether the driver has a safe driving history and is an indicator of future driving performance. If the driving record revealed a crash, FMCSA requested and reviewed the related police reports and other relevant documents, such as the citation and conviction information. These factors provide an adequate basis for predicting each driver's ability to continue to safely operate a CMV in interstate commerce. Therefore, FMCSA concludes that extending the exemption for each of these drivers for a period of 2 years is likely to achieve a level of safety equivalent to that existing without the exemption.</P>
                <P>In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), the following groups of drivers received renewed exemptions in the month of May and are discussed below.</P>
                <P>As of May 14, 2025, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), the following 13 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the hearing requirement in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Timothy Allen (LA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">KasSeth Andrews (TX)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Kenneth Alston (NJ)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Kevin Beacham (MD)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Perry Cobb (TN)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Mark Cole (MD)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Chauncey Crawford (OH)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Nathaniel Godfrey KY)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Ali Guled (OH)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lawrence Hung K. Lam (CA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Ted McCracken (OR)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Gregorio Perez (VA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Phillip Shook Jr (MS)</FP>
                <P>The drivers were included in docket number FMCSA-2013-0123, FMCSA-2014-0103, FMCSA-2016-0003, FMCSA-2017-0058, FMCSA-2018-0137, FMCSA-2021-0013, FMCSA-2021-0017, or FMCSA-2023-0018. Their exemptions were applicable as of May 14, 2025, and will expire on May 14, 2027.</P>
                <P>As of May 25, 2025, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), the following three individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the hearing requirement in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers:</P>
                <P>Kishawn Bordeau (IN); Charles Heitzman (OH); and Zenon Rodriguez (KY).</P>
                <P>The drivers were included in docket number FMCSA-2023-0019. Their exemptions were applicable as of May 25, 2025, and will expire on May 25, 2027.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Terms and Conditions</HD>
                <P>The exemptions are extended subject to the following conditions: each driver (1) must report to FMCSA any crashes as defined in § 390.5T, within 7 days of the crash; (2) must report to FMCSA any citations and convictions for disqualifying offenses under 49 CFR parts 383 and 391, within 7 days of the citation and conviction; (3) must submit to FMCSA annual certified driving records from their SDLA; and (4) is prohibited from operating a motorcoach or bus with passengers in interstate commerce. The driver must also have a copy of the exemption when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official. In addition, the driver must meet all the applicable commercial driver's license testing requirements. Each exemption will be valid for 2 years unless rescinded earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be rescinded if: (1) the person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Preemption</HD>
                <P>During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Conclusion</HD>
                <P>Based upon its evaluation of the 16 exemption renewal applications, FMCSA renews the exemptions of the above-named drivers from the hearing requirement in § 391.41(b)(11). In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), and based on FMCSA's policy of issuing medical exemptions for the 2-year period in alignment with the medical certificate, each exemption will be valid for 2 years unless revoked earlier by FMCSA.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Larry W. Minor,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator for Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13978 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2010-0203; FMCSA-2013-0444; FMCSA-2016-0007; SA-2018-0056; FMCSA-2020-0051; FMCSA-2022-0045; FMCSA-2022-0046; FMCSA-2022-0047]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of final disposition.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <PRTPAGE P="34953"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA announces its decision to renew exemptions for 15 individuals from the requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) that interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers have “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.” The exemptions enable these individuals who have had one or more seizures and are taking anti-seizure medication to continue to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Each group of renewed exemptions were applicable on the dates stated in the discussions below and will expire on the dates provided below.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Evangela Hollowell, Acting Chief, Medical Programs Division, FMCSA, DOT, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001; (202) 527-4750; 
                        <E T="03">fmcsamedical@dot.gov</E>
                        . Office hours are from 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. If you have questions regarding viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Dockets Operations, (202) 366-9826.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Viewing Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    To view comments, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                    . Insert the docket number (FMCSA-2010-0203, FMCSA-2013-0444, FMCSA-2016-0007, FMCSA-2018-0056, FMCSA-2020-0051, FMCSA-2022-0045, FMCSA-2022-0046, or FMCSA-2022-0047) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, and click “Browse Comments.” If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting Dockets Operations on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Privacy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(6), DOT solicits comments from the public on the exemption request. DOT posts these comments, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice DOT/ALL-14 FDMS (Federal Docket Management System), which can be reviewed under the “Department Wide System of Records Notices” link at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices.</E>
                     The comments are posted without edit and are searchable by the name of the submitter.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b) to grant exemptions from Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(a)). The Agency must provide the public an opportunity to inspect the information relevant to the application, including the applicant's safety analysis. The Agency must provide an opportunity for public comment on the request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Agency reviews the application, safety analyses, and public comments submitted and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such exemption, pursuant to the standard set forth in 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1). The Agency must publish its decision in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(b)). If granted, the notice will identify the regulatory provision from which the applicant will be exempt, the effective period, and all terms and conditions of the exemption (49 CFR 381.315(c)(1)). If the exemption is denied, the notice will explain the reason for the denial (49 CFR 381.315(c)(2)). The exemption may be renewed (49 CFR 381.300(b)).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding seizures and loss of consciousness provides that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person has “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause the loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control” a CMV (49 CFR 391.41(b)(8)). To assist in applying this standard, FMCSA publishes guidance for medical examiners (MEs) in the form of medical advisory criteria in Appendix A to 49 CFR part 391.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In 2007, FMCSA published recommendations from a Medical Expert Panel (MEP) that FMCSA tasked to review the existing seizure disorder guidelines for MEs.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The MEP performed a comprehensive, systematic literature review, including evidence available at the time. The MEP issued recommended criteria to evaluate whether an individual with a history of epilepsy, a single unprovoked seizure, or a provoked seizure should be allowed to drive a CMV.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         49 CFR part 391, App.A.II.G, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ecfr.gov/current/title-49/subtitle-B/chapter-III/subchapter-B/part-391/appendix-Appendix%20A%20to%20Part%20391</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         “Expert Panel Recommendations, Seizure Disorders and Commercial Motor Vehicle Driver Safety,” Medical Expert Panel (Oct. 15, 2007), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/sites/fmcsa.dot.gov/files/2020-04/Seizure-Disorders-MEP-Recommendations-v2-prot%2010152007.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>On January 15, 2013, FMCSA began granting exemptions, on a case-by-case basis, to individual drivers from the physical qualification standard regarding seizures and loss of consciousness in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) (78 FR 3069). The Agency considers the medical advisory criteria, the 2007 MEP recommendations, any public comments received, and each individual's medical information and driving record in deciding whether to grant the exemption.</P>
                <P>On March 27, 2025, FMCSA published a notice announcing its decision to renew exemptions for 15 individuals from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) to operate a CMV in interstate commerce and requested comments from the public (90 FR 13978). The public comment period ended on April 28, 2025, and no comments were received.</P>
                <P>FMCSA has evaluated the eligibility of these applicants and determined that renewing these exemptions would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by complying with § 391.41(b)(8).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Discussion of Comments</HD>
                <P>FMCSA received no comments in this proceeding.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Preemption</HD>
                <P>During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Conclusion</HD>
                <P>Based on its evaluation of the 15 renewal exemption applications and no comments received, FMCSA announces its decision to grant a 2-year exemption to each of the following drivers from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in § 391.41(b)(8).</P>
                <P>
                    As of February 3, 2025, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34954"/>
                    31315(b), the following eight individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers (90 FR 13978):
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Ralph Bollman (PA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Keith Hubbard (WV)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Chad Knott (MD)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Jordan Moriarty (VT)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Brian Porter (PA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Peter Della Rocco (PA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Jason Russell (IA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Donald Smith (NY)</FP>
                <P>The drivers were included in docket number FMCSA-2010-0203,</P>
                <P>FMCSA-2013-0444, FMCSA-2016-0007, FMCSA-2018-0056, FMCSA-2020-0051, FMCSA-2022-0045, or FMCSA-2022-0046. Their exemptions were applicable as of February 3, 2025, and will expire on February 3, 2027.</P>
                <P>As of February 28, 2025, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), the following seven individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers (90 FR 13978):</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Andrew Briggs (WI)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Trent Clark (PA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">James Niemoller (MD)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Joe Porath (ID)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Jon Rollins (OH)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Garrett Sager (IA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Shawn Vanliew (MN)</FP>
                <P>The drivers were included in docket number FMCSA-2022-0047. Their exemptions were applicable as of February 28, 2025, and will expire on February 28, 2027.</P>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b), and based on FMCSA's policy of issuing medical exemptions for the 2-year period in alignment with the medical certificate, each exemption will be valid for 2 years from the effective date unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if the following occurs: (1) the person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption, as set forth in the initial renewal notice (
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     90 FR 13978) and incorporated herein; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained prior to being granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Larry W. Minor,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator for Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13980 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2025-0024]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Hearing</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of applications for exemption; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA announces receipt of applications from 11 individuals for an exemption from the hearing requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) to operate a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) in interstate commerce. If granted, the exemptions would enable these hard of hearing and deaf individuals to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments identified by Docket No. FMCSA-2025-0024 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         insert the docket number (FMCSA-2025-0024) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, choose the only notice listed, and click on the “Comment” button. Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Dockets Operations; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         West Building Ground Floor, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, 20590-0001 between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal Holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To avoid duplication, please use only one of these four methods. See the “Public Participation” portion of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for instructions on submitting comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Evangela Hollowell, Acting Chief, Medical Programs Division, FMCSA, DOT, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, (202) 527-4750, 
                        <E T="03">fmcsamedical@dot.gov.</E>
                         Office hours are 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. If you have questions regarding viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Dockets Operations, (202) 366-9826.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Submitting Comments</HD>
                <P>If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (Docket No. FMCSA-2025-0024), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    To submit your comment online, go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/FMCSA-2025-0024.</E>
                     Next, choose the only notice listed, click the “Comment” button, and type your comment into the text box on the following screen. Choose whether you are submitting your comment as an individual or on behalf of a third party and then submit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8
                    <FR>1/2</FR>
                     by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Confidential Business Information (CBI)</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to the notice contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to the notice, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission that constitutes CBI as “PROPIN” to indicate it contains proprietary information. FMCSA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the Freedom of Information Act, and they will not be placed in the public docket of the notice. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Brian Dahlin, Chief, Regulatory Evaluation Division, Office of Policy, FMCSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001 or via email at 
                    <E T="03">brian.g.dahlin@dot.gov.</E>
                     At this time, you need not send 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34955"/>
                    a duplicate hardcopy of your electronic CBI submissions to FMCSA headquarters. Any comments FMCSA receives not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Viewing Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    To view comments, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     insert the docket number (FMCSA-2025-0024) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, choose the only notice listed, and click “Browse Comments.” If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting Dockets Operations on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Privacy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(6), DOT solicits comments from the public on the exemption request. DOT posts these comments, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice DOT/ALL-14 FDMS (Federal Docket Management System), which can be reviewed under the “Department Wide System of Records Notices” link at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices.</E>
                     The comments are posted without edit and are searchable by the name of the submitter.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b) to grant exemptions from Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(a)). The Agency must provide the public an opportunity to inspect the information relevant to the application, including the applicant's safety analysis. The Agency must provide an opportunity for public comment on the request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Agency reviews the application, safety analyses, and public comments submitted and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such exemption, pursuant to the standard set forth in 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1). The Agency must publish its decision in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(b)). If granted, the notice will identify the regulatory provision from which the applicant will be exempt, the effective period, and all terms and conditions of the exemption (49 CFR 381.315(c)(1)). If the exemption is denied, the notice will explain the reason for the denial (49 CFR 381.315(c)(2)). The exemption may be renewed (49 CFR 381.300(b)). FMCSA grants medical exemptions from the FMCSRs for a 2-year period to align with the maximum duration of a driver's medical certification.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background</HD>
                <P>The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding hearing, found in § 391.41(b)(11), states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person first perceives a forced whispered voice in the better ear at not less than 5 feet with or without the use of a hearing aid or, if tested by use of an audiometric device, does not have an average hearing loss in the better ear greater than 40 decibels at 500 Hz, 1,000 Hz, and 2,000 Hz with or without a hearing aid when the audiometric device is calibrated to American National Standard (formerly ASA Standard) Z24.5—1951.</P>
                <P>
                    This standard was adopted in 1970 and was revised in 1971 to allow drivers to be qualified under this standard while wearing a hearing aid (35 FR 6458, 6463 (Apr. 22, 1970) and 36 FR 12857 (July 8, 1971)). In 2008, FMCSA published Evidence Report, “Executive Summary on Hearing, Vestibular Function and Commercial Motor Driving Safety.” 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The evidence report reached two conclusions regarding the matter of hearing loss and CMV driver safety: (1) no studies that examined the relationship between hearing loss and crash risk exclusively among CMV drivers were identified; and (2) evidence from studies of the private driver's license holder population does not support the contention that individuals with hearing impairment are at an increased risk for a crash.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/sites/fmcsa.dot.gov/files/docs/Hearing-Evidence-Report-FinalExecutive-Summary-prot.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>On February 1, 2013, FMCSA began granting exemptions, on a case-by-case basis, to individual drivers from the physical qualification standard regarding hearing in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11) (78 FR 3069). The Agency considers relevant scientific information and literature, the 2008 Evidence Report, “Executive Summary on Hearing, Vestibular Function and Commercial Motor Driving Safety,” any public comments received, and each individual's driving record in deciding whether to grant the exemption.</P>
                <P>The 11 individuals listed in this notice have requested an exemption from the hearing standard in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11). Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting the exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Qualifications of Applicants</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Mark Abercrombie</HD>
                <P>Mark Abercrombie, 54, holds a class A commercial driver's license in South Carolina.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Armando Bejarano</HD>
                <P>Armando Bejarano, 37, holds a class C driver's license in California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Charles Brubaker</HD>
                <P>Charles Brubaker, 72, holds a class D driver's license in Virginia.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Dimov Dimitar</HD>
                <P>Dimov Dimitar, 53, holds a class C driver's license in California.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Steven Hoyer</HD>
                <P>Steven Hoyer, 45, holds a class E driver's license in Florida.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Andrew Love</HD>
                <P>Andrew Love, 28, holds a class R driver's license in Mississippi.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Wanda Nivol</HD>
                <P>Wanda Nivol, 38, holds a class D driver's license in Delaware.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Antoine Parks</HD>
                <P>Antoine Parks, 42, holds a class D driver's license in Ohio.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Juan Tenezaca</HD>
                <P>Juan Tenezaca, 33, holds a class D driver's license in New Jersey.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Nicholas Walters</HD>
                <P>Nicholas Walters, 40, holds a class D driver's license in North Dakota.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Chardena West</HD>
                <P>Chardena West, 34, holds a class D driver's license in Ohio.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), FMCSA requests public comment from all interested persons on the exemption applications described in this notice. FMCSA will consider all comments received before the close of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34956"/>
                    business on the closing date indicated under the 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     section of the notice.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Larry W. Minor,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator for Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13977 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2019-0056]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Hours of Service of Drivers: R.J. Corman Railroad Services, Cranemasters, Inc., and National Railroad Construction and Maintenance Association, Inc.</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of final disposition; renewal of exemption.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA announces its final decision to renew the exemption granted to R.J. Corman Railroad Services (R.J. Corman), Cranemasters, Inc. (Cranemasters), and the National Railroad Construction and Maintenance Association Inc. (NRC) from the prohibition against driving a property-carrying commercial motor vehicle (CMV) beyond the 14th hour after coming on duty and driving after accumulating 60 hours of on-duty time in 7 consecutive days, or 70 hours of on-duty time in 8 consecutive days. The exemption renewal is applicable to employees of R.J. Corman and Cranemasters operating CMVs in response to unplanned events that occur outside of, or extend beyond, the subject employees' normal work hours. FMCSA has analyzed the exemption application and the public comments and has determined that the exemption renewal, subject to the terms and conditions set forth below, is likely to achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved in the absence of the exemption.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The exemption is effective March 4, 2025, and expires on March 4, 2030.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Bernadette Walker, Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards; FMCSA; (202) 385-2415; 
                        <E T="03">Bernadette.walker@dot.gov.</E>
                         If you have questions on viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Dockets Operations, (202) 366-9826.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Viewing Comments and Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    To view any documents mentioned as being available in the docket, go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/FMCSA-2019-0056/document</E>
                     and choose the document to review. To view comments, click this notice, then click “Browse Comments.” If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting Dockets Operations on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b) to grant exemptions from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(a)). The Agency must provide the public an opportunity to inspect the information relevant to the application, including the applicant's safety analysis. The Agency must provide an opportunity for public comment on the request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Agency reviews the application, safety analyses, and public comments submitted and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such exemption, pursuant to the standard set forth in 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1). The Agency must publish its decision in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(b)). If granted, the notice will identify the regulatory provision from which the applicant will be exempt, the effective period, and all terms and conditions of the exemption (49 CFR 381.315(c)(1)). If the exemption is denied, the notice will explain the reason for the denial (49 CFR 381.315(c)(2)). The exemption may be renewed (49 CFR 381.300(b)).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Current Regulatory Requirements</HD>
                <P>Under 49 CFR 395.3(a)(2), drivers are prohibited from driving after a period of 14 consecutive hours after coming on-duty following 10 consecutive hours off-duty.</P>
                <P>Under 49 CFR 395.3(b)(1), drivers are prohibited from operating a CMV for any period after having been on duty 60 hours in any period of 7 consecutive days if the employing motor carrier does not operate CMVs every day of the week. Under 49 CFR 395.3(b)(2), drivers are prohibited from operating a CMV for any period after having been on duty 70 hours in any period of 8 consecutive days if the employing motor carrier does operate CMVs every day of the week.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Applicants' Request</HD>
                <P>
                    The application for exemption was described in detail in a 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice on March 10, 2025 (90 FR 11642) and will not be repeated here as the facts have not changed.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Public Comments</HD>
                <P>The Agency received ten comments. Of the ten comments, seven supported granting the exemption, two opposed it, and one was neither for nor against the exemption.</P>
                <P>Of the seven comments supporting the exemption, one was from an anonymous individual and six were from associations: Kentuckians for Better Transportation, Mississippi Railroad Association, Alabama Railway Association, Railroads of New York, Inc., Ohio Railroad Association, Texas Shortline and Regional Railroad Association. The Mississippi Railroad Association commented, “This exemption will help our rail network continue to function and provide critical connectivity for our state's manufacturers, agricultural producers, and consumers.” The other railroad associations all filed similar comments, pointing out the irregular nature of rail incidents and stating that most of the affected drivers only travel short distances to incident sites. The anonymous commenter supported the exemption because it recognizes “the need to be able to remove roadblocks that could cause derailments and damage to the property surrounding the railroad tracks,” including hazardous leakage and toxic chemical releases.</P>
                <P>The American Academy of Sleep Medicine opposed the exemption, stating “While adherence to Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration regulations may be operationally challenging, exemptions to these rules subject drivers and the public to avoidable safety risks.” E. Irizarry commented, “I respectfully request FMCSA consider the broader implications of this exemption and explore a more inclusive, consistent framework that takes into account the unforeseen and uncontrollable delays faced by truck drivers every day.”</P>
                <P>
                    One anonymous commenter noted his general support for “less hours for truck drivers so that they aren't overworked and underpaid [sic].”
                    <PRTPAGE P="34957"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. FMCSA Decision</HD>
                <P>The Agency has reviewed the application, comments to the docket, and R.J. Corman's and Cranemaster's safety records. FMCSA believes there is a public interest in providing the applicants with reasonable flexibility to address urgent situations that disrupt rail services. The relief is limited to the trip to the scene of the unplanned event; drivers will record working time at the scene as on-duty, non-driving time; and drivers will get the requisite rest before driving on a public road post-incident. Because such events happen only occasionally and not during a predictable number of times per week or per month, drivers would not operate CMVs after the 14th hour of coming on duty as a regular part of their schedules. Drivers would not regularly operate CMVs after accumulating 60 hours or 70 hours of on-duty time during seven or eight consecutive days. Drivers' standard schedules would include adherence to the 14-hour rule and adherence to the 60- and 70-hour rules.</P>
                <P>FMCSA is unaware of any evidence of a degradation of safety attributable to the current exemption. The applicants asserted that they have operated safely without incident since the initial exemption grant. FMCSA therefore concludes that renewing the exemption for another five years, under the terms and conditions set forth below, will likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level of safety that would be achieved absent the exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Exemption</HD>
                <P>FMCSA grants an exemption for a period of five years subject to the terms and conditions of this decision. The exemption from the requirements of 49 CFR 395.3(a)(2), 49 CFR 395.3(b)(1), and 49 CFR 395.3(b)(2) is effective from March 4, 2025, through March 4, 2030, 11:59 p.m. local time.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Applicability of Exemption</HD>
                <P>This exemption is restricted to individuals employed by R.J. Corman and Cranemasters while driving CMVs to the site of an “unplanned event” which includes the following:</P>
                <P>• a derailment;</P>
                <P>• a rail failure or other report of a dangerous track condition;</P>
                <P>• a track occupancy light;</P>
                <P>• a disruption to the electric propulsion system;</P>
                <P>• a bridge-strike;</P>
                <P>• a disabled vehicle on the train tracks;</P>
                <P>• a train collision;</P>
                <P>• weather- and storm-related events, including fallen trees and other debris on the tracks, snow, extreme cold or heat, rock and mud slides, track washouts, and earthquakes; and</P>
                <P>• a matter concerning national security or public safety, including a blocked grade crossing.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Terms and Conditions</HD>
                <P>1. When operating under this exemption, drivers:</P>
                <P>• May extend the 14-hour duty period in 49 CFR 395.3(a)(2) to no more than 17 hours;</P>
                <P>• May not exceed 11 hours of driving time, following 10 consecutive hours off duty;</P>
                <P>• May extend the 60- and 70-hour rule in 49 CFR 395.3(b) by no more than 6 hours; and</P>
                <P>• May not travel more than 300 air miles from the normal work-reporting location or terminal.</P>
                <P>2. Drivers must comply with the applicable HOS limits after arriving at the site and drivers must record all time working to restore rail service as on duty, not driving time.</P>
                <P>3. Drivers may take advantage of the Agency's personal conveyance regulatory guidance when traveling between the unplanned event work site and nearby lodging or dining facilities (June 7, 2018; 83 FR 26377). If that guidance is not applicable to the trip, CMV drivers who have reached the HOS limits must be transported from the work site by an individual who has not reached the HOS limits or use a vehicle that does not meet FMCSA's definition of a CMV (49 CFR 390.5) when they leave the site.</P>
                <P>
                    4. Drivers must complete the Driver Education Module 3 and the Driver Sleep Disorders and Management Module 8 of the North American Fatigue Management Program (NAFMP) (
                    <E T="03">www.nafmp.org</E>
                    ) prior to operating under the exemption; and
                </P>
                <P>5. Motor carriers and drivers must comply with all other provisions of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Preemption</HD>
                <P>In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(d), as implemented by 49 CFR 381.600, during the period this exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation applicable to interstate commerce that conflicts with or is inconsistent with this exemption with respect to a firm or person operating under the exemption. States may, but are not required to, adopt the same exemption with respect to operations in intrastate commerce.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Notification to FMCSA</HD>
                <P>R.J. Corman and Cranemasters must notify FMCSA within five business days of any crash (as defined in 49 CFR 390.5) involving any of their CMVs operating under the terms of the exemption. The notification must include the following information:</P>
                <P>1. Identity of Exemption: “R.J. Corman/Cranemasters”;</P>
                <P>2. Name of operating carrier and USDOT number;</P>
                <P>3. Date of the crash;</P>
                <P>4. City or town, and State, in which the accident occurred, or closest to the accident occurred, or closest to the crash scene;</P>
                <P>5. Driver's name and license number;</P>
                <P>6. Co-driver's name (if any) and license number;</P>
                <P>7. Vehicle number and State license number;</P>
                <P>8. Number of individuals suffering physical injury;</P>
                <P>9. Number of fatalities;</P>
                <P>10. The police-reported cause of the crash, if provided by the enforcement agency;</P>
                <P>11. Whether the driver was cited for violation of any traffic laws or motor carrier safety regulations; and</P>
                <P>12. The total on-duty time accumulated during the 7 consecutive days prior to the date of the crash, and the total on-duty time and driving time in the work shift prior to the crash. R.J. Corman and Cranemasters must provide a copy of the driver's records of duty status for the day of the crash and the prior 7 days upon request.</P>
                <P>
                    Reports filed under this provision shall be emailed to 
                    <E T="03">MCPSD@DOT.GOV.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Termination</HD>
                <P>FMCSA does not believe the drivers covered by this exemption will experience any deterioration of their safety record. However, the exemption will be rescinded if (1) R.J Corman, Cranemasters, or the drivers operating under the exemption fail to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objects of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b).</P>
                <P>
                    Interested parties possessing information that would otherwise show that the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than what would be observed absent the exemptions should immediately notify FMCSA at 
                    <E T="03">MCPSD@dot.gov.</E>
                     The Agency will evaluate any information submitted and, if safety is being compromised or if the continuation of this exemption is inconsistent with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(4), 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34958"/>
                    FMCSA will immediately take steps to revoke the exemption.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sue Lawless,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Administrator.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13961 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2013-0125; FMCSA-2014-0106; FMCSA-2014-0107; FMCSA-2014-0383; FMCSA-2015-0326; FMCSA-2018-0138; FMCSA-2023-0020]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Hearing</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of renewal of exemptions; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA announces its decision to renew exemptions for 14 individuals from the hearing requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) for interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers. The exemptions enable these hard of hearing and deaf individuals to continue to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Each group of renewed exemptions were applicable on the dates stated in the discussions below and will expire on the dates provided below. Comments must be received on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments identified by Docket No. FMCSA-2013-0125, Docket No. FMCSA-2014-0106, Docket No. FMCSA-2014-0107, Docket No. FMCSA-2014-0383, Docket No. FMCSA-2015-0326, Docket No. FMCSA-2018-0138, or Docket No. FMCSA-2023-0020 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         insert the docket number (FMCSA-2013-0125, FMCSA-2014-0106, FMCSA-2014-0107, FMCSA-2014-0383, FMCSA-2015-0326, FMCSA-2018-0138, or FMCSA-2023-0020) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, and click on the “Comment” button. Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Dockets Operations; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         West Building Ground Floor, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal Holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To avoid duplication, please use only one of these four methods. See the “Public Participation” portion of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for instructions on submitting comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Evangela Hollowell, Acting Chief, Medical Programs Division, FMCSA, DOT, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W64-224, Washington, DC 20590-0001, (202) 527-4750, 
                        <E T="03">fmcsamedical@dot.gov.</E>
                         Office hours are 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. If you have questions regarding viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Dockets Operations, (202) 366-9826.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Submitting Comments</HD>
                <P>If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (Docket No. FMCSA-2013-0125, Docket No. FMCSA-2014-0106, Docket No. FMCSA-2014-0107, Docket No. FMCSA-2014-0383, Docket No. FMCSA-2015-0326, Docket No. FMCSA-2018-0138, or Docket No. FMCSA-2023-0020), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    To submit your comment online, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     insert the docket number (FMCSA-2013-0125, FMCSA-2014-0106, FMCSA-2014-0107, FMCSA-2014-0383, FMCSA-2015-0326, FMCSA-2018-0138, or FMCSA-2023-0020) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, click the “Comment” button, and type your comment into the text box on the following screen. Choose whether you are submitting your comment as an individual or on behalf of a third party and then submit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8
                    <FR>1/2</FR>
                     by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Confidential Business Information (CBI)</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to the notice contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to the notice, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission that constitutes CBI as “PROPIN” to indicate it contains proprietary information. FMCSA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the Freedom of Information Act, and they will not be placed in the public docket of the notice. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Brian Dahlin, Chief, Regulatory Evaluation Division, Office of Policy, FMCSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001 or via email at 
                    <E T="03">brian.g.dahlin@dot.gov.</E>
                     At this time, you need not send a duplicate hardcopy of your electronic CBI submissions to FMCSA headquarters. Any comments FMCSA receives not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Viewing Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    To view comments go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Insert the docket number (FMCSA-2013-0125, FMCSA-2014-0106, FMCSA-2014-0107, FMCSA-2014-0383, FMCSA-2015-0326, FMCSA-2018-0138, or FMCSA-2023-0020) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, and click “Browse Comments.” If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting Dockets Operations on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.  
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Privacy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(6), DOT solicits comments 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34959"/>
                    from the public on the exemption requests. DOT posts these comments, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice DOT/ALL-14 FDMS (Federal Docket Management System), which can be reviewed under the “Department Wide System of Records Notices” link at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices.</E>
                     The comments are posted without edit and are searchable by the name of the submitter.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b) to grant exemptions from Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(a)). The Agency must provide the public an opportunity to inspect the information relevant to the application, including the applicant's safety analysis. The Agency must provide an opportunity for public comment on the request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Agency reviews the application, safety analyses, and public comments submitted and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such exemption, pursuant to the standard set forth in 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1). The Agency must publish its decision in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(b)). If granted, the notice will identify the regulatory provision from which the applicant will be exempt, the effective period, and all terms and conditions of the exemption (49 CFR 381.315(c)(1)). If the exemption is denied, the notice will explain the reason for the denial (49 CFR 381.315(c)(2)). The exemption may be renewed (49 CFR 381.300(b)). FMCSA grants medical exemptions from the FMCSRs for a 2-year period to align with the maximum duration of a driver's medical certification.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background</HD>
                <P>The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding hearing in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person first perceives a forced whispered voice in the better ear at not less than 5 feet with or without the use of a hearing aid or, if tested by use of an audiometric device, does not have an average hearing loss in the better ear greater than 40 decibels at 500 Hz, 1,000 Hz, and 2,000 Hz with or without a hearing aid when the audiometric device is calibrated to American National Standard (formerly ASA Standard) Z24.5—1951.</P>
                <P>This standard was adopted in 1970 and was revised in 1971 to allow drivers to be qualified under this standard while wearing a hearing aid, (35 FR 6458, 6463 (Apr. 22, 1970) and 36 FR 12857 (July 8, 1971)).</P>
                <P>The 14 individuals listed in this notice have requested renewal of their exemptions from the hearing standard in § 391.41(b)(11), in accordance with FMCSA procedures. Accordingly, FMCSA has evaluated these applications for renewal on their merits and decided to extend each exemption for a renewable 2-year period.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested parties or organizations possessing information that would otherwise show that any, or all, of these drivers are not currently achieving the statutory level of safety should immediately notify FMCSA. The Agency will evaluate any adverse evidence submitted and, if safety is being compromised or if continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), FMCSA will take immediate steps to revoke the exemption of a driver.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Basis for Renewing Exemptions</HD>
                <P>In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), each of the 14 applicants have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the hearing requirement. The 14 drivers in this notice remain in good standing with the Agency. In addition, the Agency has reviewed each applicant's certified driving record from their State Driver's Licensing Agency (SDLA). The information obtained from each applicant's driving record provides the Agency with details regarding any moving violations or reported crash data, which demonstrates whether the driver has a safe driving history and is an indicator of future driving performance. If the driving record revealed a crash, FMCSA requested and reviewed the related police reports and other relevant documents, such as the citation and conviction information. These factors provide an adequate basis for predicting each driver's ability to continue to safely operate a CMV in interstate commerce. Therefore, FMCSA concludes that extending the exemption for each of these drivers for a period of 2 years is likely to achieve a level of safety equivalent to that existing without the exemption.</P>
                <P>In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), the following groups of drivers received renewed exemptions in the month of June and are discussed below.</P>
                <P>As of June 17, 2025, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), the following 12 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the hearing requirement in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Jeremy Brandyberry (NE)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Kevin Ballard (TX)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Herbert Crowe (IN)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Mark Dickson (TX)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">David Garland (ME)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Jacob Gadreault, (MA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lane Grover (IN)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Paul Langlois (OH)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sergio Miramontes (CA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">David Shores (NC)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">James Thomason (MO)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Ramarr Wadley (PA)</FP>
                <P>The drivers were included in docket number FMCSA-2013-0125,</P>
                <P>FMCSA-2014-0106, FMCSA-2014-0107, FMCSA-2014-0383, FMCSA-2015-0326, or FMCSA-2018-0138. Their exemptions were applicable as of June 17, 2025, and will expire on June 17, 2027.</P>
                <P>As of June 30, 2025, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), the following two individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the hearing requirement in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers:</P>
                <P>Ryan Ketchner (TX); and Jerry Lacouture (TX).</P>
                <P>The drivers were included in docket number FMCSA-2023-0020. Their exemptions were applicable as of June 30, 2025, and will expire on June 30, 2027.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Terms and Conditions</HD>
                <P>
                    The exemptions are extended subject to the following conditions: each driver (1) must report to FMCSA any crashes as defined in § 390.5T, within 7 days of the crash; (2) must report to FMCSA any citations and convictions for disqualifying offenses under 49 CFR parts 383 and 391, within 7 days of the citation and conviction; (3) must submit to FMCSA annual certified driving records from their SDLA; and (4) is prohibited from operating a motorcoach or bus with passengers in interstate commerce; and (5) must also have a copy of the exemption when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official. In addition, the driver must meet all applicable commercial driver's license testing requirements. Each exemption will be valid for 2 years unless rescinded earlier by FMCSA. The 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34960"/>
                    exemption will be rescinded if: (1) the person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Preemption</HD>
                <P>During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Conclusion</HD>
                <P>Based upon its evaluation of the 14 exemption renewal applications, FMCSA renews the exemptions of the above-named drivers from the hearing requirement in § 391.41(b)(11). In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), and based on FMCSA's policy of issuing medical exemptions for the 2-year period in alignment with the medical certificate, each exemption will be valid for 2 years unless revoked earlier by FMCSA.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Larry W. Minor,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator for Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13982 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2013-0124; FMCSA-2014-0103; FMCSA-2017-0058; FMCSA-2022-0038; FMCSA-2022-0039]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Hearing</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of final disposition.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA announces its decision to renew exemptions for six individuals from the hearing requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) for interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers. The exemptions enable these hard of hearing and deaf individuals to continue to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The exemptions were applicable on February 28, 2025. The exemptions expire on February 28, 2027.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Evangela Hollowell, Acting Chief, Medical Programs Division, FMCSA, DOT, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, (202) 527-4750, 
                        <E T="03">fmcsamedical@dot.gov</E>
                        . Office hours are 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. If you have questions regarding viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Dockets Operations, (202) 366-9826.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Viewing Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    To view comments, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                    . Insert the docket number (FMCSA-2013-0124, FMCSA-2014-0103, FMCSA-2017-0058, FMCSA-2022-0038, or FMCSA-2022-0039) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, and click “Browse Comments.” If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting Dockets Operations on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Privacy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(6), DOT solicits comments from the public on the exemption requests. DOT posts these comments, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice DOT/ALL-14 FDMS (Federal Docket Management System), which can be reviewed under the “Department Wide System of Records Notices” link at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices.</E>
                     The comments are posted without edit and are searchable by the name of the submitter.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b) to grant exemptions from Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(a)). The Agency must provide the public an opportunity to inspect the information relevant to the application, including the applicant's safety analysis. The Agency must provide an opportunity for public comment on the request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Agency reviews the application, safety analyses, and public comments submitted and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such exemption, pursuant to the standard set forth in 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1). The Agency must publish its decision in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(b)). If granted, the notice will identify the regulatory provision from which the applicant will be exempt, the effective period, and all terms and conditions of the exemption (49 CFR 381.315(c)(1)). If the exemption is denied, the notice will explain the reason for the denial (49 CFR 381.315(c)(2)). The exemption may be renewed (49 CFR 381.300(b)). FMCSA grants medical exemptions from the FMCSRs for a 2-year period to align with the maximum duration of a driver's medical certification.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background</HD>
                <P>On March 27, 2025, FMCSA published a notice announcing its decision to renew exemptions for six individuals from the hearing standard in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11) to operate a CMV in interstate commerce and requested comments from the public (90 FR 13989). The public comment period ended on April 28, 2025, and one comment was received.</P>
                <P>FMCSA has evaluated the eligibility of these applicants and determined that renewing these exemptions would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by complying with § 391.41(b)(11).</P>
                <P>The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding hearing found in § 391.41(b)(11) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person first perceives a forced whispered voice in the better ear at not less than 5 feet with or without the use of a hearing aid or, if tested by use of an audiometric device, does not have an average hearing loss in the better ear greater than 40 decibels at 500 Hz, 1,000 Hz, and 2,000 Hz with or without a hearing aid when the audiometric device is calibrated to American National Standard (formerly ASA Standard) Z24.5—1951.</P>
                <P>This standard was adopted in 1970 and was revised in 1971 to allow drivers to be qualified under this standard while wearing a hearing aid (35 FR 6458, 6463 (Apr. 22, 1970) and 36 FR 12857 (July 8, 1971)).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Discussion of Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA received one comments in this proceeding. The commenter was in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34961"/>
                    favor of issuing hearing exemptions noting that essential vehicle alerts, such as low air pressure warnings, are conveyed through visual indicators and buzzers instead of spoken language.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Preemption</HD>
                <P>During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Conclusion</HD>
                <P>Based upon its evaluation of the six renewal exemption applications and the one comment received, FMCSA announces its decision to exempt the following drivers from the hearing requirement in § 391.41(b)(11).</P>
                <P>As of February 28, 2025, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), the following six individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the hearing requirement in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Elder Berroa (PA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Chad D'Amore (PA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sean Dearsman (OH)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Joshua Drane (TX)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Ervin Mitchell (TX)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Quinton Murphy (WI)</FP>
                <P>The drivers were included in docket number FMCSA-2013-0124, FMCSA-2014-0103, FMCSA-2017-0058, FMCSA-2022-0038, or FMCSA-2022-0039. Their exemptions were applicable as of February 28, 2025, and will expire on February 28, 2027.</P>
                <P>In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b), and based on FMCSA's policy of issuing medical exemptions for the 2-year period in alignment with the medical certificate, each exemption will be valid for 2 years from the effective date unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if the following occurs: (1) the person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained prior to being granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136, 49 U.S.C. chapter 313, or the FMCSRs.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Larry W. Minor,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator for Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13976 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2025-0010]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of final disposition.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA announces its decision to exempt 11 individuals from the requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) that interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers have “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.” The exemptions enable these individuals who have had one or more seizures and are taking anti-seizure medication to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The exemptions were applicable on May 3, 2025. The exemptions expire on May 3, 2027.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Evangela Hollowell, Acting Chief, Medical Programs Division, FMCSA, DOT, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001; (202) 527-4750; 
                        <E T="03">fmcsamedical@dot.gov</E>
                        . Office hours are from 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. If you have questions regarding viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Dockets Operations, (202) 366-9826.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Viewing Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    To view comments, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                    . Insert the docket number, (FMCSA-2025-0010) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, choose the only notice listed, and click “Browse Comments.” If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting Dockets Operations on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Privacy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(6), DOT solicits comments from the public on the exemption requests. DOT posts these comments, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                    . As described in the system of records notice DOT/ALL-14 FDMS (Federal Docket Management System), which can be reviewed under the “Department Wide System of Records Notices” link at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices</E>
                    . The comments are posted without edit and are searchable by the name of the submitter.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b) to grant exemptions from Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(a)). The Agency must provide the public an opportunity to inspect the information relevant to the application, including the applicant's safety analysis. The Agency must provide an opportunity for public comment on the request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Agency reviews the application, safety analyses, and public comments submitted and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such exemption, pursuant to the standard set forth in 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1). The Agency must publish its decision in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(b)). If granted, the notice will identify the regulatory provision from which the applicant will be exempt, the effective period, and all terms and conditions of the exemption (49 CFR 381.315(c)(1)). If the exemption is denied, the notice will explain the reason for the denial (49 CFR 381.315(c)(2)). The exemption may be renewed (49 CFR 381.300(b)).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding seizures and loss of consciousness provides that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person has “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause the loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control” a CMV (49 CFR 391.41(b)(8)). To assist in applying this standard, FMCSA publishes guidance for medical examiners (MEs) in the form of medical advisory criteria 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34962"/>
                    in Appendix A to 49 CFR part 391.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In 2007, FMCSA published recommendations from a Medical Expert Panel (MEP) that FMCSA tasked to review the existing seizure disorder guidelines for MEs.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The MEP performed a comprehensive, systematic literature review, including evidence available at the time. The MEP issued recommended criteria to evaluate whether an individual with a history of epilepsy, a single unprovoked seizure, or a provoked seizure should be allowed to drive a CMV.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         49 CFR part 391, App.A.II.G, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ecfr.gov/current/title-49/subtitle-B/chapter-III/subchapter-B/part-391/appendix-Appendix%20A%20to%20Part%20391</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         “Expert Panel Recommendations, Seizure Disorders and Commercial Motor Vehicle Driver Safety,” Medical Expert Panel (Oct. 15, 2007), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/sites/fmcsa.dot.gov/files/2020-04/Seizure-Disorders-MEP-Recommendations-v2-prot%2010152007.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>On January 15, 2013, FMCSA began granting exemptions, on a case-by-case basis, to individual drivers from the physical qualification standard regarding seizures and loss of consciousness in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) (78 FR 3069). The Agency considers the medical advisory criteria, the 2007 MEP recommendations, and each individual's medical information and driving record in deciding whether to grant the exemption.</P>
                <P>On March 27, 2025, FMCSA published a notice announcing receipt of applications from 11 individuals requesting an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) and requested comments from the public (90 FR 13987). The public comment period ended on April 28, 2025, and one comment was received.</P>
                <P>FMCSA has evaluated the eligibility of these applicants and determined that granting exemptions to these individuals would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by complying with § 391.41(b)(8).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Discussion of Comments</HD>
                <P>FMCSA received one comment in this proceeding. The commenter provided information on previous medical studies studying the impact of CPAP devices on commercial drivers who have sleep apnea. However, the comment is outside the scope of this notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Basis for Exemption Determination</HD>
                <P>
                    The Agency conducted an individualized assessment of each applicant's medical information, including the root cause of the respective seizure(s) and medical information about the applicant's seizure history, the length of time that has elapsed since the individual's last seizure, the stability of each individual's treatment regimen and the duration of time on or off of anti-seizure medication. In addition, the Agency reviewed the treating clinician's medical opinion related to the ability of the driver to safely operate a CMV with a seizure history and each certified driving record from their State Driver's Licensing Agency (SDLA). The information obtained from each applicant's driving record provides the Agency with details regarding any moving violations or reported crash data, which demonstrates whether the driver has a safe driving history and is an indicator of future driving performance. If the driving record revealed a crash, FMCSA requested and reviewed the related police reports and other relevant documents, such as the citation and conviction information. A summary of each applicant's seizure history was discussed in the March 27, 2025, 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice (90 FR 13987) and will not be repeated in this notice.
                </P>
                <P>These 11 applicants have all been seizure-free over a range of 8 to 21 years while taking anti-seizure medication and maintained a stable medication treatment regimen for the last 2 years. In each case, the applicant's treating physician verified his or her seizure history and supports the ability to drive commercially.</P>
                <P>The Agency acknowledges the potential consequences of a driver experiencing a seizure while operating a CMV. However, the Agency believes the drivers granted this exemption have demonstrated that they are unlikely to have a seizure and their medical condition does not pose a risk to public safety in the operation of a CMV.</P>
                <P>Consequently, FMCSA finds further that in each case exempting these applicants from the epilepsy and seizure disorder prohibition in § 391.41(b)(8) would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to the level of safety that would be achieved without the exemption, consistent with the applicable standard in 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Terms and Conditions</HD>
                <P>The terms and conditions of the exemption are provided to the applicants in the exemption document and include the following: each driver must (1) remain seizure-free, maintain a stable treatment, and report to FMCSA within 24 hours if they experience a seizure during the 2-year exemption period; (2) submit to FMCSA annual reports from their treating physicians attesting to the stability of treatment and that the driver has remained seizure-free; (3) undergo an annual medical examination by a certified medical examiner, as defined by § 390.5T; (4) provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file, or keep a copy in their driver's qualification file if they are self-employed; (5) report to FMCSA the date, location, and time of any crashes as defined in § 390.5T within 7 days of the crash; (6) report to FMCSA any citations and convictions for disqualifying offenses under 49 CFR parts 383 and 391 within 7 days of the citations and convictions; and (7) submit to FMCSA annual certified driving records from their SDLA. The driver must also have a copy of the exemption when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official. In addition, the driver must meet all applicable commercial driver's license testing requirements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Preemption</HD>
                <P>During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Conclusion</HD>
                <P>Based upon its evaluation of the 11 exemption applications, FMCSA exempts the following drivers from the epilepsy and seizure disorder prohibition in § 391.41(b)(8), subject to the requirements cited above:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tyson Bridgeman (IN)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Matthew Bouy (PA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austin Goad (NC)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Jeffery Hodges (MO)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">William Lewis (KS)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Efren Medrano (CA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Aaron McEuen (UT)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Melissa Mohr (WI)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Joshua Parente (NY)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Jeffrey Schultz (WI)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Christopher Wetherell (MA)</FP>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b), and based on FMCSA's policy of issuing medical exemptions for the 2-year period in alignment with the medical certificate, each exemption will be valid for 2 years from the effective date unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if the following occurs: (1) the person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained prior to being granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34963"/>
                    and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136, 49 U.S.C. chapter 313, or the FMCSRs.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Larry W. Minor,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator for Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13975 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2025-0012]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of applications for exemption; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA announces receipt of applications from 11 individuals for an exemption from the prohibition in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) against persons with a clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition that is likely to cause a loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) to drive in interstate commerce. If granted, the exemptions would enable these individuals who have had one or more seizures and are taking anti-seizure medication to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments identified by Docket No. FMCSA-2025-0012 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         insert the docket number (FMCSA-2025-0012) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, choose the only notice listed, and click on the “Comment” button. Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Dockets Operations; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         West Building Ground Floor, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001 between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal Holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To avoid duplication, please use only one of these four methods. See the “Public Participation” portion of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for instructions on submitting comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Evangela Hollowell, Acting Chief, Medical Programs Division, FMCSA, DOT, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, (202) 527-4750, 
                        <E T="03">fmcsamedical@dot.gov.</E>
                         Office hours are 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. If you have questions regarding viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Dockets Operations, (202) 366-9826.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Submitting Comments</HD>
                <P>If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (Docket No. FMCSA-2025-0012), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    To submit your comment online, go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/</E>
                     FMCSA-2025-0012. Next, choose the only notice listed, click the “Comment” button, and type your comment into the text box on the following screen. Choose whether you are submitting your comment as an individual or on behalf of a third party and then submit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8
                    <FR>1/2</FR>
                     by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Confidential Business Information (CBI)</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to the notice contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to the notice, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission that constitutes CBI as “PROPIN” to indicate it contains proprietary information. FMCSA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the Freedom of Information Act, and they will not be placed in the public docket of the notice. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Brian Dahlin, Chief, Regulatory Evaluation Division, Office of Policy, FMCSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001 or via email at 
                    <E T="03">brian.g.dahlin@dot.gov.</E>
                     At this time, you need not send a duplicate hardcopy of your electronic CBI submissions to FMCSA headquarters. Any comments FMCSA receives not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Viewing Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    To view comments, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     insert the docket number (FMCSA-2025-0012) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, choose the only notice listed, and click “Browse Comments.” If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting Dockets Operations on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Privacy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(6), DOT solicits comments from the public on the exemption request. DOT posts these comments, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice DOT/ALL-14 FDMS (Federal Docket Management System), which can be reviewed under the “Department Wide System of Records Notices” link at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices.</E>
                     The comments are posted without edit and are searchable by the name of the submitter.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b) to grant exemptions from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(a)). The Agency must provide the public an opportunity to inspect the information 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34964"/>
                    relevant to the application, including the applicant's safety analysis. The Agency must provide an opportunity for public comment on the request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Agency reviews the application, safety analyses, and public comments submitted and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such exemption, pursuant to the standard set forth 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1). The Agency must publish its decision in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(b)). If granted, the notice will identify the regulatory provision from which the applicant will be exempt, the effective period, and all terms and conditions of the exemption (49 CFR 381.315(c)(1)). If the exemption is denied, the notice will explain the reason for the denial (49 CFR 381.315(c)(2)). The exemption may be renewed (49 CFR 381.300(b)). FMCSA grants medical exemptions from the FMCSRs for a 2-year period to align with the maximum duration of a driver's medical certification.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding seizures and loss of consciousness provides that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person has “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause the loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control” a CMV (49 CFR 391.41(b)(8)). To assist in applying this standard, FMCSA publishes guidance for medical examiners (ME) in the form of medical advisory criteria in Appendix A to 49 CFR part 391.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In 2007, FMCSA published recommendations from a Medical Expert Panel (MEP) that FMCSA tasked to review the existing seizure disorder guidelines for MEs.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The MEP performed a comprehensive, systematic literature review, including evidence available at the time. The MEP issued recommended criteria to evaluate whether an individual with a history of epilepsy, a single unprovoked seizure, or a provoked seizure should be allowed to drive a CMV.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         49 CFR part 391, App.A.II.G, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ecfr.gov/current/title-49/subtitle-B/chapter-III/subchapter-B/part-391/appendix-Appendix%20A%20to%20Part%20391.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         “Expert Panel Recommendations, Seizure Disorders and Commercial Motor Vehicle Driver Safety,” Medical Expert Panel (Oct. 15, 2007), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/sites/fmcsa.dot.gov/files/2020-04/Seizure-Disorders-MEP-Recommendations-v2-prot%2010152007.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>On January 15, 2013, FMCSA began granting exemptions, on a case-by-case basis, to individual drivers from the physical qualification standard regarding seizures and loss of consciousness in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) (78 FR 3069). The Agency considers the medical advisory criteria, the 2007 MEP recommendations, any public comments received, and each individual's medical information and driving record in deciding whether to grant the exemption.</P>
                <P>The 11 individuals listed in this notice have requested an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8). Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting the exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Qualifications of Applicants</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Terrence Abrams</HD>
                <P>Terrence Abrams is a 31-year-old class A commercial learner's permit holder in North Carolina. He has a history of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy and has been seizure free for more than eight years. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since January 6, 2021. Terrence Abrams's physician states that they are supportive of him receiving an exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Jacob Bing</HD>
                <P>Jacob Bing is a 24-year-old class B commercial driver's license (CDL) holder in Ohio. He has a history of nocturnal seizure disorder and has been seizure free since 2015. He takes an anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since February 2015. Jacob Bing's physician states that they are supportive of him receiving an exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Michael Brown</HD>
                <P>Michael Brown is a 27-year-old class C license holder in Texas. He has a history of non-intractable generalized idiopathic epilepsy and has been seizure free since 2017. He takes an anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since 2017. Michael Brown's physician states that they are supportive of him receiving an exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Daniel Chandler</HD>
                <P>Daniel Chandler is a 31-year-old class D license holder in New York. He has a history of seizure disorder and has been seizure free since 2017. He takes an anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since April 2014. Daniel Chandler's physician states that they are supportive of him receiving an exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Phillip Chavis</HD>
                <P>Phillip Chavis is a 39-year-old class C license holder in North Carolina. He has a history of epilepsy and has been seizure free since December 2013. He takes an anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since February 6, 2013. Philip Chavis's physician states that they are supportive of him receiving an exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Darius Dale</HD>
                <P>Darius Dale is a 28-year-old class C license holder in Pennsylvania. He has a history of nocturnal epilepsy and has been seizure free since January 25, 2014. He takes an anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same for over 10 years. Darius Dale's physician states that they are supportive of him receiving an exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Logan Fry</HD>
                <P>Logan Fry is a 25-year-old regular operator license holder in Washington. He has a history of epilepsy and has been seizure free since November 26, 2012. He takes an anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since October 2015. Logan Fry's physician states that they are supportive of him receiving an exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Kasey Key</HD>
                <P>Kasey Key is a 27-year-old class C license holder in Texas. He has a history of idiopathic epilepsy and has been seizure free since July 2016. He takes an anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since March 18, 2015. Kasey Key's physician states that they are supportive of him receiving an exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Thomas Marx</HD>
                <P>Thomas Marx is a 49-year-old class A CDL holder in Washington. He has a history of grand mal seizures and has been seizure free since November 1992. He takes an anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since August 1995. Thomas Marx's physician states that they are supportive of him receiving an exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">John Murray</HD>
                <P>
                    John Murray is a 30-year-old class C license holder in Pennsylvania. He has a history of seizure disorder and has been seizure free since 2014. He takes an anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since August 1, 2014. John Murray's physician states that they are 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34965"/>
                    supportive of him receiving an exemption.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Jim Musty</HD>
                <P>Jim Musty is a 71-year-old class D license holder in New Hampshire. He has a history of primary seizures and has been seizure free since 2012. He takes an anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since 2012. Jim Murray's physician states that they are supportive of him receiving an exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">V. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), FMCSA requests public comment from all interested persons on the exemption petitions described in this notice. FMCSA will consider all comments received before the close of business on the closing date indicated under the 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     section of the notice.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Larry W. Minor,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator for Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13979 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2011-0089; FMCSA-2015-0115; FMCSA-2018-0057; FMCSA-2019-0027; FMCSA-2022-0045; FMCSA-2023-0032; FMCSA-2023-0033]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of renewal of exemptions; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA announces its decision to renew exemptions for 13 individuals from the requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) that interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers have “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.” The exemptions enable these individuals who have had one or more seizures and are taking anti-seizure medication to continue to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Each group of renewed exemptions were applicable on the dates stated in the discussions below and will expire on the dates provided below. Comments must be received on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments identified by Docket No. FMCSA-2011-0089, Docket No. FMCSA-2015-0115, Docket No. FMCSA-2018-0057, Docket No. FMCSA-2019-0027, Docket No. FMCSA-2022-0045, Docket No. FMCSA-2023-0032, or Docket No. FMCSA-2023-0033 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         insert the docket number (FMCSA-2011-0089, FMCSA-2015-0115, FMCSA-2018-0057, FMCSA-2019-0027, FMCSA-2022-0045, FMCSA-2023-0032, or FMCSA-2023-0033) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, and click on the “Comment” button. Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Dockets Operations; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         West Building Ground Floor, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001 between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal Holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To avoid duplication, please use only one of these four methods. See the “Public Participation” portion of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for instructions on submitting comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Evangela Hollowell, Acting Chief, Medical Programs Division, FMCSA, DOT, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001; (202) 527-4750; 
                        <E T="03">fmcsamedical@dot.gov.</E>
                         Office hours are from 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. If you have questions regarding viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Dockets Operations, (202) 366-9826.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Submitting Comments</HD>
                <P>If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (Docket No. FMCSA-2011-0089, Docket No. FMCSA-2015-0115, Docket No. FMCSA-2018-0057, Docket No. FMCSA-2019-0027, Docket No. FMCSA-2022-0045, Docket No. FMCSA-2023-0032, or Docket No. FMCSA-2023-0033), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    To submit your comment online, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     insert the docket number (FMCSA-2011-0089, FMCSA-2015-0115, FMCSA-2018-0057, FMCSA-2019-0027, FMCSA-2022-0045, FMCSA-2023-0032, or FMCSA-2023-0033) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, click the “Comment” button, and type your comment into the text box on the following screen. Choose whether you are submitting your comment as an individual or on behalf of a third party and then submit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8
                    <FR>1/2</FR>
                     by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Confidential Business Information (CBI)</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to the notice contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to the notice, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission that constitutes CBI as “PROPIN” to indicate it contains proprietary information. FMCSA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the Freedom of Information Act, and they will not be placed in the public docket of the notice. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Brian Dahlin, Chief, Regulatory Evaluation Division, Office of Policy, FMCSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001 or via email at 
                    <E T="03">brian.g.dahlin@dot.gov.</E>
                     At this time, you need not send a duplicate hardcopy of your electronic CBI submissions to FMCSA headquarters. Any comments FMCSA receives not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this notice.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34966"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Viewing Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    To view comments, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Insert the docket number (FMCSA-2011-0089, FMCSA-2015-0115, FMCSA-2018-0057, FMCSA-2019-0027, FMCSA-2022-0045, FMCSA-2023-0032, or FMCSA-2023-0033) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, and click “Browse Comments.” If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting Dockets Operations on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Privacy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(6), DOT solicits comments from the public on the exemption request. DOT posts these comments, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice DOT/ALL-14 FDMS (Federal Docket Management System), which can be reviewed under the “Department Wide System of Records Notices” link at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices.</E>
                     The comments are posted without edit and are searchable by the name of the submitter.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b) to grant exemptions from Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(a)). The Agency must provide the public an opportunity to inspect the information relevant to the application, including the applicant's safety analysis. The Agency must provide an opportunity for public comment on the request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Agency reviews the application, safety analyses, and public comments submitted and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such exemption, pursuant to the standard set forth in 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1). The Agency must publish its decision in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(b)). If granted, the notice will identify the regulatory provision from which the applicant will be exempt, the effective period, and all terms and conditions of the exemption (49 CFR 381.315(c)(1)). If the exemption is denied, the notice will explain the reason for the denial (49 CFR 381.315(c)(2)). The exemption may be renewed (49 CFR 381.300(b)).  
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding seizures and loss of consciousness provides that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person has “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause the loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control” a CMV (49 CFR 391.41(b)(8)). To assist in applying this standard, FMCSA publishes guidance for medical examiners (MEs) in the form of medical advisory criteria in Appendix A to 49 CFR part 391.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In 2007, FMCSA published recommendations from a Medical Expert Panel (MEP) that FMCSA tasked to review the existing seizure disorder guidelines for MEs.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The MEP performed a comprehensive, systematic literature review, including evidence available at the time. The MEP issued recommended criteria to evaluate whether an individual with a history of epilepsy, a single unprovoked seizure, or a provoked seizure should be allowed to drive a CMV.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         49 CFR part 391, App.A.II.G, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ecfr.gov/current/title-49/subtitle-B/chapter-III/subchapter-B/part-391/appendix-Appendix%20A%20to%20Part%20391.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         “Expert Panel Recommendations, Seizure Disorders and Commercial Motor Vehicle Driver Safety,” Medical Expert Panel (Oct. 15, 2007), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/sites/fmcsa.dot.gov/files/2020-04/Seizure-Disorders-MEP-Recommendations-v2-prot%2010152007.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>On January 15, 2013, FMCSA began granting exemptions, on a case-by-case basis, to individual drivers from the physical qualification standard regarding seizures and loss of consciousness in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) (78 FR 3069). The Agency considers the medical advisory criteria, the 2007 MEP recommendations, any public comments received, and each individual's medical information and driving record in deciding whether to grant the exemption.</P>
                <P>The 13 individuals listed in this notice have requested renewal of their exemptions from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in § 391.41(b)(8), in accordance with FMCSA procedures. Accordingly, FMCSA has evaluated these applications for renewal on their merits and decided to extend each exemption for a renewable 2-year period.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested parties or organizations possessing information that would otherwise show that any, or all, of these drivers are not currently achieving the statutory level of safety should immediately notify FMCSA. The Agency will evaluate any adverse evidence submitted and, if safety is being compromised or if continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), FMCSA will take immediate steps to revoke the exemption of a driver.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Basis for Renewing Exemptions</HD>
                <P>In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), each of the 13 applicants have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition. The 13 drivers in this notice remain in good standing with the Agency, have maintained their medical monitoring and have not exhibited any medical issues that would compromise their ability to safely operate a CMV during the previous 2-year exemption period. In addition, the Agency has reviewed each applicant's certified driving record from their State Driver's Licensing Agency (SDLA). The information obtained from each applicant's driving record provides the Agency with details regarding any moving violations or reported crash data, which demonstrates whether the driver has a safe driving history and is an indicator of future driving performance. If the driving record revealed a crash, FMCSA requested and reviewed the related police reports and other relevant documents, such as the citation and conviction information. These factors provide an adequate basis for predicting each driver's ability to continue to safely operate a CMV in interstate commerce. Accordingly, FMCSA concludes that extending the exemption for each renewal applicant for a period of 2 years is likely to achieve a level of safety equivalent to the level that would be achieved without the exemption.</P>
                <P>In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), the following groups of drivers received renewed exemptions in the month of June and are discussed below.</P>
                <P>As of June 10, 2025, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), the following eight individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers.</P>
                <PRTPAGE P="34967"/>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Kevin Addington (PA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">John D. Archer (MO)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Daniel Gast (KS)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Steve Hunsaker (ID)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Bryan R. Jones (PA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Brandon Kirby (CT)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Alexander Kumm (IL)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">David Shively (WY)</FP>
                <P>The drivers were included in docket number FMCSA-2011-0089, FMCSA-2015-0115, FMCSA-2018-0057, FMCSA-2019-0027, FMCSA-2022-0045, or FMCSA-2023-0032. Their exemptions were applicable as of June 10, 2025, and will expire on June 10, 2027.</P>
                <P>As of June 21, 2025, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), the following five individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sean Duffy (NJ)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Daniel Lozier (OH)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Jeffrey Raddatz (IA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sergio Soto (AZ)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Jacob Woliver (CA)</FP>
                <P>The drivers were included in docket number FMCSA-2023-0033. Their exemptions were applicable as of June 21, 2025, and will expire on June 21, 2027.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Terms and Conditions</HD>
                <P>The exemptions are extended subject to the following conditions: each driver must (1) remain seizure-free, maintain a stable treatment, and report to FMCSA within 24 hours if they experience a seizure during the 2-year exemption period; (2) submit to FMCSA annual reports from their treating physicians attesting to the stability of treatment and that the driver has remained seizure-free; (3) undergo an annual medical examination by a certified medical examiner, as defined by § 390.5T; (4) provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file, or keep a copy in their driver's qualification file if they are self-employed; (5) report to FMCSA the date, time, and location of any crashes, as defined in § 390.5T, within 7 days of the crash; (6) report to FMCSA any citations and convictions for disqualifying offenses under 49 CFR parts 383 and 391 to FMCSA within 7 days of the citation and conviction; and (7) submit to FMCSA annual certified driving records from their SDLA. The driver must also have a copy of the exemption when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official. In addition, the driver must meet all applicable commercial driver's license testing requirements. Each exemption will be valid for 2 years unless rescinded earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be rescinded if: (1) the person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Preemption</HD>
                <P>During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Conclusion</HD>
                <P>Based on its evaluation of the 13 exemption renewal applications, FMCSA renews the exemptions of the aforementioned drivers from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in § 391.41(b)(8) and seeks public comment on each. In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), and based on FMCSA's policy of issuing medical exemptions for the 2-year period in alignment with the medical certificate, each exemption will be valid for 2 years unless revoked earlier by FMCSA.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Larry W. Minor,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator for Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13983 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2025-0038]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillators (ICDs)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of application for exemption; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA announces receipt of an application from one individual for an exemption from the prohibition in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) against operation of a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) by persons with a current clinical diagnosis of myocardial infarction, angina pectoris, coronary insufficiency, thrombosis, or any other cardiovascular disease of a variety known to be accompanied by syncope (transient loss of consciousness), dyspnea (shortness of breath), collapse, or congestive heart failure. If granted, the exemption would enable the individual with an ICD to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments identified by Docket No. FMCSA-2025-0038 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         insert the docket number (FMCSA-2025-0038) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, and click on the “Comment” button. Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Dockets Operations; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         West Building Ground Floor, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal Holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To avoid duplication, please use only one of these four methods. See the “Public Participation” portion of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for instructions on submitting comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Evangela Hollowell, Acting Chief, Medical Programs Division, FMCSA, DOT, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, (202) 527-4750, 
                        <E T="03">fmcsamedical@dot.gov</E>
                        . Office hours are from 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. If you have questions regarding viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Dockets Operations, (202) 366-9826.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Submitting Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (Docket No. FMCSA-2025-0038), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34968"/>
                    number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
                </P>
                <P>
                    To submit your comment online, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov/docket/FMCSA-2025-0038</E>
                    . Next, choose the only notice listed, click the “Comment” button, and type your comment into the text box on the following screen. Choose whether you are submitting your comment as an individual or on behalf of a third party and then submit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8
                    <FR>1/2</FR>
                     by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Confidential Business Information (CBI)</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to the notice contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to the notice, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission that constitutes CBI as “PROPIN” to indicate it contains proprietary information. FMCSA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the Freedom of Information Act, and they will not be placed in the public docket of the notice. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Brian Dahlin, Chief, Regulatory Evaluation Division, Office of Policy, FMCSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001 or via email at 
                    <E T="03">brian.g.dahlin@dot.gov</E>
                    . At this time, you need not send a duplicate hardcopy of your electronic CBI submissions to FMCSA headquarters. Any comments FMCSA receives not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Viewing Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    To view comments go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                    . Insert the docket number (FMCSA-2025-0038) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, choose the only notice listed, and click “Browse Comments.” If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting Dockets Operations on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Privacy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(6), DOT solicits comments from the public on the exemption requests. DOT posts these comments, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice DOT/ALL-14 FDMS (Federal Docket Management System), which can be reviewed under the “Department Wide System of Records Notices” link at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices</E>
                    . The comments are posted without edit and are searchable by the name of the submitter.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b) to grant exemptions from Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(a)). The Agency must provide the public an opportunity to inspect the information relevant to the application, including the applicant's safety analysis. The Agency must provide an opportunity for public comment on the request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Agency reviews the application, safety analyses, and public comments submitted and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such exemption, pursuant to the standard set forth 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1). The Agency must publish its decision in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(b)). If granted, the notice will identify the regulatory provision from which the applicant will be exempt, the effective period, and all terms and conditions of the exemption (49 CFR 381.315(c)(1)). If the exemption is denied, the notice will explain the reason for the denial (49 CFR 381.315(c)(2)). The exemption may be renewed (49 CFR 381.300(b)). FMCSA grants medical exemptions from the FMCSRs for a 2-year period to align with the maximum duration of a driver's medical certification.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding cardiovascular diseases and loss of consciousness provides that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person has “no current clinical diagnosis of myocardial infarction, angina pectoris, coronary insufficiency, thrombosis, or any other cardiovascular disease of a variety known to be accompanied by syncope, dyspnea, collapse, or congestive cardiac failure” (49 CFR 391.41(b)(4)). To assist in applying this standard, FMCSA publishes guidance for medical examiners (MEs) in the form of medical advisory criteria in Appendix A to 49 CFR part 391.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The advisory criteria for § 391.41(b)(4) indicates that ICDs are installed to address an ongoing underlying cardiovascular condition and that syncope or collapse is likely to occur as a result of both the underlying cardiovascular condition as well as when the ICDs discharge. Therefore, ICDs are medically disqualifying. In April 2007, FMCSA published an evidence report titled, “Cardiovascular Disease and Commercial Motor Vehicle Driver Safety,” presenting findings regarding cardiovascular disease and CMV driver safety.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In December 2014, FMCSA published a research report titled, “Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillators and the Impact of a Shock in a Patient When Deployed,” that provided evidence regarding the potential impact of ICD deployment and how it may interfere with the safe operation of a CMV.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         49 CFR part 391, App.A.II.C, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ecfr.gov/current/title-49/subtitle-B/chapter-III/subchapter-B/part-391/appendix-Appendix%20A%20to%20Part%20391</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         “Evidence Report: Cardiovascular Disease” (Apr. 27, 2007), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.21949/1502991</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         “Implantable Cardio Defibrillators and the Impact of a Shock to the Patient when Deployed Research White Paper” (Dec. 17, 2014), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/sites/fmcsa.dot.gov/files/2021-06/Cardio%20Defibrillators%20White%20Paper_Final_508C.pdf</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Agency considers the medical advisory criteria, the April 2007 evidence report, the December 2014 research report, the application, any public comments received, and the individual's medical information in deciding whether to grant the exemption.</P>
                <P>
                    The individual listed in this notice has requested an exemption from 49 CFR 391.41(b)(4). Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of the applicant to determine whether granting the exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.
                    <PRTPAGE P="34969"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Qualifications of Applicant</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Charles Pereira</HD>
                <P>Charles Pereira is a class CM commercial driver's license holder in California. A January 17, 2025, letter from Mr. Pereira's cardiologist reports that he had an ICD placed to treat ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia. His ICD was originally implanted in June 2010, and he received a shock from that device without loss of consciousness. Mr. Pereira's ICD was replaced on December 12, 2022, and he has not received any shocks from the new device. Mr. Pereira's cardiologist also reports his underlying heart condition is stable and that he has not experienced any symptoms concerning the device.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), FMCSA requests public comment from all interested persons on the exemption petitions described in this notice. FMCSA will consider all comments received before the close of business on the closing date indicated under the 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     section of the notice.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Larry W. Minor,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator for Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13974 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2016-0011; FMCSA-2018-0052; FMCSA-2018-0053; FMCSA-2020-0045; FMCSA-2020-0047; FMCSA-2023-0030; FMCSA-2023-0032]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of renewal of exemptions; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA announces its decision to renew exemptions for 17 individuals from the requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) that interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers have “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.” The exemptions enable these individuals who have had one or more seizures and are taking anti-seizure medication to continue to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Each group of renewed exemptions were applicable on the dates stated in the discussions below and will expire on the dates provided below. Comments must be received on or before August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments identified by Docket No. FMCSA-2016-0011, Docket No. FMCSA-2018-0052, Docket No. FMCSA-2018-0053, Docket No. FMCSA-2020-0045, Docket No. FMCSA-2020-0047, Docket No. FMCSA-2023-0030, or Docket No. FMCSA-2023-0032 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         insert the docket number (FMCSA-2016-0011, FMCSA-2018-0052, FMCSA-2018-0053, FMCSA-2020-0045, FMCSA-2020-0047, FMCSA-2023-0030, or FMCSA-2023-0032) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, and click on the “Comment” button. Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Dockets Operations; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         West Building Ground Floor, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001 between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal Holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To avoid duplication, please use only one of these four methods. See the “Public Participation” portion of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for instructions on submitting comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Evangela Hollowell, Acting Chief, Medical Programs Division, FMCSA, DOT, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001; (202) 527-4750; 
                        <E T="03">fmcsamedical@dot.gov.</E>
                         Office hours are from 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. If you have questions regarding viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Dockets Operations, (202) 366-9826.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Submitting Comments</HD>
                <P>If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (Docket No. FMCSA-2016-0011, Docket No. FMCSA-2018-0052, Docket No. FMCSA-2018-0053, Docket No. FMCSA-2020-0045, Docket No. FMCSA-2020-0047, Docket No. FMCSA-2023-0030, or Docket No. FMCSA-2023-0032), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    To submit your comment online, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     insert the docket number (FMCSA-2016-0011, FMCSA-2018-0052, FMCSA-2018-0053, FMCSA-2020-0045, FMCSA-2020-0047, FMCSA-2023-0030, or FMCSA-2023-0032) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, click the “Comment” button, and type your comment into the text box on the following screen. Choose whether you are submitting your comment as an individual or on behalf of a third party and then submit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8
                    <FR>1/2</FR>
                     by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
                </P>
                <PRTPAGE P="34970"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Confidential Business Information (CBI)</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to the notice contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to the notice, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission that constitutes CBI as “PROPIN” to indicate it contains proprietary information. FMCSA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the Freedom of Information Act, and they will not be placed in the public docket of the notice. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Brian Dahlin, Chief, Regulatory Evaluation Division, Office of Policy, FMCSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001 or via email at 
                    <E T="03">brian.g.dahlin@</E>
                    <E T="03">dot.gov.</E>
                     At this time, you need not send a duplicate hardcopy of your electronic CBI submissions to FMCSA headquarters. Any comments FMCSA receives not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Viewing Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    To view comments, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Insert the docket number (FMCSA-2016-0011, FMCSA-2018-0052, FMCSA-2018-0053, FMCSA-2020-0045, FMCSA-2020-0047, FMCSA-2023-0030, or FMCSA-2023-0032) in the keyword box and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, and click “Browse Comments.” If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting Dockets Operations on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Privacy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(6), DOT solicits comments from the public on the exemption request. DOT posts these comments, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     as described in the system of records notice DOT/ALL-14 FDMS (Federal Docket Management System), which can be reviewed under the “Department Wide System of Records Notices” link at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices.</E>
                     The comments are posted without edit and are searchable by the name of the submitter.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b) to grant exemptions from Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(a)). The Agency must provide the public an opportunity to inspect the information relevant to the application, including the applicant's safety analysis. The Agency must provide an opportunity for public comment on the request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Agency reviews the application, safety analyses, and public comments submitted and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such exemption, pursuant to the standard set forth in 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1). The Agency must publish its decision in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (49 CFR 381.315(b)). If granted, the notice will identify the regulatory provision from which the applicant will be exempt, the effective period, and all terms and conditions of the exemption (49 CFR 381.315(c)(1)). If the exemption is denied, the notice will explain the reason for the denial (49 CFR 381.315(c)(2)). The exemption may be renewed (49 CFR 381.300(b)).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding seizures and loss of consciousness provides that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person has “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause the loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control” a CMV (49 CFR 391.41(b)(8)). To assist in applying this standard, FMCSA publishes guidance for medical examiners (MEs) in the form of medical advisory criteria in Appendix A to 49 CFR part 391.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In 2007, FMCSA published recommendations from a Medical Expert Panel (MEP) that FMCSA tasked to review the existing seizure disorder guidelines for MEs.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The MEP performed a comprehensive, systematic literature review, including evidence available at the time. The MEP issued recommended criteria to evaluate whether an individual with a history of epilepsy, a single unprovoked seizure, or a provoked seizure should be allowed to drive a CMV.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         49 CFR part 391, App.A.II.G, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ecfr.gov/current/title-49/subtitle-B/chapter-III/subchapter-B/part-391/appendix-Appendix%20A%20to%20Part%20391.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         “Expert Panel Recommendations, Seizure Disorders and Commercial Motor Vehicle Driver Safety,” Medical Expert Panel (Oct. 15, 2007), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/sites/fmcsa.dot.gov/files/2020-04/Seizure-Disorders-MEP-Recommendations-v2-prot%2010152007.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>On January 15, 2013, FMCSA began granting exemptions, on a case-by-case basis, to individual drivers from the physical qualification standard regarding seizures and loss of consciousness in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) (78 FR 3069). The Agency considers the medical advisory criteria, the 2007 MEP recommendations, any public comments received, and each individual's medical information and driving record in deciding whether to grant the exemption.</P>
                <P>The 17 individuals listed in this notice have requested renewal of their exemptions from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in § 391.41(b)(8), in accordance with FMCSA procedures. Accordingly, FMCSA has evaluated these applications for renewal on their merits and decided to extend each exemption for a renewable 2-year period.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested parties or organizations possessing information that would otherwise show that any, or all, of these drivers are not currently achieving the statutory level of safety should immediately notify FMCSA. The Agency will evaluate any adverse evidence submitted and, if safety is being compromised or if continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), FMCSA will take immediate steps to revoke the exemption of a driver.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Basis for Renewing Exemptions</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), each of the 17 applicants have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition. The 17 drivers in this notice remain in good standing with the Agency, have maintained their medical monitoring and have not exhibited any medical issues that would compromise their ability to safely operate a CMV during the previous 2-year exemption period. In addition, the Agency has 
                    <PRTPAGE P="34971"/>
                    reviewed each applicant's certified driving record from their State Driver's Licensing Agency (SDLA). The information obtained from each applicant's driving record provides the Agency with details regarding any moving violations or reported crash data, which demonstrates whether the driver has a safe driving history and is an indicator of future driving performance. If the driving record revealed a crash, FMCSA requested and reviewed the related police reports and other relevant documents, such as the citation and conviction information. These factors provide an adequate basis for predicting each driver's ability to continue to safely operate a CMV in interstate commerce. Therefore, FMCSA concludes that extending the exemption for each renewal applicant for a period of 2 years is likely to achieve a level of safety equivalent to the level that would be achieved without the exemption.
                </P>
                <P>In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), the following groups of drivers received renewed exemptions in the month of May and are discussed below.</P>
                <P>As of May 15, 2025, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), the following 10 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers.</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Ryan Babler (WI)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Steven Claphan (MI)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Wallace Ferguson (CO)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Larry Nicholson (NC)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Kristopher Pettitt (CA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Scott Ready (WI)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">John Shainline (PA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Herbert Spike (CT)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Scott Stone (WY)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Floyd Williams (VA)</FP>
                <P>The drivers were included in docket number FMCSA-2016-0011, FMCSA-2018-0052, FMCSA-2018-0053, FMCSA-2020-0045, FMCSA-2020-0047, or FMCSA-2023-0030. Their exemptions were applicable as of May 15, 2025, and will expire on May 15, 2027.</P>
                <P>As of May 24, 2025, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), the following seven individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers.</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Robert Bennett (NY)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">David Brown (FL)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Jean Daza (NJ)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Jerrid Hielscher (SD)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Nicholas Liebe (WI)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sheldon Martin (NY)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Robert Moseler (MI)</FP>
                <P>The drivers were included in docket number FMCSA-2023-0032.</P>
                <P>Their exemptions were applicable as of May 24, 2025, and will expire on May 24, 2027.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Terms and Conditions</HD>
                <P>The exemptions are extended subject to the following conditions: each driver must (1) remain seizure-free, maintain a stable treatment, and report to FMCSA within 24 hours if they experience a seizure during the 2-year exemption period; (2) submit to FMCSA annual reports from their treating physicians attesting to the stability of treatment and that the driver has remained seizure-free; (3) undergo an annual medical examination by a certified medical examiner, as defined by § 390.5T; (4) provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file, or keep a copy in their driver's qualification file if they are self-employed; (5) report to FMCSA the date, time, and location of any crashes, as defined in § 390.5T, within 7 days of the crash; (6) report to FMCSA any citations and convictions for disqualifying offenses under 49 CFR parts 383 and 391 to FMCSA within 7 days of the citation and conviction; and (7) submit to FMCSA annual certified driving records from their SDLA. The driver must also have a copy of the exemption when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official. In addition, the driver must meet all the applicable commercial driver's license testing requirements. Each exemption will be valid for 2 years unless rescinded earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be rescinded if: (1) the person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Preemption</HD>
                <P>During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Conclusion</HD>
                <P>Based on its evaluation of the 17 exemption renewal applications, FMCSA renews the exemptions of the aforementioned drivers from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in § 391.41(b)(8). In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), and FMCSA's policy of issuing medical exemptions for a 2-year period to correspond with the medical certificate, each exemption will be valid for 2 years unless revoked earlier by FMCSA.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Larry W. Minor,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator for Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13981 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 2900-0004]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review: Application for Dependency and Indemnity Compensation, Survivors Pension and Accrued Benefits by a Surviving Spouse or Child (Including Death Compensation if Available); Application for Dependency and Indemnity Compensation by a Surviving Spouse or Child—In-Service Death Only; and Application for DIC, Survivors Pension, and/or Accrued Benefits</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, this notice announces that the Veterans Benefits Administration (VBA), Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden, and it includes the actual data collection instrument.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent by August 25, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To submit comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection, please type the following link into your browser: 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain,</E>
                         select “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments”, then search the list for the information collection by Title or “OMB Control No. 2900-0004.”
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                         VA PRA information: Dorothy Glasgow, 202-461-1084, 
                        <E T="03">VAPRA@va.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <PRTPAGE P="34972"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     The 21P-534, Application for Dependency and Indemnity Compensation, Survivors Pension and Accrued Benefits by a Surviving Spouse or Child (Including Death Compensation if Available). The 21P-534a, Application for Dependency and Indemnity Compensation by a Surviving Spouse or Child—In-Service Death Only. The 21P-534EZ, Application for DIC, Survivors Pension, and/or Accrued Benefits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2900-0004 
                    <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRASearch</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The VA Form 21P-534 is used to gather the necessary information to determine the eligibility of surviving spouses and children for dependency and indemnity compensation (DIC), death pension, accrued benefits, and death compensation. VA Form 21P-534a is an abbreviated application for DIC that is used only by surviving spouses and children of veterans who died while on active duty service. The VA Form 21P-534EZ is used for the Fully Developed Claims (FDC) program for pension claims, DIC and accrued claims. The 21P-534EZ (Application for DIC, Survivors Pension, and/or Accrued Benefits) within this collection is a revision. The 21P-534 (Application for Dependency and Indemnity Compensation, Survivors Pension and Accrued Benefits by a Surviving Spouse or Child (Including Death Compensation if Applicable)) within this collection is being discontinued, the discontinuance will have no negative impact on the collection. The 21P-534a, Application for Dependency and Indemnity Compensation by a Surviving Spouse or Child—In-Service Death Only) within this collection will remain the same. The respondent burden has decreased due to the discontinuance of the 21P-534 from this collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     Notice with a 60-day comment period soliciting comments on this collection of information was published at: 90 FR 21549, May 20, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals or Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden:</E>
                     111,000 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Average Burden per Respondent:</E>
                     43 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     One time.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     51,800.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Dorothy Glasgow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting, VA PRA Clearance Officer, Office of Enterprise and Integration, Data Governance Analytics, Department of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13993 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
    </NOTICES>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>140</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, July 24, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="34973"/>
            <PARTNO>Part II</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of Commerce</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>50 CFR Part 217</CFR>
            <TITLE>Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Hilcorp Alaska, LLC Oil and Gas Activities in Cook Inlet, Alaska; Proposed Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <PRORULES>
            <PRORULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="34974"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>50 CFR Part 217</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 250721-0127]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 0648-BN57</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Hilcorp Alaska, LLC Oil and Gas Activities in Cook Inlet, Alaska</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Proposed rule; request for comments.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>NMFS has received a request from Hilcorp Alaska, LLC (Hilcorp) for regulations allowing for the take of marine mammals incidental to activities conducted in support of oil and gas exploration, development, production, and decommissioning in Cook Inlet, Alaska, over the course of 5 years (2025-2030). As required by the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), NMFS is proposing regulations to govern the requested take, and requests comments on the proposed regulations. NMFS will consider public comments prior to making any final decision on the requested MMPA regulations. Agency responses to received comments will be summarized in the final rule, if issued.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <DATES>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>Comments and information must be received no later than August 25, 2025.</P>
                    </DATES>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>
                            A plain language summary of this proposed rule is available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/NOAA-NMFS-2025-0052.</E>
                             Submit all electronic public comments via the Federal e-Rulemaking Portal. Go to 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                             and type NOAA-NMFS-2025-0052 in the Search box (note: copying and pasting the FDMS Docket Number directly from this document may not yield search results). Click on the “Comment” icon, complete the required fields, and enter or attach your comments. Comments sent by any other method, to any other address or individual, or received after the end of the comment period, may not be considered by NMFS. All comments received are a part of the public record and will generally be posted for public viewing on 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                             without change. All personal identifying information (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             name, address, etc.), confidential business information, or otherwise sensitive information submitted voluntarily by the sender will be publicly accessible. NMFS will accept anonymous comments (enter “N/A” in the required fields if you wish to remain anonymous).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            Electronic copies of the application and supporting documents, as well as a list of the references cited in this document, may be obtained online at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/incidental-take-authorizations-oil-and-gas.</E>
                             In case of problems accessing these documents, please call the contact listed below.
                        </P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>Jaclyn Daly, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401.</P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                    <P>
                        The MMPA prohibits the “take” of marine mammals, with certain exceptions. Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) direct the Secretary of Commerce (as delegated to NMFS) to allow, upon request, the incidental, but not intentional, taking of small numbers of marine mammals by U.S. citizens who engage in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographical region if certain findings are made and either regulations are promulgated and a Letter of Authorization (LOA) is issued or an incidental harassment authorization (IHA) is issued.
                    </P>
                    <P>Authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s) and will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for taking for subsistence uses (where relevant). If such findings are made, NMFS must prescribe the permissible methods of taking and other “means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact” on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of the species or stocks for taking for certain subsistence uses (referred to in shorthand as “mitigation”); and set forth requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of the takings. The definitions of applicable MMPA statutory terms are provided directly below or included in the relevant sections of this proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">U.S. citizen</E>
                        —individual U.S. citizens or any corporation or similar entity if it is organized under the laws of the United States or any governmental unit defined in 16 U.S.C. 1362(13); 50 CFR 216.103);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Take</E>
                        —to harass, hunt, capture, or kill, or attempt to harass, hunt, capture, or kill any marine mammal (16 U.S.C. 1362(13);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Incidental harassment, incidental taking, and incidental, but not intentional, taking</E>
                        —an accidental taking. This does not mean that the taking is unexpected, but rather it includes those takings that are infrequent, unavoidable or accidental (50 CFR 216.103);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Level A harassment</E>
                        —any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (16 U.S.C. 1362(18); 50 CFR 216.3); and
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Level B harassment</E>
                        —any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (16 U.S.C. 1362(18); 50 CFR 216.3).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Purpose of Regulatory Action</HD>
                    <P>NMFS received an application from Hilcorp requesting 5-year regulations and a letter of authorization (LOA) that would authorize the take of 12 marine mammal species, comprising 15 stocks, by Level B harassment, and take by Level A harassment of 9 of those 12 species, comprising 12 stocks, incidental to activities conducted by Hilcorp in support of oil and gas exploration, development, production, and decommissioning. No serious injury or mortality is anticipated or proposed for authorization.</P>
                    <P>The proposed regulations would provide a framework for authorizing the take of marine mammals incidental to specified activities associated with Hilcorp's oil and gas exploration, development, production, and decommissioning activities in Cook Inlet, Alaska.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Legal Authority for the Proposed Action</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1371(a)(5)(A)) directs the Secretary of Commerce to allow, upon request, the incidental, but not intentional taking of small numbers of marine mammals by U.S. citizens who engage in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographical region for up to 5 years if, after notice and public comment, the agency makes certain findings and promulgates regulations that set forth permissible methods of taking pursuant to that activity and other means of effecting the “least practicable adverse impact” on the affected species or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34975"/>
                        stocks and their habitat (see the discussion below in the Proposed Mitigation section), as well as monitoring and reporting requirements. Section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA and the implementing regulations at 50 CFR part 216, subpart I provide the legal basis for issuing this proposed rule containing 5-year regulations and for any subsequent Letter(s) of Authorization (LOA).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Summary of Major Provisions Within the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>The major provisions of this proposed rule are:</P>
                    <P>• Allowing NMFS to authorize, through an LOA, the take of small numbers of marine mammals by Level A harassment and/or Level B harassment incidental to Hilcorp's specified activities (no mortality or serious injury of any marine mammal would be authorized);</P>
                    <P>• Avoiding activities that may result in take of Cook Inlet beluga whales (CIBWs) within 16 kilometers (km) (10 miles, mi) of the Mean Higher High Water (MHHW) line of the Susitna Delta (Beluga River to the Little Susitna River) between April 15 and November 15 to avoid and minimize impacts when CIBWs are more likely engaging in foraging behavior;</P>
                    <P>• Requiring NMFS-approved protected species observers (PSOs) and delaying commencement of or shutting down certain activities should a marine mammal be detected within identified clearance or shutdown zones to minimize the amount and severity of take;</P>
                    <P>• Requiring a soft start for impact pile driving to allow marine mammals the opportunity to leave the area prior to being exposed to higher noise levels; and</P>
                    <P>• Requiring submission of monitoring reports including, but not limited to, a summary of marine mammal species and behavioral observations, construction shutdowns or delays, and construction work completed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        To comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) and NOAA Administrative Order (NAO) 216-6A, NMFS must review our proposed action (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         promulgation of regulations and subsequent issuance of an LOA thereunder) with respect to potential impacts on the human environment. Accordingly, NMFS has prepared a draft Environmental Assessment (EA) to evaluate the environmental impacts associated with the proposed issuance of the regulations and LOA. NMFS' draft EA is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/incidental-take-authorizations-oil-and-gas.</E>
                         NMFS will review all comments submitted in response to this notice prior to concluding our NEPA process or making a final decision on this request.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Request</HD>
                    <P>
                        On October 30, 2024, NMFS received an application from Hilcorp requesting authorization to take marine mammals incidental to oil and gas exploration, development, production, and decommissioning activities in Cook Inlet, Alaska. Specifically, Hilcorp plans to conduct necessary work, including use of tugs towing, holding, or positioning a jack-up rig, pile driving, and pipeline replacement/installation activities. NMFS requested additional information from Hilcorp regarding their request on November 19, 2024, which Hilcorp provided on January 2, 2025. A final request from NMFS for information was sent to Hilcorp on January 22, 2025. Hilcorp provided all necessary information on February 10, 2025, and NMFS deemed Hilcorp's application adequate and complete on February 18, 2025 (note that NMFS' Notice of Receipt of Hilcorp's application erroneously described this date as being February 10, 2025). On March 13, 2025, NMFS published a notice of receipt (NOR) of Hilcorp's adequate and complete application in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (90 FR 11951), requesting comments and soliciting information related to Hilcorp's request during a 30-day public comment period. NMFS did not receive public comments. Subsequently, on March 14, 2025, Hilcorp submitted a revised application that corrected minor details but did not substantively modify the description of the specified activities or the type or amount of take requested incidental to those activities. This revised application is available at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/action/incidental-take-authorization-hilcorp-alaska-llcs-oil-and-gas-activities-cook-inlet-alaska.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>The requested regulations, if promulgated, would be valid for 5 years, from approximately September 23, 2025, through September 22, 2030. The exposure of marine mammals occurring in the vicinity to underwater noise generated by the activities could result in incidental take of marine mammals by Level A and/or Level B harassment. Therefore, Hilcorp requests authorization to incidentally take marine mammals.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Hilcorp's Incidental Take Authorization (ITA) History</HD>
                    <P>NMFS previously issued multiple ITAs to Hilcorp. Initially, NMFS issued 5-year Incidental Take Regulations (ITR) to Hilcorp for a suite of oil and gas activities in Cook Inlet, Alaska (84 FR 37442, July 31, 2019) and three 1-year Letters of Authorization (LOAs) under the ITR. The 2019 ITR allowed for the take of marine mammals incidental to two-dimensional (2D) and three-dimensional (3D) geophysical surveys, vibratory sheet pile driving, and drilling of exploratory wells.</P>
                    <P>
                        On September 17, 2019, Cook Inletkeeper and the Center for Biological Diversity filed suit in Federal district court in Alaska challenging the 2019 ITR and LOAs and supporting documents (the EA and Endangered Species Act (ESA) Biological Opinion). In a decision issued on March 30, 2021, the court ruled largely in NMFS' favor, but found a lack of adequate support in NMFS' record for the agency's determination that tug towing of drill rigs in connection with production activity would not cause take of CIBWs and remanded the rulemaking back to NMFS for further analysis of tug use under the MMPA, ESA, and NEPA. Hilcorp notified NMFS that all activities covered by the 2019 ITR had already been completed or would not be completed in the remaining effective period of the ITR. As a result, the only remaining activity was the use of tugs towing a jack-up rig. NMFS considered the specific circumstances relating to Hilcorp's request for take authorization for tug towing of a jack-up rig, which had not been covered under the 2019 ITR, and issued two sequential Incidental Harassment Authorizations (IHAs) (87 FR 62364, October 14, 2022). In 2024, NMFS issued an additional IHA to Hilcorp, at its request and in consideration of the specific circumstances, for production drilling support in Cook Inlet, Alaska, which included the use of tugs towing, holding, and positioning a jack-up rig (89 FR 79529, September 30, 2024). Hilcorp complied with all the requirements (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         mitigation, monitoring, and reporting) of the previous LOAs and IHAs, and information regarding their monitoring results may be found in the Potential Effects of Specified Activities on Marine Mammals and their Habitat section of this notice.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Proposed Activity</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Overview</HD>
                    <P>
                        Hilcorp plans to continue oil and gas exploration, development, production, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34976"/>
                        and decommissioning activities in Cook Inlet, Alaska, for the reasonably foreseeable future. Over the course of the five years considered here, this work includes up to 54 days of tugs towing, holding, or positioning a jack-up rig in support of production drilling at existing platforms in middle Cook Inlet and Trading Bay; up to 70 days of pile driving in support of production well development at the Tyonek Platform in middle Cook Inlet; up to 6 days of tugs towing, holding, or positioning a jack-up rig and up to 18 days of pile driving in support of exploration drilling at two locations in the Middle Ground Shoal Unit in middle Cook Inlet and one location between the Anna and Bruce platforms on the northern border of Trading Bay; and up to 22 days of pipeline replacement/installation, involving either pipe pulling or anchor handling or a combination of both, at up to two locations in middle Cook Inlet and/or Trading Bay. Hilcorp requests authorization of take by Level B harassment for 12 marine mammal species (including CIBWs (
                        <E T="03">Delphinapterus leucas</E>
                        )), and additionally by Level A harassment for a subset of 9 of these species.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Dates and Duration</HD>
                    <P>The specified activities analyzed in this proposed rule are anticipated to begin in September 2025 and extend through December 2029. However, the proposed rule and LOA, if issued, would be effective through September 2030 (5 years) to allow for any delays in project activities. Table 1 provides a summary of Hilcorp's anticipated timings and durations for their planned activities; however, the schedule may shift such that actual activities occur in different years than specified below.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,r50,r50,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 1—Summary of Hilcorp's Planned Activities</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Project activity</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Cook Inlet region</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Seasonal
                                <LI>timing</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Year(s) planned 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Anticipated duration of sound-producing activity</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Anticipated sound sources</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Tugs under Load with a Jack-Up Rig in support of Production Drilling</ENT>
                            <ENT>Middle Cook Inlet</ENT>
                            <ENT>April—December</ENT>
                            <ENT>Years 1, 3, and 5 (2025, 2027, 2029)</ENT>
                            <ENT>12 days (2 days each: 1 mobilization, 4 location-location moves, 1 demobilization, up to 12 total pinning events)</ENT>
                            <ENT>3 to 4 tugs towing, holding, and positioning a jack-up rig.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>Year 2 (2026)</ENT>
                            <ENT>10 days (2 days each: 1 mobilization, 3 location-location moves, 1 demobilization, up to 10 total pinning events)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>Year 4 (2028)</ENT>
                            <ENT>8 days (2 days each: 1 mobilization, 2 location-location moves, 1 demobilization, up to 8 total pinning events)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pile Driving in Support of Production Well Development at the Tyonek Platform</ENT>
                            <ENT>Middle Cook Inlet</ENT>
                            <ENT>Mid-November—Mid-April</ENT>
                            <ENT>Year 1-Year 5 (2025-2029)</ENT>
                            <ENT>14 days (7 days per pile (intermittent); 8 hour (hr) per day; 2 piles per year)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Impact pile driving.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                Tugs under Load with a Jack-Up Rig and Pile Driving in Support of Exploratory Drilling
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Trading Bay (between Anna and Bruce platforms)</ENT>
                            <ENT>April—December</ENT>
                            <ENT>Year 2 (2026)</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 days tugs under load with a jack-up rig (1 location-location move, up to 2 total pinning events); 6 days intermittent pile driving (1 well, 1 pile each well)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Impact pile driving, 3 to 4 tugs towing, holding, and positioning a jack-up rig.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Middle Cook Inlet (MGS Unit)</ENT>
                            <ENT>April—December</ENT>
                            <ENT>Year 4 (2028)</ENT>
                            <ENT>4 days tugs under load with a jack-up rig (2 location-location moves, up to 4 total pinning events); 12 days intermittent pile driving (2 wells, 1 pile each well)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Impact pile driving, 3 to 4 tugs towing, holding, and positioning a jack-up rig</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                Pipeline Replacement/Installation 
                                <SU>3</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Middle Cook Inlet/Trading Bay</ENT>
                            <ENT>April—November</ENT>
                            <ENT>Year 2 (2026)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Scenario 1: 11 days using lay barge methods
                                <LI>Scenario 2: 22 days using lay barge methods (11 days per project, 2 projects)</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Scenario 1: Anchor handling.
                                <LI>Scenario 2: Anchor handling.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>April—November</ENT>
                            <ENT>Year 4 (2028)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Scenario 1: 8 days using pipe pull methods
                                <LI>Scenario 2: no pipeline replacement/installation</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Scenario 1: 2 tugs engaged in pipe pulling, bottom impact sounds of pipe connecting with seafloor.
                                <LI>Scenario 2: none.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             The specific years activities are planned to occur may or may not coincide with the actual year of execution.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             One exploratory well between Anna and Bruce is analyzed to occur in Year 2 and two exploratory wells in the Middle Ground Shoal Unit are analyzed to occur in Year 4; however, the exploratory wells may be developed in any separate years during the proposed authorization period.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             Two pipeline scenarios are analyzed to occur: Scenario 1 comprises one project using lay barge methods in Year 2 and one project using pipe pull methods in Year 4; Scenario 2 comprises two projects using lay barge methods in Year 2 and no additional projects thereafter. A maximum of two pipeline projects will occur during the proposed authorization period. Pipeline projects may occur simultaneously in any one year or in separate years during the proposed authorization period. However, only lay barge methodology can be utilized in the same year (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             Scenario 2).
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Specified Geographical Region</HD>
                    <P>
                        Hilcorp's planned activities would occur in Cook Inlet, Alaska, which is the specified geographical region. Specifically, activities would occur in middle Cook Inlet and Trading Bay, Alaska (figure 1) from a point on the eastern shoreline approximately 12 km (7.5 mi) south of the East Foreland to a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34977"/>
                        point approximately 16 km (10 mi) south of Point Possession on the west side, to the northernmost production platform in middle Cook Inlet (Tyonek, located in the North Cook Inlet Unit) to a point that is 3.5 km (2.2 mi) north of the village of Tyonek near the mouth of the Chuitna River. From there the area extends south to a point along the western shoreline approximately 15 km (9.3 mi) south of the West Foreland, and across the inlet back to a point on the eastern shoreline approximately 12 km (7.5 mi) south of the East Foreland. The geographic area of all activity covers a total of approximately 1,865 square kilometers (km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ) (460,850 acres) (within Cook Inlet in State of Alaska waters). For the purpose of this proposed rule, middle Cook Inlet refers to waters north of the East and West Forelands and south of Threemile River in the west and Point Possession in the east, and Trading Bay refers to waters from approximately Granite Point in the north to the West Foreland in the south. Upper Cook Inlet refers to waters north and east of Beluga River in the west and Point Possession in the east.
                    </P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="620">
                        <PRTPAGE P="34978"/>
                        <GID>EP24JY25.001</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <PRTPAGE P="34979"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Detailed Description of the Specified Activity</HD>
                    <P>Hilcorp's ITR petition includes four stages of oil and gas activities: production, exploration, development, and decommissioning.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Production Drilling and Well Development</E>
                        —Hilcorp routinely conducts production drilling activities at offshore platforms to meet production needs; all Hilcorp platforms have the potential for production drilling activity. Drilling activities are accomplished using conventional drilling equipment from a variety of rig configurations and occur through existing well slots or wellbores located in legs of the existing platforms. Hilcorp plans to conduct production drilling in middle Cook Inlet and Trading Bay during the open water season, which generally runs from April to November but may extend into December depending on ice conditions. Drilling activities would span up to 240 days (table 1), with tugboats towing, holding, or positioning a jack-up rig for a total of up to 54 days across the 5-year proposed authorization period (table 1). In addition to production drilling activities, 10 drilling conductor pipes (piles) would be driven into the sediment to support future well slots for production well development on the Tyonek Platform at an installation rate not to exceed two per year (table 1). Pile driving would occur intermittently between mid-November and mid-April. Hilcorp has requested, and NMFS proposes to authorize, take associated with tug use (to tow, hold, and position a jack-up rig) and pile driving at the Tyonek Platform to support production drilling and well development.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Tugs under load with a jack-up rig in support of production drilling.</E>
                         Some platforms in Cook Inlet have permanent drilling rigs installed that operate using power provided by the platform power generation systems; other platforms do not have drill rigs or the platform drill rig is not sufficient for the work needing to be done, and the use of a mobile drill rig is required. Mobile offshore drill rigs may be powered by the platform power generation system (if compatible with the platform power generation system) or may self-generate power with the use of diesel-powered generators.
                    </P>
                    <P>Hilcorp proposes to conduct production drilling using the Spartan 151 jack-up drill rig (or similar). A jack-up rig is a type of mobile offshore drill unit used in offshore oil and gas drilling activities. It is comprised of a buoyant mobile platform or hull with moveable legs that are adjusted to raise and lower the hull over the surface of the water. Spartan 151 is a 150 H class independent-leg, cantilevered jack-up drill rig with a drilling depth capability of 7,620 meters (m) (25,000 feet (ft)) that can operate in maximum water depths up to 46 m (151 ft). To maintain safety and work efficiency, the jack-up rig would be equipped with the following:</P>
                    <P>• Either a 5,000-, 10,000-, or 15,000-pound-per-square-inch (psi) blowout preventer (BOP) stack for drilling in higher pressure formations found at greater depths in Cook Inlet;</P>
                    <P>• Sufficient variable deck load to accommodate the increased drilling loads, tubular frame for deeper drilling;</P>
                    <P>• Reduced draft characteristics to enable the rig to easily access shallow water locations;</P>
                    <P>• Riser tensioning system to adequately deal with the extreme tides and currents in up to 46 m (151 ft) water depth;</P>
                    <P>• Steel hull designed according to United States Coast Guard (USCG) specifications (inspected by USCG prior to entering the water); and</P>
                    <P>• Ability to cantilever over existing platforms for working on development wells.</P>
                    <P>The jack-up rig would be stocked with most of the drilling supplies required to complete a full summer program each year, including both production and exploratory drilling. Deliveries of the remaining items, including crew transfers, would be performed by support vessels and helicopters. The majority of the oilfield support services contractors have offices, shops, and additional equipment located in Anchorage, Kenai, and Nikiski that would support their remote field operations. Tugs would be used to mobilize or move the jack-up rig and would be released once the rig is in place.</P>
                    <P>Jack-up rig equipment would use diesel fuel or electricity from generators. Personnel associated with fuel delivery, transfer, and handling would be knowledgeable of industry Best Management Practices (BMPs) related to fuel transfer and handling, drum labeling, secondary containment guidelines, and the use of liners/drip trays. The jack-up rig would take on a maximum fuel load prior to operations to reduce fuel transfers during production or exploratory drilling. T</P>
                    <P>The jack-up rig would have a diesel burn rate of approximately 9,464 liters (2,500 gallons) per day. The jack-up rig would need to be refueled on location one time per well via an International Organization for Standardization (ISO) tank or directly from a supply boat. Commercial tank farms in the Nikiski or Kenai area would supply fuel transported by workboats as needed. The Rig Barge Master would oversee re-fueling and fluid transfers between the rig and fuel workboats, and subsequent transfers between tanks on the rig.</P>
                    <P>Three ocean-going tugs would be used to safely pull the Spartan-151 (or similar jack-up rig) to drilling locations and to position the jack-up rig to appropriately secure it on the sea floor. The most common configuration while traveling with the jack-up rig during the proposed moves is two tugs positioned side by side (approximately 30 to 60 m apart [98 to 197 ft]), pulling from the front of the jack-up rig, and one tug approximately 200 m (656 ft) behind the front tugs positioned behind the jack-up rig, applying tension on the line as needed for steering and straightening. While positioning the jack-up rig on a platform, the tugs may be fanned out around the jack-up rig to provide the finer control of movement necessary to safely position the jack-up rig on the platform. A fourth tug would be available on standby in the event that mechanical issues occur with one of the tugs. Additionally, the fourth tug may be used minimally (for approximately 1 hr) to help with positioning the jack-up rig. The horsepower (hp) of each of the tugs may range between 4,000 and 8,000. Details of the proposed tugs, or similar, are provided in table 2.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r100,10,10,10">
                        <TTITLE>Table 2—Description of Tugs (or Similar) Planned for Use for Towing, Holding, and Positioning the Jack-Up Rig</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Vessel 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Length
                                <LI>(m)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Width
                                <LI>(m)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Gross
                                <LI>tonnage</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Bering Wind (or similar)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Towing, holding, and positioning the jack-up rig</ENT>
                            <ENT>22 </ENT>
                            <ENT>10 </ENT>
                            <ENT>144</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Stellar Wind (or similar)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Towing, holding, and positioning the jack-up rig</ENT>
                            <ENT>32 </ENT>
                            <ENT>11 </ENT>
                            <ENT>160</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Glacial Wind (or similar)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Towing, holding, and positioning the jack-up rig</ENT>
                            <ENT>37 </ENT>
                            <ENT>11 </ENT>
                            <ENT>196</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="34980"/>
                            <ENT I="01">Dr. Hank Kaplan (or similar)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Standby tug used only for positioning the jack-up rig, if needed</ENT>
                            <ENT>23 </ENT>
                            <ENT>11 </ENT>
                            <ENT>196</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             This is not intended to be a specific list of tugs. Rather, tugs would be the same or similar such that potential effects of their use would be equivalent to what is analyzed herein.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>The jack-up rig would be moved in a manner to minimize any potential safety risks as well as cultural or environmental impacts. While under tow to a well site, rig operations would be monitored by Hilcorp and the drilling contractor. Very high frequency (VHF) radio, satellite, and cellular phone communication systems would also be used while the jack-up rig is under tow. Helicopter transport would be available to move personnel to and from the rig and platforms.</P>
                    <P>
                        The amount of time that tugs would be under load transiting and holding or positioning the jack-up rig in Cook Inlet would be tide-dependent. The amount of operational effort (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         power output) the tugs use for transiting would depend on whether the tugs are towing with or against the tide and could vary across a tide cycle as the current increases or decreases in speed over time. Hilcorp would make every effort to maximize transit with the tide (which would require lower power output) and minimize transit against the tide (which would require higher power output). See the Estimated Take of Marine Mammals section of this proposed notice of issuance for more detail on assumptions related to power output.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To mobilize the jack-up rig each year, a high slack tide is necessary for the tugs to approach close enough to shore to attach and pull the jack-up rig off Rig Tenders Dock. The same conditions would be required for demobilization when the jack-up rig is returned to Rig Tenders Dock at the end of the open water season and to position the jack-up rig on existing platforms or well sites. The relatively slow current and calm conditions at a slack tide would enable the tugs to perform the fine movements necessary to safely position the jack-up rig within several feet of the platform. Additionally, positioning and securing the jack-up rig at high slack tide rather than low slack tide would allow for the legs to be pinned down (jack the legs down onto the sea floor) at an adequate height to ensure that the hull of the jack-up rig remains above the water level of the subsequent incoming high tide. Because 12 hrs elapse between each high slack tide, tugs are generally under load for those 12 hrs, even if the towed distance is small, as high slack tides are preferred to both attach and detach the jack-up rig from the tugs. Once the tugs are on location with the jack-up rig at high slack tide (12 hours from the previous departure), there is a 1 to 2-hour window when the tide is slow enough (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         1 to 2 knots [kt]) for the tugs to initiate positioning the jack-up rig and pin the legs to the seafloor on location. The tugs are estimated to be under load, generally at half-power conditions or less, for up to 14 hours from the time of departure through the initial positioning attempt of the jack-up rig. An additional fourth tug, may engage during positioning activities to assist with fine movements necessary to place the jack-up rig. The fourth tug would engage with the three tugs during a positioning attempt for up to approximately 1 hour at half power.
                    </P>
                    <P>If the first positioning attempt takes longer than anticipated, the increasing current speed (approximately 3 to 4 kt) would prevent the tugs from safely positioning the jack-up rig on location. If the first positioning attempt is not successful, the jack-up rig would be pinned down at a nearby location and the tugs would be released from the jack-up rig and no longer be under load. The tugs would remain nearby, generally floating with the current. Approximately one hour before the next high slack tide, the tugs would re-attach to the jack-up rig and reattempt positioning over a period of 2 to 3 hours. Positioning activities would generally be performed at half power. If a second attempt is needed, the tugs would be under load holding or positioning the jack-up rig on a second day for up to 5 hours. Typically, the jack-up rig can be successfully positioned over the platform in one or two attempts.</P>
                    <P>
                        During a location-to-location transport (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         platform-to-platform), the tugs would transport the jack-up rig, traveling with the tide in nearly all circumstances except in situations that threaten the safety of humans and/or infrastructure integrity. In a north-to-south transit, the tugs would tow the jack-up rig with the outgoing tide and would typically arrive at their next location to position the jack-up rig on the low slack tide, requiring half power or a lower power output during the transport. In a south-to-north transit, Hilcorp would prefer to pull the jack-up rig from the platform on a low slack tide to begin transiting north following the incoming tide. This would maximize their control over the jack-up rig and would require half power or a lower power output. There may be a situation where the tugs pulling the jack-up rig begin transiting with the tide to their next location, miss the tide window to safely set the jack-up rig on the platform or pin it nearby, and so have to transport the jack-up rig against the tide to a safe harbor. Tugs may also need to transport the jack-up rig against the tide if large pieces of ice or extreme wind events threaten the stability of the jack-up rig on the platform. All tug towing, holding, or positioning would be done in a manner implementing best management practices to preserve water quality, and no work would occur around creek mouths or river systems where prey abundance could be affected.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Although the variability in power output from the tugs can range from an estimated 20 to 90 percent when they are under load with the jack-up rig, as described above, the majority of the hours (spent transiting, holding, and positioning) would occur at half power (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         50 percent) or less. Scenarios in which power output may be greater than 50 percent could include small periods of time (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         minutes during positioning to counteract the tide (up to 90 percent power output); Durham, pers. comm. 2022).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Production Well Development at Tyonek Platform.</E>
                         Hilcorp plans to install ten 76.2-centimeter (cm; 30-inch [in]) diameter (or smaller) steel piles immediately adjacent to three of the four existing legs of the Tyonek Platform in middle Cook Inlet during the proposed 5-year authorization period. The piles would be delivered to the platform via a supply vessel from Nikiski and pile driving operations would be conducted using an existing crane on the Tyonek platform. Each pile would be arranged in a concentric configuration around the outside of legs 1, 2, and 3. Each leg would have up to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34981"/>
                        four piles with a maximum of 10 piles total between all three legs. Pile driving would be intermittent to weld additional pile sections onto the driven pile approximately every 12.2 m (40 ft). Once installation is complete, each pile would extend approximately 53 m (175 ft) or 91 m (300 ft) below the mudline. The piles would be driven to target depth using an APE 20-5 hydraulic impact hammer with a ram weight of 18,144 kilograms (kg; 40,000 pounds [lb]) or an APE D80-42 single acting diesel impact hammer with a ram weight of 18,144 kg (40,000 lb) or a similar impact hammer. Impact hammering is anticipated to occur intermittently over weeks for 8 hours per day for up to seven days per pile, and a total of up to 14 days per season. Pile driving at the Tyonek Platform would occur between mid-November and mid-April.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Exploration Drilling-</E>
                        Hilcorp plans to drill one exploratory well between the Anna and Bruce platforms near the northern border of Trading Bay and two exploratory wells in the MGS Unit in middle Cook Inlet, based on mapping of subsurface structures from previously collected two-dimensional (2D) and three-dimensional (3D) seismic data and historical well information (table 1). For all three wells, drilling would begin after the jack-up rig has already mobilized to middle Cook Inlet and before it has demobilized back to Rig Tenders Dock. The exact start dates for drilling the wells are currently unknown and would be dependent upon availability of the jack-up rig. Hilcorp anticipates that each well would take approximately 40 to 60 days to drill and test with 2 days of tugs towing a jack-up rig, and 6 days of impact pile driving. After testing, the wells would undergo plug and abandonment (P&amp;A) for the following 14 to 90 days.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Tugs under load with a jack-up rig in support of exploration drilling</E>
                        —Tugging activity in support of exploratory drilling is the same as described above for production drilling. In Year 2, tugs would tow, hold, or position the jack-up rig for up to 2 days at one exploratory well site between the Anna and Bruce platforms. In Year 4, tugs would tow, hold, or position the jack-up rig for up to 4 days at two exploratory well sites within the MGS Unit.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Drilling Program and Well Operations</E>
                        —A drive pipe is a relatively short, large-diameter pipe driven into the sediment prior to the drilling of oil wells. The drive pipe serves to support the initial sedimentary part of the well, preventing the loose surface layer from collapsing and obstructing the wellbore. Drive pipes (piles) for each well would be installed using impact pile driving techniques. At each well site, Hilcorp proposes to drive a 76.2-cm (30-in) diameter pile to approximately 120 m (394 ft) using an APE Model 15-4 hydraulic impact hammer (or similar) with a ram weight of 13,608 kg (30,001 lb). Pile driving would be discontinuous and average 0.3 m (1 ft) per min with a 1-hour break for cooling and maintenance after approximately every 40 min. For each well, the assumed maximum impact hammering in one 24-hour period is 12 hours and is anticipated to last up to 6 days at each well site, although actual hammering of the pile would occur intermittently over the whole period.
                    </P>
                    <P>Once piles are installed and ready for drilling, smaller diameter conductor pipes would be inserted into the 76.2-cm (30-in) diameter piles to transport drill cuttings to the surface. These small diameter pipes would be drilled and not hammered, and the drilling sounds would not be in direct contact with the water column. As a result, no take is expected to result from this activity.</P>
                    <P>The drilling program for one exploratory well between the Anna and Bruce platforms and for two wells in the MGS Unit would be described in detail in the request for a permit to drill submitted to the Alaska Oil and Gas Conservation Commission (AOGCC). When planned and permitted operations are completed, the wells would be suspended according to State of Alaska regulations. All drilling waste, wastewater, recyclables, hazardous waste, and municipal solid waste would be stored, transported, and disposed of in accordance with local, state, and Federal regulations. Drilling waste from each well including drilling fluids, mud, and rock cuttings would be circulated from downhole to the jack-up mud pit system. Non-hydrocarbon-based drilling wastes would be discharged to Cook Inlet under an approved Alaska Pollutant Discharge Elimination System general permit or sent to an approved waste disposal facility. Hydrocarbon-based drilling wastes which would be delivered to an onshore permitted location for disposal. Hilcorp would follow BMPs and all stipulations of the applicable permits for this activity. More information on oil production can be found in Hilcorp's application.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Pipeline Installation and/or Replacement.</E>
                         Hilcorp proposes to execute two pipeline replacement or installation projects in any year. The acoustic sources associated with pipeline replacement/installation activities for which Hilcorp has requested incidental take authorization include tugs engaged in anchor handling and/or pipe pulling activities (table 3). The project timelines are subject to weather conditions and equipment readiness. Each project's scope entails the installation or replacement of pipeline in either middle Cook Inlet or Trading Bay or a combination of both. The specific methodology of the pipeline replacement or installation is pending finalization, with both methods—pipe pulling and lay barge positioning—under consideration for implementation. Both methods include replacing or installing approximately 2,286 m (7,500 ft) of pipeline. Pipeline replacement and installation is driven by the need to mitigate corrosion, pipeline fatigue, and abrasion leaks, ensuring alignment with requirements of the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration. Installation of new gas pipelines would also address the growing consumer demand for natural gas in Southcentral Alaska by allowing larger quantities of natural gas to be extracted for use.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s20,r40,xs54,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 3—Summary of Pipeline Activities, Purposes, Durations, and Anticipated Sound Sources</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Purpose</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Duration per project</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Anticipated sound sources</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Lay Barge Method</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Anchor Setting</ENT>
                            <ENT>Set 8-point anchor system</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 days</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 AHTs*, 1 assist tug.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelay</ENT>
                            <ENT>Lay out 2,286 (7,500 ft) of pipeline</ENT>
                            <ENT>8 days</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 AHTs.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Anchor Recovery</ENT>
                            <ENT>Recover 8 Anchors</ENT>
                            <ENT>1 day</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 AHTs.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <PRTPAGE P="34982"/>
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Pipe Pull Method</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Pipelay</ENT>
                            <ENT>Pull out 2,286 m (7,500 ft) of pipeline</ENT>
                            <ENT>8 days</ENT>
                            <ENT>1 installation tug, 1 assist tug, seafloor bottom impact sounds.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            * 
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             AHT is an acronym for anchor handling tugs.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Pipeline Replacement Activities Using Lay Barge Methodology.</E>
                         Hilcorp is considering employing lay barge methods for pipeline replacement/installation. This approach would involve the use of anchor handling tugs (AHTs) and anchor systems to maintain the optimal stability and alignment of a specialized vessel, referred to as a lay barge, while laying pipeline on the seafloor. Additional pre-mobilization needs for replacement/installation activities using lay barge methods include procurement and transport to the worksite of project materials and vessels. All activities involving sound generation in the day-to-day activities, such as anchor handling and pipelaying, would follow uniform procedures for both pipeline replacement and installation as detailed in the subsequent sections.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Subsea Pipeline Operations.</E>
                         Pipeline activities utilizing lay barge methods require support from two AHTs, a pipelay barge, and one assist tug (see table 4 for examples of anticipated vessel specifications). The pipelay barge would be towed by an AHT to the initial anchor setting location. To anchor the barge, eight anchors would be set, one at a time using one AHT during slack tide. During anchor setting, a tug would handle each anchor, one at a time. Setting each anchor during slack tide may require 1 hour each, intermittently, over a 2-day period (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         4 hours per day for all eight anchors). During an incoming or outgoing tide, anchors would not be set, rather one AHT and one assist tug would hold the pipelay barge in a stationary position until the next slack tide (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         4 to 5 hours).
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r200,8,8,8">
                        <TTITLE>Table 4—Example Types of Tugs and Barges Used in Lay Barge Operations</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Vessel 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Operational Use</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Length 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                <LI>(m)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Beam 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                <LI>(m)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">hp</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Barge</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Ninilchik</ENT>
                            <ENT>Lay barge to be positioned and anchored by tugs using up to eight anchors and serve as an above-water work platform</ENT>
                            <ENT>79 </ENT>
                            <ENT>22 </ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Assist Tug</E>
                                 
                                <SU>3</SU>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Bering Wind</ENT>
                            <ENT>Assist tug used to assist the AHTs in holding the pipelay barge in place against an incoming or outgoing tide during initial barge positioning</ENT>
                            <ENT>22 </ENT>
                            <ENT>10 </ENT>
                            <ENT>5,080</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Dr. Hank Kaplan</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>24 </ENT>
                            <ENT>11 </ENT>
                            <ENT>5,380</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Anchor Handling Tugs</E>
                                 
                                <SU>3</SU>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Denise Foss</ENT>
                            <ENT>AHTs used to hold the barge in place during incoming or outgoing tides when anchor setting or retrieving; re-position anchors along the pipeline route; and operate in tandem during pipelay</ENT>
                            <ENT>37</ENT>
                            <ENT>12 </ENT>
                            <ENT>7,268</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Resolve Pioneer</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>63 </ENT>
                            <ENT>12 </ENT>
                            <ENT>5,750</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                            This is not intended to be a specific list of tugs. Rather, tugs would be the same or similar such that potential effects of their use would be equivalent to what is analyzed herein.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             Vessel length and beam width are rounded to the nearest whole number.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             Tugs may range in power from 2,000 to 8,000 horsepower (hp).
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Pipeline segments would be installed approximately every 305 m (1,000 ft) from the pipelay barge along the proposed routes. To lay the pipeline in place, the pipelay barge would be moved in a sequence along the pipeline route by moving the eight anchors one at a time to shift the position of the barge forward. To move anchors, two AHTs would operate one at a time in sequence and move a single anchor at a time (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a single tug would move an individual anchor).
                    </P>
                    <P>Laying pipe from the lay barge would engage a U-shaped stinger roller assembly that would be affixed to the pipelay barge to guide the pipeline into the water. This assembly is specifically engineered to regulate the curvature of the pipeline during the laying process and safely lay pipe while preventing damage from excessive bending. On the deck of the pipelay barge, segments of pipeline would be inspected and hydrotested and coatings would be verified prior to installation in the water.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Anchor Setting.</E>
                         To secure the pipelay barge, each of the eight anchors would be set one at a time using one tug (C. Burvee, Blackfin, Pers. comm., March 13, 2023). Setting one anchor would take approximately 1 hour during slack tide. There are four slack tides per day; therefore, four anchors would be set in 1 day. Setting all eight anchors is expected to take 2 days (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         during each of the four slack tides per day). There are approximately 4 to 5 hours between slack tides (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         between low tide and high tide).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        During an incoming or outgoing tide, an assist tug would work simultaneously with an AHT to hold the pipelay barge in place against the tide. During this 4-to-5-hour period, the two tugs would average 50 percent power output (C. Burvee, Blackfin, Pers. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34983"/>
                        comm., March 13, 2023). During an incoming or outgoing tide, the other AHT would be idle. Therefore, during a 24-hour period of setting four anchors, a single AHT would operate at an average of 50 percent power for 4 hours (during each slack tide) to set anchors, followed by a 4-to-5-hour period when the assist tug and the second AHT would operate at an average of 50 percent power holding the barge between each slack tide. This pattern would continue until all eight anchors are set over 2 days. During anchor setting, only one tug would be anchor handling at a time, operating at 50 percent power. Once all eight anchors are set, the assist tug would depart the pipelay site, leaving only the two AHTs for pipelay. Setting an anchor requires the tug captain to aim for an X, Y coordinate on the seafloor. Due to the strong tides and currents in Cook Inlet and the need to aim for a specific location, setting anchors is more complex and requires more time than anchor retrieval.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Pipelaying.</E>
                         Once all eight anchors are set, the barge would be moved approximately every 305 m (1,000 ft) along the pipeline route. Each time that the barge needs to be repositioned, a single tug would be used at half power (50 percent) for anchor handling. Each of the eight anchors would be repositioned in the new location, one anchor at a time. Two bow anchors would typically be repositioned first (one at a time), then each set of port and starboard anchors (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         two on each side) would be repositioned one at a time, finishing with the two stern anchors one at a time to move the barge. The two tugs would work in sequence to relocate a single anchor at a time to “crawl” the barge into the new position approximately 305 m (1,000 ft) from the previous position. To execute this, the bow anchor cables of the pipelay barge would be tightened to slowly pull it to the new position as the stern anchors are slowly released. It is estimated it will take 8 days to complete the pipelaying portion of replacement/installation activity using the lay barge method.
                    </P>
                    <P>Each anchor weighs 9,071 kg (20,000 lb) and has approximately 4.6 m (15 ft) of chain and 915 m (3,002 ft) of wire cable. All wire cables would be under tension when in the water. During pipelay, each anchor move would take about 15 minutes and would be an intermittent process as each anchor is moved individually.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Anchor Retrieval.</E>
                         Anchor retrieval is only possible during slack tides. The process would involve pulling eight anchors one by one using a single tug from a fixed, stationary position. While one tug is engaged in retrieving an anchor, the second tug would remain idle. Between slack tides, when the tide is either incoming or outgoing, both AHTs would hold the barge in place for approximately 4 to 5 hours, operating at an average power output of 50 percent. The process of retrieving anchors would be swifter compared to the initial anchoring procedure due to the relative ease of lifting the anchor from its fixed position on the seafloor as detailed in the previous section. Within one slack tide period, two anchors could be successfully retrieved. Consequently, all eight anchors could be pulled up within a 24-hr span.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Vessels for Pipeline Replacement/Installation Activities.</E>
                         Pipeline activities utilizing lay barge methods would require support from two AHTs, a pipelay barge, and one assist tug as shown in table 4. The two AHTs would be involved in replacement/installation operations, specifically during anchor handling. An assist tug from within Cook Inlet (
                        <E T="03">Bering Wind</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">Dr. Hank Kaplan,</E>
                         or similar) would hold the barge between slack tides along with one of the AHTs. It is important to note their availability may not be guaranteed once project timelines are finalized. In such cases, a comparable vessel would be chosen for the intended activity.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Pipeline Replacement Activities Using Pipe Pull Methodology.</E>
                         Hilcorp is also considering implementing a pipe pull method for pipeline replacement/installation during the proposed ITR period. For this approach, the pipeline would be assembled on land in 305-m (1000-ft) sections and subsequently towed to sea one section at a time along the seafloor. This process would be executed by an installation tug with assistance from an assist tug. A large tug will tow the project spools into position.
                    </P>
                    <P>During the initial phases of pipe-pulling, a pull wire would be connected to the winch on the installation tug; the tug would then pull the pipe towards its stern while remaining on anchor. As the towing of the pull wire begins, buoyancy assemblies would be installed from shore along the pull wire to lift the wire out of the mud. This added buoyancy would act to reduce drag and would also reduce the pull force required by the installation tug. Onshore, the pull wire would be attached to the buoyed pull head of the first pipeline spool and the first pipeline segment would be pulled into the water during high tide.</P>
                    <P>After the installation tug has pulled the pipeline, placing the tailhead about 91 m (300 ft) offshore, it would stop pulling and continue to release wire as it moves to a specified location farther offshore. Once it reached this new location, the tug would resume pulling the pipeline segment using the attached pull wire and remove the buoyancy assemblies as the pull wire is reeled in. Next, the pipeline segment would be guided into position within a predetermined 3 m by 3 m (10 ft by 10 ft) target area near the platform; the installation vessel would then detach the pull wire and attach a buoy to a 45.7-m (150-ft) pennant secured at the front of the pipeline.</P>
                    <P>Following positioning of the first pipeline spool, the process would be repeated by pulling the second spool within a 3 m by 3 m (10 ft by 10 ft) target area at the tailhead of the first spool, and then pull the third spool within a 3 m by 3 m (10 ft by 10 ft) target area at the tailhead of the second spool and so on until all spools are laid out 2,286 m (7,500 ft). The assist tug would help keep the installation tug on the correct bearing throughout each pull and will assist in final positioning of the spools. The estimated duration to position all the spools is approximately 8 days, with one spool being pulled per day. The total anticipated tug operation time, operating at 50 percent to 85 percent power, is expected to be 3 hours per day.</P>
                    <P>
                        A separate tugboat would help the installation tug maintain the planned route during tidal changes. A shallow-water support vessel would ferry the messenger rope from the installation tug to the beach and assist in any onshore to offshore operations. The messenger rope is a wire used to transfer the larger pull wire from/to the floating asset to/from the beach. This is a light, usually floating line that can be messengered by a small craft. Messenger wire would only be needed if the weight, due to length or required diameter, of the actual pulling wire would be unmanageable by a small craft. Divers would remove the 45.7-m (150-ft) pennant wire and buoy from the pull head, flood each pipeline segment, and assist with post tie-in operations. See table 5 for examples of vessel sizes and function details for this activity.
                        <PRTPAGE P="34984"/>
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s75,r200,r10,r10,15">
                        <TTITLE>Table 5—Example Types of Tugs and Barges Used in Pipe Pull Operations</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Vessel 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Operational Use</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Length 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                  
                                <LI>m</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Beam 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                  
                                <LI>m</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Horsepower</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Installation Tug</E>
                                 
                                <SU>3</SU>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Resolve Pioneer</ENT>
                            <ENT>Main tug for installation and is responsible for pulling spools into position</ENT>
                            <ENT>63 </ENT>
                            <ENT>12 </ENT>
                            <ENT>5,750</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Assist Tug</E>
                                 
                                <SU>3</SU>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Steller Wind</ENT>
                            <ENT>Assist tug supports the Resolve Pioneer, or similar, in maneuvering the spool of pipe to its designated seabed position, particularly when contending with tidal currents</ENT>
                            <ENT>26 </ENT>
                            <ENT>9 </ENT>
                            <ENT>3,500</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             This is not intended to be a specific list of tugs. Rather, tugs would be the same or similar such that potential effects of their use would be commensurate with what is analyzed herein. 
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             Vessel length and beam width are rounded to the nearest whole number. 
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             Tugs may range in power from 2,000 to 8,000 hp.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>The risk of interaction or entanglement with gear or equipment during pipeline replacement/installation activities is avoided due to the small area occupied by the cables relative to the marine mammals' habitat in Cook Inlet, use of taut lines, and mitigation and monitoring measures described in the Proposed Mitigation and Proposed Monitoring and Reporting sections of this notice. Vessel strikes or other encounters are also not anticipated as a result of anchor handling activities. No other interactions are anticipated.</P>
                    <P>Proposed mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures are described in detail later in this document (please see Proposed Mitigation and Proposed Monitoring and Reporting).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Marine Mammals in the Area of Specified Activities</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sections 3 and 4 of the application summarize available information regarding status and trends, distribution and habitat preferences, and behavior and life history of the potentially affected species. NMFS fully considered all of this information, and we refer the reader to these descriptions, instead of reprinting the information. Additional information regarding population trends and threats may be found in NMFS' Stock Assessment Reports (SARs; 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-stock-assessments</E>
                        ) and more general information about these species (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         physical and behavioral descriptions) may be found on NMFS' website (
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/find-species</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>Table 6 lists all species or stocks for which take is expected and proposed to be authorized for this activity and summarizes information related to the population or stock, including regulatory status under the MMPA and ESA and potential biological removal (PBR), where known. PBR is defined by the MMPA as the maximum number of animals, not including natural mortalities, that may be removed from a marine mammal stock while allowing that stock to reach or maintain its optimum sustainable population (as described in NMFS' SARs). While no mortality or serious injury (M/SI) is anticipated or proposed to be authorized here, PBR and M/SI rates from anthropogenic sources are included here as gross indicators of the status of the species or stocks and other threats.</P>
                    <P>
                        Marine mammal abundance estimates presented in table 6 represent the total number of individuals that make up a given stock or the total number estimated within a particular study or survey area. NMFS' stock abundance estimates for most species represent the total estimate of individuals within the geographic area, if known, that comprises that stock. For some species, this geographic area may extend beyond U.S. waters. All values presented in table 6 are the most recent available at the time of publication (including from the draft 2024 SARs; 90 FR 13344, March 21, 2025) and are available online at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-stock-assessments.</E>
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,xls30,r50,8,8">
                        <TTITLE>Table 6—Species With Estimated Take From the Specified Activities</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Common name</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Scientific name 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Stock</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                ESA/MMPA status; strategic (Y/N) 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Stock abundance 
                                <LI>
                                    (CV, N
                                    <E T="0732">min</E>
                                    , most recent 
                                </LI>
                                <LI>
                                    abundance survey) 
                                    <SU>3</SU>
                                </LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">PBR</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Annual M/SI 
                                <SU>4</SU>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Order Artiodactyla—Cetacea—Mysticeti (baleen whales)</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="03">Family Eschrichtiidae:</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Gray Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Eschrichtius robustus</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Eastern N Pacific</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>26,960 (0.05, 25,849, 2016)</ENT>
                            <ENT>801</ENT>
                            <ENT>131</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="03">Family Balaenidae</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="03">Family Balaenopteridae (rorquals):</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Fin Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Balaenoptera physalus</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Northeast Pacific</ENT>
                            <ENT>E, D, Y</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                3,168 (0.26, 2,554, 2013)
                                <SU> 5</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>UND</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.6</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Humpback Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Megaptera novaeangliae</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Hawai'i</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,278 (0.56, 7,265, 2020)</ENT>
                            <ENT>127</ENT>
                            <ENT>27.09</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>Mexico-North Pacific</ENT>
                            <ENT>T, D, Y</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                N/A 
                                <SU>6</SU>
                                 (N/A, N/A, 2006)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>UND</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.57</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>Western North Pacific</ENT>
                            <ENT>E, D, Y</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,084 (0.088, 1,007, 2006)</ENT>
                            <ENT>3.4</ENT>
                            <ENT>5.82</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">Minke Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Balaenoptera acutorostrata</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Alaska</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                N/A
                                <SU>7</SU>
                                 (N/A, N/A, N/A)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>UND</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Odontoceti (toothed whales, dolphins, and porpoises)</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="03">Family Delphinidae:</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Killer Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Orcinus orca</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Eastern North Pacific Alaska Resident</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,920 (N/A, 1,920, 2019)</ENT>
                            <ENT>19</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.3</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="34985"/>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>Eastern North Pacific Gulf of Alaska, Aleutian Islands and Bering Sea Transient</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>587 (N/A, 587, 2012)</ENT>
                            <ENT>5.9</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.8</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Pacific White-Sided Dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Lagenorhynchus obliquidens</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>North Pacific</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>26,880 (N/A, N/A, 1990)</ENT>
                            <ENT>UND</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="03">Family Monodontidae (white whales):</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Beluga Whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Delphinapterus leucas</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Cook Inlet</ENT>
                            <ENT>E, D, Y</ENT>
                            <ENT>331 (0.076, 311, 2022)</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.62</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="03">Family Phocoenidae (porpoises):</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Dall's Porpoise</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Phocoenoides dalli</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Alaska</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                UND 
                                <SU>8</SU>
                                 (UND, UND, 2015)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>UND</ENT>
                            <ENT>37</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">Harbor Porpoise</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Phocoena</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Gulf of Alaska</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, Y</ENT>
                            <ENT>31,046 (0.21, N/A, 1998)</ENT>
                            <ENT>UND</ENT>
                            <ENT>72</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Order Carnivora—Pinnipedia</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="03">Family Otariidae (eared seals and sea lions):</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">California Sea Lion</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Zalophus californianus</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>U.S.</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>257,606 (N/A, 233,515, 2014)</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,011</ENT>
                            <ENT>&gt;321</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Steller Sea Lion</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Eumetopias jubatus</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western</ENT>
                            <ENT>E, D, Y</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                49,837 
                                <SU>9</SU>
                                 (N/A, 49,837, 2020)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>299</ENT>
                            <ENT>267</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">
                                <E T="03">Family Phocidae (earless seals):</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Harbor Seal</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Phoca vitulina</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Cook Inlet/Shelikof Strait</ENT>
                            <ENT>-, -, N</ENT>
                            <ENT>28,411 (N/A, 26,907, 2018)</ENT>
                            <ENT>807</ENT>
                            <ENT>107</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Information on the classification of marine mammal species can be found on the web page for The Society for Marine Mammalogy's Committee on Taxonomy (
                            <E T="03">https://marinemammalscience.org/science-and-publications/list-marine-mammal-species-subspecies/</E>
                            ).
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             Endangered Species Act (ESA) status: endangered (E), threatened (T)/MMPA status: depleted (D). A dash (-) indicates that the species is not listed under the ESA or designated as depleted under the MMPA. Under the MMPA, a strategic stock is one for which the level of direct human-caused mortality exceeds PBR or which is determined to be declining and likely to be listed under the ESA within the foreseeable future. Any species or stock listed under the ESA is automatically designated under the MMPA as depleted and as a strategic stock.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             NMFS marine mammal stock assessment reports online at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-stock-assessment-reports-region.</E>
                             CV is coefficient of variation; N
                            <E T="0732">min</E>
                             is the minimum estimate of stock abundance.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             These values, found in NMFS' SARs, represent annual levels of human-caused mortality plus serious injury from all sources combined (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             commercial fisheries, ship strike). Annual M/SI often cannot be determined precisely and is in some cases presented as a minimum value or range. A CV associated with estimated mortality due to commercial fisheries is presented in some cases.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             The values presented here based on the 2020 SAR and are an underestimate for the entire stock because it is based on surveys which covered only a small portion of the stock's range.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             Abundance estimates are currently considered unknown.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                            Reliable population estimates are not available for this stock. Please see Friday 
                            <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                             (2013) and Zerbini 
                            <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                             (2006) for additional information on numbers of minke whales in Alaska.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             The best available abundance estimate is likely an underestimate for the entire stock because it is based upon a survey that covered only a small portion of the stock's range.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             Nest is best estimate of counts, which have not been corrected for animals at sea during abundance surveys.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>As indicated above, all 12 species (with 15 managed stocks) in table 6 temporally and spatially co-occur with the activity to the degree that take is reasonably likely to occur. In addition, the northern sea otter may be found in Cook Inlet, Alaska. However, northern sea otters are managed by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and are not considered further in this rulemaking.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Gray Whale</HD>
                    <P>
                        The stock structure for gray whales in the Pacific has been studied for a number of years and remains uncertain as of the most recent (2022) Pacific SARs (Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). Gray whale population structure is not determined by simple geography and may be in flux due to evolving migratory dynamics (Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). Currently, the SARs delineate a western North Pacific (WNP) gray whale stock and an eastern North Pacific (ENP) stock based on genetic differentiation (Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). WNP gray whales are not known to feed in or travel to upper Cook Inlet (Conant and Lohe, 2023; Weller 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). Therefore, we assume that gray whales near the project area are members of the ENP stock.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        An Unusual Mortality Event (UME) for gray whales along the U.S. West Coast and in Alaska occurred from December 17, 2018, through November 9, 2023. During that time, 146 gray whales stranded off the coast of Alaska. The investigative team concluded that the preliminary cause of the UME was localized ecosystem changes in the whale's Subarctic and Arctic feeding areas that led to changes in food, malnutrition, decreased birth rates, and increased mortality (see 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-life-distress/2019-2023-gray-whale-unusual-mortality-event-along-west-coast-and</E>
                         for more information).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Gray whales are infrequent visitors to Cook Inlet, but may be seasonally present during spring and fall in the lower inlet (Bureau of Ocean Energy Management (BOEM), 2021). Migrating gray whales pass through the lower inlet during their spring and fall migrations to and from their primary summer feeding areas in the Bering, Chukchi, and Beaufort seas (Swartz, 2018; Silber 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; BOEM, 2021). Several surveys and monitoring programs have sighted gray whales in lower Cook Inlet (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013; Owl Ridge, 2014; Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013, 2014; Kendall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015, as cited in Weston and SLR, 2022). Gray whales are occasionally seen in mid- and upper Cook Inlet, Alaska, but they are not common. During NMFS aerial surveys conducted in June 1994, 2000, 2001, 2005, and 2009 gray whales were observed in Cook Inlet near Port Graham and Elizabeth Island as well as near Kamishak Bay, with one gray whale observed as far north as the Beluga River (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). Gray whales were also observed offshore of Cape Starichkof in 2013 by marine mammal observers monitoring Buccaneer's Cosmopolitan drilling project (Owl Ridge, 2014) and in middle Cook Inlet in 2014 during the 2014 Apache 2D seismic survey (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). Several projects performed in Cook Inlet in recent years reported no observations of gray whales. These project activities included the SAExploration seismic survey in 2015 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34986"/>
                        (Kendall and Cornick, 2015), the 2018 Cook Inlet Pipeline (CIPL) Extension Project (Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018), the 2019 Hilcorp seismic survey in lower Cook Inlet (Fairweather Science, 2020), Hilcorp's 2022, 2023, and 2024 aerial and rig-based monitoring efforts (Horsley and Larson, 2023, 2024).
                    </P>
                    <P>In 2020, a young male gray whale was stranded in the Twentymile River near Girdwood for over a week before swimming back into Turnagain Arm. The whale did not survive and was found dead in west Cook Inlet later that month (NMFS, 2020). One gray whale was sighted in Knik Arm near the Don Young Port of Alaska (POA) in Anchorage in upper Cook Inlet in May of 2020 during observations conducted during construction of the Petroleum and Cement Terminal project (61N Environmental, 2021). The sighting occurred less than a week before the reports of the gray whale stranding in the Twentymile River and was likely the same animal. In 2021, one small gray whale was sighted in Knik Arm near Ship Creek, south of the POA (61N Environmental, 2022a). Although some sightings have been documented in the middle and upper Inlet, the gray whale range typically only extends into the lower Cook Inlet region.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Humpback Whale</HD>
                    <P>
                        The 2022 NMFS Alaska and Pacific SARs described a revised stock structure for humpback whales which modifies the previous designated stocks to align more closely with the ESA-designated Distinct Population Segments (DPSs) (Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023; Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). Specifically, the three previous North Pacific humpback whale stocks (Central and Western North Pacific stocks and a CA/OR/WA stock) were replaced by five stocks, largely corresponding with the ESA-designated DPSs. These include Western North Pacific and Hawaii stocks and a Central America/Southern Mexico-California (CA)/Oregon (OR)/Washington (WA) stock (which corresponds with the Central America DPS). The remaining two stocks, corresponding with the Mexico DPS, are the Mainland Mexico-CA/OR/WA and Mexico-North Pacific stocks (Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023; Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). The former stock is expected to occur along the west coast from California to southern British Columbia, while the latter stock may occur across the Pacific, from northern British Columbia through the Gulf of Alaska and Aleutian Islands/Bering Sea region to Russia.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Hawaii stock consists of one demographically independent population (DIP) (Hawaii-Southeast Alaska/Northern British Columbia DIP) and the Hawaii-North Pacific unit, which may or may not be composed of multiple DIPs (Wade 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021). The DIP and unit are managed as a single stock at this time, due to the lack of data available to separately assess them and lack of compelling conservation benefit to managing them separately (Martien et al., 2021, NMFS 2019, 2023a). The DIP is delineated based on two strong lines of evidence: genetics and movement data (Wade 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021). Whales in the Hawaii-Southeast Alaska/Northern British Columbia DIP winter off Hawaii and largely summer in Southeast Alaska and Northern British Columbia (Wade 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021). The group of whales that migrate from Russia, western Alaska (Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands), and central Alaska (Gulf of Alaska excluding Southeast Alaska) to Hawaii have been delineated as the Hawaii-North Pacific unit (Wade 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021). There are a small number of whales that migrate between Hawaii and southern British Columbia/Washington, but current data and analyses do not provide a clear understanding of which unit these whales belong to (Wade 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023; Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Mexico-North Pacific stock is likely composed of multiple DIPs, based on movement data (Martien 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021, Wade 2021, Wade 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021). However, because currently available data and analyses are not sufficient to delineate or assess DIPs within the unit, it was designated as a single stock (NMFS 2019, 2022d, 2023a). Whales in this stock winter off Mexico and the Revillagigedo Archipelago and summer primarily in Alaska waters (Martien 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023; Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Western North Pacific stock consists of two units—the Philippines/Okinawa-North Pacific unit and the Marianas/Ogasawara-North Pacific unit. The units are managed as a single stock at this time, due to a lack of data available to separately assess them (NMFS 2019, 2022d, 2023a). Recognition of these units is based on movements and genetic data (Oleson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). Whales in the Philippines/Okinawa-North Pacific unit winter near the Philippines and in the Ryukyu Archipelago and migrate to summer feeding areas primarily off the Russian mainland (Oleson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). Whales that winter off the Mariana Archipelago, Ogasawara, and other areas not yet identified and then migrate to summer feeding areas off the Commander Islands, and to the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands comprise the Marianas/Ogasawara-North Pacific unit.
                    </P>
                    <P>The most comprehensive photo-identification data available suggest that approximately 89 percent of all humpback whales in the Gulf of Alaska are from the Hawaii stock, 11 percent are from the Mexico stock, and less than 1 percent are from the Western North Pacific stock (Wade, 2021). Individuals from different stocks are known to intermix in feeding grounds. There is no designated critical habitat for humpback whales in or near the project area (86 FR 21082, April 21, 2021), nor does the project overlap with any known biologically important areas.</P>
                    <P>
                        Humpback whales are encountered regularly in lower Cook Inlet and occasionally in mid-Cook Inlet; sightings are rare in upper Cook Inlet. Eighty-three groups containing an estimated 187 humpbacks were sighted during the CIBW aerial surveys conducted by NMFS from 1994 to 2012 (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). Surveys conducted north of the forelands have documented small numbers in middle Cook Inlet. During the 2014 Apache seismic surveys in Cook Inlet, five groups (six individuals) were reported, with three groups north of the forelands on the east side of the inlet (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014). In 2015, during the construction of the Furie Operating Alaska, LLC (Furie) platform and pipeline, four groups of humpback whales were documented. Another group of 6 to 10 unidentified whales, thought to be either humpback or gray whales, was sighted approximately 15 km (9 mi) northeast of the Julius R. Platform. Large cetaceans were visible near the project (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         whales or blows were visible) for 2 hours out of the 1,275 hours of observation conducted (Jacobs, 2015). During SAExploration's 2015 seismic program, three humpback whales were observed in Cook Inlet, including two near the Forelands and one in lower Cook Inlet (Kendall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015 as cited in Weston and SLR, 2022). Hilcorp did not record any sightings of humpback whales in middle Cook Inlet from their aerial or rig-based monitoring efforts in 2022, 2023, or 2024 (Horsley and Larson, 2023, 2024). The POA has observed humpbacks in Knik Arm (2 sightings of likely the same individual near Ship Creek in 2017 (ABR 2017) and 1 at the POA in 2022 (61N Environmental 2022b). Based on these observations, humpback whales may be infrequent visitors to middle Cook Inlet.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Minke Whale</HD>
                    <P>
                        Two stocks of minke whales occur within U.S. waters: Alaska and California/Oregon/Washington (Muto 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). The Alaskan stock of minke whales is considered migratory, as they 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34987"/>
                        are speculated to migrate seasonally from the Bering and Chukchi Seas in fall to areas of the central North Pacific Ocean (Delarue 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). Although they are likely migratory in Alaska, minke whales have been observed off Cape Starichkof and Anchor Point year-round (Muto 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Minke whales are most abundant in the Gulf of Alaska during summer and occupy localized feeding areas (Zerbini 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006). During the NMFS annual and semiannual surveys of Cook Inlet, minke whales were observed near Anchor Point in 1998, 1999, 2006, and 2021 (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013, 2015b, 2017, 2022; Shelden and Wade, 2019) and near Ninilchik and the middle of lower Cook Inlet in 2021 (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). Minkes were sighted southeast of Kalgin Island and near Homer during Apache's 2014 survey (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014), and one was observed near Tuxedni Bay in 2015 (Kendall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015, as cited in Weston and SLR, 2022). During Hilcorp's seismic survey in lower Cook Inlet in the fall of 2019, eight minke whales were observed (Fairweather Science, 2020). In 2018, no minke whales were observed during observations conducted for the CIPL project near Tyonek (Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). Minke whales were also not recorded during Hilcorp's aerial or rig-based monitoring efforts in 2022, 2023, or 2024 (Horsley and Larson, 2023, 2024), however, one sighting of one minke whale was recorded during Hilcorp's spring marine vibroseis seismic survey offshore from Anchor Point in April 2024 (Hanks 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Fin Whale</HD>
                    <P>
                        In U.S. Pacific waters, fin whales are seasonally found in the Gulf of Alaska, and Bering Sea and as far north as the northern Chukchi Sea (Muto 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021). Several surveys have been conducted to assess the distribution and habitat preferences of fin whales within parts of their range in the North Pacific. In coastal waters of the Aleutians and the Alaska Peninsula, they were found primarily from the Kenai Peninsula to the Shumagin Islands, with a higher abundance near the Semidi Islands and Kodiak Island (Zerbini 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006). An opportunistic survey in the Gulf of Alaska revealed that fin whales were concentrated west of Kodiak Island, in Shelikof Strait, and in the southern Cook Inlet region, with smaller numbers observed over the shelf east of Kodiak to Prince William Sound (Alaska Fisheries Science Center [AFSC], 2003). Muto 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2021) reported visual sightings and acoustic detections in the northeastern Chukchi Sea have been increasing, suggesting that the stock may be re-occupying habitat used prior to large-scale commercial whaling. Delarue 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2013) also detected fin whale calls in the northeastern Chukchi Sea from July through October in a 3-year acoustic study.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Fin whales’ range extends into lower Cook Inlet; however, their sightings are infrequent, and they are mostly spotted near the inlet's entrance. Fin whales are usually observed as individuals traveling alone, although they are sometimes observed in small groups. Rarely, large groups of 50 to 300 fin whales can travel together during migrations (NMFS, 2010). Fin whales in Cook Inlet have only been observed as individuals or in small groups. From 2000 to 2022, 10 sightings of 26 estimated individual fin whales in lower Cook Inlet were observed during NMFS aerial surveys (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013, 2015b, 2017, 2022; Shelden and Wade, 2019). No fin whales were observed during the 2018 Harvest's CIPL Extension Project Acoustic Monitoring Program in middle Cook Inlet (Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). In September and October 2019, Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2020) detected fin whales acoustically in lower Cook Inlet during three-dimensional (3D) seismic surveys, which coincided with the Hilcorp lower Cook Inlet seismic survey. During this period, 8 sightings of 23 individual fin whales were reported, indicating the offshore waters of lower Cook Inlet may be more heavily used than previously believed, especially during the fall season (Fairweather Science, 2020). Hilcorp did not record any sightings of fin whales from their aerial or rig-based monitoring efforts in 2022, 2023, or 2024 (Horsley and Larson, 2023, 2024).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Beluga Whale</HD>
                    <P>
                        Five stocks of beluga whales are recognized in Alaska: the Beaufort Sea stock, eastern Chukchi Sea stock, eastern Bering Sea stock, Bristol Bay stock, and Cook Inlet stock (Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). The Cook Inlet stock is geographically and genetically isolated from the other stocks (O'Corry-Crowe 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1997; Laidre 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000) and resides year-round in Cook Inlet (Laidre 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000; Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020). Only the Cook Inlet stock inhabits the area where Hilcorp would conduct activities. CIBWs were designated as depleted under the MMPA in 2000 (65 FR 34950, May 31, 2000), and as a DPS and listed as endangered under the ESA in October 2008 (73 FR 62919, October 10, 2008) when the species failed to recover following a moratorium on subsistence harvest. Between 2008 and 2018, CIBWs experienced a decline of about 2.3 percent per year (Wade 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). The decline partially overlapped with the northeast Pacific marine heatwave that occurred from 2014 to 2016 in the Gulf of Alaska, significantly impacting the marine ecosystem (Suryan 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021, as cited in Goetz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In June 2023, NMFS released an updated abundance estimate for CIBWs in Alaska that incorporates aerial survey data from June 2021 and 2022 and accounted for visibility bias (Goetz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). This report estimated that CIBW abundance is between 290 and 386, with a median best estimate of 331. Goetz 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2023) also present an analysis of population trends for the most recent 10-year period (2012-2022). The addition of data from the 2021 and 2022 survey years in the analysis resulted in a 65.1 percent probability that the CIBW population is now increasing at 0.9 percent per year (95 percent prediction interval of −3 to 5.7 percent). This increase drops slightly to 0.2 percent per year (95 percent prediction interval of −1.8 to 2.6 percent) with a 60 percent probability that the CIBW population is increasing more than 1 percent per year when data from 2021, which had limited survey coverage due to poor weather, are excluded from the analysis.For management purposes, NMFS has determined that the carrying capacity of Cook Inlet is 1,300 CIBWs (65 FR 34590, May 31, 2000) based on historical CIBW abundance estimated by Calkins (1989).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Threats that have the potential to impact this stock and its habitat include the following: catastrophic events (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         natural disasters, spills, mass strandings); disease agents (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         pathogens, parasites, and harmful algal blooms), habitat loss or degradation, reduction in prey, changes in prey availability due to natural environmental variability, ocean acidification, and commercial fisheries; climatic changes affecting habitat; predation by killer whales; contaminants; noise; ship strikes; waste management; urban runoff; construction projects; and physical habitat modifications that may occur as Cook Inlet becomes increasingly urbanized (Moore 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000; Hobbs 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015; NMFS, 2016b). Another source of CIBW mortality in Cook Inlet is predation by transient-type (mammal-eating) killer whales (NMFS, 2016b; Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003). No human-caused mortality or serious injury of CIBWs through interactions with commercial, recreational, and subsistence fisheries, takes by subsistence hunters, and or human-caused events (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         entanglement in marine debris, ship strikes) has been recently documented, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34988"/>
                        and harvesting of CIBWs has not occurred since 2008 (NMFS, 2008b).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Critical Habitat.</E>
                         On April 11, 2011, NMFS designated two areas of critical habitat for CIBW (76 FR 20179). The designation includes 7,800 km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         (3012 square mi, mi
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ) of marine and estuarine habitat within Cook Inlet, encompassing approximately 1,909 km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         (737 mi
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ) in Area 1 and 5,891 km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         (2275 mi
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ) in Area 2 (see figure 1 in 76 FR 20179). Area 1 of the CIBW critical habitat encompasses all marine waters of Cook Inlet north of a line connecting Point Possession and the mouth of Three Mile Creek, including waters of the Susitna, Little Susitna, and Chickaloon Rivers below Mean Higher High Water (MHHW). From spring through fall, Area 1 critical habitat has the highest concentration of CIBWs due to its important foraging and calving habitat. Critical Habitat Area 2 encompasses some of the fall and winter feeding grounds in middle Cook Inlet. This area has a lower concentration of CIBWs in spring and summer but is used by CIBWs in fall and winter. More information on CIBW critical habitat can be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/action/critical-habitat-cook-inlet-beluga-whale.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>The designation identified the following Primary Constituent Elements, essential features important to the conservation of the CIBW:</P>
                    <P>(1) Intertidal and subtidal waters of Cook Inlet with depths of less than 9 m (30 ft) Mean Lower-Low Water (MLLW) and within 8 km (5 mi) of high- and medium-flow anadromous fish streams;</P>
                    <P>
                        (2) Primary prey species, including four of the five species of Pacific salmon (chum (
                        <E T="03">Oncorhynchus keta</E>
                        ), sockeye (
                        <E T="03">Oncorhynchus nerka</E>
                        ), Chinook (
                        <E T="03">Oncorhynchus tshawytscha</E>
                        ), and coho (
                        <E T="03">Oncorhynchus kisutch</E>
                        )), Pacific eulachon (
                        <E T="03">Thaleichthys pacificus</E>
                        ), Pacific cod (
                        <E T="03">Gadus macrocephalus</E>
                        ), walleye Pollock (
                        <E T="03">Gadus chalcogrammus</E>
                        ), saffron cod (
                        <E T="03">Eleginus gracilis</E>
                        ), and yellowfin sole (
                        <E T="03">Limanda aspera</E>
                        )
                        <E T="03">;</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(3) The absence of toxins or other agents of a type or amount harmful to CIBWs;</P>
                    <P>(4) Unrestricted passage within or between the critical habitat areas; and</P>
                    <P>(5) The absence of in-water noise at levels resulting in the abandonment of habitat by CIBWs.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Biologically Important Areas.</E>
                         Wild 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2023) delineated a Small and Resident Population Biologically Important Area (BIA) in Cook Inlet that is active year-round and overlaps where Hilcorp would conduct the specified activities. The authors assigned the BIA an importance score of 2, an intensity score of 2, a data support score of 3, and a boundary certainty score of 2 (scores range from 1 to 3, with a higher score representing an area of more concentrated or focused use and higher confidence in the data supporting the BIA; Harrison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). These scores indicate that the BIA is of moderate importance and intensity, the authors have high confidence that the population is small and resident and in the abundance and range estimates of the population, and the boundary certainty is medium (see Harrison 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2023) for additional information about the scoring process used to identify BIAs). The boundary of the CIBW BIA is consistent with NMFS' critical habitat designation (Wild 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Foraging ecology</HD>
                    <P>
                        CIBWs feed on a wide variety of prey species, particularly those that are seasonally abundant. From late spring through summer, most CIBW stomachs sampled contained salmon, which corresponded to the timing of fish runs in the area. Anadromous smolt and adult fish aggregate at river mouths and adjacent intertidal mudflats (Calkins, 1989). All five Pacific salmon species (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         Chinook, pink (
                        <E T="03">Oncorhynchus gorbuscha</E>
                        ), coho, sockeye, and chum) spawn in rivers throughout Cook Inlet (Moulton, 1997; Moore 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000). Overall, Pacific salmon represent the highest percent frequency of occurrence of prey species in CIBW stomachs. This suggests that their spring feeding in upper Cook Inlet, principally on fat-rich fish such as salmon and eulachon, is important to the energetics of these animals (NMFS, 2016b).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The nutritional quality of Chinook salmon in particular is unparalleled, with an energy content four times greater than that of a Coho salmon. It is suggested the decline of the Chinook salmon population has left a nutritional void in the diet of the CIBWs that no other prey species can fill in terms of quality or quantity (Norman 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020, 2022).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In fall, as anadromous fish runs begin to decline, CIBWs return to consume fish species (cod and bottom fish) found in nearshore bays and estuaries. Stomach samples from CIBWs are not available for winter (December through March), although dive data from CIBWs tagged with satellite transmitters suggest that they feed in deeper waters during winter (Hobbs 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005), possibly on such prey species as flatfish, cod, sculpin, and pollock.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Habitat Use</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CIBW stock remains within Cook Inlet throughout the year, showing only small seasonal shifts in distribution (Goetz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012a; Lammers 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013; Castellotte 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015; Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015a, 2018; Lowry 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). The ecological range of CIBWs has contracted significantly since the 1970s. From late spring to fall, nearly the entire population is now found in the upper inlet north of the forelands, with a range reduced to approximately 39 percent of the size documented in the late 1970s (Goetz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). The recent annual and semiannual aerial surveys (since 2008) found that approximately 83 percent of the population inhabits the area between the Beluga River and Little Susitna River during the survey period, typically conducted in early June. Some aerial survey counts were performed in August, September, and October, finding minor differences in the numbers of belugas in the upper inlet compared to June, reinforcing the importance of the upper inlet habitat area (Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        During spring and summer, CIBWs generally aggregate near the warmer waters of river mouths along the northern shores of middle and upper Cook Inlet where prey availability is high and predator occurrence is low (Moore 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000; Shelden and Wade, 2019; McGuire 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020). In particular, CIBW groups are seen in the Susitna River Delta, the Beluga River and along the shore to the Little Susitna River, Knik Arm, and along the shores of Chickaloon Bay. Large groups of CIBWs have been observed in the Susitna River Delta, with sizes ranging from 200 to 300 individuals and including a mix of adults, juveniles, and neonates (McGuire 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014, 2020). Small groups have been recorded farther south in Kachemak Bay, Redoubt Bay (Big River), and Trading Bay (McArthur River) prior to 1996, but rarely thereafter. Since the mid-1990s, most CIBWs (96 to 100 percent) aggregate in shallow areas near river mouths in upper Cook Inlet, and they are only occasionally sighted in the central or southern portions of Cook Inlet during summer (Hobbs 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008). Almost the entire population can be found in northern Cook Inlet from late spring through the summer and into the fall (Muto 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020), shifting into deeper waters in middle Cook Inlet in winter (Hobbs 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Data from tagged whales (14 tags deployed July 2000 through March 2003) show that CIBWs use upper Cook Inlet intensively between summer and late autumn (Hobbs 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005). CIBWs tagged with satellite transmitters continue to use Knik Arm, Turnagain Arm, and Chickaloon Bay as late as October, but some range into lower 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34989"/>
                        Cook Inlet to Chinitna Bay, Tuxedni Bay, and Trading Bay (McArthur River) in fall (Hobbs 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005, 2012). From September through November, CIBWs move between Knik Arm, Turnagain Arm, and Chickaloon Bay (Hobbs 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005; Goetz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012b). By December, CIBWs are distributed throughout the upper to mid-inlet. Data from recent monitoring suggests lower Cook Inlet (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Tuxedni Bay and Kenai and Kasilof waters) may also be important spring, fall, and/or winter habitat (Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023, 2024; Kumar, 2024). From January into March, they move as far south as Kalgin Island and slightly beyond in central offshore waters. However, CIBWs make occasional excursions into Knik Arm and Turnagain Arm in February and March in spite of ice cover (Hobbs 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005). Although tagged CIBWs move widely around Cook Inlet throughout the year, there is no indication of seasonal migration in and out of Cook Inlet (Hobbs 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005). Data from NMFS aerial surveys, opportunistic sighting reports, and corrected satellite-tagged CIBWs confirm that they are more widely dispersed throughout Cook Inlet during winter (November-April), with animals found between Kalgin Island and Point Possession. Generally fewer observations of CIBWs are reported from the Anchorage and Knik Arm area from November through April (76 FR 20179, April 11, 2011; Rugh 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000, 2004). Later in winter (January into March), belugas were sighted near Kalgin Island and in deeper waters offshore. However, even when ice cover exceeds 90 percent in February and March, belugas travel into Knik Arm and Turnagain Arm (Hobbs 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The NMFS AFSC has conducted long-term passive acoustic monitoring demonstrating seasonal shifts in CIBW concentrations throughout Cook Inlet. Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2015) conducted long-term acoustic monitoring at 13 locations throughout Cook Inlet between 2008 and 2015: North Eagle Bay, Eagle River Mouth, South Eagle Bay, Six Mile, Point MacKenzie, Cairn Point, Fire Island, Little Susitna, Beluga River, Trading Bay, Kenai River, Tuxedni Bay, and Homer Spit; the former 6 stations being located within Knik Arm. In general, the observed seasonal distribution is in accordance with descriptions based on aerial surveys and satellite telemetry: CIBW detections are higher in the upper inlet during summer, peaking at Little Susitna, Beluga River, and Eagle Bay, followed by fewer detections at those locations during winter. Higher detections in winter at Trading Bay, Kenai River, and Tuxedni Bay suggest a broader CIBW distribution in the lower inlet during winter. That is, CIBWs spend a considerable amount of time outside of middle Cook Inlet where Hilcorp project activities would occur (Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024). Acoustic studies also provide evidence that the Susitna Delta is a crucial habitat for CIBWs, especially during the summer and fall months. An acoustic recorder in the Little Susitna River detected peak CIBW activity from late May to early June and again from July through August (Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016). In the Beluga River, three peaks in activity were recorded: the first from mid-February to early April, the strongest peak from June to mid-July, and a third peak from mid-November to mid-December. The bimodal distribution of these detections is thought to be related to the known availability of the two main anadromous summer prey species for CIBWs, eulachon and Pacific salmon.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Goetz 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012b) modeled habitat preferences using NMFS' 1994-2008 June abundance survey data. In large areas, such as the Susitna Delta (Beluga to Little Susitna Rivers) and Knik Arm, there was a high probability that CIBWs were in larger groups. CIBW presence and acoustic foraging behavior also increased closer to rivers with Chinook salmon runs, such as the Susitna River (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021). Movement has been correlated with the peak discharge of seven major rivers emptying into Cook Inlet. Boat-based surveys (McGuire and Stephens, 2017) and results from passive acoustic monitoring across the entire inlet (Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015) also support seasonal patterns observed with other methods. Based on long-term passive acoustic monitoring, foraging behavior was more prevalent during summer, particularly at upper inlet rivers, than during winter. The foraging index was highest at Little Susitna, with a peak in July‐August and a secondary peak in May, followed by Beluga River and then Eagle Bay; monthly variation in the foraging index indicates CIBWs shift their foraging behavior among these three locations from April through September. The location of the towing routes are areas of predicted low density in the summer months.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        CIBWs are believed to mostly calve in the summer, and breed between late spring and early summer (NMFS, 2016b), primarily in upper Cook Inlet. The only known observed occurrence of calving occurred on July 20, 2015, in the Susitna Delta area (T. McGuire, pers. comm., March 27, 2017). The first neonates encountered during each field season from 2005 through 2015 were always seen in the Susitna River Delta in July. The photographic identification team's documentation of the dates of the first neonate of each year indicate that calving begins in mid-late July/early August, generally coinciding with the observed timing of annual maximum group size. Probable mating behavior of CIBWs was observed in April and May of 2014, in Trading Bay. Young CIBWs are nursed for 2 years and may continue to associate with their mothers for a considerable time thereafter (Colbeck 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). Important calving grounds are thought to be located near the river mouths of upper Cook Inlet.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        CIBWs have been observed during marine mammal monitoring efforts in support of industry and research projects. During Apache's seismic test program in 2011 along the west coast of Redoubt Bay, lower Cook Inlet, a total of 33 CIBWs were sighted during the survey (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). During Apache's 2012 seismic program in mid-inlet, a total of 151 groups consisting of an estimated 1,463 CIBWs were observed (note individuals were likely observed more than once) (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014). During SAExploration's 2015 seismic program, a total of eight groups of 33 estimated individual CIBWs were visually observed during this time period and there were two acoustic detections of CIBWs in upper Cook Inlet (Kendall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). During Harvest Alaska's CIPL project on the west side of Cook Inlet in between Ladd Landing and Tyonek Platform, a total of 143 CIBW groups (814 individuals) were observed almost daily from May 31 to July 11, even though observations spanned from May 9 through September 15 (Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). There were two CIBW carcasses observed by the project vessels in the 2019 Hilcorp lower Cook Inlet seismic survey in the fall which were reported to the NMFS Marine Mammal Stranding Network (Fairweather Science, 2020). Both carcasses were moderately decomposed when they were sighted by the PSOs. Daily aerial surveys specifically for CIBWs were flown over the lower Cook Inlet region, but no CIBWs were observed. Aerial surveys during Hilcorp rig moves in June 2021, and June and September 2022 reported sightings of 11, more than 25, and 20 individual CIBWs, respectively; some were within the aerial survey area and some outside. Rig moves also occurred in June and July of 2023; aerial observers reported 37 sightings of 281 individuals observed both in and out of the survey area (Horsley and Larson, 2023). No CIBWs were sighted from vessel-based PSOs during these rig moves. In May 2024 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34990"/>
                        during Hilcorp's jack-up rig move, two opportunistic sightings of approximately 25 CIBWs were recorded outside of the designated aerial survey area. No additional observations were recorded by aerial or vessel-based PSOs (Horsley and Larson, 2024). Furthermore, three additional CIBWs were observed near the Tyonek Platform by vessel-based PSOs during the pre-clearance monitoring period for Hilcorp's October 2024 jack-up rig move (Horsley et al,. 2024). In November 2024, no sightings of CIBWs were reported during the rig move conducted under the operatorship of Furie Operating Alaska, LLC (S. Vercelline, pers. comm., December 9, 2024).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Killer Whale</HD>
                    <P>
                        Along the west coast of North America, seasonal and year-round occurrence of killer whales has been noted along the entire Alaska coast (Braham and Dahlheim, 1982), in British Columbia and Washington inland waterways (Bigg 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1990), and along the outer coasts of Washington, Oregon, and California (Green 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1992; Barlow 1995, 1997; Forney 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995). Killer whales from these areas have been labeled as “resident,” “transient,” and “offshore” type killer whales (Bigg 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1990; Ford 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000; Dahlheim 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008) based on aspects of morphology, ecology, genetics, and behavior (Ford and Fisher, 1982; Baird and Stacey, 1988; Baird 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1992; Hoelzel 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1998, 2002; Barrett-Lennard, 2000; Dahlheim 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008). Based on data regarding association patterns, acoustics, movements, and genetic differences, eight killer whale stocks are now recognized within the U.S. Pacific, two of which have the potential to be found in Cook Inlet: the Eastern North Pacific Alaska Resident stock and the Gulf of Alaska, Aleutian Islands, and the Bering Sea Transient stock. Both stocks occur in lower Cook Inlet, but rarely in middle and upper Cook Inlet (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). While stocks overlap the same geographic area, they maintain social and reproductive isolation and feed on different prey species. Resident killer whales are primarily fish-eaters, while transients primarily hunt and consume marine mammals, such as harbor seals, Dall's porpoises, harbor porpoises, CIBWs and sea lions. Killer whales are not harvested for subsistence in Alaska. Potential threats most likely to result in direct human-caused mortality or serious injury of killer whales in this region include oil spills, vessel strikes, and interactions with fisheries.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Killer whales have been sighted near Homer and Port Graham in lower Cook Inlet (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003, 2022; Rugh 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005). Resident killer whales from pods often sighted near Kenai Fjords and Prince William Sound have been occasionally photographed in lower Cook Inlet (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003). The availability of salmon influences when resident killer whales are more likely to be sighted in Cook Inlet. Killer whales were observed in the Kachemak and English Bay three times during aerial surveys conducted between 1993 and 2004 (Rugh 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005). Passive acoustic monitoring efforts throughout Cook Inlet documented killer whales at the Beluga River, Kenai River, and Homer Spit, although they were not encountered within Knik Arm (Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016). These detections were likely resident killer whales. Transient killer whales likely have not been acoustically detected due to their propensity to move quietly through waters to track prey (Small, 2010; Lammers 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). Transient killer whales were increasingly reported to feed on belugas in the middle and upper Cook Inlet in the 1990s.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        During the 2015 SAExploration seismic program near the North Foreland, two killer whales were observed (Kendall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015, as cited in Weston and SLR, 2022). Killer whales were observed in lower Cook Inlet in 1994, 1997, 2001, 2005, 2010, 2012, and 2022 during the NMFS aerial surveys (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013, 2022). Eleven killer whale strandings have been reported in Turnagain Arm: 6 in May 1991 and 5 in August 1993. During the Hilcorp lower Cook Inlet seismic survey in the fall of 2019, 21 killer whales were documented (Fairweather Science, 2020). Throughout 4 months of observation in 2018 during the CIPL project in middle Cook Inlet, no killer whales were observed (Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). In September 2021, two killer whales were documented in Knik Arm in upper Cook Inlet, near the POA (61N Environmental, 2022a). One killer whale was observed during Hilcorp's pilot marine vibroseis seismic survey in lower Cook Inlet in October of 2023. During the 2024 marine vibroseis seismic survey, a group of four individuals was recorded nearshore Clam Gulch (Hanks 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024). Hilcorp did not record any sightings of killer whales from their aerial or rig-based monitoring efforts in 2022, 2023, or 2024 (Horsley and Larson, 2023, 2024).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Pacific White-Sided Dolphin</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Pacific white-sided dolphin is divided into three stocks within U.S. waters. The North Pacific stock includes the coast of Alaska, including the project area. Pacific white-sided dolphins are common in the Gulf of Alaska's pelagic waters and Alaska's nearshore areas, British Columbia, and Washington (Ferrero and Walker, 1996, as cited in Muto 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). They do not typically occur in Cook Inlet, but in 2019, Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2020) documented short durations of Pacific white-sided dolphin presence using passive acoustic recorders near Iniskin Bay (6 minutes) and at an offshore mooring located approximately midway between Port Graham and Iniskin Bay (51 minutes). Detections of vocalizations typically lasted on the order of minutes, suggesting the animals did not remain in the area and/or continue vocalizing for extended durations. Visual monitoring conducted during the same period by marine mammal observers on seismic vessels near the offshore recorder did not detect any Pacific white-sided dolphins (Fairweather Science, 2020). These observational data, combined with anecdotal information, indicate that there is a small potential for Pacific white-sided dolphins to occur in the Project area. On May 7, 2014, Apache Alaska observed three Pacific white-sided dolphins during an aerial survey near Kenai. This is one of the only recorded visual observations of Pacific white-sided dolphins in Cook Inlet; they have not been reported in groups as large as those estimated in other parts of Alaska (Muto 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Harbor Porpoise</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the eastern North Pacific Ocean, harbor porpoise range from Point Barrow, along the Alaska coast, and down the west coast of North America to Point Conception, California. The 2022 Alaska SARs describe a revised stock structure for harbor porpoises (Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). Previously, NMFS had designated three stocks of harbor porpoises: the Bering Sea stock, the Gulf of Alaska stock, and the Southeast Alaska stock (Muto 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022; Zerbini 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). The 2022 Alaska SARs splits the Southeast Alaska stock into three separate stocks, resulting in five separate stocks in Alaskan waters for this species. This update better aligns harbor porpoise stock structure with genetics, trends in abundance, and information regarding discontinuous distribution trends (Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). Harbor porpoises found in Cook Inlet are likely to be members of the Gulf of Alaska stock (Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Harbor porpoises occur most frequently in waters less than 100 m deep (Hobbs and Waite, 2010) and are common in nearshore areas of the Gulf of Alaska, Shelikof Strait, and lower Cook Inlet (Dahlheim 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000). 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34991"/>
                        Harbor porpoises are often observed in lower Cook Inlet in Kachemak Bay and from Cape Douglas to the West Foreland (Rugh 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005). They can be opportunistic foragers but consume primarily schooling forage fish (Bowen and Siniff, 1999). Given their shallow water distribution, harbor porpoise are vulnerable to physical modifications of nearshore habitats resulting from urban and industrial development (including waste management and nonpoint source runoff) and activities such as construction of docks and other over-water structures, filling of shallow areas, dredging, and noise (Linnenschmidt 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). Subsistence users have not reported any harvest from the Gulf of Alaska harbor porpoise stock since the early 1900s (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014). Calving occurs from May to August; however, this can vary by region. Harbor porpoises are often found traveling alone, or in small groups of less than 10 individuals (Schmale, 2008).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Harbor porpoises occur throughout Cook Inlet, with passive acoustic detections being more prevalent in lower Cook Inlet. Although harbor porpoises have been frequently observed during aerial surveys in Cook Inlet (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014), most sightings are of single animals and are concentrated at Chinitna and Tuxedni bays on the west side of lower Cook Inlet (Rugh 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005), with smaller numbers observed in upper Cook Inlet between April and October. The occurrence of larger numbers of porpoise in the lower Cook Inlet may be driven by greater availability of preferred prey and possibly less competition with CIBWs, as CIBWs move into upper inlet waters to forage on Pacific salmon during the summer months (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        An increase in harbor porpoise sightings in upper Cook Inlet was observed over recent decades (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         61N Environmental, 2021, 2022a; Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014). Small numbers of harbor porpoises have been consistently reported in upper Cook Inlet between April and October (Prevel-Ramos 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008). The overall increase in the number of harbor porpoise sightings in upper Cook Inlet is unknown, although it may be an artifact of increased studies and marine mammal monitoring programs in upper Cook Inlet. It is also possible that the contraction in the CIBW's range has opened up previously occupied CIBW range to harbor porpoises (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        During Apache's 2012 seismic program in middle Cook Inlet, 137 groups of harbor porpoises comprising 190 individuals were documented between May and August (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2014) identified 13 groups of harbor porpoises totaling 77 individuals during Apache's 2014 Cook Inlet seismic survey, both from vessels and aircraft, in May. In June 2012, Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2015b) documented 65 groups of 129 individual harbor porpoises during an aerial survey, none of which were in upper Cook Inlet. Kendall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2015, as cited in Weston and SLR, 2022) documented 52 groups comprising 65 individuals north of the Forelands during SAExploration's 2015 seismic survey. Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017, 2019, and 2022) also conducted aerial surveys in June and July over Cook Inlet in 2016, 2018, 2021, and 2022 and recorded 65 individuals. Observations occurred in middle and lower Cook Inlet with a majority in Kachemak Bay. A total of 29 groups (44 individuals) were observed north of the Forelands from May to September during the CIPL Extension Project (Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). There were two sightings of three harbor porpoises observed during the 2019 Hilcorp lower Cook Inlet seismic survey in the fall (Fairweather Science, 2020). Four monitoring events were conducted at the POA in Anchorage between April 2020 and August 2022, during which 42 groups of harbor porpoises comprising 50 individual porpoises were documented over 285 days of observation (61N Environmental 2021, 2022a, 2022b, and 2022c). An additional 16 harbor porpoises were observed near the POA during their North Extension Stabilization—Step 1 (NES1) project (61N Environmental 2025). During jack-up rig moves in 2021, a PSO observed an individual harbor porpoise in middle Cook Inlet in July and another in October (Horsley and Larson 2023). During a jack-up rig move in June 2023, a PSO also observed an individual harbor porpoise in middle Cook Inlet (Horsley and Larson 2023). In 2023 Hilcorp conducted a pilot marine vibroseis seismic survey in October where two sightings of two harbor porpoises were recorded offshore from Clam Gulch. In April, the survey was conducted once again and one harbor seal sighting of one individual was reported in the same area (Hanks 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024). Recent passive acoustic research in Cook Inlet by Alaska Department of Fish and Game (ADF&amp;G) and AFSC have indicated harbor porpoises occur more frequently than expected, particularly in the West Foreland area in spring, although overall numbers are unknown at this time (Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Dall's Porpoise</HD>
                    <P>
                        Dall's porpoises are found throughout the North Pacific, from southern Japan to southern California north to the Bering Sea. All Dall's porpoises in Alaska are of the Alaska stock. This species can be found in offshore, inshore, and nearshore habitat. The Dall's porpoise range in Alaska includes lower Cook Inlet, but very few sightings have been reported in upper Cook Inlet. Observations have been documented near Kachemak Bay and Anchor Point (Owl Ridge, 2014; BOEM, 2015). Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2013) and Rugh 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2005) collated data from aerial surveys conducted between 1994 and 2012 and documented 9 sightings of 25 individuals in the lower Cook Inlet during June and/or July 1997, 1999, and 2000. No Dall's porpoise were observed on subsequent surveys in June and/or July 2014, 2016, 2018, 2021, and 2022 (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015b, 2017, and 2022; Shelden and Wade, 2019). During Apache's 2014 seismic survey, two groups of three Dall's porpoises were observed in Upper and middle Cook Inlet (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014). In August 2015, one Dall's porpoise was reported in the mid-inlet north of Nikiski in middle Cook Inlet during SAExploration's seismic program (Kendall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). During aerial surveys in Cook Inlet, they were observed in Iniskin Bay, Barren Island, Elizabeth Island, and Kamishak Bay (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). No Dall's porpoises were observed during the 2018 CIPL Extension Project Acoustic Monitoring Program in middle Cook Inlet (Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018); however, 30 individuals in 10 groups were sighted during a lower Cook Inlet seismic project in the fall 2019 (Fairweather Science, 2020). Hilcorp recorded three sightings of Dall's porpoises in 2021 and one sighting of a Dall's porpoise in 2023 from their rig-based monitoring efforts in the project area (Korsmo 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022; Horsley and Larson, 2023). One Dall's porpoise was observed near the POA during the NES1 project, but it is possible this was misidentified (61N Environmental 2025). This higher number of sightings suggests Dall's porpoise may use portions of middle Cook Inlet in greater numbers than previously expected but would still be considered infrequent in middle and upper Cook Inlet.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Steller Sea Lion</HD>
                    <P>
                        Two DPSs of Steller sea lion occur in Alaska: the western DPS and the eastern DPS. The western DPS includes animals that occur west of Cape Suckling, Alaska, and therefore includes 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34992"/>
                        individuals within the project area. The western DPS was listed under the ESA as threatened in 1990 (55 FR 49204, November 26, 1990), and its continued population decline resulted in a change in listing status to endangered in 1997 (62 FR 24345, May 5, 1997). Since 2000, studies indicate that the population east of Samalga Pass (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         east of the Aleutian Islands) has increased and is potentially stable (Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        There is uncertainty regarding threats currently impeding the recovery of Steller sea lions, particularly in the Aleutian Islands. Many factors have been suggested as causes of the steep decline in abundance of western Steller sea lions observed in the 1980s, including competitive effects of fishing, environmental change, disease, contaminants, killer whale predation, incidental take, and illegal and legal shooting (Atkinson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008; NMFS, 2008a). A number of management actions have been implemented since 1990 to promote the recovery of the Western U.S. stock of Steller sea lions, including 5.6-km (3-nautical mile) no-entry zones around rookeries, prohibition of shooting at or near sea lions, and regulation of fisheries for sea lion prey species (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         walleye pollock, Pacific cod, and Atka mackerel (
                        <E T="03">Pleurogrammus monopterygius</E>
                        )) (Sinclair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013; Tollit 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017). Additionally, potentially deleterious events, such as harmful algal blooms (Lefebvre 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016) and disease transmission across the Arctic (VanWormer 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019) that have been associated with warming waters, could lead to potentially negative population-level impacts on Steller sea lions.
                    </P>
                    <P>NMFS designated critical habitat for Steller sea lions on August 27, 1993 (58 FR 45269), including portions of the southern reaches of lower Cook Inlet. The critical habitat designation for the Western DPS of was determined to include a 37-km (20-nautical mile) buffer around all major haul-outs and rookeries, and associated terrestrial, atmospheric, and aquatic zones, plus three large offshore foraging areas, none of which occurs in the project area. There is no designated critical habitat for Steller sea lions in the mid- or upper inlet, nor are there any known BIAs for Steller sea lions within the project area. Rookeries and haul out sites in lower Cook Inlet include those near the mouth of the inlet, which are approximately 56 km or more south of the closest action area.</P>
                    <P>
                        Steller sea lions are opportunistic predators, feeding primarily on a wide variety of seasonally abundant fishes and cephalopods, including Pacific herring (
                        <E T="03">Clupea pallasi</E>
                        ), walleye pollock, capelin (
                        <E T="03">Mallotus villosus</E>
                        ), Pacific sand lance (
                        <E T="03">Ammodytes hexapterus</E>
                        ), Pacific cod, salmon (
                        <E T="03">Oncorhynchus spp.</E>
                        ), and squid (
                        <E T="03">Teuthida spp.</E>
                        ); (Jefferson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008; Wynne 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2011). Steller sea lions do not generally eat every day, but tend to forage every 1-2 days and return to haulouts to rest between foraging trips (Merrick and Loughlin, 1997; Rehberg 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). Steller sea lions feed largely on walleye pollock, salmon, and arrowtooth flounder during the summer, and walleye pollock and Pacific cod during the winter (Sinclair and Zeppelin, 2002).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Most Steller sea lions in Cook Inlet occur south of Anchor Point on the east side of lower Cook Inlet, with concentrations near haulout sites at Shaw Island and Elizabeth Island and by Chinitna Bay and Iniskin Bay on the west side (Rugh 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005). Steller sea lions are rarely seen in upper Cook Inlet (Nemeth 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). About 3,600 sea lions use haulout sites in the lower Cook Inlet area (Sweeney 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017), with additional individuals venturing into the area to forage.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Several surveys and monitoring programs have documented Steller sea lions throughout Cook Inlet, including in upper Cook Inlet in 2012 (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013), near Cape Starichkof in 2013 (Owl Ridge, 2014), in middle and lower Cook Inlet in 2015 (Kendall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015, as cited in Weston and SLR, 2022), in middle Cook Inlet in 2018 (Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018), in lower Cook Inlet in 2019 (Fairweather Science, 2020), and near the POA in Anchorage in 2020, 2021, 2022, and 2025 (61N Environmental, 2021, 2022a, 2022b, and 2022c, 2025). During NMFS CIBW aerial surveys from 2000 to 2016, 39 sightings of 769 estimated individual Steller sea lions in lower Cook Inlet were recorded (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017). Sightings of large congregations of Steller sea lions during NMFS aerial surveys occurred outside the specific geographic region, on land in the mouth of Cook Inlet (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Elizabeth and Shaw Islands). In 2012, during Apache's 3D seismic surveys, three sightings of approximately four individuals in upper Cook Inlet were recorded (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). PSOs associated with Buccaneer's drilling project off Cape Starichkof observed seven Steller sea lions in summer 2013 (Owl Ridge, 2014), and another four Steller sea lions were observed in 2015 in Cook Inlet during SAExploration's 3D Seismic Program. Of the three 2015 sightings, one sighting occurred between the West and East Forelands, one occurred near Nikiski, and one occurred northeast of the North Foreland in the center of Cook Inlet (Kendall and Cornick, 2015). One sighting of two individuals occurred during the CIPL Extension Project in 2018 in middle Cook Inlet (Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). Additionally, five sightings of five Steller sea lions were recorded during Hilcorp's lower Cook Inlet seismic survey in the fall of 2019 (Fairweather Science, 2020). At the end of July 2022, while conducting a waterfowl survey an estimated 25 Steller sea lions were observed hauled-out at low tide in the Lewis River, on the west side of Cook Inlet. (K. Lindberg, pers. comm., August 15, 2022). Hilcorp did not record any sightings of Steller sea lions from their aerial or rig-based monitoring efforts in 2022, 2023, or 2024 (Horsley and Larson, 2023, 2024).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Harbor Seal</HD>
                    <P>
                        Harbor seals inhabit waters all along the western coast of the United States, British Columbia, and north through Alaska waters to the Pribilof Islands and Cape Newenham. NMFS currently identifies 12 stocks of harbor seals in Alaska based largely on genetic structure (Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). Harbor seals potentially affected by Hilcorp's specified activities are members of the Cook Inlet/Shelikof stock, which ranges from the southwest tip of Unimak Island east along the southern coast of the Alaska Peninsula to Elizabeth Island off the southwest tip of the Kenai Peninsula, including Cook Inlet, Knik Arm, and Turnagain Arm. Distribution of the Cook Inlet/Shelikof stock extends from Unimak Island, in the Aleutian Islands archipelago, north through all of upper and lower Cook Inlet (Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Harbor seals inhabit the coastal and estuarine waters of Cook Inlet and are observed in both upper and lower Cook Inlet throughout most of the year (Boveng 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012; Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). High-density areas include Kachemak Bay, Iniskin Bay, Iliamna Bay, Kamishak Bay, Cape Douglas, and Shelikof Strait. Up to a few hundred seals seasonally occur in middle and upper Cook Inlet (Rugh 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         2005), with the highest concentrations found near the Susitna River and other tributaries within upper Cook Inlet during eulachon and salmon runs (Nemeth 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Boveng 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012), but most remain south of the forelands (Boveng 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Harbor seals haul out on rocks, reefs, beaches, and drifting glacial ice (Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). Their movements are influenced by tides, weather, season, food availability, and reproduction, as well as individual sex and age class (Lowry 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001; Small 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34993"/>
                        Boveng 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012). The results of past and recent satellite tagging studies in Southeast Alaska, Prince William Sound, Kodiak Island, and Cook Inlet are also consistent with the conclusion that harbor seals are non-migratory (Lowry 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001; Small 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Boveng 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012). However, some long-distance movements of tagged animals in Alaska have been recorded (Pitcher and McAllister, 1981; Lowry 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001; Small 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Womble, 2012; Womble and Gende, 2013). Strong fidelity of individuals for haulout sites during the breeding season has been documented in several populations (Härkönen and Harding, 2001), including in Cook Inlet (Pitcher and McAllister, 1981; Small 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005; Boveng 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012; Womble, 2012; Womble and Gende, 2013). Harbor seals usually give birth to a single pup between May and mid-July; birthing locations are dispersed over several haulout sites and not confined to major rookeries (Klinkhart 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008). More than 200 haulout sites are documented in lower Cook Inlet (Montgomery 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007) and 18 in middle and upper Cook Inlet (London 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). Of the 18 in middle and upper Cook Inlet, nine are considered “key haulout” locations where aggregations of 50 or more harbor seals have been documented. Seven key haulouts are in the Susitna River delta, and two are near the Chickaloon River.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Recent research on satellite-tagged harbor seals observed several movement patterns within Cook Inlet (Boveng 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012), including a strong seasonal pattern of more coastal and restricted spatial use during the spring and summer (breeding, pupping, molting) and more wide-ranging movements within and outside of Cook Inlet during the winter months, with some seals ranging as far as Shumagin Islands. During summer months, movements and distribution were mostly confined to the west side of Cook Inlet and Kachemak Bay, and seals captured in lower Cook Inlet generally exhibited site fidelity by remaining south of the Forelands in lower Cook Inlet after release (Boveng 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012). In the fall, a portion of the harbor seals appeared to move out of Cook Inlet and into Shelikof Strait, northern Kodiak Island, and coastal habitats of the Alaska Peninsula. The western coast of Cook Inlet had higher usage by harbor seals than eastern coast habitats, and seals captured in lower Cook Inlet generally exhibited site fidelity by remaining south of the Forelands in lower Cook Inlet after release (south of Nikiski; Boveng 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Harbor seals have been sighted in Cook Inlet during every year of the aerial surveys conducted by NMFS and during all recent mitigation and monitoring programs in lower, middle, and upper Cook Inlet (61N Environmental, 2021, 2022a, 2022b, 2022c, 2025; Fairweather Science, 2020; Kendall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015 as cited in Weston and SLR, 2022; Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013, 2014; Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). In 2018 Harvest Alaska conducted marine mammal monitoring in middle Cook Inlet within the same geographic area as Hilcorp's proposed action area and reported 313 sightings comprised of 316 harbor seal individuals (Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). During Hilcorp's June 2023 jack-up rig move, PSOs observed two separate sightings of harbor seals in middle Cook Inlet: one just north of Nikiski, and the other closer to the Tyonek Platform (Horsley and Larson, 2023). Two separate sightings of harbor seals in middle Cook Inlet also occurred during Hilcorp's May 2024 jack-up rig move, one occurring near the Tyonek Platform and the other approximately halfway between the Tyonek Platform and OSK Dock (Horsley and Larson, 2024).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">California Sea Lion</HD>
                    <P>
                        California sea lions live along the Pacific coastline spanning an area from central Mexico to Southeast Alaska and typically breed on islands located in southern California, western Baja California, and the Gulf of California (Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020). Five genetically distinct geographic populations are known to exist: Pacific Temperate, Pacific Subtropical, Southern Gulf of California, Central Gulf of California, and Northern Gulf of California (Schramm 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Few observations of California sea lions have been reported in Alaska and most observations have been limited to solitary individuals, typically males that are known to migrate long distances. Occasionally, California sea lions can be found in small groups of two or more and are usually associated with Steller sea lions at their haul outs and rookeries (Maniscalco 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004). The few California sea lions observed in Alaska typically do not travel further north than Southeast Alaska. They are often associated with Steller sea lion haulouts and rookeries (Maniscalco 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004). Sightings in Cook Inlet are rare, with two documented during the Apache 2012 seismic survey (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013) and anecdotal sightings in Kachemak Bay. No California sea lions were sighted during the 2019 Hilcorp lower Cook Inlet seismic survey (Fairweather Science, 2020), the CIPL project in 2018 (Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018), or the 2022, 2023, or 2024 Hilcorp aerial or rig-based monitoring efforts (Horsley and Larson, 2023, 2024).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Marine Mammal Hearing</HD>
                    <P>
                        Hearing is the most important sensory modality for marine mammals underwater, and exposure to anthropogenic sound can have deleterious effects. To appropriately assess the potential effects of exposure to sound, it is necessary to understand the frequency ranges marine mammals are able to hear. Not all marine mammal species have equal hearing capabilities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Wartzok and Ketten, 1999; Au and Hastings, 2008). To reflect this, Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2007, 2019) recommended that marine mammals be divided into hearing groups based on directly measured (behavioral or auditory evoked potential techniques) or estimated hearing ranges (behavioral response data, anatomical modeling, 
                        <E T="03">etc.</E>
                        ). Subsequently, NMFS (2018, 2024) described generalized hearing ranges for these marine mammal hearing groups. Generalized hearing ranges were chosen based on the ~65-decibel (dB) threshold from composite audiograms, with the exception for lower limits for low-frequency cetaceans where the lower bound was deemed to be biologically implausible and the lower bound from Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2007) retained. Frequency is expressed in hertz (Hz) or kilohertz (kHz). We note that the names of two hearing groups and the generalized hearing ranges of all marine mammal hearing groups were recently updated (NMFS 2024) as reflected below in table 7. Of the species potentially present in the action area, gray whales, fin whales, minke whales, and humpback whales are considered low-frequency (LF) cetaceans, CIBWs, pacific white-sided dolphins, and killer whales are considered mid-frequency (MF) cetaceans, harbor porpoises and Dall's porpoises are considered high-frequency (HF) cetaceans, Steller sea lions and California sea lions are otariid pinnipeds (OW), and harbor seals are phocid pinnipeds (PW).
                        <PRTPAGE P="34994"/>
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s150,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 7—Marine Mammal Hearing Groups (NMFS, 2024)</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Hearing group</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Generalized hearing range *</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Low-frequency (LF) cetaceans (baleen whales)</ENT>
                            <ENT>7 Hz to 36 kHz.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">High-frequency (HF) cetaceans (dolphins, toothed whales, beaked whales, bottlenose whales)</ENT>
                            <ENT>150 Hz to 160 kHz.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                Very high-frequency (VHF) cetaceans (true porpoises,
                                <E T="03"> Kogia,</E>
                                 river dolphins, Cephalorhynchid, 
                                <E T="03">Lagenorhynchus cruciger</E>
                                 &amp; 
                                <E T="03">L. australis</E>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>200 Hz to 165 kHz.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Phocid pinnipeds (PW) (underwater) (true seals)</ENT>
                            <ENT>40 Hz to 90 kHz.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Otariid pinnipeds (OW) (underwater) (sea lions and fur seals)</ENT>
                            <ENT>60 Hz to 68 kHz.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            * Represents the generalized hearing range for the entire group as a composite (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             all species within the group), where individual species' hearing ranges may not be as broad. Generalized hearing range chosen based on ~65 dB threshold from composite audiogram, previous analysis in NMFS 2018, and/or data from Southall 
                            <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                             2007; Southall 
                            <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                             2019. Additionally, animals are able to detect very loud sounds above and below that “generalized” hearing range.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>For more detail concerning these groups and associated frequency ranges, please see NMFS (2024) for a review of available information.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Potential Effects of Specified Activities on Marine Mammals and Their Habitat</HD>
                    <P>This section provides a discussion of the ways in which components of the specified activity may impact marine mammals and their habitat. The Estimated Take of Marine Mammals section later in this document includes a quantitative analysis of the number of individuals that are expected to be taken by this activity. The Negligible Impact Analysis and Determination section considers the content of this section, the Estimated Take of Marine Mammals section, and the Proposed Mitigation section, to draw conclusions regarding the likely impacts of these activities on the reproductive success or survivorship of individuals and whether those impacts are reasonably expected to, or reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.</P>
                    <P>There are a variety of types and degrees of effects to marine mammals, prey species, and habitat that could occur as a result of Hilcorp's specified activities. In this section, NMFS provides a brief description of the types of sound sources that would be generated by the specified activities of the project, and a description of the ways marine mammals may be generally affected by these activities including in the form of mortality, physical injury, sensory impairment (permanent threshold shifts (PTS), TTS, acoustic masking), physiological responses (particular stress responses), behavioral disturbance, and habitat effects. The Estimated Take of Marine Mammals section also discusses how the potential effects on marine mammals from non-impulsive and impulsive sources relate to the MMPA definitions of Level A harassment and Level B harassment, and quantifies those effects that rise to the level of a take. The Preliminary Analysis and Negligible Impact Determination section assesses whether the proposed authorized take would have a negligible impact on the affected species and stocks.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Background on Sound</HD>
                    <P>
                        This section contains a brief technical background on sound, on the characteristics of certain sound types, on metrics used relevant to the specified activity, and to a discussion of the potential effects of the specified activity on marine mammals found later in this document. For general information on sound and its interaction with the marine environment, please see: Erbe and Thomas (2022); Au and Hastings (2008); Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1995); Urick (1983); as well as the Discovery of Sound in the Sea website at 
                        <E T="03">https://dosits.org/.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Sound is a vibration that travels as an acoustic wave through a medium such as a gas, liquid, or solid. Sound waves alternately compress and decompress the medium as the wave travels. In water, sound waves radiate in a manner similar to ripples on the surface of a pond and may be either directed in a beam (narrow beam or directional sources) or sound may radiate in all directions (omnidirectional sources), as is the case for sound produced by tugs under load with a jack-up rig considered here. The compressions and decompressions associated with sound waves are detected as changes in pressure by marine mammals and human-made sound receptors such as hydrophones.</P>
                    <P>Sound travels more efficiently in water than almost any other form of energy, making the use of sound as a primary sensory modality ideal for inhabitants of the aquatic environment. In seawater, sound travels at roughly 1,500 meters per second (m/s). In air, sound waves travel much more slowly at about 340 m/s. However, the speed of sound in water can vary by a small amount based on characteristics of the transmission medium such as temperature and salinity.</P>
                    <P>
                        The basic characteristics of a sound wave are frequency, wavelength, velocity, and amplitude. Frequency is the number of pressure waves that pass by a reference point per unit of time and is measured in Hz or cycles per second. Wavelength is the distance between two peaks or corresponding points of a sound wave (length of one cycle). Higher frequency sounds have shorter wavelengths than lower frequency sounds, and typically attenuate (decrease) more rapidly with distance, except in certain cases in shallower water. The amplitude of a sound pressure wave is related to the subjective “loudness” of a sound and is typically expressed in dB, which are a relative unit of measurement that is used to express the ratio of one value of a power or pressure to another. A sound pressure level (SPL) in dB is described as the ratio between a measured pressure and a reference pressure, and is a logarithmic unit that accounts for large variations in amplitude; therefore, a relatively small change in dB corresponds to large changes in sound pressure. For example, a 10-dB increase is a 10-fold increase in acoustic power. A 20-dB increase is then a 100-fold increase in power and a 30-dB increase is a 1,000-fold increase in power. However, a 10-fold increase in acoustic power does not mean that the sound is perceived as being 10 times louder. The dB is a relative unit comparing two pressures; therefore, a reference pressure must always be indicated. For underwater sound, this is 1 microPascal (μPa). For in-air sound, the reference pressure is 20 μPa. The amplitude of a sound can be presented in various ways; however, NMFS typically considers three metrics: sound exposure level (SEL), root-mean-square (RMS) SPL, and peak SPL (defined below). The source level represents the SPL referenced at a standard distance from the source, typically 1 m (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; American National Standards Institute (ANSI), 2013), while the received level is the SPL at the receiver's position. For 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34995"/>
                        tugging activities, the SPL is typically referenced at 1 m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        SEL (represented as dB referenced to 1 micropascal squared second (re 1 μPa
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        -s)) represents the total energy in a stated frequency band over a stated time interval or event, and considers both intensity and duration of exposure. SEL can also be a cumulative metric; it can be accumulated over a single pulse (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         during activities such as impact pile driving) or calculated over periods containing multiple pulses. Cumulative SEL (SEL
                        <E T="52">cum</E>
                        ) represents the total energy accumulated by a receiver over a defined time window or during an event. The SEL metric is useful because it allows sound exposures of different durations to be related to one another in terms of total acoustic energy. The duration of a sound event and the number of pulses, however, should be specified as there is no accepted standard duration over which the summation of energy is measured.
                    </P>
                    <P>RMS SPL is equal to 10 times the logarithm (base 10) of the ratio of the mean-square sound pressure to the specified reference value, and given in units of dB (International Organization for Standardization (ISO), 2017). RMS is calculated by squaring all of the sound amplitudes, averaging the squares, and then taking the square root of the average (Urick, 1983). RMS accounts for both positive and negative values; squaring the pressures makes all values positive so that they may be accounted for in the summation of pressure levels (Hastings and Popper, 2005). This measurement is often used in the context of discussing behavioral effects, in part because behavioral effects, which often result from auditory cues, may be better expressed through averaged units than by peak SPL. For impulsive sounds, RMS is calculated by the portion of the waveform containing 90 percent of the sound energy from the impulsive event (Madsen, 2005).</P>
                    <P>Peak SPL (also referred to as zero-to-peak sound pressure or 0-pk) is the maximum instantaneous sound pressure measurable in the water, which can arise from a positive or negative sound pressure, during a specified time, for a specific frequency range at a specified distance from the source, and is represented in the same units as the RMS sound pressure (ISO, 2017). Along with SEL, this metric is used in evaluating the potential for permanent threshold shift (PTS) and temporary threshold shift (TTS) associated with impulsive sound sources.</P>
                    <P>
                        Sounds are also characterized by their temporal components. Continuous sounds are those whose sound pressure level remains above that of the ambient or background sound with negligibly small fluctuations in level (ANSI, 2005) while intermittent sounds are defined as sounds with interrupted levels of low or no sound (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), 1998). A key distinction between continuous and intermittent sound sources is that intermittent sounds have a more regular (predictable) pattern of bursts of sounds and silent periods (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         duty cycle), which continuous sounds do not. Tugs under load are considered sources of continuous sound.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Sounds may be either impulsive or non-impulsive (defined below). The distinction between these two sound types is important because they have differing potential to cause physical effects, particularly with regard to noise-induced hearing loss (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Ward, 1997 in Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Please see NMFS (2018) and Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2007, 2019) for an in-depth discussion of these concepts.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Impulsive sound sources (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         explosions, gunshots, sonic booms, seismic airgun shots, impact pile driving) produce signals that are brief (typically considered to be less than 1 second), broadband, atonal transients (ANSI, 1986, 2005; NIOSH, 1998) and occur either as isolated events or repeated in some succession. Impulsive sounds are all characterized by a relatively rapid rise from ambient pressure to a maximal pressure value followed by a rapid decay period that may include a period of diminishing, oscillating maximal and minimal pressures, and generally have an increased capacity to induce physical injury as compared with sounds that lack these features. Impulsive sounds are intermittent in nature. The duration of such sounds, as received at a distance, can be greatly extended in a highly reverberant environment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Non-impulsive sounds can be tonal, narrowband, or broadband, brief or prolonged, and may be either continuous or non-continuous (ANSI, 1995; NIOSH, 1998). Some of these non-impulsive sounds can be transient signals of short duration but without the essential properties of impulses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         rapid rise time). Examples of non-impulsive sounds include those produced by vessels (including tugs under load), aircraft, machinery operations, such as drilling or dredging, and vibratory pile driving, and active sonar systems.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Even in the absence of sound from the specified activity, the underwater environment is characterized by sounds from both natural and anthropogenic sound sources. Ambient sound is defined as a composite of naturally-occurring (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         non-anthropogenic) sound from many sources both near and far (ANSI, 1995). Background sound is similar, but includes all sounds, including anthropogenic sounds, minus the sound produced by the proposed activities (NMFS, 2012, 2016a). The sound level of a region is defined by the total acoustical energy being generated by known and unknown sources. These sources may include physical (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         wind and waves, earthquakes, ice, atmospheric sound), biological (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         sounds produced by marine mammals, fish, and invertebrates), and anthropogenic (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         vessels, dredging, construction) sound.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A number of sources contribute to background and ambient sound, including wind and waves, which are a main source of naturally occurring ambient sound for frequencies between 200 Hz and 50 kHz (Mitson, 1995). In general, background and ambient sound levels tend to increase with increasing wind speed and wave height. Precipitation can become an important component of total sound at frequencies above 500 Hz, and possibly down to 100 Hz during quiet times. Marine mammals can contribute significantly to background and ambient sound levels, as can some fish and snapping shrimp. The frequency band for biological contributions is from approximately 12 Hz to over 100 kHz. Sources of background sound related to human activity include transportation (surface vessels), dredging and construction, oil and gas drilling and production, geophysical surveys, sonar, and explosions. Vessel noise typically dominates the total background sound for frequencies between 20 and 300 Hz. In general, the frequencies of many anthropogenic sounds, particularly those produced by construction activities, are below 1 kHz (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995). When sounds at frequencies greater than 1 kHz are produced, they generally attenuate relatively rapidly (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995), particularly above 20 kHz due to propagation losses and absorption (Urick, 1983).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Transmission loss (TL) defines the degree to which underwater sound has spread in space and lost energy after having moved through the environment and reached a receiver. It is defined as the reduction in a specified level between two specified points that are within an underwater acoustic field (ISO, 2017). Careful consideration of TL and appropriate propagation modeling is a crucial step in determining the impacts of underwater sound, as it helps to define the ranges (isopleths) to which 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34996"/>
                        impacts are expected and depends significantly on local environmental parameters such as seabed type, water depth (bathymetry), and the local speed of sound. Geometric spreading laws are powerful tools, which provide a simple means of estimating TL, based on the shape of the sound wave front in the water column. For a sound source that is equally loud in all directions and in deep water, the sound field takes the form of a sphere, as the sound extends in every direction uniformly. In this case, the intensity of the sound is spread across the surface of the sphere, and thus we can relate intensity loss to the square of the range (as area = 4
                        <SU>*</SU>
                        pi
                        <SU>*</SU>
                        r
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ). When TL = 20
                        <SU>*</SU>
                        Log
                        <E T="52">10</E>
                        (range), this situation is known as spherical spreading. In shallow water, the sea surface and seafloor will bound the shape of the sound, leading to a more cylindrical shape, as the top and bottom of the sphere is truncated by the largely reflective boundaries. This situation is termed cylindrical spreading, and is given by TL = 10
                        <SU>*</SU>
                        Log
                        <E T="52">10</E>
                        (range) (Urick, 1983). An intermediate scenario may be defined by the equation TL = 15
                        <SU>*</SU>
                        Log
                        <E T="52">10</E>
                        (range), and is referred to as practical spreading. Though these geometric spreading laws do not capture many often important details (scattering, absorption, 
                        <E T="03">etc.</E>
                        ), they offer a reasonable and simple approximation of how sound decreases in intensity as it is transmitted. Cook Inlet is a particularly complex acoustic environment with strong currents, large tides, variable sea floor and generally changing conditions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The sum of the various natural and anthropogenic sound sources at any given location and time depends not only on the source levels, but also on the propagation of sound through the environment. Sound propagation is dependent on the spatially and temporally varying properties of the water column and sea floor, and is frequency-dependent. As a result of the dependence on a large number of varying factors, background and ambient sound levels can be expected to vary widely over both coarse and fine spatial and temporal scales. Sound levels at a given frequency and location can vary by 10 to 20 dB from day to day (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995). The result is that, depending on the source type and its intensity, sound from a specified activity may be a negligible addition to the local environment or could form a distinctive signal that may affect marine mammals.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Description of Sound Sources for the Specified Activities</HD>
                    <P>In-water activities associated with the project that have the potential to incidentally take marine mammals through exposure to sound include impact pile driving, tugs under load with a jack-up rig, and tugs involved in anchor handling and pipe pulling. Impact hammers typically operate by repeatedly dropping and/or pushing a heavy piston onto a pile to drive the pile into the substrate. Sound generated by impact hammers is impulsive, characterized by rapid rise times and high peak levels, a potentially injurious combination (Hastings and Popper, 2005). Sound energy associated with tug use is produced by vessel propeller cavitation, a non-impulsive sound source. Bow thrusters, also a non-impulsive sound source, would be occasionally used for a short duration (20 to 30 seconds) to either push or pull a vessel in or away from a dock or platform. Other sound sources include onboard diesel generators and sound from the main engine, but both are subordinate to the thruster and main propeller blade rate harmonics (Gray and Greeley, 1980). The various tug scenarios that may occur during this project include tugs in a stationary mode positioning the drill rig and pulling the jack-up rig at nearly full power against strong tides, and tugs engaged in anchor handling and pipe pulling activities. Our assessments of the likelihood for harassment of marine mammals incidental to Hilcorp's tug activities specified here and in its take authorization request are conservative in light of the general Level B harassment exposure thresholds, the fact that NMFS is still in the process of developing analyses of the impact that non-quantitative contextual factors have on the likelihood of Level B harassment occurring, and the nature and duration of the particular tug activities analyzed here. Potential non-acoustic stressors could result from the physical presence of the equipment and personnel; however, given there are no known pinniped haul-out sites in the vicinity of the specified activity, visual and other non-acoustic stressors would be limited, and any impacts to marine mammals are expected to primarily be acoustic in nature.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Potential Effects of Underwater Sound on Marine Mammals</HD>
                    <P>
                        The introduction of underwater anthropogenic noise into the aquatic environment from impact pile driving and tugs towing, holding, and positioning a jack-up rig or engaging in pipe pulling or anchor handling is the primary means by which marine mammals may be disturbed from Hilcorp's specified activity. In general, animals exposed to natural or anthropogenic sound may experience physical and psychological effects, ranging in magnitude from none to severe (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2019). Exposure to anthropogenic noise has the potential to result in auditory threshold shifts and behavioral reactions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         avoidance, temporary cessation of foraging and vocalizing, changes in dive behavior). In addition to auditory implications, there exists the potential for non-auditory physical effects. Prolonged exposure to intense underwater sound associated with industrial activities may trigger physiological responses in marine mammals that are not observable to the eye, including stress, neurological effects, bubble formation, resonance effects, and various forms of organ or tissue damage (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995). Additional noise in a marine mammal's habitat can mask acoustic cues used to carry out daily functions, such as communication and predator and prey detection. The effects of noise on marine mammals are dependent on several factors, including but not limited to sound type (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         impulsive vs. non-impulsive), the species, age and sex class (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         adult male vs. mother with calf), duration of exposure, the distance between the vessel and the animal, received levels, behavior at time of exposure, and previous history with exposure (Wartzok 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Here we provide additional detail regarding potential impacts on marine mammals and their habitat from noise in general, starting with hearing impairment, as well as from Hilcorp's specified activities, to the degree available.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Hearing Threshold Shifts</HD>
                    <P>
                        Marine mammals, like all mammals, develop increased hearing thresholds over time due to age-related degeneration of auditory pathways and sensory cells of the inner ear. This natural, age-related hearing loss is contrasted with noise-induced hearing loss (Møller, 2013). Marine mammals exposed to high-intensity sound or to lower-intensity sound for prolonged periods can experience a noise-induced hearing threshold shift (TS), which NMFS defines as a change, usually an increase, in the threshold of audibility at a specified frequency or portion of an individual's hearing range above a previously established reference level as a result of noise exposure (NMFS, 2018, 2024). The amount of threshold shift is customarily expressed in dB. Noise-induced hearing TS can be temporary (TTS) or permanent (PTS), with higher-energy sound exposures (which considers both intensity and duration) 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34997"/>
                        are more likely to cause PTS or other auditory injury. As described in NMFS (2018, 2024) there are numerous factors to consider when examining the consequence of TS, including but not limited to the signal temporal pattern (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         impulsive or non-impulsive), likelihood an individual would be exposed for a long enough duration or to a high enough level to induce a TS, the magnitude of the TS, time to recovery (seconds to minutes or hours to days), the frequency range of the exposure (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         spectral content), the hearing frequency range of the exposed species relative to the signal's frequency spectrum (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         how animal uses sound within the frequency band of the signal; 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014), and the overlap between the animal and the source (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         spatial, temporal, and spectral).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Auditory Injury (AUD INJ).</E>
                         NMFS (2024) defines AUD INJ as damage to the inner ear that can result in destruction of tissue, such as the loss of cochlear neuron synapses or auditory neuropathy (Houser, 2021; Finneran, 2024). AUD INJ may or may not result in a PTS. PTS is defined as a permanent, irreversible increase in the threshold of audibility at a specified frequency or portion of an individual's hearing range above a previously established reference level (NMFS, 2024). PTS does not generally affect more than a limited frequency range, and an animal that has incurred PTS has some level of hearing loss at the relevant frequencies; thus typically animals with PTS or other AUD INJ are not functionally deaf (Au and Hastings, 2008; Finneran, 2016). For marine mammals, AUD INJ is considered possible when sound exposures are sufficient to produce 40 dB of TTS measured after exposure (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 1019). AUD INJ levels for marine mammals are estimates, as with the exception of a single study unintentionally inducing PTS in a harbor seal (Kastak 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008; Reichmuth 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019), there are no empirical data measuring AUD INJ in marine mammals largely due to the fact that, for various ethical reasons, experiments involving anthropogenic noise exposure at levels inducing AUD INJ are not typically pursued or authorized (NMFS, 2024).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Temporary Threshold Shift (TTS).</E>
                         TTS is the mildest form of hearing impairment that can occur during exposure to sound. TTS is a temporary, reversible increase in the threshold of audibility at a specified frequency or portion of an individual's hearing range above a previously established reference level (NMFS, 2024) that represents primarily tissue fatigue (Henderson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008), and is not considered an AUD INJ. Based on data from marine mammal TTS measurements (see Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2019), a TTS of 6 dB is considered the minimum threshold shift clearly larger than any day-to-day or session-to-session variation in a subject's normal hearing ability (Finneran 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000, 2002; Schlundt 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000). While experiencing TTS, the hearing threshold rises, meaning that a sound must be at a higher level in order to be heard. As described in Finneran (2015), marine mammal studies have shown the amount of TTS increases with SEL
                        <E T="52">cum</E>
                         in an accelerating fashion: at low exposures with lower SEL
                        <E T="52">cum</E>
                        , the amount of TTS is typically small and the growth curves have shallow slopes. At exposures with higher SEL
                        <E T="52">cum</E>
                        , the growth curves become steeper and approach linear relationships with the noise SEL.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In terrestrial and marine mammals, TTS can last from minutes or hours to days (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         there is recovery back to baseline/pre-exposure levels), can occur within a specific frequency range (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         an animal might only have a temporary loss of hearing sensitivity within a limited frequency band of its auditory range), and can be of varying amounts (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         an animal's hearing sensitivity might be reduced by only 6 dB or reduced by 30 dB). In many cases, hearing sensitivity recovers rapidly after exposure to the sound ends. While there are data on sound levels and durations necessary to elicit mild TTS for marine mammals, recovery is complicated to predict and dependent on multiple factors.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Depending on the degree (elevation of threshold in dB), duration (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         recovery time), and frequency range of TTS, and the context in which it is experienced, TTS can have effects on marine mammals ranging from discountable to serious (similar to those discussed in auditory masking, below). For example, a marine mammal may be able to readily compensate for a brief, relatively small amount of TTS in a non-critical frequency range that takes place during a time when the animal is traveling through the open ocean, where ambient noise is lower and there are not as many competing sounds present. Alternatively, a larger amount and longer duration of TTS sustained during time when communication is critical for successful mother/calf interactions could have more serious impacts. We note that reduced hearing sensitivity as a simple function of aging has been observed in marine mammals, as well as humans and other taxa (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007), so we can infer that strategies exist for coping with this condition to some degree, though likely not without cost.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Many studies have examined noise-induced hearing loss in marine mammals (see Finneran (2015) and Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2019) for summaries). TTS is the mildest form of hearing impairment that can occur during exposure to sound (Kryter, 2013). While experiencing TTS, the hearing threshold rises, and a sound must be at a higher level in order to be heard. In terrestrial and marine mammals, TTS can last from minutes or hours to days (in cases of strong TTS). In many cases, hearing sensitivity recovers rapidly after exposure to the sound ends. For cetaceans, published data on the onset of TTS are limited to captive bottlenose dolphin (
                        <E T="03">Tursiops truncatus</E>
                        ), beluga whale, harbor porpoise, and Yangtze finless porpoise (
                        <E T="03">Neophocoena asiaeorientalis</E>
                        ) (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). For pinnipeds in water, measurements of TTS are limited to harbor seals, elephant seals (
                        <E T="03">Mirounga angustirostris</E>
                        ), bearded seals (
                        <E T="03">Erignathus barbatus</E>
                        ), and California sea lions (Kastak 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1999, 2007; Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019b, 2019c, 2021, 2022a, 2022b; Reichmuth 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019; Sills 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020). TTS was not observed in spotted (
                        <E T="03">Phoca largha</E>
                        ) and ringed (
                        <E T="03">Pusa hispida</E>
                        ) seals exposed to single airgun impulse sounds at levels matching previous predictions of TTS onset (Reichmuth 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016). These studies examine hearing thresholds measured in marine mammals before and after exposure to intense or long-duration sound exposures. The difference between the pre-exposure and post-exposure thresholds can be used to determine the amount of threshold shift at various post-exposure times.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The amount and onset of TTS depends on the exposure frequency. Sounds below the region of best sensitivity for a species or hearing group are less hazardous than those near the region of best sensitivity (Finneran and Schlundt, 2013). At low frequencies, onset-TTS exposure levels are higher compared to those in the region of best sensitivity (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a low frequency noise would need to be louder to cause TTS onset when TTS exposure level is higher), as shown for harbor porpoises and harbor seals (Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019a, 2019c). Note that in general, harbor seals and harbor porpoises have a lower TTS onset than other measured pinniped and cetacean species (Finneran, 2015). In addition, TTS can accumulate across multiple exposures, but the resulting TTS will be less than the TTS from a single, continuous exposure with the same SEL (Mooney 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009; Finneran 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2010; 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34998"/>
                        Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014, 2015). This means that TTS predictions based on the total, cumulative SEL will overestimate the amount of TTS from intermittent exposures, such as sonars and impulsive sources. Nachtigall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2018) describe measurements of hearing sensitivity of multiple odontocete species (bottlenose dolphin, harbor porpoise, beluga, and false killer whale (
                        <E T="03">Pseudorca crassidens</E>
                        )) when a relatively loud sound was preceded by a warning sound. These captive animals were shown to reduce hearing sensitivity when warned of an impending intense sound. Based on these experimental observations of captive animals, the authors suggest that wild animals may dampen their hearing during prolonged exposures or if conditioned to anticipate intense sounds. Another study showed that echolocating animals (including odontocetes) might have anatomical specializations that might allow for conditioned hearing reduction and filtering of low-frequency ambient noise, including increased stiffness and control of middle ear structures and placement of inner ear structures (Ketten 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021). Data available on noise-induced hearing loss for mysticetes are currently lacking (NMFS, 2018). Additionally, the existing marine mammal TTS data come from a limited number of individuals within these species.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Relationships between TTS and PTS thresholds have not been studied in marine mammals, and there is no PTS data for cetaceans, but such relationships are assumed to be similar to those in humans and other terrestrial mammals. PTS typically occurs at exposure levels at least several decibels above that inducing mild TTS (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a 40-dB threshold shift approximates PTS onset (Kryter 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1966; Miller, 1974), while a 6-dB threshold shift approximates TTS onset (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2019). Based on data from terrestrial mammals, a precautionary assumption is that the PTS thresholds for impulsive sounds are at least 6 dB higher than the TTS threshold on a peak-pressure basis and PTS cumulative sound exposure level thresholds are 15 to 20 dB higher than TTS cumulative sound exposure level thresholds (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2019). Given the higher level of sound or longer exposure duration necessary to cause PTS as compared with TTS, it is considerably less likely that PTS could occur.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Non-acoustic Stressors.</E>
                         Hilcorp's specified activities could also involve non-acoustic stressors. Potential non-acoustic stressors could result from the physical presence of the equipment (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         tug and vessel configuration, pile driving equipment) and personnel; however, given there are no known pinniped haul-out sites in the vicinity of the project site, visual and other non-acoustic stressors would be limited, and any impacts to marine mammals are expected to primarily be acoustic in nature.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Behavioral Disturbance.</E>
                         Exposure to noise also has the potential to behaviorally disturb marine mammals to a level that rises to the definition of Level B harassment under the MMPA. Behavioral disturbance may include a variety of effects, including subtle changes in behavior (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         minor or brief avoidance of an area or changes in vocalizations), more conspicuous changes in similar behavioral activities, and more sustained and/or potentially severe reactions, such as displacement from or abandonment of high-quality habitat. Behavioral responses may include changing durations of surfacing and dives, changing direction and/or speed; reducing/increasing vocal activities; changing/cessation of certain behavioral activities (such as socializing or feeding); eliciting a visible startle response or aggressive behavior (such as tail/fin slapping or jaw clapping); and avoidance of areas where sound sources are located (Erbe 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). In addition, pinnipeds may increase their haul out time, possibly to avoid in-water disturbance (Thorson and Reyff, 2006).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Behavioral responses to sound are highly variable and context-specific and any reactions depend on numerous intrinsic and extrinsic factors (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         species, state of maturity, experience, current activity, reproductive state, auditory sensitivity, time of day), as well as the interplay between factors (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Wartzok 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2019; Weilgart, 2007; Archer 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2010; Erbe 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). Behavioral reactions can vary not only among individuals but also within an individual, depending on previous experience with a sound source, context, and numerous other factors (Ellison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012), and can vary depending on characteristics associated with the sound source (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         whether it is moving or stationary, number of sources, distance from the source). For example, animals that are resting may show greater behavioral change in response to disturbing sound levels than animals that are highly motivated to remain in an area for feeding (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Wartzok 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; National Research Council (NRC), 2005). In general, pinnipeds seem more tolerant of, or at least habituate more quickly to, potentially disturbing underwater sound than do cetaceans, and generally seem to be less responsive to exposure to industrial sound than most cetaceans. The biological significance of many of behavioral disturbances is difficult to predict, especially if the detected disturbances appear minor. However, the consequences of behavioral modification could be biologically significant if the change affects growth, survival, and/or reproduction, which depends on the severity, duration, and context of the effects. Please see appendices B and C of Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2007) and Gomez 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2016) for reviews of studies involving marine mammal behavioral responses to sound.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Habituation can occur when an animal's response to a stimulus wanes with repeated exposure, usually in the absence of unpleasant associated events (Wartzok 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004). Animals are most likely to habituate to sounds that are predictable and unvarying. It is important to note that habituation is appropriately considered as a “progressive reduction in response to stimuli that are perceived as neither aversive nor beneficial,” rather than as, more generally, moderation in response to human disturbance (Bejder 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). The opposite process is sensitization, when an unpleasant experience leads to subsequent responses, often in the form of avoidance, at a lower level of exposure.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Available studies show wide variation in response to underwater sound; therefore, it is difficult to predict specifically how any given sound in a particular instance might affect marine mammals perceiving the signal (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Erbe 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). If a marine mammal does react briefly to an underwater sound by changing its behavior or moving a small distance, the impacts of the change are unlikely to be significant to the individual, let alone the stock or population. If a sound source displaces marine mammals from an important feeding or breeding area for a prolonged period, impacts on individuals and populations could be significant (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Lusseau and Bejder, 2007; Weilgart, 2007; NRC, 2005). However, there are broad categories of potential response, which we describe in greater detail here, that include alteration of dive behavior, alteration of foraging behavior, effects to breathing, interference with or alteration of vocalization, avoidance, and flight.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Changes in dive behavior can vary widely and may consist of increased or decreased dive times and surface intervals as well as changes in the rates of ascent and descent during a dive (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Frankel and Clark, 2000; Costa 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Ng and Leung, 2003; Nowacek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Goldbogen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013a, 2013b, Blair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016). Variations in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="34999"/>
                        dive behavior may reflect interruptions in biologically significant activities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         foraging) or they may be of little biological significance. The impact of an alteration to dive behavior resulting from an acoustic exposure depends on what the animal is doing at the time of the exposure and the type and magnitude of the response.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Disruption of feeding behavior from anthropogenic sound exposure is usually inferred by observed displacement from known foraging areas, the appearance of secondary indicators (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         bubble nets or sediment plumes), or changes in dive behavior. Acoustic and movement bio-logging tools also have been used in some cases to infer responses to anthropogenic noise. For example, Blair 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2016) reported significant effects on humpback whale foraging behavior in Stellwagen Bank in response to ship noise including slower descent rates, and fewer side-rolling events per dive with increasing ship nose. In addition, Wisniewska 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2018) reported that tagged harbor porpoises demonstrated fewer prey capture attempts when encountering occasional high-noise levels resulting from vessel noise as well as more vigorous fluking, interrupted foraging, and cessation of echolocation signals observed in response to some high-noise vessel passes. In addition, harbor porpoises trained to collect fish during playback of impact pile driving sounds also showed potential changes in behavior and task success, though individual differences were prevalent (Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019d). As for other types of behavioral response, the frequency, duration, and temporal pattern of signal presentation, as well as differences in species sensitivity, are likely contributing factors to differences in response in any given circumstance (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Croll 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001; Nowacek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Madsen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006; Yazvenko 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). A determination of whether foraging disruptions incur fitness consequences would require information on or estimates of the energetic requirements of the affected individuals and the relationships among prey availability, foraging effort and success, and the life history stage(s) of the animal.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Variations in respiration naturally vary with different behaviors and alterations to breathing rate as a function of acoustic exposure can be expected to co-occur with other behavioral reactions, such as a flight response or an alteration in diving. However, respiration rates in and of themselves may be representative of annoyance or an acute stress response. Various studies have shown that respiration rates may either be unaffected or could increase, depending on the species and signal characteristics, again highlighting the importance in understanding species differences in the tolerance of underwater noise when determining the potential for impacts resulting from anthropogenic sound exposure (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001, 2005, 2006; Gailey 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). For example, harbor porpoise respiration rate increased in response to pile driving sounds at and above a received broadband SPL of 136 dB (zero-peak SPL: 151 dB re 1 μPa; SEL of a single strike: 127 dB re 1 μPa
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        -s) (Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Avoidance is the displacement of an individual from an area or migration path as a result of the presence of a sound or other stressors, and is one of the most obvious manifestations of disturbance in marine mammals (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995). For example, gray whales are known to change direction—deflecting from customary migratory paths—in order to avoid noise from seismic surveys (Malme 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1984). Harbor porpoises, Atlantic white-sided dolphins (
                        <E T="03">Lagenorhynchus actusus</E>
                        ), and minke whales have demonstrated avoidance in response to vessels during line transect surveys (Palka and Hammond, 2001). In addition, beluga whales in the St. Lawrence Estuary in Canada have been reported to increase levels of avoidance with increased boat presence by way of increased dive durations and swim speeds, decreased surfacing intervals, and by bunching together into groups (Blane and Jaakson, 1994). Possible avoidance of pile driving activities has also been documented in species such as harbor porpoises (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Dähne 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013, Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013, Degraer 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022) and harbor seals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Russel 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016). Avoidance may be short-term, with animals returning to the area once the noise has ceased (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Bowles 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1994; Goold, 1996; Stone 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000; Morton and Symonds, 2002; Gailey 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Longer-term displacement is possible, however, which may lead to changes in abundance or distribution patterns of the affected species in the affected region if habituation to the presence of the sound does not occur (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Blackwell 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Bejder 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006; Teilmann 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A flight response is a dramatic change in normal movement to a directed and rapid movement away from the perceived location of a sound source. The flight response differs from other avoidance responses in the intensity of the response (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         directed movement, rate of travel). Relatively little information on flight responses of marine mammals to anthropogenic signals exists, although observations of flight responses to the presence of predators have occurred (Connor and Heithaus, 1996; Bowers 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). The result of a flight response could range from brief, temporary exertion and displacement from the area where the signal provokes flight to, in extreme cases, marine mammal strandings (England 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001). However, it should be noted that response to a perceived predator does not necessarily invoke flight (Ford and Reeves, 2008), and whether individuals are solitary or in groups may influence the response.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Behavioral disturbance can also impact marine mammals in more subtle ways. Increased vigilance may result in costs related to diversion of focus and attention (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         when a response consists of increased vigilance, it may come at the cost of decreased attention to other critical behaviors such as foraging or resting). Studies involving fishes and terrestrial animals have shown that increased vigilance may substantially reduce feeding rates (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Beauchamp and Livoreil, 1997; Fritz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2002; Purser and Radford, 2011). Ridgway 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2006) reported that increased vigilance in bottlenose dolphins exposed to sound over a 5-day period did not cause any sleep deprivation or stress effects.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Many animals perform vital functions, such as feeding, resting, traveling, and socializing, on a diel cycle (24-hour cycle). Disruption of such functions resulting from reactions to stressors such as sound exposure are more likely to be significant if they last more than one diel cycle or recur on subsequent days (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). That is, chronic disturbance can cause population declines through reduction of fitness (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         decline in body condition) and subsequent reduction in reproductive success, survival, or both (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Harrington and Veitch, 1992; Daan 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1996; Bradshaw 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1998). Consequently, a behavioral response lasting less than 1 day and not recurring on subsequent days is not considered particularly severe unless it could directly affect reproduction or survival (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Note that there is a difference between multi-day substantive (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         meaningful) behavioral reactions and multi-day anthropogenic activities. For example, just because an activity lasts for multiple days does not necessarily mean that individual animals are either exposed to activity-related stressors for multiple days or, further, exposed in a manner resulting in sustained multi-day substantive behavioral responses.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35000"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Stress Responses.</E>
                         An animal's perception of a threat may be sufficient to trigger stress responses consisting of some combination of behavioral responses, autonomic nervous system responses, neuroendocrine responses, or immune responses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Selye, 1950; Moberg, 2000). In many cases, an animal's first and sometimes most economical (in terms of energetic costs) response is behavioral avoidance of the potential stressor. Autonomic nervous system responses to stress typically involve changes in heart rate, blood pressure, and gastrointestinal activity. These responses have a relatively short duration and may or may not have a significant long-term effect on an animal's fitness.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Neuroendocrine stress responses often involve the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal system. Virtually all neuroendocrine functions that are affected by stress—including immune competence, reproduction, metabolism, and behavior—are regulated by pituitary hormones. Stress-induced changes in the secretion of pituitary hormones have been implicated in failed reproduction, altered metabolism, reduced immune competence, and behavioral disturbance (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Moberg, 1987; Blecha, 2000). Increases in the circulation of glucocorticoids are also equated with stress (Romano 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004).
                    </P>
                    <P>The primary distinction between stress (which is adaptive and does not normally place an animal at risk) and “distress” is the cost of the response. During a stress response, an animal uses glycogen stores that can be quickly replenished once the stress is alleviated. In such circumstances, the cost of the stress response would not pose serious fitness consequences. However, when an animal does not have sufficient energy reserves to satisfy the energetic costs of a stress response, energy resources must be diverted from other functions. This state of distress will last until the animal replenishes its energetic reserves sufficient to restore normal function.</P>
                    <P>
                        Relationships between these physiological mechanisms, animal behavior, and the costs of stress responses are well-studied through controlled experiments and for both laboratory and free-ranging animals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Holberton 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1996; Hood 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1998; Jessop 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Krausman 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Lankford 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005). Stress responses due to exposure to anthropogenic sounds or other stressors and their effects on marine mammals have also been reviewed (Fair and Becker, 2000; Romano 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2002b) and, more rarely, studied in wild populations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Romano 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2002a). For example, Rolland 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012) found that noise reduction from reduced ship traffic in the Bay of Fundy was associated with decreased stress in North Atlantic right whales. In addition, Lemos 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2022) observed a correlation between higher levels of fecal glucocorticoid metabolite concentrations (indicative of a stress response) and vessel traffic in gray whales. These and other studies lead to a reasonable expectation that some marine mammals will experience physiological stress responses upon exposure to acoustic stressors and that it is possible that some of these would be classified as “distress.” In addition, any animal experiencing TTS would likely also experience stress responses (NRC, 2005). Based on marine mammal behavior observed during pile driving projects in Cook Inlet and previous monitoring by Hilcorp and other ITA holders, marine mammals exposed to noise from Hilcorp's activities are unlikely to experience a high degree of stress.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Norman (2011) reviewed environmental and anthropogenic stressors for CIBWs. Lyamin 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2011) determined that the heart rate of a beluga whale increases in response to noise, depending on the frequency and intensity. Acceleration of heart rate in the beluga whale is the first component of the “acoustic startle response.” Romano 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2004) demonstrated that captive beluga whales exposed to high-level impulsive sounds (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         seismic airgun and/or single pure tones up to 201 dB RMS) resembling sonar pings showed increased stress hormone levels of norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine when TTS was reached. Thomas 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1990) exposed beluga whales to playbacks of an oil-drilling platform in operation (“Sedco 708,” 40 Hz-20 kHz; source level 153 dB). Ambient SPL at ambient conditions in the pool before playbacks was 106 dB and 134 to 137 dB RMS during playbacks at the monitoring hydrophone across the pool. All cell and platelet counts and 21 different blood chemicals, including epinephrine and norepinephrine, were within normal limits throughout baseline and playback periods, and stress response hormone levels did not increase immediately after playbacks. The difference between the Romano 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2004) and Thomas 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1990) studies could be the differences in the type of sound (seismic airgun and/or tone versus oil drilling), the intensity and duration of the sound, the individual's response, and the surrounding circumstances of the individual's environment. The sounds in the Thomas 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1990) study would be more similar to those anticipated by Hilcorp's tugs under load with a jack-up rig; therefore, no more than short-term, low-hormone stress responses, if any, of CIBWs or other marine mammals are expected as a result of exposure to noise during tugs under load with a jack-up rig during Hilcorp's planned activities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Auditory Masking.</E>
                         Acoustic masking is when other noises such as from human sources interfere with an animal's ability to detect, recognize, or discriminate between acoustic signals of interest (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         those used for intraspecific communication and social interactions, prey detection, predator avoidance, navigation) (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Erbe 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016). Since many marine mammals rely on sound to find prey, moderate social interactions, and facilitate mating (Tyack, 2008), noise from anthropogenic sound sources can interfere with these functions, but only if the noise spectrum overlaps with the hearing sensitivity of the receiving marine mammal (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Clark 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009; Hatch 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012). For example, Brewer 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2023) investigated masking of CIBW calls in the 0-12 kHz range by commercial ship noise and found that all seven of the most common call types in the CIBW repertoire were partially masked by distant commercial ship noise and completely masked by close commercial ship noise in the 0-12 kHz range. Chronic exposure to excessive, though not high-intensity, noise could cause masking at particular frequencies for marine mammals that utilize sound for vital biological functions (Clark 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). Therefore, under certain circumstances, marine mammals whose acoustical sensors or environment are being severely masked could also be impaired from maximizing their performance fitness for survival and reproduction. The ability of a noise source to mask biologically important sounds depends on the characteristics of both the noise source and the signal of interest (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         signal-to-noise ratio, temporal variability, direction), in relation to each other and to an animal's hearing abilities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         sensitivity, frequency range, critical ratios, frequency discrimination, directional discrimination, age or TTS hearing loss), and existing ambient noise and propagation conditions (Hotchkin and Parks, 2013).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Marine mammals vocalize for different purposes and across multiple modes, such as whistling, echolocation click production, calling, and singing. Changes in vocalization behavior in response to anthropogenic noise can occur for any of these modes and may 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35001"/>
                        result from a need to compete with an increase in background noise or may reflect increased vigilance or a startle response. For example, in the presence of potentially masking signals, humpback whales and killer whales have been observed to increase the length of their songs (Miller 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000; Fristrup 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003) or vocalizations (Foote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004), respectively, while North Atlantic right whales (
                        <E T="03">Eubalaena glacialis</E>
                        ) have been observed to shift the frequency content of their calls upward while reducing the rate of calling in areas of increased anthropogenic noise (Parks 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Blue whales in California have been observed to shift their call frequencies downward by 31 percent since the 1960s to effectively communicate below the sound frequency generated by propeller cavitation from ships (McDonald 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995). Fin whales have also been documented lowering the bandwidth, peak frequency, and center frequency of their vocalizations under increased levels of background noise from large vessels (Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012) and reducing their calling rate in response to sound from boats (Watkins, 1986). Other alterations to communication signals have also been observed. For example, gray whales, in response to playback experiments exposing them to vessel noise, have been observed increasing their vocalization rate and producing louder signals at times of increased outboard engine noise (Dahlheim and Castellote, 2016). Alternatively, in some cases, animals may cease sound production during production of aversive signals (Bowles 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1994; Wisniewska 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018).
                    </P>
                    <P>Under certain circumstances, marine mammals experiencing significant masking could also be impaired from maximizing their performance fitness in survival and reproduction. Therefore, when the coincident (masking) sound is human-made, it may be considered harassment when disrupting or altering critical behaviors. It is important to distinguish TTS and PTS, which persist after the sound exposure, from masking, which occurs only during the sound exposure. Because masking (without resulting in TS) is not associated with abnormal physiological function, it is not considered a physiological effect, but rather a potential behavioral effect (though not necessarily one that would be considered harassment).</P>
                    <P>
                        The frequency range of the potentially masking sound is important in determining any potential behavioral impacts. For example, low-frequency signals have less potential to interfere with the detection of high-frequency echolocation sounds produced by odontocetes than detection of mysticete communication calls and other potentially important natural sounds such as those produced by surf and some prey species. The masking of communication signals by anthropogenic noise may be considered as a reduction in the communication space of animals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Clark 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009) and may result in energetic or other costs as animals change their vocalization behavior (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Miller 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000; Foote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Parks 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Di Iorio and Clark, 2010; Holt 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). Masking can be reduced in situations where the signal and noise come from different directions (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995), through amplitude modulation of the signal, or through other compensatory behaviors (Hotchkin and Parks, 2013).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Marine mammals at or near where Hilcorp would conduct activities may be exposed to anthropogenic noise, which may be a source of masking. Vocalization changes may result from a need to compete with an increase in background noise and include increasing the source level, modifying the frequency, increasing the call repetition rate of vocalizations, or ceasing to vocalize in the presence of increased noise (Hotchkin and Parks, 2013). For example, in response to vessel noise, CIBWs may shift the frequency of their echolocation clicks and communication signals, reduce their overall calling rates, and or increase the emission of certain call signals to prevent masking by anthropogenic noise (Lesage 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1999; Tyack, 2000; Eickmeier and Vallarta, 2022).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Masking occurs in the frequency band that the animals utilize, and is more likely to occur in the presence of broadband, relatively continuous noise sources such as tugging. Since noises generated from tugs towing and positioning are mostly concentrated at low frequency ranges, with a small concentration in high frequencies as well, these activities likely have less effect on mid-frequency echolocation sounds by odontocetes (toothed whales) such as CIBWs. However, lower frequency noises are more likely to affect detection of communication calls and other potentially important natural sounds such as surf and prey noise. Low-frequency noise may also affect communication signals when they occur near the frequency band for noise and thus reduce the communication space of animals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Clark 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009) and cause increased stress levels (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Holt 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). Unlike TS, masking, which can occur over large temporal and spatial scales, can potentially affect the species at population, community, or even ecosystem levels, in addition to individual levels. Masking affects both senders and receivers of the signals, and at higher levels for longer durations could have long-term chronic effects on marine mammal species and populations. However, the noise generated by the tugs will not be concentrated in one location or for more than 5 hours per positioning attempt, and up to two positioning attempts at the same site. Thus, while Hilcorp's activities may mask some acoustic signals that are relevant to the daily behavior of marine mammals, the short-term duration and limited areas affected make it very unlikely that the fitness of individual marine mammals would be impacted.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In consideration of the range of potential effects (AUD INJ to behavioral disturbance), we consider the potential exposure scenarios and context in which species would be exposed to noise from tug-related activities and pile driving. Tugs engaged in towing, holding, and positioning a jack-up rig, anchor handling, or pipe pulling are slow-moving as compared to typical recreational and commercial vessel traffic. Slow-moving vessels may be tolerated by some whales while other individuals may deflect around vessels and continue on their migratory path. Marine mammal responses to mobile non-impulsive sound from vessel traffic are typically associated with sound that is generated by changes in the engine and propeller speed (Wartzok 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1989; Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995). Whales have been known to tolerate slow-moving vessels within several hundred meters, especially when the vessel is not directed toward the animal and when there are no sudden changes in direction or engine speed (Wartzok 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1989, Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995, Heide-Jørgensen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003). Additionally, visual cues may also contribute to responses from marine mammals to vessel traffic (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995). Assuming an animal was stationary, exposure from the moving tug configuration (which comprises most of the tug activity being considered) would be in the order of minutes in any particular location. The slow, predictable, and generally straight path of these activities are expected to further lessen the likelihood that sound exposures at the expected levels would result in the harassment of marine mammals. Also, this slow transit along a predictable path is also planned in an area of routine vessel traffic where many large vessels move in slow straight-line paths, and some individuals are 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35002"/>
                        expected to be habituated to these sorts of sounds. Based on these characteristics of the sound source and the other activities regularly encountered in the area, it is unlikely an animal will exhibit a disruption of behavioral patterns.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In response to pile driving, marine mammals may alter their use of the area (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         faster passage through, erratic behavior within, or avoidance of the area all together), and/or demonstrate changes in vocal behavior, hunting, feeding, breeding, calving, and other social interactions. However, severe responses to Hilcorp's pile driving activity are not anticipated. In upper Cook Inlet, the POA has recently completed several years of marine mammal monitoring efforts during impact and vibratory pile driving activities related to the POA Modernization Program (PAMP) (61N Environmental, 2021, 2022a, 2022b, 2022c, 2025). Behavioral reactions to pile driving have not been reported in non-CIBW species during the POA monitoring efforts. During POA's Petroleum and Cement Terminal (PCT) construction, 81 harbor seals were observed within estimated Level B harassment zones associated with vibratory and impact installation and removal of 36-in (61-cm) and 144-in (366-cm) piles, and 5 harbor seals were observed within estimated Level A harassment zones during the installation of 144-in (366-cm) piles. No observable behavioral reactions were observed in any of these seals (61N Environmental, 2021, 2022a). One harbor porpoise was observed within the estimated Level B harassment zone during vibratory driving of a 36-in (61-cm) pile in May 2021. The animal was traveling at a moderate pace. No observable reactions to pile driving were noted by the PSOs. Another harbor porpoise near the border of (and may have been within) the estimated Level B harassment zone during the impact installation of 36-in (61-cm) piles in June 2021, but PSOs did not record any behavioral responses of this individual to the pile driving activities. Similarly 13 harbor seals observed within estimated Level B harassment zones associated with pile driving 36-in (61-cm) piles during POA's South Floating Dock (SFD) construction did not exhibit observable behavioral reactions (61N Environmental, 2022b). During vibratory pile installation and removal in 2024, the predominant behaviors for harbor seals were “looking” and “sinking,” accounting for 64.6 percent and 44.4 percent of the primary and secondary behaviors recorded. No behavioral reactions in response to vibratory noise were recorded (61N Environmental, 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>Specific to CIBWs, several years of marine mammal monitoring data demonstrate behavioral responses to pile driving at the POA. Previous pile driving activities at the POA include the installation and removal of sheet piles, the vibratory and impact installation of 24-in (61-cm), 36-in (91-cm), 48-in (122-cm), and 144-in (366-cm) pipe piles, and the vibratory installation of 72-in (182-cm) air bubble casings.</P>
                    <P>
                        Kendall and Cornick (2015) provide a comprehensive overview of 4 years of scientific marine mammal monitoring conducted before (2005-2006) and during the POA's Marine Terminal Redevelopment Project (MTRP; 2008-2009). These were observations made by biologists at Alaska Pacific University, funded by the POA and other groups but independent of the POA's required monitoring for pile driving activities (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         not construction based PSOs). The authors investigated CIBW behavior before and during pile driving activity at the POA. Sighting rates, mean sighting duration, behavior, mean group size, group composition, and group formation were compared between the two periods. A total of about 2,329 hours of sampling effort was completed across 349 days from 2005 to 2009. Overall, 687 whales in 177 groups were documented during the 69 days that whales were sighted. A total of 353 and 1,663 hours of pile driving took place in 2008 and 2009, respectively. There was no relationship between monthly CIBW sighting rates and monthly pile driving rates (
                        <E T="03">r</E>
                         = 0.19, 
                        <E T="03">p</E>
                         = 0.37). Sighting rates before (n = 12; 0.06 ± 0.01) and during (n = 13; 0.01 ± 0.03) pile driving were not significantly different. However, sighting duration of CIBWs decreased significantly during pile driving (39 ± 6 minutes before and 18 ± 3 minutes during). There were also significant differences in behavior before versus during pile driving. CIBWs primarily traveled through the study area both before and during pile driving; however, traveling increased relative to other behaviors during pile driving. Documentation of milling was observed on 21 occasions during pile driving. Mean group size decreased during pile driving; however, this difference was not statistically significant. In addition, group composition was significantly different before and during pile driving, with more white (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         likely older) animals being present during pile driving (Kendall and Cornick, 2015). CIBWs were primarily observed densely packed before and during pile driving; however, the number of densely packed groups increased by approximately 67 percent during pile driving. There were also significant increases in the number of dispersed groups (approximately 81 percent) and lone whales (approximately 60 percent) present during pile driving than before pile driving (Kendall and Cornick, 2015).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        During PCT and SFD construction monitoring, behaviors of CIBWs groups were compared by month and by construction activity (61N Environmental, 2021, 2022a, 2022b). Little variability was evident in the behaviors recorded from month to month or among sightings that coincided with in-water pile installation and removal and those that did not (61N Environmental, 2021, 2022a). Definitive behavioral reactions to in-water pile driving or avoidance behaviors were not documented; however, potential reactions (where a group reversed its trajectory shortly after the start of in-water pile driving occurred; a group reversed its trajectory as it got closer to the sound source during active in-water pile driving; or upon an initial sighting, a group was already moving away from in-water pile driving, raising the possibility that it had been moving towards, but was only sighted after they turned away) and instances where CIBWs moved toward active in-water pile driving were recorded. During these instances, impact driving appeared to cause potential behavioral reactions more readily than vibratory hammering (61N Environmental, 2021, 2022a, 2022b). One minor difference documented during PCT construction was a slightly higher incidence of milling behavior and diving during the periods of no pile driving and slightly higher rates of traveling behavior during periods when potential CIBW behavioral reactions to pile driving, as described above, were recorded (61N Environmental, 2021, 2022a). Note, narratives of each CIBW reaction can be found in the appendices of the POA's final monitoring reports (61N Environmental, 2021, 2022a, 2022b). During vibratory pile installation and removal in 2024, PSOs observed 433 CIBW groups during monitoring, 205 of which were observed during pile driving or removal or within 10 minutes of the activity concluding. No visible or overt avoidance behaviors or reactions to the project activities were recorded although 33 groups were categorized as potential reactions because they moved away (or were first sighted moving away) from the site during vibratory, 63 had no discernable reaction, and 109 moved toward activities during a portion of the sighting.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35003"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Saxon-Kendall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2013) recorded echolocation clicks (which can be indicative of feeding behavior) during the MTRP at the POA both while pile driving was occurring and when it was not. This indicates that while feeding is not a predominant behavior that PSOs visually observed in CIBWs sighted near the POA (61N Environmental, 2021, 2022a, 2022b, 2022c, 2025; Easley-Appleyard and Leonard, 2022), CIBWs can and still exhibit feeding behaviors during pile driving activities. In addition, Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2020) found low echolocation detection rates in lower Knik Arm (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         Six Mile, Port MacKenzie, and Cairn Point) and suggested that CIBWs moved through that area relatively quickly when entering or exiting Knik Arm. No whistles or noisy vocalizations were recorded during the MTRP construction activities; however, it is possible that persistent noise associated with construction activity at the MTR project masked beluga vocalizations and or that CIBWs did not use these communicative signals when they were near the MTRP (Saxon-Kendall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Recently, McHuron 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2023) developed a model to predict general patterns related to the movement and foraging decisions of pregnant CIBWs in Cook Inlet. They found that the effects of disturbance from human activities, such as pile driving activities occurring at the POA assuming no mitigation measures, are inextricably linked with prey availability. If prey are abundant during the summer and early fall and prey during winter is above some critical threshold, pregnant CIBWs can likely cope with intermittent disruptions such as those produced by pile driving at the POA (McHuron 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). However, they stress that more information needs to be acquired regarding CIBW prey and CIBW body condition, specifically in their critical habitat, to better understand possible behavioral responses to disturbance.
                    </P>
                    <P>Blackwell and Greene (2003) observed CIBWs swimming in close proximity to a Northern Lights freighter ship that was docked with the motors running (126 dB re 1µPa) at the POA, indicating that sound from the ship did not significantly affect the whales, who may have become accustomed to high background sound levels in Cook Inlet.</P>
                    <P>In relation to Hilcorp's planned activities, CIBWs may be present (in low numbers) during the work; therefore, some individuals may be reasonably expected to be exposed to elevated sound levels, including briefly those that exceed the Level B harassment thresholds for continuous or impulsive noise. However, CIBWs are expected to be transiting through the area, given this work is proposed primarily in middle Cook Inlet (as described in the Description of Marine Mammals in the Area of Specified Activities section), thereby limiting exposure duration or exposure during critical behaviors, as CIBWs in the area are expected to be headed to or from the concentrated foraging areas farther north near the Beluga River, Susitna Delta, and Knik and Turnigan Arms. Similarly, humpback whales, fin whales, minke whales, gray whales, killer whales, California sea lion, and Steller sea lions are not expected to remain in the work area. Dall's porpoise, harbor porpoise, and harbor seal have been sighted with more regularity than many other species during oil and gas activities in Cook Inlet but due to the transitory nature of these species, they are unlikely to remain close to the planned activities for the full duration of the noise-producing activity. For example, during Hilcorp's jack-up rig-based monitoring efforts in 2023, only one Dall's porpoise, two harbor seals, and one harbor porpoise were observed across four different sightings, and observations only lasted 1 to 5 minutes (Horsley and Larson, 2023).</P>
                    <P>
                        Given most marine mammals are likely transiting through the area, exposure is expected to be brief but the combination of the actual presence and configuration of the tugs and rig configuration as well as the presence of impact pile driving may result in animals shifting pathways around the work site (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         avoidance), increasing speed or dive times, changing their group formations, or altering their acoustic signals. The likelihood of no more than short-term, localized disturbance responses is supported by data from Hilcorp's previous jack-up rig-based monitoring efforts in 2023, which reported no observable reactions to the towing activities outside of two harbor seals diving. Further, other data indicate CIBWs and other marine mammals regularly pass by industrialized areas such as the POA, including during periods of active impact and vibratory pile driving (61N Environmental, 2021, 2022a, 2022b, 2022c, 2025; Easley-Appleyard and Leonard, 2022); therefore, we do not expect abandonment of their transiting route or other disruptions of their behavioral patterns. We also anticipate some animals may respond with such mild reactions to the project that the response would not be detectable. For example, during low levels of tug power output (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         while tugs may be operating at low power because of favorable conditions), the animals may be able to hear the work but any resulting reactions, if any, are not expected to rise to the level of take.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Potential Effects on Marine Mammal Habitat</HD>
                    <P>
                        Hilcorp's proposed activities could have localized, temporary impacts on marine mammal habitat, including prey, by increasing in-water sound pressure levels, and for pile driving, slightly decreasing water quality and disturbing the sea floor. All production drilling would be accomplished through existing well structures. The production well development would involve driving ten 76.2-cm (30-in) diameter (or smaller) steel piles into sediment surrounding the existing platform legs. The total area of soft substrate loss as a result of production well development at the Tyonek Platform is estimated to be 3.04 m
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         (32.71 ft
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ). The Spartan-151 jack-up rig has three spudcans (legs) that would make contact with the seafloor. Each spudcan has a diameter measuring 10.6 m (34 ft 8-3/4 in). The spudcans, anchors, and pipe connecting with the seafloor may result in compaction of the sediments. Additionally, some burial and smothering of benthic species may occur temporarily within a radius of approximately 500 m (0.78 km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ) around the production well development site. The strong tidal actions and currents within Cook Inlet, however, would likely resuspend and disperse sediment plumes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        During jack-up rig operations, the Spartan 151 drill rig is estimated to disturb approximately 0.01 km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         (2.5 acres) of seafloor during rig placement and removal activities at a given site (BOEM 2017). During exploratory drilling one 76.2-cm (30-in) diameter steel pile will be driven at each well site: 2—at the MGS Unit and 1—between the Anna and Bruce platforms. Seafloor disturbance from jack-up rig legs and pile driving would have a relatively small footprint in comparison to the entire seafloor of the action area. Some burials and smothering of benthic species may occur within close proximity to the well sites. Sediment resuspension may also occur, although the tidal complexities within Cook Inlet would negate any potential long-term resuspension effects. Local tides and currents disperse suspended sediments at a moderate to rapid rate depending on tidal stage. The total area likely impacted by Hilcorp's activities is relatively small compared to the available habitat in Cook Inlet, and no habitat known to be of particular importance would be impacted.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35004"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Increased noise levels may affect acoustic habitat and adversely affect marine mammal prey in the vicinity of Hilcorp's specified activities (see discussion below). Elevated levels of underwater noise would ensonify where both fishes and mammals occur and could affect foraging success. Avoidance by potential prey (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         fish) or marine mammals of the immediate area due to increased noise is possible. The duration of fish and marine mammal avoidance of this area after Hilcorp's activities stop is unknown, but a rapid return to normal recruitment, distribution, and behavior is anticipated. Any behavioral avoidance by fish or marine mammals of the disturbed area is expected to be temporary, would still leave significantly large areas of fish and marine mammal foraging habitat in the nearby vicinity, and is not expected to result in long-term effects to the individuals or populations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Potential Effects on Prey.</E>
                         Sound may affect marine mammals through impacts on the abundance, behavior, or distribution of prey species (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         crustaceans, cephalopods, fishes, zooplankton). Marine mammal prey varies by species, season, and location and, for some, is not well documented. Studies regarding the effects of noise on known marine mammal prey are described here. Key impacts to fishes may include behavioral responses, hearing damage, barotrauma (pressure-related injuries), and mortality.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Fishes utilize the soundscape and components of sound in their environment to perform important functions such as foraging, predator avoidance, mating, and spawning (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Zelick 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1999; Fay, 2009). Depending on their hearing anatomy and peripheral sensory structures, which vary among species, fishes hear sounds using pressure and particle motion sensitivity capabilities and detect the motion of surrounding water (Fay 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008). The potential effects of noise on fishes depends on the overlapping frequency range, distance from the sound source, water depth of exposure, and species-specific hearing sensitivity, anatomy, and physiology. Reactions also depend on the physiological state of the fish, past exposures, motivation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         feeding, spawning, migration), and other environmental factors.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Fish react to sounds that are especially strong and/or intermittent low-frequency sounds, and behavioral responses such as flight or avoidance are the most likely effects. Short duration, sharp sounds can cause overt or subtle changes in fish behavior and local distribution. The reaction of fish to noise depends on the physiological state of the fish, past exposures, motivation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         feeding, spawning, migration), and other environmental factors. Hastings and Popper (2005) identified several studies that suggest fish may relocate to avoid certain areas of sound energy. Additional studies have documented effects of pile driving on fish; several are based on studies in support of large, multiyear bridge construction projects (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Scholik and Yan 2001, 2002; Popper and Hastings 2009). Several studies have demonstrated that impulse sounds might affect the distribution and behavior of some fishes, potentially impacting foraging opportunities or increasing energetic costs (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Fewtrell and McCauley 2012; Pearson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1992; Skalski 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1992; Santulli 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1999; Paxton 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017). However, some studies have shown no or slight reaction to impulse sounds (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Pena 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013; Wardle 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001; Jorgenson and Gyselman 2009).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        SPLs of sufficient strength have been known to cause injury to fishes and fish mortality (summarized in Popper 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014). However, in most fish species, hair cells in the ear continuously regenerate and loss of auditory function likely is restored when damaged cells are replaced with new cells. Halvorsen 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012) showed that a TTS of 4 to 6 dB was recoverable within 24 hours for one species. Impacts would be most severe when the individual fish is close to the source and when the duration of exposure is long. Injury caused by barotrauma can range from slight to severe and can cause death, and is most likely for fish with swim bladders. Barotrauma injuries have been documented during controlled exposure to impact pile driving (Halvorsen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012; Casper 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For pile driving, the most likely impact to fishes at the project site would be temporary avoidance of the area, although alarm responses, including an increase in swimming speed and changes in ventilation and hear rate, could occur (Popper 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). The duration of fish avoidance of this area or an alarm response after pile driving stops is unknown, but a rapid return to normal recruitment, distribution, and behavior is anticipated, and are unlikely to result in adverse impacts to fish. In relation to tugging activities, fish have been observed to react when engine and propeller sounds exceed a certain level (Olsen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1983; Ona, 1988; Ona and Godo, 1990). Avoidance reactions have been observed in fish, including cod and herring, when vessel sound levels were 110 to 130 dB re 1 μPa rms (Nakken, 1992; Olsen, 1979; Ona and Godo, 1990; Ona and Toresen, 1988). Vessel sound source levels in the audible range for fish are typically 150 to 170 dB re 1 μPa per Hz (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995). The tugs used during the specified activity could be expected to produce levels in this range when in transit. However, much of the tugging would be mobile during transport of the rig, and the tugging noise that occurs during rig positioning would be temporary, similar to pile driving. Therefore, based upon the reports in the literature and the predicted sound levels from these vessels, some temporary avoidance by fish in the immediate area may occur. Overall, no more than negligible impacts on fish are expected as a result of the specified activity.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Zooplankton is a food source for several marine mammal species, as well as a food source for fish that are then preyed upon by marine mammals. Population effects on zooplankton could have indirect effects on marine mammals. Data are limited on the effects of underwater sound on zooplankton species, particularly sound from ship traffic and construction (Erbe 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). Sound energy associated with project activities includes sources such as pile driving. Popper and Hastings (2009) reviewed information on the effects of human-generated sound and concluded that no substantive data are available on whether the sound levels from pile driving, seismic activity, or any human-made sound would have physiological effects on invertebrates. Any such effects would be limited to the area very near (1 to 5 m [3.2 to 16.4 ft]) the sound source and would result in no population effects because of the relatively small area affected at any one time and the reproductive strategy of most zooplankton species (short generation, high fecundity, and very high natural mortality). No adverse impact on zooplankton populations is expected to occur from the specified activity due in part to large reproductive capacities and naturally high levels of predation and mortality of these populations. Any mortalities or impacts that might occur would be negligible.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Jack-up legs, anchors or pipe contact with seafloor may result in the death or displacement of some benthic organisms due to direct impact from activity equipment (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         jack-up legs, anchors, pipelines, and piles); however, any potential effects on benthic organisms are anticipated to be temporary and of low impact due to the short duration and small total area of activities. Each of the three legs of the jack-up-rig would have a footprint diameter of 10.6 m (34 ft 8-2/4 in). All production drilling 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35005"/>
                        would be accomplished through existing well structures. Pipe driving and exploratory drilling would have very minimal impact on the seafloor given the small pipe diameter (76.2 cm [30 in]). Benthic organisms have large reproductive capacities and naturally high levels of predation and mortality, and, as a result, mortalities or impacts that might occur in disturbed areas are likely to be recolonized quickly following benthic disturbance. Amphipods, copepods, nematodes, polychaetes, and shrimp species are often among the first animals to recolonize, usually in less than a year (BOEM 2015; Trannum 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2011). Based on benthic organisms naturally occurring rates of reproduction and mortality, benthic impacts from Hilcorp's operations are considered negligible.
                    </P>
                    <P>In summary, given the relatively small areas being affected, as well as the short duration of sound associated with individual pile driving events and the temporary and mostly transitory nature of the tugging activities (including those planned for anchor handling, pipe-pulling, and jack-up rig moves), any adverse effects from Hilcorp's activities on any prey habitat or prey populations are expected to be minor and temporary. The most likely impact to fishes at the project site would be temporary avoidance of the area. Any behavioral avoidance by fish of the disturbed area would still leave significantly large areas of fish and marine mammal foraging habitat in the nearby vicinity. Thus, we conclude that impacts of the specified activities are not likely to have more than short-term adverse effects on any prey habitat or populations of prey species. Further, any impacts to marine mammal habitat are not expected to result in significant or long-term consequences for individual marine mammals, or to contribute to adverse impacts on their populations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Estimated Take of Marine Mammals</HD>
                    <P>This section provides an estimate of the number of incidental takes proposed for authorization under the rule, which will inform NMFS' consideration of “small numbers,” the negligible impact determinations, and impacts on subsistence uses.</P>
                    <P>Harassment is the only type of take expected to result from these activities. Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, section 3(18) of the MMPA defines “harassment” as any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance, which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).</P>
                    <P>
                        Authorized takes would primarily be by Level B harassment, as use of the acoustic sources (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         pile driving and tugging activities, including those planned for anchor handling, pipe-pulling, and jack-up rig moves) have the potential to result in disruption of behavioral patterns for individual marine mammals. We note here that given the slow, predictable, and generally straight path (or stationary nature) of tugs towing, holding, and positioning the jack-up rig or engaged in anchor handling or pipe pulling activities, the likelihood of disrupting marine mammal behavioral patterns from tug use that would qualify as harassment under the MMPA is considered relatively low. However, at the request of the applicant, we have quantified the potential exposures from this activity to our generalized harassment thresholds, assumed that these exposures would equate to take, and analyzed the impacts of the assumed takes, which we propose for authorization. The required mitigation and monitoring measures are expected to minimize the potential for take and, if take were to occur, the severity of the taking to the extent practicable. As described previously, no serious injury or mortality is anticipated or proposed to be authorized for this activity.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For acoustic impacts, generally speaking, we estimate take by considering: (1) acoustic criteria above which NMFS believes there is reasonable potential for marine mammals to be behaviorally harassed or incur some degree of AUD INJ; (2) the area or volume of water that will be ensonified above these levels in a day; (3) the density or occurrence of marine mammals within these ensonified areas; and, (4) the number of days of activities. We note that while these factors can contribute to a basic calculation to provide an initial prediction of potential takes, additional information that can qualitatively inform take estimates is also sometimes available (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         previous monitoring results or average group size). Below, we describe the factors considered here in more detail and present the proposed take estimates.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Acoustic Criteria</HD>
                    <P>NMFS recommends the use of acoustic criteria that identify the received level of underwater sound above which exposed marine mammals would be reasonably expected to be behaviorally harassed (equated to Level B harassment) or to incur AUD INJ of some degree (equated to Level A harassment). We note that the criteria for AUD INJ, as well as the names of two hearing groups, have been recently updated (NMFS 2024) as reflected below in the Level A harassment section.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Level B Harassment</E>
                        —Though significantly driven by received level, the onset of behavioral disturbance from anthropogenic noise exposure is also informed to varying degrees by other factors related to the source or exposure context (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         frequency, predictability, duty cycle, duration of the exposure, signal-to-noise ratio, distance to the source), the environment (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         bathymetry, other noises in the area, predators in the area), and the receiving animals (hearing, motivation, experience, demography, life stage, depth) and can be difficult to predict (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2021, Ellison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012). Based on what the available science indicates and the practical need to use a threshold based on a metric that is both predictable and measurable for most activities, NMFS typically uses a generalized acoustic threshold based on received level to estimate the onset of behavioral harassment. NMFS generally predicts that marine mammals are likely to be behaviorally harassed in a manner considered to be Level B harassment when exposed to underwater anthropogenic noise above root-mean-squared pressure received levels (RMS SPL) of 120 dB (referenced to 1 re 1 μPa) for continuous (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         vibratory pile driving, drilling) and above RMS SPL 160 dB re 1 μPa for non-explosive impulsive (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         seismic airguns, impact pile driving) or intermittent (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         scientific sonar) sources. Generally speaking, Level B harassment take estimates based on these behavioral harassment thresholds are expected to include any likely takes by TTS as, in most cases, the likelihood of TTS occurs at distances from the source less than those at which behavioral harassment is likely. TTS of a sufficient degree can manifest as behavioral harassment, as reduced hearing sensitivity and the potential reduced opportunities to detect important signals (conspecific communication, predators, prey) may result in changes in behavior patterns that would not otherwise occur.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Hilcorp's proposed activity includes the use of continuous (tugging activities, including those planned for anchor handling, pipe-pulling, and jack-up rig moves) and impulsive (impact pile driving) sources, and therefore the RMS 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35006"/>
                        SPL thresholds of 120 and 160 dB re 1 μPa are applicable.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Level A harassment</E>
                        —NMFS' Updated Technical Guidance for Assessing the Effects of Anthropogenic Sound on Marine Mammal Hearing (Version 3.0) (Updated Technical Guidance, 2024) identifies dual criteria to assess AUD INJ (Level A harassment) to five different underwater marine mammal groups (based on hearing sensitivity) as a result of exposure to noise from two different types of sources (impulsive or non-impulsive). Hilcorp's proposed activity includes the use of impulsive (impact pile driving) and non-impulsive (tugging activities) sources.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The 2024 Updated Technical Guidance criteria include both updated thresholds and updated weighting functions for each hearing group. The thresholds are provided in the table 8 below. The references, analysis, and methodology used in the development of the criteria are described in NMFS' 2024 Updated Technical Guidance, which may be accessed at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-acoustic-technical-guidance-other-acoustic-tools.</E>
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50p,xs100">
                        <TTITLE>Table 8—Thresholds Identifying the Onset of Auditory Injury</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Hearing group</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                AUD INJ onset acoustic thresholds *
                                <LI>(received level)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Impulsive</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Non-impulsive</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Low-Frequency (LF) Cetaceans</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 1: L</E>
                                <E T="0732">pk,flat</E>
                                <E T="03">:</E>
                                 222 dB; 
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,LF,24h</E>
                                <E T="03">:</E>
                                 183 dB
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 2: L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,LF,24h</E>
                                <E T="03">:</E>
                                 197 dB.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">High-Frequency (HF) Cetaceans</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 3: L</E>
                                <E T="0732">pk,flat</E>
                                <E T="03">:</E>
                                 230 dB; 
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,HF,24h</E>
                                <E T="03">:</E>
                                 193 dB
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 4: L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,HF,24h</E>
                                <E T="03">:</E>
                                 201 dB.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Very High-Frequency (VHF) Cetaceans</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 5: L</E>
                                <E T="0732">pk,flat</E>
                                <E T="03">:</E>
                                 202 dB; 
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,VHF,24h</E>
                                <E T="03">:</E>
                                 159 dB
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 6: L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,VHF,24h</E>
                                <E T="03">:</E>
                                 181 dB.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Phocid Pinnipeds (PW) (Underwater)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 7: L</E>
                                <E T="0732">pk,flat</E>
                                <E T="03">:</E>
                                 223 dB; 
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,PW,24h</E>
                                <E T="03">:</E>
                                 183 dB
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 8: L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,PW,24h</E>
                                <E T="03">:</E>
                                 195 dB.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Otariid Pinnipeds (OW) (Underwater)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 9: L</E>
                                <E T="0732">pk,flat</E>
                                <E T="03">:</E>
                                 230 dB; 
                                <E T="03">L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,OW,24h</E>
                                <E T="03">:</E>
                                 185 dB
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Cell 10: L</E>
                                <E T="0732">E,OW,24h</E>
                                <E T="03">:</E>
                                 199 dB.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>* Dual metric criteria for impulsive sounds: Use whichever criteria results in the larger isopleth for calculating AUD INJ onset. If a non-impulsive sound has the potential of exceeding the peak sound pressure level criteria associated with impulsive sounds, the PK SPL criteria are recommended for consideration for non-impulsive sources.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Peak sound pressure level (
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">p,0-pk</E>
                            ) has a reference value of 1 µPa, and weighted cumulative sound exposure level (
                            <E T="03">L</E>
                            <E T="0732">E,p</E>
                            ) has a reference value of 1 µPa
                            <SU>2</SU>
                            s. In this table, criteria are abbreviated to be more reflective of International Organization for Standardization standards (ISO 2017; ISO 2020). The subscript “flat” is being included to indicate peak sound pressure are flat weighted or unweighted within the generalized hearing range of marine mammals underwater (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             7 Hz to 165 kHz). The subscript associated with cumulative sound exposure level criteria indicates the designated marine mammal auditory weighting function (LF, HF, and VHF cetaceans, and PW and OW pinnipeds) and that the recommended accumulation period is 24 hours. The weighted cumulative sound exposure level criteria could be exceeded in a multitude of ways (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             varying exposure levels and durations, duty cycle). When possible, it is valuable for action proponents to indicate the conditions under which these criteria will be exceeded.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Ensonified Area</HD>
                    <P>Here, we describe operational and environmental parameters of the activity that are used in estimating the area ensonified above the acoustic thresholds, including source levels and TL coefficient.</P>
                    <P>
                        The sound fields includes existing background noise plus additional noise resulting from pile driving and tugs towing, holding, and positioning a jack-up rig or engaging in pipe pulling or anchor handling. Marine mammals are expected to be affected via sound generated by the primary components of the project (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         pile driving and tugging activities). Calculation of the area ensonified by the proposed action is dependent on the background sound levels at the project site, the source levels of the proposed activities, and the estimated TL coefficients for the proposed activities at the site. These factors are addressed below.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Calculations for Pile Driving Activities.</E>
                         Hilcorp's specified activity includes impact installation of up to ten 76.2-cm (30-in) steel pipe piles at Tyonek Platform in support of production well development (two piles per year) and one 76.2-cm (30-in) steel pipe pile at each well location in support of exploratory drilling. Hilcorp proposed associated sound source level proxy values (at 10 m) of 177 dB single strike SEL (SELss), 210 dB Peak, and 190 dB RMS and a TL coefficient of 15*Log
                        <E T="52">10</E>
                         (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         they assumed practical spreading). NMFS concurs that these values are appropriate proxies for calculating Level A and Level B harassment isopleths for this activity.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The distance to threshold and ensonified area associated with Level B harassment for pile driving activities was calculated as the area ensonified above 160 dB RMS assuming a source level of 190 dB RMS and a TL coefficient of 15*Log
                        <E T="52">10</E>
                         (see table 9). The distance to threshold and ensonified area associated with Level A harassment is more technically challenging to predict due to the need to account for a duration component. Therefore, NMFS developed an optional User Spreadsheet tool to accompany the 2024 Updated Technical Guidance that can be used to simply predict an isopleth distance for use in conjunction with marine mammal density or occurrence to help predict potential takes. This optional tool offers the best way to estimate isopleth distances when more sophisticated modeling methods are not available or practical. For stationary sources such as pile driving, the optional User Spreadsheet tool predicts the distance at which, if a marine mammal remained at that distance for the duration of the activity, it would be expected to incur AUD INJ. In this case, because of the extended duration of pile driving per day (8 hours), the resulting take estimates are typically going to be overestimates of Level A harassment because it is unlikely animals would remain at the distance for that length of time or closer than the distances produced by the User Spreadsheet for a long enough subset of time. For impact pile driving at the Tyonek Platform, Hilcorp assumed a source level of 177 dB SELss and that each pile would take 7 days to install at a rate of 50 blows per minute with approximately 8 hours of pile driving occurring each day (24,000 strikes per day). Level A harassment isopleths for impact pile driving at each well site were calculated using the optional User Spreadsheet assuming a source level of 177 dB SELss, a strike rate of 65 blows per foot by 393.70 ft (120 m), and that it would take 6 days to install a single pile.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35007"/>
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,17,17,17,17,17,17">
                        <TTITLE>Table 9—Calculated Distances and Areas to the Estimated Level A and Level B Harassment Thresholds for Pile Driving Activities</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Level A harassment (SEL) distance (m)/area (km
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                )
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">LF</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">HF</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">VHF</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">PW</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">OW</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Level B harassment distance (m)/area (km
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                )
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Winter production impact pile driving</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,295.85/34.13</ENT>
                            <ENT>420.51/0.56</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,100.30/81.72</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,927.89/26.93</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,091.31/3.74</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,000.00/3.14</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Exploratory impact pile driving</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,041.78/3.41</ENT>
                            <ENT>132.92/0.06</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,612.16/8.17</ENT>
                            <ENT>925.48/2.69</ENT>
                            <ENT>344.98/0.37</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,000.00/3.14</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Calculations for Tugs under Load with a Jack-Up Rig.</E>
                         The project includes three to four tugs under load with a jack-up rig in support of production and exploration drilling. Hilcorp conducted a literature review of underwater sound emissions of tugs under various loading efforts. The sound source levels for tugs of various horsepower (2,000 to 8,200) under load can range from approximately 164 dB RMS to 202 dB RMS (see tables 9 and 10 in Hilcorp's ITR application). This range largely relates to the level of operational effort, with full power output and higher speeds generating more propeller cavitation and hence greater sound source levels than lower power output and lower speeds. Tugs under tow produce higher source levels than tugs transiting with no load because of the higher power output necessary to pull the load. The amount of power the tugs expend while operating is the best predictor of relative sound source level. Several factors would determine the duration that the tugboats are towing the jack-up rig, including the origin and destination of the towing route (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Rig Tenders Dock, an existing platform) and the tidal conditions. The power output would be variable and influenced by the prevailing wind direction and velocity, the current velocity, and the tidal stage. To the extent feasible, transport would be timed with the tide to minimize towing duration and power output.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Hilcorp's literature review identified no existing data on sound source levels of tugs towing jack-up rigs specifically nor does NMFS have such information. Accordingly, for this analysis, Hilcorp considered data from tug-under-load activities, including berthing and towing activities. Austin and Warner (2013) measured 167 dB RMS for tug towing barge activity in Cook Inlet. Blackwell and Greene (2002) reported berthing activities in the POA with a source level of 179 dB RMS. Laurinolli 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2005) measured a source level of 200 dB RMS for anchor towing activities by a tugboat in the Strait of Juan de Fuca, Washington. The Roberts Bank Terminal 2 study (2014) repeated measurements of the same tug operating under different speeds and loading conditions. Broadband measurements from this study ranged from approximately 162 dB RMS up to 200 dB RMS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The rig manager for Hilcorp, who is experienced with towing jack-up rigs in Cook Inlet, described operational conditions wherein the tugs generally operate at half power or less for the majority of the time they are under load (pers. Comm., Durham, 2021). Transits with the tide (lower power output) are preferred for safety reasons, and effort is made to reduce or eliminate traveling against the tide (higher power output). The Roberts Bank Terminal 2 study (2014) allowed for a comparison of source levels from the same vessel (Seaspan Resolution tug) at half power versus full power. Seaspan Resolution's half-power (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         50 percent) berthing scenario had a sound source level of 180 dB RMS at 1 m. In addition, the Roberts Bank Terminal 2 Study (2014) reported a mean tug source level of 179.3 dB RMS at 1 m from 650 tug transits under varying load and speed conditions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The 50 percent (or less) power output scenario occurs during the vast majority of tug towing jack-up rig activity, as described in the 
                        <E T="03">Detailed Description of the Specific Activity</E>
                         section of Hilcorp's application. Therefore, based on Hilcorp's literature review, a source level of 180 dB RMS was found to be an appropriate proxy source level for a single tug under load based on the Roberts Bank Terminal 2 study. If all three tugs were operating simultaneously at 180 dB RMS, the overall source emission levels would be expected to increase by approximately 5 dB when logarithmically adding the sources (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         to 185 dB RMS). To further support this level as an appropriate proxy, a sound source verification (SSV) study performed by JASCO Applied Sciences (JASCO) in Cook Inlet in October 2021 (Lawrence 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022) measured the sound source level from three tugs pulling a jack-up rig in Cook Inlet at various power outputs. Lawrence 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2022) reported a source level of 167.3 dB RMS for the 20 percent-power scenario and a source level of 205.9 dB RMS for the 85 percent-power scenario. Assuming a linear scaling of tug power, a source level of 185 dB RMS was calculated as a single point source level for three tugs operating at 50 percent power output. Because the 2021 Cook Inlet SSV measurements by JASCO represent the most recent best available data, and because multiple tugs may be operating simultaneously, the analyses presented below use a mean tug sound source level scenario of 185 dB RMS to calculate the Level B harassment estimates for three tugs operating at 50 percent power output. In practice, the load condition of the three tugs is unlikely to be identical at all times, so sound emissions would be dominated by the single tug in the group that is working hardest at any point in time.
                    </P>
                    <P>Further modeling was done to account for one additional tug working for one hour at 50 percent power during jack-up rig positioning, a stationary activity. This is equivalent in terms of acoustic energy to three tugs operating at 180.0 dB RMS (each of them) for 4 hours, joined by a fourth tug for 1 hour, increasing the source level to 186.0 dB RMS only during the 1-hour period (the logarithmic sum of four tugs working together at 180.0 dB RMS). An SEL of 185.1 dB was used to account for the cumulative sound exposure when calculating Level A harassment by adding a 4th tug operating at 50 percent power for 20 percent of the 5-hour period. This is equivalent in terms of acoustic energy to 3 tugs operating at 185.0 dB for 4 hours, joined by a fourth tug for 1 hour, increasing the source level to 186.0 dB only during the 1-hour period. The use of the 20 percent duty cycle was a computational requirement and, although equal in terms of overall energy and determination of impacts, should not be confused with the actual instantaneous SPL (see section 6.2.1.1.1 of Hilcorp's application for additional computational details).</P>
                    <P>
                        In summary, Hilcorp has proposed to use a source level of 185.0 dB RMS to calculate the stationary Level B harassment isopleth where three tugs were under load for 4 hours with a 50 percent power output and a source level of 186.0 dB RMS to calculate the stationary Level B harassment isopleth 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35008"/>
                        where four tugs were under load for 1 hour with a 50 percent power output. Further, Hilcorp has proposed to use a source level of 185.1 dB SEL to calculate the stationary Level A harassment isopleths where three tugs were under load for 4 hours and then one tug joined for 1 additional hour. Lastly, Hilcorp proposed to use the 185.0 dB RMS level to model the mobile Level A harassment isopleths for three tugs under load with a 50 percent power output. NMFS concurs that Hilcorp's proposed source levels are appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Underwater Sound Propagation Modeling.</E>
                         Hilcorp contracted SLR Consulting to model the extent of the Level A and Level B harassment isopleths for tugs under load with a jack-up rig during their proposed activities. Cook Inlet is a particularly complex acoustic environment with strong currents, large tides, variable sea floor and generally changing conditions. Accordingly, Hilcorp applied a more detailed propagation model than the practical spreading loss approach that uses a factor of 15. The objective of a more detailed propagation calculation is to improve the representation of the influence of some environmental variables, in particular by accounting for bathymetry and specific sound source locations and frequency-dependent propagation effects.
                    </P>
                    <P>Modeling was conducted using the dBSea software package. The fluid parabolic equation modeling algorithm was used with 5 Padé terms to calculate the TL between the source and the receiver at low frequencies (1/3-octave bands, 31.5 Hz up to 1 kHz). For higher frequencies (1 kHz up to 8 kHz) the ray tracing model was used with 1,000 reflections for each ray. Sound sources were assumed to be omnidirectional and modeled as points. The received sound levels for the project were calculated as follows: (1) One-third octave source spectral levels were obtained via reference spectral curves with subsequent corrections based on their corresponding overall source levels; (2) TL was modeled at one-third octave band central frequencies along 100 radial paths at regular increments around each source location, out to the maximum range of the bathymetry data set or until constrained by land; (3) The bathymetry variation of the vertical plane along each modeling path was obtained via interpolation of the bathymetry dataset which has 83 m grid resolution; (4) The one-third octave source levels and transmission loss were combined to obtain the received levels as a function of range, depth, and frequency; and (5) The overall received levels were calculated at a 1-m (3.3 ft) depth resolution along each propagation path by summing all frequency band spectral levels.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Model Inputs.</E>
                         Bathymetry data used in the model was collected from the NOAA National Centers for Environmental Information (AFSC, 2019). Using NOAA's temperature and salinity data, sound speed profiles were computed for depths from 0 to 100 m (0 to 328 ft) for May, July, and October to capture the range of possible sound speed depending on the time of year Hilcorp's work could be conducted. These sound speed profiles were compiled using the Mackenzie Equation (Mackenzie 1981) and are presented in table 11 of Hilcorp's application (available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/action/incidental-take-authorization-hilcorp-alaska-llc-oil-and-gas-activities-cook-inlet-alaska-0</E>
                        ). Geoacoustic parameters were also incorporated into the model. The parameters were based on substrate type and their relation to depth. These parameters are presented in table 12 of Hilcorp's application (available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/action/incidental-take-authorization-hilcorp-alaska-llc-oil-and-gas-activities-cook-inlet-alaska-0</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>Detailed broadband sound transmission loss modeling in dBSea used the source level of 185 dB RMS calculated in one-third octave band levels (31.5 Hz to 64,000 Hz) for frequency dependent solutions. The frequencies associated with tug sound sources occur within the hearing range of marine mammals in Cook Inlet. Received levels for each hearing marine mammal group based on one-third octave auditory weighting functions were also calculated and integrated into the modeling scenarios of dBSea. For modeling the distances to relevant AUD INJ thresholds, a weighting factor adjustment was not used; instead, the data on the spectrum associated with their source was used and incorporated the full auditory weighting function for each marine mammal hearing group.</P>
                    <P>The tugs towing the jack-up rig represent a mobile sound source, and tugs holding and positioning the jack-up rig on a platform are more akin to a stationary sound source. Three tugs would be used for towing (mobile) and holding and positioning (stationary) and up to four tugs could be used for positioning (stationary). Consequently, sound TL modeling was undertaken for the various stationary and mobile scenarios for three and four tugs to generate Level A and Level B harassment threshold distances.</P>
                    <P>For acoustic modeling purposes of the stationary Level A harassment thresholds, two locations representative of where tugs will be stationary while they position the jack-up rig were selected in middle Cook Inlet near the Tyonek Platform and in lower Trading Bay where the production platforms are located. To account for the mobile scenarios, the acoustic model generated Level A and Level B harassment distances along a representative route from the Rig Tenders Dock in Nikiski to the Tyonek platform, the northernmost platform in Cook Inlet (representing middle Cook Inlet), as well as from the Tyonek Platform to the Dolly Varden platform in lower Trading Bay, then from the Dolly Varden platform back to the Rig Tenders Dock in Nikiski. Note that this route is representative of a typical route the tugs may take; the specific route is not yet known, as the order in which platforms will be drilled with the jack-up rig is not yet known. These results were used to calculate Level A and Level B harassment exposure estimates from three mobile tugs towing a jack-up rig. The Level B harassment results were also used to calculate Level B harassment exposure estimates from stationary tugs holding or positioning a jack-up rig, as the mobile route encompassed the stationary modeling points. The locations represent a range of water depths from 18 to 77 m (59 to 253 ft) found throughout the area where Hilcorp would conduct the specified activities.</P>
                    <P>
                        To identify distances to the 120 dB RMS Level B harassment threshold for both mobile and stationary sources, 100 radials at 25 locations across seasons (represented by May, July, and October) were calculated (table 10) with all three months averaged for that location. Results for each location ranged from 2,866 to 4,694 m. Across all locations, the average stationary and mobile distance to the Level B harassment threshold when three tugs are used is 3,850 m (table 10). Similarly, for four stationary tugs, the distance to the 120 dB RMS threshold was calculated based on an average of 100 radials at two locations, one in Trading Bay and one in middle Cook Inlet, across three seasons (May, July, and October). The average distance to the Level B harassment threshold across those two locations and all three seasons is 4,453 m (table 11). NMFS has determined that 3,850 m and 4,453 m are representative estimates for the extent of the Level B harassment zones for Hilcorp's towing, holding, and positioning activities when using three and four tugs, respectively.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35009"/>
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 10—Average Distances to the Level B Harassment Threshold (120 
                            <E T="01">d</E>
                            B) for Three Tugs Towing (Mobile) and Holding and Positioning for 4 Hours (Stationary)
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Location</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Average distance to 120 dB threshold (m)</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">May</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">July</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">October</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Season
                                <LI>average</LI>
                                <LI>distance to</LI>
                                <LI>threshold</LI>
                                <LI>(m)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M1</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,215</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,911</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,352</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,159</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M2</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,946</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,841</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,350</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,046</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M3</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,156</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,971</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,458</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,195</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M4</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,040</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,844</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,364</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,083</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M5</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,053</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,676</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,304</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,011</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M6</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,716</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,445</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,554</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,572</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M7</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,947</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,753</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,898</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,866</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M8</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,270</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,008</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,247</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,175</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M9</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,567</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,359</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,727</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,551</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M10</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,600</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,487</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,691</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,593</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M11</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,746</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,579</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,214</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,846</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M12</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,815</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,600</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,995</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,803</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M13</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,010</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,831</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,338</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,060</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M14</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,837</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,647</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,217</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,900</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M15</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,966</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,798</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,455</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,073</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M16</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,873</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,676</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,504</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,018</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M18</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,562</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,893</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,626</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,694</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M20</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,044</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,692</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,320</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,352</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M22</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,717</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,553</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,067</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,112</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M24</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,456</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,384</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,182</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,007</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M25</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,842</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,686</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,218</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,915</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M26</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,690</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,400</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,801</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,630</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M27</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,707</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,497</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,711</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,638</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M28</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,546</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,271</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,480</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,432</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">M29</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,618</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,279</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,646</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,514</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Average</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,958</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,563</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,029</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,850</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 11—Average Distances to the Level B Harassment Threshold (120 
                            <E T="01">d</E>
                            B) for Four Tugs Positioning (Stationary) for 1 Hour
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Location</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Average distance to Level B harassment threshold (m)</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">May</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">July</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">October</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Season
                                <LI>average</LI>
                                <LI>distance to</LI>
                                <LI>threshold</LI>
                                <LI>(m)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Trading Bay</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,610</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,850</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,810</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,423</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Middle CI</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,820</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,130</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,500</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,483</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Average</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,715</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,990</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,655</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,453</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        The average Level A harassment distances for the stationary, four tug scenario were calculated assuming a SEL of 185.1 dB for a 5-hour exposure duration (table 12). For the mobile three tug scenario, the average Level A harassment distances were calculated assuming a SEL of 185.0 dB with an 18-second exposure period (table 12). This 18-second exposure was derived using the standard TL equation (Source Level−TL = Received Level) for determining threshold distance (R [m]), where TL = 15*Log
                        <E T="52">10</E>
                        (range). In this case, the equation was 185.0 dB−15*Log
                        <E T="52">10</E>
                        (range) = 173 dB. Solving for threshold distance (R) yields a distance of approximately 6 m (20 ft), which was then used as the preliminary ensonified radius to determine the duration of time it would take for the ensonified area of the sound source traveling at a speed of 2.06 m/s (4 knots) to pass a marine mammal. The duration (twice the radius divided by speed of the source) that the ensonified area of a single tug would take to pass a marine mammal under these conditions is 6 seconds. An 18-second exposure was used in the model to reflect the time it would take for three ensonified areas (from three consecutive individual tugs) to pass a single point that represents a marine mammal (6 seconds + 6 seconds + 6 seconds = 18 seconds).
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="12" OPTS="L2,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,xs32,8,8p,8,8p,8,8p,8,8p,8,8">
                        <TTITLE>Table 12—Average Distances to the Level A Harassment Thresholds With a 5-Hour Exposure to Four Stationary Tugs Under Load With a Jack-Up Rig and 18-Second Exposure for Three Mobile Tugs Under Load With a Jack-Up Rig</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Location</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Season</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Average distance (m) to Level A harassment threshold by functional hearing group</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">LF</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">
                                5-hr 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">
                                18-sec 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">MF</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">
                                5-hr 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">
                                18-sec 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">HF</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">
                                5-hr 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">
                                18-sec 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">PW</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">
                                5-hr 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">
                                18-sec 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                OW 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">
                                5-hr 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">
                                18-sec 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Trading Bay</ENT>
                            <ENT>May</ENT>
                            <ENT>181</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>380</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>84</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>30</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="35010"/>
                            <ENT I="01">Trading Bay</ENT>
                            <ENT>July</ENT>
                            <ENT>193</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>12</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>367</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>84</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>36</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Trading Bay</ENT>
                            <ENT>October</ENT>
                            <ENT>153</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>20</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>399</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>78</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>35</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Middle Cook Inlet</ENT>
                            <ENT>May</ENT>
                            <ENT>110</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>331</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>52</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>20</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Middle Cook Inlet</ENT>
                            <ENT>July</ENT>
                            <ENT>121</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>9</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>337</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>58</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>20</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Middle Cook Inlet</ENT>
                            <ENT>October</ENT>
                            <ENT>117</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>13</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>344</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>65</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>26</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="01">
                            <ENT I="03">Average</ENT>
                            <ENT>146</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>11</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>360</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>70</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>28</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             5-hr thresholds represent three stationary tugs operating for 4 hours and an additional tug added for 1 additional hour for a total of four tugs working over 5 hours. Estimated level A distances do not materially change when adding a fourth tug for 1 of the 5 hours.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             18-second thresholds represent three tugs operating under load consecutively.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             The estimated Level A harassment distances are smaller than the footprint of the tugs.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>Tugs involved in towing, holding, or positioning the jack-up rig are assessed for both production and exploratory drilling operations; the exposure estimate analyses for each activity are conducted separately. Three tugs are anticipated to be towing the jack-up rig from Rig Tenders Dock (mobilization), between platforms (location-to-location transfers), and back to Rig Tenders Dock (demobilization). While under tow, they are considered a mobile sound source for 6 hours in a single day per jack-up rig move between locations over an average distance of 16.77 km (10.42 mi) and for 9 hours in a single day during mobilization and demobilization over a distance up to 64.34 km (40 mi). Up to four tugs are anticipated to be holding or positioning the jack-up rig at the platforms or the Rig Tenders Dock during each move (mobilization, demobilization, and location-to-location transfers) and are considered a stationary sound source for 5 hours in the first day and 5 hours in the second day if a second attempt to pin the jack-up rig is required (note, 5 hours includes three tugs under load with a jack-up rig for 4 hours and four tugs under load with a jack-up rig for up to 1 hour). A second attempt was built into the exposure estimate for each pinning event. See table 1 for details regarding the number of annual pinning events. A summary of the estimated Level A and Level B harassment distances and areas for the various tugging scenarios is provided in table 13.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,12,12,12,18">
                        <TTITLE>Table 13—Estimated Distances and Areas to the Level A and Level B Harassment Thresholds for the Various Tugging Scenarios</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Level A harassment distance (m)/area (km
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                )
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">LF</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">HF</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">VHF</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">PW</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">OW</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Level B harassment
                                <LI>distance (m)/area</LI>
                                <LI>
                                    (km
                                    <SU>2</SU>
                                    )
                                </LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Demobilization/Mobilization</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">3 Tugs Towing a Jack-Up Rig—Mobile</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>3,850/175.67</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3 Tugs Towing a Jack-Up Rig—Stationary for up to 4 hours</ENT>
                            <ENT>146/0.07</ENT>
                            <ENT>11/0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>360/0.41</ENT>
                            <ENT>70/0.02</ENT>
                            <ENT>28/0</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,850/46.56</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">4 Tugs Towing a Jack-Up Rig—Stationary for up to 1 hour</ENT>
                            <ENT>146/0.07</ENT>
                            <ENT>11/0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>360/0.41</ENT>
                            <ENT>70/0.02</ENT>
                            <ENT>28/0</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,453/62.30</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="06" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Location-to-Location</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">3 Tugs Towing a Jack-Up Rig—Mobile</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                (
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>3,850/541.96</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3 Tugs Towing a Jack-Up Rig—Stationary for up to 4 hours</ENT>
                            <ENT>146/0.07</ENT>
                            <ENT>11/0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>360/0.41</ENT>
                            <ENT>70/0.02</ENT>
                            <ENT>28/0</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,850/46.56</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4 Tugs Towing a Jack-Up Rig—Stationary for up to 1 hour</ENT>
                            <ENT>146/0.07</ENT>
                            <ENT>11/0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>360/0.41</ENT>
                            <ENT>70/0.02</ENT>
                            <ENT>28/0</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,453/62.30</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             The Level A harassment distances are smaller than the footprint of the tugs.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Calculations for Pipeline Replacement/Installation Using Lay Barge Methodology.</E>
                         Pipeline replacement/installation using lay barge methods entails anchor handling, setting, and retrieving, as well as tugs holding the barge against the current between tides. To determine source levels for anchor handling, Hilcorp consulted the tug operators, who are considered subject experts, to determine power usage for one tug anchor handling and two tugs anchor handling or holding against the tides. They reported that both tugs would operate at 50 percent power output. Because this power output is consistent with that assumed for tugs towing a jack-up rig, the same modeling methodology and sound source data was proposed. Based on the tug operators' description of 50 percent power output while anchor handling, as well as the situation wherein two tugs are working together holding a barge in place between slack tides, a conservative source level of 180 dB for a single tug and 183 dB for two tugs were proposed to estimate the distance ensonified for anchor handling and barge holding, respectively, during 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35011"/>
                        the pipeline replacement activities. NMFS concurs that these source levels are appropriate proxies for anchor handling as specified by Hilcorp.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Eight anchors would be set from a fixed, stationary position. Setting an anchor would require one AHT, operating at an average of 50 percent power for 1 hour to set one anchor during slack tide. Four slack tides occur daily with approximately 4.5 hours of incoming or outgoing tide between them. Four anchors would be set during the four slack tides in 1 day using AHT-1 (up to 4 hours in a 24-hour period). Between anchor settings and during slack tides, AHT-2 (plus an assist tug [
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         two tugs]) would average 50 percent power to hold the barge in place against the current for approximately 4.5 hours (up to 18 hours per 24-hour period). During this time, AHT-1 would be idle while AHT-2 and the assist tug hold the barge against the tide. During a 24-hour period of setting four anchors, AHT-1 would operate at an average of 50 percent power for 4 hours (during each slack tide), followed by AHT-2 and an assist tug working at an average of 50 percent power during each incoming or outgoing tide for approximately 4.5 hours between each slack tide. This pattern would continue until all eight anchors are set over 2 days.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Hilcorp modeled Level A harassment distances for anchor setting at three sites with representative depths for this activity, including a deep-water site (site 3 at 153 m [502 ft] depth; table 14; see table 19 of Hilcorp's application for more details regarding modeled locations). The distances to the Level B harassment threshold were calculated as the maximum distances derived for the shallow modeled locations (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         scenarios 1 and 2) assuming a stationary single tug operating while anchor handling (2,890 m, 26.24 km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ) and two stationary tugs operating together to hold the pipelay barge at 50 percent power (3,740 m, 43.94 km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ) (see tables 22 and 23 in Hilcorp's application for more details regarding modelled scenarios).
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="9" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="xs36,r50,xs36,r100,10,10,10,10,10">
                        <TTITLE>Table 14—Estimated Distances and Areas to the Level A Harassment Thresholds for Anchor Setting on Days 1 and 2</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Scenario</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Location
                                <LI>(depth)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Season</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Source level(s)
                                <LI>(RMS dB re</LI>
                                <LI>1 μPa) and</LI>
                                <LI>durations</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Average distance (m) to Level A thresholds</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">LW</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">HF</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">VHF</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">PW</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">OW</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="08" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Day 1</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>Middle Cook Inlet (21 m)</ENT>
                            <ENT>July</ENT>
                            <ENT>AHT-1: 180 dB (4 hours); AHT-2 and Assist: 183 dB; (18 hours)</ENT>
                            <ENT>294</ENT>
                            <ENT>208</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,392</ENT>
                            <ENT>337</ENT>
                            <ENT>251</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>Trading Bay (36 m)</ENT>
                            <ENT>July</ENT>
                            <ENT>AHT-1: 180 dB (4 hours); AHT-2 and Assist: 183 dB; (18 hours)</ENT>
                            <ENT>303</ENT>
                            <ENT>225</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,399</ENT>
                            <ENT>360</ENT>
                            <ENT>266</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>Trading Bay (153 m)</ENT>
                            <ENT>July</ENT>
                            <ENT>AHT-1: 180 dB (4 hours); AHT-2 and Assist: 183 dB; (18 hours)</ENT>
                            <ENT>68</ENT>
                            <ENT>37</ENT>
                            <ENT>637</ENT>
                            <ENT>94</ENT>
                            <ENT>52</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">
                                Average Distance (m) and Area (km
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>222 (0.15)</ENT>
                            <ENT>157 (0.08)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,143 (4.10)</ENT>
                            <ENT>264 (0.22)</ENT>
                            <ENT>190 (0.11)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="08" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Day 2</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>Middle Cook Inlet (21 m)</ENT>
                            <ENT>July</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                AHT-1: 180 dB (4 hours); AHT-2 and Assist: 183 dB; (13.5 hours 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>268</ENT>
                            <ENT>182</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,262</ENT>
                            <ENT>311</ENT>
                            <ENT>225</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>Trading Bay (36 m)</ENT>
                            <ENT>July</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                AHT-1: 180 dB (4 hours); AHT-2 and Assist: 183 dB; (13.5 hours 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>277</ENT>
                            <ENT>204</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,232</ENT>
                            <ENT>324</ENT>
                            <ENT>240</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>Trading Bay (153 m)</ENT>
                            <ENT>July</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                AHT-1: 180 dB (4 hours); AHT-2 and Assist: 183 dB; (13.5 hours 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>63</ENT>
                            <ENT>31</ENT>
                            <ENT>522</ENT>
                            <ENT>84</ENT>
                            <ENT>42</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03">
                            <ENT I="03">
                                Average Distance (m) and Area (km
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>203 (0.13)</ENT>
                            <ENT>137 (0.06)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,005 (3.18)</ENT>
                            <ENT>240 (0.18)</ENT>
                            <ENT>169 (0.09)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             On Day 2, AHT-2 and the assist tug would be used for only 13.5 hours because, after the third tidal cycle, all eight anchors would be set.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Once all eight anchors are set, the barge would be moved every 305 m (1,000 ft) along the pipeline route. Each time the barge needs to be repositioned, AHT-1 would be used at half power (50 percent) for anchor handling. During the pipelay, each anchor move takes approximately 15 minutes; however, each anchor would be moved individually resulting in an intermittent process. During pipelay activities, a single tug would be anchor handling for an average of 2 hours per day over an average distance of approximately 0.29 km (951 ft) resulting in a Level B harassment ensonified area of 27.89 km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         (10.77 mi
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ). Pipe laying would occur over 8 days.
                    </P>
                    <P>Anchor retrieval would occur from a fixed, stationary position. There would be eight anchors, and recovery would occur during each of the four slack tides in 1 day. Retrieving anchors would be faster than anchor setting because it would be easier for the tug crew to capture the anchor from its fixed position on the seafloor than to initially set the anchors (refer to the description above). Two anchors could be retrieved during 1 hour at slack tide; therefore, all eight anchors could be retrieved within 24 hours.</P>
                    <P>
                        AHT-1 would retrieve anchors during slack tide (slack tides are approximately 1 hour in duration). While AHT-1 is retrieving anchors, AHT-2 would be idle. Then, when the tide is coming in or going out, AHT-1 and AHT-2 would hold the barge against the tide for approximately 4.5 hours using an average of 50 percent power between slack tides. All eight anchors would be retrieved during four slack tides within 1 day. Hilcorp assumes that AHT-1 will retrieve two anchors during slack tides (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a total of 4 hours), and that AHT-1 and AHT-2 would be used for a total of 13.5 hours when they are holding the barge against the incoming or outgoing tide. The distance to the Level B harassment thresholds for anchor retrieval were calculated the same as for anchor setting (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the maximum distances derived for the allow modeled locations (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         scenarios 1 and 2) assuming a stationary single tug operating while anchor handling (2,890 m, 26.24 km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ) and two stationary tugs operating together to hold the pipelay barge at 50 percent power (3,740 m, 43.94 km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        )).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Pipelaying and anchor retrieval is anticipated to occur in shallower waters than anchor setting, thus Hilcorp calculated the average distances to the Level A harassment thresholds while 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35012"/>
                        pipelaying during pipeline replacement and/or installation and during anchor retrieval for the two shallow scenarios (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         scenarios 1 and 2) (table 15). The maximum calculated distances are used to calculate exposure estimates as described below.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="9" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="xs36,r50,xs36,r100,10,10,10,10,10">
                        <TTITLE>Table 15—Estimated Distances and Areas to the Level A Harassment Thresholds for Pipe Lay Operations and Anchor Retrieval Operations</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Scenario</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Location
                                <LI>(depth)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Season</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Source level(s)
                                <LI>(RMS dB re 1 μPa) and durations</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Average distance (m) to Level A thresholds</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">LW</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">HF</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">VHF</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">PW</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">OW</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="08" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Pipe Lay Operations</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>Middle Cook Inlet (21 m)</ENT>
                            <ENT>July</ENT>
                            <ENT>AHT-1: 180 dB (2 hours)</ENT>
                            <ENT>9</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>294</ENT>
                            <ENT>26</ENT>
                            <ENT>9</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s,s,s,s,n,n,n,n,n">
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>Trading Bay (36 m)</ENT>
                            <ENT>July</ENT>
                            <ENT>AHT-1: 180 dB (2 hours)</ENT>
                            <ENT>84</ENT>
                            <ENT>37</ENT>
                            <ENT>496</ENT>
                            <ENT>120</ENT>
                            <ENT>57</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                Maximum Distance (m) and Area (km
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>84 (0.07)</ENT>
                            <ENT>37 (0.03)</ENT>
                            <ENT>496 (1.06)</ENT>
                            <ENT>120 (0.11)</ENT>
                            <ENT>57 (0.04)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="08" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Anchor Retrieval</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>Middle Cook Inlet (21 m)</ENT>
                            <ENT>July</ENT>
                            <ENT>AHT-1: 180 dB (4 hours); AHT-2 and Assist: 183 dB (13.5 hours)</ENT>
                            <ENT>268</ENT>
                            <ENT>182</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,262</ENT>
                            <ENT>311</ENT>
                            <ENT>225</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s,s,s,s,n,n,n,n,n">
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>Trading Bay (36 m)</ENT>
                            <ENT>July</ENT>
                            <ENT>AHT-1: 180 dB (4 hours); AHT-2 and Assist: 183 dB (18 hours)</ENT>
                            <ENT>277</ENT>
                            <ENT>204</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,232</ENT>
                            <ENT>324</ENT>
                            <ENT>240</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                Maximum Distance (m) and Area (km
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                )
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>277 (0.24)</ENT>
                            <ENT>204 (0.13)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,262 (5.00)</ENT>
                            <ENT>324 (0.33)</ENT>
                            <ENT>240 (0.18)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Calculations for Pipeline Replacement/Installation Using Pipe Pull Methodology.</E>
                         Pipeline replacement/installation using pipe pulling methods would involve two tugs engaged in pipe pulling operations. Bottom impact sounds would be generated from the pipe interacting with the seafloor during the pipe pulling. In lieu of information more specific to the area and activity, which is currently unavailable, Hilcorp used the modeling undertaken for tugs towing a jack-up rig as a proxy for pipe-pulling based on discussions with pipe-pulling tug operators regarding the anticipated tug energy output. Lawrence 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024) reported that the entire 3-tug convoy towing a jack-up rig in their analysis acted as a single point sound source. The spatial arrangement of the three tugs during the towing of the jack-up rig (two tugs in front and one in the rear) aligns with the configuration used for pipe pulling operations with two tugs at the front, emitting sound, while the interaction of the pipeline with the seafloor creates bottom impact sounds at the rear. The sound source levels considered for the single point source during pipe pulling operations are based on the following concurrent sound sources: one primary tug operating at a maximum power output of 85 percent while actively engaged in pipe pulling (205.9 dB RMS; Lawrence 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022 updated to be consistent with NMFS 2024), one assisting tug operating at an average power output to provide navigation support during pipe pulling activity (180 dB RMS; Lawrence 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022 updated to be consistent with NMFS 2024), and the production of sounds resulting from the interaction between the pipeline and the seafloor as the pulling process takes place (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         bottom impact sounds) (132.7 dB RMS; Castellote, 2019). These three sound sources would occur concurrently, and thus are treated as a single sound source, represented by the primary tug's source level (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         205.9 dB RMS).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Pipe pulling is considered a mobile, continuous sound source and would occur for an average of 3 hours per day for a total of 24 hours over 8 days to complete the 2,286 m (7,500 ft) pipelay. Hilcorp anticipates that approximately 305 m (1,000 ft) of pipe would be laid each day. Hilcorp used the NMFS User Spreadsheet to calculate Level A harassment isopleths for pipe pulling activities. This tool requires the use of a source level at 1 m and a TL coefficient of 20*Log
                        <E T="52">10</E>
                        (range) for mobile, non-impulsive, continuous sources, such as pipe pulling; however, the proxy source level for this activity as described above (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         205.9 dB RMS) was determined using a TL coefficient of 23*Log
                        <E T="52">10</E>
                        (range) and is assumed for a 10 m distance (Lawrence 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). Therefore, Hilcorp adjusted the proxy source level to account for these requirements to 193.29 dB RMS at 1 m (see section 6.2.5.1 of Hilcorp's application for additional technical details) and assumed a source velocity of 0.358 m/s (1 kn); NMFS finds this approach reasonable. To calculate the estimated Level B harassment isopleth (which does not require the use of a source level at 1 m and a TL coefficient of 20*Log
                        <E T="52">10</E>
                        (range)), Hilcorp assumed an unweighted sound source level of 205.9 dB and a TL coefficient of 23.1*Log
                        <E T="52">10</E>
                        (range). Estimated distances to the Level A and Level B harassment thresholds for pipe pulling are provided in table 16.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,13">
                        <TTITLE>Table 16—Estimated Distances and Areas to the Level A and Level B Harassment Thresholds for Pipe Pull Operations</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Source level(s)
                                <LI>(RMS dB re 1 μPa) and source velocity</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Distance (m) and area (km
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                ) to Level A thresholds
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">LW</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">HF</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">VHF</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">PW</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">OW</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Distance (m) and area (km
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                ) to the Level B thresholds
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">193.29 dB (0.3858 m/s)</ENT>
                            <ENT>3.39 (0.01)</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.81 (0.00)</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.51 (0.01)</ENT>
                            <ENT>4.96 (0.01)</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.97 (0.00)</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,150 (95.87)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <PRTPAGE P="35013"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Marine Mammal Occurrence</HD>
                    <P>In this section we provide information about the occurrence of marine mammals, including density or other relevant information which will inform the take calculations.</P>
                    <P>
                        Densities for marine mammals in Cook Inlet were derived from NMFS' AFSC Marine Mammal Laboratory (MML) aerial surveys, typically flown in June, from 2000 to 2022 (Rugh 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005; Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013, 2015b, 2017, 2019, 2022; Goetz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). While the surveys are concentrated for a few days in summer annually, which may skew densities for seasonally present species, they represent the best available long-term dataset of marine mammal sightings available in Cook Inlet. Densities were calculated by summing the total number of animals observed during the MML surveys and dividing the number sighted by the approximate area of Cook Inlet. For CIBWs, several correction factors were applied to the density estimates to address perception, availability, and proximity bias; correction factors were not applied to the non-CIBW density estimates. For CIBWs, densities were derived for the entirety of Cook Inlet as well as for middle and lower Cook Inlet; for non-CIBW marine mammals, densities account for both lower and upper Cook Inlet. There are no density estimates available for California sea lions and Pacific white-sided dolphins in Cook Inlet, as they were so infrequently sighted. Average densities across survey years are presented in table 17.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        CIBW densities estimated from the MML surveys across regions are low, however, there is a known effect of seasonality on their distribution. Thus, densities derived directly from these summer surveys might underestimate the density of CIBWs in lower Cook Inlet at other ice-free times of the year. Therefore, additional CIBW densities were considered as a comparison of available data. The other mechanism for arriving at CIBW density considered here is the Goetz 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012a) habitat-based model. This model is derived from sightings and incorporates depth soundings, coastal substrate type, environmental sensitivity index, anthropogenic disturbance, and anadromous fish streams to predict densities throughout Cook Inlet. The output of this model is a density map of Cook Inlet, which predicts spatially explicit density estimates for CIBW. Using the resulting grid densities, average densities were calculated for two regions applicable to Hilcorp's operations (table 17). The densities applicable to the area of activity (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the North Cook Inlet Unit density for middle Cook Inlet activities and the Trading Bay density for activities in Trading Bay) are provided in table 9 above and were carried forward to the exposure estimates as they were deemed to likely be the most representative estimates available. Likewise, when a range is given, the higher end of the range was used to calculate exposure estimates (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         Trading Bay in the Goetz model has a range of 0.004453 to 0.015053; 0.015053 was used for the exposure estimates).
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 17—Average Densities of Marine Mammal Species in Cook Inlet</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Density
                                <LI>
                                    (individuals per km
                                    <SU>2</SU>
                                    ) 
                                    <SU>1</SU>
                                </LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Humpback whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00185</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Minke whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00003</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Gray whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00007</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fin whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00028</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Killer whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00061</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Beluga whale (Entire Cook Inlet)</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.07166</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Beluga whale (Middle Cook Inlet)</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00658</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Beluga whale (Lower Cook Inlet)</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00003</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                Beluga whale (North Cook Inlet) 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00166</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                Beluga whale (Lower Cook Inlet) 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00000</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                Beluga whale (Trading Bay) 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>0.01505</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Dall's porpoise</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00014</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Harbor porpoise</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00380</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pacific white-sided dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                 N/A
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Harbor seal</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.26819</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Steller sea lion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00669</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">California sea lion</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                 N/A
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Density estimates are derived from MML surveys unless otherwise identified.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             Density estimates are derived from the Goetz 
                            <E T="03">et al.</E>
                             (2012a) habitat-based model.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             Density estimates are not available in Cook Inlet for this species.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Take Estimation</HD>
                    <P>
                        Here we describe how the information provided above is synthesized to produce a quantitative estimate of the take that is reasonably likely to occur and proposed for authorization. For stationary activities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         pile driving), potential take, by Level A harassment and Level B harassment, was quantified using the following equation: (density) × (ensonified area) × (proportion of the day activities would occur) × (number of piles/moves per day) × (total number of piles/moves). For mobile activities, potential take, by Level A harassment and Level B harassment, was quantified using the following equation: (density) × (area) × (number of days). The estimated exposures for each activity in a given year (see table 1) were then summed to estimate total annual exposures (see tables 38, 39, 40, 41, and 42 in Hilcorp's application for individual exposure estimates per year and per activity). A summary of the maximum annual and total estimated exposures is provided in table 18. There are no estimated exposures based on this method of calculation for California sea lions and Pacific white-sided dolphins because the assumed density of these species in Cook Inlet is 0.00 animals per km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Harassment in the form of AUD INJ from tugs towing, holding, or positioning a jack-up rig as well as for pipeline projects using pipe pull methods is not anticipated for any species in any year due to the small size of the estimated Level A harassment distances (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         ≤360 m), which are calculated assuming that an animal would remain within those distances of the source for several hours of noise-producing activity. Given that the locations of the specified activities are not in any areas known to be essential habitat for any marine mammal species with extreme site fidelity over the course of the planned activities, in addition to the exposure estimates for take by Level A harassment being zero or less than 0.01 for these activities for all species (see tables 38, 39, 40, 41, and 42 in Hilcorp's application), the mobile nature of marine mammals, and the general tendencies of most marine mammals to avoid loud noises, AUD INJ is unlikely to result from these activities. Therefore, Hilcorp has not requested, and NMFS is not proposing to authorize, takes by Level A harassment for these activities. Hilcorp has requested authorization of take by Level A harassment incidental to pile driving activities and for the pipeline project using lay barge methods (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         anchor handling) based on the larger estimated size of ensonified Level A harassment zones. While it is not likely that a mobile, marine mammal would be within these zones for a duration long enough to incur AUD INJ, it may occur and NMFS has proposed to authorize some take by Level A harassment for 10 marine mammal species as a result of Hilcorp's request (table 18).
                        <PRTPAGE P="35014"/>
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="11" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,8,8,8,8,8,8,8,8,8,8">
                        <TTITLE>Table 18—Modeled Maximum Estimated Exposures per Each Year of Activities for Each Species</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Year 1</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Level A</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Year 2</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Level B</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Year 3</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Level A</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Year 4</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Level B</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Year 5</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Level A</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">5</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Level B</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">5</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Level A</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">5</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Level B</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">5</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Level A</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">5</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Level B</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Humpback whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.294</ENT>
                            <ENT>3.555</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.344</ENT>
                            <ENT>4.161</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.294</ENT>
                            <ENT>3.555</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.370</ENT>
                            <ENT>5.006</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.294</ENT>
                            <ENT>3.555</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Minke whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.004</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.054</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.005</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.064</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.004</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.054</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.006</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.076</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.004</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.054</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Gray whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.011</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.128</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.012</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.150</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.011</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.128</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.013</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.180</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.011</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.128</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fin whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.044</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.532</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.050</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.622</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.044</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.532</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.055</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.748</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.044</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.532</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Killer whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.178</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.379</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.178</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.659</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.178</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Beluga whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.017</ENT>
                            <ENT>15.998</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.032</ENT>
                            <ENT>26.565</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.017</ENT>
                            <ENT>15.998</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.021</ENT>
                            <ENT>23.296</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.017</ENT>
                            <ENT>15.998</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Dall's porpoise</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.052</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.263</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.061</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.308</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.052</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.263</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.066</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.371</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.052</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.263</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Harbor porpoise</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.448</ENT>
                            <ENT>7.313</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.703</ENT>
                            <ENT>8.559</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.448</ENT>
                            <ENT>7.313</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.821</ENT>
                            <ENT>10.297</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.448</ENT>
                            <ENT>7.313</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pacific white-sided dolphin</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Harbor seal</ENT>
                            <ENT>33.706</ENT>
                            <ENT>516.411</ENT>
                            <ENT>38.434</ENT>
                            <ENT>604.395</ENT>
                            <ENT>33.706</ENT>
                            <ENT>516.411</ENT>
                            <ENT>42.366</ENT>
                            <ENT>727.166</ENT>
                            <ENT>33.706</ENT>
                            <ENT>516.411</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Steller sea lion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.117</ENT>
                            <ENT>12.884</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.136</ENT>
                            <ENT>15.079</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.117</ENT>
                            <ENT>12.884</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.147</ENT>
                            <ENT>18.142</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.117</ENT>
                            <ENT>12.884</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">California sea lion</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>As described in the Description of Proposed Activity section of this proposed rule, pipeline/installation presents multiple execution methodologies. Hilcorp calculated estimated exposures for the various pipeline/installation scenarios (see table 1) and requested an equal amount of take. The greatest annual estimated exposure scenario for CIBWs resulted from the following activities occurring in Year 2: two lay barge projects (Scenario 2), winter pile driving at the Tyonek platform, tugs under load with a jack-up rig, and exploratory drilling (one well) between the Anna &amp; Bruce platforms. The greatest annual estimated exposure scenario for all other marine mammals resulted from the following activities occurring in Year 4: exploratory drilling (two wells) in the MGS Unit, tugs under load with a jack-up rig, winter pile driving at Tyonek, and pipe pulling (Scenario 1).</P>
                    <P>
                        Generally, annual exposure estimates calculated by Hilcorp were rounded up to the nearest whole number. However, for CIBWs, the maximum annual exposure estimate for Level A harassment (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         0.032) was rounded down to zero based on the expected effectiveness of proposed mitigation requirements, and takes by Level A harassment were not requested and are not proposed to be authorized for this species. In addition, requested and proposed take was adjusted up for species where the calculated exposure estimates were less than the estimated group size for that species to reflect more realistic potential versus using a density-based exposure estimate alone. Explanations for species for which take proposed to be authorized is greater than the calculated exposure estimates are included below.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Hilcorp used these two scenario combinations of activities to calculate the maximum annual exposures for each species. In their application, Hilcorp assumed the annual worst-case scenario would occur every year due to potential shifts in activity timing (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         maximum annual take x 5 years). However, NMFS recalculated the total 5-year take estimates to more accurately reflect the potential for take due to the total amount of activity proposed. Because the amount of take requested for many species reflected group sizes, there was no change between the total amount of take proposed to be authorized between the application and this proposed rule. For CIBWs, harbor porpoise, harbor seals, Steller sea lions, and California sea lions, the total amount of take proposed to be authorized over the 5-year period is less than that included in Hilcorp's application. Annual exposure estimates and the amount of take NMFS proposes to authorize annually and across 5 years is provided in table 19.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="11" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,9,9,9,9,9,10,10,10,10">
                        <TTITLE>Table 19—Calculated Maximum Exposure Estimates and Total Proposed Take by Level A and Level B Harassment as a Percentage of Species, Stock, and Stock Abundance</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Stock</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Level A harassment</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Maximum 
                                <LI>annual </LI>
                                <LI>estimated </LI>
                                <LI>exposures</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Annual 
                                <LI>proposed </LI>
                                <LI>take</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Level B harassment</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Maximum 
                                <LI>annual </LI>
                                <LI>estimated </LI>
                                <LI>exposures</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Annual 
                                <LI>proposed </LI>
                                <LI>take</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total annual proposed take</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Total 
                                <LI>annual </LI>
                                <LI>proposed </LI>
                                <LI>take</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Percentage 
                                <LI>of the </LI>
                                <LI>
                                    population 
                                    <SU>1</SU>
                                </LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total 5-year proposed pake</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Level A 
                                <LI>harassment</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Level B 
                                <LI>harassment</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Level A and 
                                <LI>Level B </LI>
                                <LI>harassment</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Humpback whale *</ENT>
                            <ENT>Mexico North Pacific</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.370</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>5.006</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                 unk
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>30</ENT>
                            <ENT>35</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>Western North Pacific</ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>0.65</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>Hawai'i</ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>0.06</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Minke whale *</ENT>
                            <ENT>Alaska</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.006</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.076</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>4</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                 unk
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                            <ENT>20</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Gray whale *</ENT>
                            <ENT>Eastern Pacific</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.013</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.180</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.02</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>25</ENT>
                            <ENT>30</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Fin whale *</ENT>
                            <ENT>Northeastern Pacific *</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.055</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.748</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>4</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                 &lt;0.01
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                            <ENT>20</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Killer whale *</ENT>
                            <ENT>Alaska Resident</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.659</ENT>
                            <ENT>10</ENT>
                            <ENT>11</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.57</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>50</ENT>
                            <ENT>55</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>Alaska Transient</ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>1.87</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Beluga whale</ENT>
                            <ENT>Cook Inlet</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.032</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>26.565</ENT>
                            <ENT>27</ENT>
                            <ENT>27</ENT>
                            <ENT>9.68</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>94</ENT>
                            <ENT>94</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Dall's porpoise *</ENT>
                            <ENT>Alaska</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.066</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.371</ENT>
                            <ENT>10</ENT>
                            <ENT>11</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                unk
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>50</ENT>
                            <ENT>55</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Harbor porpoise</ENT>
                            <ENT>Gulf of Alaska</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.821</ENT>
                            <ENT>4</ENT>
                            <ENT>10.29</ENT>
                            <ENT>11</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                0.05
                                <SU>4</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>10</ENT>
                            <ENT>44</ENT>
                            <ENT>54</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pacific white-sided dolphin **</ENT>
                            <ENT>North Pacific</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.01</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Harbor seal</ENT>
                            <ENT>Cook Inlet/Shelikof</ENT>
                            <ENT>42.366</ENT>
                            <ENT>43</ENT>
                            <ENT>727.166</ENT>
                            <ENT>728</ENT>
                            <ENT>771</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.71</ENT>
                            <ENT>184</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,884</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,068</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="35015"/>
                            <ENT I="01">Steller sea lion</ENT>
                            <ENT>Western United States</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.147</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>18.142</ENT>
                            <ENT>19</ENT>
                            <ENT>20</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.04</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>74</ENT>
                            <ENT>79</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">California sea lion **</ENT>
                            <ENT>United States</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>10</ENT>
                            <ENT>10</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             The values presented here conservatively assume each take authorized is of a different individual of any given stock (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             repeated exposures do not occur). However, for some species, individuals are more likely to be exposed on different days (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             seals or a Steller sea lion may remain in an area and be exposed on multiple days) which would reduce the percent of population taken.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             Population estimates are not available for these stock and a percentage of proposed take for this stock cannot be calculated. Please see Friday 
                            <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                             (2013) and Zerbini 
                            <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                             (2006) for additional information on numbers of minke whales in Alaska.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             This value is calculated using the best provisional estimate (N) of 3,168 from the 2013 survey (NMFS, 2020).
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             The best available abundance estimate (n = 31,046) used to determine the percentage of population is more than 25 years old (NMFS, 2024).
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>* Signifies species for which group behavior influenced the amount of Level B harassment to be authorized.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>** Signifies species for which Level B harassment was based on the number of individuals sighting during past project monitoring as exposures were not modeled due to lack of density data.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        During annual aerial surveys conducted in Cook Inlet from 2000 to 2016, humpback group sizes ranged from 1 to 12 individuals, with most groups comprised of 1 to 3 individuals (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). Three humpback whales were observed in Cook Inlet during SAExploration's seismic study in 2015: two near the Forelands and one in Kachemak Bay (Kendall and Cornick, 2015). In total, 14 sightings of 38 humpback whales (ranging in group size from 1 to 14) were recorded in the 2019 Hilcorp lower Cook Inlet seismic survey in the fall (Fairweather Science, 2020). Two sightings totaling three individual humpback whales were recorded near Ladd Landing north of the Forelands on the recent Harvest Alaska CIPL Extension Project (Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). Commensurate with the maximum calculated exposure estimates, Hilcorp has requested, and NMFS proposes to authorize, one take by Level A harassment per year for humpback whales. Based on documented observations from the CIPL Extension Project, which is the data closest to the specific geographic region, Hilcorp has requested, and NMFS is proposing to authorize, an annual maximum of six takes per year by Level B harassment for this species, which is slightly greater than the maximum calculated exposures using the methods described above (5.006, table 19).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Minke whales usually travel in groups of two to three individuals (NMFS, 2023b). During Cook Inlet-wide aerial surveys conducted from 1993 to 2004, minke whales were encountered three times (1998, 1999, and 2006), all were observed off Anchor Point (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013, 2015b, and 2017). Several minke whales were recorded off Cape Starichkof in early summer 2013 during exploratory drilling (Owl Ridge, 2014), suggesting this location is regularly used by minke whales year-round. During Apache's 2014 survey, a total of two minke whale groups (three individuals) were observed. One sighting occurred southeast of Kalgin Island while the other sighting occurred near Homer (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014). SAExploration noted one minke whale near Tuxedni Bay in 2015 (Kendall and Cornick, 2015). Eight sightings of eight minke whales were recorded in the 2019 Hilcorp lower Cook Inlet seismic survey (Fairweather Science, 2020). During a June aerial survey in 2021 three minke whales were observed near Anchor Point (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022) and a single minke whale was observed during Hilcorp's marine vibroseis seismic survey in 2024 near Anchor Point. Commensurate with the maximum calculated exposure estimates, Hilcorp has requested, and NMFS proposes to authorize, one take by Level A harassment per year for minke whales. Based on these observations of group size and consistency of sightings in Cook Inlet, Hilcorp has requested, and NMFS proposes to authorize, three takes by Level B harassment per year for minke whales. This is higher than the exposure estimate (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         0.076, table 19) to allow for the potential occurrence of a group, or several individuals, each year.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        During Apache's 2012 seismic program, nine sightings of a total of nine gray whales were observed in June and July along the western side of middle Cook Inlet and northern Trading Bay; areas within the specific geographic area of Hilcorp's specified activities (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). In 2014, one gray whale was observed during Apache's seismic program (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014) and in 2015, no gray whales were observed during SAExploration's seismic survey (Kendall and Cornick, 2015). No gray whales were observed during the 2018 CIPL Extension Project (Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018) or during the 2019 Hilcorp seismic survey in lower Cook Inlet (Fairweather Science, 2020). Three sightings of individual gray whales have also been observed near the POA and Port Woronzof in 2020 and 2021 (61 N Environmental 2021, 2022a; Easley-Appleyard and Leonard 2022). The greatest densities of gray whales in Cook Inlet occur from November through January and March through May; the former are southbound, the latter are northbound (Ferguson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). Commensurate with the maximum calculated exposure estimates, Hilcorp has requested, and NMFS proposes to authorize, one take by Level A harassment per year for gray whales. Based on the recent sightings of gray whales in upper Cook Inlet, observations made in the specified geographic area and known group size, Hilcorp has requested, and NMFS has proposed to authorize, five takes by Level B harassment per year for gray whales. This is higher than the exposure estimate (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         0.180, table 19) to allow for the potential occurrence of a group, or several individuals, particularly during the fall shoulder season during the higher density periods mentioned above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Fin whales most often travel alone, although they are sometimes seen in groups of two to seven individuals. During migration they may be in groups of 50 to 300 individuals (NMFS, 2010). During the NMFS aerial surveys in Cook Inlet from 2000 to 2018, 10 sightings of 26 estimated individual fin whales were recorded in lower Cook Inlet (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013, 2015b, and 2017; Shelden and Wade, 2019). Wild 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2023) identified areas south of the mouth of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35016"/>
                        Cook Inlet as a fin whale feeding BIA from June to September with an importance score of 1 and an intensity score of 1 (see Harrison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023 for more details regarding BIA scoring). As such, the potential for fin whales to occupy waters adjacent to the BIA during that time period and near the specified area may be higher. Acoustic detections of fin whales were recorded during passive acoustic monitoring in the fall of 2019 (Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020). Additionally, during seismic surveys conducted in 2019 by Hilcorp in lower Cook Inlet, 8 sightings of 23 fin whales were recorded in groups ranging in size from 1 to 15 individuals (Fairweather Science, 2020). The higher number of sightings in a single year relative to the multi-year NMFS aerial surveys flown earlier in season each year suggests fin whales may be present in greater numbers in the fall. Commensurate with the maximum calculated exposure estimates, Hilcorp has requested, and NMFS proposes to authorize, one take by Level A harassment per year for fin whales. Given the possible presence of fin whales, Hilcorp has requested, and NMFS has proposed to authorize, three takes by Level B harassment per year for fin whales during Hilcorp's planned activities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Killer whale pods typically consist of a few to 20 or more animals (NMFS, 2023c). During seismic surveys conducted in 2019 by Hilcorp in lower Cook Inlet, 21 killer whales were observed. Although also observed as single individuals, killer whales were recorded during this survey in groups ranging in size from two to five individuals (Fairweather Science, 2020). One killer whale group of two individuals was observed during the 2015 SAExploration seismic program near the North Foreland (Kendall and Cornick, 2015). Passive acoustic monitoring efforts throughout Cook Inlet documented killer whales at the Beluga River, Kenai River, and Homer Spit. These detections were likely resident killer whales since transient killer whales tend to move quietly through waters to track marine mammal prey (Small 2010; Lammers 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). In addition, two killer whales were sighted offshore of Point Woronzof in upper Cook Inlet in September 2021 (61 North Environmental 2022a). Commensurate with the maximum calculated exposure estimates, Hilcorp has requested, and NMFS proposes to authorize, one take by Level A harassment per year for killer whales. Based on recent documented sightings, observed group sizes, and the established presence of killer whales in Cook Inlet, Hilcorp has requested, and NMFS has proposed to authorize 10 takes by Level B harassment per year for killer whales. This will account for two sightings with a group size of five individuals, which represents the upper end of recorded group size in recent surveys conducted in Cook Inlet.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The 2018 MML aerial survey (Shelden and Wade, 2019) reported a median CIBW group size estimate of approximately 11 whales, although estimated group sizes were highly variable (ranging from 2 to 147 whales) as was the case in previous survey years (Boyd 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). The median group size during 2021 and 2022 MML aerial surveys was 34 and 15, respectively, with variability between 1 and 174 between the years (Goetz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). Additionally, vessel-based surveys in 2019 found CIBW groups in the Susitna River Delta (roughly 24 km north of the Tyonek Platform) that ranged from 5 to 200 animals (McGuire 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). However, the very large groups seen in the Susitna River Delta are not expected near Hilcorp's activities because groups of this size have not been observed or documented outside river deltas in upper Cook Inlet. During Hilcorp's jack-up rig move in May 2024, approximately 25 CIBWs were sighted outside of the aerial survey area, approximately 20 of which were at the mouth of the Big Susitna River (Horsley and Larson 2024). One sighting of 3 CIBWs was also reported near the Tyonek Platform during Hilcorp's October jack-up rig move (Horsley 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024). Hilcorp is not requesting, and NMFS is not proposing to authorize, any take by Level A harassment for CIBWs and none is expected. Hilcorp is requesting, and NMFS is proposing to authorize, a maximum of 27 takes in any given year by Level B harassment, which is commensurate with the maximum estimated exposure estimate with Year 2, Scenario 2, and would allow for the possibility of one observation of the 2022 mean group size of 15 whales in Cook Inlet, plus a few smaller groups and individuals. Across the effective period of the 5-year LOA, no more than 94 takes are proposed to be authorized.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Dall's porpoises are usually found in groups averaging between 2 and 12 individuals (NMFS, 2023d). The 2012 Apache survey recorded two groups of three individual Dall's porpoises (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014). During seismic surveys conducted in 2019 by Hilcorp in lower Cook Inlet, Dall's porpoises were recorded in groups ranging from two to seven individuals (Fairweather Science, 2020). During Hilcorp's 2023 jack-up rig move in June, one Dall's porpoise was sighted by a PSO in middle Cook Inlet, just offshore from Rig Tenders Dock (Horsley and Larson 2023). Commensurate with the maximum calculated exposure estimates, Hilcorp has requested, and NMFS proposes to authorize, one take by Level A harassment per year for Dall's porpoises. Based on observed group size and frequency of recent observations of Dall's porpoise in the specified geographic area, Hilcorp has requested, and NMFS has proposed to authorize, 10 takes by Level B harassment per year for this species. This is greater than the estimated exposure estimate for this species (0.371, table 10), but will allow for at least one group at the higher end of documented group size or a combination of small groups plus individuals.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Harbor porpoises are most often seen in groups of two to three (NMFS, 2023e); however, based on observations during project-based marine mammal monitoring, they can also occur in larger group sizes. Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2014) compiled historical sightings of harbor porpoises from lower to upper Cook Inlet that spanned from a few animals to 92 individuals. The 2018 CIPL Extension Project that occurred in middle Cook Inlet reported 29 sightings of 44 individuals (Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). Fifteen harbor porpoise sightings of 18 individuals and 22 harbor porpoise sightings of 27 individuals were observed in upper Cook Inlet near the POA in 2020 and 2021, respectively (61 North Environmental 2021, 2022). During jack-up rig moves in 2021, a PSO observed an individual harbor porpoise in middle Cook Inlet in July and another in October (Horsley and Larson 2023). Additionally, another harbor porpoise was sighted during the June 2023 jack-up rig move in middle Cook Inlet (Horsley and Larson 2023). Hilcorp is requesting, and NMFS is proposing to authorize, four takes by Level A harassment each year for harbor porpoises, and 11 takes by Level B harassment per year for this species (but no more than 44 takes occurring across the 5-year effective period of the LOA). The amount of take requested and proposed for Level A harassment is higher than the maximum annual exposure estimate (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         1.821, table 19) to account for the less-known winter distribution of harbor porpoises, which also may travel in groups. The proposed amount of take by Level B harassment would allow for multiple group sightings across a year and is commensurate with the maximum 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35017"/>
                        annual exposure estimate (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         10.297, table 19).
                    </P>
                    <P>Recent data specific to Pacific white-sided dolphins within Cook Inlet are lacking, and the calculated exposure estimate is zero based on the paucity of sightings of this species in this region (table 19). However, Pacific-white sided dolphins have been observed in Cook Inlet. During an aerial survey in May 2014, Apache observed three Pacific white-sided dolphins near Kenai. No large groups of Pacific white-sided dolphins have been reported within Cook Inlet, although acoustic detections of several Pacific white-sided dolphins were recorded near Iniskin Bay during Hilcorp's 3D seismic survey in 2020. Prior to this, only one other survey in the last 20 years noted the presence of Pacific white-sided dolphins (three animals) within Cook Inlet. As a result of the dearth of current data on this species, an accurate density for Pacific white-sided dolphins in the specific project region has not been generated. However, based on the possibility of this species present near Hilcorp's specified activities, NMFS proposes to authorize three takes by Level B harassment per year for Pacific white-sided dolphins, the maximum number of Pacific white-sided dolphins that have been recorded in the somewhat recent past in Cook Inlet. This is consistent with recent IHAs issued to Hilcorp for similar activities (87 FR 62364, October 14, 2022; 89 FRN 79529, September 30, 2024). Hilcorp has not requested, and NMFS is not proposing to authorize, take by Level A harassment for this species, and none is expected.</P>
                    <P>Harbor seals are often solitary in water but can haul out in groups of a few to thousands (ADF&amp;G, 2022). Given their known presence in the study region, Hilcorp has requested, and NMFS has proposed to authorize, a maximum of 43 takes by Level A harassment and 728 takes by Level B harassment in any given year for harbor seals, which is commensurate with the maximum annual calculated exposure estimates (table 19). Across the 5-year effective period, NMFS has proposed to authorize a maximum of 184 takes by Level A harassment and 2,884 takes by Level B harassment.</P>
                    <P>
                        Steller sea lions tend to forage individually or in small groups (Fiscus and Baines, 1966) but have been documented feeding in larger groups when schooling fish were present (Gende 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001). Steller sea lions have been observed during marine mammal surveys conducted in Cook Inlet. During NMFS CIBW aerial surveys from 1993 to 2022, 64 sightings of 1,111 individual Steller sea lions mostly in lower Cook Inlet were reported (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017; Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). In 2012, during Apache's 3D seismic survey, three sightings of approximately four individuals in upper Cook Inlet were reported (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). Marine mammal observers associated with Buccaneer's drilling project off Cape Starichkof observed seven Steller sea lions during the summer of 2013 (Owl Ridge, 2014). During SAExploration's 3D Seismic Program in 2015, four Steller sea lions were observed in Cook Inlet. One sighting occurred between the West and East Forelands, one occurred near Nikiski, and one occurred northeast of the North Foreland in the center of Cook Inlet (Kendall and Cornick, 2015). During NMFS CIBW aerial surveys from 2000 to 2016, 39 sightings of 769 estimated individual Steller sea lions in lower Cook Inlet were reported (Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017). During a waterfowl survey in upper Cook Inlet, an observer documented an estimated 25 Steller sea lions hauled out at low tide in the Lewis River on the west side of Cook Inlet (K. Lindberg, pers. comm., August 15, 2022). Steller sea lions have also been observed during marine mammal monitoring at the POA (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Easley-Appleyard and Leonard, 2022). Hilcorp reported one sighting of two Steller sea lions while conducting pipeline work in upper Cook Inlet (Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). In 2023, one Steller sea lion was observed off Anchor Point in October during Hilcorp's marine vibroseis pilot project (Hanks 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024). Based on exposure estimates and the documented occurrence of Steller sea lions throughout Cook Inlet, Hilcorp is requesting, and NMFS is proposing to authorize, 1 annual take by Level A harassment and a maximum of 19 takes in any given year by Level B harassment for Steller sea lions. Across the 5-year effective period, NMFS has proposed to authorize a maximum of 5 takes by Level A harassment and 74 takes of Steller sea lions by Level B harassment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        While California sea lions are uncommon in the specific geographic region, two individuals were seen during the 2012 Apache seismic survey in Cook Inlet (Lomac-MacNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). California sea lions in Alaska are typically alone but may be seen in small groups usually associated with Steller sea lions at their haul outs and rookeries (Maniscalco 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004). Despite the exposure estimate being zero due to the lack of sightings during aerial surveys, Hilcorp is requesting, and NMFS is proposing to authorize, two takes annually by Level B harassment for California sea lions. This is consistent with recent IHAs issued to Hilcorp for similar activities (87 FR 62364, October 14, 2022; 89 FRN 79529, September 30, 2024). Hilcorp has not requested, and NMFS is not proposing to authorize, take by Level A harassment for this species, and none is expected.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Mitigation</HD>
                    <P>In order to issue an authorization under section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth in regulations the permissible methods of taking pursuant to the activity, and other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on the species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of the species or stock for taking for certain subsistence uses (referred to in shorthand as mitigation). NMFS regulations require applicants for incidental take authorizations to include information about the availability and feasibility (economic and technological) of equipment, methods, and manner of conducting the activity or other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact upon the affected species or stocks, and their habitat (50 CFR 216.104(a)(11)).</P>
                    <P>In evaluating how mitigation may or may not be appropriate to effect the least practicable adverse impact on species or stocks and their habitat, as well as subsistence uses where applicable, NMFS considers two primary factors which are described below. For a full discussion of NMFS' implementation of the least practicable adverse impact standard, see 89 FR 31488, 31517 (April 24, 2024) as an example.</P>
                    <P>(1) The manner in which, and the degree to which, the successful implementation of the measure(s) is expected to reduce impacts to marine mammals, marine mammal species or stocks, and their habitat, as well as subsistence uses. This considers the nature of the potential adverse impact being mitigated (likelihood, scope, range). It further considers the likelihood that the measure will be effective if implemented (probability of accomplishing the mitigating result if implemented as planned), the likelihood of effective implementation (probability implemented as planned); and</P>
                    <P>(2) The practicability of the measures for applicant implementation, which may consider such things as cost and impact on operations.</P>
                    <P>
                        Temporal restrictions in places where marine mammals are concentrated, engaged in biologically important 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35018"/>
                        behaviors, and/or present in sensitive life stages are effective measures for reducing the magnitude and severity of human impacts. Accordingly, to effect the least practicable adverse impact, Hilcorp proposed to conduct pile driving at the Tyonek Platform (which is located closer to concentrated foraging areas) only during winter months (November 15-April 15) which is expected to greatly reduce the amount and consequences of take that may have otherwise occurred should pile driving at the Tyonek Platform be conducted during spring and summer months when CIBW are engaged more frequently in foraging behaviors. Restricting pile driving to winter months at the Tyonek Platform also affords protection to other marine mammals that are known to use the area where with greater frequency during months when the restrictions would be in place. Pile driving in support of exploratory wells would occur between April and December; however, the location of this activity is far south of primary foraging areas and would only occur for approximately 18 intermittent days over the 5-year effective period of the regulations (6 days in Year 2 and 12 days in Year 4).
                    </P>
                    <P>Seasonal restrictions for all other activities are not proposed. Tugs towing, holding, or positioning a jack-up and pipeline replacement/installation work emit relatively low source levels and the majority of tug use would occur outside of key CIBW foraging habitats. Furthermore, Level B harassment that may occur from exposure to these activities would be relatively minor with respect to impact intensity. Further, given that jack-up rigs are moved during specific tidal cycles, restricting the time frames for this work to occur would not be practicable as the amount of time for this work to occur is already greatly limited.</P>
                    <P>NMFS proposes the establishment of both clearance and, where technically feasible, shutdown zones during project activities that have the potential to result in harassment of marine mammals. The purpose of “clearance” of a particular zone is to minimize potential instances of auditory injury and more severe behavioral disturbances by delaying the commencement of an activity if marine mammals are near the activity. The purpose of a shutdown is to prevent a specific acute impact, such as auditory injury or severe behavioral disturbance of sensitive species, by halting the activity.</P>
                    <P>
                        Hilcorp would use NMFS-approved PSOs to monitor for marine mammals to the greatest extent possible before, during, and after all specified activities. For 30 minutes prior to commencing new operational activities, or if there is a 30-minute lapse in operational activities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         pauses between intermittent pile driving or tugging activities), PSOs would observe and implement clearance procedures as described below (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         pre-clearance monitoring). Note: transitioning from towing to positioning without shutting down would not be considered commencing a new operational activity. If no marine mammals are observed within the relevant clearance zones (table 20) during this 30-minute clearance monitoring period, specified sound-producing activities could commence. If a marine mammal(s) is observed within the relevant clearance zone (table 20) during the 30 minute pre-clearance monitoring period, activities would not commence until the PSOs observe that the animal(s) is outside of and on a path away from the clearance zone or 30 minutes have elapsed without observing the marine mammal (the latter being the only applicable option for CIBWs with clearance zones equivalent to any distance), unless the delay interferes with the safety of working conditions. In the event that the entire clearance zone is not visible (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         fog, rain, snow, low light), the specified sound-producing activity would not commence until the clearance zone could be cleared. The 1,500-m (4,900-ft) clearance zone proposed for non-CIBW species during tugging activities is consistent with previous authorizations for tugging activities (87 FR 62364, October 14, 2022; 89 FRN 79529, September 30, 2024) and was determined to be appropriate as it is larger than the largest Level A harassment zones (tables 13, 14, 15, and 16) and is a reasonable distance within which cryptic species (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         porpoises, pinnipeds) could be observed. The larger clearance zone for CIBWs (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         any distance) is consistent with mitigation measures required in the most recent authorization to Hilcorp for tugging activities (89 FR 79529, September 30, 2024) and is aimed to further minimize any potential impacts from tugs under load on this species. After cessations of any sound-generating activities resulting from the specified activities described herein, PSOs would continue to monitor for an additional 30 minutes (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         post-clearance monitoring).
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,15,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 20—Summary of Proposed Clearance and Shutdown Zones by Activity</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Species or 
                                <LI>hearing group</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Clearance zone
                                <LI>(m)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Shutdown zone
                                <LI>(m)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Production and Exploratory Drilling</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">
                                Tugs Towing, Holding, or Positioning a Jack-Up Rig 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                CIBWs
                                <LI>Non-CIBWs</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Any distance
                                <LI>1,500</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                N/A
                                <LI>N/A</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Production Well Development at the Tyonek Platform</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">Winter Pile Driving</ENT>
                            <ENT>All Marine Mammal Species</ENT>
                            <ENT>500</ENT>
                            <ENT>500</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Exploratory Drilling: MSF Unit and Between Anna and Bruce</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">Exploratory Pile Driving</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                VHF Cetaceans
                                <LI>LF Cetaceans, HF Cetaceans, Phocids, Otariids</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                1,650
                                <LI>1,200</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                1,650
                                <LI>1,200</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Pipeline Replacement or Installation</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">
                                Anchor Handling 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                CIBWs
                                <LI>Non-CIBWs</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Any distance
                                <LI>1,500</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                N/A
                                <LI>N/A</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="35019"/>
                            <ENT I="03">
                                Pipe Pulling 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                CIBWs
                                <LI>Non-CIBWs</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Any distance
                                <LI>1,500</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                N/A
                                <LI>N/A</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             This activity cannot shut down once started and therefore has no associated shutdown zone.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        If a shutdown zone is applicable for an activity (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         during impact pile driving, table 20), Hilcorp would immediately shut down the corresponding sound-producing activity any time a marine mammal is observed entering or within the applicable shutdown zone. Sound-generating activities would not resume until either the animal is observed exiting and is on a trajectory away from the shutdown or the animal has not been seen in the shutdown zone for at least 15 minutes (for pinnipeds) or 30 minutes (for cetaceans). In addition, if during pile driving a PSO(s) can no longer effectively monitor the entirety of the corresponding shutdown zone due to environmental conditions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         fog, rain, wind), pile driving may continue only until the current segment of the pile is driven; no additional sections of pile or additional piles may be driven until conditions improve such that the shutdown zone can be effectively monitored. If the shutdown zone cannot be monitored for more than 15 minutes, the entire zone must be cleared again for 30 minutes prior to reinitiating pile driving.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        If a shutdown procedure should be initiated but human safety or pile instability is at risk, as determined by the best professional judgment of the vessel operator or project engineer, the in-water activity (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         pile driving) would be allowed to continue until the risk to human safety and pile instability has dissipated. In this scenario, pile driving may continue only until the current segment of the pile is driven; no additional sections of pile or additional piles may be driven until a PSO(s) has determined that the shutdown zones are clear of marine mammals.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        During winter pile driving at the Tyonek Platform, Hilcorp would only be required to clear and shut down activities if marine mammals occurred within the 500-m (1,640-ft) shutdown zone, which is larger than the estimated distances to all Level A harassment isopleths, but smaller than the estimated 1,000-m (3,281-ft) distance to the Level B harassment isopleth. This reduced shutdown zone varies from other shutdown zones for pile driving activities which are greater than both the estimated Level A and Level B harassment zones. This reduced distance is to meant to minimize the potential for shutdowns of this activity during the winter operational season when many marine mammals, including CIBWs, are less likely to be in the specified geographic area (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         it is preferred that as much impact driving as possible happens in the winter season to minimize potential takes to marine mammals, specifically CIBWs). Should a larger clearance and shutdown zone be implemented, this would extend Hilcorp's activity schedule requiring more work days wherein marine mammals could be exposed to construction noise and the effectiveness of monitoring for marine mammals beyond 500 m (1,640 ft) is reduced due to poor weather/visibility conditions during winter months. Therefore, an increased clearance and shutdown zone is not practicable and is unlikely to result in meaningful benefits for marine mammals.
                    </P>
                    <P>Tugs towing, holding, or positioning a jack-up rig, and tugs engaged in anchor handling and pipe pulling activities are not able to shut down while under load. Hilcorp would maneuver the tugs engaged in these activities such that they maintain a consistent speed (approximately 4 knots [7 km/hr]) and avoid multiple changes of speed and direction to make the course of the vessels as predictable as possible to marine mammals in the surrounding environment, characteristics that are expected to be associated with a lower likelihood of disturbance. If a marine mammal is observed while a tug is under load and the tug cannot shut down, tug operators would determine if there is ample time and space to safely alter course, considering the safety and practicality of the maneuver.</P>
                    <P>If a species for which authorization has not been granted or a species for which authorization has been granted but the authorized takes have been reached is observed approaching, entering, or within the corresponding zone, in-water work would be delayed (if during pre-clearance) or shut down (except for tugs towing, holding, or positioning the jack-up rig, pipe pulling, or anchor handling activities if already initiated) and NMFS would be notified. Activities would not resume until either the animal has voluntarily exited and been visually confirmed beyond the clearance zone indicated in table 20, or 15 minutes (for pinnipeds) or 30 minutes (for cetaceans) have passed without re-detection of the animal.</P>
                    <P>For tug towing rig activities, Hilcorp would operate with the tide, resulting in a low power output and decreased radiated noise from the tugs. Due to the nature of tidal cycles in Cook Inlet, it is possible that the most favorable tide for towing operations would occur during nighttime hours. In all cases, Hilcorp will make every effort to ensure the clearance zone is free of marine mammals before initiating towing; however, towing may proceed if the standing down would prohibit towing on that tidal cycle. That is, in some cases, it may not be practicable for Hilcorp to wait until the clearance zone is clear to initiate towing. Favorable tides do not occur often and Hilcorp has intermittent contractual use of the tugs creating a tight timeline to conduct the work. Further, waiting until the next favorable tidal cycle would result in tugs circling the staging area, resulting in more noise than necessary entering the water column. Towing jack-up rigs on a non-favorable tide would necessitate increased power which would increase noise levels during towing. Therefore, while Hilcorp will delay towing as long as practicable before initiating towing should a marine mammal be in the clearance zone, they may proceed with towing when delaying is not practicable.</P>
                    <P>
                        Anchor handling could only occur during the approximate 1.5-hr period at one of the four slack tides each day. If anchor handling is not completed during this time (particularly during setup and retrieval), the assist tugs may need to hold the barge in place during the next 4.5-hr tide cycle until slack tide occurs again. Because the timeframe to position anchors is brief, shutdowns are impractical; additionally, the sound generated by tugs holding the barge is louder than anchor handling operations and so pose a greater acoustic risk. Once anchor handling commences after pre-clearance monitoring (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         anchor 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35020"/>
                        setting, retrieving, and anchor moving during pipelay), operations would continue until all anchors are set or retrieved and may continue into the night.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        During nighttime hours or low/no-light conditions, night-vision devices (NVDs) shown to be effective at detecting marine mammals in low-light conditions within clearance zones (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Portable Visual Search-7 model with 5x magnifier, or similar) would be provided to PSOs to aid in their monitoring of marine mammals to determine if the relevant clearance zone is free of marine mammals. Except for tug towing the jack-up rig, if the entire clearance zone is not visible with NVDs due to adverse weather conditions such as snow, rain, or fog, operations may not begin or must cease (except tugs under load with a jack-up rig, anchor handling, and pipe pulling activities which cannot shut down) until visibility is restored.
                    </P>
                    <P>Soft-start procedures would be implemented for all impact pile driving. Soft-start procedures are used to provide additional protection to marine mammals by providing warning and/or giving marine mammals a chance to leave the area prior to the hammer operating at full capacity. For impact pile driving, Hilcorp's proposed soft start would involve an initial set of three to six strikes at reduced energy, followed by a 1-minute waiting period, then two subsequent reduced-energy strike sets. A soft start would be implemented at the start of each day's impact pile driving and at any time following cessation of impact pile driving for a period of 30 minutes or longer. Where concerns with safety or pile stability/refusal occur, Hilcorp would be required to conduct soft starts using the lowest energy possible.</P>
                    <P>
                        Out of concern for potential disturbance to CIBWs in sensitive and essential habitat, Hilcorp would maintain a distance of 2.4 km from the MLLW line of the Susitna River Delta (Beluga River to the Little Susitna River) between April 15 and November 15 as data suggest that substantial numbers of CIBWs continue to occur in the Susitna Delta area through at least mid-November. (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023.).
                    </P>
                    <P>For transportation of a jack-up rig to or from the Tyonek platform, in addition to the PSOs stationed on the rig during towing, an additional PSO would be stationed on the Tyonek Platform to monitor for marine mammals. The PSO would be on-watch for at least 1 hr before tugs are expected to arrive (scheduled to approach the estimated 120-dB isopleth).</P>
                    <P>
                        Hilcorp also considered the use of noise attenuation systems, unmanned aerial vehicles, passive acoustic monitoring, and additional placement of PSOs, but these measures were deemed to be either impracticable or ineffective for the proposed work. Noise attenuation systems (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         bubble curtains) cannot be deployed around moving vessels or pipeline activities; however, Hilcorp would utilize favorable tides to tow the jack-up rig such that engine power is reduced (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         vessel would move with the tides rather than against it) which serves as mitigation. Noise attenuation systems are commonly deployed around pile driving activities where currents allow, when the amount of work warrants them, and where noise levels are of elevated concern (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         impact pile driving large piles where animals are engaged in critical behaviors). In this case, Hilcorp would be conducting pile driving at well sites where currents can be strong (making bubble curtains likely ineffective and also reducing effectiveness of passive acoustic monitoring) and only conducting a small amount of pile driving work. Further, pile driving at the Tyonek Platform would be conducted when marine mammals, particularly CIBWs, are not engaging in concentrated behaviors (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         foraging). Hilcorp would deploy multiple PSOs per activity; however, space on the vessels are limited and the benefit of additional observers is negligible. Overall, NMFS preliminarily concurs with Hilcorp that the mitigation measures proposed in their application and provided in this proposed rule effect the least practicable adverse impact on marine mammals.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Vessel strike is not an anticipated outcome of vessel use as vessels are traveling slowly or would be stationary during work. However, to further reduce risk of vessel interaction, Hilcorp would abide by speed restrictions set forth in the regulations below, maintain consistent directionality (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         avoid erratic changes in direction), not actively approach a marine mammal, and avoid engaging propellers should interaction be possible. Hilcorp would also abide by NOAA Alaska Region Marine Mammal Viewing Guidelines. Lastly, Hilcorp's vessels are subject to the following existing approach regulations: Alaska humpback whale approach regulations (50 CFR 216.18, 223, 214, and 224,103(b)), and Western DPS Steller sea lion regulations (50 CFRR 224.103(d)). In cases where there are concern about safety, the maneuverability of the vessel is restricted, or Hilcorp is engaged in an emergency response, deviation from these operational requirements would be allowed. However, Hilcorp would include information regarding any deviation taken to NMFS within monitoring reports.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Mitigation for Subsistence Uses of Marine Mammals or Plan of Cooperation</HD>
                    <P>Regulations at 50 CFR 216.104(a)(12) further require ITA applicants conducting activities in or near a traditional Arctic subsistence hunting area and/or that may affect the availability of a species or stock of marine mammals for Arctic subsistence uses to provide a Plan of Cooperation or information that identifies what measures have been taken and/or will be taken to minimize adverse effects on the availability of marine mammals for subsistence purposes. A plan must include the following:</P>
                    <P>• A statement that the applicant has notified and provided the affected subsistence community with a draft plan of cooperation;</P>
                    <P>• A schedule for meeting with the affected subsistence communities to discuss proposed activities and to resolve potential conflicts regarding any aspects of either the operation or the plan of cooperation;</P>
                    <P>• A description of what measures the applicant has taken and/or will take to ensure that proposed activities will not interfere with subsistence whaling or sealing; and</P>
                    <P>• What plans the applicant has to continue to meet with the affected communities, both prior to and while conducting the activity, to resolve conflicts and to notify the communities of any changes in the operation.</P>
                    <P>As described in the Unmitigable Adverse Impact Analysis and Determination section below, harbor seals are harvested by the Kenai, Salamatof, and Tyonek communities. Steller sea lions are also harvested (except in the Tyonek community), but at relatively low rates. A moratorium on harvesting of CIBWs is in effect.</P>
                    <P>
                        Hilcorp has developed a Stakeholder Engagement Plan that includes subsistence communities to minimize adverse effects on the availability of subsistence marine mammals for subsistence purposes from the activities. Broadly, Hilcorp developed this plan to communicate the scope of the specified activity to stakeholders, demonstrate sensitivity and responsiveness to stakeholder issues and ideas, and facilitate communication and cooperation among stakeholders. Hilcorp will schedule and host virtual informational meetings for subsistence 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35021"/>
                        stakeholders detailing Hilcorp's upcoming activities. When requested by stakeholders, Hilcorp will establish virtual meetings to provide updated information on ongoing oil and gas exploration, development, production, and decommissioning activities. During those meetings, Hilcorp's Alaska Government and Public Affairs Advisor will bring in subject matter experts to assist in sharing information and responding to questions from stakeholders, including subsistence users. Hilcorp will also set up a dedicated email address for stakeholder concerns and comments and send out mailings to stakeholders regarding Hilcorp's activities. Based on our evaluation of our proposed measures, NMFS has preliminarily determined that the required mitigation provide the means of effecting the least practicable impact on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stock for subsistence uses.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Monitoring and Reporting</HD>
                    <P>In order to issue take authorization for an activity, section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA states that NMFS must set forth requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking. The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104(a)(13) indicate that requests for authorizations must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species and of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals that are expected to be present while conducting the activities. Effective reporting is critical both to compliance as well as ensuring that the most value is obtained from the required monitoring.</P>
                    <P>Monitoring and reporting requirements prescribed by NMFS should contribute to improved understanding of one or more of the following:</P>
                    <P>
                        • Occurrence of marine mammal species or stocks in the area in which take is anticipated (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         presence, abundance, distribution, density);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Nature, scope, or context of likely marine mammal exposure to potential stressors/impacts (individual or cumulative, acute or chronic), through better understanding of: (1) action or environment (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         source characterization, propagation, ambient noise); (2) affected species (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         life history, dive patterns); (3) co-occurrence of marine mammal species with the activity; or (4) biological or behavioral context of exposure (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         age, calving or feeding areas);
                    </P>
                    <P>• Individual marine mammal responses (behavioral or physiological) to acoustic stressors (acute, chronic, or cumulative), other stressors, or cumulative impacts from multiple stressors;</P>
                    <P>• How anticipated responses to stressors impact either: (1) long-term fitness and survival of individual marine mammals; or (2) populations, species, or stocks;</P>
                    <P>
                        • Effects on marine mammal habitat (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         marine mammal prey species, acoustic habitat, or other important physical components of marine mammal habitat); and
                    </P>
                    <P>• Mitigation and monitoring effectiveness.</P>
                    <P>Hilcorp would abide by all monitoring and reporting measures contained within this proposed rule, any issued LOA, and a NMFS-approved Marine Mammal Monitoring and Mitigation Plan (see appendix A of Hilcorp's application). A summary of those proposed measures is provided below.</P>
                    <P>Hilcorp would monitor for marine mammals once all specified activities are underway to the maximum distance possible based on the required number of PSOs, required monitoring locations, and environmental conditions. PSOs would also conduct monitoring for marine mammals during the pre-clearance monitoring periods, through 30 minutes post-completion of any activity each day, and after each stoppage of 30 minutes or greater. PSOs would monitor for marine mammals from the best available vantage point, ideally an elevated stable platform from which the PSO has an unobstructed 360-degree view of the water or a total 360-degree view between all PSOs on watch. PSOs would be stationed for each activity as summarized in table 21.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,12,r50,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 21—PSO Stations and Locations per Activity</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Number of PSOs</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">On-watch count and position</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">PSO location(s)</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Tugs Towing, Holding, or Positioning a Jack-Up Rig</ENT>
                            <ENT>4</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 on watch (1 port, 1 starboard)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Jack-Up Rig.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Tugs Towing, Holding, or Positioning a Jack-Up Rig at Tyonek Platform</ENT>
                            <ENT>6-8</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                2 on watch (1 port, 1 starboard)
                                <LI>1 on watch</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Jack-Up Rig.
                                <LI>Tyonek Platform.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Winter Season Pile Driving for Production Well Development</ENT>
                            <ENT>4-6</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 on watch (1 port, 1 starboard)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Tyonek Platform.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pile Driving for Exploratory Drilling</ENT>
                            <ENT>4</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 on watch (1 port, 1 starboard)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Drilling Rig.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Anchor Handling</ENT>
                            <ENT>2-3</ENT>
                            <ENT>1 on watch</ENT>
                            <ENT>Anchor Handling Vessel.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pipe Pulling</ENT>
                            <ENT>4-6</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                1 on watch 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                <LI>2 on watch (1 port, 1 starboard)</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Pipe Pulling Vessel.
                                <LI>Nearest Platform.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             The placement of additional PSOs on the pipe pull vessel and platform were evaluated by Hilcorp and determined to be impractical due to the necessity of another vessel to accommodate the extra PSOs.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>PSOs would be independent of the activity contractor (for example, employed by a subcontractor) and have no other assigned tasks during monitoring periods. At least one PSO must have prior experience performing the duties of a PSO during an activity pursuant to a NMFS-issued ITA or Letter of Concurrence. Other PSOs may substitute other relevant experience (including relevant Alaska Native traditional knowledge), education (degree in biological science or related field), or training for prior experience performing the duties of a PSO.</P>
                    <P>PSOs should also have the following additional qualifications:</P>
                    <P>
                        (a) The ability to conduct field observations and collect data according to assigned protocols;
                        <PRTPAGE P="35022"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>(b) Experience or training in the field identification of marine mammals, including the identification of behaviors;</P>
                    <P>(c) Sufficient training, orientation, or experience with the tugging operation to provide for personal safety during observations;</P>
                    <P>(d) Sufficient writing skills to record required information including but not limited to the number and species of marine mammals observed; dates and times when tugs were under load with the jack-up rig; dates, times, and reason for implementation of mitigation (or why mitigation was not implemented when required); and marine mammal behavior; and</P>
                    <P>(e) The ability to communicate orally, by radio, or in person with project personnel to provide real-time information on marine mammals observed in the area as necessary.</P>
                    <P>PSOs could use a combination of equipment to scan the appropriate monitoring area and to verify the required monitoring distance from the project site, including the naked eye, 7 by 50 binoculars, and NVDs for low light and nighttime operations. PSOs would be in communication with all vessel captains via VHF radio and/or cell phones at all times and alert vessel captains to all marine mammal sightings relative to the vessel location. PSOs would work in shifts lasting no more than 4-hr without a minimum of 1-hr break, and would be allowed to watch no more than 12-hr in a 24-hr period.</P>
                    <P>Hilcorp would submit interim monthly reports for all months in which specified activities occur. Monthly reports would be submitted on the 15th day of the following month, and would include a summary of marine mammal species and behavioral observations, delays, shutdowns, and activities completed. The reports would also include an assessment of the amount of work remaining to be completed, in addition to the number of marine mammals observed within estimated harassment zones for the reporting period.</P>
                    <P>Hilcorp would submit draft annual reports to NMFS within 90 calendar days of the completion of marine mammal monitoring each year. Each report(s) would include an overall description of all work completed, a narrative regarding marine mammal sightings, and associated marine mammal observation data sheets (data must be submitted electronically in a format that can be queried such as a spreadsheet or database). Revised annual reports must be prepared and submitted to NMFS within 30 days following receipt of any NMFS comments on the draft reports. If no comments are received from NMFS within 30 days of receipt of the draft report, the report shall be considered final.</P>
                    <P>A draft 5-year comprehensive summary report would be submitted to NMFS 90 days after the expiration of the regulations. The draft report would synthesize the activity and marine mammal data recorded during all years of marine mammal monitoring. NMFS would provide comments within 30 days after receiving this draft report, and Hilcorp would address the comments and submit revisions within 30 days of receipt. If no comments are received from NMFS within 30 days, the draft report can be considered as final.</P>
                    <P>
                        All draft and final marine mammal monitoring reports would be submitted to 
                        <E T="03">PR.ITP.MonitoringReports@noaa.gov.</E>
                         The report(s) should contain the following informational elements, at minimum, including:
                    </P>
                    <P>• Date and time that monitored activity begins or ends;</P>
                    <P>• Activities occurring during each observation period, including (a) the type of activity (tugs under load with a jack-up rig, pile driving, anchor handling, pipe pulling), (b) the total duration of each type of activity, (c) when nighttime operations were required (and if they were, whether NVDs were employed, including which lenses were utilized), and (d) whether towing against the tide was required;</P>
                    <P>• PSO locations during marine mammal monitoring;</P>
                    <P>• Environmental conditions during monitoring periods (at the beginning and end of the PSO shift, every 30 minutes during a watch, and whenever conditions change significantly), including Beaufort sea state, tidal state, and any other relevant weather conditions including cloud cover, fog, sun glare, overall visibility to the horizon, and estimated observable distance;</P>
                    <P>• Upon observation of a marine mammal, the following information:</P>
                    <P>○ Name of PSO who sighted the animal(s) and PSO location and activity at time of sighting;</P>
                    <P>○ Time of sighting;</P>
                    <P>
                        ○ Identification of the animal(s) (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         genus/species, lowest possible taxonomic level, or unidentified), PSO confidence in identification, and the composition of the group if there is a mix of species;
                    </P>
                    <P>○ Distance and location of each observed marine mammal relative to the tug boats for each sighting;</P>
                    <P>○ Estimated number of animals (min/max/best estimate);</P>
                    <P>
                        ○ Estimated number of animals by cohort (adults, juveniles, neonates, group composition, 
                        <E T="03">etc.</E>
                        );
                    </P>
                    <P>○ Animal's closest point of approach and estimated time spent within the harassment zone;</P>
                    <P>
                        ○ Description of any marine mammal behavioral observations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         observed behaviors such as feeding or traveling), including an assessment of behavioral responses thought to have resulted from the activity (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         no response or changes in behavioral state such as ceasing feeding, changing direction, flushing, or breaching);
                    </P>
                    <P>• Number of marine mammals detected within the harassment zones, by species; and</P>
                    <P>
                        • Detailed information about implementation of any mitigation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         delays), a description of specific actions that ensued, and resulting changes in behavior of the animal(s), if any.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the event that personnel involved in Hilcorp's activities discover an injured or dead marine mammal, Hilcorp would report the incident to the Office of Protected Resources, NMFS (
                        <E T="03">PR.ITP.MonitoringReports@noaa.gov</E>
                        ), and to the Alaska Regional Stranding Coordinator as soon as feasible. If the death or injury was clearly caused by the specified activity, Hilcorp would be required to immediately cease the specified activities until NMFS is able to review the circumstances of the incident and determine what, if any, additional measures are appropriate to ensure compliance with the ITR. Hilcorp would not resume their activities until notified by NMFS. The report must include the following information:
                    </P>
                    <P>• Time, date, and location (latitude and longitude) of the first discovery (and updated location information if known and applicable);</P>
                    <P>• Species identification (if known) or description of the animal(s) involved;</P>
                    <P>• Condition of the animal(s) (including carcass condition if the animal is dead);</P>
                    <P>• Observed behaviors of the animal(s), if alive;</P>
                    <P>• If available, photographs or video footage of the animal(s); and</P>
                    <P>• General circumstances under which the animal was discovered.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Negligible Impact Analysis and Determination</HD>
                    <P>
                        NMFS has defined negligible impact as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (50 CFR 216.103). A negligible impact 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35023"/>
                        finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         population-level effects). An estimate of the number of takes alone is not enough information on which to base an impact determination. In addition to considering estimates of the number of marine mammals that might be “taken” through harassment, NMFS considers other factors, such as the likely nature of any impacts or responses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         intensity, duration), the context of any impacts or responses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         critical reproductive time or location, foraging impacts affecting energetics), as well as effects on habitat, and the likely effectiveness of the mitigation. We also assess the number, intensity, and context of estimated takes by evaluating this information relative to population status. Consistent with the 1989 preamble for NMFS' implementing regulations (54 FR 40338, September 29, 1989), the impacts from other past and ongoing anthropogenic activities are incorporated into this analysis via their impacts on the baseline (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         as reflected in the regulatory status of the species, population size and growth rate where known, ongoing sources of human-caused mortality, or ambient noise levels).
                    </P>
                    <P>To avoid repetition, our analysis applies to all the species listed in table 6 given that many of the anticipated effects of this project on different marine mammal stocks are expected to be relatively similar in nature. For CIBWs, there are potentially meaningful differences in anticipated responses to activities, impact of expected take on the population, or impacts on habitat. Therefore, we provide a separate, additional detailed analysis for this species following the general analysis.</P>
                    <P>NMFS has identified several key factors to assess whether potential impacts associated with a specified activity should be considered negligible. These include (but are not limited to) the type and magnitude of taking, the amount and importance of the available habitat for the species or stock that is affected, the duration of the anticipated effect on the individuals, and the status of the species or stock. The potential effects of the specified activity on humpback whales, minke whales, gray whales, fin whales, killer whales, Dall's porpoises, harbor porpoises, Pacific white-sided dolphins, Steller sea lions, harbor seals, and California sea lions are discussed below. These factors also apply to CIBWs but an additional analysis for CIBWs is provided in a separate sub-section.</P>
                    <P>
                        Exposures to elevated sound levels produced during Hilcorp's activities may cause behavioral disturbance of some individuals within the vicinity of the sound source and, for all species except CIBWs and California sea lions, have the potential to cause slight auditory injury. For most activities, exposure estimates (which are inherently conservative because they do not consider mitigation or animal movement) demonstrate that the risk of auditory injury for CIBWs is either non-existent (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         zero exposures are predicted from exposure to tug towing jack-up rigs) or very low. Where exposure estimates predicted potential for auditory injury, the mitigation measures proposed for CIBWs would reduce that risk to the degree that these conservative estimates are unlikely to occur. For California sea lions, exposure estimate modeling did produce zero potential for auditory injury. Due to the relatively limited amount of work proposed, the amount of annual take proposed to be authorized by Level B harassment is less than 3 percent of all stocks (except CIBW) even assuming there are no repeat exposures (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         each take is of a different individual). Behavioral responses of marine mammals to tugs under load with a jack-up rig, impact pile driving, or tugs engaged in anchor handling or pipe pulling are expected to be mild, short term, and temporary. Effects on individuals that are taken by Level B harassment, as enumerated in the Estimated Take of Marine Mammals section, on the basis of reports in the literature as well as monitoring from other similar activities conducted by Hilcorp (Horsley and Larson, 2023, 2024), would likely be limited to behavioral response such as increased swimming speeds, changing in directions of travel and diving and surfacing behaviors, increased respiration rates, or decreased foraging (if such activity were occurring) (Ridgway 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1997; Nowacek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Thorson and Reyff, 2006; Kendall and Cornick, 2015; Goldbogen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013b; Blair 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016; Wisniewska 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018; Piwetz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021). Marine mammals may not present any visual cues they are disturbed by activities, or they could become alert, avoid the area, leave the area, or have other mild responses that are not observable such as increased stress levels (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Rolland 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012; Bejder 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006; Rako 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013; Pirotta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015; Pérez-Jorge 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016). They may also exhibit increased vocalization rates (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Dahlheim, 1987; Dahlheim and Castellote, 2016), louder vocalizations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Frankel and Gabriele, 2017; Fournet 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018), alterations in the spectral features of vocalizations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012), or a cessation of communication signals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Tsujii 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). As described in the Potential Effects of Specified Activities on Marine Mammals and Their Habitat section of this proposed rule, marine mammals observed near Hilcorp's planned activities have shown little to no observable reactions to tugs under load with a jack-up rig or impact pile driving. NMFS is not aware that any severe, overt responses to Hilcorp's or other similar activities in Cook Inlet, such as fleeing, have occurred.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Based on sighting data from 90-day marine mammal monitoring reports, including Lomac-McNair 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2014) and Sitkiewicz 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2018), most marine mammals (in particular CIBWs) sighted during aerial-, land-, and vessel-based monitoring were noted as “traveling” through middle Cook Inlet. That is, most animals present in the region will likely be transiting through the area; therefore, exposure from the moving tug configuration (which comprises most of the tug activity being considered) would likely be on the order of minutes to tens of minutes depending on the animal's persistence near the activity. Moreover, tugs towing, holding, and positioning a jack-up rig and tugs engaged in anchor handling or pipe pulling are slow-moving as compared to typical recreational and commercial vessel traffic. The slow, predictable, and generally straight path or stationary nature of Hilcorp's tugging activities is expected to further lessen the likelihood that sound exposures at the expected levels will result in meaningful effects of the assumed harassment of marine mammals. Tug use is planned in an area of routine vessel traffic where many large vessels move in slow straight-line paths, and some individuals are expected to be habituated to these sorts of sounds. While it is possible that animals may avoid close approaches to the vessels, we do not expect them to abandon any intended path.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Effects on individuals that are taken during pile driving, on the basis of reports in the literature as well as monitoring from other similar activities, would likely be limited to reactions such as increased swimming speeds, increased surfacing time, or interrupted foraging (if such activity were occurring; 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Thorson and Reyff, 2006; HDR, Inc., 2012; Lerma, 2014; ABR, 2016; 61N Environmental, 2021, 2022a, 2022b, and 2022c, 2025). Most likely, individuals will simply move away from the sound source and be temporarily displaced from the areas of pile driving (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Graham 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023, Degraer 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                          
                        <PRTPAGE P="35024"/>
                        2022). Marine mammals would be exposed to no more than 26 intermittent days of pile driving each year, resulting in limited exposure.
                    </P>
                    <P>Most of the species for which take is proposed to be authorized would only be present temporarily based on seasonal patterns or during transit between other habitats. These temporarily present species would be exposed to even shorter periods of noise-generating activity, further decreasing the impacts. For some species, like seals who tend to exhibit residency patterns, takes have the potential to occur where animals are foraging. However, the area ensonified above NMFS's harassment thresholds represents a small portion of available foraging habitat and impacts on marine mammal feeding for all species should be minimal.</P>
                    <P>Generally, the density of marine mammals in middle Cook Inlet during spring through fall correlates with the presence or absence of anadromous fish species during spawning activities. While a temporal overlap exists between activities in the specified geographical region and the occurrence of several species of marine mammals in middle and lower Cook Inlet (primarily CIBWs, harbor seals, and harbor porpoise), the spatial overlap is considerably smaller. The distance between the class of activities in the specified geographical region most closely centered in Trading Bay and eastern middle Cook Inlet and dense concentrations of foraging marine mammals at the mouths of major spawning rivers in upper Cook Inlet (namely the Beluga River and Susitna River) exceeds 40 to 50 km (25 to 31 mi). This correlates with the assumption that CIBWs occur in higher densities near foraging areas, including the Susitna Delta, approximately 27 km (17 mi) from the Tyonek platform, where the nearest activities would occur.</P>
                    <P>
                        We anticipate that any potential reactions and behavioral changes are expected to subside quickly when the exposures cease, and therefore, we do not expect long-term adverse consequences from Hilcorp's planned activities for individuals of any species. The intensity of harassment events would be minimized through use of mitigation measures described herein, which were not quantitatively factored into the take estimates. Hilcorp would use PSOs to monitor for marine mammals before commencing any of the specified activities, which would minimize the potential for marine mammals to be present within the estimated Level A and Level B harassment areas, further reducing the likely amount of any potential Level A or Level B harassment. Further, given the absence of any major rookeries or other areas of known biological significance for marine mammals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         foraging hot spots) within the estimated harassment zones (other than critical habitat and a BIA for CIBWs as described below), we predict that potential takes by Level B harassment would have an inconsequential short-term effect on individuals and would not result in population-level impacts.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Theoretically, repeated, sequential exposure to elevated noise from tugs under load with a jack-up rig, impact pile driving, and tugs engaged in anchor handling or pipe pulling activities over a long duration could result in more severe impacts to individuals that could affect individual fitness or reproductive success (via sustained or repeated disruption of important behaviors such as feeding, resting, traveling, and socializing; Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Alternatively, marine mammals exposed to repetitious sounds may become habituated, desensitized, or tolerant after initial exposure to these sounds (reviewed by Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Cook Inlet is a regional hub of marine transportation and is used by various classes of vessels, including containerships, bulk cargo freighters, tankers, commercial and sport-fishing vessels, and recreational vessels. Off-shore vessels, tug vessels, and tour boats represent 86 percent of the total operating days for vessels in Cook Inlet (BOEM, 2016). Given that marine mammals still frequent and use Cook Inlet despite being exposed to anthropogenic sounds such as those produced by pile driving, tug boats and other vessels across many years, and that it is unlikely that any individual would be exposed to repeated, sequential exposures or repetitious sounds from Hilcorp's activities, no impacts to the reproduction or survival of any marine mammal individuals from the additional noise produced by the specified activities are anticipated. The absence of any pinniped haul outs or other known home-ranges in the planned action area further decreases the likelihood of any more severe energetic impacts that might affect reproduction or survival.
                    </P>
                    <P>Take by Level A harassment for nine species is conservatively proposed to be authorized to account for the potential that an animal could enter and remain within the area between a Level A harassment zone and the shutdown zone during impact pile driving and anchor handling for a duration long enough to be taken by Level A harassment. Any take by Level A harassment is expected to arise from, at most, a small degree of PTS because animals would need to be exposed to higher levels and/or longer duration than are expected to occur here in order to incur any more than a small degree of PTS. Additionally, some subset of the individuals that are behaviorally harassed could also simultaneously incur some small degree of TTS for a short duration of time. Because of the small degree anticipated though, any PTS or TTS potentially incurred here is not expected to adversely impact individual fitness, let alone annual rates of recruitment or survival.</P>
                    <P>
                        Hilcorp's planned activities are also not expected to have significant adverse effects on any marine mammal habitat as any impacts to marine mammal habitat (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         elevated sound levels) would be temporary. In addition to being temporary, intermittent, and short in overall duration, the acoustic footprint of the planned activity would be small relative to the overall distribution of the animals in the area and their use of the area. Additionally, the habitat within the estimated acoustic footprint is not known to be heavily used by marine mammals or of particular importance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Impacts to marine mammal prey species are also expected to be minor and temporary and to have, at most, short-term effects on foraging of individual marine mammals, and likely no effect on the populations of marine mammals as a whole. Overall, as described above, the area anticipated to be impacted by Hilcorp's planned activities is very small compared to the available surrounding habitat and does not include habitat of particular importance to marine mammals. The most likely impact to prey will be temporary behavioral avoidance of the immediate area. During tugging and pile driving activities, it is expected that some fish would temporarily leave the area of disturbance (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Nakken, 1992; Olsen, 1979; Ona and Godo, 1990; Ona and Toresen, 1988), thus impacting marine mammals' foraging opportunities in a limited portion of their foraging range. But, because of the relatively small area of the habitat that may be affected, and lack of any foraging habitat of particular importance, the impacts to marine mammal habitat are not expected to cause significant or long-term negative consequences.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, Hilcorp would minimize potential exposure of marine mammals to elevated noise levels by implementing mitigation measures for specified activities, including delaying activities if marine mammals are observed within corresponding 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35025"/>
                        clearance zones before beginning an activity and, if practicable, shut down an activity should marine mammals enter a pre-defined mitigation zone. Hilcorp would also implement vessel maneuvering measures to reduce the likelihood of disturbing marine mammals during any periods when marine mammals may be present near the vessels. Hilcorp would also reduce the impact of some tugging activities by conducting tugging operations with favorable tides whenever feasible. For pile driving at the Tyonek Platform, Hilcorp would conduct the activity during winter periods (November 15- April 15) when marine mammal foraging is less likely to be occurring and implement soft-start procedures to provide warning and/or give marine mammals a chance to leave the area prior to the hammer operating at full capacity.
                    </P>
                    <P>In summary and as described above, the following factors (with additional analyses for CIBWs included below) primarily support our preliminary determinations that the impacts resulting from Hilcorp's activities described herein are not expected to affect any individual marine mammal's fitness for survival or reproduction, and thus are not expected to adversely affect the species or stocks through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival:</P>
                    <P>• No takes by mortality or serious injury are anticipated or proposed to be authorized;</P>
                    <P>• Level A harassment proposed for authorization is expected to be of a lower degree that would not impact the fitness of any animals;</P>
                    <P>• The intensity of anticipated takes by Level B harassment is low for all stocks consisting of, at worst, temporary modifications in behavior and would not be of a duration or intensity expected to result in impacts on reproduction or survival;</P>
                    <P>• Exposure and resulting impacts would likely be brief given the short duration of the specified activity and the transiting behavior of marine mammals in the action area;</P>
                    <P>• Marine mammal densities are low where and when Hilcorp would conduct activities; therefore, there would not be substantial numbers of marine mammals exposed to the noise from the project compared to the affected population sizes;</P>
                    <P>
                        • Take would not occur in places and/or times where take is more likely to accrue to impacts on reproduction or survival, such as within ESA-designated or proposed critical habitat or BIAs (other than for CIBWs as described below), or other habitats critical to recruitment or survival (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         rookery);
                    </P>
                    <P>• The area ensonfied by Hilcorp's activities represents a very small portion of the available foraging area for all potentially impacted marine mammal species;</P>
                    <P>• Take would only occur within middle Cook Inlet and Trading Bay—a limited, confined area of any given stock's home range;</P>
                    <P>• Monitoring reports from previous projects with pile driving or tugging activities in Cook Inlet have documented little to no observable effect on individuals of the same species impacted by the specified activities; and</P>
                    <P>• The proposed mitigation requirements are expected to be effective in reducing the effects of the specified activity by minimizing the numbers of marine mammals exposed to sound and the intensity of the exposures;</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Cook Inlet Beluga Whales.</E>
                         For CIBWs, we further discuss additional factors in addition to the factors discussed above for all species in the context of potential impacts to this endangered stock based on our evaluation of the take proposed for authorization (table 19).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        All of Hilcorp's activities would be done in a manner implementing best management practices to preserve water quality, and no work would occur around creek mouths or river systems leading to prey abundance reductions. In addition, no physical structures would restrict passage, though impacts to the acoustic habitat are relevant and discussed here. While the specified activities would occur within CIBW Critical Habitat Area 2, and the CIBW small and resident BIA (see the Description of Marine Mammals in the Area of Specified Activities section in this proposed rule), monitoring data from Hilcorp's activities suggest that the presence of pile driving or tugs under load do not discourage CIBWs from transiting throughout Cook Inlet and between critical habitat areas and that the whales do not abandon critical habitat areas (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Horsley and Larson, 2023, 2024). In addition, large numbers of CIBWs have continued to use Cook Inlet and pass through the area, likely traveling to critical foraging grounds found in upper Cook Inlet, while noise-producing anthropogenic activities, including vessel use, have taken place during the past two decades (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Shelden 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013, 2015b, 2017, 2022; Shelden and Wade, 2019; Geotz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). These findings are not surprising as food is a strong motivation for marine mammals. As described in Forney 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017), animals typically favor particular areas because of their importance for survival (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         feeding or breeding), and leaving may have significant costs to fitness (reduced foraging success, increased predation risk, increased exposure to other anthropogenic threats). Consequently, animals may be highly motivated to maintain foraging behavior in historical foraging areas despite negative impacts such as stress (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Rolland 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Generation of sound may result in avoidance behaviors that would be limited in time and space relative to the larger availability of important habitat areas in Cook Inlet; however, the area ensonified by sound from the specified activity is anticipated to be small compared to the overall available critical habitat for CIBWs to feed and travel. Therefore, the specified activity would not create a barrier to movement through or within important areas. We anticipate that disturbance to CIBWs would manifest in the same manner as other marine mammals described above (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         increased swimming speeds, changes in the direction of travel and dive behaviors, increased respiration rates, decreased foraging (if such activity were occurring), or alterations to communication signals). We do not expect exposure to elevated noise levels during transit past Hilcorp's activities would have adverse effects on individuals' fitness for reproduction or survival.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Results of an expert elicitation (EE) at a 2016 workshop, which predicted the impacts of noise on CIBW survival and reproduction given a specific amount of lost foraging opportunities, helped to inform our assessment of impacts on this stock. The 2016 EE workshop used conceptual models of an interim population consequences of disturbance (PCoD) for marine mammals (NRC, 2005; New 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014; Tollit 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016) to help in understanding how noise-related stressors might affect vital rates (survival, birth rate and growth) for CIBW (King 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). NMFS (2016b) suggests that the main direct effects of noise on CIBWs are likely to be through masking of vocalizations used for communication and prey location and habitat degradation. The 2016 workshop on CIBWs was specifically designed to provide regulators with a tool to help understand whether chronic and acute anthropogenic noise from various sources and projects are likely to be limiting recovery of the CIBW population. The full report can be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.smruconsulting.com/publications/</E>
                         with a summary of the expert elicitation portion of the workshop below.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For each of the noise effect mechanisms chosen for the EE, the experts provided a set of parameters and values that determined the forms of a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35026"/>
                        relationship between the number of days of disturbance a female CIBW experiences in a particular period and the effect of that disturbance on her energy reserves. Examples included the number of days of disturbance during the period April, May, and June that would be predicted to reduce the energy reserves of a pregnant CIBW to such a level that she is certain to terminate the pregnancy or abandon the calf soon after birth, the number of days of disturbance in the period April-September required to reduce the energy reserves of a lactating CIBW to a level where she is certain to abandon her calf, and the number of days of disturbance where a female fails to gain sufficient energy by the end of summer to maintain herself and her calf during the subsequent winter. Overall, median values ranged from 16 to 69 days of disturbance depending on the question. However, for the 2016 EE, a “day of disturbance” was defined as any day on which an animal loses the ability to forage for at least one tidal cycle (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         it forgoes 50-100 percent of its energy intake on that day). The day of disturbance considered in the context of the report is notably more severe than any Level B harassment expected to result from these activities, which as described is expected to be comprised predominantly of temporary modifications in the behavior of individual CIBWs (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         faster swim speeds, longer dives, decreased sighting durations, alterations in communication). Also, NMFS proposes to authorize 27 annual instances of take, with the instances representing disturbance events within a day—this means that either 27 different individual CIBWs are disturbed on no more than 1 day each, or some lesser number of individuals may be disturbed on more than 1 day, but with the product of individuals and days not exceeding 27. Given the overall expected take, and the short duration of the specified activities (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         up to a maximum of 54 intermittent days), it is unlikely that any one CIBW would be disturbed on more than a couple of days. Further, Hilcorp would implement mitigation measures specific to CIBWs whereby they would not begin tugging activities should a CIBW be observed at any distance. For winter pile driving, shutdown zones are smaller than the estimated Level B harassment zone, but CIBWs are not anticipated to be in the action area during this time. These measures, along with other mitigation measures described herein, would limit the severity of the effects of that Level B harassment to behavioral changes such as increased swim speeds, changes in diving and surfacing behaviors, and alterations to communication signals, not the loss of foraging capabilities. Finally, take by mortality, serious injury, or Level A harassment of CIBWs is not anticipated or authorized.
                    </P>
                    <P>In summary and as described above, and in addition to the factors described above for other stocks, the following factors primarily support our preliminary determination that the impacts resulting from Hilcorp's planned activities are not expected to adversely affect the CIBWs through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival:</P>
                    <P>• The area of exposure would be limited to habitat primarily used for transiting, and not areas known to be of particular importance for feeding or reproduction;</P>
                    <P>• The activities are not expected to result in CIBWs abandoning critical habitat nor are they expected to restrict passage of CIBWs within or between critical habitat areas; and</P>
                    <P>• Any disturbance to CIBWs is expected to be limited to temporary modifications in behavior, and would not be of a duration or intensity expected to result in impacts on reproduction or survival.</P>
                    <P>Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the required monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS preliminarily finds that the total marine mammal take from the planned specified activity would have a negligible impact on all affected marine mammal species or stocks.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Small Numbers</HD>
                    <P>As noted previously, only take of small numbers of marine mammals may be authorized under section 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA for specified activities other than military readiness activities. The MMPA does not define small numbers and so, in practice, where estimated numbers are available, NMFS compares the maximum number of individuals taken in any year to the most appropriate estimation of abundance of the relevant species or stock in our determination of whether an authorization is limited to small numbers of marine mammals. When the predicted maximum annual number of individuals to be taken is fewer than one-third of the species or stock abundance, the take is considered to be of small numbers (see 86 FR 5322, January 19, 2021). Additionally, other qualitative factors may be considered in the analysis, such as the temporal or spatial scale of the activities.</P>
                    <P>For all stocks whose abundance estimate is known, the maximum annual amount of take proposed to be authorized is less than one-third of the best available population abundance estimates (in fact it is less than 3 percent for all stocks, except for CIBWs whose maximum annual amount of take proposed to be authorized is for up to 9.68 percent of the stock; see table 19). The numbers of animals authorized to be taken are small relative to the relevant species or stock abundances even if each estimated take occurred to a new individual.</P>
                    <P>
                        Abundance estimates for the Mexico-North Pacific stock of humpback whales are are currently considered unknown (Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). The most recent minimum population estimates (N
                        <E T="52">MIN</E>
                        ) for this population include an estimate of 2,241 individuals between 2003 and 2006 (Martinez-Aguilar, 2011) and 766 individuals between 2004 and 2006 (Wade, 2021). NMFS' Guidelines for Assessing Marine Mammal Stocks suggest that the N
                        <E T="52">MIN</E>
                         estimate of the stock should be adjusted to account for potential abundance changes that may have occurred since the last survey and provide reasonable assurance that the stock size is at least as large as the estimate (NMFS, 2023a). The abundance trend for this stock is unclear; therefore, there is no basis for adjusting these estimates (Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). Assuming the population has been stable, and that the maximum annual seven takes proposed to be for humpback whale would all be of the Mexico-North Pacific stock, this represents small numbers of this stock (0.31 percent of the stock assuming an N
                        <E T="52">MIN</E>
                         of 2,241 individuals and 0.91 percent of the stock assuming an N
                        <E T="52">MIN</E>
                         of 766 individuals).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A lack of an accepted stock abundance value for the Alaska stock of minke whale did not allow for the calculation of an expected percentage of the population that may be affected. The most relevant estimate of partial stock abundance is 1,233 minke whales in coastal waters of the Alaska Peninsula and Aleutian Islands (Zerbini 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006). Given four maximum annual takes proposed to be authorized for the stock, comparison to the best estimate of stock abundance shows, at most, less than 1 percent of the stock would be expected to be impacted.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        There is no stock-wide abundance estimate for Northeast Pacific fin whales. However, Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2022) estimate the minimum stock size for the areas surveyed is 2,554. Assuming the maximum annual take proposed to be 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35027"/>
                        authorized is four for this stock, comparison to the minimum population estimate shows, at most, less than 1 percent of the stock would be expected to be impacted.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Alaska stock of Dall's porpoise has no official NMFS abundance estimate. As described in the 2022 Alaska SAR (Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023) the minimum population estimate is assumed to correspond to the point estimate of the 2015 vessel-based abundance computed by Rone 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2017) in the Gulf of Alaska (N = 13,110; CV = 0.22). A maximum annual 11 takes are proposed to be authorized for the stock. Comparison to the minimum population estimate shows, at most, less than 1 percent of the stock is expected to be impacted.
                    </P>
                    <P>Based on the analysis contained herein of the proposed activity (including the proposed mitigation and monitoring measures) and the anticipated take of marine mammals, NMFS preliminarily finds that small numbers of marine mammals would be taken relative to the population size of the affected species or stocks.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unmitigable Adverse Impact Analysis and Determination</HD>
                    <P>In order to issue an ITA, NMFS must find that the specified activity will not have an “unmitigable adverse impact” on the subsistence uses of the affected marine mammal species or stocks by Alaskan Natives. NMFS has defined “unmitigable adverse impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as an impact resulting from the specified activity: (1) that is likely to reduce the availability of the species to a level insufficient for a harvest to meet subsistence needs by: (i) causing the marine mammals to abandon or avoid hunting areas; (ii) directly displacing subsistence users; or (iii) placing physical barriers between the marine mammals and the subsistence hunters; and (2) that cannot be sufficiently mitigated by other measures to increase the availability of marine mammals to allow subsistence needs to be met.</P>
                    <P>
                        Subsistence communities identified as project stakeholders near Hilcorp's middle Cook Inlet activities include the Kenaitze Indian Tribe, the Village of Salamatof, and the Native Village of Tyonek. The last ADF&amp;G subsistence survey conducted in Kenai was in 1998 (Fall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000). In the greater Kenai area, an estimated 13 harbor seals and no sea lions were harvested in 1988 by an estimated 10 households. In the Kenai area, estimated harbor seal harvest has ranged between 13 (1998) and 35 (1997) animals. In 1996, two sea lions and six harbor seals were harvested. ADF&amp;G Community Subsistence Information System harvest data are not available for Salamatof, so Hilcorp assumes the subsistence harvest patterns are similar to other communities along the road system on the southern Kenai Peninsula, namely Kenai.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Hilcorp's activities at the Tyonek Platform in the North Cook Inlet Unit in middle Cook Inlet would occur approximately 10 km (6 mi) from the Native Village of Tyonek. Tyonek, on the western side of middle Cook Inlet, has a subsistence harvest area that extends south from the Susitna River to Tuxedni Bay (Stanek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). The Anna and Bruce platforms are in the Granite Point Unit at the north end of Trading Bay. The Bruce platform is nearer to shore than the Anna which is located approximately 5 km (3 mi) offshore and to the southeast of Tyonek. On the western side of middle Cook Inlet, Tyonek has a subsistence harvest area that extends south from the Susitna River to Tuxedni Bay (Fall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1984; Stanek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Moose and salmon are the most important subsistence resources measured by harvested weight (Stanek, 1994). In Tyonek, harbor seals were harvested between June and September by 6 percent of the households (Jones 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). Seals were harvested in several areas, encompassing an area stretching 32 km (20 mi) along the Cook Inlet coastline from the McArthur Flats north to the Beluga River. Seals were searched for or harvested in the Trading Bay areas as well as from the beach adjacent to Tyonek (Jones 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015).
                    </P>
                    <P>Currently, whale hunts are not known to occur in Cook Inlet. Seal hunting occurs opportunistically among Alaska Natives who may be fishing or traveling in upper Cook Inlet near the mouths of the Susitna River, Beluga River, and Little Susitna River. Hilcorp's activities may overlap with subsistence hunting of seals. However, these activities typically occur along the shoreline or very close to shore near river mouths, rather than offshore near where Hilcorp's activities would occur.</P>
                    <P>
                        Any harassment to marine mammals would primarily be limited to minor behavioral changes (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         increased swim speeds, changes in dive behaviors and communication signals, temporary avoidance near the tugs) and is anticipated to be short-term, mild, and not result in any abandonment or behaviors that would make the animals unavailable to Alaska Natives.
                    </P>
                    <P>To further minimize any potential effects of their action on subsistence activities, Hilcorp has outlined their communication plan for engaging with subsistence users in their Stakeholder Engagement Plan (see appendix B of Hilcorp's application). This includes using traditional/subsistence knowledge to inform planning for the activity. Hilcorp is required to abide by this plan and update the plan accordingly.</P>
                    <P>Based on the description of the specified activity, the measures described to minimize adverse effects on the availability of marine mammals for subsistence purposes, and the proposed mitigation and monitoring measures, NMFS has preliminarily determined that there will not be an unmitigable adverse impact on subsistence uses from Hilcorp's proposed activities.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adaptive Management</HD>
                    <P>The regulations governing the take of marine mammals incidental to Hilcorp's proposed oil and gas activities would contain an adaptive management component.</P>
                    <P>The reporting requirements associated with this proposed rule are designed to provide NMFS with monitoring data from the previous year to allow consideration of whether any changes are appropriate. The use of adaptive management allows NMFS to consider new information from different sources to determine (with input from Hilcorp regarding practicability) on an annual basis if mitigation or monitoring measures should be modified (including additions or deletions). Mitigation or monitoring measures could be modified if new data suggests that such modifications would have a reasonable likelihood more effectively achieving the goals of the mitigation and monitoring and if the measures are practicable.</P>
                    <P>The following are some of the possible sources of applicable data to be considered through the adaptive management process: (1) results from monitoring reports, as required by MMPA authorizations; (2) results from general marine mammal and sound research; and (3) any information which reveals that marine mammals may have been taken in a manner, extent, or number not authorized by these regulations or subsequent LOAs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Endangered Species Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 7(a)(2) of the ESA of 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) requires that each Federal agency insure that any action it authorizes, funds, or carries out is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat. To ensure ESA compliance for the issuance of ITAs, NMFS consults internally 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35028"/>
                        whenever we propose to authorize take for endangered or threatened species, in this case with the NMFS Alaska Regional Office (AKRO).
                    </P>
                    <P>NMFS is proposing to authorize take of fin whale, humpback whale (Mexico DPS and Western North Pacific DPS), fin whale (Northeastern Pacific stock), beluga whale (Cook Inlet), and Steller sea lion (Western DPS), which are listed under the ESA. NMFS Office of Protected Resources has requested initiation of section 7 consultation with NMFS AKRO for the issuance of this proposed rule and associated LOA. NMFS will conclude the ESA consultation prior to making a decision to promulgate a final rule and issue an LOA.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Promulgation</HD>
                    <P>As a result of these preliminary determinations, NMFS proposes to promulgate regulations that allow for take by Level A and Level B harassment incidental to Hilcorp's oil and gas activities in Cook Inlet, Alaska for a 5-year period, provided the previously mentioned mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements are incorporated.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        NMFS requests interested persons to submit comments, information, and suggestions concerning Hilcorp's request, our preliminary determinations, and the proposed regulations (see 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                        ). All comments will be reviewed and evaluated as we prepare a final rule and make final determinations on whether to issue the requested authorization. This proposed rule and referenced documents provide all environmental information relating to our proposed action for public review.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Classification</HD>
                    <P>The Office of Management and Budget has determined that this proposed rule is not significant for purposes of Executive Order (E.O.) 12866. This proposed rule is not an E.O. 14192 regulatory action because this rule is not significant under E.O. 12866.</P>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to section 605(b) of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ), the Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce has certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration that this proposed rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Hilcorp is the only entity that would be subject to the requirements in these proposed regulations. Hilcorp employs thousands of people worldwide, and has a market value in the billions of dollars. Therefore, Hilcorp is not a small governmental jurisdiction, small organization, or small business as defined by the RFA. Because of this certification, a regulatory flexibility analysis is not required and none has been prepared.
                    </P>
                    <P>This proposed rule contains a collection-of-information requirement subject to the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the PRA unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number. These requirements have been approved by OMB under control number 0648-0151 and include applications for regulations, subsequent LOAs, and reports.</P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 50 CFR Part 217</HD>
                        <P>Acoustics, Alaska, Administrative practice and procedure, Endangered and threatened species, Fish, Marine mammals, Mitigation and monitoring requirements, Oil and gas exploration, Reporting requirements, Transportation, Wildlife.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <SIG>
                        <DATED>Dated: July 21, 2025.</DATED>
                        <NAME>Samuel D. Rauch III,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Administrator for Regulatory Programs, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                    <P>For reasons set forth in the preamble, NMFS proposes to amend 50 CFR part 217 to read as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 217—REGULATIONS GOVERNING THE TAKE OF MARINE MAMMALS INCIDENTAL TO SPECIFIED ACTIVITIES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 217 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             16 U.S.C. 1361 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add subpart Q, consisting of §§ 217.160 through 217.169, to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Subpart Q—Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Hilcorp Alaska, LLC Oil and Gas Activities in Cook Inlet, Alaska</HD>
                    <CONTENTS>
                        <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                        <SECTNO>217.160</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Specified activity and specified geographical region.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>217.161</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Effective dates.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>217.162</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Permissible methods of taking.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>217.163</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Prohibitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>217.164</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Mitigation requirements.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>217.165</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Requirements for monitoring and reporting.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>217.166</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Letters of authorization.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>217.167</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Modifications of letters of authorization.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>217.168-217.169</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                    </CONTENTS>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart Q—Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Hilcorp Alaska, LLC Oil and Gas Activities in Cook Inlet, Alaska</HD>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 217.160</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Specified activity and specified geographical region.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) Regulations in this subpart apply only to Hilcorp Alaska LLC (Hilcorp) and those persons it authorizes or funds to conduct activities on its behalf for the taking of marine mammals in Cook Inlet, Alaska, and that occurs incidental to the activities described in paragraph (c) of this section. Requirements imposed on Hilcorp must be implemented by those persons it authorizes or funds to conduct activities on its behalf.</P>
                            <P>(b) The incidental taking of marine mammals by Hilcorp may be authorized in a letter of authorization (LOA) only if it occurs within in Cook Inlet, Alaska.</P>
                            <P>(c) The taking of marine mammals by Hilcorp is only authorized if it occurs incidental to the use of tugs towing, holding, or positioning a jack-up rig, impact pile driving, and pipeline installation and/or replacement involving anchor handling and/or pipe pulling.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 217.161</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Effective dates.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Regulations in this subpart are effective from September 24, 2025, through September 23, 2030.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 217.162</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Permissible methods of taking.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Under an LOA issued pursuant to §§ 217.106 of this chapter and 217.166, the holder of the LOA (hereinafter “Hilcorp”) may incidentally, but not intentionally, take marine mammals within the specified geographical region described in § 217.160(b) by harassment associated with the specified activities provided they are in compliance with all terms, conditions, and requirements of the regulations in this subpart and the applicable LOA.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 217.163</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Prohibitions.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Except for the takings permitted in § 217.162 and authorized by an LOA issued under §§ 216.106 of this chapter and 217.166, it is unlawful for any person to do any of the following in connection with the specified activities:</P>
                            <P>(a) Violate or fail to comply with the terms, conditions, and requirements of this subpart or an LOA issued under this subpart or an LOA issued under §§ 216.106 of this chapter and 217.166;</P>
                            <P>
                                (b) Take any marine mammal not specified in such LOA;
                                <PRTPAGE P="35029"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(c) Take any marine mammal specified in such LOA in any manner other than specified;</P>
                            <P>(d) Take a marine mammal should NMFS withdraw or suspend such LOA; or</P>
                            <P>(e) Take a marine mammal specified in such LOA after NMFS determines such taking results in an unmitigable adverse impact on the species or stock of such marine mammal for taking for subsistence uses.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 217.164</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Mitigation requirements.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>When conducting the specified activities identified in § 217.160(c), Hilcorp must implement the mitigation measures contained in this section and any LOA issued under §§ 216.106 of this chapter and 217.166 unless implementing the mitigation measure would create a risk to human safety or cause pile instability or refusal. These mitigation measures include, but are not limited to:</P>
                            <P>(a) A copy of any issued LOA should be in the possession of Hilcorp, its designees, and work crew personnel operating under the authority of the issued LOA.</P>
                            <P>(b) Hilcorp must coordinate with local Tribes as described in its Stakeholder Engagement Plan, notify the communities of any changes in the operation, and take action to avoid or mitigate impacts to subsistence harvests.</P>
                            <P>(c) Tug boat and pile driving supervisors and crews, the monitoring team, and relevant Hilcorp staff must be trained prior to the start of all activities so that responsibilities, communication procedures, mitigation measures, monitoring protocols, and operational procedures are clearly understood. New personnel joining during the project must be trained prior to commencing work.</P>
                            <P>(d) Hilcorp must implement clearance and shutdown zones with radial distances as identified in any LOA issued under §§ 216.106 of this chapter and 217.166.</P>
                            <P>(e) Pre-start clearance monitoring.</P>
                            <P>
                                (1) Prior to initiating any activity, Hilcorp must conduct monitoring of the clearance zones from 30 minutes prior to commencing activities identified in § 217.160(c) (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 pre-start clearance monitoring), or if there is a 30-minute lapse in operational activities (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 pauses between intermittent pile driving).
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) Except for tugs towing a jack-up rig, activities may commence if, following 30 minutes of observation of the clearance zone, it is determined by a PSO that the clearance zones are clear of marine mammals.</P>
                            <P>(3) Should a marine mammal be within the clearance zone during the clearance monitoring period, the activity (except for tugs under tow if tidal restrictions necessitate) must not commence until the animal(s) has left the clearance zone and is on a path away from the clearance zone or at least 30 minutes has elapsed for all baleen whale species and CIBWs without subsequent detection, or 15 minutes has elapsed without subsequent detection for all other species.</P>
                            <P>(f) Pile driving at the Tyonek Platform may only occur November 15-April 15.</P>
                            <P>(g) Hilcorp must cease all pile driving activities, including soft starts, if a marine mammal is observed entering or within the shutdown zone. In this scenario, pile driving may continue only until the current segment of the pile is driven; no additional sections of pile or additional piles may be driven until a PSO(s) has determined that the shutdown zones are clear of marine mammals.</P>
                            <P>(1) If pile driving is halted or delayed due to the presence of a marine mammal, the activity may not commence or resume until either the animal has voluntarily left and is been visually confirmed beyond the shutdown zone or at least 30 minutes has elapsed for all baleen whale species and CIBWs without subsequent detection, or 15 minutes has elapsed without subsequent detection for all other species.</P>
                            <P>
                                (2) If during pile driving, a PSO(s) can no longer effectively monitor the entirety of the corresponding shutdown zone due to environmental conditions (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 fog, rain, wind), pile driving may continue only until the current segment of the pile is driven. No additional sections of pile or additional piles may be driven until conditions improve such that the shutdown zone can be effectively monitored. If the shutdown zone cannot be monitored for more than 15 minutes, the entire zone must be cleared again for 30 minutes prior to reinitiating pile driving.
                            </P>
                            <P>(h) Hilcorp must use soft-start techniques when impact pile driving. Should safety or pile instability/refusal concerns arise during a soft start wherein this process cannot be met, Hilcorp must use the minimum amount of energy practicable. Prior to soft-start beginning, the operator must receive confirmation from the PSO that the clearance zone is clear of any marine mammals.</P>
                            <P>(i) For transportation of a jack-up rig to or from the Tyonek platform, in addition to PSOs stationed on the rig during towing, an additional PSO must be stationed on the Tyonek Platform to monitor for marine mammals. The PSO should be on-watch for at least 1 hour before tugs are expected to arrive (scheduled to approach the estimated 120-dB isopleth).</P>
                            <P>(j) Unless deviation is necessary to maintain safe maneuvering speed and justified because the vessel is in an area where oceanographic, hydrographic, and/or meteorological conditions severely restrict the maneuverability of the vessel; an emergency situation presents a threat to the health, safety, life of a person; or when a vessel is actively engaged in emergency rescue or response duties, including vessel-in distress or environmental crisis response, Hilcorp must:</P>
                            <P>(1) Maneuver tugs engaged in towing, holding, or positioning a jack-up rig, and anchor handling and pipe pulling activities such that they maintain a consistent speed (approximately 4 knots [kt; 7 kilometers (km)/hr]) and avoid multiple changes of speed and direction to make the course of the vessels as predictable as possible to marine mammals in the surrounding environment, characteristics that are expected to be associated with a lower likelihood of disturbance;</P>
                            <P>(2) Not actively approach a marine mammal purposefully and must adhere to NOAA Alaska Region Marine Mammal Viewing Guidelines;</P>
                            <P>(3) Reduce vessel speed to &lt;9 km/hr (5 kt) when within 274 meters (m; 300 yards) of any whale, reduce speed to 18.5 km/hr (10 kt) or less when weather conditions reduce visibility to 1.6 km (1 mile [mi]) or less, avoid multiple changes in direction and speed when within 274 m (300 yards) of any whale, and place the engine in neutral if a whale is approaching within 91 m (100 yards) of a vessel;</P>
                            <P>(4) Maintain a distance of at least 2.4 km from the Mean Lower Low Water line of the Susitna River Delta (Beluga River to the Little Susitna River) between April 15 and November 15; and</P>
                            <P>(5) Maintain a watch for marine mammals while underway and check water immediately adjacent to the vessel prior to engaging propellers; should a marine mammal be observed near propellers and it is determined that interaction is possible, delay engaging propellers;</P>
                            <P>(k) Hilcorp must maintain clean, taught lines in the water such that no lines are in the water unless both ends are under tension and affixed to vessels or gear.</P>
                            <P>(l) [Reserved]</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <PRTPAGE P="35030"/>
                            <SECTNO>§ 217.165</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Requirements for monitoring and reporting.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Hilcorp must implement the following monitoring and reporting measures:</P>
                            <P>
                                (a) Monitoring must be conducted by NMFS-approved PSOs during all activities for which take is authorized, in accordance with Hilcorp's Marine Mammal Monitoring and Mitigation Plan (see appendix A of Hilcorp's application). PSOs must be independent of the activity contractor (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 employed by a subcontractor) and have no other assigned tasks during monitoring duties.
                            </P>
                            <P>(b) A lead PSO must be designated for all specified activities. The lead PSO must have prior experience performing the duties of a PSO during in-water activities pursuant to a NMFS-issued incidental take authorization or letter of concurrence.</P>
                            <P>(c) PSOs must monitor for marine mammals from the best available vantage point, ideally an elevated stable platform from which the PSO has an unobstructed 360-degree view of the water or a total 360-degree view of water between all PSOs on watch. Monitoring must occur from 30 minutes before an activity commences to 30 minutes after the activity ceases.</P>
                            <P>(d) PSO(s) must use a combination of equipment to scan the appropriate monitoring area and to identify the relevant mitigation distance from an activity, including the naked eye, binoculars (minimum 7x50), and night vision devices for low light and nighttime operations.</P>
                            <P>(e) PSO(s) must be in communication with all vessel captains via VHF radio and/or cell phones at all times and alert vessel captains to all marine mammal sightings relative to the vessel location.</P>
                            <P>(f) PSOs may not work in shifts lasting more than 4 hours without a minimum of 1-hour break, and may not be on watch more than 12 hours in a 24-hour period.</P>
                            <P>(g) Hilcorp must notify NMFS Office of Protected Resources (OPR) at least 48 hours prior to the start of the specified activities each year.</P>
                            <P>(h) Hilcorp must submit interim monthly monitoring reports on the 15th day of the month after any specified activities occurred. These reports must include a summary of marine mammal species and behavioral observations, delays, shutdowns, and activities completed during the reporting period. The reports also must include an assessment of the amount of work remaining for the year, in addition to the number of CIBWs observed within estimated Level B harassment zones during activities to date, and any deviations from the vessel operation requirements.</P>
                            <P>(i) Hilcorp must submit a draft annual summary monitoring report on all monitoring conducted during each project year which includes final electronic data sheets within 90 calendar days of the completion of marine mammal monitoring or 90 days prior to a requested date of issuance of any future incidental take authorization for projects at the same location, whichever comes first. A draft comprehensive 5-year summary report must also be submitted to NMFS within 90 days of the end of year 5 of the project. The reports must detail the monitoring protocol and summarize the data recorded during monitoring. If no comments are received from NMFS within 30 days of receipt of the draft reports, the report may be considered final. If comments are received, revised reports addressing NMFS comments must be submitted within 30 days after receipt of comments. At a minimum, the reports must contain:</P>
                            <P>(1) Dates and times (begin and end) of all marine mammal monitoring;</P>
                            <P>(2) Activities occurring during each daily observation period, including the type of activity (tugs under load with a jack-up rig, pile driving, anchor handling, pipe pulling), the total duration of each type of activity, when nighttime operations occurred (and if they did, whether NVDs were employed, including which lenses were utilized), and whether towing against the tide was required;</P>
                            <P>(3) PSO locations during marine mammal monitoring;</P>
                            <P>(4) Environmental conditions during monitoring periods (at beginning and end of PSO shift and whenever conditions change significantly), Beaufort sea state, and any other relevant weather conditions including cloud cover, fog, sun glare, and overall visibility to the horizon, and estimated observable distance;</P>
                            <P>(5) Upon observation of a marine mammal, the following information must be collected and included in the annual and 5-year reports:</P>
                            <P>(6) Name of the PSO who sighted the animal, observer location, and activity at time of sighting;</P>
                            <P>(7) Time of sighting;</P>
                            <P>
                                (8) Identification of the animal (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 genus/species, lowest possible taxonomic level, or unidentified), PSO confidence in identification, and the composition of the group if there is a mix of species;
                            </P>
                            <P>(9) Distances and bearings of each marine mammal observed in relation to the pile being driven for each sighting (if pile driving was occurring at time of sighting);</P>
                            <P>(10) Estimated number of animals (min/max/best);</P>
                            <P>
                                (11) Estimated number of animals by cohort (adults, juveniles, neonates, group composition, 
                                <E T="03">etc.</E>
                                );
                            </P>
                            <P>(12) Animal's closest point of approach and estimated time spent within the harassment zone;</P>
                            <P>
                                (13) Description of any marine mammal behavioral observations (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 observed behaviors such as feeding or traveling), including an assessment of behavioral responses to the activity (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 no response or changes in behavioral state such as ceasing feeding, changing direction, flushing, or breaching);
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (14) Detailed information about any implementation of any mitigation (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 shutdowns and delays), a description of specific actions that ensued, and resulting changes in the behavior of the animal, if any;
                            </P>
                            <P>(15) All PSO datasheets and raw sightings data in electronic spreadsheet format; and</P>
                            <P>(16) Any deviations taken from the vessel operation requirements.</P>
                            <P>(j) In the event that personnel involved in Hilcorp's activities discover an injured or dead marine mammal, Hilcorp must report the incident to NMFS OPR and the Alaska Regional Stranding Network as soon as feasible. If the death or injury was caused by a specified activity, Hilcorp must immediately cease the specified activity until NMFS is able to review the circumstances of the incident and determine what, if any, additional measures are appropriate to ensure compliance with the ITR. Hilcorp must not resume their activities until notified by NMFS. The report must include the following information:</P>
                            <P>(1) Time, date, and location (latitude/longitude) of the first discovery (and updated location information if known and applicable);</P>
                            <P>(2) Species identification (if known) or description of the animal(s) involved;</P>
                            <P>(3) Condition of the animal(s) (including carcass condition if the animal is dead);</P>
                            <P>(4) Observed behaviors of the animal(s), if alive;</P>
                            <P>(5) If available, photographs or video footage of the animal(s); and</P>
                            <P>(6) General circumstances under which the animal was discovered.</P>
                            <P>(k) [Reserved]</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 217.166</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Letters of authorization.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) To incidentally take marine mammals pursuant to these regulations, Hilcorp must apply for and obtain an LOA.</P>
                            <P>
                                (b) An LOA, unless suspended or revoked, may be effective for a period of 
                                <PRTPAGE P="35031"/>
                                time not to exceed the effective dates of this subpart.
                            </P>
                            <P>(c) In the event Hilcorp proposes projected changes to the activity or to mitigation and monitoring measures required by an LOA, Hilcorp must request and obtain a modification of the LOA as described in § 217.167.</P>
                            <P>(d) The LOA must set forth the following information:</P>
                            <P>(1) Permissible methods of incidental taking;</P>
                            <P>
                                (2) Means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 mitigation) on the species, its habitat, and on the availability of the species for subsistence uses; and
                            </P>
                            <P>(3) Requirements for monitoring and reporting.</P>
                            <P>(e) Issuance of the LOA should be based on a determination that the level of taking will be consistent with the findings made for the total taking allowable under this subpart.</P>
                            <P>
                                (f) Notice of issuance or denial of an LOA should be published in the 
                                <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                                 within 30 days of a determination.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 217.167</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Modifications of Letters of Authorization.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) An LOA issued under §§ 216.106 of this chapter and 217.166 for the specified activities may be modified upon request by Hilcorp, provided that:</P>
                            <P>(1) the change(s) to the activity or the mitigation, monitoring or reporting do not change the findings made for the regulations and do not result in more than a minor change in the total estimated number of takes (or distribution by species or stock or years); and</P>
                            <P>(2) NMFS determines that Hilcorp implemented the mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures required by the LOA for which modification is requested.</P>
                            <P>(b) An LOA issued under §§ 216.106 of this chapter and 217.166 may be modified at NMFS' initiation if:</P>
                            <P>(1) Doing so creates a reasonable likelihood of more effectively accomplishing the goals of the mitigation and monitoring measures; or</P>
                            <P>
                                (2) NMFS determines that an emergency exists that poses a significant risk to the well-being of the species or stocks of marine mammals specified in an LOA issued pursuant to §§ 216.106 of this chapter and 217.166, in which case, the LOA may be modified without prior notice or opportunity for public comment; however, notification will be published in the 
                                <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                                 within 30 days of the action.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (c) If the modifications to the specified activities, mitigation, monitoring, or reporting measures are substantial, NMFS shall publish a notice of proposed LOA in the 
                                <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                                 and solicit public comment prior to making a determination on issuance.
                            </P>
                            <P>(d) Possible sources of data that could contribute to a decision to modify the LOA include, but are not limited to:</P>
                            <P>(1) Results from Hilcorp's monitoring;</P>
                            <P>(2) Results from other marine mammal and/or sound research or studies; and</P>
                            <P>(3) Any information that reveals marine mammals may have been taken in a manner, extent or number not authorized by this subpart or subsequent LOAs.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 217.168-217.169</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                        </SECTION>
                    </SUBPART>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13973 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
            </PRORULE>
        </PRORULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>140</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, July 24, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="35033"/>
            <PARTNO>Part III</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of Transportation</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>14 CFR Parts 1, 21, et al.</CFR>
            <TITLE>Modernization of Special Airworthiness Certification; Final Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <RULES>
            <RULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="35034"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>14 CFR Parts 1, 21, 22, 36, 43, 45, 61, 65, 91, 119, and 147</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2023-1377; Amdt. Nos. 1-80, 21-109, 22-1, 36-55, 43-63, 45-32, 61-159, 65-66, 91-381, 119-22, and 147-10]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 2120-AL50</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Modernization of Special Airworthiness Certification</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Final rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>FAA is amending rules for the manufacture, certification, operation, maintenance, and alteration of light-sport aircraft. The amendments enable enhancements in safety and performance and increase privileges under a number of sport pilot and light-sport aircraft rules. These enhancements include increasing suitability for flight training, limited aerial work, and personal travel. This final rule expands what aircraft sport pilots may operate. This final rule also amends the special purpose operations for restricted category aircraft; amends the duration, eligible purposes, and operating limitations for experimental aircraft; and adds operating limitations applicable to experimental aircraft engaged in space support vehicle flights to codify statutory language.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>This final rule is effective October 22, 2025, except for amendatory instructions 3, 8, 9, 13, 15, 17, 21, 23 through 26, 71, 72, 75, 76, and 80, which are effective July 24, 2026.</P>
                        <P>The incorporation by reference of certain material listed in this final rule is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of October 22, 2025.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>For information on where to obtain copies of rulemaking documents and other information related to this final rule, see section VII of this document.</P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>
                            For technical questions concerning this action, contact James Newberger, Aircraft Certification Service (AIR-632), Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20591, telephone (202) 267-1636; email 
                            <E T="03">james.e.newberger@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Executive Summary</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Purpose of the Regulatory Action</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Summary of the Costs and Benefits</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Authority for This Rulemaking</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Background</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. History of Light-Sport Category Aircraft</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Summary of the NPRM</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Discussion of Comments and the Final Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. General Overview of Comments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Differences Between the NPRM and the Final Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. FAA Safety Continuum</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Separation of Limits for Light-Sport Category Aircraft and Sport Pilots</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Special Airworthiness Certificates for Light-Sport Category Aircraft</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Design, Production, and Airworthiness Requirements for Non-Type Certificated Aircraft</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Miscellaneous Provisions for Issuance of Special Airworthiness Certificates</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. Sport Pilot Certification and Privileges</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">I. Repairman Certificates (Light-Sport)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">J. Maintenance</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">K. Operations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">L. Experimental Airworthiness Certificates</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">M. Restricted Category Aircraft</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">N. Noise Certification of Aircraft That Do Not Conform to a Type Certificate</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">O. Import and Export of Aircraft</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">P. Other Out of Scope Comments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Q. Effective and Compliance Dates</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">R. Benefits and Costs</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Regulatory Notices and Analyses</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Executive Order Determinations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Additional Information</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Electronic Access and Filing</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Incorporation by Reference Material</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">End Notes</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">List of Acronyms Frequently Used in This Document</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ACS—Airman Certification Standards</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">AGL—Above Ground Level</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ASTM—American Society for Testing and Material International</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CAS—Calibrated Airspeed</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR—Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DOD—Department of Defense</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">EAB—Experimental Amateur-Built</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">eVTOL—Electric Vertical Takeoff and Landing</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FAA—Federal Aviation Administration</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FADEC—Full Authority Digital Electric Control</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR—Federal Register</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FSTD—Flight Simulation Training Device</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">GA—General Aviation</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IBR—Incorporation by Reference</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IFR—Instrument Flight Rules</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IMC—Instrument Meteorological Conditions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">LOC-I—Loss of Control—In-flight</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">LSA—Light-Sport Aircraft</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">LSAMA—Light-Sport Aircraft Manufacturers Assessment</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">MOSAIC—Modernization of Special Airworthiness Certification</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">MSL—Mean Sea Level</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NAICS—North American Industry Classification System</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM—Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NTSB—National Transportation Safety Board</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OMB—Office of Management and Budget</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PIC—Pilot in Command</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PTS—Practical Test Standards</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RFA—Regulatory Flexibility Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RIA—Regulatory Impact Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C.—United States Code</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            V
                            <E T="52">A</E>
                            —Design maneuvering speed
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">VFR—Visual Flight Rules</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            V
                            <E T="52">H</E>
                            —Maximum speed in level flight with maximum continuous power
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            V
                            <E T="52">NE</E>
                            —Maximum never exceed speed
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            V
                            <E T="52">S1</E>
                            —The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specific configuration
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            V
                            <E T="52">S0</E>
                            —The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration
                        </FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Purpose of the Regulatory Action</HD>
                    <P>This final rule establishes requirements for aircraft, other than unmanned aircraft, that hold special airworthiness certificates, airmen that operate and maintain those aircraft, and supporting rules. This rule expands eligibility for certification of light-sport category aircraft while retaining a distinction in level of certification rigor between experimental and small, type-certificated aircraft. This rule also expands privileges for sport pilots and light-sport repairmen. This rule aims to increase the availability of safe, modern, and affordable aircraft for recreational aviation, flight training, and certain aerial work.</P>
                    <P>Generally, this rule provides broad regulatory relief to the public. That is, under this rule, manufacturers of light-sport category aircraft may design and manufacture a broader array of aircraft, including rotorcraft and powered-lift. In addition, the rule allows for light-sport category aircraft with increased seating, without weight limits, higher speeds, new types of propulsion systems, new propeller types, retractable landing gear, and aircraft with simplified flight controls. Sport pilot privileges are expanded to include a broader array of aircraft and new privileges. New privileges for sport pilots include operating helicopters, operating at night, operating aircraft with retractable landing gear, operating aircraft with constant speed propellers, and operating high-performance airplanes. These new privileges for sport pilots are available via training and endorsements. Operating privileges for certain light-sport category aircraft are expanded to include certain aerial work. Lastly, repairman certificate (light-sport) privileges are expanded to allow work on all aircraft in the expanded light-sport aircraft category.</P>
                    <P>
                        Though relieving to the public, these expansions are based on safety data, the safety continuum, and other concepts aimed to increase safety. Per the safety continuum concept, FAA bases the rigor of certification requirements on the exposure of the public to risk for an 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35035"/>
                        aircraft operation. As the risk increases due to increased operating privileges and aircraft capability, the rigor of certification requirements also increases.
                    </P>
                    <P>In 2004, FAA published the “Certification of Aircraft and Airmen for the Operation of Light-Sport Aircraft” final rule (69 FR 44771, July 27, 2004) (“the 2004 final rule”), which established rules for the manufacture, certification, operation, and maintenance of light-sport aircraft. The successful safety record of light-sport category aircraft since the 2004 final rule validates certification requirements established in that rule and provides support for expanding the scope of certification for light-sport category aircraft and operations. As a result, FAA identified the Modernization of Special Airworthiness Certification (MOSAIC) rule as an opportunity to expand the 2004 final rule to include a wider variety of aircraft, increase performance, and increase operating privileges to extend these safety benefits to more aircraft. FAA intends for these expansions to increase the safety of recreational aviation by encouraging aircraft owners, who may be deciding between an experimental aircraft or a light-sport category aircraft, to choose light-sport category aircraft that are higher on the safety continuum and, therefore, meet higher aircraft certification requirements. FAA also intends for this rule to increase the safety of light-sport category aircraft by eliminating the prescriptive weight limit for light-sport category aircraft that hinders safety-enhancing designs and by adopting new design, production, and airworthiness requirements.</P>
                    <P>This rule also addresses other aircraft that hold special airworthiness certificates. Specifically, this rule codifies additional special purpose operations for restricted category aircraft. In addition, this rule amends the duration, eligible purposes, and operating limitations for special airworthiness certificates issued for experimental purposes for additional phases of flight and space support vehicle operations.</P>
                    <P>The following sections discuss the provisions being adopted in this final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Certification of Light-Sport Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>This rule (i) adopts more performance-based rules to expand and enable innovation in the classes of aircraft that may be certificated using consensus standards as light-sport category aircraft, including emerging aircraft types; (ii) removes prescriptive weight limits that hinder incorporation of safety-enhancing designs and equipage; (iii) increases the maximum stall speed for light-sport category airplanes and gliders; (iv) enables more capable and robust aircraft for the pilot training environment; (v) allows for increased capacities for passengers, fuel, and cargo; (vi) allows electric and other alternative propulsion sources; and (vii) allows faster, higher-performing aircraft that are more suitable for personal travel. Together, based on the safety record under the 2004 final rule, these changes will enhance safety by allowing for a more appealing alternative to experimental amateur-built (EAB) aircraft that do not meet FAA design, production, or airworthiness standards.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Sport Pilot Certification</HD>
                    <P>This rule expands privileges for what aircraft a sport pilot can operate, including privileges to operate many of the new light-sport category aircraft and additional normal category aircraft while retaining the current limit to carriage of two occupants, including the pilot. This rule allows use of four-seat airplanes; adds a new model-specific privilege for aircraft with unconventional simplified flight controls designation; and adds new privileges for operating helicopters, operating aircraft at night, aircraft with retractable landing gear, and airplanes with constant speed propellers. This rule also amends the limits on maximum stall and cruise speed and removes weight and powerplant limitations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Maintenance and Repairman (Light-Sport)</HD>
                    <P>This rule revises privileges for repairman certificate (light-sport) holders to align with the expansion of aircraft categories that will be eligible for light-sport category airworthiness certificates. In addition, light-sport repairman privileges are expanded to allow a light-sport repairman to conduct the condition inspection on amateur-built aircraft that are of the same category and class, as applicable, of aircraft for which the repairman was certificated. This rule also revises the requirements for manufacturer-issued safety directives and revises requirements for performing repairs and alterations of light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Operations</HD>
                    <P>This rule revises operating limitations for restricted category aircraft, experimental aircraft, and light-sport category aircraft. This rule also codifies a Congressional mandate to enable certain aircraft with an experimental airworthiness certificate to conduct space support vehicle flights carrying persons or property for compensation or hire without an air carrier certificate or exemption. This rule also makes minor revisions to right-of-way rules and operations in the vicinity of airports in Class G airspace.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Experimental Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>This rule establishes a new purpose for which experimental airworthiness certificates may be issued to former military aircraft to improve alignment between certain operations of former military aircraft and the experimental airworthiness certificates that authorize their operation. This rule also increases the duration of certain experimental airworthiness certificates from one to three years.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Restricted Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>
                        This rule enhances the requirements for the certification of former military aircraft in the restricted category by requiring the aircraft to have a service history with the U.S. Armed Forces. Under 14 CFR 21.25(b)(7), FAA has approved additional special purpose operations for which restricted category aircraft may be certificated. Currently, those additional purposes are only listed in FAA policy documents for type and airworthiness certification of these aircraft. This rule codifies special purpose operations that have already been published for public notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Noise  </HD>
                    <P>This rule enables persons to voluntarily establish compliance with part 36 noise requirements and provide a statement of compliance to FAA for a light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Summary of the Costs and Benefits</HD>
                    <P>The rule largely expands opportunities for light-sport category aircraft. These expansions may result in safety benefits; there may also be associated design and production costs. FAA does not anticipate more than minimal incremental costs to implement provisions of the rule and does not have data to estimate any cost savings, such as those that could result from operating certain light-sport category aircraft in aerial work for compensation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety is found in title 49 of the United States Code (U.S.C.). Subtitle I, section 106 describes the authority of FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35036"/>
                        detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in 49 U.S.C. 106(f), which establishes the authority of the Administrator to promulgate and revise regulations and rules related to aviation safety. This rulemaking is also promulgated under 49 U.S.C. 44701(a)(2)(A) and (a)(5), which provides that FAA Administrator shall promote safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations and minimum standards: (1) in the interest of safety for inspecting, servicing, and overhauling aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, and appliances, and (2) that FAA finds necessary for safety in air commerce and national security; 49 U.S.C. 44703, which provides the general authority of the Administrator to prescribe regulations for the issuance of airman certificates when the Administrator finds, after investigation, that an individual is qualified for, and physically able to perform the duties related to, the position authorized by the certificate; 49 U.S.C. 40103(b)(1) and (2), which directs FAA to issue regulations: (1) to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace; and (2) to govern the flight of aircraft for purposes of navigating, protecting and identifying aircraft, and protecting individuals and property on the ground; and 49 U.S.C. 44715, which provides the Administrator the authority to prescribe regulations to control and abate aircraft noise and sonic boom. These regulations are within the scope of those authorities because they amend rules for the manufacture, certification, operation, maintenance, and alteration of light-sport category aircraft, amend rules related to restricted category aircraft and experimental airworthiness certification, and amend rules related to sport pilot and repairman certification. Under Sec. 135, Public Law 116-260, 134 Stat. 1182, FAA has authority to set standards for maintenance technician schools, and this rulemaking incorporates such standards by reference in part 147. In addition, this rulemaking codifies section 581 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2018 (Pub. L. 115-254), which amended 49 U.S.C. 44740 to allow the operator of an aircraft with a special airworthiness certification in the experimental category to conduct a space support vehicle flight carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. The final rule also addresses section 824 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2024 (Pub. L. 118-63), which requires that FAA issue a final rule for MOSAIC not later than 24 months after the date of enactment of that Act, May 16, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. History of Light-Sport Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>In the NPRM (88 FR 47650, July 24, 2023), FAA proposed to amend rules related to the certification and operation of light-sport category aircraft. That NPRM aimed to modernize the regulatory approach to light-sport aircraft by incorporating performance-based requirements that reflect advances in technology and uses for this type of aircraft. The NPRM was designed to respond to the evolving needs of this sector and provide for future growth and innovation without compromising safety.</P>
                    <P>The 2004 final rule provided for the operation and manufacture of aircraft weighing less than 1,320 pounds (or 1,430 pounds for aircraft intended for operation on water). These “light-sport” aircraft included airplanes, gliders, balloons, powered parachutes, weight-shift-control aircraft, and gyroplanes. FAA bases the rigor of certification requirements and operational limitations on a safety continuum that assesses the exposure of the public to risk for each aircraft and operation; as the risk increases due to increased operating privileges and aircraft capability, the requirements and corresponding rigor of requirements and procedures for certification increase.</P>
                    <P>In the 2004 final rule, FAA established a level of certification for light-sport category aircraft between normal category aircraft and aircraft holding experimental airworthiness certificates in view of intended operating privileges and aircraft capability. The NPRM used EAB aircraft for the safety continuum discussions since they are similar to light-sport category aircraft. EAB aircraft are largely used for recreational purposes, are flown by sport pilots and pilots with higher grade certificates and generally have the same flight envelope and occupancy limits. Amateur-built aircraft are below light-sport category aircraft on the safety continuum because of their lower safety assurance for aircraft design and being subject to stringent operating limitations. Amateur-built aircraft have no regulatory design requirements for suitability of materials used, structural integrity, or instruments, equipment, and systems. Amateur-built aircraft are limited to non-commercial operations for the purpose of education and recreation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Summary of the NPRM</HD>
                    <P>Since the 2004 final rule, light-sport category aircraft have shown a lower accident rate than EAB airplanes.1 FAA considered that the successful safety record of light-sport category aircraft validated certification requirements established in the 2004 final rule and provided support for expanding the scope of certification for light-sport category aircraft and operations. As a result, FAA proposed to expand the 2004 final rule to include a wider variety of aircraft, increase performance, and increase operating privileges to extend these safety benefits to more aircraft. FAA intended for these expansions to increase safety by encouraging aircraft owners, who may be deciding between an EAB or a light-sport category aircraft, to choose aircraft higher on the safety continuum and, therefore, meet higher aircraft certification requirements.</P>
                    <P>FAA's proposal addressed other aircraft that hold special airworthiness certificates. Specifically, FAA proposed to codify additional special purpose operations for restricted category aircraft that FAA has previously approved under discretion provided in § 21.25(b)(7). In addition, FAA proposed to amend the duration, eligible purposes, and operating limitations for special airworthiness certificates issued for experimental purposes.</P>
                    <P>FAA identified proposals to improve both the safety and functionality of light-sport category aircraft and light-sport category kit-built aircraft. FAA proposed to amend aircraft, pilot, maintenance, and operational requirements to increase both the safety and performance of these aircraft while mitigating risk. FAA acknowledged that this is a balancing act-where the risk is increased due to greater capability in one area, mitigations may be required from the other areas.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA proposed to establish performance-based requirements for certification of light-sport category aircraft. As a fundamental matter, FAA proposed to restructure how certification requirements for light-sport category aircraft are presented in FAA's regulations. Currently, issuance of special airworthiness certificates under § 21.190 for light-sport category aircraft, sport pilot certificates under part 61 subpart J, and repairman certificates (light-sport) under part 65 are limited by a number of aircraft design limitations included in the definition of light-sport aircraft in § 1.1. FAA proposed to remove that definition and, in its place, write performance-based standards for aircraft and airman certification into 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35037"/>
                        part 21, 61, and 65, where these requirements for other types of aircraft and airman certification reside. This would make FAA's regulatory approach to light-sport category aircraft more consistent with its approach to other types of aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>Another important change in the NPRM was to eliminate the weight limits for light-sport category aircraft. To enable the design and manufacture of light-sport category aircraft that are safe to fly with increased capacity and ability, FAA proposed to apply new design and manufacturing requirements. This would allow growth and innovation within performance-based safety parameters. FAA also proposed to expand aircraft that sport pilots can operate. Under the NPRM, sport pilots could operate airplanes designed with up to four seats, even though they would remain limited to operating with only two occupants. Finally, FAA proposed to change the name of the repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) to repairman certificate (light-sport). This certificate would apply to existing and new types of aircraft certificated in the light-sport category, such as rotorcraft and powered-lift. Related provisions would update the requirements for maintenance.</P>
                    <P>FAA also proposed regulations related to noise for light-sport aircraft, expanding applicability of part 36 noise requirements. To provide flexibility and reduce burdens of compliance with these noise requirements, FAA proposed options for compliance: (1) conventional noise testing per part 36, (2) a means of compliance via FAA-approved, industry consensus standards, or (3) using the noise requirements determined by FAA to be appropriate for the aircraft. FAA expects that any consensus standards would not be limited to physical measurements of noise during test flights. They might instead to be based on empirical data, analytical modeling, or generally accepted noise prediction methods if the underlying noise prediction methods are found to be robust.</P>
                    <P>In addition to maintenance and manufacturing requirements, FAA also proposed to expand the kinds of operations that can be performed by light-sport category aircraft. Specifically, FAA proposed to permit light-sport category aircraft that meet applicable consensus standards to be used in certain aerial work operations.</P>
                    <P>In addition, FAA proposed amendments to experimental aircraft regulations. FAA proposed new operating purposes for former military and kit-built aircraft and clarified who may apply for the operating purpose for market survey. The proposed regulations also included new operating limitations authorizing flight over densely populated areas and in congested airways for all phases of flight, and new regulations authorizing experimental aircraft to conduct space support vehicle flights. The proposed regulations also would have increased certificate duration and extend applicability of noise requirements to aircraft that do not conform to a type certificate.</P>
                    <P>FAA further proposed amendments related to restricted category aircraft, including a codification of special operating purposes for restricted category aircraft. FAA also proposed minor changes to right-of-way rules and operations around airports in Class G airspace.  </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Discussion of Comments and the Final Rule</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. General Overview of Comments</HD>
                    <P>FAA received approximately 1,315 comments in response to the NPRM from a variety of commenters, including aircraft manufacturers and operators, aviation training companies, other aviation companies, trade associations, civil aviation authorities, and individuals. Trade associations commenting on the NPRM included: Aeronautical Repair Station Association (ARSA), Air Line Pilots Association (ALPA), Aircraft Electronics Association (AEA), Aircraft Owner's and Pilot's Association (AOPA), Association for Uncrewed Vehicle Systems International (AUVSI), Aviation Suppliers Association (ASA), Commercial Drone Alliance (CDA), Experimental Aircraft Association (EAA), General Aviation Manufacturers Association (GAMA), Helicopter Association International now known as Vertical Association International (VAI), Light Aircraft Manufacturers Association (LAMA), Manufacturers Flight Test Council (MFTC), National Agricultural Aviation Association (NAAA), National Air Transportation Association (NATA), National Association of Flight Instructors (NAFI), National Business Aviation Association (NBAA), U.S. Paragliding &amp; Hang Gliding Association (USPHA), and United States Ultralight Association (USUA). Manufacturers commenting on the NPRM included: Aerospace Volatus Infrastructure &amp; Energy Solutions, Air Tractor, AIR VEV, AutoGyro, Cirrus Aircraft, Cub Crafters, Desert Aerospace, Doroni, Elanus, Flight Design, Hartzell Propeller, Jump Aero, LEO Flight Corporation, Piper Aircraft, Inc. (Piper), Reliable Robotics Corporation (Reliable Robotics), Skyryse, Sonex, LLC (Sonex), Streamline Designs, LLC (Streamline Designs), Van's Aircraft, and Whisper Aero. Operators commenting on the NPRM included: Aura, Bombardier, Inc. (Bombardier), International Air Response (IAR), Metrea Strategic Mobility (MSM), Textron Aviation (Textron), Virgin Galactic, and Zipline. The only United States government organization commenting on the NPRM was U.S. Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIR). Civil Aviation Authorities commenting on the NPRM included: National Civil Aviation Agency of Brazil (ANAC), European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), and Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA).</P>
                    <P>Group comments included the following: AEA and ARSA (hereafter, AEA/ARSA) as a group; EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA as a group; and LEO Flight Corporation, Doroni, Aerospace Volatus Infrastructure &amp; Energy Solutions as a group called the Future Flight Federation (3F).</P>
                    <P>Table 1 provides a general summary of commenter support:</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s25,10">
                        <TTITLE>Table 1—Summary of Commenter Support</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Support</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of
                                <LI>commenters</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Oppose</ENT>
                            <ENT>11</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Support (no changes suggested)</ENT>
                            <ENT>22</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Support (changes suggested)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,282</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,315</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Overall, most commenters expressed general support for FAA's NPRM. Hundreds of individual commenters voiced support for, agreed with, or applauded the NPRM generally or for specific proposals within the NPRM, and many of those individuals advocated for proceeding as quickly as possible with finalizing and implementing a final rule. In addition, many associations, companies, and other non-individual commenters also expressed support for the NPRM generally, even if they had specific recommendations for improvement. For example, EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA's comment “commended” FAA for acknowledging the success of the light-sport category and proposing the MOSAIC rule expansions and they strongly supported FAA committing the resources to move forward and implement the proposed changes. GAMA supported key aspects of the NPRM such as increasing what aircraft sport pilots can fly and which aircraft qualify for light-sport category special airworthiness certificates. VAI 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35038"/>
                        commented positively on including rotorcraft in the light-sport category of aircraft, noting that it will increase the variety of available aircraft and provide economic benefits. Van's Aircraft characterized the MOSAIC NPRM as a “revolutionary change” that was “close to the mark” and a “success” even given that Van's Aircraft had constructive feedback. Hartzell Propeller's comment applauded FAA taking on MOSAIC and broadly supported the expansion of light-sport aircraft and sport pilot capabilities. Sonex commented it was extremely supportive of the NPRM, and it expected positive business impacts, an expanded economic pathway to pilot participation, and the availability of new aircraft with enhanced safety features at a more affordable price compared to type-certified aircraft. Skyryse supported the rulemaking and appreciated FAA's “forward-thinking approach to certification.” AIR VEV also supported the NPRM as allowing advancement and innovation while maintaining safety.
                    </P>
                    <P>However, most commenters also recommended revisions to the proposed rule that they believed would improve the rule. A small minority of commenters were generally unsupportive of the NPRM. For example, AEA/ARSA strongly asserted that certain aspects of the NPRM concerning light-sport category aircraft were unnecessary and duplicative, stemming from their preference that FAA amend and better utilize the primary category. AEA/ARSA also stated the proposed rule disregards the negative impact on design, certification, and installation of retrofit technologies, as well as the aviation maintenance service industry. ALPA commented the safety record of light-sport category aircraft warrants a “more formalized safety approach” to certifying light-sport category aircraft, certifying airmen, and establishing supporting operating rules and privileges.</P>
                    <P>The following provides a high-level overview of key issues raised by commenters that are addressed in more detail below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Aircraft Stalling Speed for Certification of Light-Sport Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA received approximately 120 comments on this topic. Most commenters wanted an increased stall speed without lift-enhancing devices (V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                        ) with the largest support for a V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         increase to 58 knots calibrated airspeed (CAS), but with a substantial number wanting an even higher increase. A few commenters opposed a stall speed increase. Recommendations to increase V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         varied widely and covered topics such as maximum stall speed with flaps (V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                        ), design maneuvering speed (V
                        <E T="52">A</E>
                        ), maximum speed in level flight with maximum continuous power (V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                        ), lift-enhancing devices, safety equipment, gross weight, crashworthiness, legacy aircraft, designs, handling, and kinetic energy.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Simplified Flight Controls for Light-Sport Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>Several commenters requested clarification that primary flight controls were not available or used on aircraft with simplified flight controls. A few commenters suggested language that would provide pilots access to primary flight controls. Some commenters requested clarification on flight path control, power adjustment, discontinuing or altering flight, and inadvertent activation of safety features. A few commenters recommended that the manner with which the pilot is expected to control the flight path of the simplified flight controls aircraft should not change in the presence of any single likely failure. Two commenters thought the proposed § 22.180 provisions were too prescriptive. TCCA asked for clarification on the use of joy-stick controllers. ALPA did not support simplified flight controls for light-sport category aircraft because it may result in an unquantified risk. One commenter wanted simplified flight controls to be defined.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Size of Rotorcraft and Powered Lift</HD>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters recommended the use of a maximum gross weight in the range of 2,640 to 5,000 lbs, a 6 lb-ft
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         main rotor disc loading limit, or limiting the number of engines. Another commenter stated market forces will limit powered-lift gross weights.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Aircraft Stalling Speed Limit for Sport Pilot Privileges</HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA received approximately 485 comments on this topic. Most of the public comments recommend increasing the proposed V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS stall speed, using V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                        , or using some other stall speed reference as the stall speed limitation, to permit a greater number of existing certificated airplanes with similar size, weight, and performance to be operated by sport pilots. A majority of the commenters indicated that an aircraft they operate, with higher stall speeds, was as safe or safer than those with lower stall speeds. Some commenters also recommend increasing the maximum stall speed for gliders.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Passenger Limitation for Sport Pilot Privileges</HD>
                    <P>A large number of commenters recommended allowing additional passengers when operating four-seat airplanes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Medical Requirements for Night Operations by Sport Pilots</HD>
                    <P>A large number of commenters recommended that FAA allow night operations under the current driver's license medical qualification requirement or additional training requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Altitude Limitations for Sport Pilots</HD>
                    <P>A large number of commenters recommended that FAA should permit sport pilots to operate at higher altitudes than currently permitted.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Light-Sport Repairman Training Courses</HD>
                    <P>Approximately 250 comments were received on this topic. Commenters were concerned that aligning training courses with the Mechanic ACS equates to repairman courses increasing in time and cost. Some commenters suggested FAA's proposal would require light-sport repairmen to receive the same training in terms of time and complexity as mechanics. Many commenters recommended creating a system of certificate endorsements, training course modules, or both. Many comments asserted FAA is changing a process for no reason that has been proven to be sufficient.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Light-Sport Repairman Certificate Privileges</HD>
                    <P>Approximately 105 comments were received on this topic. Most comments requested that FAA expand light-sport repairman privileges to allow these repairmen to conduct the annual condition inspection on aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate for the purpose of operating an amateur-built aircraft. Several commenters also requested to expand the certificate privileges to allow these repairmen to work on aircraft issued a standard airworthiness certificate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Third-Party Repairs and Alterations of Light-Sport Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters, including AEA/ARSA, stated the proposed rule disregards the negative impact on design, certification, and installation of retrofit technologies, as well as the aviation maintenance service industry. Some commenters requested FAA make greater use of the language “a person acceptable to the Administrator” to allow greater use of third-party alterations and repairs when those 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35039"/>
                        alterations meet applicable standards. Some commenters requested increased opportunities for retrofit products for upgrades and modifications, especially relating to safety-enhancing technologies.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Aircraft Noise  </HD>
                    <P>FAA received comments from industry, pilots, owners of light-sport aircraft, and members of the public affected by aircraft noise. Most of these commenters questioned the need for noise requirements, noting that LSA are generally already quiet. Some of these commenters expressed concern that meeting these noise requirements might necessitate redesigns that could negatively impact performance and safety. Many commenters supported using industry consensus standards and self-declaration of noise compliance as methods to reduce costs and avoid delays in certification. Regarding experimental aircraft, industry groups such as GAMA, EAA, and various association members and companies opposed noise requirements for EAB aircraft. Some expressed opposition to noise requirements for any type of experimental aircraft. Industry commenters generally supported the use of industry consensus standards for the noise certification of MOSAIC aircraft but were concerned that developing those standards would require resources and pose technical challenges. A number of individual and community commenters urged increased noise regulation, asserting that aircraft are too noisy.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Operations of Space Support Vehicles</HD>
                    <P>ALPA and Virgin Galactic were both generally supportive of the proposed regulatory language. However, both raised concerns about the development of guidance materials and the agency's internal policies for the issuance of operating limitations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Airworthiness Certification of Restricted Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>International Air Response (IAR), with several other restricted category aircraft operators expressing agreement, stated there was insufficient notice of the changes to the restricted category and such changes should be part of a separate rulemaking effort specifically for the restricted category. IAR asserted this is problematic and since restricted category operators may not be aware of the rule, it could result in adverse effects on businesses.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Differences Between the NPRM and the Final Rule</HD>
                    <P>Table 2 summarizes key changes from the NPRM made in this final rule.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,xs54,xs60">
                        <TTITLE>Table 2—Summary of Key Changes From NPRM</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Proposed action in the NPRM</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Adopted by this final rule</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Final 
                                <LI>regulatory</LI>
                                <LI>citation (14 CFR)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Additional
                                <LI>discussion</LI>
                                <LI>in section</LI>
                                <LI>of preamble</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">The NPRM proposed to revise the definition of consensus standard</ENT>
                            <ENT>This final rule removes the definition</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 1.1</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.G.5.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">The NPRM proposed to add a new provision for issuance of an experimental airworthiness certificate to former military aircraft to improve alignment between certain operations of former military aircraft and the experimental airworthiness certificates which authorize their operation</ENT>
                            <ENT>This final rule expands this provision to enable repositioning flights between any public aircraft operation, not just those supporting the U.S. Armed Forces and adds a provision to allow check flights following repairs, alterations, or maintenance</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 21.191(j)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.L.1.c.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                The NPRM proposed to increase the light-sport category maximum stall speed for airplanes from 45 to 54 knots CAS V
                                <E T="0732">S1</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                This final rule increases the light-sport category maximum stall speed to 61 knots CAS V
                                <E T="0732">S0</E>
                                 for an airplane and 45 knots CAS V
                                <E T="0732">S0</E>
                                 for a glider
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 22.100(a)(3)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.F.6.b and c.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">The NPRM proposed to apply control and maneuverability requirements to the certification of light-sport category aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>This final rule removes the reference to primary flight controls so the provision is also applicable to aircraft designed with simplified flight controls</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 22.105</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.F.13.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">The NPRM proposed to apply part 36 noise requirements to most light-sport category aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>This final rule makes compliance with part 36 voluntary for light-sport category aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 36.0</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.N.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                The NPRM proposed to increase the maximum stall speed for airplanes that a sport pilot may operate from 45 to 54 knots CAS V
                                <E T="0732">S1</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                This final rule increases the maximum stall speed for airplanes that a sport pilot may operate to 59 knots CAS V
                                <E T="0732">S1</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.316(a)(1)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1.c.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">The NPRM did not propose to amend the limitation listed in § 61.316(b) for aircraft that a sport pilot may operate that the aircraft meet certain limits “since its original certification.”</ENT>
                            <ENT>This final rule adds a provision allowing a sport pilot to operate an aircraft with retractable landing gear or an airplane with a manual controllable pitch propeller regardless of the configuration status of the aircraft when it was originally certificated if the pilot meets the training and endorsement requirements specified in § 61.331</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.316(b)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1.j. and IV.H.1.k.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">The NPRM discussed the equivalency of a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) and a repairman certificate (light-sport) but did not include a related provision in § 65.107. The NPRM discussed the equivalency of previously issued aircraft class privileges with the new aircraft category privileges, but did not include a related provision in § 65.107</ENT>
                            <ENT>This final rule adds a provision in § 65.107(f) consistent with the NPRM discussion, that establishes the equivalency of repairman certificates (light-sport aircraft) with aircraft class privileges issued before the effective date of this final rule to repairman certificates (light-sport) with aircraft category privileges issued under this final rule</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 65.107(f)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.I.2.a.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">The NPRM did not propose changes to privileges for a holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport)</ENT>
                            <ENT>The final rule expands privileges for a holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport) to perform an annual condition inspection on § 21.191(g), experimental amateur-built aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 65.109</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.I.10.b.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="35040"/>
                            <ENT I="01">The NPRM did not propose expansions of operating limitations applicable to restricted category aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>The final rule adds exhibition to the list of operations that are considered necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated with a special purpose operation</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 91.313(b)(3)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.K.3.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. FAA Safety Continuum</HD>
                    <P>
                        The safety continuum is a concept that FAA has used for years.
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         It is “[t]he concept that one level of safety is not appropriate for all aviation activities.” 
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The concept draws statutory support from 49 U.S.C. 44701(d)(B), which requires the Administrator to consider “differences between air transportation and other air commerce” when prescribing regulation.
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Per the safety continuum concept, FAA bases the rigor of certification requirements on the potential risk to the public for an aircraft operation. As risk increases with increased operating privileges and aircraft capability, FAA mitigates that risk through more rigorous certification requirements. For example, EAB have not been found to meet FAA or FAA-accepted design or production standards and therefore present a higher level of risk. FAA mitigates that risk for EAB via operating limitations that reduce the risk to the public. Light-sport category aircraft under this rule are subject to a higher rigor in certification requirements and procedures for design, production, and airworthiness than EAB aircraft. Therefore, light-sport category aircraft are higher on the safety continuum than EAB aircraft and can be operated under less restrictive operating limitations than EAB aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA included two fundamental safety arguments to support the proposed rule. The first safety argument was that certain changes would improve the safety of the light-sport category. FAA noted removing the weight restriction on light-sport category aircraft would provide manufacturers opportunities to incorporate additional safety-enhancing designs and equipment; design airframes that are more rugged for the flight-training environment; increase fuel load and aircraft range; allow for greater cabin size to enable greater occupant heights and weights; improve aircraft handling in gusts, turbulence, and crosswinds; and increase the suitability of light-sport category aircraft for other intended operating purposes, including recreation and personal travel. Also, adding performance-based part 22 requirements would increase the rigor and expected safety outcomes of design, production, and airworthiness requirements for the certification of light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <P>
                        Secondly, FAA explained that other amendments to the rules applied to light-sport category aircraft would improve safety more broadly within general aviation (GA) by making light-sport category aircraft a more appealing alternative to experimental aircraft that have higher fatal accident rates. The current fleet of registered EAB aircraft has approximately 26,450 aircraft. EAB aircraft are not subject to any design limits such as aircraft class, weight, number of seats, number or type of engines, stalling speed, or maximum speed. EAB are not subject to design or production standards in 14 CFR or in other FAA-accepted standards. Conversely, under the 2004 final rule, the light-sport category was subject to limits in number of seats, stalling speed, not-to-exceed speed, and cabin pressurization. Fatal accident rate data comparing similar EAB, light-sport, and normal category airplanes reflect accident rates that generally align with the safety continuum concept; that is, accident rates for light-sport category airplanes fall between the accident rates for EAB and normal category airplanes.
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         FAA views this as validation of the consensus standards and certification requirements used under the original rules. The final rule improves those certification requirements with new design, production, and training requirements for compliance staff. Some expansions enable safety improvements of light-sport category aircraft, primarily via relieving weight limitations. Other expansions increase risk for operations of light-sport category aircraft; that is, enabling four occupants in airplanes exposes the public to more risk than does enabling two occupants, but still less than for EAB aircraft that are not subject to seating or passenger limits. And still other expansions are clearly intended to increase the performance and usefulness of light sport category aircraft, such as enabling more fuel capacity, four seats for airplanes, higher speeds for personal transportation, expanding operating privileges for light-sport category aircraft, and expanding sport pilot privileges. Importantly, these expansions of light-sport category aircraft design, performance, and operation would increase safety more broadly within recreational GA because light-sport category aircraft would become a more appealing choice for those owners who may otherwise be considering purchasing experimental aircraft. Overall, this shift toward light-sport category aircraft would increase the numbers of aircraft that are designed and manufactured more safely than experimental aircraft.  
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Furthermore, in 2006, FAA published a Roadmap for General Aviation Aging Airplane Programs 
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         that was designed to aid industry in identifying and mitigating risks of aging aircraft. At the time, the roadmap identified the general aviation fleet as having an average age of more than 35 years old. Almost 20 years later, the age of these aircraft is reflected in FAA data that shows their attrition. The availability of non-experimental fixed-wing single-engine airplanes has decreased from 139,519 in 2010 to 126,076 in 2022, a reduction of over 13,400 airplanes.
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         With fewer new models being produced in the normal category and the ever-increasing average age and attrition of normal category airplanes, pilots naturally will be driven to other alternatives such as light-sport category and EAB airplanes. Up to now, pilots have favored EAB airplanes because their performance resembles that of the normal category. However, this rule should provide a safer alternative of equivalent performing, factory-built light-sport category aircraft that meet airworthiness requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Though expanding the light-sport category to attract new entrants from those aircraft “lower” on the safety continuum was the intent of the proposed rule, such expansions raise the question of what happens when new entrants are from those who may have otherwise chosen aircraft “higher” on the safety continuum. Some commenters argued that such a shift away from normal category aircraft, for example, would reduce overall safety 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35041"/>
                        and counteract the benefit of shifting ownership away from EAB aircraft. The fatal accident rate data discussed in the NPRM for non-commercial, single, piston-engine light-sport and normal category airplanes shows these rates have been very similar since 2018. Also, though fatal accident rates for EAB airplanes have been generally decreasing since 2011, these rates are clearly higher than for the light-sport and normal categories. That is, these relative comparisons of fatal accident rates mitigate concerns with potential shifts of new entrants away from type-certified aircraft and further support the safety arguments for expanding the light-sport category. FAA also notes the ability to purchase new, less expensive EAB aircraft has driven pilots from normal category to EAB aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A goal of this final rule is to apply the safety continuum to safely expand light-sport category aircraft and light-sport airman rules via safety standards of appropriate rigor that balance flexibility for manufacturers and availability to consumers. Given the proven track record of LSA consensus standards since at least 2011,
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         FAA believes it can expand the privileges afforded light-sport category aircraft with an increase in safety based on the flexible consensus standard process. By applying new part 22 requirements to and loosening operational restrictions on light-sport category aircraft, FAA safely expands the middle ground on the safety continuum between relatively risky experimental aircraft and relatively expensive normal-category aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA received approximately 16 comments related to FAA's fundamental safety arguments for the NPRM and the safety continuum. Though fundamentally supporting the premise of FAA's proposals for the manufacture, certification, operation, maintenance, and alteration of light-sport aircraft, AEA and ARSA jointly asserted that the proposed rules duplicate the primary category and the arguments for amending design and certification requirements for light-sport aircraft are unnecessary, duplicative, and frivolous rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>FAA disagrees. Eligibility for certification in the primary and (current or as-amended) light-sport categories are different in terms of acceptable classes of aircraft, weights, propellers, and engines. In addition, airworthiness standards for the primary category are largely taken from the applicable and more rigorous normal category standards, whereas light-sport category aircraft requirements in part 22 are less rigorous. Finally, design and production certification procedures for the primary category, as opposed to the light-sport category, rely on the more rigorous methods of showing and finding compliance to applicable requirements during type and production certifications. FAA does not issue a type or production certificate to a manufacturer of light-sport category aircraft but, instead, relies on a manufacturer's statement of compliance to applicable requirements. FAA, therefore, disagrees that the amended light-sport category duplicates the primary category.</P>
                    <P>As discussed below, AEA and ARSA commented that prior FAA attempts over the last thirty years to apply the safety continuum, simplify certification procedures, enable new technologies, and improve safety have largely under-delivered for the industry. AEA and ARSA stated another rulemaking is unwarranted. Contrary to this sentiment, the vast majority of comments received on the NPRM were generally in favor of the MOSAIC rulemaking effort, even in cases where there were specific suggestions or recommendations as to particular sections of the proposed rule. FAA notes that all but the newest 14 CFR parts have been amended multiple times. Despite FAA's best efforts to collect data, form arguments, and draft rules, and despite strong contributions from the public in the form of aviation rulemaking committees, recommendations, data, comments submitted to rulemaking dockets, and such, few rules are static. That rules require regular amendment is not a reflection of weaknesses with the rulemaking process but of its strength in continuously adjusting based on experience with prior amendments, changes in the industry, advances in technology, and such.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA disagrees with the notion that this rulemaking is frivolous and believes changes to the CFR in this final rule are supported with appropriate rationale. And generally, as AEA and ARSA “acknowledge,” the primary category “predated the wide-spread development of industry-led aviation consensus standards and[,] as such, [it] has not been utilized to its intended purpose.” 
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         Over 200 models of light-sport category aircraft have been manufactured compared with seven primary category aircraft models, even though the primary category has been available to manufacturers for over thirty years.
                    </P>
                    <P>AEA and ARSA commented that the risk related to an unbound, speed-based aircraft proposal has not been addressed. FAA disagrees with the comment that the light-sport category is “unbound.” The light-sport category is subject to the eligibility requirements of § 22.100 and the design, production, and airworthiness requirements of part 22. FAA considered risk in applying its safety continuum concept. Per the safety continuum concept, FAA compares the level of exposure of the public to risk with the level of rigor in issuance of a certificate. For recreational operations, FAA considered EAB aircraft, light-sport category aircraft, primary category aircraft, and normal category aircraft. Though accident rates for EAB aircraft have been consistently declining for about 10 years, that category remains a concern to FAA because it is not required to meet 14 CFR or FAA-accepted design or production standards. In addition, EAB aircraft are “unbounded” in terms of aircraft design, including aircraft class, weight, number of seats, number and type of engines, stalling and maximum speeds, and 14 CFR airworthiness standards. The proposed rule addressed the risk consideration of all such expansions, including the increase of stall and maximum speeds for light-sport category aircraft. The changes to the rule will increase safety of light-sport category aircraft through the requirements of part 22 and by attracting aviators who would otherwise gravitate toward EAB aircraft.</P>
                    <P>AEA and ARSA commented that the safety continuum includes three pillars of recreational aircraft categories-light-sport, primary, and normal categories-and proposals to one pillar affect the other pillars. AEA and ARSA commented that proposals must be weighed as to their effect on the entire safety continuum and the Agency, in coordination with industry, must consider all three pillars and develop policy and guidance to support 30 years of Agency promises.</P>
                    <P>FAA agrees that light-sport category aircraft should be considered in relation to experimental aircraft, primary category aircraft, and normal category aircraft. Though additional policies and guidance for applying the safety continuum to the “three pillars of recreational aviation” may be beneficial, FAA carefully applied safety continuum concepts in consideration of these three pillars in this rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>
                        GAMA recommended that FAA develop policy, guidance, and training to enable consistent application and full benefits of safety continuum concepts for all general aviation products. GAMA commented that it supports proposed light-sport category size, performance and scope increases. However, GAMA asserted the removal of design limitations would increase design complexity and therefore increase risk. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35042"/>
                        GAMA did not offer supporting data or a rationale for this assertion, nor did it state why or to what extent raising the aircraft speed or increasing the maximum number of seats from two to four would increase the design complexity to such a degree as to materially increase risks related to design compliance and aircraft conformity.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        While increases in complexity and speed generally increase risk, FAA believes the degree of expansion in size, configuration, and performance of light sport category aircraft under this final rule may be implemented with common, well-proven aircraft designs, engines, propellers, systems, equipage, and technology. As such, and as discussed throughout the NPRM and this final rule, the complexity of light-sport category aircraft designs can be increased without an appreciable increase in risk related to aircraft design compliance and conformity. For example, engine manufacturers typically offer a base engine model with small variations from that base design to achieve a range in horsepower to accommodate a range of aircraft weights and speeds. As another example, for retractable landing gear, the light-sport rules have included provisions for the manufacture of amphibious aircraft with retractable landing gear since 2007.
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Through September 30, 2024, operator error led to 14 “gear-up” landings on land and 10 “gear-down” events on water with amphibious light-sport category airplanes. Except for those operator errors, retractable landing gear have not been a source of fatal accidents or safety issues related to compliance, conformity, or operations for amphibious, light-sport category airplanes.  
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding the proposed expansions of operating privileges with light-sport category aircraft: aerial work, night operations, and personal, non-commercial transportation, GAMA also commented on increased risk from expanding operations along with increasing the maximum number of occupants. FAA considered safety and risk in its rationale for each of these expansions. Though GAMA raised general risk concerns with these expansions, GAMA did not address the specific rationale for these proposals, provide specific evidence of risk, or provide any new information or data that would cause FAA to change its determination to finalize these as proposed.</P>
                    <P>GAMA commented that each area of expansion of light-sport category design limits, performance capabilities, and operating privileges lack sufficient supporting operational safety data and need more consideration and understanding of FAA intended risk mitigations. Though GAMA members did not attain consensus on specific recommendations, GAMA also compiled various, non-consensus recommendations from different members in its comments for FAA to consider as mitigations. As discussed previously, FAA considered each proposal using safety continuum concepts to achieve the appropriate, intended safety outcomes.</P>
                    <P>GAMA recommended further FAA risk evaluations related to design compliance, production conformance, and the proposed increases in the NPRM, and suggested FAA consider if additional safety requirements are appropriate.</P>
                    <P>Importantly, FAA notes the comments from GAMA members and from GAMA consider risk only in terms of how risk may change within the light-sport category from the proposed expansions. GAMA did not provide supporting data or rationale to support its assertion that each expansion of the light-sport category would increase risk. FAA also pointed out that, as discussed in the NPRM, FAA considered safety and risk for not only the light-sport category, but for broader ramifications of safety and risk to recreational general aviation stemming from the scope of the light-sport category in terms of design limits, aircraft performance, and operating privileges. GAMA's comments reflect an isolated focus on the light-sport category itself. FAA considered the goals and arguments for decreasing risk and improving safety more broadly within recreational general aviation and the overarching goal of attracting general aviation toward lower risk aircraft than EAB aircraft.</P>
                    <P>GAMA members suggested the following for potential consideration: first, a two-tiered concept for light-sport category aircraft based on design and production risks; second, FAA could apply risk mitigations via part 22 like the certification levels in part 23; and third, FAA could consider identifying high-risk design features that would be subject to a higher rigor of certification requirements. GAMA did not provide supporting data or rationale to support assertions that each expansion of design limitations would increase risks and necessitate this recommendation. The NPRM addressed risk considerations of all expansions of light-sport category aircraft that could be designed and produced under this rule. Also, part 23 assigns certification levels based on maximum seating configurations: level 1 for 0 to 1 passenger; level 2 for two to six passengers; level 3 for seven to nine passengers; and level 4 for 10 to 19 passengers. With the maximum number of occupants for light-sport category aircraft limited to four for airplanes and two for other classes of aircraft in § 22.100(a), FAA finds that the range in complexity of light-sport category aircraft as signified by maximum seating configuration does not merit establishing multiple certification levels or tiers in part 22. Similarly, part 23 establishes low- and high-speed performance levels below and above 250 knots CAS that impact applicable part 23 airworthiness standards for type certification. Since the maximum speed of light sport category aircraft is limited to 250 knots CAS in § 22.100(a)(4), FAA finds the lower maximum speed of light-sport category aircraft does not merit the two-tiered approach of part 23 concerning maximum airspeed.</P>
                    <P>USUA commented that light-sport category aircraft fatal accident rates were comparable to type-certificated aircraft, implying that consensus standards are already high level and there may come a point where additional regulation is no longer safety enhancing. FAA notes that much of the additional regulation in this final rule constitutes expansions in eligibility of aircraft that may be certificated in the light sport category, operating privileges, and airman privileges. Rather than adding regulatory burden, such expansions generally give the public more options and privileges. In establishing new design, production, and airworthiness requirements under part 22, FAA was careful to set appropriate requirements for aircraft that fall between experimental aircraft and normal category aircraft on the safety continuum.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter stated the logic of FAA's safety continuum concept is flawed and does not reflect that pilot error, not mechanical failure, is the leading cause of fatal accidents. FAA applies the safety continuum concept not only to rules related to aircraft certification but to rules for pilot, repairman, and operating certifications. Pilots holding an airline transport pilot certificate are subject to more rigorous certification requirements than sport pilots. Setting appropriate pilot certification requirements does not allow FAA to disregard safety improvements to regulations for aircraft certification. To maintain and continuously improve safety, FAA applies the safety continuum concept to not only pilot certifications, but to all safety regulations, including aircraft, repairman, and operating certification requirements.  
                        <PRTPAGE P="35043"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>That commenter also asserted the NPRM lacks statistical data supporting that increased operating privileges and aircraft capability increases risks to the flying public, and the data relied upon by FAA is “skewed.” FAA disagrees. The data sources for flight hour and accident data were posted in the docket with the proposed rule and FAA used simple mathematical division of flight hours by the number of accidents to yield the accident rates cited.</P>
                    <P>This commenter further suggested that FAA should have used information from the 2020 AOPA Nall Report rather than the 2021 GA Survey because the GA Survey lacks data on the total number of flight hours flown by pilot certificate held. FAA notes that pilots of various levels of experience and grade of certificate may, in some cases, conduct similar operations along the safety continuum. The accident rates posted on the NPRM docket used data from the AOPA Nall Report and FAA GA Survey. However, the resultant accident rates in the NPRM were not intended to examine pilot experience level or the grade of pilot certificate. Instead, those rates are simple calculations of the cumulative number of fatal accidents divided by cumulative flight hours per year for non-commercial, small, fixed-wing, fixed-landing-gear airplanes with reciprocating engines for each of three categories of aircraft. This is a common type of calculation that provides a top-level safety metric by combining all fatal accidents regardless of their root causes or corresponding pilot characteristics. In this case, the resultant accident rate trends generally show decreases from the EAB aircraft to light-sport category and again from the light-sport category to the normal category. Decreases in the EAB fatal accident rate trend reflect collaborative efforts between FAA and industry to adopt numerous voluntary safety improvements in aircraft equipage as well as flight test and operational procedures. Both decreases in fatal accident rate trends correspond with increased rigor in certification requirements and procedures for light-sport and normal category aircraft. These accident rate trend comparisons were helpful in assessing the safety outcomes of the certification requirements for light-sport category aircraft under the 2004 final rule and safety continuum arguments for expanding eligibility limits for this category under the NPRM and this final rule.</P>
                    <P>A commenter expressed concern about the proposed increased operating privileges for recreational pilots. That commenter asserted that FAA is focused on promoting aviation rather than safety by supporting sport pilots flying larger aircraft and trying to make recreational flying easier.</P>
                    <P>Recreational operations already occur in multiple categories and types of aircraft, including approximately 30,000 EAB aircraft. FAA disagrees that the NPRM is focused on promoting aviation rather than safety. Rather, the NPRM focused on applying safety continuum concepts to provide safer alternative aircraft for recreational operations. Though the increase of operating privileges or aircraft capability for light-sport category aircraft considered in isolation may increase risk concerning light-sport category operations, those risks are more than offset by providing a safer, appealing alternative to EAB aircraft.</P>
                    <P>One commenter commented that the NPRM increases the complexity and decreases safety by allowing things like retractable landing gear, variable pitch propellors, multiple engines, and full authority digital electric controls (FADEC). This commenter also commented that the goal of the NPRM seems to be to increase the markets for these aircraft.</P>
                    <P>FAA disagrees. As described throughout the NPRM and as summarized in this final rule in the light-sport and general aviation safety rationales, the drivers for this rule are improving the safety of the light-sport category and of general aviation more broadly. For example, EAB aircraft may already be built with retractable landing gear, multiple engines, FADECs, variable pitch propellers, and other “complex” systems. This rule seeks to make systems available on light-sport category aircraft that correlate with lower fatal accident rates and meet FAA-accepted design, production, and airworthiness standards. FAA intends for these safety improvements to make these aircraft a more appealing alternative to EAB aircraft. Regardless, FAA notes that part 22 rules do not mandate installation of complex systems such as multiple engines, variable pitch propellers, retractable landing gear, and such. Such configurations and systems have higher initial and recurring costs and, as in the EAB aircraft fleet, will not likely represent the majority of configurations. See section IV.K.1.a. for discussion of aerial work with light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <P>Some individual commenters expressed general opposition to changes to the 2004 final rule. As described in the NPRM, FAA views successes with the light-sport sector as the basis for further amendments to improve safety and to give the public more options and privileges. FAA notes that many of the basic certification requirements and procedures of the original rules are unchanged, such as issuance of a special airworthiness certificate to a light-sport category aircraft based on a manufacturer's statement of compliance and issuance of a sport pilot certificate based on compliance with subpart J of part 61.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter asserted that though the NPRM frequently referred to the safety continuum concept as supporting rationale for its proposals, analytical substance is lacking to support the conclusion that the safety continuum is satisfied. In both the NPRM and the final rule, the safety continuum concept was applied by comparing and analyzing 14 CFR requirements among different types and levels of certification. For aircraft certification, FAA compared requirements among experimental, light-sport category, primary category, and normal category aircraft. For pilot certification, FAA compared training requirements commensurate to the certificate privileges and limitations among sport, recreational, and private pilots. Per the safety continuum concept, the exposure of the public to risk should correspond with the rigor of the related certificate. For an aircraft, exposure of the public concerns passengers aboard the aircraft, proximity to other aircraft, and populations on the ground. For aircraft that allow a higher exposure of the public, those aircraft should be subject to more rigorous certification requirements. That is, the safety continuum primarily focuses on relative comparisons of regulatory requirements for analysis and appropriate alignment of corresponding requirements. That is why FAA included a safety continuum view of the MOSAIC rulemaking 
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         on the NPRM docket. This document shows a high-level, side-by-side comparison of the experimental, light-sport, and type-certificated sectors for recreational aircraft that FAA used to help with considerations for this proposal from a safety continuum perspective and a safety continuum view of related pilot rules, including seating/occupant limitations. See section IV.H.1.a for a discussion of the passenger limitation for sport pilots.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter requested clarification of NPRM statements about amateur-built aircraft being lower on the safety continuum than light-sport category aircraft. FAA ranks categories or groups of operations on the safety continuum based on the level of risk to the public. Greater potential risk to the general public requires greater rigor in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35044"/>
                        certification standards and procedures. EAB aircraft have not been found to meet FAA or FAA-accepted design or production standards and therefore present a higher level of risk. FAA mitigates that risk for EAB aircraft by requiring those aircraft to meet operating limitations that reduce the risk to the public. Light-sport category aircraft under this rule are subject to a higher rigor in certification requirements and procedures for design, production, and airworthiness than EAB aircraft. Therefore, light sport category aircraft are higher on the aircraft safety continuum than EAB aircraft and can be operated under less restrictive operating limitations than EAB aircraft. Light sport category aircraft that meet the requirements of this rule can safely perform operations such as flight training and operations over densely populated areas. Light sport category aircraft that meet certain requirements under this final rule may also conduct certain aerial work. Though these operations provide more risk to the public, FAA considers that these operations still reach an appropriate level of overall safety because light-sport category aircraft will be subject to higher rigor in certification requirements and procedures for design, production, and airworthiness than EAB aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter asserted light-sport category airplanes had lower fatal accident rates than type-certificated aircraft in FAA statistics for 2020 and 2021 and the NPRM incorrectly implies that light-sport category aircraft are less safe than certified, general aviation, or non-commercial planes. FAA disagrees that it misrepresented this data in the NPRM. FAA provided this data on the docket; though the commenter is correct that accident rates were lower in 2020 for light-sport category airplanes, the accident rate for light-sport category airplanes was higher than the accident rate for type-certificated airplanes in 2021.</P>
                    <P>One commenter asserted this rule decreases safety by allowing larger numbers of less qualified pilots to operate larger numbers of less proven planes. FAA disagrees. The 2004 final rule and the proposed rule included safety arguments concerning the certification of light-sport category aircraft and sport pilots. FAA has determined the requirements of the rule allow for sufficient sport pilot qualifications and sufficient certification of light-sport category aircraft to maintain safety.</P>
                    <P>ANAC comments that proposed expansions in eligibility for certification of light-sport category aircraft would allow similar, small aircraft to be designed as light-sport, primary, normal, or powered-lift category aircraft. ANAC also comments that, despite similarities in aircraft designs among these categories, certification requirements are unnecessarily dissimilar. For example, consensus standards for light-sport category airplanes are different than for normal category airplanes, and consensus standards are not acceptable means of compliance for normal category rotorcraft. Given industry interest in the benefits of type certification for similar, entry-level, small aircraft such as additional operating privileges and broader access to international markets, ANAC asks how FAA intends to improve type certification of such aircraft with lighter, more consistent requirements.  </P>
                    <P>FAA notes the NPRM did not propose amendment of requirements for normal or primary category aircraft or powered lift. All regulations, means of compliance, policies, and procedures applicable to issuance of a type certificate for a normal, primary, or powered lift category aircraft are unchanged by this rulemaking. As mentioned by the commenter, type-certificated aircraft retain some advantages over light-sport category aircraft. For example, normal category aircraft have higher operating privileges such as carriage of people and property for compensation and hire, sightseeing, and international air navigation. Also, as mentioned by the commenter, through type validation procedures, type-certificated aircraft have access to international markets that require type certification. FAA considers all future rulemaking priorities such as further amendments of type certification requirements based on a number of factors, including feedback from industry, the public, and its bilateral partners.</P>
                    <P>
                        TCCA expressed concern that the expansions of the light-sport category works against incentivizing small airplane manufacturers to pursue type certification and decreases new, small, modern type certified airplanes under amendment 64 of part 23 
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         and equivalent foreign standards. Since amendment 64 of part 23 took effect on August 30, 2017, FAA has issued two type certificates under that part for passenger airplanes with one to four seats.
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         Given how few two to four seat aircraft have obtained type certificates, FAA believes the opportunity cost of discouraging them is low. This final rule has no impact on design and production of type-certificated airplanes with more than four seats.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA notes that manufacturers continue to have freedom to design and produce airplanes with four or less seats in the normal, primary, or light-sport categories in consideration of intended operating privileges, market demands, and international transferability. Because safety must be FAA's top priority, FAA must consider the safety incentives produced by improving the safety of the light-sport category.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Separation of Limits for Light-Sport Category Aircraft and Sport Pilots</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Definition of “Light-Sport Aircraft”</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed removal of the definition of “light-sport aircraft” to enable separation of limits for light-sport category aircraft and sport pilots as discussed in the next section, section IV.D.2. Accordingly, the NPRM proposed moving eligibility requirements for certification of light-sport category aircraft, experimental light-sport category aircraft, sport pilots, and repairmen (light-sport) to the applicable 14 CFR parts. FAA received 8 comments related to this proposal from 5 industry associations and 3 individuals. All comments supported this proposed change.</P>
                    <P>GAMA, AOPA, EAA, NATA, and NBAA commented in favor of removing the light-sport aircraft definition and incorporating relevant language in part 22. These commenters noted the difficulty in obtaining exemptions from parameters established by a definition.</P>
                    <P>One commenter recommended renaming the defined term “light-sport aircraft,” to “Sport Pilot Eligible” aircraft. However, the NPRM specifically eliminates this definition in favor of establishing separate and different limits for an aircraft that may be certificated in the light-sport category and for aircraft that may be operated by a sport pilot. Retaining and renaming the title of the definition as recommended by the commenter would confuse and undermine a fundamental proposal in this rule that is discussed in section IV.D.1. Therefore, FAA is not adopting this recommendation.</P>
                    <P>
                        This final rule adopts the proposal to remove the definition of “light-sport aircraft” and replace it with separate eligibility requirements for certification of light-sport category aircraft, experimental light-sport category aircraft, sport pilots, and repairmen (light-sport) in the applicable 14 CFR parts.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35045"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Elimination of the Definition of “Light-Sport Aircraft” Enables Separation of Limits for Light-Sport Category Aircraft and Sport Pilots</HD>
                    <P>Eliminating the definition of “Light-sport aircraft” from § 1.1 enables FAA to establish separate limits for new light-sport category aircraft and for sport pilots. Understanding this concept is helpful to understand provisions of this final rule discussed in sections IV.F concerning certification of light-sport category aircraft and in IV.H concerning limits for sport pilots.</P>
                    <P>
                        Since 2004, the § 1.1 light-sport aircraft definition has defined the design and performance requirements for light-sport aircraft as well as the aircraft design and performance limits for sport pilot certificate privileges. The definition was uniquely structured to not only provide the design and performance criteria of light-sport category aircraft, but it also specified the design and performance criteria for other categories and types of aircraft to determine which aircraft a sport pilot could act as the pilot in command (PIC).
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Simply put, this structure allowed EAB aircraft and normal and primary category aircraft to be light-sport aircraft for the purpose of sport pilot privileges if they met the design and performance requirements within the light-sport aircraft definition. The definition also included other requirements such as for the design of gyroplane rotor blade systems, even though gyroplanes are prohibited from being certificated as light-sport category aircraft.
                        <SU>15</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The light-sport aircraft definition included maximum takeoff weights for land and water-based operations and maximum airspeeds for V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                        , V
                        <E T="52">NE</E>
                        , and V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                        . Other design limitations in the definition specified maximum seating capacity, engine, propeller, and rotor requirements, as well as cabin pressurization and landing gear requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>Starting October 22, 2025, new aircraft performance limits and design requirements in § 61.316 of this rule go into effect, which will replace the performance limits and design requirements in the light-sport aircraft definition for which aircraft sport pilots may operate. However, the design and performance requirements in the light-sport aircraft definition will continue to be applied for airworthiness certification of light-sport category aircraft under § 21.190. Then, on July 24, 2026, the light-sport aircraft definition is removed from part 1 and new aircraft design and performance requirements for airworthiness certification in the light-sport category are relocated to § 22.100.</P>
                    <P>The removal of these requirements from the § 1.1 definition and separation of pilot and aircraft requirements is beneficial for several reasons. Separating aircraft design and performance requirements of light-sport category and sport pilot certification more easily allows regulations to be developed that meet the specific needs of aircraft and pilots. For example, while the NPRM initially proposed the same stall speed for both light-sport category airplanes and sport pilots, for this final rule FAA recognized that the different purposes for these limits could result in different stall speed limits. Based on the comments received and the specific needs of aircraft and pilots, FAA determined different stall speed requirements are appropriate for the final rule. The basis for these different stall speeds is discussed in detail in this final rule in sections IV.F.6.b and IV.H.1.c.</P>
                    <P>
                        Separate limits allow certification requirements for light-sport category aircraft to be established without regard to a specific grade of pilot certificate as is true for other aircraft categories. Under this rule, light-sport category aircraft are intended for operation by all grades of pilots. That is, sport pilots will no longer be restricted to operation of light-sport aircraft (or light-sport category aircraft under this final rule); part 61 will set forth design and performance limits that correspond to the scope of training and operational limits of sport pilots. Instead, the aircraft design and performance expansions in this final rule allow light-sport category aircraft to achieve greater performance and utility that is equivalent to four-seat normal and primary category aircraft as well as EAB aircraft. The result will make light-sport category aircraft performance more desirable to the other 490,470 certificated pilots (non-student) 
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         with greater training and operational experience. This approach also eliminates complications for obtaining exemptions from regulations that are tied to both aircraft and pilot requirements.  
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Special Airworthiness Certificates for Light-Sport Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Application Documentation (§ 21.190(c))</HD>
                    <P>Per § 21.190(c) in this final rule, an applicant for a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category must provide FAA with a manufacturer's statement of compliance (SOC) and a pilot's operating handbook (POH). The POH includes operating instructions and limitations, a flight training supplement, a listing of any authorized aerial work operations, and any instructions or limitations necessary to safely conduct towing operations. The POH in this final rule replaces the current § 21.190(b)(1) aircraft operating instructions (AOI) requirement. In addition, an applicant must provide a maintenance and inspection program for the aircraft. Since this final rule makes compliance with part 36 for new light-sport category aircraft voluntary (see section IV.N), this final rule also includes conforming amendments to § 21.190(c). Those conforming amendments eliminate the proposed application requirements to include a statement in the POH regarding compliance with part 36 and submission of evidence that the aircraft has demonstrated compliance with the applicable requirements of part 36 of this chapter.</P>
                    <P>GAMA recommended that the manufacturer's SOC, POH, and maintenance and inspection program be prescribed in subpart B of part 22. FAA disagrees with prescribing these documents in part 22 because they are already required in § 21.190(c) as part of the special airworthiness certificate application process. The SOC requirements are listed in § 21.190(d) and are the foundation of the light-sport category airworthiness certification process. FAA does not favor adding requirements for the POH and the maintenance and inspection program in part 22 because they are not FAA-approved or accepted documents, unlike the documentation requirements for type certificated aircraft meeting the airworthiness standards of parts 23, 25, 27, or 29. Part 22 also differs from the airworthiness standards for type certificated aircraft in that part 22 covers a wide variety of aircraft classes whereas the parts for type certificated aircraft are specific to airplanes or rotorcraft. This would make adding POH and maintenance program documentation requirements to part 22 difficult because they could not be tailored to meet the specific needs of each class of aircraft.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Pilot's Operating Handbook (§ 21.190(c)(2))</HD>
                    <P>
                        Streamline Designs suggested revised language for § 21.190(c)(2)(i) so that the provision reflects industry best practices and addresses normal and emergency procedures. FAA agrees to revise this sentence to capture elements discussed in the NPRM. As such, FAA will remove “recommended” and add “normal” and “emergency” to this requirement. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35046"/>
                        “Recommended” is being removed because it may result in confusion over the intended outcome of the operating instructions and limitations or appear as limiting. Certain operating instructions and limitations in the manufacturer's POH need to be complied with to prevent death, injury, or damage to the aircraft and should not be thought of as “recommendations.” Examples of these include certain airspeeds such as V
                        <E T="52">A</E>
                         and operating instructions such as warnings, cautions, and emergency procedures. “Normal” and “emergency” have been included in this requirement to provide clarity, reflect the NPRM preamble discussion, and expand the requirement beyond just abnormal procedures. In the NPRM, FAA stated the operating instructions should address normal, abnormal, and emergency operating procedures. Accordingly, the final rule revises § 21.190(c)(2)(i) to read, “Operating instructions and limitations to safely accommodate all environmental conditions and normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures likely to be encountered in the aircraft's intended operations.”
                    </P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs also commented on § 21.190(c)(2)(ii) stating that “all foreseeable conditions” could be problematic as it is too open-ended. FAA agrees and has changed “all foreseeable conditions” to “all likely conditions.” This change will narrow the scope to flight training conditions that are likely or probable, based on the aircraft and its flight envelope, instead of hypothetical scenarios whose occurrence may be unrealistic, inconsequential, or difficult to predict. Accordingly, § 21.190(c)(2)(ii) has been changed to read, “A flight training supplement to enable safe operation of the aircraft within the intended flight envelope under all likely conditions.”</P>
                    <P>Jump Aero recommended that the POH include all necessary procedures for pilots to mitigate likely failures. Reliable Robotics similarly suggested the POH include simplified flight control failure conditions and pilot mitigations to improve § 22.180. FAA notes these recommendations are already captured in the final rule text for § 21.190(c)(2)(i) and (ii) that provides POH requirements as part of the application for a special airworthiness certificate for a light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs recommended § 21.190(c)(2)(iii) include the words “if applicable” so aircraft manufacturers would not have to add a section in their POH just to indicate aerial work does not apply. In the final rule aerial work is authorized, per § 91.327, for light-sport category aircraft certificated on or after July 24, 2026 and § 22.195 requires each light-sport category aircraft to be ground and flight tested to ensure the aircraft can safely conduct any aerial work operation designated by the manufacturer. FAA disagrees with this recommendation. Section 21.190(c)(2)(iii) does not require aircraft manufacturers to state aerial work operations that may not be safely conducted so “if applicable” is not necessary. Instead, FAA encourages consensus standards organizations to consider safety implications of omitting mention of aerial work when creating consensus standards for the POH. Omission of aerial work may be confusing to the operator.</P>
                    <P>Though not proposed in the NPRM, in response to suggestions from commentors, this final rule includes a requirement for the POH to include any instructions or limitations necessary to safely conduct towing operations in § 21.190(c)(iv). FAA proposed to authorize limited towing for compensation or hire in the NPRM, but did not include a requirement for the POH. FAA is correcting that omission here. Towing was added to § 21.190(c)(iv) because § 91.327 authorizes limited towing for compensation or hire and towing can put similar loads on aircraft structures as certain aerial work operations.</P>
                    <P>FAA has already accepted ASTM consensus standards for light-sport category airplane and weight-shift-control aircraft to include manufacturer-provided instructions and operating limitations for the towing of gliders in the aircraft's POH. For example, paragraph A1.7 in the annex of ASTM Standard F2245, Standard Specification for Design and Performance of a Light Sport Airplane, states that operating limitations applicable to towing operations must be established and included in the POH. Also, ASTM Standard F2746, Standard Specification for Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH) for Light Sport Airplane, requires towing instructions be included in the POH. Since light-sport category aircraft manufacturers of towing-eligible aircraft must currently state compliance to FAA-accepted consensus standards for the POH, the addition of towing in § 21.190(c)(iv) is similar to the existing procedures manufacturers already undertake to provide a comprehensive POH.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Maintenance and Inspection Program (§ 21.190(c)(3))</HD>
                    <P>A commenter asked if the maintenance and inspection program in § 21.190(c)(3) was accepted or approved. FAA will not accept or approve light-sport category aircraft maintenance and inspection manuals.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Evidence of Compliance With Noise Requirements (§ 21.190(c)(2)(iv) and (c)(4))</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed § 21.190(c)(2)(iv) would have required the aircraft manufacturer to provide a statement that the aircraft has demonstrated compliance with part 36 of this chapter, the tested noise levels of the aircraft, and the following statement: “No determination has been made by FAA that the noise levels of this aircraft are or should be acceptable or unacceptable for operation in any location.” Proposed § 21.190(c)(4) would have required the applicant to provide evidence that the aircraft has demonstrated compliance with the applicable requirements of part 36 of this chapter.</P>
                    <P>Since this final rule makes compliance with part 36 for new light-sport category aircraft voluntary (see section IV.N), this final rule eliminates the proposed requirements in § 21.190(c)(2)(iv) for an applicant to provide the statements, tested noise levels, and the evidence in § 21.190(c)(4) that the aircraft has demonstrated compliance with the applicable requirements of part 36 of this chapter.</P>
                    <P>FAA received comments from numerous commenters on the proposal to require compliance with part 36. Streamline Designs suggested proposed § 21.190(c)(2)(iv) be reworded so the POH indicates the noise standard to which the aircraft complies instead of an actual tested noise level. Van's Aircraft stated a concern that proposed § 21.190(c)(2)(iv)'s requirement to include “tested noise levels” in the POH would need to be reviewed if a simplified method in consensus standards is approved. Since this final rule makes compliance with part 36 for new light-sport category aircraft voluntary (see section IV.N), these comments are no longer applicable with the omission of proposed § 21.190(c)(2)(iv).</P>
                    <P>
                        LAMA recommended the part 36 references in proposed § 21.190(c)(2)(iv) and (c)(4) be replaced with “FAA-accepted consensus standards for noise.” USUA recommended the elimination of § 21.190(c)(2)(iv) and (c)(4) from the final rule. LAMA and USUA's comments are addressed in section IV.N.  
                        <PRTPAGE P="35047"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Manufacturer's Statement of Compliance (§ 21.190(d))</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Certified and Trained Authorized Representatives</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed that the manufacturer's statement of compliance require a signature by the manufacturer's authorized representative or agent who is certified and trained on the requirements associated with the issuance of a statement of compliance by an organization that certifies and trains quality assurance staff in accordance with a consensus standard that has been accepted by FAA.</P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs asked FAA to explain the meaning of “agent.” FAA allows agents to submit various FAA documentation on behalf of the owner, such as required for aircraft registration (§ 47.13) or an airworthiness certificate application (§ 21.173). Though FAA does not define “agent,” it is generally someone outside of the owner's corporation or business who the owner has authorized to act on its behalf. FAA has determined that the inclusion of “or agent” in the requirement is redundant since an agent is a type of an authorized representative of the manufacturer. Accordingly, FAA has removed “or agent” from § 21.190(d)(1).</P>
                    <P>ALPA cited FAA's 2010 Light-Sport Aircraft Manufacturers Assessment (LSAMA) Final Report and recommended FAA provide greater regulatory oversight of manufacturers' statements of compliance substantiating that aircraft met consensus standards. Though this final rule does not specifically address FAA oversight of manufacturers' SOCs, it does establish a regulatory framework to address the consensus standards compliance concerns identified in the LSAMA Final Report. In addition to the trained and certified representative specified above to fulfill the § 21.190(d)(1) requirement, § 22.190 requires the aircraft to have been found compliant with the provisions of the applicable FAA-accepted consensus standards by individuals who have been trained on determining compliance with those consensus standards. These two regulatory requirements will provide better assurance that a manufacturer's staff designs, manufactures, and tests the aircraft to meet the applicable FAA-accepted consensus standards.</P>
                    <P>FAA oversight of light-sport category aircraft manufacturers and their facilities will be consistent with the safety continuum. Policies and procedures for that oversight, including FAA audits, are included in FAA Order 8130.36, Special Light Sport Aircraft Audit Program, which will be revised to align with changes in this rule. As explained in the NPRM, FAA would expand its oversight to verify successful accomplishment of training by the manufacturer's compliance staff per § 22.190, as well as the training and certification of manufacturer's staff who sign the manufacturer's statements of compliance in § 21.190(d)(1).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Manufacturer's Statement Whether an Aircraft is Suitable for Sport Pilots (NRPM proposed § 21.190(d)(3))</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed § 21.190(d)(3), which would have required a statement from the light-sport category aircraft manufacturer as to whether the aircraft met the design and performance requirements specified in proposed § 61.316 for an aircraft that a sport pilot would be permitted to operate. Streamline Designs recommended that this requirement be removed because some light-sport aircraft designs may have features or operation modes that can be toggled on and off and so whether the aircraft meets these requirements may not be a clear yes or no answer.</P>
                    <P>Because sport pilots may or may not have the necessary endorsements for airplanes designed with controllable pitch propellers or retractable landing gear, FAA agrees there may not be a clear “yes or no” answer to whether certain light-sport category aircraft meet the sport pilot aircraft performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316. However, FAA disagrees that the § 61.316 requirements of light-sport category aircraft operated by a sport pilot could be toggled on or off by means of flipping a switch. For instance, changing the type of installed propeller, the type of gyroplane rotor system, or converting a helicopter with simplified flight controls to one with primary flight controls would be impractical to accomplish with a toggle switch or be prevented by design requirements.</P>
                    <P>Instead, FAA did not include proposed § 21.190(d)(3) in the final rule because sport pilots can fly aircraft with retractable landing gear or controllable pitch propellers if they have obtained an endorsement through the requirements specified in § 61.331. Accordingly, the manufacturer's statement in proposed § 21.190(d)(3) would not have been practical for them to make since sport pilots may or may not be able to fly aircraft with these features. FAA will instead rely on a sport pilot's knowledge of the aircraft and part 61 requirements to determine whether they can fly a certain light-sport category aircraft. With the omission of proposed § 21.190(d)(3), all subsequent proposed sections in § 21.190(d) have been renumbered accordingly in this final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Manufacturer's Statement on Towing and Aerial Work Operations (§ 21.190(d)(3))</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed § 21.190(d)(4), which the final rule renumbers to § 21.190(d)(3), to require light-sport category aircraft manufacturers specify aerial work operations they have determined may be safely conducted with the aircraft and state that the aircraft has been ground and flight tested to ensure that it can be operated to safely conduct those operations in accordance with the instructions and limitations provided by the manufacturer.</P>
                    <P>The Soaring Society of America and Soaring Safety Foundation commented that it is uncertain whether manufactures will consider glider towing operations as included within aerial work operations. They recommended changes to §§ 21.190, 22.120 and 22.195(d) to clarify glider operations. FAA agrees that § 21.190 and the part 22 sections should be revised to include glider towing operations. Though glider towing is not an aerial work operation per § 91.327(a)(3), it should be included in the applicable requirements of § 21.190 and part 22 since glider and other towing operations puts similar loads on aircraft structures as certain aerial work operations, manufacturers must comply with FAA-accepted consensus standards for their towing-capable aircraft, and manufacturers will have to state compliance to any applicable consensus standards for towing. This topic is further discussed in section IV.K.1.a.iv.b. Accordingly, this final rule adds towing operations to § 21.190(c)(2)(iv) and (d)(3), and §§ 22.110 and 22.195.</P>
                    <P>
                        The ability for light-sport category aircraft to tow gliders, per § 91.327, has existed since the 2004 final rule. However, because the tow-hitch and installation requirements in § 91.309(a)(2) require Administrator approval, but light-sport category consensus standards for towing have only gained FAA-acceptance, this gap has deterred use of light-sport category aircraft in towing operations. This situation was explained in section IV.H.6 of the NPRM. This final rule resolves this issue with new requirements in § 91.309(a)(2) that allow for Administrator acceptance or approval of a tow-hitch and its installation. This topic is further discussed in section IV.K.1.b.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35048"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>The annexes in ASTM Standards F2245 and F2317 include FAA-accepted consensus standards for the design and performance of airplanes and weight shift control aircraft that are used to tow gliders. Manufacturers of light-sport category aircraft designed for towing would specify the applicable towing consensus standards on the manufacturer's statement of compliance per § 21.190(d)(5). Since light-sport category aircraft manufacturers must currently state compliance to FAA-accepted consensus standards for their towing-eligible aircraft, the addition of towing to § 21.190(d)(3) is similar to the existing procedures manufacturers already undertake to complete a manufacturer's statement of compliance.  </P>
                    <P>USUA stated the provisions of proposed § 21.190(d)(4) were unnecessary because aircraft under current consensus standards have already sustained greater loads for glider towing and flight training. FAA disagrees with the association's statement that this requirement is unnecessary. The proposed § 21.190(d)(4) requirement holds manufacturers accountable for designing and constructing their aircraft to withstand the loads of, and safely perform, towing and any aerial work operation they authorize in their aircraft's POH. This requirement also makes the manufacturer state they have flight tested their aircraft and found it able to safely conduct the authorized operations. FAA agrees that glider towing and flight training can put the aircraft under stressful loads; however certain aerial work operations, such as dispensing liquids or helicopter sling loads, have their own unique stressors that need to be addressed in the design. Accordingly, the requirements of proposed § 21.190(d)(4) are in this rule to ensure the safety of towing and aerial work operations authorized by the manufacturer. This final rule will retain § 21.190(d)(4) as proposed, except, as previously discussed, it will include towing operations and be renumbered as § 21.190(d)(3).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Manufacturer's Statement on Simplified Flight Controls (§ 21.190(d)(4))</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed that the manufacturer state whether the aircraft meets the simplified flight control requirements of § 22.180. FAA did not receive any comments on this section. This final rule will retain § 21.190(d)(5) as proposed, except, as previously discussed, it will be renumbered as § 21.190(d)(4).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Manufacturer's Statement on Specified Consensus Standards (§ 21.190(d)(5))</HD>
                    <P>The existing requirement in § 21.190(c)(2) that the statement of compliance specify the consensus standards used by the light-sport category aircraft manufacturer was retained in proposed § 21.190(d)(6). However, this requirement references subpart B of part 22, which contains the applicable design, production, and airworthiness requirements for which the consensus standards would serve as a means of compliance.</P>
                    <P>EAA, AOPA, NATA, NBAA, and GAMA recommended that FAA allow in the definition of light-sport aircraft for manufacturers to propose safety enhancing, risk mitigating technologies and designs in lieu of satisfying specific regulatory requirements. FAA disagrees with the associations' recommendation. This final rule removes the light-sport aircraft definition in part 1 and instead has eligibility requirements in § 22.100 that specify certain design, performance, and certification requirements of light-sport category aircraft. As explained in the NPRM, FAA has created the requirements in part 22 for FAA-accepted consensus standards to act as a means of compliance to those requirements. For FAA to accept proposals from individual aircraft manufacturers in lieu of meeting the regulatory requirements would be contrary to the reason why FAA has implemented part 22 in this rule. The associations' proposal would add confusion and undermine industry member participation in, and weaken, the consensus standards and process upon which the light-sport category relies upon for safe aircraft.</P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs commented that the scope of proposed part 22 and the associated consensus standards is not limited to airworthiness and the language should reflect their actual scope. FAA disagrees that every topic covered by a consensus standard needs to be individually addressed in part 22. This rule will continue to use the overarching terms of design, production, and airworthiness. The performance-based requirements proposed in subpart B of part 22 represent the minimum requirements a consensus standard would be required to address to be an acceptable means of compliance for certification of light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <P>FAA is making a correction to proposed § 21.190(d)(6) to require that specified consensus standards must be “accepted or approved” by FAA instead of only allowing for FAA “accepted” consensus standards. This revision is to account for § 36.0(c)(1), which the final rule renumbers to § 36.0(b)(1)(i), requiring an FAA “approved” noise consensus standard rather than an FAA “accepted” one. This final rule will retain § 21.190(d)(6) as proposed, except for this correction and, as previously discussed, it will be renumbered as § 21.190(d)(5).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Manufacturer's Statement on Quality Assurance System (§ 21.190(d)(6))</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed that the manufacturer state that the aircraft conforms to the manufacturer's design data using the manufacturer's quality assurance system. FAA did not receive any comments on this section. This final rule will retain § 21.190(d)(7) as proposed, except, as previously discussed, it will be renumbered as § 21.190(d)(6).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">g. Manufacturer's Statement on Availability of Documents (§ 21.190(d)(7))</HD>
                    <P>
                        Similar to the existing § 21.190(c)(4), the NPRM proposed § 21.190(d)(8), which would require manufacturers to state that they will make the documents specified in § 21.190(c) available to any interested person. Streamline Designs commented the language is problematic because it does not exclude competitors and others from requesting and freely accessing the information and utilizing it in violation of copyright and intellectual property interests. Streamline Designs recommended the requirement be changed to limit documents available to pertinent safety of flight and continued operational safety requests. FAA disagrees with Streamline Designs' requested change. The documents in § 21.190(c) include the manufacturer's statement of compliance, a POH that includes a flight training supplement, and a maintenance and inspection program. Though these documents are provided to FAA for airworthiness application, they are also provided with the aircraft to the purchaser. These documents should not contain design data beyond what is normally provided in these documents. Manufacturers who alleged violations of copyright and intellectual property interests have due recourse under the law. Since these documents are available to the purchasers when an aircraft is sold, there should be no further restrictions on their dissemination. The availability of these documents to the public is particularly beneficial to prospective purchasers of these aircraft by enhancing their understanding of the aircraft's operation, limitations, and maintenance 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35049"/>
                        and inspection procedures before purchase. This final rule will retain § 21.190(d)(8) as proposed, except, as previously discussed, it will be renumbered as § 21.190(d)(7).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">h. Manufacturer's Statement on Continued Operational Safety Program and Safety Directives (§ 21.190(d)(8))</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed in § 21.190(d)(9) that the aircraft manufacturer must state that it will support the aircraft by implementing and maintaining a documented continued operational safety program that addresses monitoring and resolving in-service safety of flight issues, includes provisions for the issuance of safety directives, includes a process for notifying FAA and all owners of all safety of flight issues, and includes a process for advance notice to FAA and all owners of a continued operational safety program discontinuance or provider change. The NPRM also proposed in § 21.190(d)(10) that the manufacturer must state it will monitor and correct safety-of-flight issues through the issuance of safety directives and a continued operational safety program that meets the specified consensus standard.</P>
                    <P>EASA asked for clarity on why proposed § 21.190(d)(9) requires the manufacturer to state it will issue safety directives but in § 91.327 removes the existing requirement for an owner or operator to comply with safety directives. In response, FAA emphasizes that safety directives are an important means for maintaining the safety of a light-sport category aircraft. The aircraft manufacturer issues safety directives to notify owners and future owners of any safety-critical information for their aircraft model. FAA has previously accepted ASTM Standard F3198, Standard Specification for Light-Sport Aircraft Manufacturer's Continued Operational Safety Program, which states that safety directives are issued when a condition is found to exist or could exist in the manufacturer's fleet that may cause an unsafe condition for flight. The removal of the requirement in § 91.327 for owners and operators to comply with safety directives is discussed in section IV.J.1.</P>
                    <P>The NPRM asked for public comments on whether manufacturers who are discontinuing manufacturing operations should be required to send design information of affected aircraft to FAA prior to discontinuing their continued operational safety program. This action could facilitate FAA's issuance of airworthiness directives if an unsafe condition is discovered after a manufacturer discontinues its operations. GAMA commented that the policy for light-sport category aircraft for the transfer of such data should be similar to the policy applicable to type certificated products. GAMA also requested that FAA keep abandoned design information it takes ownership of confidential unless needed to correct an unsafe airworthiness condition.</P>
                    <P>FAA has decided against requiring aircraft manufacturers that discontinue operations to provide their design data to FAA. FAA declines to institute this requirement because of challenges with property rights, difficulty reviewing large volumes of data in different formats, and providing proper storage and retrieval services for the data. In addition, FAA lacks sufficient staff, facilities, and equipment to assume such responsibilities for light-sport category aircraft. FAA encourages aircraft manufacturers to maintain responsibility for their continued operational safety system even if they stopped manufacturing that model of aircraft. FAA also encourages aircraft manufacturers to find a suitable manufacturer or other person that could assume continued operational safety responsibility.</P>
                    <P>EASA asked if FAA would act as a state of design for non-U.S. manufacturers that discontinue production of aircraft or go out of business. Though a manufacturer discontinuing operations may provide FAA with affected aircraft design data, FAA would not act as a state of design.</P>
                    <P>EASA also asked about the implications on current bilateral aviation safety agreements of FAA's proposal to remove the requirement for owners and operators of light-sport category aircraft to comply with manufacturer safety directives. The NPRM section IV.H.1 discussed the removal of the requirement to comply with safety directives. The agreements between the United States and individual European countries and with the European Union have no light-sport specific provision or terminology. For example, none of these agreements mention “manufacturer safety directives,” a term created for the light-sport rule of 2004. These agreements equate mandatory continuing airworthiness action with issuance of an airworthiness directive. Since § 91.327 provisions for mandatory compliance with airworthiness directives for light-sport category aircraft are unchanged by this final rule, and since these agreements do not use the term, “manufacturer safety directive,” this final rule does not impact aviation safety agreements between the United States, the European Union, and any individual European countries.</P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs stated NPRM proposed § 21.190(d)(9) and (d)(10) overlap and should be merged and simplified. FAA disagrees. To contrast the two in simple terms, proposed (d)(9) requires a manufacturer's statement of a documented continued operational safety program, including provisions for issuing safety directives and proposed (d)(10) requires a manufacturer's statement they will issue safety directives (if necessary) and have a continued operational safety program. Accordingly, because the two requirements are for separate actions by the manufacturer, they will remain as separate requirements.  </P>
                    <P>This final rule will retain § 21.190(d)(9) as proposed, except, as previously discussed, it will be renumbered as § 21.190(d)(8).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Manufacturer's Statement on Monitoring and Correcting Safety-of-Flight Issues (§ 21.190(d)(9))</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed § 21.190(d)(10), which would require the manufacturer's statement of compliance to include a statement that it will monitor and correct safety-of-flight issues through the issuance of safety directives and a continued operational safety program. This final rule will retain § 21.190(d)(10) as proposed, except, as previously discussed, it will be renumbered as § 21.190(d)(9).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">j. Manufacturer's Statement on Access to Facilities and Data (§ 21.190(d)(10))</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed § 21.190(d)(11) would require the manufacturer to state that, at the request of FAA, the manufacturer will provide unrestricted access to its facilities and to all data necessary to determine compliance with this section or other applicable requirements of this chapter.</P>
                    <P>
                        Streamline Designs recommended revising this provision to limit such access only to “FAA personnel” and only to the manufacturer's facilities. Streamline Designs contended that manufacturers should only be required to grant unrestricted access to FAA personnel or personnel it directly contracts with rather than anyone FAA desires. FAA disagrees with Streamline Designs' requested change since the requirement is for the determination of compliance with this section or other applicable requirements of this chapter. For manufacturers with facilities in the United States, FAA would only request that FAA employees or its contractors be allowed to have access to facilities and data to facilitate FAA making a determination of compliance. However, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35050"/>
                        for manufacturers with facilities outside the U.S., FAA would coordinate with the country's civil aviation authority (CAA) and may request its assistance. In this circumstance, a country's CAA may make or assist FAA with the compliance determination.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, FAA disagrees with Streamline Designs because of the omitted requirement for access to data. Access to a facility alone would not result in a compliance determination if the manufacturer did not also allow access to necessary data. The data would show the material and design properties and production methods necessary to determine compliance. The manufacturer's cooperation, including allowing FAA access to data, would also be necessary for the issuance of an airworthiness directive.</P>
                    <P>This final rule will retain § 21.190(d)(11) as proposed, except, as previously discussed, it will be renumbered as § 21.190(d)(10).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">k. Manufacturer's Statement on Quality Assurance Systems (§ 21.190(d)(11))</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed § 21.190(d)(12) required the manufacturer to state it has established and maintains a quality assurance system that meets the requirements of § 22.185 of this chapter. EASA commented that proposed § 21.190(d) and proposed §§ 22.185 and 22.190 contain some overlap of quality assurance system and training requirements. While EASA offered no change or suggestion beyond this observation, FAA agrees that the training requirements in proposed §§ 21.190(d)(1) and 22.190 and the quality assurance system requirements in proposed §§ 21.190(d)(12) and 22.185 are complimentary. For a quality assurance system to be successful, the design, production, and airworthiness staff members must be trained on determining compliance with applicable FAA-accepted consensus standards. As previously explained, the training requirements were implemented in this rule based on the findings in the LSAMA Final Report. This final rule will retain § 21.190(d)(12) as proposed, except, as previously discussed, it will be renumbered as § 21.190(d)(11).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Amended Statement of Compliance for Aerial Work (§ 21.190(e))</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed that an amended statement of compliance would permit aerial work operations, as designated by the manufacturer, for light-sport category aircraft certificated prior to the effective date of § 21.190 in this rule. These aircraft were originally certificated without a provision to conduct aerial work.</P>
                    <P>A commenter stated all existing light-sport category aircraft should be grandfathered to allow aerial work because it will create an undue time and financial burden on owners and manufacturers, and in some cases be impossible because the aircraft manufacturer has gone out of business. USUA similarly disagreed with this requirement because of the burden on owners and manufacturers. Despite acknowledging in the NPRM that obtaining an amended statement of compliance may be “cost prohibitive,” FAA generally disagrees with the commenters. Aircraft manufacturers of light-sport category aircraft certificated prior to July 24, 2026 have not assessed the design and structural integrity of the owner's aircraft or provided corresponding instructions and limitations in the aircraft's operating instructions or POH and maintenance manual necessary to safely conduct aerial work operations. Without this assessment and information from the original manufacturer, aerial work operations may exceed the safe design loads of aircraft structures.</P>
                    <P>In completing the amended statement of compliance, the original aircraft manufacturer must reference and reaffirm the statements made in the original statement of compliance and provide a statement that the design and construction of the aircraft provides sufficient structural integrity to enable safe operation of the aircraft during the performance of the specified aerial work operations. In addition, the NPRM proposed that the manufacturer must state that the aircraft is able to withstand any foreseeable flight and ground loads. Consistent with the change of “foreseeable” to “likely” in § 21.190(c)(2)(ii), this final rule has changed “foreseeable” to “likely” in this provision to narrow the scope of conditions that are likely instead of hypothetical scenarios whose occurrence may be unrealistic or inconsequential.</P>
                    <P>The aircraft manufacturer must specify FAA-accepted consensus standards used to make the determinations of the aircraft having sufficient structural integrity and the ability to withstand any flight and ground loads associated with aerial work operations listed in the POH. For example, the specified consensus standards may be comprised of those for structural integrity and aerial work operations. In addition, the aircraft manufacturer must revise the aircraft's operating instructions or POH to indicate those aerial work operations that may be safely conducted and revise the aircraft's maintenance and inspection program and flight training supplement with necessary instructions in compliance with applicable FAA-accepted consensus standards for these documents.</P>
                    <P>The final rule will make a correction to the phrase “required by paragraph (a) of this section” by replacing proposed “(a)” with “(e)(4)” so that the manufacturer must specify FAA-accepted consensus standards used to make the determination that the design and construction of the aircraft provides sufficient structural integrity to enable safe operation of the aircraft during the performance of the specified aerial work operations and that the aircraft is able to withstand any likely flight and ground loads. Paragraph (a) was an incorrect reference since it is about the purpose of § 21.190, which is for the issuance of special airworthiness certificates that meet the requirements of the section.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Design, Production, and Airworthiness Requirements for Non-Type Certificated Aircraft</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Naming of Part 22</HD>
                    <P>Van's Aircraft recommended revising the name of part 22 to eliminate the words “Design, Production and,” noting that § 21.190 and parts 23, 25, and 27 do not use these words. FAA disagrees with Van's Aircraft's recommendation because the terms “design” and “production” accurately describe some of the requirements within part 22. FAA created the part 22 name, “Design, Production, and Airworthiness Requirements for Non-Type Certificated Aircraft,” to avoid confusion with the term “standards.” While parts 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, and 35 use the term “airworthiness standards” in their titles, FAA was reluctant to follow this pattern with part 22 because subpart B contains requirements for which consensus standards would act as the means of compliance. To avoid confusion and ensure the proper hierarchy of airworthiness and consensus standards, FAA used a different naming scheme for part 22. Thus, part 22 uses the term “requirements” instead of “standards.” Also, the term “airworthiness” is used several times § 21.190 when referring to special airworthiness certificates for the light-sport category. Contrary to Van's Aircraft's comment, § 21.190(d)(5) includes the phrase “design, production, and airworthiness” when referring to the requirements of subpart B of part 22.</P>
                    <P>
                        EASA also commented that the use of part 22 in this rule may create confusion since EASA has used this identification number for CS-22, Certification 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35051"/>
                        Specifications, Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material for Sailplanes and Powered Sailplanes. Similarly, AEA/ARSA objected to the creation of part 22 as written. They stated limiting part 22 to only non-type certificated aircraft will create unnecessary confusion throughout the global aviation industry. Instead, they stated it should cover all aircraft, including sailplanes and primary category aircraft, not addressed by existing certification standards.
                    </P>
                    <P>While FAA supports global regulatory harmony with other civil aviation authorities, the decision to create part 22 for the design, production, and airworthiness of non-type certificated aircraft was based on several factors. First, FAA does not believe it would be appropriate to include the performance-based design, production, and airworthiness requirements in part 21 as that part is largely limited to prescribing certification procedures, not certification requirements. Second, FAA did not want to embed certification requirements for non-type certificated aircraft between 14 CFR parts dedicated to type certificated products or articles. Thus, creating part 22 for this rule was a logical destination based on existing 14 CFR structure where more rigorous airworthiness standards began with part 23 and continue higher. Finally, instead of designating a specific 14 CFR part to gliders, since 1987 FAA has designated type-certificated gliders as a special class of aircraft in § 21.17. FAA has used the applicable airworthiness requirements contained in parts 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, and 35 found by FAA to be appropriate for the aircraft and applicable to a specific type design, or such airworthiness criteria as FAA may find provide an equivalent level of safety to those parts. FAA has also accepted requirements in EASA's CS-22 for the type certification of gliders.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Applicability (§ 22.1)</HD>
                    <P>FAA made a correction to § 22.1(a) and removed proposed “applying for an airworthiness certificate” since it is redundant with “for the issue of special airworthiness certificates.” The removal of “applying for an airworthiness certificate” does not affect or change the meaning of § 22.1(a). This section will now read, “Except as provided in (c), this part prescribes design, production, and airworthiness requirements for the issue of special airworthiness certificates, and changes to those certificates, for non-type certificated aircraft.”  </P>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed in § 22.1(c) that part 22 did not apply to aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate, aircraft operating under a special flight permit, or unmanned aircraft. AEA/ARSA asked about the applicability of part 22 design and performance standards to special-light-sport and experimental-light-sport aircraft. Upon further consideration, FAA realizes that an exception should have been added to § 22.1(c) for light-sport category kit-built aircraft. When these kit aircraft receive their experimental airworthiness certificate, they had been designed and produced to meet applicable part 22 requirements just like the certificated light-sport category aircraft their design is based on. Kit aircraft certificated for the experimental purpose of operating light-sport category kit-built aircraft, § 21.191(k), are subject to applicable part 22 requirements for the design and production of the aircraft on and after July 24, 2026 and the final rule includes a correction to address this situation. Accordingly, in this final rule § 22.1(c) will read, “This part does not apply to: (i) aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate, except for light-sport category kit-built aircraft; (ii) aircraft operating under a special flight permit; or (iii) unmanned aircraft.” The correction does not impact or change the airworthiness certification requirements of light-sport category kit-built aircraft in §§ 21.191 and 21.193 in this final rule. Special-light sport aircraft is a colloquial term for light-sport category aircraft certificated under § 21.190. As indicated in the title of part 22, this part applies to light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <P>A manufacturer's statement of compliance accompanies each light-sport category kit-built aircraft and identifies the manufacturer's compliance with applicable FAA-accepted consensus standards. Certain FAA-accepted consensus standards, such as those for production acceptance as required by § 22.195, will not be included on the SOC since the manufacturer did not assemble or test fly the kit aircraft. Because the kits are built by amateur-builders or with the help of builder-assist companies, the kits must be certificated for the experimental purpose.</P>
                    <P>FAA did not include experimental aircraft certificated for the § 21.191(l) purpose of operating former light-sport category aircraft in the § 22.1(c) exception because these aircraft could have been altered from their former light-sport category configuration prior to being issued the § 21.191(l) experimental airworthiness certificate. For instance, the alteration could have occurred while the aircraft was operating under an experimental airworthiness certificate for the purpose of research and development or exhibition. The modification would likely cause the aircraft design to no longer comply with FAA-accepted consensus standards in effect when the aircraft was originally certificated in the light-sport category.</P>
                    <P>AEA/ARSA also asked whether part 22 would apply to non-type certificated unmanned aircraft. The NPRM stated part 22 would not be applicable to unmanned aircraft as the proposed requirements would not be appropriate to address the design of an aircraft that could be remotely operated. In this final rule, part 22 does not include any proposed requirements for telemetry, remote control stations, or other launch or recovery equipment unique to unmanned aircraft. The NPRM noted the requirements for non-type certificated unmanned aircraft could be proposed at a later date.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter recommended that new performance-based aerial work and noise requirements only apply to higher performance aircraft with a V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         above 45 knots. FAA disagrees with the commenter since light-sport category airplanes and gliders are the only aircraft classes with a stall speed limit more than 45 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                        . Rotorcraft and powered-lift are also high-performance aircraft, but they do not have a stall speed limit. In this final rule, all light-sport category aircraft classes must meet the part 22 requirements, as applicable. As explained in the NPRM, the proposed expansion of the classes of aircraft eligible for certification under the proposal and the increase in the size and performance of these aircraft requires the adoption and use of more detailed performance-based requirements. Regarding aerial work being only applicable to aircraft with a V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         greater than 45 knots, the commenter's position is overly restrictive as light-sport category aircraft classes other than airplanes and gliders can also do commercial operations. These other classes include rotorcraft (helicopters and gyroplanes), powered-lift, and lighter-than-air aircraft (airships and balloons). The commenter's statement regarding noise no longer applies since this final rule makes compliance with part 36 voluntary for new light-sport category aircraft (see section IV.N).
                    </P>
                    <P>This final rule adopts § 22.1 as proposed, except for the correction and § 22.1(c) changes discussed above.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Eligibility (§ 22.100)</HD>
                    <P>
                        EASA and GAMA commented that it is unclear if the subpart A requirements 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35052"/>
                        would also apply to aircraft manufactured outside the United States. FAA agrees and has made a few corrections to § 22.100(a) and (b) to provide clarity that all aircraft, whether manufactured inside or outside the United States, are subject to the applicability requirements in subpart A and the eligibility requirements in subpart B of part 22. The proposed title of § 22.100(a), which stated, “Aircraft manufactured in the United States,” has been removed. FAA realized that this title was misleading since it would have made it seem like aircraft manufactured outside the United States were excluded from being subject to § 22.100(a) eligibility requirements. In § 22.100(b), the proposed title “Aircraft manufactured outside the United States” has also been removed. Since the first sentence of § 22.100(b) begins with “For aircraft manufactured outside the United States,” the title was unnecessary. The proposed language in § 22.100(b) that stated, “to be eligible for a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category under § 21.190 of this chapter” was also removed since it repeats what is stated at the beginning of § 22.100(a), making the language redundant. Finally, “also” was added to § 22.100(b) to make it clear that an applicant of an aircraft manufactured outside the United States must also provide FAA with evidence it meets the requirements of § 22.100(b) in addition to meeting the requirements of § 22.100(a).  
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, FAA removed proposed § 22.100(b)(1) from this rule since it only required aircraft manufactured outside the United States to meet the requirements of subpart B of part 22. Deleting this proposal clarifies that aircraft manufactured outside the United States are subject to both subparts A and B of part 22. This final rule renumbers NPRM proposed § 22.100(b)(2) and (3) as (1) and (2), respectively.</P>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter stated light-sport category aircraft should continue to be designed for sport pilots and should not increase the complexity of current light-sport aircraft. FAA disagrees. Section III.1 of the 2004 final rule acknowledged that time and experience will determine whether the rules require modification. Prior to initiating this rule, FAA consulted with industry members and listened to their recommendations for change. Based on this feedback and supporting accident data in FAA's annual Continued Operational Safety Report 
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         for light-sport category aircraft, FAA determined that changes to the design and performance of light-sport category aircraft were warranted. The separation of light-sport category aircraft design and performance limits in part 22 from those tailored for sport pilots in part 61 aligns with the regulatory structure of every aircraft category. This structure allows regulations to be developed that meet the specific needs of aircraft and pilots. Furthermore, given the sport pilot training framework, sport pilots should not be solely dependent upon operating light-sport category aircraft but instead may operate any aircraft, regardless of the airworthiness certificate issued, as long as the aircraft meets the design and performance limitations authorized for sport pilots.
                    </P>
                    <P>EASA asked if an aircraft with some initial characteristics outside this proposal could be certificated in the light-sport category after a modification to its propeller, stall speed, or other characteristics like mass. The answer would depend on the modifications and whether a standard, primary, restricted, limited, or provisional airworthiness certificate, or an equivalent airworthiness certificate issued by a foreign civil aviation authority had ever been issued for that aircraft. Mass or gross weight is not an eligibility criterion for light-sport category aircraft certificated on or after July 24, 2026. If an aircraft had previously been issued one of the aforementioned airworthiness certificates, then the aircraft would not be eligible for airworthiness certification in the light-sport category. If the aircraft was newly produced, had never previously been issued one of the listed airworthiness certificates, met the requirements of subpart B of part 22, as applicable, and the applicant could provide the certification requirements specified in § 21.190(c) of this rule, then the aircraft could be issued an airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category. Note that subpart B requires that the aircraft must have met the design, production, and airworthiness requirements specified in subpart B using a means of compliance consisting of consensus standards accepted by FAA. Thus, if the aircraft was designed or manufactured prior to FAA acceptance of consensus standards that act as a means of compliance to part 22 requirements, then the aircraft manufacturer would have to be able and willing to sign a statement of compliance that the aircraft complies with the applicable FAA-accepted consensus standards for a light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Eligibility—Class of Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>FAA proposed in the NPRM to allow any class of aircraft to be eligible for certification in the light-sport category under § 21.190, provided the aircraft meets the eligibility criteria in §§ 21.190 and 22.100 and the proposed performance-based requirements in part 22 using an FAA-accepted consensus standard as a means of compliance.</P>
                    <P>All comments FAA received on this proposal generally supported expansion of the light-sport category to other classes of aircraft. Upwards Aero supported the proposal and moving toward performance-based requirements for light-sport category aircraft. Safari Helicopter commented favorably that the ability to certificate helicopters as light-sport category aircraft provides potential pilots confidence that their helicopter is built to FAA-approved safety standards. VAI commented about the positive impact of including rotorcraft in the light-sport category. The Gyrocopter Flight Training Academy commented that it was long overdue to include gyroplanes in the light-sport aircraft category.</P>
                    <P>The response from EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA asserted that the exclusion of gyroplanes from the 2004 final rule was unfortunate, that gyroplanes have continued to be excluded from rulemaking for too long, and recommended broad regulations that relied upon FAA-accepted standards developed by standards organizations. GAMA agreed with removing exclusions based on class from the rule to enable future growth of the light-sport category and new innovations.</P>
                    <P>Whisper Aero commented supportively that original equipment manufacturers will be on an equal playing field in new aircraft development and that certification consistency will allow for components that are standardized, produced at greater volumes, more affordable, and higher quality.</P>
                    <P>On or after July 24, 2026, this final rule allows any class of aircraft to be eligible for certification in the light-sport category, provided the aircraft meets the performance-based requirements of part 22 and the eligibility criteria in §§ 21.190 and 22.100. FAA encourages industry to develop acceptable and appropriate consensus standards to comply with the performance-based requirements in part 22 for all classes of aircraft.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Eligibility—Removal of Weight Limitations</HD>
                    <P>
                        Until July 24, 2026, light-sport category aircraft will continue to be certificated based on a maximum takeoff weight in § 1.1 of not more than 1,320 pounds (600 kilograms) for aircraft not intended for operation on water or 1,430 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35053"/>
                        pounds (650 kilograms) for an aircraft intended for operation on water. Though this rule does not contain weight limits for light-sport category aircraft certificated on or after July 24, 2026, light-sport category aircraft certificated prior to July 24, 2026 will continue to be subject to these weight limits under § 21.181(a)(3)(iv)(A).
                    </P>
                    <P>In the NPRM, FAA proposed to remove maximum takeoff weight restrictions for light-sport category aircraft citing many benefits such as enabling manufacturers to include more safety-enhancing designs and equipment. Instead of a maximum takeoff weight restriction, FAA proposed a stall speed for light-sport category airplanes, gliders, and weight-shift-control aircraft and determined that maximum seating capacity and limited aerial work operations would also help to reasonably constrain size and weight.</P>
                    <P>
                        ANAC disagreed with the removal of the weight limit and recommended FAA retain the maximum takeoff limit of up to 1,320 pounds for gliders and weight-shift-control aircraft. ANAC also questioned whether allowing heavier gliders and weight-shift-control aircraft would adversely affect safety. FAA disagrees that allowing heavier aircraft weight alone decreases safety. Though glider and weight-shift-control designs generally try to minimize weight, if the design of a glider or weight-shift-control aircraft accounts for the aircraft weight by providing the necessary aerodynamic performance and structural support, safety should not be adversely affected. FAA analyzed weight-shift-control aircraft accident data dating back to 2004 from the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) and noted none of the occurrence categories were attributed to a weight-related reason. For light-sport category gliders, there have been two fatal accidents since 2004, which occurred during the initial climb and post-impact flight phases.
                        <SU>18</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Otherwise, FAA received overwhelming support in the public comments for removal of the maximum takeoff weight restriction. The largest number of commenters on this topic stated the removal of the weight restriction would benefit aircraft designs, handling, and the inclusion of safety equipment. For example, GAMA stated existing light-sport category aircraft weight restrictions inhibit the ability to include many design and safety features and make more robust airplanes. Van's Aircraft also noted the positive effect of eliminating weight restrictions on the ability to develop electric aircraft due to the weight of batteries.</P>
                    <P>Many commenters stated the weight restriction resulted in handling challenges during airplane landings with gusty winds due to light wing loading. For example, one commenter wrote that eliminating weight limits allows for higher wing loadings and therefore easier to fly aircraft. The comments from GAMA, EAA, AOPA, NATA, NBAA, and the Gyrocopter Flight Academy noted handling or flying challenges caused by light wing loading resulting from the current light-sport category weight restriction. Safari Helicopter noted safety, stronger airframe, and turbulence and wind resistance benefits of higher weight limits.</P>
                    <P>A few commenters told of unsafe situations they had witnessed due to the existing maximum takeoff weight restriction on light-sport category aircraft. The Gyrocopter Flight Training Academy alleged the potential for manufacturers to cut corners, citing several examples it had witnessed, which could in turn reduce aircraft structural integrity. Another commenter alleged rampant, irresponsible flying of light-sport category aircraft at well above gross weight as a potential safety danger and asserted that eliminating weight limits will hopefully address this issue by allowing aircraft to be built more robustly and with more useful loads.</P>
                    <P>These allegations are very concerning to FAA. For light-sport category aircraft certificated prior to July 24, 2026, non-compliance with a light-sport aircraft definition requirement would disqualify an aircraft from being certificated in the light-sport category unless an exemption was obtained. “Cutting corners” on manufacturing materials or processes to save weight would potentially endanger safety, likely be a violation of the manufacturer's statement of compliance, and resultingly invalidate airworthiness certification of the aircraft in the light-sport category. Per the recent FAA Prohibition on Falsification final rule, a fraudulent or intentionally false statement, an incorrect statement or omission of fact, or other fraudulent activities involving certain documents, such as a manufacturer's statement of compliance, would serve as the basis for FAA to take certificate action that could include denying, suspending, revoking, or other appropriate action. Manufacturers of part 22 compliant light-sport category aircraft will not be subject to a weight limit, which should alleviate future concerns as those raised by the commenters.</P>
                    <P>Other commenters favored removal of the maximum takeoff weight restriction for a variety of reasons. These commenters identified benefits to pilot or flight training, building stronger, safer, or more rugged aircraft, enabling the carriage of more cargo, passengers, or fuel, and increasing safety margins.  </P>
                    <P>Several commenters cited occupant weight as a reason why the maximum takeoff weight limit should be removed. One commenter stated an increased weight allowance is more realistic and will improve safety given heavier individuals, luggage, and a desire for extra fuel for wind or weather purposes. Another commenter noted challenges in accommodating themselves, fuel, and a designated pilot examiner given weight limits. EASA, AOPA, NATA, NBAA, and GAMA commented that the weight restriction has caused numerous unintended consequences including concerns about minimal useful load and resulting pilot and passenger size limitations. Finally, another commenter favored weight limits that would allow two full sized adults.</P>
                    <P>Many commenters cited that the removal of a weight restriction in this rule would allow many popular recreational and training airplane models to be certificated in the light-sport category. One commenter stated that the new proposal would better enable sport pilots to get a biennial flight review. As discussed in greater detail in the stall speed section (§ 22.100(a)(3)), this rule would continue to restrict aircraft that have been previously certificated in the normal or primary categories from being issued an airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category. Owners of kit aircraft holding an experimental airworthiness certificate for the purpose of operating an amateur-built aircraft also would not be able to subsequently have their aircraft certificated in the light-sport category. However, manufacturers of normal or primary category aircraft, or aircraft models commonly sold as kits, could certificate new aircraft in the light-sport category if those aircraft or kits were built by the manufacturer and meet the requirements of § 21.190 and the light-sport aircraft definition or part 22, as applicable.</P>
                    <P>
                        Many commenters acknowledged that the current weight restriction is not ideal due to the light wing loading, safety equipment sacrifices made by manufacturers, and reduced fuel carried by operators to operate under maximum takeoff weight. Despite these considerations, FAA agrees with a commenter who stated current light-sport category aircraft designs are fine when flying within their design envelopes and have not been shown to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35054"/>
                        be deficient or easily fail under current loads.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA received several recommendations for establishing a maximum takeoff weight limit for light-sport category airplanes, mostly from commenters that preferred a weight limit rather than a stall speed limit. These recommendations ranged from a high of 6,000 pounds, based on previously applicable BasicMed operations, to a low of 1,080 pounds, proposed by AEA/ARSA as aligning with the empty weight of a Cessna model 152, with the majority of the commenters favoring 3,000 pounds as the maximum takeoff weight limit for this rule.</P>
                    <P>Though the NPRM clearly stated that a maximum takeoff weight restriction would not be included in this rule, many commenters seemed to be under the misimpression that FAA was indirectly using stall speed to impose a specific weight restriction of 3,000 pounds. Several commenters, including TCCA, recommended setting an explicit weight limit if the stall speed was being used to drive a roughly 3,000-pound weight limit. EASA questioned the background for not setting a direct 3,000-pound limit.</P>
                    <P>
                        Establishing a stall speed for light-sport category airplanes in this rule will allow aircraft designers greater flexibility than establishing a specific maximum takeoff weight. A reasonable stall speed coupled with other design and performance limitations in this rule, such as a maximum of four seats, a maximum of four occupants, and limited aerial work operations,
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         will likely constrain the size of light-sport category airplanes to a reasonable size for this category. Market forces will also constrain designs to those that are desired by and affordable to the consumer.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In creating this rule, FAA did consider extreme examples, such as the Antonov An-2, which is a single engine biplane that weighs approximately 12,000 pounds, has no published stall speed, and has a maximum speed well under the 250 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         restriction in this rule. FAA believes it unlikely that airplanes like the An-2 will be developed for the light-sport category due to the four seat, four occupant, and aerial work limitations. Because of these restrictions, the marketability of a An-2 type airplane for airworthiness certification in the light-sport category would be significantly diminished.
                    </P>
                    <P>As discussed in section IV.F.6.b., FAA also weighed commenters' concerns of accommodating electric airplanes in the stall speed decision. Commenters were concerned that a low stall speed allowance would prohibit the development of electric aircraft by limiting their battery size. Batteries add significant weight to electric aircraft and need to be large enough to provide useful range and endurance. FAA considered this feedback in developing the increased airplane stall speed requirement in the final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Eligibility—Weight Limit of Powered-Lift and Rotorcraft</HD>
                    <P>Though a stall speed limit would generally constrain the weight of airplanes, it would not have the same effect for powered-lift and rotorcraft since these aircraft classes can hover in place and not stall. In the NPRM, FAA requested comments on appropriate parameters to limit the weight of light-sport category powered-lift and rotorcraft. AIR VEV recommended against using weight as a regulatory limitation but instead allow industry to develop consensus standards to address this matter. FAA disagrees with allowing industry to develop consensus standards to establish eligibility criteria and FAA will not relinquish this responsibility to consensus standards organizations. This practice is consistent with the certification of normal category airplanes in § 23.2005 and avoids confusion caused by the continual shifting of requirements for applicants.</P>
                    <P>Commenters recommending a maximum takeoff weight limit proposed a range of weights. One commenter recommended doubling the existing limit to 2,640 pounds, asserting that a higher limit was essential for light-sport category powered-lift. GAMA recommended a 3,375-pound limit for light-sport category powered-lift to accommodate newer designs and features including electric propulsion systems. GAMA recommended a maximum certificated weight threshold of 2,700 pounds for light-sport category rotorcraft. These weight limits are also used with § 21.24 primary category seaplanes and rotorcraft. VAI recommended a 3,000-pound weight limit to facilitate the equipage of safety, avionics, and control systems of powered-lift and rotorcraft. If a weight limit was to be developed, AIR VEV favored 5,000 pounds, noting that current powered-lift design requirements work against the ability to meet the same airplane weight requirements and that 5,000 pounds is lower than the limit for part 27 small rotorcraft. Vertical Aviation Technologies, Cicare USA, and a few individuals stated light-sport category helicopter designs should be subject to a four seat and 3,000-pound limitation. Four commenters stated these parameters for rotorcraft should be the same as that proposed for airplanes, even though this rule did not propose a maximum weight limit for any light-sport category aircraft class. Some commenters favored a 3,000-pound weight for rotorcraft since it would allow for more stability in gusty winds, the inclusion of safety equipment and crashworthy designs, greater fuel load for increased range, and greater utility.</P>
                    <P>Generally, these recommendations suggested actual weight limits instead of parameters to limit weight as requested by the NPRM and failed to include rationales sufficient to convince FAA that a weight limit should be imposed for rotorcraft and powered-lift, particularly given the rationale provided in the NPRM for not imposing weight limits and the fact that no weight limit is being proposed for light-sport category airplanes. FAA emphasizes this rule does not impose a maximum weight limit as an eligibility criterion in § 22.100 so the aforementioned benefits of a larger helicopter and powered-lift could be included in light-sport category designs. Regardless of the helicopter or powered-lift weight and as explained in section IV.F.4., this rule will limit light-sport category helicopters and powered-lift to two seats. Instead of imposing a weight limit on rotorcraft and powered-lift in this final rule, the maximum seating capacity of two seats, two occupants, and limited aerial work operations should provide the basis for keeping light-sport category rotorcraft and power-lift at a reasonable size and weight.</P>
                    <P>
                        ANAC suggested the use of the six-pound per square foot main rotor disc loading and 2,700 pounds weight limitations used for primary category helicopters. FAA considered the six-pound per square foot main rotor disc loading limit for rotorcraft and powered-lift but did not adopt it. The limit may not work well with powered-lift because of the potential for heavier weights in certain designs. Also, this value does not effectively limit the size or weight of a helicopter and could allow overly complex and outsized helicopters that would not be appropriate for the design, production, and airworthiness requirements of the light-sport category. Effectively, without an accompanying weight limit, the main rotor disc loading limit alone would not provide any benefits in limiting weight or size making it no more effective than not imposing a weight limit in this rule. For these reasons, FAA does not favor the use of a disc loading limitation.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35055"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>Whisper Aero commented that competitive market forces will naturally limit powered-lift gross weights since they are limited to two seats and a heavier aircraft for the same payload will be more expensive and louder. It also opined that a weight limit for light-sport category powered lift was unnecessary as such aircraft are very weight-sensitive and will become subject to part 36 noise restrictions. FAA agrees. However, this final rule does not mandate compliance with part 36 for light-sport category powered lift. The other reason cited by Whisper Aero, in addition to the limited aerial work operations and two-person occupancy restriction in § 91.327, will reasonably control the weight and size of powered-lift.</P>
                    <P>To limit the weight of light-sport category helicopters indirectly, Skyryse suggested a limit on the number of engines to a single conventional powerplant or the functional equivalent for electric engines. FAA disagrees with this suggestion since it may limit future development of designs and technologies, and it may also result in more accidents due to underpowered helicopters or lack of redundancy in designs.</P>
                    <P>FAA received a few comments that assumed gyroplanes were going to be held to a 1,320 pound maximum weight limit. This assumption is incorrect. Another commenter stated gyroplanes should have a higher weight limit just like light-sport category airplanes. Similar to the rationale for powered-lift and helicopters, this rule will not impose a maximum weight limit for gyroplanes. A maximum seating capacity of two seats, two occupants, and limited aerial work operations should provide the basis for a reasonably sized light-sport category gyroplane.  </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Eligibility—Weight Limitation of Light-Sport Category Aircraft Certificated Prior to July 24, 2026.</HD>
                    <P>
                        For light-sport category aircraft originally certificated prior to July 24, 2026, the requirements in § 21.181(a)(3) of this rule specify that a light-sport category aircraft's airworthiness certificate will remain effective as long as the aircraft conforms to its original or properly altered configuration, the aircraft has no unsafe condition and is not likely to develop an unsafe condition, and the aircraft meets all of the conditions listed in § 21.181(a)(3)(iv)(A) through (L). The requirements in (A) through (L) are the same as those in the light-sport aircraft definition in effect at the time of certification.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Several commenters stated they would like to see a path for light-sport category aircraft, certificated prior to the effective date of part 22, to increase the maximum takeoff weight above the 1,320- or 1,430-pound restriction in the light-sport aircraft definition. One commenter recommended that the regulations and ASTM provide a path for aircraft with sufficient available data to increase gross weight limits. Another commenter similarly supported existing light-sport category aircraft being able to increase their gross weight, asserting that many such aircraft can handle higher gross weights, and such weight increases would allow for carrying full fuel for increased safety.</P>
                    <P>This rule does not provide a regulatory provision for light-sport category aircraft, certificated prior to July 24, 2026 to increase the maximum takeoff weight above the 1,320- or 1,430 pound weight restriction in effect at the time of certification. As discussed in section IV.Q, this rule implements a clean break in light-sport category manufacturing and certification requirements upon the implementation of part 22 requirements in this rule. On and after July 24, 2026, light-sport category aircraft will be subject to new design, production, and airworthiness requirements. The existing construct of light-sport category consensus standards will no longer be valid for the production of new aircraft. To not be subject to a weight limit, an aircraft would have to meet the applicable § 21.190 and part 22 requirements in this final rule and the consensus standards that will be developed to act as a means of compliance to the requirements. The more rigorous requirements in this final rule and associated consensus standards will likely prevent or preclude compliance of existing models certificated prior to July 24, 2026. FAA does note that light-sport category aircraft manufacturers may petition for an exemption to increase the maximum takeoff weight of their existing certificated models and this may be a potential avenue for those that can meet the requirements of the part 11 exemption process.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Eligibility—Types of Aircraft Engines and Propellers</HD>
                    <P>
                        The current § 1.1 light-sport aircraft definition limits light-sport aircraft to a single reciprocating engine if the aircraft is powered and a fixed or ground-adjustable propeller if a powered aircraft other than a powered glider. Powered gliders are allowed a fixed or feathering propeller. With the performance expansions in this final rule for the design of light-sport category aircraft, there is no longer a need to restrict light-sport category aircraft to a single reciprocating engine or a fixed or ground-adjustable propeller. Removing these restrictions is necessary for the introduction of powered-lift and certain rotorcraft, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         electric vertical takeoff and landing (eVTOL), into the light-sport category. It will also allow for the development of light-sport category twin-engine airplanes that require a feathered propeller for single engine emergency operations. These changes will also enable the development of new technologies, including electric, hydrogen, and hybrid engines and motors. Effective July 24, 2026, with the removal of the light-sport aircraft definition in § 1.1, this final rule will no longer have single reciprocating engine and propeller limitations for light-sport category aircraft. Section 22.100 will allow light-sport category aircraft to be manufactured with any number and type of engines, motors, or propellers.
                    </P>
                    <P>Several commenters supported these changes or portions of these changes and only one commenter opposed. The commenter opposed to these changes stated light-sport aircraft are for entry level rather than for high-performance flying and recommended continuing the one engine (or electric motor) and existing propellor restrictions. FAA disagrees with the recommendation. The removal of the restrictions on engines, motors, and propellers is necessary to open the light-sport category to all classes of aircraft and benefit from the development of emerging engine and motor technologies. Under this rule, the designs of light-sport category aircraft will no longer be bound to the training, capabilities, and limitations of sport pilots; effectively making their performance and utility more appealing to a broader range of pilots.</P>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters supported the removal of the engine restrictions. Pivotal commented on the benefits to aircraft redundancy and aircraft safety of non-reciprocating and multi-engine distributed electric propulsion. Pivotal also commented that the NPRM allowed for manufacturer innovation to realize the advantages of more complex systems and failure mitigation through automation. Whisper Aero commented that removing the single engine requirement enhanced the ability to develop advanced aircraft, noting the prevalence of distributed propulsion in electric powered-lift aircraft. Elanus Aerospace expressed being encouraged by the proposed allowance of electric motors for light-sport category aircraft.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35056"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>Several commenters encouraged allowing more innovative power systems such as turbine engines, multi-engines, or electrical and hybrid powerplants. Another commenter applauded the move to become propulsion agnostic.</P>
                    <P>EAA, AOPA, NATA, NBAA, and GAMA strongly supported allowing alternative powerplants since it would allow for innovative propulsion technologies. They also supported controllable pitch propellers being allowed for light-sport category aircraft, noting that electric powerplants and piston engines with forced induction are severely disadvantaged without such propellers.</P>
                    <P>Sonex commented as to how crucial turbine powerplants were to increased energy efficiency, and how continued development will aid general aviation with shifting away from leaded aviation fuels. It similarly noted how important controllable pitch propellers were to turbine-powered, propeller-driven aircraft.</P>
                    <P>Finally, EASA asked what propulsion engines could be installed on different types of new light-sport category aircraft and whether such aircraft could use a pressurized cabin for higher altitudes possible with turbine engines, electric hybrid, and other types of propulsion. Upon July 24, 2026, this rule will not prohibit any type or number of engines or motors on light-sport category aircraft. Though turbine engines can operate more efficiently at much higher altitudes compared to reciprocating engines, § 22.100(a)(5) of this final rule requires light-sport category aircraft to have a non-pressurized cabin, if equipped with a cabin. This cabin design requirement remains unchanged from the 2004 final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Eligibility—Rotor System for Gyroplanes</HD>
                    <P>Currently, § 21.190 prohibits the issuance of a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category to gyroplanes. However, the current § 1.1 light-sport aircraft definition limits gyroplanes to a fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering, two-blade rotor system. Under the current regulations, though gyroplanes cannot be certificated in the light-sport category, they are eligible to be flown by sport pilots if they have a fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering, two-blade rotor system.</P>
                    <P>As proposed in the NPRM, this final rule will allow gyroplanes to be certificated as light-sport category aircraft and will eliminate restrictions on the rotor system designs of these aircraft. This means that on or after the effective date of July 24, 2026, newly manufactured gyroplanes certificated in the light-sport category are not limited to a fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering, two-blade rotor system. Gyroplanes will have to comply with the applicable performance-based requirements in part 22 to be certificated in the light-sport category. Consensus standards that act as the means of compliance to part 22 requirements will have to be developed by consensus standards organizations for light-sport category gyroplanes and gain acceptance by FAA. Section IV.H.1.h. discusses the applicability of gyrocopter rotors for sport pilots.</P>
                    <P>AutoGyro and an anonymous commenter supported this proposal. FAA did not receive any opposing comments. AutoGyro supported the proposal wholeheartedly, stating that removing this requirement allows for innovative designs. The anonymous commenter applauded the inclusion of designs on gyroplanes, which allow for jump take off systems.</P>
                    <P>This final rule corrects § 21.181(a)(3)(iv) by removing proposed provision (I) that specified gyroplanes originally certificated prior to July 24, 2026 had to have a fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering, two-blade rotor system for their special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category to remain effective. This provision is removed because gyroplanes are prohibited from being issued special airworthiness certificates in the light-sport category. Given this correction, the NPRM proposed provisions § 21.181(a)(3)(iv)(J) through (M) are renumbered as (I) through (L) in the final rule.  </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">g. Eligibility—Types of Landing Gear</HD>
                    <P>Currently, the § 1.1 light-sport aircraft definition requires light-sport aircraft to have fixed landing gear, except for an aircraft intended for operation on water or a glider. Aircraft intended for operations on water may have fixed or retractable landing gear, or a hull. Gliders may have fixed or retractable landing gear.</P>
                    <P>As proposed in the NPRM, this final rule will eliminate restrictions on the landing gear designs of light-sport category aircraft. This means that on or after July 24, 2026, newly manufactured aircraft certificated in the light-sport category will be allowed to have fixed or retractable landing gear, or floats for aircraft intended for operation on the water. The NPRM proposed removing the landing gear requirements for light-sport category aircraft since the proposed part 22 eligibility requirements were not contingent on a sport pilot operating the aircraft. The proposed rule to eliminate weight limits for light-sport category aircraft also allowed for more robust structures and greater weight allowances, which would accommodate the necessary structural enhancements needed for retractable landing gear.</P>
                    <P>FAA received support for its landing gear proposal from EAA, AOPA, NATA, NBAA, GAMA, and Sonex. GAMA and a consolidated comment from EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA stated there is minimal impact on safety of retractable landing gear for airplanes, injury rarely results from “gear up” events, and they anticipate new cockpit technology that would make such occurrences less likely. They also stated while adding complexity, these systems are well-understood and can be safely implemented. Sonex noted previous FAA retractable gear exemptions that did not lessen safety, and that retractable gear aircraft are more energy efficient in cruise flight.</P>
                    <P>One commenter opposed the proposal, stating that the changes will add complexity, increase failure or pilot error, and would not draw more people to light-sport category aircraft from experimental aircraft. While FAA agrees that the inclusion of retractable landing gear, by itself, will not draw people away from EAB aircraft, the NPRM did not make this claim. Rather, the NPRM stated its proposals to include a wider variety of aircraft, increase performance, and increase operating privileges were intended to increase safety by encouraging aircraft owners deciding between experimental aircraft and light-sport aircraft category to choose aircraft higher on the safety continuum. While retractable landing gear adds some degree of complexity, can malfunction, and may not be extended from time to time during landings, these concerns can be mitigated with proper training and checklist discipline obtained with a complex aircraft endorsement. Also, aircraft manufacturers can mitigate risks with comprehensive inspection and maintenance procedures and designs that include effective alerting systems. FAA encourages consensus standards organizations for light-sport category aircraft to develop consensus standards that address the inspection and maintenance of retractable landing gear and alerting systems that would help to prevent gear-up landings. Based upon the above, FAA disagrees that light-sport category aircraft in this final rule should continue to be subject to the existing landing gear restrictions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Maximum Seating Capacity for Other Light-Sport Category Aircraft (§ 22.100(a)(1))</HD>
                    <P>
                        For light-sport category aircraft classes other than airplanes, FAA 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35057"/>
                        proposed to keep the maximum seating capacity of gliders, weight-shift-control aircraft, lighter-than-air aircraft, and powered-parachutes at two seats. The NPRM stated two seats were appropriate for these classes since they are operated for recreation 
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         and that additional passengers would increase risk. The additional weight of a third person in certain classes, such as gliders, would be detrimental to operational efficiency and result in cumbersome designs.
                    </P>
                    <P>As discussed above, AEA/ARSA opposed seat increases for light-sport category aircraft citing that the primary category already provides a pathway for aircraft with a seating capacity of four persons. Of note, the primary category only applies to airplanes and rotorcraft but not weight-shift-control, powered parachute, powered-lift, and lighter-than-air classes. AEA/ARSA's opposition to four seat light-sport category aircraft aligns with the two-seat maximum capacity for light-sport category rotorcraft in this final rule. FAA's response to AEA/ARSA's opposition with respect to four seat light-sport category airplanes is provided in section IV.F.5.</P>
                    <P>One commenter advocated for increasing the seating capacity of weight-shift-control aircraft to three seats citing that three-seated weight-shift-control trikes already exist and they are just as safe as two-seaters. FAA disagrees with increasing the seating capacity of weight-shift-control aircraft as weight-shift-control aircraft have the highest fatal accident rate of any light-sport category aircraft, dating back to fiscal year 2005 and based on the total fleet size, per FAA's 2022 Continued Operational Safety Report for light-sport category aircraft. FAA is not increasing the seating capacity of weight-shift-control aircraft in this rule based on the high fatal accident rate for this class, recreational-only operations, and increased risk of additional passengers.</P>
                    <P>Four commenters, including USUA, recommended increasing the seating capacity of powered parachutes to three. The commenters cited the availability of bigger engines, increased utility and marketability, and that three and four seat trikes and powered parachutes operate outside the United States. A few commenters cited ITEC's Maverick, a four seat off-road powered parachute, which operated in the U.S. under an experimental airworthiness certificate for the purpose of exhibition. Though FAA generally agrees that bigger engines could increase the feasibility of greater seating capacities and that the marketability and utility of powered parachutes could be increased with more seating, FAA does not agree that these enhancements outweigh the risks of three or more passengers being flown on powered parachutes. For example, of the four Maverick powered parachutes built by ITEC, two of them were involved in accidents. Because of limited production of powered-parachutes models with more than two seats, operations predominantly occurring in foreign countries, and authorization being other than in the light-sport category, the FAA could not obtain comprehensive accident data for these models. However, FAA continues to affirm that two seats are appropriate for powered parachutes since powered parachutes are only operated for recreation and additional occupants would increase risk.</P>
                    <P>FAA received two comments to increase the seating capacity of light-sport category airships. One commenter favored three seats for greater utility or two seats and one stretcher to allow their use in search and rescue or ambulance operations. The other commenter requested up to ten seats to train pilots on platforms similar to the configuration of type-certificated airships. Though FAA generally favors increasing the utility of aircraft, considering that there were zero light-sport category lighter-than-air aircraft in the FAA Registry per FAA's 2022 Light-Sport Category Aircraft Continued Operational Safety Report, FAA did not increase the seating capacity of lighter-than-air aircraft in this rule.</P>
                    <P>In the NPRM, FAA proposed that the two new light-sport category classes, powered-lift and rotorcraft, would have a maximum seating capacity of two seats. FAA stated because of the lack of experience with safety metrics associated with powered-lift and rotorcraft classes of light-sport category aircraft, the maximum seating capacity of two seats was appropriate. Unlike light-sport and normal category airplanes, consensus standards for the airworthiness certification of rotorcraft or powered-lift of any category have yet to be accepted by FAA. Since the development of appropriate consensus standards is starting at ground level, this risk will be mitigated with a maximum seating capacity of two seats for rotorcraft and powered-lift in this rule.</P>
                    <P>AIR VEV and Streamline Designs proposed that the maximum seating capacity limitation be prescribed in FAA-accepted consensus standards. AIR VEV suggested that the consensus standards would initially limit rotorcraft and powered-lift to two seats only and could be modified once the industry and FAA had gained sufficient safety data regarding these types of aircraft. Streamline Designs noted industry consensus standards have included limitations in addition to what the rules require and the same should be done with the maximum seating limit. FAA disagrees with these recommendations. Like the airworthiness standards for other aircraft categories, seating capacity is often used as a regulatory eligibility criterion for airworthiness certification purposes. Though potentially less flexible than consensus standard development, rulemaking would provide FAA an opportunity to propose the regulatory structure of performance-based limitations and requirements necessary for safe operations of light-sport category rotorcraft and powered-lift with increased seating capacities. As stated in the NPRM, FAA could consider future rulemaking to increase the proposed two seat limitation for these aircraft classes as experience increases and consensus standards are developed. Like all classes of light-sport category aircraft, FAA will monitor the accident rates of rotorcraft and powered-lift and consider this data for future privileges and performance expansions.</P>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters, including VAI, commented that the maximum seating capacity of helicopters and gyroplanes should be increased to four seats for the same reasons FAA used for airplanes. As discussed above, FAA lacks experience with safety metrics associated with rotorcraft classes of light-sport category aircraft, which includes helicopters and gyroplanes, and could consider future rulemaking to increase the two-seat limitation as experience increases and consensus standards are developed. Other commenters, including EAA, AOPA, NATA, NBAA, 3F, and Streamline Designs, commented that all classes of light-sport category aircraft should have a maximum seating capacity of four seats and USUA recommended that all non-airplane light-sport category aircraft have a three-seat limit. FAA disagrees with these perspectives for the reasons discussed above regarding each individual category of non-airplane light-sport aircraft. In addition, one of the major safety objectives of this rule is to make light-sport category airplanes a more appealing alternative compared to EAB airplanes and dampen the increasing growth into amateur-built airplanes. FAA Registry data shows this safety benefit is more prevalent for airplanes because there are far more EAB airplanes than other aircraft classes. As of November 14, 2024, FAA Registry shows there are 26,453 registered EAB airplanes compared to only 1,162 EAB helicopters, 189 EAB gyroplanes, 285 EAB gliders, 63 EAB 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35058"/>
                        weight-shift-control aircraft, and 8 EAB powered-parachutes. Because this safety benefit is targeted at light-sport category airplanes, FAA determined that increased seating capacity was necessary for light-sport category airplanes, but the benefit did not justify seating increases for other aircraft classes due to lower EAB demand and the other considerations discussed above with regard to each individual category of non-airplane light-sport aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>VAI, Vertical Aviation Technologies, Cicare USA, Skyryse, and several individual commenters recommended increasing light-sport category helicopters maximum seating capacity to four seats. These commenters cited that a larger size to accommodate additional seating would make the helicopter more structurally rugged, perform better in windy or turbulent air conditions, be equipped with additional safety devices and crashworthy features, and have a greater fuel load or battery capacity. Commenters stated larger helicopters have larger rotor systems or more blades, which results in better autorotation performance and reduced noise levels. FAA agrees that these recommendations would increase the marketability, utility, and safety of light-sport category helicopters. FAA believes it is an oversimplification to state that larger rotor systems or more blades results in reduced noise levels, as there are many other considerations needed to arrive at such a conclusion. FAA generally agrees with these arguments as most were used to justify the seating increase of light-sport category airplanes. However, FAA notes this rule will not impose any size or weight limitations on light-sport category helicopters so these performance expansions and benefits of a larger-sized helicopter could be included in light-sport category helicopter designs, even with the two-seat limitation. An individual commenter favored limiting helicopters to two seats with a weight limitation; however, this commenter did not state a recommended weight limitation. As previously stated, this rule will require a two-seat maximum seating capacity for light-sport category helicopters to mitigate risk while FAA gains experience in safety metrics. Future accident data will need to show the effectiveness of newly developed consensus standards for light-sport category helicopters.  </P>
                    <P>FAA received comments from the Gyrocopter Flight Training Academy, AutoGyro, and several individuals to increase the maximum seating capacity of gyroplanes to either three or four seats. Comments addressed increased utility and market demand and cited gyroplanes with more than two seats operating in other countries. AutoGyro commented that additional seating would allow flight schools to take advantage of the Gemini method of allowing more than one student on board. Though FAA generally agrees with these comments, FAA disagrees with increasing the maximum seating capacity above two seats for gyroplanes primarily because of the increased risk and, as previously stated, the lack of experience with safety metrics for these aircraft. The NPRM stated future rulemaking to increase the proposed two seat limitation for these aircraft classes could be considered as experience increases and consensus standards are developed. Like the other classes of light-sport category aircraft, FAA will monitor the accident rates of gyroplanes and consider this data for future privileges and performance expansions.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter opposed three or four seat gyroplanes but also challenged some of the NPRM statements regarding gyroplanes and asserted that FAA's two-seat limitation could limit gyroplane commercial applications that are evident in other countries. FAA disagrees with the commenter's challenge to these NPRM statements because the commercial use cases cited by the commenter could be accomplished in a two-seat gyroplane and do not necessitate additional seating, or in the case of the sightseeing use case would not be permitted as an aerial work operation because it involves the carriage of a non-essential person for compensation or hire.</P>
                    <P>FAA received one comment to increase the maximum seating capacity of powered-lift. The commenter stated a seat limitation for powered-lift would discourage spending on required resources for the implementation of distributed electric propulsion and simplified vehicle operation technologies that provide increased safety advantages through redundancy and loss of control protection. FAA notes that, regardless of seating capacities for powered-lift, certain technologies like distributed propulsion systems may be necessary for the certification of certain light-sport category powered-lift to show compliance with requirements for control and maneuverability (§ 22.105) and the propulsion system (§ 22.145). FAA also notes the simplified flight controls requirements in § 22.180 are not applicable to all light-sport category aircraft. As previously discussed, this rule will require a two-seat maximum seating capacity for light-sport category powered-lift to mitigate risk while FAA gains experience in safety metrics. Future accident data will need to show the effectiveness of newly developed consensus standards for light-sport category powered-lift.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Maximum Seating Capacity for Light-Sport Category Airplanes (§ 22.100(a)(2))</HD>
                    <P>FAA proposed to increase the maximum seating capacity of light-sport category airplanes from two seats to four seats. As explained in the NPRM, the addition of two more seats should increase safety by making manufacturer-built light-sport category airplanes that meet design, production, and airworthiness requirements a more appealing alternative to EAB airplanes. In addition, pilots holding private pilot certificates or higher would likely find light-sport category airplanes with four seats more appealing due to the greater utility. Attracting more pilots with higher levels of experience and training into light-sport category airplanes increases the overall safety of those operations.</P>
                    <P>Most commenters favored increasing light-sport category airplane seating capacity from two to four seats. AEA, ARSA, and ALPA opposed the proposed increase in seating. AEA/ARSA stated primary category airplanes already allow four seats. FAA agrees that the primary category is a viable option for manufacturing a four-seat recreational airplane; FAA recognizes that primary and light-sport category airplanes will share similarities of weight and seating capacities as a result of this rule. Accordingly, it would be detrimental to the utility and marketability of light-sport category airplanes to limit them to two seats when they will have the size and performance to carry four people, including the pilot. ALPA asserted that increased seat capacity would reduce the safety benefits of normal category airplanes because significantly more pilots will likely migrate down to light-sport category airplanes. FAA agrees that some pilots may migrate from normal to light-sport category airplanes just as they have migrated from normal to EAB airplanes. Regardless, the performance-based requirements in part 22 will increase safety of light-sport category airplanes since appropriate consensus standards (for an airplane with a maximum of four seats) can be created to act as a means of compliance to those requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA notes that a few minor inconsistencies exist regarding seating when comparing normal, primary, and light-sport category airplanes and EAB airplanes. Low speed, level one normal category airplanes have a maximum 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35059"/>
                        seating configuration of zero to one passenger and level two normal category airplanes can have a maximum seating configuration that allows up to six passengers.
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         Primary category airplanes are limited to four seats and, like normal category airplanes, are type certificated.
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         Thus, primary and normal category aircraft share similar airworthiness certification paths since they must show compliance to similar airworthiness requirements. At the low end of the safety continuum, EAB airplanes do not have to meet any airworthiness standards and are not bound to a maximum seating capacity restriction. As of May 13, 2025, only 157 EAB aircraft in the FAA Registry had more than four seats.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Despite the wide array of certification rigor for normal, primary, and light-sport category airplanes and EAB airplanes, FAA considered the seating variances when proposing this rule and determined that a maximum seating capacity of four seats for light-sport category airplanes was reasonable given the expected similarities in size and performance. FAA anticipates that light-sport category airplanes with four seats will share similar dimensions (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         wingspan, length) and general configurations as the popular models of the other three types of four-seat airplanes. Likewise, all four types of four-seat airplanes should share similar engine or motor models and operate within a similar performance envelope of altitudes and airspeeds.
                    </P>
                    <P>A few commenters favored increasing the maximum seating capacity of light-sport category airplanes to more than four seats. One commenter was concerned that a four-seat limit would dissuade families with more than two children from buying light-sport category airplanes and thereby unnecessarily restrict the market. The commenter questioned the difference, referencing the structural ability of the airplane, in carrying the weight of four adults compared to a couple with four children.</P>
                    <P>FAA agrees that the maximum seating capacity of an airplane plays a large role in its utility and marketability. As previously discussed, FAA evaluated the certification categories at the low end of the safety continuum, including EAB airplanes, to determine the acceptable maximum seating capacity of light-sport category airplanes. As long as an airplane is operated within its authorized performance envelope and weight and balance limits, the presence of passengers does not necessarily make an airplane less safe. Rather, increasing the seating capacity allows for the carriage of more passengers, which exposes more people to risk. Airplanes that carry more passengers, especially for commercial purposes, should be certificated at increasing levels of rigor because they have the capacity to expose more people to risk. Given where light-sport category airplanes fall on the safety continuum and the seating capacity limits of normal and primary category airplanes, which have a long history of four-seat airplane designs, FAA deems four seats as an appropriate seating limit for light-sport category airplanes.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter who favored more than four seats asserted that decoupling light-sport category airplanes from sport pilots eliminated the need for a four-seat limit and that the handling, controls, and performance limitations will result in larger airplanes that are safer and simpler than older alternatives. For the reasons previously discussed, FAA disagrees with exceeding the four-seat limit for airplanes in this final rule. Also, the addition of a new light-sport category airplane does not necessarily correlate with the retirement of an older airplane, regardless of the category of that older airplane. As evidenced by the well-documented aging of the general aviation fleet, used aircraft remain appealing to buyers who need or want lower cost or higher certificated options. In addition, the commenter does not provide support for their statement that the handling, controls, and performance limitations of a larger light-sport category airplane will make them safer and simpler than older normal category alternatives. Though this rule aims to increase the safety of light-sport category airplanes and of general aviation by making light-sport category airplanes a more appealing alternative to EAB airplanes, FAA finds no compelling basis for predicting that the safety of light-sport category airplanes will exceed that of airplane categories higher on the safety continuum.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter asked whether six-seat airplanes with two seats removed would be acceptable. Section 22.100 specifies that light-sport category airplanes have a maximum seating capacity of not more than four persons, including the pilot. This means an airplane could not be designed with more than four seats and be eligible for light-sport category airworthiness certification under § 21.190. Also note that § 91.327 as adopted in this final rule prohibits persons from operating an aircraft certificated in the light-sport category that carry more than four occupants, including the pilot, if the aircraft is an airplane. Accordingly, even if there were extra floor space in the airplane where additional occupants could fit, § 91.327 prohibits a pilot from carrying more than four occupants, including the pilot.</P>
                    <P>Many commenters that favored a maximum seating capacity of four seats for light-sport category airplanes cited the increased utility that four seats will provide, including for pilots with private or higher certificates and for training, personal transportation, recreation, and flight school rental. Other commenters favoring the seat increase stated it would make pilot training more efficient since it would allow two students to receive training on the same flight, citing the “Gemini Method” commonly used by flight schools. Under this method, the non-flying student would be able to observe and learn from the instruction provided to the other student. The non-flying student could also increase flight safety by visually clearing for other aircraft and hazards or assisting with emergencies. Van's Aircraft highlighted increased marketability for private aviation and flight schools for such aircraft and the ability for flight schools to fly with more than one student.</P>
                    <P>One commenter stated the four-seat change would enable more legacy aircraft in the light-sport category and allow additional versatility in future designs. Though FAA agrees that the seat increase will allow more versatility in future designs, the comment about allowing more legacy aircraft to be included in the light-sport category needs clarification. The issuance of a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category for airplanes that have been previously issued a standard, primary, restricted, limited, or provisional airworthiness certificate, or an equivalent airworthiness certificate issued by a foreign civil aviation authority is prohibited per § 22.100.</P>
                    <P>
                        This final rule sets the maximum seating capacity at four seats for light-sport category airplanes. FAA finds that four seats are appropriate for the certification rigor of light-sport category airplanes given their primary use of recreational flight. The increased maximum seating capacity from two seats to four seats provides enhanced utility and marketability of light-sport category airplanes. This enhanced utility and marketability will make light-sport category airplanes a more appealing alternative to EAB airplanes and will help to attract more pilots with higher levels of experience and training into manufacturer-built light-sport category airplanes, thereby increasing safety.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35060"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Maximum Takeoff Weight and Aircraft Stall Speeds (§ 22.100(a)(3))</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Maximum Takeoff Weight</HD>
                    <P>Streamline Designs commented that there is no certificated takeoff weight because there is no type certificate. The requirement to use certificated takeoff weight in proposed § 22.100(a)(3) was taken, and is unchanged, from the existing requirement in the definition of light-sport aircraft in § 1.1. The requirement to use certificated takeoff weight in existing § 1.1 and proposed § 22.100(a)(3) was a reference to the maximum takeoff weight tied to the airworthiness certificate and not based upon a type certificate as light-sport category aircraft are not issued a type certificate. However, given the concerns raised in this comment, FAA recognizes that `certificated' takeoff weight is not the best terminology to use in this final rule with light-sport category aircraft. As such, this final rule eliminates “certificated” from proposed § 22.100(a)(3) to determine the maximum stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at the aircraft's maximum takeoff weight. FAA's Airplane Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-3C) defines maximum takeoff weight as the maximum allowable weight for takeoff. In addition, ASTM Standard F3060, Standard Terminology for Aircraft, states that maximum takeoff weight is used to determine maximum flight loads and flight requirements and it may also be the weight used to determine the maximum ground loads when it is the same as the ramp weight, landing weight, or towing weight.  </P>
                    <P>
                        The aircraft manufacturer should include the aircraft's actual and maximum weight limits in the POH since they are necessary to conduct safe operations as required by § 21.190(c)(2)(i). As part of the application for an airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category, an applicant provides FAA with the aircraft's POH and FAA Form 8130-15, 
                        <E T="03">Manufacturer's Statement of Compliance for a Light-Sport Category Aircraft/Kit.</E>
                         This form assists a manufacturer in fulfilling statement of compliance requirements in § 21.190(d) and includes an entry for the manufacturer to specify the aircraft's maximum takeoff weight. The maximum takeoff weight in the POH and on FAA Form 8130-15 should match. Accordingly, this is also the weight that should be used by the manufacturer when conducting flight tests, per § 22.195, such as verifying the applicable stall speed requirement in § 22.100(a)(3).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Airplane Stall Speed</HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA proposed in § 22.100(a)(3) a maximum stall speed of 54 knots CAS, without the use of lift-enhancing devices (V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                        ), at the airplane's maximum certificated takeoff weight and most critical center of gravity. FAA proposed this increased stall speed because on and after July 24, 2026, with the removal of the weight limits of the light sport aircraft definition, aircraft have increased weight allowances. Increased weight allowances must be accompanied with an increased stall speed. Since most light-sport category airplane accidents occurred during approach and landings, FAA proposed 54 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         with the goal of reducing kinetic energy in survivable aircraft landing accidents,
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         which would result in fewer occupant injuries and fatalities. FAA also noted 54 knots CAS was the highest V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         for which an exemption had been granted for the light-sport category.
                        <SU>25</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed 54 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         eligibility requirement for light-sport category airplanes received over 120 comments. Over 50 commenters stated the proposed 54 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         should be increased to a higher V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                        . These commenters suggested V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         values that ranged from 57 to 65 knots, with the greatest number of commenters supporting an increase to, or at least a minimum of, 58 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                        . Some of the commenters wanted V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         to be increased above the proposed 54 knots CAS but did not provide a specific value. Other commenters supported a stall speed increase that used a landing configuration airspeed (V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                        ). The commenters that favored using V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         suggested values ranging from 48 to 65 knots, with the majority supporting a V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         of 54 knots. Almost half of these commenters did not specify a V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         speed. Some commenters specified a stall speed (V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         or V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                        ) increase with the inclusion of equipment requirements, operational considerations, design aspects, crashworthiness, or other considerations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Other commenters said an increased stall speed above the proposed 54 knot limit or even above the current 45 knot limit was unnecessary. One commenter supported the proposed 54 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                        , stating it will allow for both adequate safety margin and more robust and safer designs. AEA/ARSA jointly disagreed with increasing the stall speed limit to 54 knots CAS and instead asserted that this rulemaking should instead update rules for the primary category. FAA disagrees that these changes are better suited to primary category. Since 2004, light-sport category aircraft manufacturers have produced over 200 designs and approximately 3,500 aircraft, whereas primary category aircraft manufacturers, since 1992, have produced 53 aircraft and obtained 7 type certificates.
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         The use of consensus standards in the airworthiness certification of light-sport category airplanes has produced successful and safe results as shown by the relatively low accident rate for light-sport category airplanes.
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         FAA considers that it is more efficient to address these safety considerations in the aircraft that are most numerous in the airspace for the general aviation community.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        ALPA also did not favor increasing V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         above 45 knots CAS because it would allow significantly heavier and larger aircraft to operate in the light-sport category, which would lower safety. Heavier and larger light-sport category airplanes will be able to operate under the higher stall speed limit in this rule. FAA disagrees that, by itself, an aircraft's heavy weight or large size decreases safety. Heavier weights or larger sizes usually must be coupled with another parameter such as poor design, inadequate power or performance, or poor decision making by the pilot to result in adverse impacts to safety. Conversely, the existing low weight and resultingly low wing loading of light-sport category airplanes is one of the main reasons for their historically high number of landing accidents 
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         because low weight and wing loading create challenging handling qualities in windy or turbulent conditions. Elimination of weight limits in this rule should decrease the number of landing accidents associated with low wing loading.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA considered all comments and has decided to increase the maximum stall speed eligibility requirement in § 22.100(a)(3) from the proposed 54 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         to 61 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         for special airworthiness certification of light-sport category airplanes.
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         The 61 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         is a compromise between the proposed stall speed that would provide lower kinetic energy for survivable emergency landings and one that could achieve safe operations of heavier airplanes allowed by this rule, as discussed in the following paragraphs. Though most commenters favored either a 58 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         or a 54 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         or higher, the same safety justification for raising the maximum V
                        <E T="52">S</E>
                         to any of these values can also be applied to 61 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         with equal validity.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA considered stall speed limits of similar types of four-seat general aviation airplanes. Light-sport and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35061"/>
                        primary category airplanes share the same maximum stall speed limit of 61 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                        .
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         Normal category and EAB airplanes do not have a maximum stall speed limit despite EAB airplanes not being subject to design standards, unlike normal category airplanes. Increasing this rule's airplane stall speed limit to 61 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         is reasonable considering the design and performance similarities of these types of general aviation airplanes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A 61 knot V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         stall speed limit has been applicable to the production of four-seat primary category airplanes since September 1992. The 1992 primary category final rule explained that the 61 knot V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         limit was adopted simply based on its 50-year track record in part 23 that “established it as an acceptable level for single-engine airplane performance for safe operation by general aviation pilots.” 
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         This historical use sets a traditional design threshold for small general aviation airplanes.
                    </P>
                    <P>Van's Aircraft commented that the performance enhancements in this rule should encourage greater ownership in light-sport category airplanes since they will resemble the operational capabilities of amateur-built airplanes. FAA anticipates the higher stall speed should also encourage higher certificated pilots into ownership of light-sport category airplanes resulting in greater safety benefits. Compared to sport pilots, private and commercial pilots have completed more training and have more experience with the larger operating envelope light-sport category airplanes will have as a result of this rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter requested the stall speed be increased so that more aircraft are included that can fly safer, under max weight, and with full fuel and passengers. Van's Aircraft stated the proposed 54 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         will result in an unmarketable aircraft, noting the dilemma of needing to choose amongst full fuel, seats, or baggage, but not all three. FAA agrees the NPRM proposal of 54 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         could be limiting to the operational utility of four-seat designs. The increased stall speed in this rule will increase safety by accommodating airplane designs for heavier weight operations, which could result in a reduction in the occurrence of overweight takeoffs.  
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In considering the maximum stall speed limit for this rule, FAA determined that the majority of four-seat, single-engine general aviation airplanes used in the NPRM analysis were built and originally certificated when, for weight and balance purposes, the U.S. standard average adult passenger weight was 160 pounds in the summer or 165 pounds in the winter.
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         Today, FAA uses body measurement data from the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for aircraft weight and balance calculations.
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         That data shows that the average weight for women is 170.8 pounds and for men it is 199.8 pounds.
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         FAA aircraft weight and balance control guidance allows for an additional five pounds of summer clothes and 10 pounds of winter clothes.
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         Thus, in a conservative scenario, a legacy four-seat aircraft 
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         with four men onboard could have, on average, an additional 179 pounds of extra weight to account for.
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         To put the significance of this 179 pounds example in perspective, that equates to approximately 29.8 gallons of avgas, which is slightly more than half the fuel capacity of several popular four-seat legacy airplane models.
                        <SU>38</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Though a 61 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         will allow heavier airplanes than originally proposed in the NPRM, this stall speed will not guarantee adequate takeoff and climb performance for all circumstances, nor will it accommodate overweight takeoffs. Pilots will still be responsible for verifying their airplane's takeoff and landing performance data is suitable for the runway and airport environment and ensuring their airplane's weight and balance is within limits established in the POH. Even with a 61 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                        , pilots will still have to determine if they will need to limit the number of passengers or the amount of fuel or baggage carried.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Though NTSB does not provide specific data for accidents caused by overweight airplanes or inadequate takeoff and climb performance, these accidents are usually captured in loss of control data since the airplane fails to takeoff or stalls during initial climb. U.S. general aviation accident data for personal use, single reciprocating engine airplanes from 2008 through 2022 shows loss of control in-flight (LOC-I) was the third most common type of accident.
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         This data is relevant because light-sport category airplanes under this rule share similar performance characteristics with a greater number of other general aviation airplanes. The NTSB LOC-I data in Table 3 shows that takeoff and initial climb experienced the second highest number of fatalities of any flight phase. This is likely because performance margins during takeoff and initial climb are most critical when the aircraft is at its highest gross weight.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s25,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 3—Fatalities by Phase of Flight Due to LOC-I</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Flight phase</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Fatalities
                                <LI>(2008-2022)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Takeoff and initial climb</ENT>
                            <ENT>205</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Enroute</ENT>
                            <ENT>113</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Maneuvering</ENT>
                            <ENT>255</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Approach and landing</ENT>
                            <ENT>193</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>FAA notes there could be a myriad of reasons loss of control occurs during takeoff or initial climb, including pilot error occurrences such as over-rotation, poor wind analysis, visual fixation or distraction, loss of visual cues, uncoordinated flight, missed checklist items, or lack of fuel. Regardless, the high number of accidents during the takeoff and initial climb phase related to LOC-I could likely be reduced with aircraft designs that can meet greater operational demands, such as having four seats occupied (for certain pilots) or designs that have better handling in turbulence.</P>
                    <P>
                        Many commenters recommended a higher stall speed stating that handling would improve in turbulent or gusty conditions. These commenters stated an increase to the proposed V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         would raise the design maneuvering speed, or V
                        <E T="52">A</E>
                        , which would provide a safety benefit for operations in turbulent air. V
                        <E T="52">A</E>
                         is the maximum speed at which the limit load can be imposed (either by gusts or full deflection of the control surfaces) without causing structural damage.
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         The EAA, AOPA, NATA, NBAA, GAMA, Sonex, and Elanus Aerospace shared a similar comment that a higher V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         would enable a higher V
                        <E T="52">A</E>
                         speed, lessening the possibility for an airplane to exceed structural limits. The commenters similarly stated a higher V
                        <E T="52">A</E>
                         would allow aircraft to be handled more predictably and safely in turbulence and gusty conditions, thereby lessening the probability for a departure from controlled flight. Sessoms Aero added that higher wing loading would allow for more operating margins and varied weather conditions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA agrees with the commenters that heavier airplanes, which are less susceptible to turbulence, require a higher stall speed and resultingly have an increased design maneuvering speed. Operating at or below V
                        <E T="52">A</E>
                         does not provide structural protection against multiple full control inputs in one axis or full control inputs in more than one axis at the same time. V
                        <E T="52">A</E>
                         should not be interpreted as a speed that would permit the pilot unrestricted flight-control movement without exceeding airplane structural limits, nor should it be interpreted as a gust penetration speed.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35062"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        An airplane's V
                        <E T="52">A</E>
                         is affected by weight. For example, V
                        <E T="52">A</E>
                         may be 115 knots when the airplane is at maximum takeoff weight, but only 90 knots when the airplane has burned much of its available fuel. FAA agrees that an aircraft's ability to maintain controllability in turbulent air is an important design feature and emphasizes that continued operation in turbulent air may eventually exceed the design loads of the aircraft. NTSB data for 2022 shows that there was one accident and no fatalities related to an in-flight turbulence encounter.
                        <SU>41</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter identified the need to account for the increased weight of electric airplanes, asserting that stall speeds need to be increased to accommodate the extra weight of electric batteries and achieve practical range for electric airplanes. FAA agrees that the battery capacity of electric airplanes increases significantly the gross weight and an increased stall speed is needed to account for this weight and better enable the continued development of these airplanes. Greater battery capacity allows greater range and endurance, which can increase safety, such as in the case of diverting to an alternate airfield or providing more options for weather avoidance.</P>
                    <P>
                        ANAC recommended the proposed stalling speed be increased to 61 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         since FAA-accepted ASTM Standard 2245 uses the same static inertia load criteria for emergency landing conditions as is used by normal category airplanes. ASTM Standard 2245 states that the structure must be designed to protect each occupant during emergency landing conditions when occupants experience the static inertia loads corresponding to the following ultimate load factors of 3 g's upwards, 9 g's forward, and 1.5 g's lateral. These same criteria were originally part of § 23.561 when first published in 1964 
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         and now appear in FAA-accepted ASTM Standard F3083/F3083M—20A, Standard Specification for Emergency Conditions, Occupant Safety and Accommodations, for normal category airplanes. FAA anticipates that these same or similar load factors will be used for light-sport category airplanes as part of the means of compliance to § 22.110 structural integrity and § 22.165 emergency evacuation requirements. FAA agrees with Brazil ANAC that the shared static inertia loads for emergency landing conditions help to justify the 61 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         limit. This criteria also allows for easier adoption, by light-sport category consensus standards organizations, of certain emergency landing crashworthiness consensus standards in ASTM Standard F3083/F3083M—20A.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To provide a more viable solution for the development of electric airplanes, improve handling in gusty or turbulent conditions, increase the ability to meet greater operational demands and account for the additional weight of today's occupants, and make light-sport category airplanes a more appealing alternative to EAB airplanes, this rule establishes a traditional design stall speed for light-sport category airplanes of a maximum 61 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         in § 22.100(a)(3).
                        <SU>43</SU>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Glider Stall Speed</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, FAA did not propose to change the existing V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         limit of 45 knots CAS in § 1.1 for light-sport category gliders and motor gliders, hereafter referred to as gliders. FAA received a few comments requesting the glider stall speed to be increased to the 54 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         limit proposed for airplanes. Sonex recommended the glider stall speed be increased to a minimum of 58 knots V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                        . Desert Aerospace cited the need to increase glider stall speed to accommodate an industry trend toward composite gliders. Composite gliders tend to have less parasite drag than older style metal gliders and resultingly have a higher stall speed. Desert Aerospace also cited the dwindling supply and availability of two seat metal gliders used for training and recognized a popular metal training model last produced 42 years ago. Desert Aerospace stated the 45 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         glider stall speed limit may not accommodate the newer two seat composite gliders used for training new glider pilots. Sonex likewise stated an increased V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         would allow the use of modern, two-seat gliders to be used for training.
                    </P>
                    <P>The 2022 Light-Sport Category Aircraft Continued Operational Safety Report showed that 100 gliders have been certificated in the light-sport category since 2004 and there have been two fatal accidents during that time. The phase of flight of these two fatal accidents were initial climb and post-impact.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA agrees with much of Desert Aerospace's and Sonex's comments that glider stall speed could safely be increased. Based on the low accident rate of light-sport category gliders, this rule increases the light-sport category glider stall speed limit in § 22.100(a)(3) to 45 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                        .
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         FAA chose to use 45 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         in this rule rather than the 54 or 58 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         suggested by commenters to better align with EASA's and TCCA's glider stall speed criteria that has been used by FAA for type certificated gliders under § 21.17(b). Depending on variances in glider design, it may be possible for a glider to have both a 45 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         and a V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         in the range of 54 to 58 knots CAS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA has previously accepted EASA's glider stall speed criteria in EASA's Certification Specifications, Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material for Sailplanes and Powered Sailplanes (CS-22) 
                        <SU>45</SU>
                         for type certification of gliders under the special class requirements of § 21.17(b). TCCA has also published these same criteria for certification of gliders in its Airworthiness Manual Chapter 522 Subchapter B—Flight—Canadian Aviation Regulations.
                        <SU>46</SU>
                         The stall speed criteria in CS-22 and chapter 522 requires the use of V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         and CAS. The 45 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         in this rule would put the light-sport category stall speed requirement a few knots below the EASA and TCCA design requirement of 90 km/h CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         for gliders with airbrakes retracted and at maximum weight with water ballast.
                        <SU>47</SU>
                         Accordingly, FAA has determined that 45 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         in this rule would be appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter recommended that a light-sport category glider should have the same stall speed, airspeed [V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                        ], and weight limitations as a light-sport category airplane and another asked FAA to increase the glider V
                        <E T="52">NE</E>
                         to 135 knots or such limit that is shown to be safe. This rule will impose stall speed limits of 61 knots V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         for light-sport category airplanes and 45 knots V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         for gliders. As for V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                        , all light-sport category aircraft with a maximum continuous power limit will be limited by this rule to a maximum speed of 250 knots CAS. Aircraft such as balloons and non-motorized gliders will not be subject to a maximum airspeed limitation in this rule since they lack an engine or motor with a V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         limit. This rule does not need to adopt commenter's recommendation that glider V
                        <E T="52">NE</E>
                         be increased to 130 knots. This rule did not adopt the maximum 120 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">NE</E>
                         glider limitation from the light-sport aircraft definition and the maximum speed of gliders is well below the 250 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         allowed for light-sport category classes with a maximum continuous power value. Per § 21.181(a)(3)(iv) as revised by this final rule, the special airworthiness certificate for light-sport category gliders certificated prior to July 24, 2026 will remain effective with a maximum 120 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">NE</E>
                         limit. Finally, to address the comment regarding weight, this rule does not include a maximum weight limitation for any class of light-sport category aircraft.  
                        <PRTPAGE P="35063"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Weight-Shift-Control and Powered Parachute Aircraft Stall Speed</HD>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM did not propose to change the 45 knot CAS without the use of lift-enhancing devices, V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                        , of light-sport category weight-shift-control aircraft. FAA received two similar comments advocating for an increased stall speed for weight-shift-control aircraft equivalent to the 54 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         proposed for airplanes. The commenters supported the higher stall speed to avoid stifling the development of weight-shift-control aircraft. Streamline Designs also supported increasing the stall speed to 54 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         or higher with consensus standard determined crashworthiness requirements and safety equipment. FAA disagrees with an increase to the stall speed of light-sport category weight-shift-control aircraft due to their higher accident rate compared to other classes of light-sport category aircraft. In the 2022 Special Light-Sport Category Aircraft Continued Operational Safety Report, which includes data dating back to fiscal year 2005, weight-shift-control aircraft had an 11.2% fatal accident rate for their class, which was significantly greater than the next highest rate of 2.2% for airplanes. In addition, FAA did not receive sufficient data or justification from commenters to convince FAA that increasing the stall speed would be appropriate for this class. FAA encourages consensus standards organizations for light-sport category weight-shift-control aircraft to find ways to improve the safety of weight-shift-control aircraft to reduce the accident rate. This rule will continue to require a maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         of 45 knots CAS for light-sport category weight-shift-control aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Streamline Designs also favored a 54 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stall speed for powered parachutes using the same justification as they used for weight-shift-control aircraft. However, this rule does not include a stall speed limitation for powered parachutes because they operate at relatively slow speeds.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        e. Requests to Clarify V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                    </HD>
                    <P>
                        A few commenters requested FAA clarify V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         for light-sport category aircraft. The NPRM stated the acronym V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         means “Maximum Stalling Speed (in clean configuration).” The Sentinel Owners &amp; Pilots Association stated this NPRM definition represents a disconnect given that § 1.2 defines V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         to mean “the stall[ing] speed or the minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specific configuration.” In addition, EASA requested that FAA define “clean configuration” as used in the NPRM meaning of V
                        <E T="52">S1.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In § 1.2, V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         means the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specific configuration. Because of the large variances in aircraft designs, each model could, theoretically, have its own unique V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         as determined by the aircraft manufacturer. Not only could V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         differ by flap position, but it could also differ by weight, center of gravity (CG), or other criteria specified by the manufacturer. When lift-enhancing devices such as flaps or slats are not extended, this is commonly referred to as a clean wing configuration, or “clean configuration” as the term was used in the NPRM. FAA is not adding a definition of “clean configuration” in this rule; the regulatory text “without the use of lift-enhancing devices” carries the same meaning. The NPRM discussion of V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         being in a clean configuration was in recognition of the prohibition of using lift-enhancing devices in determining compliance with the maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         design requirement. In other words, the specific configuration of V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         for light-sport category aircraft is obtained without the use of lift-enhancing devices, as stated in the light-sport aircraft definition and in § 22.100 of this rule.
                        <SU>48</SU>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        f. Use of V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         Rather Than V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         for the Stall Speed
                    </HD>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters stated V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         is more appropriate to use for the stall speed limitation in § 22.100 rather than V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         because it represents the landing configuration and is consistent with the NPRM's focus on accidents during landing and landing speeds.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As stated in the NPRM, slower landing speeds benefit survivability in emergency landings by reducing kinetic energy. However, the use of V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         does not prohibit the installation of lift-enhancing devices that could be used to lower landing speeds in normal or emergency operations. The advantage of using a clean wing configuration for showing compliance with a maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         requirement is that it levels the playing field, making all aircraft comply using the same configuration, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         without the use of lift-enhancing devices.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        When V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         (landing configuration) is used as the design criteria, manufacturers may opt to use less wing area, knowing they can add lift-enhancing devices such leading-edge slats or adjust the size or position of trailing-edge flaps until the airplane meets the V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         requirement. While a smaller wing increases efficiency due to less form drag and less weight, the addition of certain lift enhancing devices can add weight, complexity, and increase risk in the event of abnormal operation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The use of V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         or V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         as design criteria to meet an eligibility requirement is situational and neither is better than the other. When V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         is used as design criteria, it would not prohibit the installation or operational use of flaps or other lift-enhancing devices during landing, if installed. The use of V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         in the 2004 final rule was appropriate since the rule's weight limit kept designs simple where flaps were the predominant lift-enhancing device. The 2004 final rule's weight limit made the addition of other lift-enhancing devices, such as leading-edge slats, weight prohibitive.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For light-sport category airplanes manufactured under this rule, V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         was selected instead of V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         for the stall speed limit in § 22.100(a)(3) because of the historical use of 61 knots V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         as a stall speed design criterion for small general aviation airplanes, as well as the other reasons previously cited in the airplane stall speed discussion. As discussed in the glider stall speed section, V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         is used for gliders manufactured under this rule to better align with EASA's and TCCA's stall speed criteria in CS-22 and chapter 522, respectively, which has been accepted for use by FAA for the type certification of gliders under § 21.17(b). In this instance, the use of V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         could allow easier adoption of EASA's and TCCA's glider criteria by light-sport category glider consensus standards organizations. As discussed in the weight-shift-control aircraft section, the 45 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         limit remains unchanged; this rule does not increase the stall speed of these aircraft in § 22.100(a)(3) due to their higher accident rate compared to other classes of light-sport category aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">g. Lift-Enhancing Devices</HD>
                    <P>
                        Many commenters that supported using V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         rather than V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         discussed airplane design, primarily the use of lift-enhancing devices. Several commenters conveyed that the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         requirement prohibits, hampers the development of, or does not recognize the effectiveness of lift-enhancing devices on light-sport category aircraft. Several commenters favored the installation of passively induced or automatic lift-enhancing devices, such as aerodynamically actuated leading-edge slats, citing that they were simple, did not increase the workload of the pilot, and would greatly lower landing speeds and energies.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA emphasizes that lift-enhancing devices have never been prohibited 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35064"/>
                        from the designs of light-sport category aircraft, nor will they be going forward under this rule. Aircraft manufacturers may install lift-enhancing devices; however, these devices may not be used to meet a V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         eligibility requirement. After-market lift-enhancing devices, such as leading-edge slats or short takeoff and landing wing extenders, are permitted on a light-sport category airplane only if they are approved by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable to FAA.
                        <SU>49</SU>
                         Light-sport category aircraft certificated prior to July 24, 2026 must continue to meet the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         requirements in § 21.181(a)(3)(iv)(D) for the light-sport category airworthiness certificate to remain effective. Aircraft manufacturers or persons acceptable to FAA cannot authorize major alterations to these aircraft that would result in exceeding any applicable design and performance criteria in § 21.181(a)(3)(iv) without the manufacturer or an aircraft owner petitioning for and obtaining an exemption from FAA.
                    </P>
                    <P>A few commenters stated vortex generators should be permitted on light-sport category airplanes to meet the stall speed limit or encouraged the inclusion of speedbrakes in light-sport category aircraft. Vortex generators do not necessarily lower the stall speed; rather they control which parts of the wing stall first to control the wing's stall characteristics. A speedbrake is usually a fuselage mounted panel or plate that extends into the airstream to produce drag. Spoilers are similar devices mounted on the topside of an aircraft's wing that also produce drag. A speedbrake is used to slow down the aircraft while spoilers can be used to decrease speed, increase descent rate, or roll the aircraft. Vortex generators, spoilers, and speed brakes are not lift-enhancing devices and may be installed on light-sport category aircraft by the aircraft manufacturer or with approval from a person acceptable to FAA. Section IV.J.6. explains “a person acceptable to FAA.”</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">h. CAS Versus Indicated Airspeed (IAS)</HD>
                    <P>A few commenters requested the stall speed be specified in IAS rather than CAS. One commenter stated this rule should be rewritten to accommodate the commonly accepted practice of using IAS in the aircraft.</P>
                    <P>
                        CAS is the speed at which an airplane is moving through the air. IAS is displayed on the airspeed indicator and is read by the pilot. IAS differs from CAS in that IAS includes any installation (or position) and instrumentation errors. For example, the accuracy of IAS may be affected by minor misalignment of the airplane's pitot tube; whereas CAS testing traditionally uses properly calibrated instruments and a test airspeed system independent of the aircraft's installed equipment. The installation and instrumentation errors are greatest at slow speeds and higher angles of attack, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         approaching or at stall speed, and can result in CAS differing from IAS by several knots or more. For example, the stall speed of an airplane may be 50 knots IAS, but 56 knots CAS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Position corrections vary among airplane models and can even vary among individual airplanes of the same model. As a result, defining stall speed in IAS would yield gross inconsistencies when determining whether an airplane meets an eligibility requirement for design stall speed. Because of these concerns, FAA disagrees with the comments suggesting the design stall speed criterion be specified in IAS rather than CAS. FAA requires CAS for determining whether an airplane meets the design stall speed because it represents the airspeed that would be measured by an airspeed system without position and instrumentation errors. This ensures all airplanes meet the same standard. Regardless, for newly manufactured light-sport category airplanes, the stall speed will be determined by the aircraft manufacturer and verified during ground and flight testing as required by § 22.195.
                        <SU>50</SU>
                          
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        i. Increase V
                        <E T="52">S</E>
                         To Allow Legacy and EAB Airplane Designs
                    </HD>
                    <P>
                        Many commenters requested a higher stall speed so that certain normal category or EAB airplane designs could be flown as a light-sport category airplane because the proposed 54 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         limit would exclude many legacy aircraft. Piper commented that it supports an increased V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         of 58 knots CAS in order to include the PA-28-161 and PA-28-181 series of aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA finds that raising the stall speed in and of itself would not necessarily allow legacy aircraft to come under the umbrella of light-sport category. Currently, § 21.190(b)(2) prohibits an airplane from receiving certification in the light-sport category if that airplane has been previously issued a standard, primary, restricted, limited, or provisional airworthiness certificate, or an equivalent airworthiness certificate issued by a foreign civil aviation authority. This final rule would include that same prohibition in § 22.100. Accordingly, all legacy airplanes cited by commenters that have previously held a standard airworthiness certificate for the normal category would not be eligible for a light-sport category airworthiness certificate.</P>
                    <P>Though not specifically prohibited in §§ 21.190 and 22.100, an airplane previously certificated under the § 21.191(g) experimental purpose of operating an amateur-built aircraft likely would not be able to subsequently be certificated in the light-sport category. EAB airplanes are built by an amateur builder instead of by a kit manufacturer, therefore the airworthiness certification processes and requirements for EAB are dissimilar and noncompatible with light-sport category requirements. For example, a certificated EAB kit airplane could not obtain a statement of compliance to FAA-accepted consensus standards for certification in the light-sport category. This is because a kit manufacturer could not sign a statement of compliance since the kit manufacturer did not completely build the airplane or conduct necessary ground and flight tests. Likewise, an amateur builder could not sign a statement of compliance since they are not the aircraft manufacturer in terms of holding the kit model's design, manufacturing, and test data, nor could they state the kit manufacturer complied with all applicable consensus standards. Per § 21.190, a manufacturer's statement of compliance is required for a person to apply for a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category.</P>
                    <P>Despite these prohibitions, a manufacturer of normal category or amateur-built kit airplanes would be permitted to produce new light-sport category airplanes of its eligible models. A manufacturer of new normal category airplanes could apply for an airworthiness certificate in either the normal or light-sport category. A manufacturer of airplane kits could likewise produce new, fully assembled airplanes of one of its kit models for certification in the light-sport category, as many kit manufacturers do today. Though no primary category models were specifically mentioned by commenters, manufacturers of eligible models could also produce new airplanes for certification in either the light-sport or primary category.</P>
                    <P>
                        For light-sport category airworthiness certification in this rule, aircraft manufacturers would have to design, produce, assemble, and test the airplane, with appropriately trained personnel pursuant to § 22.190, so that they could state compliance to FAA-accepted consensus standards of applicable part 22, subpart B requirements. Aircraft manufacturers would also have to comply with applicable requirements in § 21.190.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35065"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">j. Increase Vs To Enable More Designs and Traditional Handling</HD>
                    <P>Many commenters supporting a higher stall speed stated the increase would benefit aircraft designs, allowing new designs to handle more like legacy aircraft. FAA agrees that a higher stall speed would provide an aircraft manufacturer with more design options to improve handling. A higher stall speed, compatible with legacy airplanes, would allow light-sport category airplanes to be manufactured with higher gross weight, allowing designers more flexibility in adding size, structures, or equipment to airplanes. The increased gross weight allowance should alleviate the handling challenges in turbulent winds of current light-sport category airplane designs due to light wing loading.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        k. V
                        <E T="52">S</E>
                         Comments Related to V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                    </HD>
                    <P>
                        A few commenters discussed increasing the proposed V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         to align with this rule's V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                        , a maximum speed of 250 knots CAS in level flight at maximum continuous power under standard atmospheric conditions at sea level. One commenter proposed lowering V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         to something “realistic,” noting that three times 54 knots is 162 knots and that Brazil's limit is 185 knots. Van's Aircraft supported the NPRM increase to 250 knots V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         and stated stall speed should not control top speed. The NPRM stated an airplane's maximum airspeed is typically limited to approximately three to four times the aircraft's V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         under ideal conditions. Though three or four times the proposed 54 knot V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         would be well under this rule's maximum V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         of 250 knots CAS, FAA did acknowledge in the NPRM that advances in technology and manufacturing practices could enable higher speeds.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA disagrees with comments suggesting the light-sport category stall speed should align with the V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         of the final rule. FAA intends this final rule to provide a means for greater performance of light-sport category airplanes than currently exists. Both the stall speed limit and the maximum airspeed limit were established based upon separate considerations and one limit should not be changed merely to correspond to the other limit. This could potentially constrain future development and technological advances in the manufacturing of light-sport category aircraft. For example, Van's Aircraft provided an example of an airplane with turbocharged engine that has a 54 knot stall speed and a V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         close to 245 knots CAS showing the traditional three- or four-times Vs correlation is not always accurate. Van's Aircraft also stated electric motors will break this traditional paradigm due to their greater speed ratios. The stall speed limits were discussed earlier in this section and V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         is discussed in the § 22.100(a)(4) section.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">l. Increase Vs With the Use of Angle of Attack (AOA) Indicators and Other Safety Features</HD>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters, including Streamline Designs, suggested FAA provide requirements in part 22 for crashworthiness and safety enhancing features, where aircraft that met FAA-accepted consensus standards could have a higher stall speed limit. Other commenters, including the Airplane Factory and Van's Aircraft, favored a requirement for the installation of AOA indicators to allow a stall speed greater than the proposed 54 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         citing it would increase safety or prevent a tendency to inadvertently depart controlled flight. Van's Aircraft also stated increased stall speeds could be linked to other safety enhancing devices determined in the consensus standards process.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA agrees that AOA equipment, envelope protection systems, and other similar safety equipment could prove to be very beneficial in significantly reducing loss of control accidents. AOA indicators assist pilots with stall margin awareness, stall prevention, and recovery from unusual attitudes or upset. An AOA indicator provides a visual indication of the margin that exists between the current airfoil AOA, and the AOA at which the airfoil will stall (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         critical AOA). AOA indicators can also be useful in emergency situations such as windshear or terrain avoidance maneuvers where the pilot operates the aircraft very near the critical AOA or in diagnosing problems with the pitot-static system, such as an iced-over pitot tube that provides faulty airspeed readings.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Recently, FAA released a special airworthiness information bulletin (SAIB) 
                        <SU>51</SU>
                         for AOA alerting systems citing these benefits. The SAIB recommended owners and operators of airplanes type certificated under part 23 and EAB airplanes install and calibrate critical AOA alerting systems and receive training on the use of AOA indicators and how to incorporate them in instrument scans. The SAIB stated, at this time, the airworthiness concern is not an unsafe condition that would warrant airworthiness directive (AD) action under part 39.
                    </P>
                    <P>For light-sport category aircraft, FAA concurs with the SAIB recommendation for the voluntary installation of AOA equipment or systems; however, FAA disagrees with making AOA indicators, or other envelope protection devices, required equipment for light-sport category airplanes or tying a § 22.100 stall speed requirement to their presence in the cockpit. Regardless of whether an aircraft has a high or low stall speed due to the presence of an AOA indicator, survivability of loss of control accidents are very low since ground impact usually occurs at various unpredictable attitudes. Airplane crashworthiness designs cannot account for the severity of these types of impact stresses. Emergency landing crashworthiness designs are only valid for situations where the pilot maintains control of the aircraft.</P>
                    <P>Allowing consensus standards to establish an increased stall speed based on the presence of AOA equipment or similar envelope protection devices would pose unique challenges. For instance, if a § 22.100 eligibility criterion for airworthiness certification is based on the functionality of an installed AOA indicator, then operations of the airplane would be contingent on having a properly trained pilot using properly calibrated and operating AOA equipment. This may be potentially too restrictive considering that airplanes can be safely flown without this equipment installed or operative. Ownership transfers may also become overly complicated in finding a pilot previously trained, or in need of training, on the installed AOA system. Avionics upgrades or changes could also invalidate the airworthiness certificate or result in pilot training requirements to operate the aircraft.</P>
                    <P>FAA's decision is also based on concerns about equipment limitations, cost, training, ergonomics, continued calibration, and the lack of standardization among AOA systems. Some AOA systems have limitations, such as only being calibrated for one flap position. At this time, FAA does not consider AOA systems to be mature enough to be a complete solution for multiple configurations, therefore FAA declines to prescribe them as required equipment. In addition, heated probes or vanes would be necessary to ensure AOA equipment remains operational when encountering icing even though AOA indications may not be reliable because of wing contamination.</P>
                    <P>
                        Though relatively inexpensive AOA equipment is available, there are other costs that must be accounted for such as continued maintenance and calibration of the equipment. A few avionics manufacturers embed an AOA indicator on their multi-function displays. While these avionics displays are very 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35066"/>
                        popular, they also increase costs significantly. In many of these displays, the AOA indicator is located next to the airspeed indicator so if the pilot fails to monitor airspeed during a critical flight segment, they are likely to not have the AOA indicator in view as well. An accompanying audible or haptic feedback system would be necessary to provide for a more fail-proof system, however, these add-ons may also increase costs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA notes pilot training may be difficult since there are a variety of AOA systems being marketed, each with their unique displays, operating parameters, and differing levels of complexity. Pilots would have to be trained on their installed equipment and fully understand the equipment's limitations. SAIB referenced a 2019 FAA study that found pilots were not able to use AOA indicators effectively without training.
                        <SU>52</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Though FAA highly encourages the installation and use of AOA and envelope protection systems, FAA does not support mandating, as part of this final rule, new requirements in parts 22 or 91 for the installation of this equipment on light-sport category aircraft. In addition, the NPRM did not propose or discuss potentially requiring the installation of new equipment such as AOA indicators and such equipage requirements would most appropriately be achieved through new notice and comment rulemaking.  </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        m. Increase V
                        <E T="52">S</E>
                         With the Use of Crashworthiness Requirements or Consensus Standards
                    </HD>
                    <P>
                        Sonex recommended that FAA have flexibility to consider additional safety enhancements, such as crashworthiness, to expand light-sport category aircraft parameters. Two commenters recommended relying upon consensus standards instead of, or to exceed, specific stall speeds. Though FAA encourages consensus standards organizations and light-sport category aircraft manufacturers to adopt crashworthy designs, FAA disagrees with allowing consensus standards to determine eligibility requirements. This is because consensus standards often change, which could lead to confusion and non-standard configurations within the light-sport category. In addition, establishing a maximum airplane stall speed of 61 knots V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         in this rule follows precedent of other aircraft categories in establishing clear and distinctive eligibility or applicability criteria. Finally, to the extent that FAA deems it appropriate to expand parameters for the light-sport category, FAA has the flexibility, like it has in this final rule, to engage in further rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter suggested rewarding crashworthy designs using off-the-shelf technologies with an unlimited maximum stall speed. FAA disagrees with this suggestion. Crashworthiness designs for unlimited speeds are unreasonable because even if the crashworthiness designs reduced damage to the aircraft, the human body would not likely be able to tolerate such high-impact forces and stresses that unlimited stall speeds would implicate.</P>
                    <P>One commenter recommended designs with roll cage like structures and seats capable of protecting the pilot and passengers from large vertical impacts could allow stall speeds above 54 knots. Other commenters recommended that airbags, crash protection, or ballistic recovery systems could enable a higher stall speed. FAA agrees with commenters that designs and equipment such as roll cage structures, crush zones, ballistic parachutes, airbags, AOA indicators, and fire-resistant, appropriately cushioned seats with five-point shoulder harnesses would be desirable safety enhancing features for manufacturers to include in their light-sport category aircraft. Some of these would benefit loss-of-control prevention while others would benefit crashworthiness.</P>
                    <P>Since this rule removes the existing weight limitations of light-sport category aircraft manufactured on or after July 24, 2026, manufacturers will have greater flexibility to design new airplanes with crashworthiness and safety enhancing features unique to their aircraft's design. FAA is not mandating these features in this final rule because the NPRM did not propose or discuss potentially requiring the design or installation of specific crashworthiness features or safety equipment and any specific crashworthiness requirements would most appropriately be achieved through new notice and comment rulemaking. The NPRM noted the increased weight allowance would enable manufacturers to include safety-enhancing designs and equipment such as advanced stall resistant airframes, increased load factor resilience, improved passenger cabin crash safety mechanisms, ballistic safety parachutes, and passenger airbags.</P>
                    <P>ANAC asked if FAA considered mandating stall warning for light-sport category airplanes with stall speeds exceeding 45 knots. FAA supports the installation of a stall warning system and encourages consensus standards organizations for light-sport category aircraft to create stall warning system consensus standards for applicable aircraft classes to warn pilots of an impending stall. This would increase safety by preventing stalls that could lead to an inflight loss of control accident. The NPRM did not propose or discuss potentially requiring the installation of stall warning devices.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">n. Use Horsepower in Addition to Stall Speed</HD>
                    <P>One commenter suggested allowing a slightly higher stall speed with a maximum horsepower limit of 180 or 200 hp to allow the “Warrior (PA-160)” and similar aircraft to qualify as light-sport category aircraft. While FAA did consider using horsepower as an eligibility criterion for § 22.100, FAA ultimately disagrees with this approach. Requiring a maximum horsepower limit could stifle advancements and innovations in engine and powerplant development. In addition, such an approach does not account for all types of engines and would be difficult to apply to aircraft with multiple engines. For instance, electric or hybrid motors would need a corresponding kilowatt value or some other unique parameter. A single horsepower or kilowatt value would also cause problems for powered-lift with multiple engine or motor configurations since they would quickly exceed reasonable horsepower or kilowatt values for airplanes due to their higher thrust requirements. In addition, a kilowatt measurement is not a commonly used term for light aircraft and may cause confusion.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">o. Other Alternatives</HD>
                    <P>One commenter suggested using a reasonable kinetic energy limit instead of stall speed to limit such energy in a runway departure accident. As discussed in the NPRM, FAA recognizes the role kinetic energy plays in reducing injuries and fatalities in survivable aircraft accidents. Regardless, FAA decided not to use a specific kinetic energy value in this rule as an eligibility criterion because it would be more difficult to make comparisons with other airplanes in the light-sport, primary, or normal categories given the lack of kinetic energy values for airplanes in these categories.</P>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter recommended eliminating the stall speed restriction, asserting that a four-seat restriction will limit the maximum weight of light-sport aircraft to about 3,000 pounds. FAA disagrees with the commenter's suggestion because a seating restriction would not singularly limit the size or weight of an aircraft and could result in aircraft that exceed the scope of the design, production, and airworthiness 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35067"/>
                        requirements within part 22. As discussed in the § 22.100(a)(2) section, FAA did not propose a 3,000 pounds limit in the NPRM, nor is there a regulatory maximum gross weight limit in this rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter encouraged FAA to look for metrics other than stall speed that would more directly measure and fully capture the safety intent of the MOSAIC rule. That commenter suggested handling qualities as a potentially better metric. FAA disagrees with requiring an eligibility criterion based on handling qualities. This criterion is too subjective to be used for eligibility. As an example, during the development of the NPRM, FAA considered establishing eligibility simply based on an aircraft being easy to fly. However, it was too subjective to define exactly what “easy to fly” means since it means different things for different classes of aircraft and for different pilots. For example, a low-hour pilot may find a particular airplane is difficult to fly, but a pilot with more training or experience may find the same aircraft easy to fly. Even fast military jets with narrow performance margins can be found “easy to fly” by low-time military students after they have sufficient training. Similar concerns would arise with a handling qualities eligibility criterion.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">p. Multi-Engine Airplane Stall Speed</HD>
                    <P>
                        On July 24, 2026, this rule removes the § 1.1 light-sport aircraft definition restriction to have a single, reciprocating engine and will allow any type and number of engines or motors. Light-sport category consensus standards will have to be developed and gain FAA acceptance for multi-engine airplanes to be manufactured under this rule. Appropriate engine inoperative minimum control airspeeds (V
                        <E T="52">MC</E>
                        ) and other speeds applicable to multi-engine airplanes will need to be included in the consensus standards for multi-engine airplanes. FAA encourages consensus standards organizations for light-sport category aircraft to adapt applicable FAA-accepted consensus standards used for multi-engine normal category airplanes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA received a few comments on multi-engine airplanes. One commenter recommended letting consensus standard bodies establish multi-engine V speed guidelines, noting that a stall speed well below the V
                        <E T="52">MC</E>
                         could be unsafe, that the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                        , V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                        , and V
                        <E T="52">MC</E>
                         dynamic must be considered, and that part 23 has long eschewed a set stall speed for multi-engine aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA agrees that light-sport category airplane multi-engine airspeeds will need to be developed in new consensus standards. Consensus standards organizations for light-sport category airplanes could adapt consensus standards that have already been developed specifically for multi-engine normal category airplanes. Since this rule has increased the light-sport category airplane maximum stall speed limit to 61 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                        , a historical speed used for normal category airplanes, the proposed 54 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         is no longer a consideration for multi-engine performance.
                    </P>
                    <P>TCCA commented that the loss of control requirement in § 22.105 raises the potential for asymmetric loss of thrust concerns and stall related loss of control concerns. FAA agrees that asymmetric loss of thrust may result in loss of control now that light-sport category aircraft no longer have a single powered engine limit, but FAA notes that § 22.105 requires light-sport category aircraft to be consistently and predictably controllable and maneuverable at all loading conditions during all phases of flight and not have a tendency to depart controlled flight inadvertently or require exceptional piloting skill, alertness, or strength. This requirement applies to all light-sport category aircraft, whether single- or multi-engine. Multi-engine airplanes must meet the requirements of § 22.105 when operating in engine-inoperative scenarios when at or above the minimum controllable airspeeds for their airplane and above the airplane stall speed. Again, light-sport category consensus standards organizations, with FAA participation, will have to create appropriate consensus standards for multi-engine airplanes or adapt consensus standards already established for normal category multi-engine airplanes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        7. Maximum Airspeed at Maximum Continuous Power (V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                        ) (§ 22.100(a)(4))
                    </HD>
                    <P>
                        As part of the eligibility criteria in § 22.100, FAA proposed a 250 knot CAS maximum speed at maximum continuous power (V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                        ) under standard atmospheric conditions at sea level. This rule makes a correction because the NPRM incorrectly used “available” instead of “continuous” in the proposed regulatory text for § 22.100(a)(4) and also did not specify the § 1.2 V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         criterion of being in level flight. While the NPRM regulatory text was incorrect, the NPRM preamble used the correct word “continuous” in defining V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         in the list of frequently used acronyms and used V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         throughout the maximum airspeed discussion in the NPRM's preamble. The V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         section heading in the NPRM preamble stated, “Maximum V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         Airspeed in Level Flight” to show the intent to align with the § 1.2 meaning. The NPRM explained that a maximum speed of 250 knots CAS at maximum continuous power was intended to provide an upper limit appropriate for a category of aircraft intended for recreation, flight training, and limited aerial work. This final rule for § 22.100(a)(4) includes the increased maximum speed of 250 knots CAS in level flight with maximum continuous power (V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                        ) under standard atmospheric conditions at sea level.
                    </P>
                    <P>Based on public comments, support for the increased maximum speed in this rule was mixed. AEA/ARSA opposed the increase because primary and normal category aircraft already allow for an increased airspeed above 120 knots CAS. FAA disagrees with AEA/ARSA. As previously discussed throughout several sections of this preamble, including the general aviation safety argument in section IV.C, the use of consensus standards in the certification of the light-sport category over the past two decades has proven to be successful based on the manufacture of thousands of light-sport category aircraft and their accident rate as shown in the 2022 Light-Sport Category Aircraft Continued Operational Safety Report. Because of the other performance enhancements proposed in this rule that afford light-sport category aircraft an increase in size and weight, an increase in maximum allowable airspeed was necessary.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter supported a maximum cruise speed of 200 knots, asserting that speeds greater than 200 knots are dangerous. Another commenter stated they were skeptical that the higher speed limit was safe. Neither commenter provided justification to support their statements. In NTSB accident data reviewed by FAA for the enroute phase of flight for U.S. general aviation airplanes with one or more reciprocating engines used for personal flight, “speed” was not listed as a defining event that caused an accident.
                        <SU>53</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters were in favor of the maximum airspeed increase. One commenter stated safety will be increased and airspace congestion will be reduced because light-sport category aircraft will be able to operate at faster approach speeds similar to corporate and commercial jets and turboprops. FAA cautions that the maximum airspeed increase should not be considered as justification to operate within the traffic flows of larger commercial and corporate aircraft. These aircraft produce wake vortices 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35068"/>
                        that could cause the loss of control of smaller, lighter aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        GAMA, EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA also supported 250 knots CAS as the maximum airspeed limit for this rule. They stated safety statistics do not show maximum speeds to be a significant risk in small general aviation aircraft and a higher V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         will ensure light-sport category aircraft are not built underpowered for the sake of meeting a lower maximum speed, thereby sacrificing safety by limiting climb performance. FAA agrees.  
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Van's Aircraft also agreed with the maximum speed expansion for a variety of reasons citing past EAB aircraft community experience in this speed range and that safety statistics show little risk associated with speed. Autogyro supported the 250 knot CAS maximum airspeed at V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                        , asserting it will improve efficiency and keep light-sport category aircraft as a practical and appealing choice. FAA agrees with these comments as they support FAA's goal of increasing safety by making light-sport category airplanes a more appealing choice than EAB airplanes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM noted, in general, the stall speed of an aircraft indirectly limits its maximum airspeed to a value of three or four times the stalling speed. One commenter objected to the notion of indirect limitations on the basis of their not improving safety. FAA clarifies that the 250 knot CAS maximum airspeed at V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         in this rule is not an indirect limitation and is not based on being three to four times the proposed 54 knot CAS stall speed. Another commenter opined that the 250-knot maximum speed should not be an issue for most, asserting that few aircraft that meet other limitations would be able to exceed 150 knots CAS. Van's Aircraft commented that new turbocharged engines are being used on many European aircraft that have a stall speed just under 54 knots and a V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         close to 245 knots CAS. Van's Aircraft asserted stall speed cannot and should not be used to limit top speed. FAA agrees with Van's Aircraft and re-emphasizes the reasoning in the NPRM for a maximum speed of 250 knots CAS at V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         was to allow for potential technology and manufacturing advances that could enable higher speeds (up to 250 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>EASA asked whether helicopters and powered-lift would be subject to this 250 knot maximum airspeed. In response, yes, § 22.100(a)(4) applies to all classes of light-sport category aircraft that have engines or motors with a maximum continuous power setting or limit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">8. Non-Pressurized Cabin (§ 22.100(a)(5))</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed to move the existing requirement for light-sport category aircraft to have a non-pressurized cabin, if equipped with a cabin, from § 1.1 to § 22.100(a)(5). A commenter recommended this rule allow for pressurized aircraft, provided that the pressurization requires minimum pilot action for use. FAA disagrees with the commenter's recommendation. Cabin pressurization systems and the associated pressure vessel are complex to design and manufacture and the systems can be difficult to operate. Pressurized aircraft fly at higher altitudes and may need an oxygen system. All these complexities come with increased risk. One of the main concerns with a pressurized fuselage is the increased risk associated with complex and time-consuming maintenance and repair. The effects of an improperly maintained pressurized cabin can result in severe consequences.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA's advisory circulars for acceptable methods, techniques, and practices for aircraft inspection, repairs, and alterations is only applicable to non-pressurized areas of civil aircraft 
                        <SU>54</SU>
                         because inspecting, repairing, or altering pressurized structures requires different considerations. For example, with regard to inspecting, a crack in a non-pressurized fuselage may not be a significant problem, but the same crack in a pressurized structure could be catastrophic. When repairing or altering a pressurized aircraft, an engineering analysis may be required to account for the effects of pressurization. While FAA is allowing some additional complexity in this rule, such as retractable landing gear, FAA has determined the complexity and risk associated with a pressurized fuselage is beyond what FAA deems suitable for the light-sport category.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">9. Legacy Aircraft (§ 22.100(a)(6))</HD>
                    <P>GAMA commented that FAA should allow a way for newly manufactured models of part 23 and 27 type certificated aircraft that meet the light-sport category aircraft requirements to be able to be modified, improved, produced, and certificated under part 22. Another commenter stated the number of light-sport category aircraft would increase by more than 30,000 if qualifying Cessna and Piper aircraft were all converted. Similarly, EASA noted an overlap between the NPRM and part 23, amendment 64 applicability and asked whether applicants had full discretion in selecting a certification path. FAA agrees manufacturers may certificate eligible, newly produced aircraft in either the normal, primary, or light-sport category. As previously discussed in section IV.F.6.i, if an aircraft is eligible for airworthiness certification in both normal and light-sport categories, then the aircraft manufacturer may choose which certification path to follow. Once an aircraft is issued a standard airworthiness certificate for the normal category, it cannot be subsequently certificated in the light-sport category pursuant to § 22.100(a). Adding provisions in this rule that would allow manufacturers of eligible, newly produced, non-certificated aircraft to choose either original certification in the normal or light-sport category are not necessary. Nothing in this rule prevents manufacturers from choosing an appropriate certification path.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">10. Compliance to Part 22, Subpart B (§ 22.100(a)(7))</HD>
                    <P>FAA-accepted consensus standards for the design, production, and airworthiness of light-sport category aircraft will be the means of compliance to the regulatory requirements in part 22, subpart B. FAA adopts this provision as proposed, with the small correction of deleting “aircraft” from § 22.100(a)(7) in this final rule because the word was already included in the lead-in statement of § 22.100(a).</P>
                    <P>VAI and Skyryse recommended that FAA allow for other means of FAA-accepted compliance to part 22 requirements to FAA-accepted consensus standards. The 2004 final rule required, and the NPRM proposed requirements, for light-sport category aircraft to meet applicable consensus standards. Allowing other means of compliance (i) would represent a significant departure from the establishment of the light-sport category around FAA-accepted consensus standards, (ii) may impact industry collaboration on development of consensus standards, and (iii) would increase burden on FAA in reviewing and accepting more standards. FAA disagrees with the proposal as such a change should not be made without public notice and comment.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter stated the MOSAIC rule is about fixed wing aircraft and questioned why powered parachutes are being subjected to new rules and regulations under the MOSAIC rule if they are not receiving any advantages and there were no glaring problems. FAA disagrees with the commenter's statement that this rule is about fixed wing aircraft. This rule applies to all classes of aircraft certificated in the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35069"/>
                        light-sport category, which includes the addition of rotorcraft and powered-lift. The new part 22 performance-based requirements in this rule apply to all light-sport category classes regardless of being subject to any beneficial performance expansions. The new requirements will serve to guide consensus standards bodies in developing appropriate consensus standards that would be acceptable to FAA. As stated in the NPRM, FAA expects that compliance with these requirements would reduce the occurrence of design and production defects, resulting in aircraft that are safe for their intended operations.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">11. Aircraft Manufactured Outside the United States (§ 22.100(b))</HD>
                    <P>GAMA requested clarification on how an aircraft gains airworthiness in the U.S. if it already has an existing airworthiness certificate from another regulatory entity. This final rule retains, but relocates, the existing § 21.190(b)(2) requirement to § 22.100(a)(6) that aircraft having previously been issued a standard, primary, restricted, limited, or provisional airworthiness certificate, or an equivalent airworthiness certificate issued by a foreign civil aviation authority, would not be eligible for a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category. In addition, for aircraft manufactured outside the United States, the aircraft also needs to meet the country of manufacture bilateral agreement and certification requirements of § 22.100(b)(1), which this rule relocates from current § 21.190(d). Otherwise, aircraft that have not been excluded by these requirements would have to be eligible for airworthiness certification in the light-sport category and comply with the requirements of § 21.190 and the applicable requirements in part 22, in effect at the time of airworthiness certification.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">12. Eligible Aircraft Located Overseas (§ 22.100(b)(2))</HD>
                    <P>Because proposed § 22.100(b)(1) was omitted from the final rule, proposed § 22.100(b)(3) will be renumbered as § 22.100(b)(2). This provision, unchanged from existing § 21.190(d)(2), requires an applicant for a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category for an aircraft manufactured outside the United States to provide evidence that the aircraft is eligible for an airworthiness certificate, flight authorization, or other similar certification in its country of manufacture. EASA asked about what would demonstrate eligibility under proposed § 22.100(b)(3) for a European Union (EU) manufactured, EASA design compliant aircraft.</P>
                    <P>Questions about existing requirements that are substantively unchanged by this rule are outside the scope of the final rule. Specific questions about EU manufactured aircraft that meet EASA applicability criteria for declaration of aircraft design compliance are more suitable for the Aircraft Certification Service's Compliance and Airworthiness Division (AIR-700). This division issues all design approvals for both domestic and foreign manufacturers as well as production and airworthiness certificates, executes continued operational safety processes, and provides flight test support.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">13. Control and Maneuverability (§ 22.105)</HD>
                    <P>The provisions in § 22.105 require light-sport category aircraft to be consistently and predictably controllable and maneuverable at all loading conditions during all phases of flight. In addition, the aircraft must not have a tendency to inadvertently depart controlled flight or require exceptional piloting skill, alertness, or strength. As discussed in the section on simplified flight controls, § 22.180, the phrase “through the normal use of primary flight controls” that was included in proposed § 22.105(a) has been omitted from this requirement in the final rule so the control and maneuverability requirement now will be applicable to aircraft designed with primary or simplified flight controls.</P>
                    <P>EASA asked what the airworthiness criteria would be to show § 22.105 compliance for eVTOL and powered-lift with fly-by-wire flight control systems. As explained in the NPRM, light-sport category aircraft would be required to meet the performance-based design, production, and airworthiness requirements in part 22 by using a means of compliance consisting of consensus standards accepted by FAA. FAA encourages consensus standards organizations for light-sport category aircraft, with FAA participation, to create necessary consensus standards for new aircraft types and classes, such as eVTOL aircraft and powered-lift, including those for fly-by-wire control systems. Normal protocol for consensus standards requires industry development and balloting prior to FAA evaluation for acceptance. Accordingly, a technical discussion of fly-by-wire acceptance criteria is not appropriate here.</P>
                    <P>TCCA asked if a takeoff, climb, cruise, descent and landing at corner combinations of weight and center of gravity would be sufficient to meet § 22.105(a). To answer this question, FAA reiterates § 22.105(a) requires a light-sport category aircraft to be consistently and predictably controllable and maneuverable at all loading conditions during all phases of flight. Accordingly, a light-sport category aircraft would have to meet the § 22.105(a) requirements for all permissible aircraft weight and center of gravity combinations within the authorized flight envelope as specified in the aircraft's POH.  </P>
                    <P>
                        TCCA also asked for clarification on the meaning of “consistently” and “predictably” and its impact on subpart B requirements like stability, longitudinal, lateral and directional stability and control, and stall and spin characteristics. As title 14 does not specifically define these terms, consistently and predictably would generally have their ordinary meanings. A dictionary definition of “consistently” shows it generally means “marked by harmony, regularity, or steady continuity; free from variation or contradiction” and “predictably” generally means “in a manner that can be predicted; as one would expect.” 
                        <SU>55</SU>
                         Thus, a light-sport category aircraft's controllability and maneuverability should demonstrate regular, steady continuity that is free from variation and be predictable or as one would expect. The NPRM stated proposed § 22.105 would require light-sport category aircraft to be controllable and maneuverable with no adverse handling characteristics. In this context, no adverse handling characteristics would mean the aircraft would be consistently and predictably controllable and maneuverable and would not have a tendency to depart controlled flight inadvertently.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA notes that TCCA is referencing part 23 subpart B (flight performance and flight characteristics) in its question and not part 22 subpart B. In part 23, longitudinal, lateral, and directional stability requirements for airplanes not certified for aerobics are in § 23.2145 while airplane stall characteristics, stall warning, and spin requirements are in § 23.2150.</P>
                    <P>
                        The § 22.105 controllability and maneuverability requirements apply to all classes of light-sport category aircraft and not just to airplanes as is the case for part 23. Some classes of light-sport category aircraft, such as rotorcraft and powered-lift, do not stall. For light-sport category aircraft, FAA-accepted consensus standards will act as the means of compliance to the § 22.105 controllability and maneuverability requirements. Therefore, FAA encourages consensus standards bodies 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35070"/>
                        for light-sport category aircraft to include appropriate standards for stability, stall, and spin, as applicable to the unique design features of each aircraft class. As discussed in the NPRM, FAA expects that some existing consensus standards may need updating due to the expansion of aircraft eligible for the light-sport category. In addition, consensus standards addressing aircraft controllability and maneuverability would need updating to address new requirements, including that aircraft control and maneuverability be consistent and predictable.
                    </P>
                    <P>TCCA expressed concern that § 22.105(b) lacked a clear and distinctive stall warning requirement to warn of a potential loss of control. FAA agrees that § 22.105(b) does not require a stall warning system. As previously stated, certain light-sport category aircraft classes will not stall and therefore do not need a stall warning requirement. FAA supports the inclusion of a stall warning system and encourages consensus standards organizations for light-sport category aircraft to create stall warning system consensus standards for applicable aircraft classes to warn pilots of an impending stall. This would increase safety by preventing stalls that could lead to an inflight loss of control accident. The NPRM did not propose or discuss potentially requiring the installation of stall warning devices and such equipage requirements would most appropriately be achieved through new notice and comment rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>
                        AIR VEV commented that for the preamble description of proposed § 22.105 requiring no adverse effect on the aircraft's handling qualities is more restrictive than the proposed regulation text and seems unachievable. AIR VEV recommended that FAA clarify that § 22.105 allows for an acceptable amount of adverse effects. AIR VEV also recommended that FAA clarify that thrust asymmetry could occur in other multi-engine aircraft classes. FAA agrees the loss of an engine may cause an adverse effect on the aircraft's flight asymmetry through the air. However, to meet the standards of § 22.105, there should not be an adverse effect on the pilot's ability to provide proper inputs, using primary flight controls, to maintain directional control, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                         the aircraft's handling qualities. For aircraft designed with simplified flight controls, automation maintains directional control, even during pilot interface, and is accordingly responsible for the handling qualities of aircraft. This scenario assumes the aircraft is within weight and balance limits and above stall and minimum control speeds, as applicable. For example, for twin-engine airplanes, a bank angle of not more than 5° toward the operative engine accompanied with rudder deflection toward the operative engine may be necessary to maintain straight flight at or above minimum control speed. In this scenario, some acceptable level of sideslip would likely accompany the 5° of bank. These control inputs are commonplace for twin-engine airplanes under asymmetric power. The intent of § 22.105 in this final rule, and as discussed in the NPRM preamble, is that there should be no adverse effect on the pilot's ability to make these necessary control inputs to maintain directional control when under asymmetric thrust conditions. The precise condition of zero sideslip, determined by bank angle and rudder input, for twin-engine airplanes varies slightly from model to model and with available power and airspeed.
                        <SU>56</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>With the loss of an engine, the provisions of § 22.105 would require the aircraft to not require exceptional piloting skill, alertness, or strength to maintain directional control. For aircraft designed with simplified flight controls, aircraft controllability would be automated, as would the handling qualities. For aircraft with primary flight controls, whether through the use of distributed thrust, a combination of aileron, rudder, and power inputs, or by other means, an aircraft must remain controllable and maneuverable through all phases of flight, which would ultimately permit a controlled, engine-out emergency landing.</P>
                    <P>Section 22.105 states, in part, that a light-sport category aircraft must not have a tendency to depart controlled flight inadvertently. Section 22.145 states, in part, that the aircraft propulsion system must be designed so the failure of any product or article does not prevent continued safe flight and landing or, if continued safe flight and landing cannot be ensured, the hazard has been minimized. Though a propulsion system failure may cause the aircraft to initiate an unplanned descent because loss of thrust no longer allows an aircraft to maintain altitude, the propulsion system failure must not result in a loss of control scenario where the pilot's ability to handle the aircraft is adversely affected. Aircraft control must still be maintained to allow flight, albeit a descent, to a more hospitable landing surface, if one exists. In this scenario, §§ 22.105 and 22.145 are being complied with since aircraft control is maintained after the propulsion failure. These §§ 22.105 and 22.145 requirements apply to all classes of light-sport category aircraft, regardless of whether the aircraft has one or more engines.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">14. Structural Integrity (§ 22.110)</HD>
                    <P>The provisions of § 22.110 require the design and construction of a light-sport category aircraft to provide sufficient structural integrity to enable safe operations within the aircraft's flight envelope throughout the aircraft's intended life cycle. An aircraft is also required to withstand all likely flight and ground loads, including towing and any aerial work operation, when operated within its operational limits. FAA made a conforming change in § 22.110(b) by changing “anticipated” in the NPRM to “likely” in the final rule. FAA has used “likely” in several similar instances in this part and the change standardizes the language without changing the intent of the requirement.</P>
                    <P>As discussed in section IV.F.16., proposed § 22.120 was omitted from this rule and aerial work operations were instead referenced in § 22.110. Based on public comment, FAA agreed the special requirements in proposed § 22.120 were already captured in § 22.110 and did not necessitate a stand-alone requirement for aerial work operations of light-sport category aircraft certificated prior to July 24, 2026. Though § 22.110 includes additional provisions for “safe operations within the aircraft's flight envelope and throughout the aircraft's intended life cycle,” which were not included in proposed § 22.120, these concepts were included in the NPRM preamble for § 22.120. The NPRM preamble stated the aircraft's design and construction would need to be sufficient to protect against deterioration or loss of strength and prevent structural failures due to foreseeable causes of strength degradation that would be likely to occur throughout the aircraft's flight envelope during aerial work operations. In addition, the aircraft would need to be able to withstand all anticipated (changed to “likely” in this final rule) flight and ground loads during these operations without incurring detrimental permanent deformation or jeopardizing the safe operation of the aircraft. Accordingly, the structural integrity requirements for an amended statement of compliance, as specified in § 21.190(e)(4), can be obtained from FAA-accepted consensus standards that act as a means of compliance to the structural integrity requirements in § 22.110 regarding aerial work operations.</P>
                    <P>
                        Though listed in a separate requirement rather than as an aerial work operation in § 91.327, towing can put similar loads on aircraft structures 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35071"/>
                        as certain aerial work operations and has accordingly been included in the structural integrity requirement of § 22.110(b). As explained in section IV.F.16, FAA has already accepted ASTM consensus standards for glider towing for certain classes of light-sport category aircraft. FAA anticipates that these, or similar, design, construction, and performance requirements for applicable light-sport category aircraft used in towing operations will be included in consensus standards that act as a means of compliance to the § 22.110 structural integrity requirements. Since light-sport category aircraft manufacturers must currently state compliance to FAA-accepted consensus standards for the strength, structure, and installation requirements of towing-eligible aircraft, the addition of towing to § 22.110 is similar to existing procedures manufacturers already undertake to comply with design, construction, and performance requirements for towing aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>TCCA commented that this section does not require or incentivize more robust designs, and it suggested revising the performance-based standards to ensure consensus standards contained incentives for greater structural robustness and durability. FAA disagrees with TCCA's suggestion. FAA specified “sufficient” structural integrity in § 22.110, rather than a measure of robustness, so as not to overprescribe the necessary robustness of aircraft structures. Excessive or unnecessary robustness can lead to detrimental results such as an overweight aircraft. A specific provision or timeframe for durability is already captured in § 22.110 where it states that structural integrity must be sufficient for the aircraft's intended lifecycle. As a result of the performance expansions of light-sport category aircraft in this rule, the structural integrity provisions would require the development of consensus standards for light-sport category aircraft designs to address structural integrity under a wider range of environmental conditions and operational parameters. In addition, consensus standards would need to address the prevention of material and structural failures due to likely causes of strength degradation and protection against deterioration or loss of structural strength due to any cause likely to occur throughout the aircraft's lifecycle.</P>
                    <P>For example, the current design and construction consensus standard for light-sport category airplane materials in ASTM Standard F2245-20 states, “Materials shall be suitable and durable for the intended use. Design values (strength) must be chosen so that no structural part is under strength as a result of material variations or load concentration, or both.” This consensus standard will need to be revised to reflect that the materials must be more than just suitable and durable for their intended use. The consensus standard will need to reflect that the materials must also provide sufficient structural integrity to enable safe operations within the aircraft's flight envelope and intended lifecycle and be able to withstand all likely flight and ground loads when operated within its operational limits.  </P>
                    <P>FAA understands that ASTM consensus standards for light-sport category aircraft are international standards and may be applicable to other civil aviation authorities. The consensus standards do not need to repeat the regulatory language in part 22. Regardless of how the consensus standards are worded, the consensus standards must meet or exceed the intent of the part 22 requirements to gain FAA acceptance. FAA will evaluate the consensus standards for structural integrity as a whole to ensure compliance with regulatory requirements.</P>
                    <P>Van's Aircraft and Streamline Designs recommended removing the phrase “intended life cycle” from proposed § 22.110. Van's Aircraft cited that keeping this requirement would drive up the cost and complexity of aircraft in this category and possibly deter some companies from the light-sport category. Van's Aircraft also stated older aircraft certificated under part 23 did not have to consider testing related to life limits, which would create an unfair competitive advantage with part 22 aircraft and that the standards used to design these aircraft were conservative enough that either issues did not occur or these issues were detectable in high time aircraft. Streamline Designs stated the intended life cycle requirement could lead to burdensome standards development and compliance.</P>
                    <P>FAA disagrees with Van's Aircraft claim that older certificated aircraft would have an unfair competitive advantage with part 22 aircraft. Just because a legacy model was certificated in the normal category under a different set of regulatory requirements does not mean it is automatically granted airworthiness certification in the light-sport category. A newly produced aircraft of a legacy model, not previously certificated in the normal category, will still have to meet applicable part 22 requirements and FAA-accepted consensus standards that act as a means of compliance to those requirements even if they are more rigorous than the airworthiness standards for the legacy model. Aircraft manufacturers of newly produced aircraft based on legacy designs will have to provide FAA with a SOC that specifies FAA-accepted consensus standards for light-sport category aircraft used to determine compliance with subpart B of part 22 and state that the aircraft meets the eligibility, design, production, and airworthiness requirements of subpart B of part 22 in accordance with those consensus standards.</P>
                    <P>
                        Of note, manufacturers could also choose to use FAA-accepted consensus standards for type certificated aircraft, such as those created by ASTM Committee F44 or other organizations, once those standards have been evaluated and found acceptable as a means of compliance to part 22 by FAA. The consensus standard would need to meet or exceed the part 22 requirements. FAA would have to publish the consensus standard in a NOA in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         and explain that FAA would accept the consensus standard for use with light-sport category aircraft. FAA does not negotiate a certification basis for light-sport category aircraft with an aircraft manufacturer. The manufacturer would either need to use FAA's accepted consensus standards for light-sport category aircraft or choose a different certification path. The manufacturer could also work with ASTM Committee F37 or another consensus standards body to submit the desired consensus standard to FAA.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA also disagrees with the recommendation to remove the phrase “intended life cycle” from § 22.110. FAA notes that light-sport category aircraft are not limited-use or consumable products, and their design should be subject to life cycle requirements. Also, § 22.110 does not specify a means of compliance for life cycle determinations such as the testing Van's Aircraft expressed concerns about. Consensus standards organizations may use various appropriate methods, or a combination thereof, to comply with this requirement.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, a commenter advocated for this final rule to require four or more compartments or four or more rip stops with near double fabric strength to improve the structural strength of airships. This request is too prescriptive to be included in the performance-based requirements in part 22 and is best resolved by consensus standards organizations for light-sport category airships.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35072"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">15. Powered-Lift: Minimum Safe Speed (§ 22.115)</HD>
                    <P>Section 1.1 defines powered-lift as a heavier-than-air aircraft capable of vertical takeoff, vertical landing, and low speed flight that depends principally on engine-driven lift devices or engine thrust for lift during these flight regimes and on nonrotating airfoil(s) for lift during horizontal flight. The provisions in § 22.115 require manufacturers of light-sport category powered-lift to establish the minimum safe speed for each flight condition encountered in normal operation, including applicable sources of lift and phases of flight, to maintain controlled safe flight. The minimum safe speed determination would be required to account for the most adverse conditions for each configuration. For this final rule, FAA made a correction in § 22.115 by removing “aircraft” from the proposed rule to correctly reference powered-lift and align it with the § 1.1 definition.</P>
                    <P>
                        EASA asked how manufacturers should determine safe speed if the aircraft lacks full wing-borne lift or has automatic mode transition. To answer EASA's question, per the powered-lift definition, the aircraft must have nonrotating airfoil(s) that have the ability to primarily provide lift during horizontal, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         wing-borne, flight. Though the NPRM noted the wings of light-sport category powered-lift may be comparably smaller in size and have a resultantly higher stall speed than other aircraft classes such as airplanes and gliders, the wings must still principally provide lift during wing-borne flight. Therefore, manufacturers must be able to provide the stall speed in wing-borne flight, even if it is relatively high. If unable to do so, the aircraft would be identified as a rotorcraft during airworthiness certification.
                    </P>
                    <P>In regard to EASA's question of automatic transition between modes, § 22.115 requires powered-lift to have a known minimum safe speed for each flight condition encountered in normal operations, including applicable sources of lift and phases of flight, to maintain controlled safe flight. A flight condition is a specific configuration used for a particular phase of flight. For instance, the powered-lift design could have a flight condition(s) for takeoff, climb-out, cruise, etc. Accordingly, each flight condition must have a minimum safe speed determined by the manufacturer. Whether automatic or pilot-in-the-loop transitions between flight conditions are used, manufacturers must comply with § 22.115 as appropriate for their design.</P>
                    <P>In relation to § 22.115, EASA also asked if there shall be failure evaluations and flight training for failure scenarios involving automatic transitions between modes. FAA notes that though failure evaluations are not specifically addressed in part 22, FAA would expect such evaluations are included in aircraft design considerations, quality assurance, ground and flight testing, and documentation for flight operations. Ensuring the aircraft has no hazardous operating characteristics is a requirement in § 22.195. In addition, § 21.190(c)(2) requires that each light-sport category aircraft application must provide FAA with a POH that includes operating instructions and limitations to safely accommodate all environmental conditions and normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures likely to be encountered in the aircraft's intended operations. The POH must also include a flight training supplement to enable safe operation of the aircraft within the intended flight envelope under all likely conditions, which would include engine or motor loss scenarios.</P>
                    <P>
                        TCCA asked why the powered-lift minimum safe speed requirement only applies to powered-lift as opposed to conventional fixed wing aircraft. FAA agrees that fixed wing aircraft are subject to minimum safe speeds too. Light-sport category airplanes are subject to the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed obtained in the V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         configuration as specified in § 22.100. Multi-engine airplanes also have engine inoperative minimum control speeds, as previously discussed in section IV.F.6.p. However, FAA created the minimum safe speed requirement in § 22.115 to address the unique features of powered-lift.
                    </P>
                    <P>3F expressed concern that powered-lift may be subjected to the airplane stall speed requirement because powered-lift eVTOL aircraft can operate like an airplane during certain flight modes and noted many eVTOL aircraft have a zero knot minimum safe speed during any flight mode. FAA does not anticipate any misapplication of the § 22.100 maximum stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed requirement for airplanes or the § 22.115 minimum flight speed requirement for powered-lift by an aircraft manufacturer. In addition, FAA disagrees with 3F's claim of a zero knot minimum safe speed for many powered-lift eVTOL aircraft during any flight mode. By definition in § 1.1, powered-lift must have a wing-borne flight phase by virtue of their nonrotating airfoil(s). Accordingly, the minimum safe speed could not possibly be zero knots for wing-borne flight where the wing (nonrotating airfoil(s)) is the principal source of lift. The powered-lift would have to transition out of wing-borne flight to a thrust-borne or hover mode to achieve a zero knot minimum safe speed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">16. Special Requirements for Light-Sport Aircraft Used for Aerial Work Operations (§ 22.120)</HD>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM proposed in § 22.120 that for any light-sport aircraft 
                        <SU>57</SU>
                         designated by the manufacturer as being suitable for the performance of any aerial work operation, the design and construction of the aircraft must provide sufficient structural integrity to enable safe operation of the aircraft during the performance of that operation and ensure the aircraft is able to withstand any foreseeable flight and ground loads.
                    </P>
                    <P>Several commenters disagreed with the need for this requirement. USUA was concerned that § 22.120 adds unnecessary regulation to aircraft that have a proven ability for aerial work flight and ground loads that are foreseeable. USUA asserted that current light-sport aircraft performing towing or flight training aerial work have sustained much greater loads. VAI, EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA jointly asserted that, given the limited commercial operations allowed, they had difficulty imagining what additional standards are needed to safely allow these activities.</P>
                    <P>FAA disagrees with commenters that state a structural integrity requirement for aerial work is unnecessary. This requirement was proposed in part 22 so that consensus standards organizations would have the framework available to create consensus standards acceptable to FAA that address an aircraft's design and construction specifications for structural integrity requirements necessary to accomplish aerial work operations. To avoid having structural integrity requirements in two separate sections of part 22, this rule omits proposed § 22.120 from the final rule and instead references aerial work operations in § 22.110 as a point of emphasis. This change was previously addressed in section IV.F.14. Aircraft manufacturers must specify and state compliance to applicable consensus standards on the statement of compliance per § 21.190(d) or, for an amended statement of compliance, per the requirements in § 21.190(e).  </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA agrees with commenters that towing a glider or an unpowered ultralight vehicle and flight training may produce airframe load stresses that meet or exceed those of certain aerial work operations. FAA has accepted ASTM consensus standards for light-
                        <PRTPAGE P="35073"/>
                        sport category aircraft used to tow gliders. These consensus standards address structural integrity requirements for items such as tow equipment attachment points and the tow hook and can be found in the annexes of ASTM Standard F2245 for airplanes and for weight-shift-control aircraft, ASTM Standard F2317/F2317M, Standard Specification for Design of Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft. FAA encourages consensus standards organizations for light-sport category aircraft to similarly address structural integrity requirements of aerial work operations that involve high stress activities such as sling loads and liquid dispensing operations.
                    </P>
                    <P>LAMA stated it expects that existing standards are acceptable unless safety data demonstrates that particular aerial work operation requires more design or testing. FAA disagrees with certain aspects of LAMA's statement. As has been previously discussed in the NPRM and preamble of this final rule, the existing consensus standards will need to be revised to account for the performance enhancements and part 22 requirements in this rule. Also, safety data will not likely exist for most aerial work operations, so some other criteria will likely be needed to determine which aerial work operations require development of consensus standards. FAA agrees that some aerial work operations, such as aerial surveying or photography, will not need additional structural integrity assessments as long as the aircraft has not been altered to perform these operations and is operated within the limitations in the POH. Any aerial work operation that does not exceed the operating envelope, weight and balance, or other design or performance limit of the aircraft as specified in the POH, and does not require alterations, should be able to be conducted by simply using FAA-accepted consensus standards for the design and structural integrity of the particular aircraft class. Aircraft manufacturers and consensus standards organizations for light-sport category aircraft must also consider repetitious or prolonged stresses in their evaluation of aerial work operations. Per § 21.190(c) in this final rule, the manufacturer must include necessary instructions and limitations for any aerial work operations it lists in the POH. In addition, § 22.195 requires ground and flight testing of aerial work operations by the aircraft manufacturer and § 21.190(d) requires the aircraft manufacturer to state the aircraft has been ground and flight tested to ensure it can be operated safely while conducting the aerial work operations. Sections 21.190(d) and (e) also contain statement of compliance requirements for aerial work.</P>
                    <P>Van's Aircraft stated a preference for simplified requirements necessary for sufficient design safety margin under a design consensus standard for aerial work. Van's Aircraft asserted that the scope of aerial work proposed is limited with little effect on aircraft life and suggested avoiding rule language which would necessitate burdensome and expensive aircraft life limit studies. Similar to the response in § 22.110 for Van's Aircraft, the inclusion of a “life cycle” requirement is entirely appropriate for light-sport category aircraft. Aircraft produced under this rule are not single-use or consumable items. Instead, each aircraft is designed with some life span in mind. The rule does not specify a means of compliance to demonstrating the life cycle so various processes could be used such as a design guide, fatigue analysis, or even tests of representative articles.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">17. Environmental Conditions (§ 22.125)</HD>
                    <P>In § 22.125, the aircraft is required to have design characteristics to safely accommodate all environmental conditions likely to be encountered during its intended operations. Van's Aircraft recommended the removal of “environmental” from this requirement since “environmental” is addressed in another part 22 requirement. FAA disagrees with removing environmental from this requirement since doing so would make this requirement subject to all “likely” conditions, which would expand the scope of the regulation beyond environmental conditions. Such expansion could include certain errors or poor techniques by pilots such as overstressing the aircraft because of hard landings, over-rotating the aircraft on takeoffs, or even losing directional control inflight or on the ground. In addition, the subtle difference between §§ 22.125 and 22.130 is that § 22.125 ensures the aircraft can operate inflight or on the ground under the likely environmental conditions for which the aircraft is designed, whereas § 22.130 ensures the materials used in the aircraft have the suitability and durability to withstand the likely environmental stresses or conditions expected in service.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">18. Instruments and Equipment (§ 22.135)</HD>
                    <P>In § 22.135, a light-sport category aircraft is required to have all instruments and equipment necessary for safe flight, including those instruments necessary for systems control and management. It also requires the inclusion of all instruments and equipment for the kinds of operations for which the aircraft is authorized. The aircraft's instruments, equipment, and systems must perform their intended functions under all operating conditions specified in the pilot's operating handbook. Any likely failure or malfunction of equipment or a system must not cause loss of aircraft control. All equipment and systems must be considered separately and in relation to each other.</P>
                    <P>FAA made a few corrections in § 22.135 to provide clarity. This rule separated proposed § 22.135(a) into two individual requirements making it easier to read and removed “also” in the newly created § 22.135(b) since it was unnecessary. In § 22.135(c), “aircraft” was changed to “aircraft's” to clarify that the aircraft's instruments, equipment, and systems must perform their intended functions. This change better aligns with the section title and contents of the requirement. None of these corrections changed the intent or meaning of the requirement.</P>
                    <P>Van's Aircraft expressed concern that proposed § 22.135(b), designated as (c) in this rule, requiring that systems and components must be considered separately and in relation to each other may lead to system assessments like those required for certified aircraft. Van's Aircraft asserted that the NPRM preamble discussion indicated a more reasonable approach and Van's Aircraft requested further clarification.</P>
                    <P>FAA agrees that the proposed wording of § 22.135(b) could have resulted in systems assessments equivalent to certified aircraft. This final rule replaces the word “component” with “equipment” in § 22.135 because the term component could include every individual item on the aircraft and a failure analysis could result in an impractical number of combinations to resolve. The term equipment is more commonplace and used in a similar, but more rigorous requirement for part 23 aircraft in § 23.2500.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, FAA stated manufacturers could use various methods to comply with this requirement such as the installation of back-up systems or through testing techniques. FAA encourages consensus standards organizations to create comprehensive solutions for the means of compliance to part 22 requirements. Though back-up systems may be effective for certain situations, they would be impractical to apply to all situations because of the added weight to the aircraft. Likewise, testing may be practical for certain systems and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35074"/>
                        component assessments, but it may be excessive for others where an analytical analysis may be more beneficial.
                    </P>
                    <P>Van's Aircraft also commented this standard still meets the correct intent even if “equipment” is removed. FAA disagrees with removing “equipment” from § 22.135. Instruments and equipment both need to be included in this requirement to ensure safe operations of the aircraft. “Instrument,” as defined in § 1.1, is too narrow in scope to stand-alone in this requirement. However, the § 1.1 definition of “appliance” provides that instruments and equipment are types of appliances that are used or intended to be used in operating or controlling an aircraft in flight, are installed in or attached to the aircraft, and are not part of an airframe, engine, or propeller.</P>
                    <P>The expansion of light-sport category aircraft classes provided by this rule may show differing equipment needs among the aircraft classes. In addition, certain authorized aerial work operations may require certain equipment for safe operations. Though this rule will remove the part 1 definition of consensus standard, the existing definition of consensus standard requires an industry-developed consensus standard for required equipment on light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <P>Van's Aircraft and Streamline Designs commented on how equipment impacts a light-sport category aircraft's weight and balance. Van's Aircraft stated the term equipment is for items within weight and balance whereas Streamline Designs stated equipment is for optional things that affect weight and balance. ASTM Standard F2746 states the weight and balance and equipment list section in the POH includes “installed optional equipment list affecting weight and balance or a reference as to where this information can be found.” Though FAA does not approve the equipment list for light-sport category aircraft, any manufacturer-installed equipment for the model's standard configuration, as well as additional equipment added by the owner or operator, must be accounted for or identified on an aircraft's weight and balance so that the pilot can compute an accurate center of gravity. With the addition of new aircraft classes in the light-sport category and the expansion of the airplane class beyond single-engine airplanes, FAA encourages consensus standards organizations for light-sport category aircraft to develop appropriate consensus standards that address weight and balance considerations for these additional designs and configurations.</P>
                    <P>A few commenters discussed instrument flight rules (IFR) operations in light-sport category aircraft. One commenter stated light-sport category aircraft cannot fly into instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) unless moved to an experimental classification. FAA notes that ASTM Standards F2245 (for airplanes) and F2564, Standard Specification for Design and Performance of a Light Sport Glider, include a statement that limits these aircraft to visual flight rules (VFR) flight. Glider designs are also limited to day flight per their ASTM specification. ASTM has recently developed consensus standards for IFR operations that are planned to be published in the future. Operators of experimental former light-sport category aircraft should comply with any limitations or prohibitions on IFR flight or flight in IMC that were in the POH of their light-sport category model. Some aircraft engines used in light-sport category aircraft have limitations in the operating manual that specifically warn against operations in IMC.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter wanted the rule to permit IFR operations. This rule did not propose any limitations on equipment or operations that would prohibit light-sport category aircraft from conducting IFR flight or even flight in IMC. The NPRM acknowledged that light-sport category aircraft would be able to conduct IFR flight in IMC and likely be exposed to adverse weather conditions and operations at night. The NPRM explained that IMC flight would have to be authorized by the manufacturer in the POH and the aircraft would be subject to an operating limitation requiring the aircraft to be equipped to meet the equipment and instrumentation requirements in § 91.205.</P>
                    <P>
                        ALPA recommended that light-sport category aircraft must comply with applicable § 91.205 instrument and equipment requirements if they are going to be allowed to operate IFR. FAA agrees and issues light-sport category aircraft an operating limitation with the airworthiness certificate that states, in part, IFR “operations are authorized if allowed by the [aircraft operating instructions] and engine operating instructions and if the instruments specified in § 91.205 are installed, operational, and maintained per the applicable requirements of part 91.” 
                        <SU>58</SU>
                          
                    </P>
                    <P>ALPA also stated light-sport category aircraft must comply with the airworthiness standards for instrument and equipment in parts 21, 23, 25, 27, 29, and 31 for the types of operations that certification is requested. FAA disagrees with this statement because the airworthiness standards in parts 21, 23, 25, 27, 29, or 31 are for type certificated aircraft that are higher on the safety continuum and accordingly have more rigorous certification requirements and greater privileges than light-sport category aircraft. The performance-based design, production, and airworthiness requirements in part 22, subpart B, were specifically created for non-type certificated aircraft that are issued special airworthiness certificates for the light-sport category. As stated in the NPRM, the performance-based requirements respond to the need to apply a set of broad-based requirements to a wider range of aircraft that would not be required to meet the more exacting design requirements of type certification. They also provide industry with the flexibility to develop consensus standards applicable to the certification of a wide range of dissimilar aircraft.</P>
                    <P>Aithre asked whether aircraft authorized by the manufacturer for flight ceilings above the legal requirement for oxygen must include installed oxygen equipment. Though part 22 does not require installation of oxygen equipment, as with all operating rules, the pilot or operator of the aircraft is responsible for ensuring compliance with operating regulations. Regarding the question raised in this comment, compliance with § 91.211 is required when exceeding the specified altitudes. Section 91.211 requires supplemental oxygen under specific circumstances but does not require “installed oxygen equipment” specifically. For this scenario, if an aircraft can exceed the altitudes where supplemental oxygen is required, as specified in § 91.211, then these requirements can be met with either an installed oxygen system or portable oxygen bottles. If an aircraft manufacturer has installed an oxygen system, then the equipment must meet the § 22.135 requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        Aithre also asked related questions on topics such as oxygen delivery technology, oxygen sources, oxygen generation technology (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         pressure swing absorption (PSA) type) or pressurized vessel/cylinder types, and the use of real-time continuous measurements and feedback of blood oxygenation levels of the pilot and passengers. The means of compliance to these questions would be in FAA-accepted consensus standards for light-sport category aircraft, which have not been developed to date. Until consensus standards for oxygen systems for light-sport category aircraft have been developed, manufacturers may alternatively use applicable FAA-accepted consensus standards related to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35075"/>
                        aircraft oxygen systems for type certificated aircraft, as long as they have received FAA acceptance for use in the light-sport category. As previously explained, FAA would have to release a NOA in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         authorizing FAA-accepted consensus standards for type certificated aircraft to be used for light-sport category aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>Aithre also asked about whether carbon monoxide detectors are required equipment. Such detectors are not mandatory equipment in general aviation aircraft. FAA encourages owners to install carbon monoxide detectors on a voluntary basis.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">19. Controls and Displays (§ 22.140)</HD>
                    <P>This rule requires light-sport category aircraft to be designed and constructed so the pilot can reach controls and displays in a manner that provides for smooth and positive operation of the aircraft.</P>
                    <P>GAMA recommended that FAA clarify that single controls are allowable for all categories of light-sport aircraft and access to a single control meets this requirement even for aircraft with dual controls. FAA generally agrees with GAMA's recommendation. For aircraft with dual controls, it is not necessary for the pilot to be able to reach all controls and displays, especially those that repeat functions or information. FAA recommends industry organizations propose consensus standards for these types of design considerations for FAA acceptance. In addition, the NPRM stated the pilot had to reach all controls and displays in a manner that provides for smooth and positive operation of the aircraft. FAA determined that the word “all” was not necessary and omitted it in this rule. The removal of “all” from the requirement should assist in supporting GAMA's recommendation that access to a single control meets this requirement.</P>
                    <P>
                        Though ALPA stated it supported the provisions of § 22.140, it recommended that light-sport category aircraft comply with certain airworthiness standards in subpart G of part 23 if they have more than two seats. FAA disagrees with ALPA's recommendation. Subpart G of part 23 contains airworthiness requirements for flight compartment instruments and equipment that the flightcrew interfaces with as well as requirements for the airplane flight manual. Much of the instruments and equipment, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         glass-panel avionics, found in normal category four-seat airplanes are also widely used in experimental amateur-built airplanes as non-certificated equipment. This non-certificated equipment has the same or similar functionality as the certificated version. Light-sport category airplane manufacturers already use this non-certificated equipment in existing models and will continue to do so under this rule. Because of the wide-spread and long-standing use of non-certificated instruments and equipment in light-sport category and EAB aircraft, the more exacting requirements of part 23, subpart G, are not necessary for light-sport category aircraft operations. The level of rigor for the accessibility of controls and displays requirements in § 22.140 for light-sport category aircraft is appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">20. Propulsion System (§ 22.145)</HD>
                    <P>Light-sport category aircraft propulsion systems would be required to have controls that are intuitive, simple, and not confusing and be designed so that the failure of any product or article would not prevent continued safe flight and landing or, if continued safe flight and landing cannot be ensured, the hazard would be minimized. In addition, propulsion systems would not be permitted to exceed safe operating limits under normal operating conditions and would be required to have the necessary reliability, durability, and endurance for safe flight without failure, malfunction, excessive wear, or other anomalies.</P>
                    <P>A commenter was concerned about standardization of the propulsion system in relation to § 22.145 potentially limiting options. FAA disagrees with the generalization that light-sport category aircraft propulsion systems are being standardized as a result of this rule. This rule allows for the opposite; it removes the prescriptive limitation of a single, reciprocating engine for powered light-sport category aircraft contained in the existing § 1.1 definition of light-sport aircraft and allows any type or number of engines or motors. If the concern is that the rule requires “simple” propulsion system controls, then this provision is being added to the rule for safety, as explained in the NPRM. Propulsion controls that are complex may be confusing to the pilot or may delay necessary power adjustments. Both scenarios could cause an accident. Consensus standards organizations for light-sport category aircraft will create the means of compliance for “simple” propulsion system controls, which should not be limiting for new forms of engines, especially electrical, as feared by the commenter.</P>
                    <P>AIR VEV commented that the preamble text does not reflect the rule, asserting that the preamble, for the safe flight and landing requirement, refers to a complete failure of the propulsion system whereas the rule refers to any failure of product or article of the propulsion system. AIR VEV recommended clarifying the preamble that safe flight and landing is required even for partial failures. FAA disagrees with AIR VEV's comment about the preamble text referring to a complete failure. The example provided in the NPRM to explain this provision stated, “The ability to maintain safe control of the aircraft in the event of a partial or complete failure of the propulsion system would significantly assist in reducing the probability of an accident or loss of aircraft control.” The preamble for § 22.145 also included, “The results of this proposed requirement would not permit a partial or complete loss of power to adversely affect the handling qualities of an aircraft.” Accordingly, FAA does agree that the severity of “the failure of any product or article” in § 22.145 could include a partial or complete failure.</P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs commented that “any product or article” and “the hazard has been minimized” in proposed § 22.145 are too vague. FAA disagrees that this language is vague. As noted in the NPRM, § 21.1(b) defines “product” to mean an aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller and “article” to mean a material, part, component, process, or appliance. As to hazard language, the same is already contained in current § 23.2410 for powerplant installation hazard assessment, which was discussed along with an illustrative example in the propulsion section of the NPRM.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">21. Fuel Systems (§ 22.150)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Light-sport category fuel system provisions in § 22.150 require a means to safely remove or isolate the fuel stored in the system from the aircraft and be designed to retain fuel under all likely operating conditions. This requirement applies to both liquid aviation fuel (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         avgas) and electrical energy, whether stored in batteries or produced by electric motors or other power generation devices.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Streamline Designs commented that the meaning of this section is unclear. FAA proposed this requirement because aviation fuel removal or isolation is necessary in the event fuel contamination is known or suspected or necessary for certain aircraft maintenance repairs. The fuel system must also be designed to retain fuel under all likely operating conditions, such as during all authorized maneuvers, turbulence encounters, accelerations and decelerations, and emergency descent and landing to ensure the safe and continuous 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35076"/>
                        operation of the aircraft's propulsion system. Fuel retention is necessary to prevent fuel from being a source of ignition or feeding an existing fire, maintaining the aircraft's center of gravity within prescribed limits, providing structural support, preventing loss of aircraft range and endurance, preventing equipment damage, preventing toxic fumes from entering occupied compartments, and preventing corrosion that could lead to structural damage. Consensus standards organizations for light-sport category aircraft will be responsible for creating the means of compliance to the fuel system requirements and obtaining FAA acceptance.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">22. Fire Protection (§ 22.155)</HD>
                    <P>Fire protection provisions in § 22.155 require the hazards of fuel or electrical fires following a survivable emergency landing be minimized by incorporating design features to sustain static and dynamic deceleration loads without structural damage to fuel or electrical system components or their attachments that could leak fuel to an ignition source or allow electrical power to become an ignition source.</P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs suggested § 22.155 be changed to include other flammable liquids. FAA disagrees with this suggestion because it would make engine oil subject to this requirement. Though present in a limited quantity, oil is a flammable liquid and is used to lubricate certain engine parts and may be used as a hydraulic oil for controllable pitch propellers. Since oil is housed within the engine and propeller hub, if applicable, and is cycled through an oil cooler in the engine compartment, it would be difficult to isolate oil with fire protection provisions.  </P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs also suggested “loads without structural damage” be changed to “loads without detrimental structural damage.” FAA disagrees with this suggestion. The change is unnecessary because structural damage, regardless of its perceived severity, that would allow fuel to leak to an ignition source or allow electrical power to become an ignition source would be detrimental. For example, minor structural damage that allows fuel to leak to an engine source or allows electrical power to become an ignition source would be detrimental damage. Therefore, there is no reason to quantify the amount of structural damage for this requirement.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">23. Visibility (§ 22.160)</HD>
                    <P>Visibility provisions in § 22.160 require that the aircraft be designed and constructed so the pilot has sufficient visibility of controls, instruments, equipment, and placards. In addition, the aircraft design must provide the pilot with sufficient visibility outside the aircraft necessary to conduct safe aircraft operations.</P>
                    <P>Van's Aircraft and Streamline Designs recommended that the § 22.160 proposal replace “vision” with “visibility,” with Streamline Designs concerned that the proposed language would necessitate costly viewshed test or analysis. FAA agrees that visibility is the correct term to use for this requirement and that vision could be misinterpreted to be associated with a pilot physiological or medical ability. This final rule replaces “vision” with “visibility” in § 22.160. Consensus standards organizations for light-sport category aircraft will be responsible for creating the means of compliance to the visibility requirements and obtaining FAA acceptance. While a viewshed analysis is one method of compliance, other practical methods should be considered.</P>
                    <P>
                        USUA and another commenter disagreed that the visibility requirements should apply to weight-shift-control aircraft. USUA recommended that the visibility requirement be changed so that it does not apply to “open cockpits.” The other commenter stated many requirements would not work for its open cockpit environment. Neither commenter provided details or examples of why the visibility requirements would not apply to open cockpit weight-shift-control aircraft. Regardless, FAA disagrees with the commenter's generalizations that the visibility requirements should not apply. Though open cockpit weight-shift-control aircraft designs are simple, it is not unreasonable for instruments, equipment, controls, and placards to be sufficiently visible to the pilot, especially those essential to safe flight. For example, the minimum equipment requirements for weight-shift-control aircraft in ASTM Standard F2317/F2317M, as a means of compliance, are few. The specified equipment includes a fuel indicator or means to view the fuel quantity from the pilot seat. Engine instruments must be included if required by the engine manufacturer. If an electrical system is installed, then a master switch and overload protection devices must be installed. Finally, ASTM Standard F2317/F2317M states an airspeed indicator shall be provided to enable the pilot to comply with limiting airspeeds, unless V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         is less than V
                        <E T="52">A</E>
                         and less than V
                        <E T="52">NE</E>
                        . All of these items enable safe flight or safe systems operations, and it would not be burdensome for manufacturers to provide the pilot with sufficient visibility of these items.
                    </P>
                    <P>Doroni Aerospace and 3F both commented that current rules do not allow camera use in the cockpit and that cameras would improve aircraft safety in terms of allowing pilots to see below or behind them. Though cameras and camera displays are not prohibited, FAA does not agree that cameras could be used to meet the light-sport category aircraft visibility requirements. The pilot must have sufficient visibility outside the aircraft to conduct safe aircraft operations both on the ground and in the air. Cameras may be used to supplement the pilot's situational awareness by providing visual access to blind spots caused by aircraft structures. However, cameras cannot be solely relied upon by the pilot to conduct ground or flight maneuvers, search for and identify hazards, or comply with § 91.113 right of way rules. This is largely because the camera or display could fail, or the camera could become blocked or distorted by bugs, oil, precipitation, other airborne contaminants, or lighting. In addition, the acuity levels and field of view of most cameras are an inadequate substitute for human vision.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">24. Emergency Evacuation (§ 22.165)</HD>
                    <P>The provisions in § 22.165 require light-sport category aircraft to be designed and constructed so that all occupants can rapidly conduct an emergency evacuation. The aircraft's design would be required to account for conditions likely to occur following an emergency landing, excluding ditching for aircraft not intended for operation on water.</P>
                    <P>Van's Aircraft and Streamline Designs recommended removing the word “all” from proposed § 22.165(a)(2) so the requirement would not be more rigorous than the evacuation requirement in part 23. FAA agrees that inclusion of “all” makes the requirement more rigorous than that for normal category airplanes in § 23.2315, which states, in part, “. . . in conditions likely to occur following an emergency landing. . . .” Accordingly in the final rule, the word “all” has been removed from the requirement in § 22.165(a)(2). Despite the similar language, part 23 contains additional egress and emergency exit requirements that make it more rigorous than the evacuation requirements of part 22.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter recommended that light-sport and experimental aircraft must meet some crashworthiness requirements of certified aircraft. FAA notes that the NPRM proposed some specific crashworthiness requirements 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35077"/>
                        for light-sport category aircraft in § 22.155 for fire protection and § 22.165 for emergency evacuation. FAA encourages light-sport aircraft manufacturers to incorporate crashworthiness features and the more rigorous design requirements of type certificated aircraft into their light-sport category aircraft designs. FAA encourages the same for manufacturers of EAB kits; however, these aircraft are outside the scope of this rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>The performance-based requirements in this rule for light-sport category aircraft should not be more rigorous than found in the airworthiness standards for normal category airplanes and rotorcraft since light-sport category aircraft are lower on the safety continuum. This does not preclude consensus standards organizations from developing emergency evacuation consensus standards for FAA-acceptance that exceed the part 22 requirements. As previously discussed, light-sport category aircraft manufacturers may use crashworthiness consensus standards for type certificated aircraft as long as the consensus standard(s) meet or exceed any part 22 requirement, and FAA would have to accept the applicable consensus standard(s) for type certificated aircraft for use with light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter recommended requiring manufacturers incorporate rollover protection for light-sport category aircraft with bubble canopies. Upon the implementation of this final rule, all light-sport category aircraft, even those with bubble canopies, must comply with the emergency evacuation requirements in § 22.165. ASTM Standard F2245-20 includes a crashworthiness consensus standard in an appendix for roadable airplanes that addresses rollovers. Consensus standards that act as a means of compliance to the emergency evacuation requirements will need to be developed for airplanes and other classes of light-sport category aircraft, including those with bubble canopies. Depending upon the design, aircraft manufacturers may need to provide tools or equipment that allow occupants to evacuate through a bubble canopy if no doors, hatches, or other means are available.</P>
                    <P>FAA notes that ASTM Standard F3083/F3083M-20a contains consensus standards for normal category airplanes that address emergency landing turnovers and anti-plowing and anti-scooping features. The ASTM Standard allows alternate approaches that achieve an equivalent, or greater, level of occupant protection if substantiated on a rational basis. FAA encourages consensus standards organizations to consider adoption of these consensus standards for occupant safety during a turnover or develop alternative approaches.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">25. Placards and Markings (§ 22.170)</HD>
                    <P>The provisions in § 22.170 require light-sport category aircraft to display all placards and instrument markings necessary for safe operation and occupant warning. Markings or graphics would be required to clearly indicate the function of each control, other than primary flight controls.</P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs asked for clarification on what the word “control” means. FAA declines to define “control” generally because of its broad application in different areas of aviation. However, application of this requirement to controls on an aircraft could generally include any switch, button, knob, lever, throttle, circuit breaker, or other device that allows the pilot to interface with the aircraft to perform a function. Primary flight controls could include items such as a stick, cyclic, yoke, control column, rudder pedals, or similar devices that allow the pilot to manually control the pitch, roll, or yaw of an aircraft through hand or foot coordination.</P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs also recommended requiring display markings in § 22.170. FAA disagrees with marking all displays. Many avionics displays are multi-function displays and provide various types of information to the pilot based upon which “page” the pilot is looking at. Each page usually includes information for a specific function or purpose, such as temperature and wind data for flight planning, cruise airspeeds, elapsed or estimated time enroute, fuel quantity, fuel burn, alternate airfields, or engine performance. Requiring a display to be generically marked as a multifunction display adds little value. Avionics displays and their control knobs or buttons are marked accordingly by the avionics manufacturer and the aircraft manufacturer should not have to provide further markings in most cases.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">26. Noise (§ 22.175)</HD>
                    <P>The proposal for § 22.175 required light-sport category aircraft to meet the applicable noise standards of part 36 of this chapter. Since this final rule makes compliance with part 36 for new light-sport category aircraft voluntary (see section IV.N), this final rule omits proposed § 22.175 but will instead label it as “reserved.”</P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs and AIR VEV recommended that this section should require compliance with an accepted noise consensus standard rather than part 36. Similarly, GAMA recommended removal of part 36 noise requirements and the use of FAA-accepted consensus standards for noise compliance, if necessary. Desert Aerospace asserted there are a limited number of turbine LAS aircraft operating and they would not present significant noise problems. It recommended that FAA consider allowing such flights even if there are issues in their ability to meet noise requirements. These recommendations would have required FAA to create noise requirements outside of the existing part 36 framework and would eliminate the ability of light-sport aircraft to comply with traditional noise requirements, reducing their options for compliance. Since proposed § 22.175 is not included in this final rule, these comments are no longer relevant. If a manufacturer chooses to voluntarily comply with part 36, FAA agrees that meeting an FAA-approved noise consensus standard is one way a light-sport category aircraft will be able to meet part 36 requirements. However, FAA considers part 36 to be the proper place for that provision.</P>
                    <P>One commenter asserted there is insufficient evidence that light-sport category aircraft are a large factor in airplane noise complaints. This individual asserted that applying part 36 to these aircraft would require them to be quieter than older type certificated aircraft, thus creating additional burden, and discouraging new aircraft development without benefit to the public. Since proposed § 22.175 is not included in this final rule, and this final rule makes compliance with part 36 voluntary for applicable non-type certificated aircraft, this comment is no longer relevant.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">27. Aircraft Having Simplified Flight Controls (§ 22.180)</HD>
                    <P>FAA proposed that an aircraft meeting the three requirements in § 22.180 could be designated by the manufacturer as having simplified flight controls. Not all light-sport category aircraft will be designed with simplified flight controls, so compliance with this section is contingent upon the aircraft having the simplified flight controls designation. One advantage of designing an aircraft with simplified flight controls is that the pilot training requirements are significantly reduced, as discussed in section IV.H.2.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Comment on Defining Simplified Flight Controls</HD>
                    <P>
                        AEA/ARSA recommended including a universal definition of simplified 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35078"/>
                        flight controls for all aircraft because it could be applicable across all designs. FAA disagrees with the recommendation. This rule will not define simplified flight controls to avoid limiting the development and design of automated technologies for aircraft certification categories higher on the safety continuum. A definition of simplified flight controls may be more prescriptive than the performance-based requirements in § 22.180, which would make compliance more difficult. A prescriptive definition may also make the development and adoption of future technologies more difficult, which should be avoided.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Clarification of Simplified Flight Control Design</HD>
                    <P>Jump Aero and AIR VEV proposed specific language changes to § 22.180. They proposed revising § 22.180(a) to require that aircraft are consistently and predictably controllable and maneuverable using simplified flight controls at all loading conditions and phases of flight. Though Jump Aero and AIR VEV correctly noted § 22.105 does not address aircraft with simplified flight controls, FAA disagrees with their proposal and has provided an alternative solution in this final rule. FAA has removed “through the normal use of primary flight controls” in § 22.105(a) making the requirement agnostic to primary or simplified flight controls. Thus, § 22.105(a) will read, “Be consistently and predictably controllable and maneuverable at all loading conditions during all phases of flight.” The requirements of § 22.105 apply to all light-sport category aircraft classes and with this change, there is no need to repeat these specific provisions in § 22.180 as the commenters proposed. Accordingly, the commenters' proposed § 22.180(a) was not included in this final rule.</P>
                    <P>Jump Aero and AIR VEV suggested revising § 22.180(c) to require that the pilot control scheme, during abnormal flight control modes, be consistent with its normal mode. Jump Aero asserted that the means of controlling the aircraft should not change even in the event of systems failures that are extremely likely. Though FAA generally agrees that consistency of aircraft control is important during normal and abnormal operations, FAA disagrees with including this suggestion as a requirement in § 22.180 on the grounds that it is unnecessary since automation controls the aircraft's flight path rather than primary flight controls reliant upon a pilot's hand and foot coordination. Automation allows for variances in programming normal and abnormal operations. Of note, § 22.180(b) will include a requirement that regardless of pilot input, the aircraft is designed to prevent loss of control under likely circumstances. This requirement should instill confidence in automation's capacity and correct for inefficient interface designs or poor decision making by the pilot. Since aircraft with simplified flight controls may have greater varieties of interface devices for the pilot to use, the human factors aspect of these interface devices will be critical to allow effective, simple, logical, and timely pilot inputs. These types of design choices are best fulfilled by industry-developed consensus standards.</P>
                    <P>Jump Aero and AIR VEV suggested adding § 22.180(d) to require that aircraft with automated systems or some combination of pilot action and automation must ensure that pilots can discontinue or alter the aircraft trajectory. FAA notes that much of this proposal is already captured in § 22.180(a) and (c) of this final rule. Automation that controls the flight path and available power is included in § 22.180(a) and a means to discontinue or alter the aircraft's flight is included in § 22.180(c). FAA disagrees with the use of certain phrases in the commenters' proposal because they are not aligned with the simplified flight control design concept. For instance, their suggested use of “include automated systems” is inadequate. Aircraft with simplified flight controls are fully automated for controlling the flight path and available power, which means automation is also used to inherently prevent loss of control under likely circumstances, regardless of pilot input. If the pilot wants to discontinue or alter the flight, then automation controls the flight path of these functions. FAA has concerns that the phrase “some combination of pilot action and automation” could be misinterpreted to mean that primary flight controls are permitted in the designs of aircraft with simplified flight controls, which is not the intent of § 22.180. After considering Jump Aero and AIR VEV's suggestion and other public comments, FAA decided to not use Jump Aero and AIR VEV's suggestion for § 22.180(d) but instead use the requirements in § 22.180(a) and (c) of this final rule.</P>
                    <P>Both AIR VEV and Jump Aero stated proposed § 22.180 was too prescriptive. Though the commenters did not provide specific examples, FAA disagrees. The performance-based requirements in § 22.180 balance the need for safety with the differing requirements of simplified flight control designs for light-sport category aircraft. Consensus standards organizations should be able to create appropriate consensus standards that act as a means of compliance to these requirements and provide industry solutions that address the automation, pilot interface, operational and safety functions (such as prevention of loss of control and the means to discontinue or alter the flight), and other criteria unique to aircraft with simplified flight controls.</P>
                    <P>GAMA agreed with Jump Aero and AIR VEV's recommended § 22.180(b), (c), and (d), but recommended that (a) should require that the aircraft's motion is commanded by the pilot's flight control inputs. GAMA commented that the proposed § 22.180 is overly prescriptive and focuses on minimum functionality instead of a performance-based safety objective consistent with § 22.105, which would allow for different means of compliance and potential future technological advancements.</P>
                    <P>Furthermore, GAMA and AIR VEV commented that how the pilot manipulates commands is irrelevant if the aircraft design prevents loss of control irrespective of pilot input, noting that an automation system can override pilot input even in a traditional cable and pully system. GAMA recommended that FAA allow pilot controls that resemble traditional or primary flight controls in aircraft designated as having simplified flight controls. GAMA commented that the NPRM preamble suggests that simplified flight control aircraft cannot have traditional controls, but that proposed § 22.180 rule remains silent on what pilot cockpit controls can be used. GAMA asserted that aircraft with traditional controls that have carefree handling characteristics, allow real time and direct control over flight attitude and trajectory, with sustained hands-off stability and full envelope protection, and which meets any other § 22.180 requirements should be able to receive a simplified flight control designation. GAMA illustrated its position with a light-sport helicopter example that it believes should be eligible for simplified flight control designation. GAMA provided some other comments on this topic related to sport pilots that are addressed in the sport pilot certification section.</P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed in the NPRM preamble for the part 22 control and maneuverability requirement, primary flight controls consist of traditional flight controls, such as an aircraft yoke, stick, control column, collective, throttle, or rudder pedals. The proposed rule contained specific provisions for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35079"/>
                        the certification of aircraft that are designed and constructed without primary flight controls, but rather with simplified flight controls. These statements make clear that the intent for § 22.180 is for aircraft not to have primary flight controls but for such aircraft to have a simplified flight control designation. Light-sport category aircraft manufactured under this rule will either have primary flight controls or simplified flight controls. The proposed § 22.180 language captured FAA's intent to exclude primary controls by stating “without direct manipulation of individual aircraft control surfaces.” Regardless, FAA disagrees with GAMA's interpretation of simplified flight control designs. FAA finds the commenters' § 22.180(a) proposal that the pilot's flight control inputs command (GAMA proposal) or directly command (see comments from Cirrus Aircraft on the docket) the desired aircraft motion contradicts the intent of § 22.180 for aircraft whose operation solely relies on automation and only allows the pilot to intervene through non-traditional means. This suggestion and GAMA's proposal are further addressed in the paragraphs below.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, for FAA's § 22.180(a) proposal, Cirrus Aircraft asked FAA to clarify the intent of: (1) “control the flight path,” (2) the word “only” before control the flight path, and (3) “without direct manipulation of individual aircraft control surfaces or adjustment of the available power” or “adjustment of available power.” Cirrus Aircraft stated, “control the flight path” could imply a general or specific type of kinematic control. For the second request, Cirrus Aircraft stated the NPRM indicates simplified flight control pilots are only expected to be proficient at those controls and may not be capable of traditional flight controls. For the third request, Cirrus Aircraft asked if simplified flight controls exclude traditional mechanical flight controls and fly by wire direct control systems.</P>
                    <P>
                        In response to GAMA, Cirrus Aircraft, and other commenters, FAA has revised § 22.180(a) in this rule to more precisely clarify the intent of simplified flight control designs. Section 22.180(a) now reads, “The aircraft's flight path and available power are automated, allowing the pilot to only intervene without the availability of primary flight controls.” 
                        <SU>59</SU>
                         This performance-based requirement better clarifies that aircraft with simplified flight controls are fully dependent upon automation while allowing a means for the pilot to intervene with the automation, rather than a pilot's hand-flying skills, to control the aircraft's flight path and available power. This requirement also clearly demonstrates that the pilot is allowed to intervene through means that interface with the automation, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         without the availability or presence of primary flight controls, to discontinue or alter the flight path of the aircraft as referenced later in § 22.180(c). Pilot intervention could include adjustment of the aircraft's automated available power through interfaces such as touch screens, pushbuttons, or rotating knobs. The proposed clause “in its operation” was omitted from § 22.180(a) in this rule because the meaning of the provision is clear without it being included, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         controlling an aircraft's flight path and power is the same as operating it.
                    </P>
                    <P>To address Cirrus Aircraft's requests, the revised § 22.180(a) should now provide greater clarity that automation that allows pilot intervention, not pilot primary flight control inputs, is what controls the aircraft's flight path and available power. The revised § 22.180(a) also clarifies that primary flight controls are not available on aircraft with simplified flight controls. To avoid being overly prescriptive on how to comply with these requirements, FAA encourages industry participation for the development of appropriate consensus standards to address design, production, and airworthiness aspects of necessary automation and specialized technologies for automated flight path and power control that also include inherently preventing loss of control under likely circumstances, regardless of pilot input. The development of appropriate consensus standards for the pilot's ability to interface with the aircraft's automation to fulfill the necessary functions of aircraft normal, abnormal, and emergency operations will also be necessary.</P>
                    <P>Regarding Cirrus Aircraft's comment that certain pilots may only be expected to be proficient at aircraft designs with simplified flight controls and may not be capable of traditional flight controls, FAA agrees that this is the intent of the requirements in this rule. Aircraft with simplified flight controls must only allow the pilot to intervene with the automation, other than with primary flight controls, to change the aircraft's trajectory or power. This means that the pilot training requirements necessary to operate aircraft with simplified flight controls are not as extensive as training requirements for aircraft with primary flight controls. Training on aircraft with primary flight controls is unnecessary if a pilot only desires to fly light-sport category aircraft with simplified flight controls.</P>
                    <P>The purpose of § 22.180 is to respond to industry and manufacturers designing and producing fully automated aircraft that allow for simple, non-traditional means for the pilot to interface with the aircraft's automation. Such aircraft are completely dependent upon automation, sensors, and other technologies for flightpath and power control, even when pilot intervention is accomplished, rather than a pilot's hand-flying skills. This rule would not prevent light-sport category aircraft designs with primary flight controls or a combination of automation and primary flight controls. FAA strongly encourages manufacturers to include envelope protection and stability augmentation features, even in aircraft designed with primary flight controls. However, manufacturers could not designate these aircraft designs as having simplified flight controls on the manufacturer's statement of compliance as required by § 21.190(d)(4) of this rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Clarification of Joy-Stick Controllers</HD>
                    <P>TCCA expressed uncertainty as to what “select flight commands” means in the NPRM discussion of simplified flight controls and how this differs from “controlling the aircraft” with fly by wire sidestick controllers. Cirrus Aircraft also requested clarification on the use of joystick controllers and whether they would qualify for simplified flight control status.</P>
                    <P>A pilot-operated joystick, similar to the side-stick controllers found in certain part 23 and 25 airplanes, would not be found in an aircraft with simplified flight controls since the joystick or side-stick controller is a type of primary flight control. As previously discussed, the revised § 22.180(a) in this rule provides the necessary clarity for this. Though FAA agrees that the technology of fly-by-wire systems could be included in aircraft with simplified flight controls, the differentiator is that the presence of primary flight controls does not exist in aircraft designs with simplified flight controls.</P>
                    <P>
                        However, as the NPRM discussed, joystick controllers used to select flight commands or move a cursor on a display would be appropriate for a simplified flight control design. This type of joystick would likely be used intermittently to select any necessary heading, course, altitude, or airspeed corrections to the preprogrammed route of flight. It could also be used to move a cursor to select items displayed on an electronic chart; either enabling a flight mode or obtaining additional information. These corrections or selections could be in response to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35080"/>
                        situations such as hazard or unexpected weather avoidance.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Prevent Loss of Control for All Likely Circumstances</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM noted, if used in the design, automation would have to prevent loss of control of the aircraft under all circumstances. TCCA requested clarification of “all circumstances,” and suggested “likely” needed to replace “all” if “circumstances” included environmental, operational, and failure conditions. Alternatively, TCCA thought it seemed too limited if “circumstances” only covers the range of pilot inputs.</P>
                    <P>FAA agrees that “likely” should have been included in the NPRM sentence to account for likely circumstances, without making it an absolute criterion that is unachievable as noted by TCCA. In addition, FAA will broaden the scope of § 22.180(b) so that it is not interpreted as only being applicable to pilot inputs. This will help clarify that aircraft control is also maintained through automation during engine loss or asymmetrical power scenarios. In this final rule, § 22.180(b) reads: The aircraft is designed to inherently prevent loss of control under all likely circumstances, regardless of pilot input.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Clarification on Maintaining Aircraft Control and the Use of Aircraft Parachutes</HD>
                    <P>In the NPRM, proposed § 22.145(b) stated the aircraft propulsion system must be designed so that the failure of any product or article does not prevent continued safe flight and landing or, if continued safe flight and landing cannot be ensured, the hazard has been minimized. Proposed § 22.180(b) and (c) stated the aircraft is designed to inherently prevent loss of control, regardless of pilot input, and the aircraft has a means to enable the pilot to quickly and safely discontinue the flight and prevent any inadvertent activation of this feature.</P>
                    <P>Doroni Aerospace and 3F commented that §§ 22.145(b), 22.180(b), and 22.180(c) are contradictory for powered-lift. They stated for powered-lift, a complete or partial loss of propulsion could result in being unable to control the aircraft's descent. They also stated for aircraft that lack control surfaces, it could result in complete loss of control. They suggested automatic, semi-automatic, or manual emergency ballistic device may help satisfy § 22.145(b) in such scenarios. Doroni Aerospace and 3F were concerned that § 22.180(b)'s requirement that the aircraft is designed to inherently prevent loss of control, regardless of pilot input, works against pilots being able to deploy emergency ballistic devices. They stated § 22.145(c) contradicts §§ 22.180(b) and 22.145(b) regarding emergency procedures associated with loss of control. Doroni Aeropsace recommended clear emergency ballistic device guidance in these regulations for aircraft with simplified flight controls and powered-lift.</P>
                    <P>FAA disagrees with Doroni Aerospace and 3F's interpretation of the requirements in § 22.180. As previously explained, the final rule has changed the § 22.180(b) requirement to prevent loss of control under likely, rather than all, circumstances, regardless of pilot input, and changed § 22.180(c) to read, “The aircraft has a means to enable the pilot to quickly and safely discontinue or alter the flight and prevent any inadvertent activation of these functions.” Accordingly, aircraft designs that cannot meet the § 22.180(b) requirement that the aircraft inherently prevent loss of control under likely circumstances cannot be designated by the manufacturer as having simplified flight controls. In addition, § 22.135 requires aircraft control to be maintained in the likely event of a failure or malfunction of a system or component.</P>
                    <P>Aircraft with simplified flight controls must be designed with sufficient automation to prevent loss of control under likely circumstances to include partial and complete loss of propulsion. To achieve this requirement, the powered-lift designs could use autorotation, distributed propulsion, wing surface area to control glide rate of descent, other measures appropriate for the design, or a combination of these measures to account for each flight condition.</P>
                    <P>Though FAA encourages manufacturers to add safety equipment such as ballistic parachute recovery systems, such a parachute or system, by itself, is not an acceptable means of compliance for the §§ 22.135 or 22.180(b) requirements. For aircraft designed with simplified flight controls, the intended outcome of §§ 22.135 and 22.180(b) is to require aircraft control to be maintained until the automation or pilot intervention (via automation) brings the flight to a logical and safe conclusion. The aircraft must have this ability even if the aircraft manufacturer installs a ballistic parachute recovery system on the aircraft. FAA understands the desire to use a parachute with powered-lift to minimize the hazards of partial and complete engine failure. However, ballistic parachute recovery systems do not provide full protection of the flight envelope since the parachute requires a certain height above the ground before it can fully deploy.</P>
                    <P>FAA disagrees with Doroni Aeropsace's and 3F's interpretation that the pilot's deployment of an aircraft parachute would violate § 22.180(b). The deployment of an aircraft parachute is a separate function and not related to the pilot's interface with the aircraft's automation that is described in § 22.180(b).</P>
                    <P>FAA also disagrees with Doroni Aerospace's and 3F's interpretation on the level of training of a pilot, such that they have limited knowledge and experience to determine the need to deploy a parachute in emergency procedures. If a light-sport category aircraft is designed with an aircraft parachute, then § 21.190(c)(2) requires the manufacturer to provide a POH that includes operating instructions and limitations to safely accommodate all environmental conditions and normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures likely to be encountered in the aircraft's intended operations. This means the pilot can obtain necessary operating instructions and limitations of the aircraft parachute from the POH.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Clarification on “Discontinue the Flight Path”</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM discussed examples of actions that could qualify as discontinuing or suspending a flight under § 22.180, including an immediate landing, a return flight to the aircraft's point of departure, a diversion to an alternate landing site, a course change, or initiation of a low altitude orbit or in-place hover until any hazards have passed.</P>
                    <P>
                        Cirrus Aircraft stated these examples are ad hoc flight path changes. Cirrus Aircraft and Streamline Designs recommended that FAA clarify the meaning of § 22.180(c), with Cirrus Aircraft noting § 22.180(a)'s requirement that pilots “control the flight path” in questioning the clarity of § 22.180(c) and Streamline Designs asking the meaning of “discontinue the flight.” Skyryse commented that requiring the pilot to be able to “quickly and safely discontinue the flight” fails to reflect practical operational experience, as discontinuance may not be the most appropriate or safest action that a pilot can take in the event of an unforeseen event. It noted the example actions from the NPRM discussed above as options available to a pilot where circumstances preclude the completion of a mission as planned. Skyryse stated the NPRM preamble uses the terms “suspend” and “discontinue,” implying a broader range 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35081"/>
                        of pilot options while the NPRM regulatory text does not. Reliable Robotics similarly commented on proposed § 22.180(c), stating it could be overly prescriptive and require additional capabilities given the differences between simplified flight control technologies. It stated requiring these systems to allow the pilot to “control the flight path” and to “discontinue or suspend” the flight could significantly increase complexity.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA agrees that “discontinue” is too narrow of scope to capture the practical example actions discussed in the NPRM preamble that included a course change, or initiation of a low altitude orbit or in-place hover until any hazards have passed. However, “suspend” may also be too narrow as it only implies an orbit, holding pattern, or in-place hover. Instead, the final rule will change § 22.180(c) to include the term “alter” so that it reads, “The aircraft has a means to enable the pilot to quickly and safely discontinue or alter the flight and prevent any inadvertent activation of these functions.” Altering the flight reflects more viable options that could include an orbit, holding pattern, in-place hover, course change, or an offset while still proceeding to the original destination. It also better describes a diversion to an alternate airfield or landing site. Note that FAA changed the word “feature” to “function” as recommended by Streamline Designs since “functions” (plural) better describes the actions of discontinuing or altering the flight.</P>
                    <P>In response to Reliable Robotics's comment that an additional requirement to “discontinue or suspend” the flight could add significant complexity, the automation in simplified flight control designs must be able to perform the same flight functions as a pilot. If smoke or fumes suddenly appeared in the occupant compartment, the design must allow the pilot to interface with the automation so that the flight could be discontinued or altered, if necessary, such as accomplishing a pilot-initiated divert to a suitable landing site. If the smoke or fumes were significant enough, automation must allow the pilot to initiate an immediate land now function. The aircraft design must be able to handle this and similar emergency or abnormal scenarios necessary for the safety of the aircraft and occupants.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">g. Clarification on “Inadvertent Activation”</HD>
                    <P>Skyryse suggested deleting the phase “inadvertent activation of this feature” from proposed § 22.180(c) as ambiguous since a single “feature” may not support all responses to unforeseen events. As previously discussed, FAA changed “feature” to “function” in § 22.180(c) since “functions” better describes the actions of discontinuing or altering the flight. FAA disagrees with removing “inadvertent activation of these functions” since protecting inadvertent activation of equipment that performs critical functions is a safety feature of the aircraft. This safety feature could prevent the pilot from inadvertently putting the aircraft in a dangerous situation such as turning the aircraft toward higher terrain, an obstacle, or airborne hazards such as birds or other aircraft. Inadvertent activation of an immediate landing mode, if applicable, may result in damage to the aircraft or injury to occupants if over rugged or unsuitable terrain.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">h. Simplified Flight Controls Are Too Technical for the Light-Sport Category</HD>
                    <P>ALPA did not support simplified flight control systems for light-sport category aircraft. It asserted such highly automated, technically advanced flight control systems for light-sport aircraft may add an unquantified risk, with little to no mitigation. ALPA cited an FAA notice (77 FR 38463) (LSAMA Notice) related to the LSAMA Final Report. The LSAMA Notice described FAA's concerns over manufacturing facilities' ability to substantiate, through the issued statements of compliance, that aircraft met the applicable consensus standards.</P>
                    <P>FAA-accepted consensus standards have been created for a broad array of aircraft classes that include airplanes, gliders, lighter-than-air, weight-shift-control, and powered parachutes. The NPRM affirmed that the success of the light-sport category, including its reliance on a statement of compliance to FAA-accepted, industry consensus standards. This success serves as a sufficient basis for expansions of this category using the same certification concepts and procedures, including optional designs that include simplified flight controls. For instance, ASTM F37 Committee on Light-Sport Aircraft could work with ASTM F38 Committee on Unmanned Aircraft to obtain best practices and specialized knowledge on common technologies. In addition, this rule will include mitigations to decrease risk, such as limiting light-sport category aircraft to two seats, except four seats for airplanes, enabling more robust structures and safety equipment through the removal of a weight limit, and not allowing the carriage of non-essential persons and cargo for compensation or hire, except for flight training.</P>
                    <P>In response to the LSAMA Final Report, a requirement for the training of manufacturer's employees to ensure they understand how to determine compliance to applicable consensus standards is included in this rule in § 22.190. In addition, § 21.190(d) requires the manufacturer's statement of compliance to be signed by the manufacturer's authorized representative who is certified and trained on the requirements associated with the issuance of a statement of compliance by an organization that certifies and trains quality assurance staff in accordance with a consensus standard that has been accepted by FAA. These provisions are intended to correct the concerns identified in the LSAMA Final Report.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Development of Consensus Standards for New Classes</HD>
                    <P>A commenter proposed removing the simplified flight controls requirement for helicopters under § 21.190 because it is inconsistent with other aircraft categories' requirements, and such technology is still developmental and would delay new helicopter certification. The commenter asserted that this removal would allow a realistic ASTM certification basis with existing technology and allow existing EAB helicopter designs to be revised to comply with industry mechanical practices and certified.</P>
                    <P>FAA notes there are a few misconceptions in the commenter's remarks. First, § 21.190 does not contain a restriction on simplified flight controls for helicopters. Instead, this restriction is in part 61 and only applicable to sport pilots. Second, light-sport category helicopters may be designed with or without simplified flight controls, so the development of consensus standards for the § 22.180 requirements will not impede new helicopter certification. Granted, it will take time for certain types of aircraft, such as helicopters, gyroplanes, and powered-lift, to achieve airworthiness certification in the light-sport category as consensus standards are developed for these aircraft. It is up to industry as to when consensus standards for simplified flight controls will be developed for each aircraft class, as applicable.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">j. Altered Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>
                        VAI commented that the rule should allow for currently manufactured or existing rotorcraft to have equipment installed that could achieve performance-based standards of simplified flight control designs. VAI recommended traditional rotorcraft be given a simplified flight control 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35082"/>
                        designation if altered through approved and installed advanced control augmentation systems. Though standards and procedures for type certification are outside the scope of this rule, an applicant may request FAA approval for such designs via the provisions in part 21 for type certificates, changes to type certificates, or supplemental type certificates, including the provision in § 21.16 for requesting special conditions for novel or unusual design features such as simplified flight controls. If FAA approved a design for simplified flight controls, the holder of that design approval would be able to designate aircraft that incorporate that design as having simplified flight controls.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">k. Question on Consensus Standards Acceptance Criteria</HD>
                    <P>EASA asked for clarity on the acceptance criteria for simplified flight control systems. FAA will evaluate any consensus standards on simplified flight controls to verify they meet the requirements of § 22.180 prior to FAA acceptance. Simplified flight control consensus standards will contain the specific means of compliance for simplified flight control designs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">28. Quality Assurance System (§ 22.185)</HD>
                    <P>As explained above in the § 22.100 section, some of the proposed eligibility requirements were changed or omitted in this final rule to clarify that aircraft manufactured outside the United States had to meet the light-sport category eligibility requirements of § 22.100(a) and (b). EASA asked if compliance with proposed § 22.100(b)(1) includes compliance with § 22.185 since the requirement applies more to manufacturers and staff competencies than the aircraft itself. FAA notes that proposed § 22.100(b)(1) has been omitted from this final rule, as explained in the § 22.100 section. Instead, the requirement that the aircraft meet the requirements of this subpart, as stated by proposed § 22.100(b)(1), is now under § 22.100(a)(7) in this final rule. Section 22.100(a)(7) states that the aircraft meet the design, production, and airworthiness requirements specified in this subpart using a means of compliance consisting of consensus standards accepted by FAA. Accordingly, since the requirement of § 22.185 is written as a requirement on the aircraft, FAA affirms that compliance with § 22.100(a)(7) requires compliance with § 22.185 since the aircraft must have been designed, produced, and tested under a documented quality assurance system to ensure each product and article conforms to its design and is in a condition for safe operation.</P>
                    <P>As specified in § 21.190(d)(5), an applicant for a special airworthiness certificate under § 21.190 must provide FAA with a statement of compliance from the aircraft manufacturer that shows compliance to FAA-accepted or approved consensus standards that act as the means of compliance to the design, production, and airworthiness requirements of subpart B of part 22. In addition, the statement of compliance includes a statement from the manufacturer that they have established and maintain a quality assurance system that meets the requirements of § 22.185 of this chapter and the aircraft conforms to the manufacturer's design data, using the manufacturer's quality assurance system that meets the specified consensus standard. These requirements are in § 21.190(d)(11) and (6), respectively.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">29. Findings of Compliance by Trained Compliance Staff (§ 22.190)</HD>
                    <P>Section 22.190 requires a light-sport category aircraft to have been found compliant with the provisions of the applicable FAA-accepted or approved consensus standards by individuals who have been trained on determining compliance with those consensus standards. EASA asked if compliance with proposed § 22.100(b)(1) includes compliance with § 22.190 since the requirement applies more to manufacturers and staff competencies than the aircraft itself. Like the prior response to EASA provided for § 22.185, FAA notes that the requirement of § 22.190 is written as a requirement on the aircraft. FAA affirms that compliance with § 22.100(a)(7) requires compliance with § 22.190 since the aircraft must have been found compliant with the provisions of the applicable FAA-accepted or approved consensus standards by individuals who have been trained on determining compliance with those consensus standards.</P>
                    <P>For this final rule, FAA made a correction to § 22.190 by adding “or approved” to account for voluntary part 36 noise requirements whose means of compliance could include FAA-approved consensus standards. For all other part 22, subpart B requirements, the means of compliance includes FAA-accepted consensus standards.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">30. Ground and Flight Testing (§ 22.195)</HD>
                    <P>The provisions of § 22.195 require an aircraft intended for certification as a light-sport category aircraft to have been ground and flight tested under documented production acceptance test procedures. This testing is required to verify aircraft performance data, ensure the aircraft has no hazardous operating characteristics, ensure the aircraft is in a condition for safe operation, and ensure the aircraft can safely conduct towing or any aerial work operation designated by the manufacturer. The manufacturer will ensure each aircraft can safely conduct towing or any aerial work operation by conducting flight testing of that operation. If successful, the manufacturer would be able to provide a statement of compliance to FAA-accepted consensus standards for this requirement.</P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs recommended changing § 22.195 from “The aircraft” to “Each aircraft produced” for the requirement that each aircraft must have been ground and flight tested. FAA agrees that “Each aircraft produced” has equivalent meaning, however, the rule will retain “The aircraft” to remain consistent with language used in several other part 22 requirements.</P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs also recommended changing proposed “validate” to “verify” in § 22.195(a) because, in part, validate means that a product meets the needs of the customer while verify means the evaluation of whether a product, service, or system complies with a regulation, requirement, specification, or imposed condition. FAA agrees that verify is more appropriate for § 22.195(a) and has changed proposed “validate” to “verify” in this final rule.</P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs and AIR VEV recommended changing § 22.195(b) to remove “or design features” so that it read, “Ensure the aircraft has no hazardous operating characteristics.” AIR VEV stated hazardous design feature testing should be conducted at the development phase rather than at this stage. FAA agrees and has removed “or design features” from § 22.195(b). The provisions in § 22.195 are for the production acceptance testing of light-sport category aircraft rather than for the flight testing of prototype and developmental aircraft. The flight testing of developmental aircraft occurs under the experimental purpose of research and development. This testing is for new aircraft design concepts, new aircraft equipment, new aircraft installations, new aircraft operating techniques, or new uses for aircraft. Production acceptance testing is for aircraft in a final configuration representing the light-sport category aircraft model for certification under § 21.190.</P>
                    <P>
                        As explained in sections IV.F.14 and 16 for §§ 22.110 and 22.120, respectively, FAA will not include proposed § 22.120 in this rule. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35083"/>
                        Accordingly, the final rule omits “in accordance with § 22.120” from § 22.195(d) so that it reads, “Ensure the aircraft can safely conduct towing and any aerial work operation designated by the manufacturer.” Light-sport category aircraft manufacturers specify aerial work and towing operations that may be safely conducted by the aircraft in the aircraft's POH per § 21.190(c)(2)(iii) and (iv), respectively. In addition, for the manufacturer's statement of compliance per § 21.190(d)(3), manufacturers must specify towing and any aerial work operations the manufacturer has determined may be safely conducted, and state that the aircraft has been ground and flight tested to ensure that it can be operated to safely conduct those operations in accordance with the instructions and limitations provided by the manufacturer. Towing was not proposed in the NPRM for § 22.195(d) but has been included in this final rule in response to recommendations from commentors because towing puts similar loads on aircraft structures as certain aerial work operations. The annex of ASTM Standard F2245 specifies additional requirements for light-sport category airplanes used to tow gliders. Compliance with these consensus standards is shown when the towed aircraft is safely controllable under tow at a speed for which its drag and weight are within the prescribed maximum weight and drag limits. A similar statement for towing gliders exists in the annex of ASTM Standard F2317/F2317M for light-sport category weight-shift-control aircraft. Accordingly, the addition of towing to § 22.195(d) reflects similar compliance action for flight testing already required of light-sport category aircraft manufacturers by FAA-accepted ASTM consensus standards.
                    </P>
                    <P>USUA recommended the elimination of proposed § 22.120 and resultingly, § 22.195(d). Though FAA has removed proposed § 22.120 from the final rule, FAA disagrees with eliminating § 22.195(d). Ground and flight testing the aircraft ensures that towing and any aerial work operation designated by the manufacturer could be safely conducted. Flight testing would verify any limitation designated by the manufacturer as being necessary to safely conduct the specified operations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">31. Other Part 22 Comments</HD>
                    <P>One commenter stated certification requirements for light-sport category aircraft with retractable landing gear, full authority digital engine control, adjustable propellers, and other items must be as demanding and comprehensive as for non-light-sport category airplanes with such features as these items are not more reliable or safe because they are in a light-sport category aircraft than in other aircraft where they have to be analyzed, tested, and certificated.</P>
                    <P>As previously discussed in section IV.C, the certification rigor of light-sport category aircraft may be less than the certification rigor of normal category aircraft since normal category aircraft have greater operating privileges, such as carrying passengers and cargo for compensation or hire. In addition, light-sport category aircraft have restrictive operating limitations in § 91.327 that are not applicable to normal category aircraft.</P>
                    <P>This does not mean that complex systems will be unsafe on light-sport category aircraft. Part 22 has comprehensive requirements that will apply to the design, structural integrity, materials, operating environment, and functionality of aircraft systems such as retractable landing gear. In addition, part 22 has further requirements for quality assurance, finding of compliance to consensus standards by trained staff, and ground and flight testing.</P>
                    <P>In the specific case of landing gear, § 22.110 requires that the design and construction of the landing gear must provide sufficient structural integrity to enable safe operations within the aircraft's flight envelope throughout the aircraft's intended life cycle and must be able to withstand all likely flight and ground loads, including any aerial work operation, when operated within its operational limits. Section 22.125 requires the landing gear to have design characteristics to safely accommodate all environmental conditions likely to be encountered during its intended operations. Section 22.130 requires the suitability and durability of materials used for the landing gear to account for the likely environmental conditions expected in service, the failure of which could prevent continued safe flight and landing. Section 22.135 requires that the landing gear must perform its intended functions under all operating conditions specified in the pilot's operating handbook. Likely failure or malfunction of the landing gear must not cause loss of control of the aircraft. The landing gear must be considered separately and in relation to other systems and equipment. In addition, §§ 22.185 and 22.190 require that the landing gear must have been designed, produced, and tested under a documented quality assurance system to ensure it conforms to its design and is in a condition for safe operation and that it must have been found compliant with the provisions of the applicable FAA-accepted or approved consensus standards by individuals who have been trained on determining compliance with those consensus standards. Finally, § 22.195 requires ground and flight testing of the landing gear to ensure it has no hazardous operating characteristics. Though these performance-based requirements are not as rigorous as those in part 23 for the landing gear of a normal category airplane, they are appropriate for the light-sport category and provide a proper foundation for the creation of consensus standards that would act as a means of compliance to the part 22 requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        Consensus standards will have to be developed by consensus standards organizations for the design, production, and airworthiness of retractable landing gear, adjustable pitch propellers, or any other complex systems that were not previously allowed for light-sport category designs.
                        <SU>60</SU>
                         FAA will evaluate any proposed consensus standards before deciding whether to accept them, to ensure that they are an acceptable means of compliance to regulatory requirements. The safety record of the light-sport category has demonstrated that manufacturers' compliance with FAA-accepted consensus standards can result in the production of safe aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>AEA/ARSA disagreed with certain sections of part 22 and recommended that the regulatory requirements of parts 23 or 36 should be used for those systems. The associations stated they do not agree with the aircraft system descriptions as written. The associations supported the NPRM for performance-based safety standards; however, they suggested the safety standards should be aligned for aircraft of comparable size, speeds, and operations regardless of the airworthiness certificate the aircraft carries. The associations suggested using the established safety standards as published by FAA for two seat airplanes in part 23, in the current amendment for level 1 aircraft, regardless of the airworthiness certificate issued.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA disagrees with AEA/ARSA's comments and suggestions for several reasons. To start with, FAA disagrees with the association's claim that light-sport category aircraft are intended to be two seat recreational aircraft. This statement is outdated as being aligned with the 2004 final rule but not with the NPRM and this final rule. As previously stated in the NPRM and in section IV.C of this rule, the performance expansions in this rule are based on the safety continuum, the successful use of light-sport category consensus standards to provide an accident rate commensurate with the normal category, and the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35084"/>
                        implementation of design, production, and airworthiness requirements in part 22.
                    </P>
                    <P>The associations stated general aviation safety standards should be consistent regardless of airworthiness certificate. To this comment, FAA points out that the associations failed to acknowledge that amateur-built aircraft are general aviation aircraft of comparable size, speeds, and operations as normal, primary, and light-sport category aircraft. Yet, amateur-built aircraft operate in the national airspace system (NAS) without any design requirements, though they do have to meet certain part 91 equipage requirements to access certain airspace. Omission of certificated amateur-built aircraft, which far outnumber certificated primary and light-sport category aircraft, weighs against the associations' claims since all three types are considered “general aviation” aircraft. In explaining the part 22 proposed requirements in the NPRM, FAA made several comparisons of type certificated, part 23 aircraft and EAB aircraft to explain where light-sport category aircraft fit on the safety continuum and why the proposed certification rigor for light-sport category aircraft was appropriate. By stating the light-sport category should be held to the same airworthiness standards as the normal and primary categories, the associations are dismissing the application of the safety continuum. Instead, FAA asserts that each certification process serves a specific purpose and is bound by appropriate limitations and privileges.</P>
                    <P>FAA disagrees with AEA/ARSA's comment to replace §§ 22.135, 22.140, 22.145, 22.150, 22.155, 22.160, 22.165, and 22.170 with the regulatory requirements from parts 23. Though the commenters also included § 22.175, stating the requirement should be replaced with requirements from part 36, § 22.175 has been omitted from this final rule since compliance with part 36 for new light-sport category aircraft is voluntary. AEA/ARSA's suggestion does not align with the airworthiness certification rigor of the safety continuum as previously discussed in section IV.C. Sections IV.A.2 and IV.F.3 of the NPRM provided examples of the differences in certification rigor between the light-sport and normal categories and explained the reasoning that allows the certification rigor of the light-sport category to be less than that of the normal category.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, FAA notes that certain existing FAA-accepted ASTM consensus standards for light-sport category airplanes 
                        <SU>61</SU>
                         were recently used for the primary category airworthiness design criteria for type certification of the ICON Aircraft Model A5-8 airplane.
                        <SU>62</SU>
                         Contrary to AEA/ARSA's claim, FAA-accepted consensus standards for the light-sport category are sufficient for certain types of general aviation aircraft, as demonstrated by their use for the type-certification of a primary category aircraft. By using the light-sport criteria for a primary category airplane, FAA found that FAA-accepted consensus standards provided a level of safety acceptable to FAA.
                        <SU>63</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>EASA questioned how the higher complexity of powered-lift and eVTOL would be addressed in the light-sport aircraft category from a manufacturing perspective. As previously stated, consensus standards that will act as the means of compliance to the design, production, and airworthiness requirements in part 22 will have to be developed by consensus standards organizations for light-sport category powered-lift and rotorcraft. The consensus standards must be accepted by FAA before they can be used for the design, production, and special airworthiness certification of light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <P>ALPA commented that FAA is avoiding its regulatory responsibilities by using performance-based regulations that effectively empower the manufacturers to establish the regulations for safety. ALPA recommended that aircraft transporting persons or property should meet the certification standards and safety requirements afforded by part 43, 91, 135, 136, and 194 for airplane and rotorcraft as applicable. ALPA commented that FAA will have to rethink the traditional means of aircraft certification due to novel light-sport aircraft designs, new technologies, and varying capabilities. ALPA continued that complicated and distinctive operating equipment and characteristics of light-sport aircraft designs may require a combination of the aircraft certification standards from various parts.</P>
                    <P>FAA disagrees with ALPA's claim that the performance-based requirements of part 22 establish a new manufacturing concept. Performance-based requirements have been used for the airworthiness standards in part 23 for normal category airplanes since 2017. Also, FAA disagrees that consensus standards are a form of “certification” authorized by the manufacturer. Instead, consensus standards act as the means of compliance to FAA's regulatory requirements in part 22. FAA verifies that consensus standards meet the regulatory requirements before they are accepted by FAA. Only after earning FAA acceptance may a manufacturer use a consensus standard for the design, production, and airworthiness certification of light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <P>The recent accident rate of light-sport category aircraft, as shown in FAA's 2022 Light-Sport Category Aircraft Continued Operational Safety (COS) Report, demonstrates that safe light-sport category aircraft can be produced with the use of industry-developed and FAA-accepted consensus standards. OMB Circular A-119 directs Federal agencies to use voluntary consensus standards, both domestic and international, in their regulatory and procurement activities in lieu of government-unique standards, unless use of such standards would be inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical. The use of consensus standards for light-sport category aircraft was previously discussed in section IV.C. However, it should be emphasized that FAA is an active participant in the development of consensus standards.</P>
                    <P>In addition, industry-developed consensus standards are an appropriate means to address the complex and distinctive operating equipment and characteristics of the new classes of aircraft being added to the light-sport category, such as powered lift and rotorcraft. Consensus standards organizations will have to develop consensus standards, appropriate for FAA acceptance, for novel propulsion and energy systems associated with light-sport category designs. The use of FAA-accepted consensus standards for other types of aircraft, such as unmanned aircraft or aircraft requiring higher levels of certification, may also be used as a method of compliance for the design and performance of novel or complex systems in light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <P>
                        ALPA's comment about the certification standards of persons or property being transported on aircraft is misplaced. The safety continuum is used to scope appropriate limitations or restrictions that are based on an aircraft's level of certification rigor. Since light-sport category aircraft are at the lower end of the safety continuum, they have more restrictions and fewer privileges than normal category aircraft, as described in section IV.C. These restrictions on light-sport category aircraft include the applicable operating limitations in § 91.327.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35085"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Miscellaneous Provisions for Issuance of Special Airworthiness Certificates</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Removal of Marking Requirements for Light-Sport Category Aircraft (§ 45.23(b))</HD>
                    <P>This rule eliminates the current requirement in § 45.23(b) to mark repainted or newly manufactured light-sport category aircraft with `light-sport.' Light-sport category aircraft owners would not have to remove existing marks. Instead, aircraft owners would be allowed to remove the marks any time after the effective date of this provision.</P>
                    <P>EASA asked if FAA considered alternate means to depict to pilots and passengers the safety standard compared to normal category aircraft. This rule only effects the external “light-sport” markings. FAA has accepted ASTM consensus standards that include placarding requirements for pilot and passenger warnings. For instance, the passenger warning in ASTM Standard F2245 states, “This aircraft was manufactured in accordance with Light Sport Aircraft airworthiness standards and does not conform to standard category airworthiness requirements.” A similar placarded warning exists in ASTM standards for other classes of aircraft that have type certificated equivalents such as gliders (ASTM Standard F2564) and lighter-than-air aircraft (ASTM Standard F2427, Standard Specification for Required Product Information to be Provided with Lighter-Than-Air Light Sport Aircraft). For lighter-than-air aircraft, the passenger notice reads, “This aircraft conforms to ASTM Consensus Standards of airworthiness developed and maintained by the aviation community under ASTM Technical Committee F37.” These or similar consensus standards would meet the placarding requirements of § 22.170. Also, § 91.327 addresses EASA's concerns by requiring the pilot of light-sport category aircraft to advise each person carried of the special nature of the aircraft and that the aircraft does not meet the airworthiness requirements for an aircraft issued a standard airworthiness certificate.</P>
                    <P>AEA/ARSA asserted that FAA failed to provide appropriate notice under the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) for the proposed change to § 45.23, contending that such change is not related to the topic area of “modernization of special airworthiness certification.” FAA disagrees with the assertion that there was insufficient notice. As explained in the NPRM, the intended applicability to the marking proposal for § 45.23 was light-sport category aircraft. Since this rule includes aircraft that are issued special airworthiness certificates, light-sport category aircraft and the regulatory requirements of their airworthiness certification process clearly fall within the scope of this rule. The proper display of marks is part of the airworthiness certification process for every aircraft, meaning FAA would not issue an airworthiness certificate to an improperly marked light-sport category aircraft. Therefore, eliminating the requirement in § 45.23(b) to mark repainted or newly manufactured light-sport category aircraft with `light-sport' is fitting to be addressed in this rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        Furthermore, FAA complied with its obligation under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) to provide general notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         of the proposed rule in the NPRM. It is incumbent on the public to review and respond to that notice. For the reasons stated above, FAA disagrees that the public received inadequate notice of the proposed change to § 45.23.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Airworthiness Certificates: Classification (§ 21.175)</HD>
                    <P>Section IV.N of the NPRM proposed to restructure § 21.175 to improve readability. There were no comments on this proposal. This final rule adopts the changes as proposed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Duration of Airworthiness Certificates (§ 21.181)</HD>
                    <P>For a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category to remain effective, the NPRM retained the current requirements for the aircraft to be registered in the U.S., not have an unsafe condition, and not likely develop an unsafe condition. The NPRM also retained the current requirement for the aircraft to conform to its original condition but used simpler language to capture the requirement for the aircraft to conform to its properly altered configuration. Because the NPRM proposed to remove the definition of light-sport aircraft from § 1.1, the provisions of the definition were included as proposed § 21.181(a)(3)(iv)(A) through (M) since they still apply to the certification of these aircraft.</P>
                    <P>For this final rule, several changes have been made to this section. A few changes were necessitated through the development and implementation of effective dates, as discussed in section IV.Q. For instance, for the first effective date of this final rule, October 22, 2025, the current § 21.181 airworthiness certificate duration requirements for light-sport category aircraft will remain valid with minor structural changes made to § 21.181(a), (a)(1), and (a)(4) for clarification and readability. Section 21.181(a)(4) was split into two separate sections, (a)(4) and (a)(5), to group experimental purposes with similar durations. These two sections are discussed in the experimental airworthiness certificate section IV.L.4. Section 21.181(a)(3)(iv) will be omitted because the aircraft registration requirement is included in § 21.181(a) as a general requirement for the duration of all standard and special airworthiness certificates.</P>
                    <P>On the second effective date, July 24, 2026, the proposed changes to § 21.181(a)(3) will be codified as described in the NPRM. However, FAA has determined that two corrections need to be made to the proposals in § 21.181(a)(3)(iv). First, this rule deleted proposed language in § 21.181(a)(3)(iv) that stated, “and for which an amended manufacturer's statement of compliance has not been submitted to FAA in accordance with § 21.190(e) on or after July 24, 2026.” FAA determined that this clause adds no value for aircraft originally certificated under § 21.190 prior to July 24, 2026 because the provisions of § 21.181(a)(3)(iv) will still be necessary and valid regardless of whether an amended statement of compliance has been submitted to FAA. If this clause is not removed from this rule, there would be no provision for the duration of a light-sport category airworthiness certificate in § 21.181 for aircraft originally certificated prior to July 24, 2026 that did obtain an amended statement of compliance through § 21.190(e). Aircraft that obtain an amended statement of compliance will continue to be subject to the provisions of § 21.181(a)(3)(iv).</P>
                    <P>The second correction made in this final rule to § 21.181(a)(3)(iv) deletes proposed paragraph (I), which stated a requirement for a fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering, two-blade rotor system, if a gyroplane. This provision should not have been included in this section of the NPRM since gyroplanes cannot be certificated as a light-sport category aircraft until on or after the second effective date of this final rule, or July 24, 2026. As a result of this correction, the proposed requirements in (J) through (M) are now listed in (I) through (L).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Aircraft Identification (§ 21.182)</HD>
                    <P>
                        No comments were received on proposed § 21.182. This final rule makes a conforming change to § 21.182(b)(2) by changing “experimental certificate” to “experimental airworthiness certificate” to remain consistent with the terminology of § 21.191 and the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35086"/>
                        explanation in section IV.I.2 of the NPRM that experimental certificates are experimental airworthiness certificates. FAA did not receive any comment on this terminology change for § 21.191. This final rule amends this section to make such changes as are necessary to advance the intent of the rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Revision of Definitions Applicable to Light-Sport Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Definition of “Consensus Standard”</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed an amendment of the definition of “consensus standard” in § 1.1. In addition, FAA requested comment on whether it should remove the definition of consensus standard from § 1.1 altogether or revise the definition as proposed. FAA received 17 comments in response. For this final rule, FAA has chosen to remove the definition based on the comments received.</P>
                    <P>EASA, SAE International (SAE), GAMA, EAA, AOPA, NATA, NBAA, Van's Aircraft, and VAI recommended eliminating the definition of “consensus standard.” EAA, AOPA, NATA and NBAA provided their comments jointly in a single response. Commenters argued that this term is commonly accepted, used, and understood. EASA commented that the term is applied to categories of aircraft that exceed the proposed definition. SAE, GAMA, Van's Aircraft, EAA, AOPA, NATA, NBAA, and VAI all expressed concerns about the limitations and potential negative impacts of maintaining a definition of “consensus standards.”</P>
                    <P>Several commenters did not support the removal of the definition of “consensus standard.” AEA/ARSA jointly commented that the proposed definition of consensus standards now applies to all aircraft design, operation, production, maintenance, or airworthiness applications. AEA/ARSA recommended FAA use the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) definition of consensus standards in OMB Circular No. A-119. FAA notes that OMB Circular A-119 applies to FAA regardless of whether part 1 defines “consensus standard;” FAA's understanding and use of the term, “consensus standard,” is coextensive with OMB Circular A-119.</P>
                    <P>Airbus Commercial Aircraft and Airbus Helicopters (collectively, Airbus) expressed support for revising the definition of consensus standards. ANAC supported the proposed definition of “consensus standard,” and recommended retaining this definition for clarity and consistency in interpretation and application. Streamline Designs also recommended retaining the definition but requiring an opportunity for “balanced input” as opposed to merely “input” by interested and affected persons. In deleting the definition of “consensus standard” from part 1, use of this and related terms will continue to be guided by OMB Circular A-119, which includes balance of interest in the definition of consensus standards body.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter expressed concern that eliminating the definition would cause confusion and recommended revising the definition. Another commenter recommended choosing a new word or phrase instead of “consensus standard,” asserting that the current terminology creates a “mental block.” As neither of these two commenters provided specifics as to the change they would recommend, FAA is not implementing these recommendations. FAA does note that “consensus standard” is a globally used term and its use in the Federal government is prescribed by OMB Circular A-119, 
                        <E T="03">Federal Participation in the Development and Use of Voluntary Consensus Standards and in Conformity Assessment Activities.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>For this final rule, FAA will remove the definition of “consensus standard” from § 1.1. The term is already well known and widely used within the aviation industry and, therefore, there is no longer a need for a definition. Given its wide and diverse applicability, FAA agrees with the commenters who expressed concern with unintended negative consequences of adopting this revised definition; similarly, many commenters stated a single definition would fail to consider the nuances of particular applications. Commenters who expressed support for retaining the definition mentioned factors such as clarity, consistency, and avoiding confusion; however FAA considers that the risk of increased confusion is low. Use of this term is commonly and well understood within the aviation industry and its use within the Federal government is guided by OMB Circular A-119. Accordingly, this final rule eliminates the definition of consensus standard from § 1.1.</P>
                    <P>
                        Of note, when a specific consensus standard, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         American Society for Testing and Material International (ASTM) Standard F2245, is referenced in this final rule, it means that FAA has previously accepted a version of that standard. Prior to the effective date of July 24, 2026, consensus standards developed by light-sport category consensus standards organizations were not acting as the means of compliance to regulatory design, airworthiness, or production requirements. The consensus standards FAA has previously found to be acceptable for manufacture of light-sport category aircraft are identified as FAA-accepted when the consensus standard is published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         as a notice of availability (NOA) for public comment. Since consensus standards may be created for international use, not all consensus standards published by light-sport category consensus standard organizations are for U.S.-certificated light-sport category aircraft or accepted by FAA. Consensus standards that have been FAA-accepted prior to the effective date of part 22 will still apply to light-sport category aircraft certificated prior to July 24, 2026 . On and after this date, FAA anticipates new consensus standards will be developed as the means of compliance to the design, airworthiness, or production requirements of part 22, including the performance expansions and new classes of aircraft allowed by this rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>As required by § 21.190(c)(1) and (d)(5) in this rule, as a condition for eligibility for certification in the light-sport category, an aircraft must meet performance-based aircraft design, production, and airworthiness requirements using a means of compliance consisting of consensus standards accepted or approved by FAA. The rule provides the regulatory authority to deny airworthiness certification for a light-sport category aircraft if any applicable requirements in § 21.190(c) or part 22 have not been met.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Sport Pilot Certification and Privileges</HD>
                    <P>
                        Part 61 prescribes the requirements for issuing pilot and flight instructor certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the privileges and limitations of those certificates and ratings. Subpart J of part 61 prescribes the requirements for sport pilot certificates, while subpart K of part 61 prescribes the requirements for flight instructor certificates with a sport pilot rating. As discussed in the NPRM at length, a sport pilot certificate is not issued with category and class ratings (unlike the higher-grade pilot certificates), rather, pilots receive a logbook endorsement for the category and class for which the pilot is authorized to act as PIC. Currently, a person receives a sport pilot certificate upon the successful completion of a practical test; to obtain privileges to operate an additional category or class, the sport pilot must receive training and an endorsement from an authorized instructor for the additional privilege, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35087"/>
                        pass a proficiency check from an authorized instructor (other than the instructor who trained them), and receive a logbook endorsement from the instructor who conducted the proficiency check.
                        <SU>64</SU>
                         Relatedly, flight instructor certificates with a sport pilot rating (subpart K flight instructors) differ from a subpart H flight instructor certificate insofar as subpart K flight instructors may only provide training and endorsements for persons in pursuit of a sport pilot certificate and privileges.
                        <SU>65</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Sport pilot certificate privileges have been historically limited to only operating category and classes of light-sport aircraft as defined in § 1.1. As discussed herein, this final rule removes the definition of light-sport aircraft from § 1.1 and relocates the substantive requirements for a light-sport category aircraft to § 21.190. Therefore, FAA proposed amendments to prescribe performance and design limitations for aircraft that sport pilots can operate, modernizing subpart J Sport Pilot and subpart K Flight Instructors with Sport Pilot Rating regulations.</P>
                    <P>The following table summarizes key changes from the NPRM made in this final rule for part 61.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s100,r100,r60,xs70">
                        <TTITLE>Table 4—Summary of Key Changes From NPRM in Part 61</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Proposed action in the NPRM</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Adopted by this final rule</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Final 14 CFR §</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Preamble section</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Removal of “light-sport aircraft” from 1.1, relocation of performance and design parameters since original certification into part 61</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.316</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1., IV.H.1.g.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Stall speed (VS1) increase from 45 knots CAS to 54 knots CAS for airplanes; retain 45 knots CAS for other aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>Stall speed (VS1) increase to 59 knots CAS for airplanes, retain 45 knots CAS for other aircraft </ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61 316(a)(1)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1.c.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Increase seating capacity for airplanes from 2 seats to 4 seats; retain 2 seats for other aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.316(a)(2)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1.a.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Retain passenger limitation for sport pilots, add person-occupancy limitation for flight instructors with sport pilot ratings</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.315(c)(4), § 61.415(k)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1.a.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Relocate non-pressurized cabin if equipped with a cabin; for gyroplanes, a fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering, two-blade rotor system and fixed or retractable landing gear; and for gliders, fixed or retractable landing gear</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.316(a)(3), § 61.316(a)(4), § 61.316(a)(7), § 61.316(a)(8)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Remove propeller design restrictions; require additional training to operate airplanes designed with controllable-pitch propellers that are not automated</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted removal of restrictions and general training framework; revisions to clarify training applicability to airplanes with manual controllable pitch propellers, clarify use of any powerplant</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.315(c)(20)(ii), § 61.316(a)(9), § 61.316(b), § 61.331(b)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1.k.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Remove fixed landing gear requirement; require additional training to operate aircraft with retractable landing gear</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed, clarifies applicability for aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear and adds training exception for persons who have previously logged PIC time in such aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.315(c)(20)(i), § 61.316(b), § 61.331(a), § 61.331(c)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1.k.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Facilitate flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating privileges to provide training in an airplane with a manual controllable pitch propeller or an aircraft with retractable landing gear</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.415(l)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1.k.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Restrict sport pilot from operating aircraft whereby a loss of partial power would adversely affect the directional control of the aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed, redesignated</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.316(a)(5)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1.b.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">No proposal pertaining to subpart J and K compensation</ENT>
                            <ENT>Retain restriction on sport pilot privileges for compensation or hire; explicitly permits flight instructors with a sport pilot rating to receive compensation when providing flight training</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.413(d)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1.f.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Permit night operations with training, endorsement, and experience requirements</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopts general framework with reorganization and revisions to minimum flight experience requirements and specific to the category and class of aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.315(c)(5), § 61.329(a), § 61.329(c)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1.j. &amp; IV.H.1.j.i.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Require at least a Third-Class medical certificate or meet the requirements of BasicMed to operate at night</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed, corrects incorrect reference</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.329(b)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1.j.iii.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">No proposal pertaining to § 61.23</ENT>
                            <ENT>Deconflicts provisions of § 61.23 with the night operation medical requirements in § 61.329</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.23(c)(1)(vi)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1.j.iii.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Facilitate flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating privileges to provide night flight training</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed.</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.415(n)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1.j.ii.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Require pilots seeking to act as PIC of aircraft certificated with a simplified flight controls designation to obtain model-specific training and an endorsement in that aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.31(l)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.2.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Limit a sport pilot instructor from providing training in an aircraft with simplified flight controls designation unless the sport pilot has received the model-specific training and endorsement</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.415(m), § 61.429(d)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.2.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Facilitate subpart H instructors employed by the manufacturer of aircraft with the simplified flight controls designation to provide training and endorsements</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed, redesignated from paragraph (m) to (n)</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.195(n)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.2.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">No proposal pertaining to subpart H flight instructor prerequisites for simplified flight controls</ENT>
                            <ENT>Requires subpart H flight instructors to take their initial flight instructor practical test in an aircraft with conventional controls as a prerequisite to instruct in an aircraft with simplified flight controls</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.195(m)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.3.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="35088"/>
                            <ENT I="01">Limit certain pilot time in an airplane or helicopter with a simplified flight controls designation from satisfying certain flight time requirements for a higher-grade certificate</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.9</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.2.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Require examiners who agree to conduct practical tests for an initial pilot certificate, rating, or privilege in an aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation; hold the appropriate category and class rating or privilege; and have the ability to assume control of the aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.45(g)(1)-(3)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.3.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Limit a pilot who receives a category and class rating or privilege with a simplified flight controls limitation to operation of only that make and model of aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed, expands on paragraph (g)(4) to address aircraft that are not capable of performing all the required tasks in the ACS</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.45(g)(4), § 61.45(h)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.3.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Require a pilot with a simplified flight controls limitation seeking to operate another make and model of aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation in the same category and class to receive training and an endorsement</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.45(h)(1)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.3.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Require a pilot with a simplified flight controls limitation seeking to operate a different category as an initial applicant for that category and class rating and class of aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation and an aircraft without a simplified flight controls designation to successfully complete a practical test for that category and class of aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted with clarification of initial applicant applicability</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.45(h)(2)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.3.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Permit sport pilots to operate helicopters certificated under proposed § 21.190 that include the simplified flight control designation</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed, redesignated</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.316(a)(6)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.4.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Add helicopter to flight proficiency requirements and aeronautical experience areas of operation</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.311, § 61.409</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.4.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Require minimum flight training and time for applicants seeking to obtain a helicopter privilege</ENT>
                            <ENT>Revises certain elements of minimum flight training requirements and time</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.313(a)(9)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.4.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Require minimum flight experience requirements for applicants seeking to obtain a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, helicopter privilege</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.411(h)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.4.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Incorporate by reference Sport Pilot for Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls ACS and Sport Flight Instructor for Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls ACS</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopts and relocates incorporated by reference ACSs</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.14(b)(13), § 61.41(b)(17), Appendix A</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.5.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Require sport pilots and flight instructors with a sport pilot rating seeking to add an airplane or helicopter privilege to their existing sport pilot certificate or flight instructor certificate to accomplish a knowledge test and practical test</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopts practical test requirement, removes knowledge test requirement, reorganization of § 61.321</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.321(b), § 61.419(e)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.6.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Permit sport pilots to use up to 2.5 hours of training credit in an FSTD and ATD representing the appropriate category and class of aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.313(b)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.7.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Conforming amendments to remove references to light-sport aircraft, corrected formatting</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed, added additional light-sport aircraft reference revisions</ENT>
                            <ENT>See preamble section.</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.9.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Conforming amendment to require a sport pilot exercising the privileges listed in § 61.313 must receive a qualifying logbook endorsement for the appropriate category and class privilege</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.3(m)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.9.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Proposed to amend wording to replace light sport and proposed to change title of section. No proposal to amend wording in regulatory text</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adopted as proposed, and amended regulatory text to eliminate redundant uses of “pilot certificate” in same sentence</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.45(f) and, § 61.45(f)(3)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.3.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">No proposal to amend wording in regulatory text for limitation</ENT>
                            <ENT>Added this provision simply clarifies an existing limitation rather than making a change to an existing privilege or limitation</ENT>
                            <ENT>§ 61.315(c)(21)</ENT>
                            <ENT>IV.H.1 &amp; IV.H.8.g.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>The following sections discuss the provisions being adopted in this final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Sport Pilot Operational Privileges, Performance Limits and Design Requirements (§§ 61.315 and 61.316)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Currently, § 61.315 sets forth the privileges and limitations of a sport pilot certificate. The NPRM proposed to largely retain the privileges and limitations as currently prescribed but proposed two notable expansions to, first, facilitate night operations upon certain training and an endorsement and, second, permit operations in aircraft with retractable landing gear and controllable pitch propellers. These proposals are further discussed in sections IV.H.1.j and IV.H.1.k of this preamble, respectively. Aside from these two privilege expansions, this final rule does not make any additional changes to sport pilot certificate privileges and limitations in § 61.315.
                        <SU>66</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The proposal to remove the § 1.1 light-sport aircraft definition would separate aircraft certification requirements from sport pilot aircraft design and performance limitations. As a result, FAA proposed new § 61.316 to prescribe performance and design limitations for the aircraft sport pilots can operate, which this final rule adopts. New § 61.316 will specify the expanded performance and design limitations for aircraft that sport pilots are permitted to operate, which includes 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35089"/>
                        the sport pilot aircraft performance characteristics that were originally provided in the § 1.1 definition of light-sport aircraft and a number of limitations currently set forth in the definition. Specifically, FAA proposed several revised requirements in § 61.316, to include: stall speed, maximum seating capacity, propeller systems, directional control and controlled descent, simplified flight controls for helicopters, and landing gear, adoption of which is described in this section of the preamble. The unchanged requirements from § 1.1 that will reside in § 61.316(a) are: non-pressurized cabin, if equipped with a cabin (§ 61.316(a)(3)); for gyroplanes, a fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering, two-blade rotor system (§ 61.316(a)(4)); and for gliders, fixed or retractable landing gear (§ 61.316(a)(7)).
                        <SU>67</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>The final rule expands the variety of aircraft that can be certificated under part 21, which is discussed in section IV.H.1.g of this preamble, and aircraft that a sport pilot may operate under part 61. While the light-sport category aircraft certification requirements set forth in § 21.190 may differ from the sport pilot aircraft limitations in § 61.316, the aircraft design and performance limitations set forth in § 61.316 are specific to any aircraft that a sport pilot may operate. Thus, a sport pilot may operate an aircraft that meets the design and performance limitations set forth in § 61.316 but may not be certificated or be eligible for certification in the light sport category under part 21. The converse could also be true; an aircraft could be certificated under part 21 in the light sport aircraft category, but a sport pilot would not be able to operate it unless it met the design and performance characteristics in part 61. In sum, the aircraft certification requirements and pilot certification requirements are two different safety considerations.</P>
                    <P>
                        The expansion of eligible aircraft will provide manufacturers a more affordable and effective method to certificate aircraft that meet an industry standard (ASTM consensus standards), producing aircraft that sport pilots can use for training or recreational flight operations.
                        <SU>68</SU>
                         The final rule also expands the aircraft sport pilots can operate under the new § 61.316, permitting sport pilots to operate aircraft with more robust and reliable airframes than are possible under the current light-sport aircraft definition limitations. Moreover, the final rule will provide pilots with a safer and more affordable aircraft alternative, compared to operating aircraft with an experimental designation that do not meet any aircraft certification standards.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As previously stated, new § 61.316 identifies and expands the design and performance limitations for aircraft that sport pilots and flight instructors with a sport pilot rating can operate. This includes those aircraft that will be available to sport pilots and flight instructors with a sport pilot rating (subpart K) who, prior to this rulemaking, successfully completed a practical test for an initial sport pilot or flight instructor certificate, as well as those pilots who successfully completed a proficiency check to operate an additional category or class of aircraft.
                        <SU>69</SU>
                         As discussed herein, this final rule will most significantly expand the selection of airplanes that a sport pilot may operate by revisions to the maximum stall speed and seating capacity. For example, previously, a sport pilot could operate a Cessna 162 but not a Cessna 172 because the latter exceeded the light-sport aircraft weight limitation in current § 1.1. Under this new rule, a sport pilot could now operate either a Cessna 162 or a Cessna 172 using their sport pilot privileges. FAA analyzed the risk associated with currently certificated sport pilots operating more complex aircraft under new § 61.316 and determined that no additional training will be necessary for these pilots to safely operate additional aircraft meeting the parameters of § 61.316. In addition, under this final rule and as discussed throughout this section of the preamble, these currently certificated pilots will be required to obtain the appropriate training and endorsement for operating characteristics that FAA has determined necessitate additional training due to the operational risk (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         night operations, airplanes with manual propellers).
                        <SU>70</SU>
                         FAA emphasizes the existing requirements of § 61.31 continue to apply; for example, sport pilots will need to receive additional training and an instructor endorsement prior to operating airplanes that are high-performance or complex (or both).
                        <SU>71</SU>
                         Because of the similar operating profile and additional training requirements to mitigate risks associated with these expanded operational privileges, FAA finds these currently certificated sport pilots and sport flight instructors can immediately take advantage of operating more robust, reliable, stable airplanes, and can otherwise be safely permitted to operate airplanes under the new § 61.316 limitations.
                    </P>
                    <P>To note, as proposed, this final rule will require a person seeking to add an airplane single-engine land or sea or a rotorcraft-helicopter privilege to successfully accomplish a practical test for that category and class privilege as specified in § 61.307(b), regardless of whether they already hold a sport pilot certificate or whether they are seeking an initial privilege. Given the increase in privileges associated with operating an airplane in the NAS and the new operational privilege for helicopters with simplified flight controls, FAA recognizes that, going forward, it is necessary to require a practical test to validate skill and proficiency to operate an airplane in the NAS. In other words, airplane and helicopter performance with the aircraft under this final rule will vary in such an extensive way such that a proficiency check is insufficient to validate pilot competency when adding a single-engine airplane privilege and helicopter with simplified flight controls privilege safely in the NAS. Practical tests conducted by authorized evaluators promote safety by making tests more meaningful and relevant to actual flight operations and contribute to standardization in testing these concepts; this provision is discussed at length in section IV.H.6 of this preamble.</P>
                    <P>The following sections summarize proposed changes to § 61.315 and new § 61.316, adjudicate relevant public comments, and discuss changes adopted in this final rule as an outgrowth of comments. FAA generally received broad support for the expansion of the light-sport category and sport pilot privileges but responds to opposing comments herein. FAA received many unrelated comments that either did not support or oppose the proposed rulemaking, or did not provide substantive suggestions or recommendations for FAA to consider. As such, FAA is unable to respond to these comments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Sport Pilot Seating Limitation</HD>
                    <P>
                        Currently, sport pilots are limited by definition in § 1.1 to operating light-sport aircraft with a maximum seating capacity of no more than two persons, including the pilot. The NPRM proposed to retain the seating capacity limit to two persons under new § 61.316 for all aircraft except airplanes, which would allow a maximum seating capacity of up to four persons, including the pilot. One significant objective of this rulemaking is to facilitate and promote the use of more robust and reliable airframes, both in the context of aircraft certification and for those aircraft that can be operated by sport pilots. This rulemaking will permit sport pilots to operate a variety of additional certificated airplanes, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35090"/>
                        including the use of single-engine, four-seat airplanes that meet the revised design and performance limitations listed in the new § 61.316. As discussed in the NPRM,
                        <SU>72</SU>
                         FAA maintains that the sport pilot skills necessary to safely operate a four-seat airplane do not materially differ from those skills required to operate a two-seat airplane if the airplane satisfies the sport pilot aircraft design and performance limitations listed in new § 61.316. Therefore, this final rule adopts new § 61.316(a)(2), which will set forth, first, the current two-seat limitation for all aircraft except airplanes and second, the increase in maximum seating capacity for airplanes that a sport pilot can operate from two to four seats.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Considering the expansion of airplanes that have a maximum seating capacity of four persons under new § 61.316, FAA stated in the NPRM that sport pilots would continue to be limited in § 61.315(c)(4) to carrying only one passenger. Similarly, FAA proposed in § 61.415(k) to limit flight instructors with a sport pilot rating to carriage of one person. After this NPRM published, FAA published Public Aircraft Logging of Flight Time, Training in Certain Aircraft Holding Special Airworthiness Certificates, and Flight Instructor Privileges final rule on October 2, 2024,
                        <SU>73</SU>
                         which amended § 61.1(b) to define “passenger” as any person on board an aircraft other than a crewmember, FAA personnel, manufacturer personnel required for type certification, or a person receiving or providing flight training, checking, or testing as authorized by part 61. Considering this new definition, FAA maintains that sport pilots would be restricted to carriage of one passenger, and flight instructors with a sport pilot rating to carriage of one person. Because FAA defined “passenger” to exclude a flight instructor and trainee, flight instructors will be limited by “person” to restrict a scenario where a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating could carry the trainee and a second person (who would be considered the passenger). Sport pilot training operations should not include a second person (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         an observer or third party receiving a ride) due to the inherent risk via trainees learning aircraft fundamentals and manipulating the controls. If a pilot seeks to carry additional persons, the pilot will need to obtain at least a private pilot certificate.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA received approximately 228 comments in response to these proposed changes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Increased Seating Capacity</HD>
                    <P>Many commenters generally supported the proposal for sport pilots to operate certain airplanes designed with up to four seats. Commenters emphasized benefits such as: the resulting expansion of aircraft that can be flown by sport pilots; the resulting appeal of these aircraft to other pilots for recreation, training, and personal transportation; and the availability of safer, more viable, and more versatile aircraft to sport pilots (including the inclusion of legacy aircraft).</P>
                    <P>
                        While most commenters supported increasing the seating capacity for airplanes sport pilots would be permitted to operate, a few commenters, including Air Line Pilots Association, International (ALPA), opposed increasing seating capacity, suggesting that (1) sport pilots may not have sufficient training, (2) the increased seating capacity would tempt sport pilots to violate the single passenger limitation,
                        <SU>74</SU>
                         and (3) the expansion will allow heavier airplanes, which will reduce the safety benefits of aircraft sport pilots are permitted to operate. ALPA further explained that instead of pilots abandoning the use of homebuilt aircraft, it is more likely that a significant group of pilots will migrate from using normal category aircraft to lower-cost, light-sport category aircraft, which are lower on the FAA safety continuum.
                    </P>
                    <P>Permitting sport pilots to operate airplanes with up to four seats is consistent with FAA's safety continuum risk assessment. Sport pilots will continue to be limited to carrying only one passenger, and the increased seating capacity will not substantially increase the weight of the airplane such that sport pilots will be unable to operate the airplane safely with four seats, as compared to two. Because the performance and handling characteristics of the airplane would not substantially change from two to four seats, FAA maintains that the skill needed to operate either airplane is generally similar, such as proficiencies for normal takeoffs and landings or avoiding stalls. Though some pilots may migrate from normal category aircraft to lower-cost, light-sport category aircraft, FAA anticipates, and many commenters agree, that the rulemaking will instead allow existing production aircraft that are readily available and meet an aircraft certification standard to be operated with sport pilot privileges. Since many normal category aircraft are readily available to pilots and eligible for sport pilot operations under this rule, FAA anticipates the greater capabilities of these normal category aircraft will continue to attract pilots, even when compared to lower-cost but less capable light-sport category aircraft. FAA notes this was one intent of the rulemaking project: expanding eligibility for aircraft certification, airmen certifications, and related operating privileges of light-sport category aircraft. This rulemaking will provide access to safer aircraft, such as aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates, as an alternative for sport pilots via the performance and design limitations in new § 61.316 compared to the use of aircraft with an experimental airworthiness certificate that do not meet any standard for aircraft certification.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, while FAA appreciates ALPA's concern that expanding the available seats in an aircraft may tempt a pilot to carry more than one passenger, pilots are required to comply with regulations. Any operation intentionally contrary to the requirements will result in enforcement action. This rulemaking will retain the one-passenger limitation as a regulatory limitation and legal deterrent from such a temptation. Should a pilot violate the regulation, the pilot would be subject to an enforcement action, which may include a certificate action, informal procedures, or both.
                        <SU>75</SU>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Increase Passenger Occupancy</HD>
                    <P>FAA received many comments opposing the retention of the one-passenger occupancy limitation and recommending FAA permit sport pilots to carry more than one passenger in an airplane. Several commenters, including ALPA, supported retaining the one-passenger limit for sport pilots operating an airplane with up to four seats. Some commenters emphasized safety concerns such as loss of life associated with allowing sport pilots to carry more than one passenger. A few commenters urged FAA to continue to require a pilot to have a higher-grade certificate, such as a private pilot, or have higher medical standards, such as a third-class medical or meet the BasicMed standards, to carry more than one passenger.</P>
                    <P>
                        Other commenters, including EAA, AOPA, NATA, and the NBAA's joint comment, stated as the number of seats increase in aircraft sport pilots can fly, the number of passengers allowed should also increase. Many commenters, including Doroni Aerospace and 3F Consortium, recommended facilitating an additional passenger allowance by requiring additional training, instructor endorsements, or both. Conversely, some commenters stated allowing 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35091"/>
                        additional passengers would not require any additional pilot skills or comprise safety concerns consistent with FAA's analysis of the light sport category aircraft safety record. Several commenters drew comparisons to the operation of motor vehicles, which do not have a limit on the number of passengers. Other commenters referenced similar accident fatality rates for existing sport pilots compared to private pilots. These commenters emphasized a lack of data supporting the position that more than one passenger increases accident risk and rate in support of additional passengers, thereby increasing the sport pilot certificate utility (including through cost sharing) and enhancing the aviation experience. Several commenters suggested increasing passenger allowance for recreational flying or instructional flying, or limiting additional passengers to friends and family, flight training, and flight school rental.
                    </P>
                    <P>Some commenters recommended increasing the passenger limitation with contingencies or additional requirements, such as aircraft safety equipment; weight and balance limitations; third-class airman medical certificate or BasicMed medical qualifications; minimum experience requirements to carry additional passengers, such as model-specific experience or minimum hours of flight time or PIC time; possession of a sport pilot certificate for at least six months; training and an endorsement from an authorized instructor in the specific make and model used; or some combination of these requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        While FAA understands the commenters' suggestions, FAA does not intend to allow operations carrying additional passengers with the increase in number of available seats with this rulemaking. The increase in allowable seats in airplanes is intended to expand the reliable and stable airplanes that may safely be operated using sport pilot privileges, thereby providing more options available to sport pilots. To be clear, this change is about improving safety by making more reliable and stable aircraft available to sport pilot certificate holders. However, FAA did not propose changes to the airman requirements to justify changing the number of passengers permitted. Sport pilot certificates have a lower aeronautical experience requirement and allow an airman to exercise sport pilot privileges without holding an FAA medical certificate issued under part 67 or BasicMed under part 68. Based on these requirements, FAA previously determined the risk profile supports sport pilots carrying only one passenger.
                        <SU>76</SU>
                         In the absence of changes to those requirements, FAA does not support expanding sport pilot privileges to include additional passengers.
                    </P>
                    <P>Further, FAA does not find the basis that a driver's license does not have a passenger limitation to be a synonymous situation justifying a passenger privilege expansion herein. Operating an aircraft is a significantly unique and demanding operation compared to operating a motor vehicle that is reflected by the numerous experience, training, testing, and regulatory pilot certification requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">iii. Applicability of Airplane Four-Seat Expansion to Other Classes of Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>
                        Many commenters, including Safari Helicopter, SilverLight Aviation, LLC (SilverLight), Skyryse, AIR VEV, Vertical Aviation Technologies, Inc., and Orlando Helicopter Airways, Inc. recommended providing the same four-seat allowance for the new sport pilot privilege to operate helicopters with simplified flight controls or helicopters with conventional controls.
                        <SU>77</SU>
                         Commenters asserted that there are few, if any, differences between two-seat helicopters, which sport pilots will be permitted to operate under this rulemaking, and four seat helicopters. SilverLight suggested that if stall speed is the measure of safety to permit four seats for airplanes, then FAA should consider the same allowance for trikes, gyroplanes, and helicopters, stating no technical reason why a four-seat airplane with a stall speed of 54 knots is safer than a gyroplane with a stall speed of 20 knots or lower. AIR VEV recommended the seat limitation for other classes of aircraft be prescribed in FAA-accepted consensus standards, which could initially limit rotorcraft and powered-lift to two seats and then be later modified once the industry and FAA has gained sufficient safety data regarding these types of aircraft. Another commenter recommended specifically increasing weight shift control aircraft seating capacity to three persons, but did not provide reasoning as to why three seats in weight shift control aircraft maintained safety.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA disagrees with permitting sport pilots to operate four-seat helicopters or any other category and class of aircraft with four seats, except for airplanes. The airplane maximum V
                        <E T="52">s1</E>
                         stalling speed is not the only consideration for the seating capacity of an aircraft that a sport pilot is permitted to operate. As explained in the NPRM, because of weight and balance challenges due to unusual or expanded seating configurations and limited experience and safety data available, including when operating helicopters with simplified flight controls, FAA did not find it appropriate to propose additional seating capacity for the other aircraft category and classes and maintains this position. Because this final rule facilitates a new class of aircraft that sport pilots can operate, FAA does not have sufficient data available at this time to support a commensurate seating expansion for sport pilots to operate four-seat helicopters. Should helicopter manufacturers develop and certify future simplified flight controls designs for four-seat helicopters that satisfy § 61.316 design and performance limitations, they may be further assessed and considered in future rulemaking proposals. In other words, this rulemaking does not categorically foreclose the possibility of expanding seating capacity in the future; rather, FAA is taking a measured approach to expansion before implementing the same changes to a new class of aircraft that sport pilots may fly (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         helicopters with simplified flight controls).
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, FAA did not consider increasing the seating capacity for the other category and classes of aircraft in the NPRM. FAA proposed to allow sport pilots to operate four-seat airplanes because FAA determined that the skill necessary to operate two-seat airplanes, compared to four seat airplanes, does not appreciably differ due to the similarity in design, weight, and operational capabilities, whereas the required skills increase due to substantive differences in design, weight, and operational capabilities of other aircraft categories and classes, such as gliders and powered parachutes. That determination did not extend to the other categories or classes of aircraft, and expansion of seating capacity in those other categories and classes of aircraft is outside the scope of this final rule. Further, expansion of seating capacity (other than airplanes) would conflict with FAA safety continuum concept. FAA asserts that if an individual wishes to operate aircraft other than airplanes with a greater number of seats, they will need to obtain a higher grade of pilot certificate.</P>
                    <P>
                        Further, FAA does not find consensus standards to be the appropriate avenue to set forth the performance limits and design requirements for aircraft that a sport pilot may operate. As discussed in the NPRM, currently § 1.1 provides a definition for “consensus standard;” however, this final rule removes the definition of a consensus standard.
                        <SU>78</SU>
                         Consensus standards have traditionally been used, for example, for the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35092"/>
                        airworthiness certification of light-sport category aircraft to comply with certain performance based standards for the certification of airplanes and as a means of compliance for the operation of unmanned aircraft systems (UAS) over people under part 107. Conversely, consensus standards are not utilized for pilot certification because they contain large amounts of inapplicable and extraneous information for the pilot certification process. Rather, § 61.316 will set forth the minimum performance limits and design requirements commensurate to the sport pilot training, which will include the maximum seating capacity for an aircraft a sport pilot can operate.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">iv. Pilots With a Higher Grade of Certificate</HD>
                    <P>Some commenters recommended FAA allow pilots with a higher grade of pilot certificate, such as private pilot or higher, to carry up to three passengers when exercising sport pilot privileges. These commenters reasoned that because these pilots hold a higher-grade certificate and are only exercising sport pilot privileges, these pilots have the experience necessary to carry more passengers safely.</P>
                    <P>Pilots who possess a higher grade of pilot certificate but are exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate do so because they have decided to exercise only the privileges associated with that lower grade of pilot certificate. Often, the pilot cannot meet medical or other minimum airman qualification requirements associated with the higher grade of pilot certificate they currently possess, thereby increasing risk to the general public and the NAS if they were permitted to carry additional passengers. Therefore, FAA does not find a compelling reason to broadly permit persons choosing to exercise the privileges of a sport pilot certificate to carry more than one passenger solely on the basis of holding a higher-grade certificate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">v. Seating Configuration</HD>
                    <P>Several commenters stated FAA should consider aircraft with four seats as qualifying at the time of the flight rather than the number of seats since its original certification, which would further increase the number of aircraft that a sport pilot could operate. These commenters specifically refer to the proposal in § 61.316(a), which tethers the performance limits and design requirements for aircraft a sport pilot may operate to those aircraft possessing the provided characteristics since its original certificate.</P>
                    <P>
                        First, FAA notes the expansion of the stall speed addresses commenters' primary concern to increase the number of aircraft sport pilots may operate. In addition, FAA maintains the limitation of “since its original certification” in § 61.316(a) as necessary to ensure airplane seating capacity is determined at the time of certification rather than at the time of flight (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         removing seats from aircraft with more than four seats to fit the four-seat restriction that will be adopted within § 61.316)). Airplanes with more than four seats are traditionally heavier and characterized by more complex operating characteristics. Removing seats merely changes the number of persons that may be seated in the airplane but does not substantially impact the performance characteristics associated with heavier, more complex airplanes. Rather, the change could actually complicate handling characteristics of the airplane (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         weight and balance considerations). For example, if FAA were to remove the original certification requirement, airplane owners could remove seats from larger airplanes, such as a Piper PA-32 or Cessna C-206, that is not intended for sport pilot use. These airplanes were originally certificated with a seating capacity of more than four seats; however simply removing seats would not change the original design and performance of those aircraft, of which are not encapsulated by the sport pilots training and testing regime.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA maintains that if an individual wishes to carry more passengers, they may obtain a higher grade than a recreational pilot certificate that addresses that increased risk by accomplishing the appropriate training, qualifications, and testing for the privilege to carry additional passengers, such as a private pilot certificate. Section IV.H.g of this preamble further discusses additional comments regarding original certification.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Directional Control and Controlled Descent of Powered Aircraft Stall Speed</HD>
                    <P>
                        Currently, the light-sport aircraft definition set forth in § 1.1 does not expressly require an aircraft to have the capability to maintain directional control and a controlled descent in the event of a powerplant failure. As discussed in the NPRM,
                        <SU>79</SU>
                         there was no safety of flight issue in this omission because the requirement was inherent in airplane manufacture design and the light-sport aircraft definition excluded helicopters and powered-lift, which are aircraft that are not inherently characterized to have the ability to maintain directional control and a controlled descent in the event of a powerplant failure. Proposed § 61.316(a)(7) included a requirement that sport pilots may only operate aircraft in which the directional control of the aircraft would not be adversely affected by the loss of partial power, and the aircraft design must allow the pilot the capability of establishing a controlled descent in the event of a partial or total powerplant failure (excluding airships and balloons). While FAA received several comments on this provision, FAA continues to find that the requirement for aircraft to have the capability to maintain directional control and controlled descent in the event of a partial or complete powerplant failure is necessary to mitigate unacceptable risk to other aircraft operations in the NAS, persons in those aircraft, and persons or property on the ground, as subsequently discussed. Therefore, this final rule adopts the content in proposed § 61.316(a)(7) as § 61.316(a)(5) due to renumbering in that section.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA received seven comments specific to the proposed loss of power and controlled descent requirement as proposed. While some commenters, including ALPA, supported the proposal, other commenters opposed the new controlled descent requirement. AIR VEV expressed concern that the proposed requirements could be interpreted in several ways because the term “controlled descent” is not defined. AIR VEV suggested adding modifiers such as “safe” or “slow” before “controlled descent.” AIR VEV explained they believe FAA's interpretation of controlled descents after a power loss involves gliding, helicopter auto-rotation, or using a ballistic parachute, which they state are safer than the proposed language of maintaining directional control and a controlled descent. AIR VEV also suggested proposed § 61.316(a)(7) (adopted herein as paragraph (a)(5)) be revised to require the aircraft design to enable the pilot the capability to establish a controlled safe descent in the event of a partial or total powerplant failure.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA does not find it necessary or appropriate to define the term “controlled descent.” “Controlled descent” is a foundational principle of flight. In aviation, the term is commonly understood to mean the process of safely and deliberately reducing altitude. Defining the term could have unintended consequences that place restrictions on how pilots safely land their aircraft. Weather, terrain, aircraft characteristics, and other factors may all influence how a pilot conducts a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35093"/>
                        controlled descent, making a single definition impractical. Accordingly, FAA determined that the pilot is in the best position to determine how to safely and deliberately reduce altitude without being constrained by a definition. AIR VEV's reference to scenarios like gliding, auto-rotating, or using a ballistic parachute would constitute operational regimes that will meet the requirement for a powered aircraft to be capable of a controlled descent in the event of a partial or total power failure under new § 61.316(a)(5).
                    </P>
                    <P>USUA recommended the directional control and controlled descent requirements be revised to only apply to helicopters and powered-lift because the previous light sport aircraft definition in § 1.1 did not require a light-sport aircraft to have the capability to maintain directional control and controlled descent in the event of a powerplant failure. USUA stated expanding the requirements to all categories of aircraft would be a detriment to safety and dilute resources that could be used for relevant design and testing issues.</P>
                    <P>First, FAA did not extend powered-lift privileges to sport pilots in this rulemaking because of the complexity of those operations and the ongoing development of that new technology. If powered-lift are certificated under parts 21 or 23, individuals can seek a powered-lift category rating at the private pilot certificate level; therefore, FAA finds it unnecessary to add an explicit application to powered-lift in § 61.316(a)(5), as USUA suggests, at this time. Further, this final rule does not revise § 61.316(a)(5) to exclusively apply to helicopters because the increased risk associated with partial or complete powerplant failure is applicable to all categories of aircraft under the expanded parameters of aircraft that sport pilots may operate. In the NPRM, FAA stated the omission of the explicit requirement for directional control and a controlled descent in the event of powerplant failure did not present a safety concern since it was inherent in airplane manufacture and design under the light-sport category aircraft definition. However, given the expanded performance limits and design requirements for aircraft that a sport pilot may operate and the other types of powered aircraft adopted in this final rule that may not have these inherent safeguards in place like airplanes, FAA finds it necessary to explicitly require these characteristics for all aircraft for sport pilots to operate (excluding ballons or airships). FAA did not receive any data or supporting evidence to indicate consideration of these capabilities will dilute resources for aircraft manufacturers or testing activities, especially where most aircraft sport pilots operate are airplanes (where, as previously stated, these characteristics are inherently present).</P>
                    <P>GAMA recommended FAA clarify if the intent of the rule proposal is for single, partial, or all powerplants regarding complete or partial loss. New § 61.316(a)(5) utilizes the term “partial” when describing the threshold of loss of power; “partial” loss means any degree of powerplant failure that would result in incomplete power, which could occur in only one powerplant, limiting an aircraft's ability to maintain altitude and be forced into a descent configuration.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Stall Speed Limit</HD>
                    <P>
                        The current § 1.1 light-sport aircraft definition limits the maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stall speed for light-sport fixed-wing aircraft to 45 knots CAS at the aircraft's MTOW and most critical center of gravity. FAA's proposal retained the 45 knots CAS maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         for other fixed-wing aircraft but proposed to increase the maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         for airplanes. Specifically, in § 61.316(a)(1), FAA proposed that if a pilot holds a sport pilot certificate, they may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft (except for an airplane) that, since its original certification has a maximum stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed without the use of lift-enhancing devices (V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                        ) of not more than 45 knots CAS except for airplanes. As proposed, airplanes would be required to have a V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         speed of not more than 54 knots CAS at the aircraft's maximum certificated takeoff weight and most critical center of gravity. FAA received many comments (approximately 485) regarding the proposed maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stall speed parameters for aircraft that sport pilots may operate. Many of these comments were in favor of an increase in V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        During review of the public comments, FAA found that the 54 knots limitation excluded some existing type-certificated airplanes that readily fit into a set of aircraft,
                        <SU>80</SU>
                         including one- to four-seat production airplanes, and may be operated by sport pilots given the training and certification requirements of a sport pilot certificate. While different makes of airplanes generally have different stalling speeds, the results of FAA analysis for pilot operations failed to find a correlation between increased fatality rates to a specific manufacturer of type-certificated production airplanes with higher V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speeds. Moreover, the results of the analysis did not show substantive differences among fatal accident rates related to pilot loss-of-control (LOC) for the makes of airplane considered in the analysis.
                        <SU>81</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Given the similar performance of existing type-certificated aircraft with V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speeds of 59 knots CAS or less, FAA finds that increasing the maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed to 59 knots CAS will permit the inclusion of many similar production two- and four-seat airplanes, while continuing to appropriately limit the size, weight, and speed of airplanes sport pilots may operate given the training and certification framework for sport pilots. FAA did not propose to change the aeronautical experience requirements for a sport pilot certificate with airplane category and single-engine land or sea class privileges. These longstanding training requirements would not sufficiently prepare sport pilot applicants to operate airplanes that have a stalling speed greater than 59 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                        , which tend to be heavier, faster, and more complex. Furthermore, it was not the intent of the 2004 final rule nor this final rule to expand sport pilot privileges to operate aircraft with those more demanding characteristics.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA did not retain the direct weight limit for airplanes sport pilots may operate (as currently promulgated in the § 1.1 definition of light-sport aircraft) because some of these airplanes may meet the design limitations in § 61.316 (including the 59 knot CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed), thereby constituting an aircraft within the sport pilot training and proficiency framework, but are slightly heavier due to having more robust airframes or safety features. Removing a prescriptive weight limit will encourage safety-enhancing features on more airplanes that were previously precluded from sport pilot operation solely due to the weight of the airplane. As technology and innovative designs advance, FAA finds design and performance limitations, such as stalling speed, are a more effective method of limiting airplanes that sport pilots can operate. The increase in the maximum stalling speed limit will also facilitate the use of more airplanes with a standard airworthiness certificate, which provides for increased load factor resilience, improved cabin crash safety, more durable landing gears, and greater fuel capacity while still retaining very similar operating characteristics.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Therefore, in § 61.316(a)(1) this final rule retains the proposed V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS maximum stall speed of 45 knots CAS for all aircraft except airplanes; the maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS stalling speed limit for airplanes that a sport pilot is permitted to operate will be 59 knots. The subsequent sections respond to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35094"/>
                        comments received regarding FAA's stall speed proposal.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Comments Supporting an Increase to the Maximum VS1 Speed</HD>
                    <P>
                        Eleven associations, four manufacturers, and 333 individuals submitted comments generally supporting the proposal to increase the maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed limitation. EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA's consolidated comment broadly supported the rule but recommended increasing the proposed maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         speed of 54 to 58 knots to be more inclusive of FAA's targeted aircraft size. The joint comment stated, with the removal of the weight limitation, the proposed 54 knot stalling speed limit is too restrictive and that a higher V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed enables a higher V
                        <E T="52">A</E>
                         
                        <SU>82</SU>
                         maneuvering speed, which facilitates improved structural limits, handling, and safety during turbulence and gusty conditions. Commenters generally explained that, by increasing maximum stalling speed to qualify airplanes for sport pilot use, FAA would provide a more inclusive and targeted group of aircraft and capture a broader range of make and model airplanes with very similar performance and flight characteristics. Van's Aircraft and Piper Aircraft also suggested increasing the stalling speed to a minimum of 58 knots CAS to allow more legacy aircraft and questioned how FAA decided on the proposed V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         54 knots CAS limitation. Similarly, ALPA, AEA and ARSA, and 333 individual commenters supported increasing the maximum stalling speed and recommended increasing the maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed to various speeds, generally ranging from 54 knots (as proposed) to 70 knots. Commenters stated an increased maximum stalling speed would permit the use of more existing, legacy, or vintage training airplanes, including airplanes issued an experimental airworthiness certificate and kit planes, to ultimately increase the number of new pilots and could facilitate carriage of supplies.
                    </P>
                    <P>GAMA supported the proposed increase in the size, performance, and scope of aircraft that can be flown by sport pilots and recommended increasing the maximum stalling speed to 58 knots CAS to capture a broader range of specific airplane makes and models with very similar flight characteristics, such as the Piper Archer model, which has a stalling speed just above 57 knots. GAMA also stated the suggested maximum 58 knot stalling speed remains below that of the primary category aircraft certification allowance, which is 61 knots, and is consistent with FAA's safety continuum.</P>
                    <P>
                        Many commenters explained that the proposed 54 knot maximum stalling speed appears arbitrary and would exclude many production aircraft even though many of these aircraft have an excellent or proven safety record. Several comments opined that the current proposed V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS maximum stalling speed of 54 knots favors Cessna production airplanes and unduly prohibits the use of many Piper production airplanes by sport pilots, which a few commenters contend are easier to fly than some Cessna airplanes. When discussing which airplanes would be permitted to be operated by sport pilots due to increasing the stalling speed limitation, commenters referenced airplane manufacturers such as Cessna, Piper, Diamond, Beechcraft, Grumman, Vans, Stinson, Mooney, Cirrus, and Kodiak. Many commenters stated increasing the stalling speed a small amount would keep the maximum weight for these airplanes far below the expected 3,000-pound weight referenced in the NPRM. Some explained that the handling characteristics between various legacy airplanes are marginally different, and a further increase would not adversely affect aviation safety.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed at the beginning of this section, FAA agrees with the commenters that the proposed maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS stalling speed of 54 knots is limiting and concurs with an increase in V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         speed for the reasons provided. FAA has determined that a V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed of 59 knots permits the inclusion of many similar production two- and four-seat airplanes, and appropriately limits the size, weight, and speed of airplanes sport pilots may operate based upon the training and certification framework for sport pilots. Though commenters suggested stalling speeds up to 70 knots, as previously explained, the training requirements for a sports pilot certificate would not sufficiently prepare sport pilot applicants to operate airplanes that have a stalling speed greater than 59 knots V
                        <E T="52">S1,</E>
                         as these aircraft tend to be heavier, faster, and more complex, thereby necessitating a higher degree of training and proficiency validation.
                    </P>
                    <P>NAFI generally supported the proposed rule but had concerns regarding the clarity of the rule and possible misinterpretation. For example, it commented that the regulation states the stalling speed should be based on the “aircraft's maximum certificated takeoff weight and most critical center of gravity.” It described that a late model Cessna 182 has a stalling speed of 54 knots CAS at its most rearward loading and a stalling speed of 56 knots CAS at its most forward loading. Since stability is reduced as the center of gravity moves rearward, NAFI's assumption is that the Cessna 182 qualifies as an aircraft a sport pilot would be able to operate under the new rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        NAFI is correct that the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS must be determined at the aircraft's maximum certificated takeoff weight and most critical center of gravity. However, FAA does not find this language to be unclear because the language gives the specific parameter where the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS would be determined. While FAA acknowledges the reduction in airplane stability as the center of gravity of the airplane moves rearward, FAA recommends consulting the aircraft's manual to determine the stalling speed limit. If the stalling speed limit in the airplane's manual is higher than the adopted regulatory limit of 59 knots V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         in any configuration, a sport pilot is not permitted to operate that airplane. In response to the aircraft in NAFI's specific scenario, the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS would be the higher 56 knot CAS, as this is the most critical center of gravity. If the aircraft's manual does not have a published V
                        <E T="52">S1,</E>
                         FAA maintains published guidance with FAA-accepted methods for determining and documenting the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS for an airplane in AC 90-89C, Amateur-Built Aircraft and Ultralight Flight Testing Handbook, including a method to determine CAS by conducting flight tests.
                    </P>
                    <P>While AOPA, EAA, NATA, and NBAA recommended FAA increase stall speed to 61 knots CAS, they also urged FAA to consider a higher maximum stalling speed with the mitigation of installed safety-enhancing equipment. Some individual commenters suggested other limitations, such as a 180- or 200-horsepower powerplant limit or imposing a 3,000-pound weight restriction for light-sport category aircraft, while also permitting the installation of modern safety systems on new light-sport category aircraft and allowing four-seat configurations. Other commenters suggested permitting sport pilots to operate airplanes that publish a qualifying stalling speed in the utility category or permit them to operate an airplane that is re-certified using a new lower gross weight to qualify.</P>
                    <P>
                        Installing safety-enhancing equipment in lieu of a stall speed limitation for aircraft a sport pilot can operate is not a suitable alternative because it would not effectively limit the weight and performance characteristics of aircraft a sport pilot may operate. This final rule permits safety-enhancing equipment to be installed and used as long as the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35095"/>
                        aircraft's Vs
                        <E T="52">1</E>
                         CAS will not exceed the limits prescribed in § 61.316(a)(1) at the time of its original certification. In some instances, installing safety-enhancing equipment would increase weight; however, the stalling speed limitation effectively limits the weight of aircraft that sport pilots will be permitted to operate without providing further prescriptive parameters (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a weight limit). In addition, FAA did not propose a powerplant horsepower limitation because it would be too prescriptive, unnecessarily restrict performance, and would not effectively limit the weight of aircraft used by sport pilots; even with a horsepower limitation the maximum gross weight of the aircraft would still be variable.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        ii. Comments Opposing an Increase to the Maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         Speed  
                    </HD>
                    <P>ALPA opposed increasing the maximum stalling speed limit for airplanes that sport pilots may operate and recommended retaining the 45-knot stalling speed limit for airplanes. ALPA stated the expanded light-sport aircraft category may entice some pilots to purchase a light-sport category aircraft instead of buying or using homebuilt aircraft. They further asserted it is likely that a significant group of pilots will migrate away from normal category aircraft or the use of private pilot privileges and move to the lower-cost light-sport category aircraft, which is lower in FAA safety continuum. ALPA stated it is not clear FAA evaluated the impacts on NAS safety under this rule proposal.</P>
                    <P>Since 2005, many pilots have already moved toward the use of light-sport category aircraft as less expensive options when conducting general aviation flight operations in the NAS. While ALPA suggested that pilots may be motivated to buy and fly more aircraft that are certificated under the light-sport category and provide a higher certification standard aircraft for light-sport category aircraft pilots to operate in the NAS, FAA's current and adopted framework intends to safely facilitate a variety of aircraft to be available to pilots and does not find a reasonable basis to restrict groups of less costly aircraft via this final rule. FAA explained earlier that other amendments to the rules would improve safety more broadly within general aviation (GA) by making light-sport category aircraft a more appealing alternative to experimental aircraft that have higher fatal accident rates.</P>
                    <P>Instead, broadening the design and performance criteria of aircraft that a sport pilot may operate will allow sport pilots to operate many normal category general aviation aircraft, allowing greater choice and flexibility without incentivizing a particular aircraft certification category.</P>
                    <P>
                        AEA and ARSA submitted a joint comment generally supporting the proposed revisions to the sport pilot design and performance limitations; however, AEA and ARSA stated the new V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         limitation as written duplicates regulatory changes made by FAA three decades ago, referencing the Primary Category Final Rule.
                        <SU>83</SU>
                         These associations acknowledged that the primary category predated the development of industry-led aviation consensus standards and, as such, asserted the primary category has not been utilized for its intended purpose. AEA and ARSA also stated FAA previously supported 61 knots CAS in the Primary Category Rule as an acceptable level of single-engine airplane performance for safe operation by general aviation pilots but now FAA has proposed a different stalling speed without justification.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA disagrees that the new V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed limitation in the MOSAIC final rule duplicates the regulations provided by the Primary Category Final Rule. The Primary Category Final Rule established procedures in part 21 for type, production, airworthiness certification, and associated maintenance procedures for primary category aircraft, which specified a 61 knot or less V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         stalling speed limitation (as opposed to V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                        ) for airplanes. When the Primary Category Final Rule was published in 1992, the sport pilot certificate and the certification of light-sport category aircraft under § 21.190 using consensus standards qualification had not yet been proposed or codified. This final rule intentionally separates aircraft certification requirements from pilot certification requirements, as the established 61 knot V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         stalling speed limitation for the certification of primary category aircraft is a distinctly separate issue from the sport pilot aircraft limitation requirements of § 61.316. The former establishes aircraft certification requirements while the latter sets pilot operational requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Furthermore, the Primary Category Final Rule adopted a V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         stalling speed limitation of 61 knots or less, whereas this rule adopts a V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed limitation of 59 knots or less. As discussed later in this final rule, due to the inherent aircraft configuration differences, V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         stalling speed will generally be lower than V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         for any given airplane. As such, this final rule is not duplicative of the Primary Category Final Rule because the aircraft the Primary Category Final Rule authorized to be operated with a V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         of 61 knots or less would have a significantly higher V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed than the 59 knots V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         that is applicable to the airplanes that this final rule authorizes sport pilots to operate. FAA notes that sports pilots will be able to operate primary category aircraft so long as the limitations set forth in § 61.316(a) are met. Therefore, FAA does not agree that the MOSAIC final rule duplicates or contradicts the Primary Category Final Rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        iii. Comments Specific To Using V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         Instead of V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         as the Maximum Stalling Speed Limitation
                    </HD>
                    <P>
                        One hundred and two commenters suggested FAA consider using the published V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         stalling speed instead of the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed, ranging from 61 knots to 65 knots. Commenters stated V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         as the stalling speed would allow more certificated airplanes to qualify for sport pilot use. Commenters asserted the proposed V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         limitation of 54 knots would be too low, excluding many existing airplanes, and stated the stalling speed in the landing configuration is more relevant when determining what airplanes are appropriate for a sport pilot to operate. Many commenters asserted the majority of fatal accidents occur in the landing phase (V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                        , flaps deployed configuration) of flight operations. Referencing the sport pilot landing accident statistics provided in the NPRM, one commenter asserted that most students and owners do not consider V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         as a basis for stalling characteristics or behavior related to V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters stated using V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         gives credit to aircraft designs that incorporate flaps or other high-lift devices satisfies the goal of allowing sport pilots to fly aircraft with slower approach and landing speeds, is closer to historical general aviation airplanes, enables stall-reducing devices like vortex generators to lower the stalling speed and permits more four-seat airplanes to qualify. One commenter recommended including airplanes without pilot-controlled flaps or lift-enhancing devices to satisfy the requirement specified by § 61.316(a)(1).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA identified NTSB accident data 
                        <SU>84</SU>
                         that shows there were more fatalities in the departure phase (takeoff and initial climb, V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         no flaps configuration) than in the arrival phase (approach and landing, V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                        , flaps configuration). NTSB states that takeoff begins at the application of takeoff power and the initial climb ends upon reaching enroute (cruise) altitude and the landing 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35096"/>
                        phase begins at flare and ends when the aircraft comes to a stop or exits the runway. Given the accident data from the NTSB and that departure for most light sport aircraft occurs in a V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         configuration, FAA has determined that using V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         maximum stalling speed limitation is more appropriate for indirectly limiting what aircraft sports pilots can operate because more fatalities occur in the departure phase (V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         configuration).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA notes that, due to the inherent aircraft configuration differences, V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         stalling speed will generally be lower than V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         for any given airplane. This final rule revises the existing maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS stalling speed to 59 knots to indirectly limit cruise speed and other performance characteristics of airplanes that a sport pilot can operate, whereas use of the V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         maximum stalling speed of 61 knots, at a minimum, would then substantially increase the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed and further expand the performance characteristics of these airplanes. In turn, this would inappropriately permit sport pilots to operate larger, faster, and more complex airplanes outside the scope of their minimal training and experience requirements that a sport pilot receives. Further, V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         can vary from V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed due to lift enhancing devices, such as flaps and slats, to lower the V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         regardless of the size and weight of the airplane. FAA also recognizes that many aircraft are equipped with lift enhancing devices. Therefore, this final rule does not exclude airplanes with pilot-controlled flaps or lift-enhancing devices, as long the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS is 59 knots at the aircraft's MTOW and most critical center of gravity without those lift-enhancing devices (as explicitly stated in adopted § 61.316(a)(1)). Existing airplanes universally have a lower stalling speed when deploying flaps and other lift-enhancing devices used during the approach and landing phase of flight and are otherwise in the V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         landing configuration. In many instances, the V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         stalling speed can range from 5 to 13 knots (or more) lower than the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed in general aviation two or four-seat airplanes, but there is no direct and universal correlation between V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         and V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         such that controlling for V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         would definitively and appropriately standardize V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         based on a sport pilot's expected proficiency. Using V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS will more effectively limit airplane performance characteristics to the training and skills expected of a sport pilot rather than a maximum V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         stalling speed limitation of 61 knots, as suggested by commenters, which would permit airplanes with greater overall performance characteristics, thereby necessitating a greater level of pilot training and proficiency validation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As a result, FAA has determined that using V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         maximum stalling speed limitation is more appropriate to limit the aircraft available to sport pilots based on the performance characteristics appropriate for the minimum experience and training required of a sport pilot, which is significantly less than that of a private pilot. A sport pilot certificate allows a pilot to fly smaller, lighter aircraft with fewer training hours and medical requirements, making it a more accessible and affordable option for recreational flying. However, airplanes with a higher V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stall speed are larger and have performance characteristics that are more appropriate for the private pilot certificate, ratings, and privileges.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As previously discussed, FAA recognizes that V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed of 54 knots would have excluded many basic two- and four-seat legacy/type certificated airplane trainers. The increased V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         of 59 knots, which will encapsulate more legacy and type certificated airplane trainers, will address many of the concerns of those individuals who provided comments specifically recommending the use of the V
                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                         stalling speed as the maximum stalling speed limitation for airplanes as a mechanism to expand the pool of aircraft sport pilots would be able to operate.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">iv. Comments Recommending Additional Training and Endorsement Options</HD>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters recommended allowing sport pilots to obtain additional training and a subsequent instructor endorsement to permit sport pilots to operate airplanes with a V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed that exceeds 54 knots. As previously discussed, this final rule will raise the maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed from 54 to 59 knots, facilitating sport pilots to safely operate airplanes with similar performance and size characteristics common to two- and four-seat general aviation production airplanes. Therefore, it is unnecessary to adopt a specific training and endorsement regime for sport pilots to operate airplanes with a stalling speed greater than 54 knots.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        v. Comments Recommending That Indicated Speed or Indicated V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         Stalling Speed Be Used Instead of Calibrated Speed as the Stalling Speed Limitation
                    </HD>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters suggested using IAS instead of CAS to specify the maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed limitation to qualify airplanes a sport pilot can operate. One commenter explained the majority of EAB aircraft owners do not determine calibrated stalling speeds because of the cost and complexity of flight testing and the lack of a requirement to do so, which in turn results in the exclusion of a large number of aircraft. Other commenters stated the stalling limit should reference IAS because of (1) its common use, (2) the necessity of referencing the POH table to determine CAS, and (3) the use of lifting devices to provide a mechanism to include older aircraft that do not publish CAS data. Other commenters explained that using V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS as the stalling limitation is problematic because many older aircraft do not publish the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS or fail to provide an airspeed calibration conversion. These commenters recommended allowing indicated V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed to qualify airplanes that do not publish the CAS stalling speed.  
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA disagrees with using IAS instead of CAS to specify the maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed value to qualify airplanes for sport pilot use, as IAS is not a true measure of the airplane's actual performance. Unlike CAS, IAS is not corrected for instrument and position errors, at times presenting errors up to 5 knots, affecting the aircraft's eligibility for sport pilot operations.
                        <SU>85</SU>
                         Thus, CAS is more precise and reliable for use in determining an aircraft's eligibility for sport pilot operations. In response to commenters noting that V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS is not always determined or published, FAA maintains published guidance with FAA-accepted methods for determining and documenting the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS for an airplane in Advisory Circular 90-89C, Amateur-Built Aircraft and Ultralight Flight Testing Handbook, including a method to determine CAS by conducting flight tests.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        vi. Comments Recommending FAA Permit Airplane Alterations To Lower the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         Stalling Speed To Qualify Airplanes for Sport Pilot Use
                    </HD>
                    <P>
                        Sixteen commenters suggested FAA allow airplane alterations that lower the stalling speed. Six of these commenters recommended permitting aftermarket airplane alterations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         vortex generators, short takeoff and landing kits (STOL), lift-enhancing designs) that lower the stalling speed to qualify for sport pilot operations. Ten commenters noted the proposed rule text, “since its original certification,” in § 61.316(a) will unnecessarily exclude airplanes with aftermarket STOL kit installations or automatically deployed lifting structures, such as automated slats that can reduce the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed below 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35097"/>
                        the proposed stalling speed limit for sport pilots. Another commenter suggested permitting after-market modifications in conjunction with an FAA-approved supplemental type certificate (STC) or through ASTM oversight. One commenter recommended modifying § 61.316(a) to state, “as currently approved.” One commenter sought clarification on how to present an aircraft modification to FAA that lowers the stalling speed to qualify under § 61.316 and prove that an airplane qualifies for sport pilot use. Similarly, one commenter suggested allowing aircraft manufacturers to lower maximum gross weight limit to effectively lower the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         stalling speed for the airplane they produce so they can qualify for sport pilot use.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed previously in the section describing stall speed limit requirements, FAA originally proposed a maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS stalling speed of 54 knots. However, FAA agreed with commenters that this speed was limiting and determined an increase to a V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS stalling speed of 59 knots is appropriate and permits the inclusion of many type-certificated aircraft appropriate to the sport pilot certificate privileges and limitations intended in this rulemaking. Since FAA has already increased the originally proposed V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         limitation and expanded eligible aircraft, FAA disagrees with additionally permitting airplane alterations after original certification that decrease the published V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS stalling speed. Allowing airplanes to meet the new 59 knots CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         requirement through the use of these modifications would inappropriately expand aircraft characteristics beyond those intended for sport pilot operations. These lift-enhancing devices would be considered major alterations because they may appreciably affect the weight, balance, structural strength, performance, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness that could affect the operation of the airplane. Therefore, FAA retains the § 61.316(a) rule text limitation that states “since its original certification.” FAA notes it does not prohibit a manufacturer from submitting a new aircraft certification application to seek an airworthiness certificate designating a new CAS V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         for the aircraft it manufactures. The new aircraft certification would become the “original certification,” for purposes of applying § 61.316.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">vii. Comments on Glider Stalling Speed</HD>
                    <P>
                        As previously stated, FAA did not propose, nor does this final rule revise the maximum stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed without the use of lift-enhancing devices (V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                        ) of not more than 45 knots CAS currently set forth by § 1.1 for aircraft other than airplanes. A few commenters, including a joint comment from Soaring Society of America (SSA) and the Soaring Safety Foundation (SSF), recommended increasing the maximum stalling speed from V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS of 45 knots to 54 knots for gliders a sport pilot can operate, stating the existing speed limitation prevents sport pilots from using modern gliders manufactured with safety cockpits and benign handling characteristics. Sonex Aircraft suggested an increase in the V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         limit would allow the use of modern two-seat gliders for training and may better prepare a sport pilot for the enhanced performance characteristics of modern single-place gliders that fit within the existing 45 knot maximum stalling speed limitation. Sonex Aircraft also stated FAA did not provide data-supported justification for continuing to limit V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         for gliders to 45 knots.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA does not find it appropriate to change the current V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         45 knot maximum stalling speed limitation at this time. Gliders with maximum stalling speed greater than 45 knots generally have more complex performance characteristics, resulting in less stability in flight and longer landing distances, and higher maximum gross weights. Those aircraft currently require a private pilot certificate to ensure the pilot has additional training necessary to safely operate the higher performance aircraft. FAA did not propose to change this requirement and does not have sufficient information on which to base such a change to these training requirements at this time.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Nonetheless, this final rule removes the weight limitation for light sport category aircraft certification and sport pilot use; therefore, glider manufacturers could build modern two-seat gliders that can meet the current Vs
                        <E T="52">1</E>
                         45 knot maximum stalling speed limitation. Given this consideration, and because gliders are inherently lighter than powered aircraft, FAA did not revise the stalling speed limit. Removing the weight limitation enables manufacturers to produce more robust and reliable airframes, including the use of safety features, that still meet the existing glider stalling speed limit while expanding the pool of gliders a sport pilot may operate under this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">viii. Comments on Weight Limitation</HD>
                    <P>
                        As explained in the NPRM 
                        <SU>86</SU>
                         and previously in this preamble, the removal of weight limitation and, instead, application of maximum stalling speed will enable increased aircraft weights while also limiting the performance characteristics of the aircraft operated by sport pilots. ALPA and 17 individuals commented on the removal of the explicit weight limitation. Most comments supported removing the weight limitation for aircraft that a sport pilot can operate. Commenters who supported removal of the explicit weight limitation explained that it will enable sport pilots to access a larger variety of aircraft, facilitate innovation for new aircraft sport pilots can operate, and allow sport pilots to carry additional safety equipment or more fuel. Some commenters provided suggestions under the proposal to provide options for a sport pilot to either meet the 54 knot V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         (or up to a 60 knot V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                        ) limitation or a 3,000 pound maximum.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Given this final rule's increase in maximum stalling speed for airplanes and the removal of the weight limitation for all aircraft, FAA does not find it necessary to regulate based on weight or an option between stall speed and weight to meet the intent of the commenter's suggestion (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         facilitating slower, smaller, and more capable aircraft). The changes set forth in § 61.316 by this final rule will expand and encapsulate appropriate aircraft to address commenters' concerns regarding a narrow pool of aircraft. Commenters requesting to operate airplanes up to 3,000 pounds will find that many certificated airplanes at or above this weight will have V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS stalling speeds below the new 59 knot maximum and may be operated using sport pilot privileges, assuming the airplane meets all other § 61.316 requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        ALPA opposed removing the weight limit. ALPA explained the proposal would authorize the use of significantly heavier and larger aircraft, resulting in decreased safety of light-sport aircraft, and that would include normal category single-engine airplanes. ALPA recommended FAA include explicit weight restrictions in § 61.316 at the current weight restriction provided in § 1.1 (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         1,320 pounds for aircraft not intended for operation on water or 1,430 pounds for aircraft intended for operation on water).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA maintains that allowing greater weight will enable manufacturers to build more robust, resilient, and reliable airframes, thereby contributing to and bolstering safety. Removing the weight limitation for aircraft, in conjunction with the other operational characteristic expansions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         stall speed, seating capacity), will also enable use of many existing production aircraft and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35098"/>
                        airplanes that hold a standard airworthiness certificate. However, FAA notes it is retaining the existing sport pilot privileges and limitations of § 61.315, which will continue to mitigate the risk involved in sport pilot operations even with the expansion in aircraft they are eligible to operate. In addition, weight is just one factor that affects operational characteristics. As discussed elsewhere in this final rule, removing the weight limit provides manufacturers the opportunity to include additional safety features that would otherwise have caused the aircraft to exceed weight limits. Therefore, this final rule does not retain the original weight limitation.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Altitude Limitations</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 61.315 sets forth the privileges and limitations of a sport pilot certificate. This section includes, in pertinent part, that a sport pilot may not act as PIC of a light-sport category aircraft at an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, whichever is higher.
                        <SU>87</SU>
                         FAA did not propose any changes to this sport pilot altitude operating limitation in the NPRM. However, FAA received approximately 50 public comments recommending that sport pilots be permitted to operate at higher altitudes. In addition to general requests for higher operating altitudes, commenters had differing recommendations on how to address the sport pilot altitude limitation specifically. Such recommendations included higher maximum altitudes based on (1) topographical and geographical considerations; (2) supplemental oxygen requirements; (3) training and endorsements; (4) aircraft separation; and (5) unique glider operations.
                    </P>
                    <P>Most commenters suggested increasing the altitude limitation to address topographical and geographical considerations, such as the need for greater terrain clearance in mountainous areas, particularly the western contiguous United States. Specifically, FAA received several altitude suggestions including up to 3,000 feet AGL; up to 4,000 feet AGL in mountainous areas; 10,500 feet MSL for westbound travel; various altitudes between 12,500 feet MSL to 18,000 feet MSL; or the removal of all altitude restrictions.</P>
                    <P>
                        As with many of the individual commenters, EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA in a consolidated comment requested that FAA raise the sport pilot altitude limitation from 10,000 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL to allow for better clearance of mountainous terrain. These industry associations also supported raising the above-ground allowances in prominent mountainous areas. These commenters asserted further that an altitude limit of 12,500 feet MSL would eliminate the need to calculate AGL and would increase safety margins over treacherous areas. One individual described the altitude limitation as unnecessary and arbitrary, making some flights more dangerous by limiting the ability to use flight following and other ATC services and may increase the risk of controlled flight into terrain (CFIT). To allow for greater terrain clearance, many commenters stated 12,500 feet MSL would be a natural delineation and a more reasonable approach since supplemental oxygen is only required above this altitude.
                        <SU>88</SU>
                          
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition to recommending a maximum altitude limitation of 12,500 feet MSL to align with supplemental oxygen rules in § 91.211, several commenters recommended the use of supplemental oxygen. For example, Van's Aircraft suggested the use of oxygen bottles and pulse oximeters for sport pilots to operate up to Class A airspace (18,000 feet MSL) to mitigate risks associated with unintended flight into IMC or CFIT. A couple of commenters contended that aircraft oxygen systems are “simple and easy” to use and make flying safer, allowing pilots to operate at higher altitudes for weather or terrain avoidance.</P>
                    <P>Van's Aircraft also recommended, along with several individual commenters, high-altitude or mountainous terrain training and endorsements for sport pilots to operate above the 10,000 feet MSL limitation. In EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA's shared comment, the associations suggested that additional hypoxia awareness training would reduce the increased risk of hypoxia at higher altitudes. More specifically, a couple of commenters would like sport pilots to participate in hypoxia training, like normobaric hypoxia training devices or portable reduced oxygen training enclosure (PROTE), in order to receive a high-altitude endorsement. A retired flight instructor proposed amending the regulatory language in § 61.315(c)(11) to include ground and flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor for sport pilots to operate up to 18,000 feet MSL.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters expressed concern about aircraft separation, especially in the western region of the U.S., stating that restricting sport pilots to an altitude limitation of 10,000 feet MSL will create traffic conflicts with faster light-sport category aircraft. These commenters also believed that increasing the altitude limitation will safely facilitate more VFR cruising altitudes for mountainous areas. Another commenter stated a higher altitude limitation would afford sport pilots greater visibility to maintain cloud clearances and avoid mid-air collisions.</P>
                    <P>Lastly, two comments were specific to increasing the sport pilot altitude limitation for glider operations. One individual stated glider pilots regularly operate at altitudes above 10,000 feet MSL, especially in the Western United States. Commenters explained that gliders use the potential energy they gain from being at a higher altitude to generate the speed and lift needed for flight. Therefore, the commenters asserted that accidents may increase when forcing sport pilots to operate their gliders at a lower altitude.</P>
                    <P>
                        With the introduction of the sport pilot certificate in 2004, sport pilot flight operations were originally limited to 10,000 feet MSL to separate sport pilot flight operations from high-speed aircraft operations that occur at those higher altitudes.
                        <SU>89</SU>
                         However, the 2010 Sport Pilot Final Rule recognized the burden this limitation placed on sport pilots (and students seeking a sport pilot certificate) who operated aircraft in areas of high elevation. Accordingly, FAA provided additional relief to sport pilots by permitting them to conduct flight operations up to and including 2,000 feet AGL in areas of mountainous terrain that may exceed 10,000 feet MSL.
                        <SU>90</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters did not provide data supporting that operating below 10,000 feet MSL increases the risk of CFIT, mid-air collisions, traffic conflicts, and decreased access to ATC services. Every day, flights occur below 10,000 feet MSL throughout the United States with sufficient access to ATC services and flight following. Many of these flights operate under VFR during which the pilots are still responsible for terrain, obstruction, and traffic avoidance.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA notes that § 91.211, Supplemental oxygen, describes the requirement for the use of supplemental oxygen in both pressurized and unpressurized aircraft. While § 91.211(b) applies only to pressurized cabin aircraft, § 91.211(a) applies to all aircraft and requires that: (1) supplemental oxygen is provided and used by the required minimum flight crew for the part of the flight more than 30 minutes duration at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL; (2) supplemental oxygen is provided to and used by the required minimum flight crew for the entire flight time at the altitude above 14,000 feet MSL; and (3) supplemental oxygen is provided to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35099"/>
                        each occupant of the aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL. For example, if a sport pilot is operating over terrain that is 12,500 feet MSL and the sport pilot chooses to operate at 2,000 feet AGL at that same location, the pilot would then be operating at cabin pressure altitude of 14,500 feet MSL and be obligated to use oxygen per § 91.211(a)(2).
                        <SU>91</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        While oxygen levels are an important consideration in the 10,000 feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL restriction, it is not the only consideration as to the limitation. Sport pilots are only required to possess a valid driver's license to operate an aircraft for daytime operations. The vision requirements for driver's licenses vary from state to state and differ from the criteria required to obtain an FAA medical certificate. FAA maintains that sharp, clear vision (with the best being equal to 20/20 vision) requires significant oxygen. Without supplemental oxygen, an individual's vision declines measurably as pressure altitudes increase. As altitude increases, the available oxygen decreases, degrading vision along with cognitive and physical performance in general. The increased risk associated with operations in unpressurized aircraft at altitudes greater than the current sport pilot allowance of 10,000 feet MSL or 2,000 AGL, whichever is higher, is not sufficiently mitigated with the possession of a driver's license, as it would be with an FAA medical certificate that evaluates vision and pulmonary function. In addition, sport pilots are trained and tested on only basic aeromedical factors. Specifically, for airplane single-engine land and sea privileges, the applicant must exhibit knowledge of the elements related to aeromedical factors by explaining (1) the effects of alcohol, drugs, and over-the-counter medications and (2) the symptoms, causes, effects, and corrective actions of at least three of nine given factors.
                        <SU>92</SU>
                         Conversely, higher grades of certificates require substantially more training and testing on aeromedical factors, as well as altitude and airspace considerations to facilitate operations at those higher altitudes and airspace. For example, the Private Pilot for Airplane Category ACS 
                        <SU>93</SU>
                         requires substantially more human factors training and proficiency validation, including the demonstration of understanding of twelve different aeromedical and human factors, as well as risk management of aeromedical and physiological issues and hazardous altitudes.
                    </P>
                    <P>While additional training and possible endorsements for a sport pilot could be considered if the training met the same higher-grade certificate requirements, the more stringent medical requirements for these higher-grade certificates would not be addressed. Similarly, sport pilots operating gliders do not meet the medical requirements to safely operate above the current altitude limitation. If individuals seek to operate aircraft at altitudes higher than the sport pilot altitude limitation, those individuals can seek a higher grade of pilot certificate that properly mitigates the risk associated with high-altitude operations.</P>
                    <P>As previously stated, FAA did not propose any amendments to § 61.315(c)(11) in the NPRM, and, as such, it is not within scope to finalize in this rulemaking. Moreover, given all these considerations, FAA maintains the current altitude limitation set forth in § 61.315(c)(11) is appropriate and will not adopt commenters' requests to increase the sport pilot altitude limitation. Retaining the sport pilot altitude limitation aligns with the safety continuum referenced in the NPRM, which addressed increased risk when operating aircraft in the NAS. Therefore, this final rule does not adopt any changes to the sport pilot maximum altitude operating limitation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. IFR Privileges</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 61.3(e) sets forth the requirements to act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR flight. This section generally requires the appropriate aircraft category, class, type (if class or type is required), and instrument rating on that person's pilot certificate for any airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift being flown.
                        <SU>94</SU>
                         Neither sport pilots nor subpart K flight instructors are permitted to operate in IMC. In addition, sport pilots may not obtain an instrument rating, as § 61.65(a)(1) requires that a person who applies for an instrument rating must hold at least a current private pilot certificate or be concurrently applying for such.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA did not propose any revisions to the status quo of instrument rating restrictions and basic instrument training requirements; however, FAA received approximately 70 comments pertaining to such privileges. Commenters generally recommended that FAA permit sport pilots to obtain instrument training, an instrument rating, or a similar operating privilege (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         operation under IFR via an endorsement). Many of these commenters suggested that allowing sport pilots to obtain an instrument rating would improve sport pilot proficiency, lower insurance costs, and result in safer sport pilots, especially with inadvertent encounters with IMC. Some commenters recommended FAA permit basic or limited IFR rating or privileges for sport pilots, suggesting limitations such as requiring visual meteorological conditions for departures and approaches, only allowing IMC operations above 1,500 feet AGL to allow sport pilots to maintain safe flight operations in difficult weather conditions, and only requiring a driver's license to qualify for operating under instrument flight rules. Several commenters, including the Gyrocopter Flight Training Academy, specifically requested IFR operations be permitted in gyroplanes or gliders. Fly Eagle Sport did not explicitly suggest an expansion of IFR privileges for sport pilots but suggested the requirement for student pilots seeking a sport pilot certificate to log flight time by reference to flight instruments before conducting solo cross-country flights in an aircraft with a V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         greater than 87 knots should be only for night flights. FAA also received comments considered to be out of scope of this rulemaking (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         broad general changes to instrument currency in § 61.57). NAFI implied in its comment that flight instructors with a sport pilot rating (subpart K) may be operating under instrument conditions.  
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Certificated sport pilots will have received some degree of instrument experience during their training. Before a person can fly solo, a person must have a student pilot certificate, as set forth in subpart C of part 61. A student pilot must meet the requirements of § 61.93 prior to (1) conducting a solo cross-country flight or any flight greater than 25 nautical miles from the airport from where the flight originated, and (2) making a solo flight and landing at any location other than the airport of origination.
                        <SU>95</SU>
                         Because sport pilot training must include these scenarios (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         solo cross-country experience), a person seeking a sport pilot certificate must have a student pilot certificate. As a general requirement, student pilots must receive and log training (in pertinent part) in the procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown.
                        <SU>96</SU>
                         As it pertains to student pilots receiving training for cross-country flights in a single-engine airplane, § 61.93(e) includes the generalized training, as well as control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight instruments if the airplane utilized for training has a V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         (maximum speed in level flight with maximum 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35100"/>
                        continuous power) greater than 87 knots CAS.
                        <SU>97</SU>
                         To note, if a student pilot seeks a sport pilot certificate utilizing an airplane that has a V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         less than 87 knots during training, the person would not be required to complete this training at that time. However, if the then-certificated sport pilot sought to operate an airplane with a V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         less than or equal to 87 knots CAS, the pilot must meet the requirements of § 61.327(a).
                        <SU>98</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        While FAA may explore further expansion of privileges in the future, FAA declines to permit sport pilots to obtain an instrument rating or similar instrument privilege (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the use of training and endorsements) at this time. These changes would be out of scope to finalize here. In addition, as previously explained, sport pilots are not eligible to add an instrument rating, unless they are concurrently seeking a private pilot certificate with the instrument rating.
                        <SU>99</SU>
                         The additional training and qualification requirements for a private pilot certificate and instrument rating are necessary to ensure that a person is appropriately prepared with a commensurate level of fundamental training to operate safely in IMC conditions and when conducting operations under instrument flight rules in the NAS, as operating under IFR presents additional challenges to pilots because visual references can be limited or unavailable.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Specifically, the minimum aeronautical experience requirements for a sport pilot certificate are significantly less than what is required for a private pilot certificate in providing a base level of aeronautical experience for those privileges associated with an instrument rating. For example, under § 61.109(a), an applicant for a private pilot certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time, with additional experience for the instrument rating required by § 61.65(d) or (g), as appropriate. In addition, applicants are tested on basic instrument maneuvers during the practical test for the private pilot certificate with airplane category rating.
                        <SU>100</SU>
                         Comparatively, those seeking a sport pilot certificate with airplane category and single-engine class privileges only need a minimum of 20 hours of flight time, without required specific training by reference to instruments or any testing of basic instrument maneuvers as required by the sport pilot PTS. Private pilots also receive additional training in cross-country and night operations beyond the minimum required to obtain a sport pilot certificate. Furthermore, to exercise the privileges of their certificate, private pilots must meet more stringent medical qualification requirements than sport pilots.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA supports additional flight training from an authorized instructor to improve pilot proficiency as a desirable practice promoting safety. There is no prohibition for a pilot, including a sport pilot, to accomplish additional flight training from an authorized instructor that can include instrument training; for example, a sport pilot may be concurrently training for a private pilot certificate and an associated instrument rating or obtaining flight training that is not mandated in the regulations for a sport pilot certificate, such as instrument proficiency flight training. Seeking additional training to become proficient when operating an aircraft solely by reference to the flight instruments is normal practice. As previously stated, sport pilots are restricted from operating an aircraft solely by reference to the flight instruments, but their basic training on procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown intends to mitigate situations where the sport pilot may inadvertently enter IMC. FAA notes that it does not regulate based on what third-party insurance companies may require for coverage.</P>
                    <P>One commenter suggested expanding subpart K instructor privileges to permit these instructors to obtain an instrument rating and conduct IFR operations in aircraft that meet instrument equipment requirements. This commenter also stated permitting subpart K instructors to be eligible for an instrument rating is consistent with FAA's safety and privileges continuum across pilot certifications and ratings.</P>
                    <P>To provide flight training under § 61.93(e)(12) on control and maneuvering an airplane solely by reference to the flight instruments for the purpose of issuing a solo cross-country endorsement under § 61.93(c)(1) to a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate, a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating must meet the requirements provided in § 61.412(a) through (c), notably including a one-time endorsement from a subpart H authorized instructor certifying the person is proficient in providing training on control and maneuvering solely by reference to instruments. Like sport pilots, flight instructors with a sport pilot rating (subpart K flight instructors) are not eligible for an instrument rating for the same reasons a sport pilot is not eligible. Further, while subpart K flight instructors may obtain additional training from a subpart H authorized instructor, which permits them to provide training solely by reference to instruments, this training does not equal that foundational training provided by private pilot qualification or concurrent qualification for a full instrument rating. Rather, it is limited instruction to train sport pilots how to deal with time-limited conditions that interfere with visual reference capabilities.</P>
                    <P>In summary, FAA did not propose expansion of privileges for sport pilots to include privileges encompassed by an instrument rating, nor did this rulemaking consider permitting sport pilots to add an instrument rating or any other instrument privilege for sport pilots to operate in IMC in the NAS. As such, this change is out of scope for this final rule. For the previously discussed reasons, FAA maintains that if a pilot seeks to operate in IMC, they must obtain at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating and otherwise satisfy any other requirements specified in parts 61 and 91 to operate in IMC as pilot-in-command.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Business Use</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under § 61.315(c), sport pilots may not act as PIC of an aircraft for compensation or hire or in furtherance of a business. FAA did not propose expanding sport pilot privileges to allow conduct of any kind of commercial-related operations. FAA received many comments suggesting FAA should permit a sport pilot to conduct flights for hire, for compensation, or in the furtherance of a business. Some suggested revisions such as adding a requirement to log a certain number of hours, receive an instructor endorsement, or permit flights incidental to business, such as commuting to business meetings. Other commenters suggested revisions to clarify the definition of “business” and what kinds of business-tangential operations are permitted. One commenter explained the value of being able to travel to a worksite or work-related meetings and referenced environmental considerations, including reduced emissions compared to using a motor vehicle. Another commenter stated there is no difference in safety or additional risk when being paid to take a passenger or when just giving a ride. One commenter suggested commercial privileges should be granted to flight instructors with a sport pilot rating (subpart K flight instructors). Another commenter indicated that limiting gyroplanes to a seating capacity of two potentially restricts commercial use such as crop dusting, aerial photography, sightseeing, search and rescue, etc.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35101"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters, including LAMA and USUA, recommended FAA consider allowing “commercial ratings” for powered parachute and weight shift control aircraft pilots or establishing alternative pathways for pilots to engage in aerial work. LAMA and USUA asserted that commercial privileges would (1) provide regulatory consistency by extending “commercial ratings” to powered parachutes and weigh-shift-control aircraft; (2) provide economic benefits of allowing the use of powered parachutes and weight-shift-control aircraft as low-cost alternatives for aerial work, aerial photography, and scouting; and (3) improve safety by providing a legal pathway to perform aerial work in these aircraft. Some commenters suggested that aerial work 
                        <SU>101</SU>
                         should include activities like agriculture or construction operations, real estate, natural disaster surveillance, aerial photography, surveying, search and rescue, observation and patrol, aerial tours, and aerial advertising.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA understands commenters' interest for allowing “commercial ratings” for powered parachute and weight shift control aircraft. However, this final rule does not permit sport pilots to conduct flight operations in the furtherance of a business or to obtain commercial privileges in this final rule. The 2004 final rule that implemented the sport pilot certificate intended the associated privileges to be limited to sport and recreational flying only. FAA maintains there would be an increase in risk if sport pilots were permitted to conduct commercial operations because of the limited minimum experience requirements and qualifications required to obtain a sport pilot certificate compared to that of a commercial pilot certificate. For example, commercial pilot certificate requirements include, but are not limited to, holding an FAA medical certificate, obtaining higher minimum experience requirements, and more detailed training and testing standards. FAA has long maintained that pilot operations involving commercial activity or compensation, except for a few exceptions under § 61.113, must include holding a commercial or airline transport pilot certificate, as appropriate. FAA has long held the principle that when compensation is exchanged for transportation the public expects, and FAA demands, a higher level of safety. In addition, a framework allowing sport pilots to conduct commercial operations is outside the scope of this rulemaking and would require public notice and comment.</P>
                    <P>
                        Under this final rule, sport pilots will be able to operate a broader array of aircraft, which could include primary category and experimental aircraft; it follows that flight instructors with a sport pilot rating will, therefore, provide flight training in such aircraft. In 2024, FAA finalized a rule that reinforced its longstanding position that, though excepted from the part 119 requirement to obtain an air carrier or commercial operator certificate,
                        <SU>102</SU>
                         compensated flight training in limited, experimental, and primary category aircraft is an operation that involves the carriage of a person for compensation or hire. FAA has historically found it appropriate to permit flight instructors with a sport pilot rating conducting flight training to receive compensation; however, this privilege is not specifically enumerated in the regulations.
                        <SU>103</SU>
                         Therefore, this final rule adds § 61.413(d) to state that, notwithstanding the compensation and business use restrictions in § 61.315(c)(2) and (c)(3),
                        <SU>104</SU>
                         a person with a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating may receive compensation for providing flight training in accordance with subpart K of part 61. FAA emphasizes that a person who is providing flight training in an aircraft continues to be subject to part 91, including the requirements to operate certain aircraft for the purposes of flight training as set forth in § 91.326 (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         obtaining a letter of deviation authority).  
                    </P>
                    <P>Finally, and relatedly, Aero Sports Connection (ASC) Inc. recommended FAA permit sport pilots to provide “transition-for-hire” services in an aircraft issued a special airworthiness certificate with an experimental designation with stall speeds less than 35 knots. ASC supported its recommendation by discussing the history and use of exemptions to permit certain ultralight operations that were later terminated with the publication of the sport pilot 2004 final rule. While ASC is a proponent of a pilot providing flight training without holding a flight instructor certificate, FAA finds this recommendation to be outside the scope of this rulemaking.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">g. Aircraft Conformity Since Original Aircraft Certification</HD>
                    <P>
                        Currently, the § 1.1 definition of light-sport aircraft sets forth criteria that an aircraft must meet since its original certification. In the 2004 final rule, FAA explained the rule intended to prevent modification to aircraft with high payload and performance characteristics, which would exceed the defined parameters of light-sport aircraft. FAA further explained that modifications to an aircraft to meet the light-sport aircraft definition may increase its complexity to a level that is inappropriate for the skill and training capabilities of the sport pilot.
                        <SU>105</SU>
                         With the proposed elimination of the light-sport aircraft definition in § 1.1, FAA retained the tether to original certification in proposed § 61.316, which, as previously discussed, sets forth the performance limits and design requirements for aircraft a sport pilot may operate. Specifically, the new § 61.316(a) proposed to set forth the limitations of an aircraft that a sport pilot may operate “since its original certification,” and, similarly, new § 61.316(b) proposed to permit certain sport pilots 
                        <SU>106</SU>
                         to act as PIC of an airplane that possesses retractable landing gear or a controllable pitch propeller “since its original certification.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA received comments concerning § 61.316(a) and (b) and the tether to an aircraft's original certification. A number of commenters recommended FAA remove this requirement, thereby allowing aircraft modifications (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         through STCs, STOL kits, vortex generators, and aftermarket improvements) after original certification to satisfy the design and performance limitations listed in new § 61.316(a) or (b). Several commenters, including Hartzell Propeller, stated limiting aircraft characteristics to the aircraft's original certification for purposes of § 61.316 will prohibit the use of older airplanes that qualify for an STC permitting the installation of aftermarket vortex generators or wing tip cuffs that can lower the stall speed to qualify aircraft for sport pilot operations. FAA disagrees with commenters' recommendations to remove “since its original certification” from § 61.316(a) to permit aftermarket modifications, including through an STC, that could reduce the existing V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS airplane stalling speed and possibly qualify larger and heavier airplanes for sport pilot use. This final rule increases the maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS stalling speed for airplanes that a sport pilot is permitted to operate from 54 to 59 knots. The change in the maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS stalling speed limit will allow the use of additional existing production airplanes without aftermarket kits or other modifications after original certification to qualify for sport pilot use, functioning to address commenters' general concerns regarding aircraft availability. Installation of aftermarket STOL kits or other lift enhancing devices would facilitate heavier aircraft that have an original V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS stalling speed exceeding the § 61.316 stalling speed limit. Heavier, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35102"/>
                        faster aircraft usually equate to more complex aircraft, operation of which are not commensurate with the skill and training required for a sport pilot certificate.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA emphasizes that installation of STOL kits after an aircraft's original certification is still permitted. However, the airplane's original aircraft certification V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS stalling speed, prior to the installation of the STOL kit, must not exceed the new maximum V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS stalling speed limit of 59 knots, as set forth in § 61.316. To clarify, if an aircraft is certificated and then an aftermarket installation alters the Vs
                        <E T="52">1</E>
                         CAS airspeed from 61 to 59 knots, the airplane would not qualify for sport pilot use because the alteration affecting stalling speed was accomplished after the original certification of the aircraft. FAA maintains that based on the safety continuum concept, individuals operating airplanes with a V
                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                         CAS stalling speed greater than 59 knots must obtain at least a recreational pilot certificate or higher grade of pilot certificate. After consideration of the commenters' recommendations, FAA maintains that the “since its original certification” language proposed in § 61.316(a) does provide a necessary safeguard to indirectly limit the weight of aircraft sport pilots may operate by limiting modifications after its original certification.
                    </P>
                    <P>Three commenters explained the tether to an aircraft's original certification as proposed in § 61.316(b) would unnecessarily exclude Piper Cubs that were originally equipped with a controllable pitch propeller and later converted to a fixed pitch propeller. One commenter suggested FAA should allow constant speed propellers since its original certification.</P>
                    <P>FAA finds that post-certification alterations to the propeller or landing gear will not fundamentally change the weight or utility of airplanes and could provide valuable performance and safety enhancements. Accordingly, FAA determined it would be unnecessary to prohibit sport pilots from operating airplanes with modifications to the propeller or landing gear configuration. Therefore, FAA has removed “since its original certification” from § 61.316(b) in this final rule to permit sport pilots to operate aircraft that have had landing gear (except for gliders) modifications and airplanes that have had propeller modifications if those sport pilots meet the training and endorsement requirements set forth in § 61.331. However, § 61.316(a) retains “since its original certification” requirements; because gliders are specifically required in § 61.316(a)(7) to have fixed or retractable landing gear, the glider must have had that fixed or retractable landing gear since its original certification. FAA determined the exception contained in § 61.316(b) was unnecessary for gliders because it is extremely rare for a glider to convert to a retractable system as most manufacturers have two versions of gliders if they intend to offer a retractable system. Therefore, this is not a common modification for this type of aircraft, and an exception is not necessary. Moreover, FAA notes that gliders, in general, were not affected by this rulemaking, and existing eligibility requirements for gliders to qualify as light sport aircraft were not changed and were merely carried over from 14 CFR 1.1.</P>
                    <P>Conversely, paragraph (8) requires fixed landing gear for powered aircraft (other than a glider), but contains an exception for those retractable landing gear operations in accordance with paragraph (b) (therefore permitting modifications).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">h. Gyroplane Specific Issues  </HD>
                    <P>In this final rule, FAA removes the light sport aircraft definition from § 1.1 and relocates the performance limits and design requirements to § 61.316. FAA retains the following requirements that pertain to a gyroplane: seating capacity of no more than two persons including the pilot (as discussed in IV.H.1.a of this preamble); a fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering two-blade rotor system (adopted § 61.316(a)(4)); fixed or retractable landing gear (adopted § 61.316(a)(8)); and non-pressurized cabins (adopted § 61.316(a)(3)). FAA received four comments specific to gyroplanes, three of which recommended FAA permit sport pilots to operate gyroplanes with limits and design limitations that differ from the proposed § 61.316 aircraft limitations. One commenter requested revision to proposed § 61.316(a)(6) that would limit sport pilots to operating gyroplanes that have a fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering-two blade rotor system. The commenter stated rotor systems with three or more blades reduce the vibrational modes associated with two-blade rotor systems, which can reduce the maintenance requirements and extend the fatigue life of gyroplane components. In addition, the commenter stated there is no inherent increase in pilot skill level required to operate a gyroplane with a three-blade rotor system when compared to a two-blade, teetering rotor system. Two commenters asked to be able to conduct a jump takeoff. These commenters stated jump takeoff gyroplanes are easier to take off, with one commenter stating these aircraft are computer controlled.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA does not agree with allowing sport pilots to operate a three-blade rotor system gyroplane. While FAA appreciates that there may be benefits to operating a three-blade rotor system, FAA disagrees that there is no inherent increase in pilot skill level required to operate a gyroplane with a three-blade rotor system when compared to a two-blade, teetering rotor system. A three-blade rotor system is an inherently more complex system than a two-blade, teetering rotor system. While vibrations may be lower in a three-blade rotor system gyroplane, as suggested by the commenter, the addition of the third blade creates an increase in the risk of an imbalance in the rotation of the gyroplanes rotor occurring (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         ground resonance). As such, a three-blade rotor system requires specific training and experience, particularly in ground resonance that is not covered in the sport pilot training and PTS for gyroplane.
                        <SU>107</SU>
                         Given the increased complexity of the three-blade rotor system gyroplane compared to the two-blade gyroplane, teetering system, and given that most gyroplanes are currently experimental, operation of the three-blade rotor system gyroplane would be outside the scope of their minimal training and experience requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>With respect to the jump takeoff comments, FAA does not restrict pilots, including sport pilots, from conducting a jump take-off. Gyroplanes capable of jump takeoff did not meet the definition of light-sport aircraft under the 2004 rule because of weight. For that reason, the commenters may have interpreted FAA's rules to prohibit the maneuver. However, under this final rule, there is no longer a weight restriction.</P>
                    <P>Gyrocopter Flight Training Academy (GFTA) urged FAA to continue to support the existing process of transitioning fixed wing pilots to light-sport gyroplanes via a flight instructor gyroplane endorsement and separate proficiency check conducted by a different sport pilot instructor. FAA notes this final rule retains the ability for a pilot to add a rotorcraft gyroplane sport pilot privilege by obtaining additional training and instructor endorsement and subsequent successful completion of a proficiency check in accordance with § 61.321(a).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Balloon Experience</HD>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM did not propose changes to the required aeronautical experience for a lighter-than-air category and balloon class privilege on a person's sport pilot certificate as set forth in § 61.313. However, FAA received a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35103"/>
                        comment recommending removal of the cross-country requirement for a sport pilot seeking a lighter-than-air balloon privilege. Section 61.313(f) requires an applicant to log at least 2 hours of cross-country flight training. FAA finds this comment and suggestion to be outside the scope of this rulemaking and does not currently find sufficient evidence to revise this requirement in this final rule. Any changes to sport pilot experience requirements for a balloon privilege must be addressed in a separate rulemaking to allow adequate notice and an opportunity for the public to comment and FAA may consider rulemaking on this topic at a future date. As a result, FAA maintains the cross-country experience requirement for a sport pilot seeking a lighter-than-air category, balloon class privilege.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">j. Night Operations</HD>
                    <P>
                        Currently, § 61.315(c) restricts a sport pilot from acting as pilot in command of an aircraft at night.
                        <SU>108</SU>
                         FAA proposed to permit sport pilots to operate at night by accomplishing additional night training and experience requirements, including obtaining an endorsement from an authorized instructor, as set forth in proposed § 61.329. As explained in the NPRM, currently, sport pilots do not have night operation privileges because a sport pilot does not receive any training for operations at night; however, this creates a safety risk in scenarios where pilots may feel pressure to conduct flights before the end of evening civil twilight, especially in many northern states with reduced daylight hours. To appropriately mitigate night operations, especially with the expanded aircraft characteristics that a sport pilot can operate, FAA maintains that additional night training, an authorized instructor qualifying endorsement, and additional medical qualifications are necessary. Therefore, in new § 61.329, FAA proposed to require three hours of flight training at night from an authorized instructor, a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency, at least one cross-country night flight, and ten takeoffs and landings at night with an authorized instructor. In addition, to account for visual acuity standards required for night operations, FAA proposed to require a sport pilot seeking to act as PIC at night to hold, at a minimum, an FAA medical certificate issued under part 67, subpart D, Third-Class (or higher) Airman Medical Certificate or meet the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3), and conduct the operation consistently with § 61.113(i).
                        <SU>109</SU>
                         Proposed § 61.329(d) also specified that if a sport pilot met the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3), § 61.329 controls if there is a conflict with § 61.113(i).
                        <SU>110</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Most comments regarding the proposed sport pilot night operations supported night operations, including the proposed training and endorsement requirements. For example, AOPA, EAA, NATA, and NBAA's consolidated response, AutoGyro Certification LTD, and several individual commenters agreed with requiring minimum night training and allowing sport pilot night operations, citing various benefits such as promotion of better aeronautical decision-making, removal of pressure to terminate a flight or to reach a destination as darkness sets in, enhancement of the utility of light-sport aircraft, and greater flexibility for sport pilot certificates. However, most comments opposed the medical qualification requirement. As subsequently discussed, this final rule generally adopts proposed §§ 61.315(c)(5) and 61.329 and revises proposed § 61.329 to: specify category and class training requirements, correct regulatory references, and harmonize the minimum experience requirements with that of the private pilot certificate minimums.</P>
                    <P>This section discusses (1) the training and endorsement requirements for sport pilot night operations, (2) qualifications to provide night flight training to sport pilots, and (3) medical eligibility requirements specific to sport pilot night operations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Training and Endorsement Requirements for Sport Pilot Night Operations  </HD>
                    <P>
                        The training and endorsement requirements facilitating night operations under new § 61.329(a) and (c) will require a sport pilot to receive three hours of flight training at night from an authorized instructor and receive a logbook endorsement, which includes conducting at least one cross-country flight at night, and accomplish at least ten takeoffs and landings at night. In the NPRM, the regulatory text could be read to indicate that the three hours of flight training at night (proposed § 61.329(a)) must have been conducted separately from the ten takeoffs and landings at night (proposed § 61.329(c)) (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         that a person could not count a takeoff and landing performed during the three hours of flight training as counting toward the minimum requirement of ten). Conversely, proposed § 61.329(b) was clear that the cross-country flight at night could be counted toward the flight training under proposed § 61.329(a). While a person could conduct more than 10 takeoffs and landings with an authorized instructor should the person feel it necessary, FAA did not intend to mandate more than a minimum of ten takeoffs and landings. In addition, higher grades of pilot certificates that include night privileges only require a minimum of ten takeoffs and landings,
                        <SU>111</SU>
                         and FAA finds no reason a sport pilot should be required to conduct more than 10. This final rule amends § 61.329 to make clear the three hours of night flight training from an authorized instructor (adopted as § 61.329(a) introductory text) must include both the cross-country flight at night (adopted as § 61.329(a)(1)) and ten takeoffs and landings (adopted as § 61.329(a)(2)).
                    </P>
                    <P>GAMA recommended that FAA only require 10 takeoffs and landings at night in the new sport pilot category and class privilege, including an instructor endorsement. In addition, GAMA explained that a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating may have night experience in another sport aircraft category or class of aircraft.</P>
                    <P>
                        First, FAA disagrees with the recommendation to limit the minimum night training requirement when adding an additional category or class privilege at the sport pilot level to only 10 takeoffs and landings at night (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         eliminating three hours of flight training in proposed § 61.329(a) and the cross-country flight in proposed § 61.329(a)(1)), and further addresses BasicMed in the following section. The three hours of flight training at night and the cross-country flight experience is intended to provide necessary training in specific areas of night operations that a person may not receive with only a series of take-offs and landings: for example, different techniques in pilotage and dead reckoning, diversions and lost procedures, and emergency operations. FAA notes the night training requirements in § 61.329 largely mirror those required to add an additional category or class rating for private pilots, as set forth in § 61.109, as well as current sport pilot experience requirements under § 61.313 due to the different handling requirements between category and classes of aircraft generally and at night. FAA maintains this experience is necessary to ensure safe sport pilot operations and finds no data to support allowing less experience than these existing requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        However, in assessing GAMA's comment, FAA noted neither the takeoff and landing requirement, nor the other general training requirements, were explicitly required for each specific category and class privilege; however, the preamble explained the intent to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35104"/>
                        generally mirror the night training requirements of the private pilot certificate. In addition, the proposed regulatory text in § 61.329(a) stated the proficiency endorsement was required in “the” aircraft, indicating particular aircraft training as required. FAA acknowledges these considerations could lead to differing conclusions as to the aircraft specificity for the training and endorsement (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         category and class, make and model, etc.). In recognition of the unique pilot skills needed to operate various characteristics of aircraft at night safely (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         night landings in single-engine airplanes vs. helicopters), and the similar night currency requirements under § 61.57(b)(1)(ii), FAA intended to require the night training and proficiency requirements specific to category and class of aircraft. Therefore, this final rule revises § 61.329(a) to require the night flight training and proficiency endorsement to be conducted in the specific category and class privilege for which the pilot intends to operate.
                        <SU>112</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 61.313 requires certain aeronautical experience to apply for a sport pilot certificate, including minimum: flight time and flight training; cross-country flight training; certain takeoff, launch, and landing requirements; or any combination of the preceding, as applicable. Under the proposal (and as adopted by this final rule), a person could count time and experience to meet § 61.329 toward the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.313, as long as all requirements set forth in the applicable experience and logging provisions were met. For example, if a person received one hour of flight training at night from an authorized instructor in a single-engine airplane, under the proposal and this final rule, the person could log that flight time toward both §§ 61.313(a)(1) (requiring at least 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor) and 61.329 (requiring at least 3 hours of flight training at night from an authorized instructor). ALPA expressed concern that allowing § 61.329 night experience to satisfy some of the current § 61.313 minimum experience requirements would be inappropriate because the experience requirements for a sport pilot certificate, in general, are already low. ALPA suggested the 3 hours of training at night be in addition to the 15 hours of instruction required to acquire a sport pilot certificate.</P>
                    <P>FAA disagrees with the recommendation that the three hours of night training experience requirement be in addition to the 15 hours of training. While FAA understands ALPA's concern, the 15 hours of flight training required by § 61.313(a) is a minimum time requirement. A pilot's learning and skill level may require more than the minimum 15 hours of flight training to obtain the aeronautical knowledge and flight proficiency required for a sport pilot certificate. Incorporating the § 61.329 night training requirements into the minimum time requirement does not reduce the overall required flight training. Because night operations and training are more challenging and demanding than day operations, night pilot time experience qualifies equally for the minimum total training time requirements. Finally, the successful completion of a practical test with an FAA-designated pilot examiner or proficiency check with an authorized instructor, as appropriate, validates that a person is qualified to operate an aircraft as a sport pilot.</P>
                    <P>GAMA, AOPA, EAA, NATA, and NBAA's consolidated comment; an individual; and LAMA suggested that if a pilot has already been trained at night, that training should count for the sport pilot night experience requirements and a pilot with a higher grade of certificate should be eligible under § 61.329 without endorsement. Similarly, an individual commenter recommended allowing sport pilot night operations if previously qualified as a private pilot with an airplane single-engine land rating, without requiring BasicMed.</P>
                    <P>
                        A person with a sport pilot certificate may credit night experience acquired from previous pilot flight training or night experience when properly documented in a pilot's logbook or record. For example, because a person who holds a private pilot certificate with an airplane single-engine rating has completed the night flight training specified by § 61.109(a)(2) (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         three hours of night flight training that includes one cross-country flight of over 100 nm and 10 takeoffs and landings), that experience may be applied to meet certain requirements in new § 61.329. However, when exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate and operating at night, the sport pilot must have obtained the requisite endorsement under § 61.329, regardless of whether the pilot holds a higher grade of pilot certificate with a higher class medical.  
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters' recommendation to allow pilots with a higher grade of certificate to be eligible for night privileges based on previous experience without meeting BasicMed inaccurately correlate medical eligibility standards with training and endorsement. Persons with higher grades of certificates may choose to exercise the privileges of a sport pilot certificate because they no longer meet the medical qualification requirements to exercise privileges of a higher grade of certificate. As discussed throughout this section, FAA maintains that minimum medical qualifications are necessary for sport pilots to safely operate at night and will not remove the medical requirement when a person may hold a higher-grade of certificate, but exercises sport pilot privileges at night.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Qualifications To Provide Night Flight Training to Sport Pilots</HD>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM proposed to permit a person to receive the night training and endorsement specified in § 61.329 from an authorized instructor: a person who holds either a flight instructor certificate issued under subpart H of part 61 or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating under subpart K. Subpart H flight instructors receive training and validation of proficiency via testing on night operations to receive their certificate and are therefore qualified to provide flight training at night. For example, the Flight Instructor for Airplane ACS includes various night operations tasks and elements (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Task M: Night Operations in Area of Operation II: Technical Subject Areas, which includes knowledge, risk management, and skills specifically key to night operations). This final rule adopts the proposal permitting subpart H instructors to provide § 61.329 night flight training.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, FAA recognized it would be an unnecessary burden to require sport pilots to find only subpart H flight instructors for night flight training and, therefore, proposed additional training requirements to qualify flight instructors with a sport pilot rating to provide instruction at night. Specifically, FAA proposed to add new paragraph (n) in § 61.415, which prescribes the limits of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating. The NPRM proposed, and this final rule adopts, that a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating may not provide training in an aircraft at night unless they have completed the night training and endorsement requirements specified in proposed § 61.329 (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         receive three hours of flight training at night from an authorized instructor and receive a logbook endorsement, conduct at least one cross-country flight at night, and accomplish at least ten takeoffs and landings at night). Therefore, a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating must receive the required § 61.329 training and endorsement from a subpart H instructor or an authorized subpart K flight instructor with a sport pilot rating who has received the § 61.329 training 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35105"/>
                        and endorsement. Upon completion of the § 61.329 training and endorsement, a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating may instruct sport pilot applicants, sport pilots, or flight instructors with a sport pilot rating in an aircraft at night and provide the required endorsement once the instructor finds the person is proficient in night flight (pursuant to new § 61.329). To clarify, a flight instructor may only provide instruction at night in the category and class privilege for which they hold the § 61.329 training and endorsement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA finds the initial cadre of subpart K flight instructors with a sport pilot rating who may provide night training will be sufficiently established through subpart H flight instructors, who, as previously discussed, have received training and validated proficiency via the ACS or PTS (as applicable) night operations tasks. However, during the pendency of the rulemaking and while addressing glider specific pilot training and certification comments, FAA noted the absence of night training or testing requirements in the flight instructor glider PTS for subpart H flight instructors. FAA recently examined this absence of a task in the ACS IBR Final Rule, where commenters recommended adding a night operations task to the flight instructor for glider category PTS.
                        <SU>113</SU>
                         FAA responded that there was not an urgent, safety sensitive reason to expand the footprint of the flight instructor test (and, resultingly, across all certificate levels) in the ACS IBR Final Rule. FAA continues to find it inappropriate to expand the testing standards in this final rule, as the addition of an area of operation in a PTS would require notice and an opportunity to comment and would affect more than only the Flight Instructor for Glider PTS, and, as such, it is not within scope to finalize in this rulemaking. However, FAA finds that subpart H glider flight instructors (who will be responsible for establishing the initial cadre of subpart K glider flight instructors, who will then train and endorse glider sport pilots on this brand-new privilege) will be sufficiently experienced to train and validate proficiency for this narrow group of glider sport pilots via the minimum requirements in § 61.57(b). Specifically, the subpart H flight instructor (who will be acting as PIC of the glider carrying a person) will be required to have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop in a glider during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending one hour before sunrise within the preceding 90 days.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA received a comment on flight instructor experience requirements specific to night training and qualifying instructor endorsement. The commenter recommended flight instructors with a sport pilot rating and 50 hours of logged night time as a private pilot or higher be exempted from the night experience requirement or only be required to obtain a night endorsement, with no specific hourly requirement.</P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed in the previous section, FAA will recognize night training experience acquired as a private pilot or with a higher grade of pilot certificate. However, FAA maintains that a subpart K flight instructor must obtain a minimum of three hours of night training, including a qualifying endorsement validating proficiency, from either a subpart H instructor or an authorized subpart K flight instructor with a sport pilot rating who has received the § 61.329 training and endorsement before providing night instruction to a sport pilot seeking night privileges, rather than simply requiring a minimum amount of flight training. As it pertains to private pilots, FAA finds it unnecessary to require higher flight training requirements for private pilots (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         50 hours as suggested by the commenter) because a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating who is also a private pilot would inherently meet the experience requirements of adopted § 61.329(a), as they largely mirror the private pilot night qualification requirements.
                        <SU>114</SU>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">iii. Medical Eligibility Requirements Specific to Sport Pilot Night Operations</HD>
                    <P>As previously stated, FAA proposed minimum medical qualification requirements to act as PIC with a sport pilot certificate during night operations in § 61.329(d). Specifically, FAA proposed that a person must either hold a medical certificate issued under part 67, subpart D (at least a third-class medical certificate), or meet the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3) as long as the person holds a valid U.S. driver's license. In addition, the proposal would require the operation to be conducted consistent with § 61.113(i) and that § 61.329 would take precedence in any conflict between §§ 61.113(i) and 61.329.</P>
                    <P>
                        Many commenters recommended FAA: (1) not require a third-class medical certificate; 
                        <SU>115</SU>
                         (2) remove the requirement to obtain an initial medical certificate and permit BasicMed to be the sole medical eligibility requirement; (3) permit possession of a valid driver's license or a separate visual acuity test to be the basis for medical eligibility; and (4) remove medical eligibility requirements altogether.
                        <SU>116</SU>
                         Conversely, other commenters stated the medical eligibility requirements do not appropriately mitigate safety concerns and that FAA did not sufficiently support and justify its decision to require either a third-class medical certificate or BasicMed to exercise the sport pilot privilege of nighttime flight. This section responds to these categories of comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>However, in this final rule, FAA retains the proposed medical requirements that a person may only act as PIC with a sport pilot certificate during night operations if that person either holds at least a third-class medical certificate or meets the conditions of § 61.113(i) and the operation is conducted consistent with § 61.329. FAA notes this was originally proposed as § 61.329(d) but will be redesignated in this final rule due to the consolidation of proposed § 61.329(a) through (c), as previously described, as § 61.329(b).</P>
                    <P>
                        During the pendency of the rulemaking, FAA noted the preamble in the NPRM inadvertently referenced § 61.315(d)(4) when explaining the controlling regulation in the event of a conflict while § 61.329(d) (adopted herein as paragraph (b)) in the amendatory instructions cited “this section” (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         § 61.329). This final rule adopts revised § 61.329(b) to state that if the privileges and limitations in § 61.113 conflict with § 61.316 when sport pilots are operating aircraft with either a medical certificate or U.S. driver's license for BasicMed under § 61.23(c), new § 61.316 performance limitations and design requirements control (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the intent explained in the NPRM preamble). For example, § 61.113(i) includes a limitation that the aircraft is authorized to carry not more than seven occupants; under adopted § 61.316(a)(2), a sport pilot could only operate an aircraft with a maximum seating capacity of two persons, except for airplanes, which may have a maximum seating capacity of four persons. The latter will control under this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM did not propose conforming amendments to § 61.23 but adopts two revisions in this final rule to deconflict the provisions of § 61.23 with the night operation medical certification requirements. Specifically, § 61.23(c)(1) sets forth the specific part 61 operations requiring either a medical certificate or U.S. driver's license, paragraph (c)(3) sets forth the requirements to operate under BasicMed with a U.S. driver's license (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         have held a medical certificate after July 14, 2006, complete the part 68 medical education course). 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35106"/>
                        FAA finds it necessary to add sport pilot night operations into the enumerated operations of § 61.23(c)(1), as those operations will require either at least a third-class medical certificate or a driver's license with BasicMed conditions and limitations (as set forth in §§ 61.113(i) and 61.23(c)(3)).
                    </P>
                    <P>Relatedly, § 61.23(b) sets forth those operations that do not require a medical certificate, including: (1) when exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a sport pilot certificate with glider or balloon privileges, (2) when exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with privileges in a glider or balloon, and (3) when exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating in a glider or balloon. FAA recognizes a conflict between these regulations, which do not require any medical certificate or meeting BasicMed, compared to the requirements of § 61.329, which will require either a medical certificate or BasicMed for all subpart J and K operations at night. For the reasons set forth in the NPRM and this section in response to comments opposing FAA's medical determination, FAA finds it necessary to require these populations of pilots to meet minimum medical qualifications.</P>
                    <P>Therefore, to address both conformities, this final rule adds new § 61.23(c)(1)(vi) and redesignates current paragraph (c)(1)(vi) as new paragraph (c)(1)(vii) and current paragraph (c)(1)(vii) as new paragraph (c)(1)(viii). New § 61.23(c)(1)(vi) will add the exercise of sport pilot certificate privileges at night under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i) as an operation requiring a driver's license and conformance with § 61.23(c). This paragraph will also contain notwithstanding language from § 61.23(b)(1), (b)(2), and (b)(6) to make clear that sport pilots conducting night operations will require either a third-class medical or BasicMed, in spite of the more relaxed regulations for gliders (and balloons) in § 61.23(b).  </P>
                    <P>In general, some commenters stated the medical eligibility requirements in § 61.329(d) provide an unnecessary regulatory burden on sport pilots, void the purpose of the sport pilot certificate, and will result in continued unsafe flying practices for night operations.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA does not find the requirement to comply with this final rule's medical requirements to be an undue burden for sport pilots seeking to exercise night privileges. Sport pilots seeking night privileges have two options for satisfying the medical requirements in this rule: (1) obtaining a third-class medical certificate or, (2) satisfying the BasicMed requirements. Both are well-established options under FAA's existing regulatory framework and for which there is an existing market of aviation medical examiners 
                        <SU>117</SU>
                         and, in the case of BasicMed, state-licensed physicians. With both options, there is a physical exam focusing on findings that could indicate an aeromedical concern.
                        <SU>118</SU>
                         FAA does not set the fee for the exam; the cost depends on local market conditions. However, FAA recommends that AMEs charge the usual and customary fees by other physicians in the same locality for similar physical examination services.
                        <SU>119</SU>
                         In a previously issued final rule, FAA assessed the average cost for a BasicMed examination to be $117 in 2016 dollars, which roughly translates to $155 in present year dollars.
                        <SU>120</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        This final rule expands the privileges available to sport pilots to include night operations. To address the increased risks associated with night operations,
                        <SU>121</SU>
                         FAA determined it is both reasonable and appropriate to ensure that sport pilots exercising night privileges meet the minimum medical qualifications in this rule. Obtaining a medical examination is a relatively minor burden to validate a sport pilot's medical qualification to exercise expanded privileges. Moreover, existing standards allow a sport pilot to conduct operations without obtaining a medical certificate or satisfying BasicMed. A sport pilot is only affected by the additional medical qualification requirements if that sport pilot chooses to exercise these optional new night privileges. FAA discusses the challenges, risks, and specific reasons supporting the medical qualification requirement in the paragraphs that follow.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA disagrees that the requirement for sport pilot night medical qualifications will result in unsafe flying practices; on the contrary, the medical qualification requirements intend to bolster and mitigate unsafe medical conditions that may result in unsafe night operations. In addition, commenters did not provide or cite specific unsafe flying practices that medical qualifications would contribute to for FAA to consider in this final rule. FAA emphasizes that pilots are responsible for adhering to regulations in general. Failure to satisfy those regulatory requirements creates unacceptable risk to the public and can result in suspension or revocation of one's pilot certificate. As subsequently discussed in this preamble, certain medical conditions and vision deficiencies provide unacceptable risk associated with the conduct of sport pilot night operations in the NAS.</P>
                    <P>Also, as discussed in this section, pilots who hold a higher grade of pilot certificate and elect to exercise sport pilot night privileges may take advantage of these sport pilot privileges, if qualified. FAA anticipates that many pilots conducting operations under BasicMed qualifications will transition to using a driver's license medical qualification to conduct sport pilot operations going forward, especially given the expansion of airplanes that sport pilots will be permitted to operate under this final rule. For example, some pilots that previously complied with BasicMed to operate basic general aviation aircraft using private pilot privileges will now be eligible to operate their aircraft with sport pilot privileges and a driver's license. They may choose to follow the sport pilot path because it presents fewer requirements than BasicMed, so long as they do not conduct night operations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">iv. Comments Related to Third-Class Medical Certificate</HD>
                    <P>Many commenters opposed the proposed medical eligibility option of a third-class medical certificate to conduct night operations. Some commenters suggested requiring a third-class medical is ineffective, stating sport pilots may be reluctant to seek a third-class medical certificate because of the possibility of receiving a denial, which then results in disqualifying sport pilot certificate privileges altogether. Other commenters recommended changes to FAA's medical qualification regulations generally. AOPA, EAA, NATA, and NBAA's consolidated comment (“the consolidated comment”), USUA, and several individual commenters asserted the third-class medical certificate requirement defeats one of the purposes of a sport pilot rating certificate, the certificate's utility, and does not offer a safety benefit since third-class medical standards under part 67 do not require night vision tests.</P>
                    <P>
                        Many commenters suggested alternatives to the medical requirements to mitigate any vision considerations and concerns. One commenter opined that pilots who have previously held a medical certificate at any time and have had no significant changes to their vision are at very low risk for decreased visual performance at night and should not be required to provide any additional medical certification to fly at night. The consolidated comment suggested evidence of a successful colorblindness test in lieu of a medical certificate. The consolidated comment and Helicopter Association 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35107"/>
                        International, now known as Vertical Aviation International (VAI), recommended sport pilots receive a one-time verification that the sport pilot previously held a third-class medical without a night limitation or accomplish a self-certification that they can distinguish red, green, and white lights. In support, the commenters state that color vision is congenital and inherently stable regardless of age in the absence of eye disease. Another commenter suggested that FAA should permit sport pilots to self-certify for night operations or pass an FAA-accepted (color) vision test, citing current § 61.303(b)(4) as already providing a medical mitigation.
                    </P>
                    <P>Similarly, LAMA explained that pilots who previously held an FAA medical without a night restriction have already demonstrated their ability to meet the color recognition requirements for night operations, rendering a full medical certificate or a BasicMed review unnecessary to ascertain color vision capabilities. LAMA further explained that FAA already offers multiple color test options to demonstrate compliance with the color recognition requirements of night flight and evidence of compliance could be handled by a simple certification from someone qualified to carry out an appropriate test. An individual commenter noted the standards for the color blindness test were recently improved with updated guidance on acceptable tests by FAA's Office of Aerospace Medicine and suggested FAA remove medical certificate requirements from proposed § 61.329.</P>
                    <P>
                        Prior to this final rule, there were no means for a sport pilot to act as PIC of an aircraft at night. FAA emphasizes the medical qualification requirements for general sport pilot operations were not proposed to be revised in the NPRM (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         those requirements set forth by § 61.303, currently), as some commenters suggested. Only sport pilots who seek to operate at night will be required to maintain a higher level of medical qualification. Therefore, under this final rule, sport pilots may continue to operate (during the day) with a current and valid U.S. driver's license. Sport pilot certificate utility will not be affected or reduced by not pursuing a third-class medical or satisfying BasicMed requirements. In fact, by virtue of expanding the performance and design characteristics of aircraft sport pilots may operate, and by facilitating night operations without having to seek a higher grade of certificate (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a private pilot certificate), this rule bolsters sport pilot certificate utility in a safe manner.
                    </P>
                    <P>Night training and the associated night-time operational privilege are an “optional” sport pilot privilege; a pilot who chooses not to conduct night operations may simply continue to meet the medical requirements set forth in § 61.303. However, FAA proposed additional medical qualification for night flight due to the differing flight characteristics and safety risks by virtue of conducting operations in daylight versus night. To note, the medical qualifications proposed, and adopted by this final rule, do not require a person to hold a third-class medical certificate at the time of night operation, as some commenters suggest. Section 61.329(b) simply provides a pathway for sport pilots to be able to fly at night if they are able to meet the medical eligibility requirements of a third-class medical certificate or BasicMed.</P>
                    <P>
                        However, there are a number of medical deficiencies that may impair safe night flight operations that FAA seeks to mitigate in adopted § 61.329(d) by requiring either a third-class medical certificate or BasicMed. For example, medical conditions such as cardiac disease, lung disease, blood disorders, and cataracts affect blood flow to the eyes and brain, which may impact a pilot's operational ability. Further, various medications and medical conditions such as heart disease, pulmonary disease, vestibular problems, and neurological diseases can independently or collectively impair a person's performance at night, lending credence to the minimum requirement for medical qualifications.
                        <SU>122</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, as was often raised by commenters, the medical qualification seeks to ensure a pilot possesses key visual characteristics, such as depth perception, visual acuity, and color vision to identify terrain and obstacles, read instrumentation, and judge landing paths. For example, adequate vision is more critical to ensure safe night flight operations such as collision avoidance, airport, runway, and taxiway identification, flight instrument use, recognition of adverse weather conditions, and other required tasks unique to night flight operations. Other considerations that affect the safety of flight at night include susceptibility to turbulence, G-forces, spatial disorientation, night illusion issues, and autokinesis. Night operations affect pilot performance especially when operating at altitudes as high as ten thousand feet MSL (or higher in mountainous terrain) in an unpressurized aircraft. In addition, certain health conditions that may be manageable during day operations can become a significant pilot performance issue when operating an aircraft at night, such as cardiac disease, lung disease, blood disorders, and cataracts that affect blood flow to the eyes and brain. Also, some medications intended to mitigate certain health conditions can negatively impact pilot performance during night operations, such as antihistamines, some medications for erectile dysfunction, some antidepressants, anti-malarial medications, steroids, and tamoxifen.</P>
                    <P>
                        Third-class medicals require vision tests, which include testing for color and acuity vision deficiencies, equally valid for day and night operations. As explained, the intent of requiring a third-class medical (or BasicMed) is not limited to only identifying visual anomalies (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         colorblindness, low visual acuity); however, these are important factors that are addressed during an FAA medical exam (and a driver's license visual exam, as subsequently discussed). FAA does not provide a freestanding vision test nor is FAA considering accepting color vision tests as a standalone medical qualification because, as previously discussed, FAA finds comprehensive health validation necessary. The requirement to have successfully obtained and held at least a third-class FAA medical after July 14, 2006, verifies that an individual has met the Federal health standards for that medical certificate at some point in time, which would have verified corrected vision acuity of at least 20/40 and that the individual does not have color vision deficiencies. Even if the individual's FAA medical certificate expires after that date, it is still valid to qualify for BasicMed.  
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        However, FAA acknowledges that color vision is not always static and deficiency can be acquired and change over time and with age. Red and green color deficiency is typically congenital, whereas blue and yellow color vision deficiency is typically acquired. As previously stated, different medical conditions can affect color vision adversely (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         cataracts, multiple medications). In addition, because BasicMed only requires a third-class medical to have been obtained at some point after July 14, 2006, FAA acknowledges that aging and other natural physical deteriorations could affect a person's ability to conduct night operations. Third-class medical certificate validity periods ensure medical fitness for night operations and, likewise, BasicMed ensures there is not exclusive reliance on holding a medical certificate in the past without any other verifying mechanism through the general medical standards and visual 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35108"/>
                        acuity required to obtain a driver's license.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA also disagrees with utilizing self-certification for pilot color vision validation; as previously explained, the medical qualifications proposed and adopted herein are intended to ensure a range of physical performance limitations, one of which includes visual acuity. Many medical conditions that impede pilot performance, especially at night, can be difficult to self-assess or diagnose without a qualified medical professional conducting an evaluation or medical testing.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">v. Comments Suggesting Using BasicMed Without Requiring an Initial Medical Certificate</HD>
                    <P>Twenty-one commenters recommended FAA create alternatives for medical qualification in addition to the third-class medical certificate and BasicMed options. Some commenters questioned the utility of BasicMed as a measure of medical qualification. Commenters recommend that FAA apply the BasicMed requirements generally but not require the pilot to have held a medical certificate after July 14, 2006, which would eliminate the requirement in § 61.23(c)(3) when applied to sport pilots. Some of these commenters suggested that, in addition to BasicMed being the sole medical eligibility requirement, FAA should impose additional requirements, such as an endorsement or recurrent training, as an alternative means to determine eligibility instead of requiring a medical certificate. A few of these commenters stated requiring a medical certificate may have varying impacts on pilots, such as being more difficult for younger pilots who need to obtain a third-class medical certificate to qualify. In addition, a commenter explained that the 20-year safety record for sport pilots has proven sport pilots are more than competent to know their own limitations. Another commenter contended that pilots who have previously held a medical certificate at any time, and have had no significant changes to their vision, are at very low risk for decreased visual performance at night and should not be required to provide any additional medical certification to fly at night. Though many commenters disagreed with requiring a medical certificate as a medical eligibility requirement, a few commenters generally disagreed with FAA allowing BasicMed as medical eligibility requirement sport pilots, and more specifically sport pilot night operations.</P>
                    <P>To emphasize, BasicMed is not the sole requirement for a sport pilot to operate at night; rather, it is one of two options a sport pilot may choose from to conduct sport pilot operations at night. If a person finds it more convenient and attainable to seek a third-class medical certificate, the sport pilot will not need to follow BasicMed provisions, and vice versa. As previously explained, the option for either qualification standard will provide flexibility to sport pilots, ensuring safety while also recognizing the recreational intent of sport pilot certificate use (as opposed to, for example, higher medical certificate requirements for commercial pilot operations).</P>
                    <P>
                        Further, FAA is unclear whether commenters referred to removing the BasicMed requirements that a person must have held an initial medical certificate sometime after July 14, 2006, to qualify for BasicMed,
                        <SU>123</SU>
                         or misunderstood how a current third-class medical was not a requirement but rather one of two options in § 61.329(d). If the former, this rule did not propose and will not make changes to the general regulatory framework of BasicMed.
                        <SU>124</SU>
                         As previously explained, the medical eligibility requirements in § 61.329 ensure the sport pilot has, at some point, been physically evaluated for safe night operations to a third-class medical standard.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter asserted there is plenty of data to prove that allowing BasicMed without the medical requirement is safe but did not provide that supporting data. Another individual commented that the 20-year sport pilot safety record is substantial proof that a driver's license medical is more than adequate to permit night operations. While the current driver's license requirement facilitates day operations for sport pilots, it does not facilitate night operations. Therefore, FAA finds the commenters' references to data overgeneralized and not relevant at this time, as this is a new operation for sport pilots under this final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">vi. Comments Recommending FAA Permit the Possession of a Valid Driver's License as the Basis for Medical Eligibility for Sport Pilot Night Operations</HD>
                    <P>Sixty-three commenters recommended permitting the use of only a valid driver's license to medically qualify for sport pilot night operations, instead of requiring a third-class medical certificate or BasicMed, citing burden and cost on sport pilots wishing to operate at night (as previously discussed), conflicts with standing requirements in § 61.303, and alleged lack of safety need or evidence. While some commenters recommended holding a U.S. driver's license (considering any applicable limitations) as the sole medical eligibility requirement for sport pilot night operations, others suggested FAA permit the use of a driver's license with alternative requirements, such as a vision test or additional training.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters, including Fly Eagle Sport, suggested that possession of a driver's license alone should be sufficient justification for a sport pilot night operations, contending that a person's ability to operate large buses, trucks, or other non-commercial vehicles, such as passenger vans or motorhomes, with just a driver's license to qualify to operate at night because driving these vehicles only requires possession of a driver's license. An individual commenter referenced a 2009 National Highway Traffic Safety Administration study that concluded only 1.3% of all personal vehicle crashes are a result of medical emergencies, stating it would be safe to assume data could be extrapolated to aircraft accidents. Some individual commenters opined driver's licenses should be sufficient because states have vision requirements to obtain driver's licenses and may impose night driving restrictions on licensed motor vehicle operations.</P>
                    <P>
                        Possession of a driver's license alone, including a non-commercial or commercial driver's license with a DOT Medical Exam, does not adequately qualify a sport pilot for night operations as many medical conditions that may significantly affect a pilot's ability to operate an aircraft safely, especially at night (as discussed in the preceding sections), are not adequately screened for in obtaining a state-issued driver's license. The DOT Medical Exam referenced by these commenters is used by the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration to medically qualify commercial motor vehicle drivers. Unlike BasicMed and medical exams conducted under part 67, medical providers conducting DOT Medical Exams are evaluating the applicant based on the assumption that the applicant is intending to operate a motor vehicle, not an aircraft. Accordingly, the exam provider may not be considering some of the unique aeromedical aspects, such as the effect of medications at altitude or effects on the applicant's vestibular system. General health conditions cannot be mitigated in an aircraft by simply pulling over to the side of the highway, as a driver of a motor vehicle may be 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35109"/>
                        able to do. By requiring the applicant to at least meet the requirements for BasicMed, the PIC has received at least one baseline part 67 aeromedical exam, mitigating risk of a medical condition that could cause a potential hazard at night.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, FAA finds the suggested fatality rates associated with motor vehicle medical emergencies to be an insufficient basis upon which to determine a driver's license alone is sufficient for safe aircraft operations, as the safety considerations between cars and aircraft operating at night differ considerably. For example, typical speeds for operating a motor vehicle are significantly less and there is little need to scan more than a 
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                         to 
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                         mile ahead visually. If a driver encounters bad weather, becomes ill, or has a mechanical issue it is normally easy to pull over to the side of the road safely or slow to reduced speeds to address any hazards. Conditions such as spatial or visual disorientation are generally limited, traffic avoidance is much more predictable, and any atmospheric pressure or oxygen level changes are gradual and negligible, generally. Conversely, typical speeds in flight are significantly faster than a motor vehicle and pilots require the visual acuity to scan miles ahead of an aircraft. If a pilot encounters bad weather, becomes ill, or has a mechanical issue, emergency diversions are far more complex and may take longer to achieve a safe landing considering time to descend from altitude and distance from a suitable landing site. The option to make an immediate landing may not be safe or reasonable. Traffic avoidance in an aircraft at night requires greater scan intervals ranging from 180 to 200 degrees to see and avoid traffic and obstructions. Flight altitudes, especially above 5000 feet, have an additional effect on the human body.  
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Vision and other medical standards that permit the operation of a motor vehicle vary substantially from state to state and in most instances do not validate color vision. Because of the lack of standard vision requirements from state to state (or territory), and the interval at which these vision tests are conducted, the risk associated with medical deficiencies for pilots operating at night is not properly mitigated using only a U.S.-issued driver's license and would otherwise expose the public to unacceptable operational risk during night flight operations. In addition, periodic medical examination (associated with a medical certificate or BasicMed) is necessary to validate that a person is minimally fit to safely operate an aircraft, particularly at night. As the complexity and risk associated with flight operations increase (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         through expansion of night privileges and aircraft that a sport pilot may operate), the level of safety must also increase; here, a minimal level of medical eligibility.
                    </P>
                    <P>Further, no conflict exists between the adopted requirements of § 61.329(b) and the standing requirements of § 61.303. As explained, the NPRM did not propose revisions to the medical requirements set forth in § 61.303 to operate during the day. Adopted § 61.329 simply prescribes a higher medical qualification requirement for those pilots who choose to operate at night. Should a pilot only operate during the day, that pilot may meet the minimum requirements of § 61.303, as currently set forth.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters opined on the relationship between higher-level certificates, sport pilot operating privileges, and BasicMed. Some stated individuals qualifying under BasicMed will seek a higher grade of pilot certificate permitting night operations. Another commenter recommended keeping the current driver's license medical requirement for operating light-sport category aircraft and extending its use to apply to the private pilot certificate. A few commenters requested additional clarification on when a pilot with a higher-grade pilot certificate exercising sport pilot privileges may use a driver's license for medical qualification. LAMA and several individual commenters recommended pilots holding a higher pilot certificate and who had previously held an aviation medical without any night restrictions should be automatically allowed to exercise night privileges without the need for any additional medical review providing they continue to hold a current driver's license.</P>
                    <P>
                        Pilots holding a higher grade of pilot certificate (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         private, commercial, or air transport pilot (ATP)) can exercise the privileges of a sport pilot certificate using a valid driver's license as the medical qualification. However, the operating limitations of that higher grade of pilot certificate will apply 
                        <SU>125</SU>
                         and pilots holding a higher grade of pilot certificate must still comply with the § 61.329(b) medical requirements to operate as PIC at night. It is generally settled that certificated pilots can exercise the privileges of a lower grade of pilot certificate within the limitations provided for that lower grade of pilot certificate; therefore, FAA does not find a table clarifying privileges associated with a driver's license medical qualification is necessary. A private pilot or higher grade of certificate can exercise the privileges of a sport pilot certificate, likewise subject to a sport pilot's operating limitations. However, just because a pilot may hold a higher-level certificate does not mean the person should be automatically eligible for sport pilot operations from a medical qualification perspective. Many pilots hold higher-level certificates but choose to operate lower-level certificate operational privileges because the person may not be able to meet the higher-grade medical qualifications commensurate with the level of risk (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a first-class medical certificate for ATP privileges). In this case, the same reasons apply that require the person to hold some level of medical qualifications, either through at least a third-class medical certificate or BasicMed. Conversely, if the pilot held a valid higher-level medical certificate (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         first- or second-class medical), then that pilot could operate with a sport pilot certificate at night, as the regulatory text specifies that “a medical certificate” must be held.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">vii. Comments Recommending Vision Test in Combination With Unrestricted Driver's License for Night Operations Instead of a Medical Certificate or BasicMed</HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA received approximately 140 comments recommending a vision test or similar test to medically qualify for sport pilot night operations instead of any basic medical requirements (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         at least a third class medical or BasicMed). Many of these commenters explained that obtaining an FAA medical or satisfying BasicMed requirements is an excessive or overburdensome medical qualification requirement for sport pilots to operate at night. Commenters generally described that most pilots who possess a sport pilot certificate, or exercise sport pilot privileges, do so because they do not want to seek an FAA medical certificate due to cost or because the possibility that a denial could jeopardize their sport pilot privileges overall. Because of these concerns, many commenters explained that most sport pilots will not seek night privileges. Some commenters suggested that instead of the proposal, FAA permit an eye exam conducted by a health professional who can verify acceptable night vision, with a variety of suggestions ranging from specific vision test parameters, minimum night experience requirements, logbook endorsement, or a combination thereof.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As previously explained, a vision test alone is insufficient to permit sport pilot night operations, as the intent of the third-class medical (at least) or BasicMed requirement is not only for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35110"/>
                        those considerations analyzed by a vision test. A vision test would address some of the concerns to verify a sport pilot is medically fit to conduct operations at night, but many other medical deficiencies or conditions previously identified would go unaddressed with just a vision test. This preamble previously contemplated and addressed the alleged cost and burden in section IV.H.1.j.iv.
                    </P>
                    <P>Finally, FAA does not regulate based on concerns that a person would be deterred from obtaining night privileges because of concerns of being denied a medical certificate that could later affect BasicMed or other certification considerations. As discussed in the preceding sections, FAA finds some validation of medical fitness to be necessary given the safety risk to a pilot, passengers, and public and does not consider the medical qualification requirements in this rule to create an undue burden to address that risk.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">viii. Comments Recommending FAA Remove § 61.329(d) Medical Eligibility Requirements Altogether for Sport Pilot Night Privileges</HD>
                    <P>
                        Approximately 63 commenters suggested FAA remove the medical eligibility requirement for sport pilot night privileges. Many of these commenters, including AutoGyro Certification LTD, opined that training and a qualifying instructor endorsement requirement would be sufficient to validate that a sport pilot can operate safely at night without the need for an FAA medical. Some commenters stated the medical standards would not make night flying safer, whereas training and instructor endorsements would. For example, one individual commenter referenced a study that suggests pilots are not forthcoming on medical applications to support that training is more important than medical qualifications. While some commenters suggested specific training and endorsement parameters (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         40 hours of night experience, increased night currency requirements), some, including USUA, recommended that proposed § 61.329(d) be eliminated from the final rule in its entirety.
                    </P>
                    <P>Twenty-five commenters stated FAA failed to provide evidence or data to justify the medical qualifications set forth in proposed § 61.329(d).</P>
                    <P>As previously discussed, this final rule adopts certain training and endorsement requirements to address aeronautical proficiency when operating at night. However, training and endorsements alone are insufficient to determine if someone is physically fit to safely operate an aircraft at night. Flight instructors are not trained or qualified to provide medical assessments to validate that a pilot is medically fit to act as PIC. Designated medical examiners are trained and authorized to conduct FAA medical examinations focused on medical conditions specific to flight physiology, particularly those medical considerations applicable to night operations.</P>
                    <P>For the reasons discussed herein, in combination with the other requirements for sport pilots to be permitted to conduct night operations, including certain training, endorsement, and experience requirements, a sport pilot will be appropriately qualified to conduct night operations. These requirements are similar to the requirements a private pilot must meet to operate at night time, set forth in § 61.109. FAA recognizes that the night medical qualifications for private pilots can equally serve sport pilots for the same night privileges and is appropriate to mitigate the risk associated with night operations, as previously addressed in this section. FAA finds this level of safety aligns with the safety continuum construct explained in the NPRM.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA asserts that concerns regarding misleading statements 
                        <SU>126</SU>
                         on medical applications may be applicable to all pilots who apply for a medical certificate (or even a pilot certificate). The penalties for those individuals are significant, including leading to revocation of a pilot certificate. FAA's Office of Aerospace Medicine has a long history of identifying and evaluating medical conditions or deficiencies that create unacceptable risk to the public and the need to medically qualify pilots ensuring safe flight operations.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ix. Comments Suggesting an Alternate Process for Those Previously Denied an FAA Medical Certificate or Have Never Obtained an FAA Medical Certificate</HD>
                    <P>Five commenters suggested FAA permit sport pilots to operate even if they have been denied (thereby not meeting the BasicMed requirements set forth in § 61.23(c)), deferred, or never obtained an FAA medical certificate. One commenter suggested there should be a process for retaining sport pilot privileges if a medical certificate is denied or revoked.</P>
                    <P>
                        This final rule does not adopt an alternate medical qualification process for those applicants who have been denied, deferred,
                        <SU>127</SU>
                         or never obtained an FAA medical certificate, as this would involve broad analysis of the medical certification framework not contemplated in the scope of this rule, which is tailored to light-sport category aircraft, operations, and sport pilot training and qualification. For the reasons discussed, FAA finds it necessary to require a person to either hold a medical certificate or, at minimum, have held one in the past in accordance with the BasicMed provisions and finds those medical considerations to justify no alternate pathway for medical certificate denial or revocation at this time. FAA notes that, regardless of the medical requirements for a particular operation, all pilots are prohibited from acting as a required pilot flight crewmember during a medical deficiency, in accordance with § 61.53.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter recommended that a person with a glider rating and a self-launch endorsement should be able to medically self-certify without a driver's license or any medical oversight from FAA to fly an aircraft with a gross weight of up to 1,874 pounds. FAA notes that neither a medical certificate nor a driver's license is required for daytime glider operations in accordance with §§ 61.303 and 61.23(b). This privilege existed under the previous rule and will be retained in the new rule. However, FAA notes that sport pilots who wish to exercise the newly introduced optional night privileges of § 61.329 in a glider must comply with the § 61.329(b) medical requirements to act as PIC at night. These night medical requirements are necessary to mitigate additional risk, as previously discussed, and apply equally to glider pilots.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">x. Comments Regarding Alternate Medical Personnel To Qualify Sport Pilots  </HD>
                    <P>One commenter recommended FAA permit a state-licensed physician using current FAA medical requirements to determine eligibility for third-class medical certificates including for sport pilots. The commenter reasoned that a personal physician is more familiar with a person's medical conditions compared to accomplishing a physical with an aviation medical examiner (AME). Another commenter stated only a small percentage of the standards for a third-class medical certificate relate to the ability to fly at night, which can be adequately evaluated by any licensed healthcare provider.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 67.4 outlines the requirements for obtaining a first-, second-, and third-class medical certificate in which the exam must be performed by an AME designee who was designated in accordance with part 183. AMEs receive specific initial and recurrent training in aviation medicine to include medical conditions and treatments incompatible with aviation safety and possible mitigation of those 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35111"/>
                        conditions. In addition, AMEs receive ongoing mentoring by FAA Office of Aerospace Medicine as well as mandatory recurrent aerospace medical education. Under adopted § 61.329(b), a person will have received at least one examination by an AME who is specifically trained to ensure medical fitness pertaining to aviation operations, due to the requirement to either currently hold or previously have held an FAA medical certificate (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         for BasicMed compliance).
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA did not consider changes to permit state-licensed physicians to conduct evaluations for FAA medical qualification purposes, as state-licensed physicians may not have this additional aviation focused training, and such a change would involve broad analysis of the medical certification framework not contemplated in the scope of this rule. However, in accordance with § 68.7, an airman may use a state-licensed physician to conduct a BasicMed medical evaluation using the comprehensive medical examination checklist for an airman to operate an aircraft without an FAA medical.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">k. Airplanes With a Controllable Pitch Propeller or Aircraft With a Retractable Landing Gear</HD>
                    <P>Currently, the § 1.1 definition of light-sport aircraft requires an aircraft to have a fixed or ground adjustable propeller if the aircraft is a powered aircraft other than a powered glider; powered gliders must have a fixed or feathering propeller system. Relatedly, the current definition requires a light-sport aircraft to have fixed landing gear, except for aircraft intended for operating on water or a glider. The NPRM proposed to permit sport pilots to operate airplanes with a controllable pitch propeller or an aircraft with fixed or retractable landing gear (or with floats for aircraft intended for operation on water) if that person accomplishes additional ground and flight training and obtains the qualifying instructor endorsement, set forth in proposed § 61.331.</P>
                    <P>
                        As it pertains to controllable pitch propellers, the NPRM explained the intent of the proposal was to permit sport pilots to operate airplanes equipped with either an automated or manual controllable pitch propeller,
                        <SU>128</SU>
                         but require sport pilots choosing to operate airplanes equipped with manually controlled propellers to complete additional training and receive an instructor endorsement to mitigate the increased risks associated with operator errors affecting safety. FAA subsequently identified a drafting error in § 61.315(c)(20)(ii). As proposed, that section provided that the training in § 61.331(b) would apply to sport pilots operating aircraft with a controllable pitch propeller. However, the language in § 61.331(b) applies only to airplanes with a controllable pitch propeller. To resolve this inconsistency and effectuate the NPRM intent, FAA modified § 61.315(c)(20)(ii) to state that it applies to airplanes only.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, FAA recognizes that proposed § 61.315(c)(20)(ii) could inadvertently capture airplanes with automated propellers, particularly in tandem with new § 61.316(a)(4), (a)(5), and (b). Specifically, proposed § 61.316(a)(4) set forth the limitation and design requirements for the aircraft a sport pilot may operate pertaining to propellers, stating that for powered aircraft other than powered-gliders, a sport pilot could operate an aircraft with fixed or ground-adjustable propeller, except as provided in § 61.316(b). Section 61.316(b), in pertinent part, proposed additional training requirements (set forth in proposed § 61.331) for those airplanes with controllable pitch propellers. Read together, the proposal could have inadvertently limited sport pilots from operating aircraft with automated propellers by specifying, “fixed or ground-adjustable,” in § 61.316(a)(4), even though the NPRM explained FAA's intent to permit operations in those aircraft with automated propellers. In addition, § 61.316(a)(5) proposed to limit powered gliders to either a fixed or feathered propeller system. As previously stated, the NPRM explained FAA's intent to remove powerplant limitations from the performance limitations and design requirements for sport pilot operations.</P>
                    <P>FAA continues to find the overall design of these propeller systems is such that they are relatively simple to operate and would enable pilots to take advantage of the improved climb performance associated with that propeller system designed to avoid and clear obstacles during the climb and departure phase of a flight. Similarly, FAA finds aircraft with an automated controllable-pitch propeller would enable pilots to take advantage of the improved aerodynamic performance associated with these aircraft, as compared to fixed pitch propellers, without imposing additional workload.</P>
                    <P>
                        Therefore, this final rule adopts revised regulatory text to capture both types of propellers, manually controlled and automated.
                        <SU>129</SU>
                         by modifying the proposed design limitation in § 61.316(a)(4) and renumbering to § 61.316(a)(9). That proposal would have limited powered aircraft other than gliders to a fixed or ground-adjustable propeller; in this final rule, there is no limitation on the propeller design of aircraft that sport pilots may operate, thereby permitting the use of any powerplant (subject to certain training restrictions subsequently discussed). Relatedly, FAA removed proposed § 61.316(a)(5) specific to powerplant limitations for powered gliders; therefore, this final rule will permit sport pilots to operate gliders with any powerplant design, including those equipped with propellers. To note, due to renumbering § 61.316(a)(4) and removing (a)(5), this final rule renumbers the subparagraphs within § 61.316(a) (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         proposed § 61.316(a)(6) will become § 61.316(a)(4), proposed § 61.316(a)(7) will become § 61.316(a)(5), etc.). These revisions respond to various comments seeking additional clarification due to ambiguity in the proposal.
                    </P>
                    <P>While sport pilots will be permitted to operate an airplane meeting the performance and design parameters in § 61.316 with the use of any powerplant, FAA continues to find it necessary to require additional training and an endorsement to act as pilot in command of an airplane with a manual controllable pitch propeller (as proposed in § 61.331(b)) due to the corresponding increased workload, attention, and adjustment by the pilot. Therefore, this final rule retains the proposed requirement for a sport pilot to obtain training and a flight instructor endorsement to operate airplanes with a controllable pitch propeller in §§ 61.315(c)(20)(ii) and 61.316(b) but specifies this training is only required for manual controllable pitch propellers. Section 61.331(b)(2) specifies that a sport pilot must receive additional flight training and receive an instructor endorsement to operate manually controlled propellers (§ 61.331(b)(1) provides an alternative to training and endorsement, which is subsequently discussed). The additional training and endorsement requirements for manual controllable pitch propellers will mitigate the additional risk and safety concerns, as opposed to the propeller pitch controls that are automated and do not correspond to the additional workload required to operate manual propellers. In addition, FAA added § 61.415(l), which requires a flight instructor to have received the training and endorsement in the manual controllable pitch propeller in an airplane or an aircraft with a retractable landing gear aircraft prior to providing flight instruction.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA proposed a similar framework for additional training for those aircraft with a retractable landing gear. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35112"/>
                        Proposed § 61.315(c)(20)(i) stated a person with a sport pilot certificate may not act as PIC of an aircraft if the aircraft has retractable landing gear, unless the person has met the requirements of proposed § 61.331(a); this training requirement was reiterated in proposed § 61.316(b). Proposed § 61.331(a) set forth the training and endorsement requirements for operations with these design parameters. This final rule contains changes to that framework to correct two drafting errors that, if left unchanged, would create conflicting requirements between §§ 61.315 and 61.316 and between paragraphs (a) and (b) in § 61.316. Accordingly, FAA makes changes to § 61.316, along with conforming changes to § 61.315 to correct those errors. The final rule makes clear that sport pilot certificate requires operators of aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear to comply with training and endorsement requirements in § 61.331 unless the person logged pilot-in-command time in such an aircraft before October 22, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>The first drafting error is related to discrepancies between the language in proposed §§ 61.315 and 61.316. Proposed § 61.315(c)(20)(i) stated a person with a sport pilot certificate may not act as PIC of an aircraft if the aircraft has retractable landing gear, unless the person has met training and endorsement requirements in proposed § 61.331(a). Proposed § 61.316(b) also specified the training and endorsement requirement for airplanes that have retractable landing gear, but the language indicated that it applied to seaplanes with retractable landing gear, as opposed to all amphibious aircraft with retractable landing gear.  </P>
                    <P>The second drafting error relates to discrepancies between § 61.316 paragraphs (a) and (b). In the NPRM, FAA proposed to allow sport pilot certificate holders to operate gliders with fixed or retractable landing gear (proposed § 61.316(a)(9)) and aircraft intended for operation on water with fixed or retractable landing gear (proposed § 61.316(a)(10)). Again, FAA's proposed language in § 61.316(b) applied to airplanes with retractable landing gear to comply with training and endorsement requirements in § 61.331. Therefore, the proposal would have applied to airplanes intended for operation on water that have retractable landing gear. This directly conflicts with the language in § 61.316(a)(10) that proposed to allow sport pilots to operate aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear without training or an endorsement.</P>
                    <P>
                        The history of the current requirements informs FAA's understanding of the discrepancy. In the original 2004 rule establishing light-sport aircraft, FAA defined gliders with retractable landing gear as light-sport aircraft,
                        <SU>130</SU>
                         which meant they fell within the scope of sport pilot privileges. In contrast, aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear did not fall within the light-sport aircraft definition. Therefore, pilots needed a regulatory exemption to operate aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear under sport pilot privileges. Aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable gear present additional complexities for safe landings compared to fixed hull aircraft. Accordingly, the exemption required training to mitigate the additional risk of permitting sport pilots to operate these types of aircraft.
                        <SU>131</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In 2007, FAA changed the definition of light-sport aircraft to include aircraft intended for operation on water with fixed or retractable landing gear.
                        <SU>132</SU>
                         That change eliminated the need for exemptions. However, FAA did not update the applicable regulations to require training. That meant FAA no longer required training as a condition of exercising light-sport privileges in aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Since then, sport pilots have been operating aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear without applicable training. FAA recognizes the need to mitigate the risk associated with the potential mishandling of retractable landing gear on an aircraft intended for operation on water, which has contributed to accidents in these aircraft.
                        <SU>133</SU>
                         As a result, FAA proposed § 61.316(b) to require sport pilots to complete training and obtain an endorsement to operate aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear. In addition, removing the weight limit on the types of aircraft sport pilots may operate will expand the variety of aircraft eligible for sport pilot operations. FAA anticipates this will include additional aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear, including amphibious seaplanes. FAA includes the training and endorsement requirements in this final rule to mitigate the demonstrated risk under current rules, as well as the risk associated with expanding the variety of aircraft intended for operation on water now available to sport pilots.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To correct the drafting errors and effectuate FAA's original intent in the NPRM, the final rule makes clear that sport pilot certificate holders must complete training and obtain an endorsement to operate aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear. The rule, as adopted, includes several changes to § 61.316 to resolve these problems. First, FAA removed proposed § 61.316(a)(10) so that it no longer creates a conflict with § 61.316(b), implementing FAA's original intent in the NPRM. Second, FAA removed the reference to aircraft intended for operation on water from the language in proposed § 61.316(a)(11) and re-numbered that paragraph to § 61.316(a)(8) so the provision applies to operation on water or land.
                        <SU>134</SU>
                         Third, FAA replaced the term “airplane” in proposed § 61.316(b) with “aircraft” so that the adopted version now applies to all aircraft with retractable landing gear. FAA makes this change in response to a comment (summarized in subsequent paragraphs) and to take into account that aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear include other categories of aircraft. This also resolves the conflict between §§ 61.315(c)(20)(i) and 61.316(b). See section IV.H.1.k. for additional discussion of the change from “airplane” to “aircraft” in § 61.316(b). Together, these changes provide that aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear now fall within § 61.316(b), which includes the requirements for training and an endorsement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, FAA recognizes that sport pilots have been operating aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear since 2007 without training or an endorsement. In addition, some sport pilots operated these aircraft with training under exemptions between 2004 and 2007. Requiring sport pilots who have already been operating these aircraft to undergo training and obtain an endorsement would likely create an unnecessary burden. In some cases, the pilots may have been operating these aircraft for the past 20 years. In addition, many of the aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear are too heavy to have been operated as light-sport aircraft under FAA's previous rules. Accordingly, those pilots would have been required to hold private pilot licenses to operate them, which would have included a complex endorsement under § 61.31(e). To ease the burden on this population, the requirement for training and endorsement does not apply to pilots with experience operating aircraft intended for operation on water with 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35113"/>
                        retractable landing gear prior to October 22, 2025 as specified in § 61.331(c).
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA received approximately 29 comments specific to permitting the use of aircraft with an adjustable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear. Most of these commenters, including Van's Aircraft, AutoGyro Certification LTD, Hartzell Propeller, and GFTA, supported these expanded privileges. Commenters generally stated these design characteristics would constitute a safety enhancement through improvements in climb and cruise performance.</P>
                    <P>GFTA noted concerns with manually adjusted propellers as leading to misconfigured propellers and maintenance errors. Similarly, one commenter stated mechanical failures and pilot errors make retractable gear inherently more dangerous than fixed gear. FAA finds these safety concerns are mitigated through the retention of additional training and an endorsement validating proficiency by a qualified flight instructor. This training and validation of proficiency through an endorsement seeks to enable operations, while ensuring pilots are sufficiently trained on the risks of operations with adjustable pitch propellers and retractable landing gear and capable of taking corrective action with respect to these systems as necessary. FAA notes there are no prescriptive training hour requirements to retain flexibility and deference to an authorized instructor's expertise in determining when a person is sufficiently proficient in the aircraft operation, further reducing any barrier due to an overly prescriptive burden.</P>
                    <P>FAA received several comments about other operational privileges necessitating additional training and an endorsement. NAFI and some individual commenters recommended FAA create a table to clarify what a pilot must accomplish to obtain an endorsement to fly airplanes with controllable pitch propellers and retractable landing gear and requested clarification as to whether high-performance and complex endorsements are available and applicable to a sport pilot. Pilots must obtain training and an instructor endorsement under § 61.31 to operate complex or high-performance airplanes, which is equally applicable to sport pilots. FAA finds the revisions previously discussed more clearly communicate training and endorsement requirements for adjustable pitch propellers and retractable landing gear and align with the current training and endorsement framework in part 61, rendering a table unnecessary at this time.</P>
                    <P>LAMA and USUA suggested modifying § 61.331(b) and substituting the word “airplane” with “aircraft” with respect to the use of manual controllable pitch propellers. USUA further stated a few modern gyroplanes have them and there may be a few newer weight-shift-control trikes that have controllable pitch propellers as well.</P>
                    <P>FAA is only expanding the use of manual controllable pitch propeller for airplanes because the intent is to only increase the scope of the airplane and its capabilities to be similar to what FAA currently requires in § 61.31 for pilots seeking to act as pilot-in-command of a complex airplane or a high-performance airplane in which additional training and an endorsement are received.</P>
                    <P>One commenter opined the proposal permits multiengine and retractable landing gear privileges and suggested providing clarification regarding the use of logbook endorsements to permit sport pilots to operate multiengine and retractable landing gear aircraft. A sport pilot cannot obtain multiengine privileges in the current, nor in the proposed or adopted, framework. Sections 61.311 and 61.313 only set forth flight proficiency and aeronautical experience requirements for single-engine land or sea privileges for the airplane category. FAA did not propose a sport pilot airplane multiengine privilege and maintains the status quo that a person seeking to operate a multiengine airplane will need to obtain a private pilot certificate or higher with an airplane multiengine rating.</P>
                    <P>One commenter recommended FAA expand sport pilot certificate endorsements under the driver's license medical requirement, including endorsements for retractable gear and adjustable pitch propeller use. In response, FAA notes that retractable landing gear and manual propeller pitch control privileges will be permitted by additional training and obtaining instructor endorsement requirements, not by the individual's medical eligibility. FAA does not find additional medical qualification requirements necessary for these endorsements.</P>
                    <P>One commenter stated possession of a private pilot certificate and a complex endorsement should permit a pilot to operate a constant speed propeller with no additional training. In addition, the commenter suggested allowing sport pilots to operate complex airplanes by satisfying the additional training and endorsement requirements in § 61.31(e). The commenter stated constant speed propellers and retractable landing gear are not difficult to manage, especially for aircraft that do not incorporate a propeller control, and an appropriately trained and endorsed sport pilot should be permitted to operate a complex aircraft. Relatedly, several commenters recommended a higher grade of pilot certificate, the appropriate experience, and complex airplane endorsements to be permitted to operate aircraft with an adjustable pitch propeller or retractable landing gear without additional training and endorsements.</P>
                    <P>FAA maintains the safety continuum concept supports the need for sport pilots to obtain additional training and endorsement to operate airplanes with a manual controllable pitch propeller or retractable landing gear because sport pilots without this additional training can misuse these systems. The potential mismanagement of retractable landing gear leads to additional risk of accidents. Similarly, mismanagement of a manual controllable pitch propeller can inadvertently damage an engine. As discussed in the NPRM, FAA finds that requiring training in the operation of an airplane with a manual controllable pitch propeller or an aircraft with retractable landing gear would allow the sport pilot to become proficient with the use of these specific designs and capabilities before acting as PIC in the aircraft. This training and endorsement mitigates the additional risk.  </P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed in the NPRM, FAA noted manual controllable pitch propellers and retractable landing gear are features of complex airplanes as defined in § 61.1.
                        <SU>135</SU>
                         Pilots seeking to operate complex airplanes are required to obtain training and an endorsement under § 61.31(e). The commenter is correct that pilots who already hold a complex endorsement in accordance with § 61.31(e) are currently not, and will not be, required to obtain training and an endorsement to operate airplanes with manual controllable pitch propellers or retractable landing gear because the training to receive a complex endorsement provides the necessary knowledge and skills to operate aircraft with those systems. In addition, a sport pilot may receive training and an endorsement from an authorized instructor in accordance with that section to operate a complex airplane. Since training in complex airplanes includes instruction on the use of manual controllable pitch propellers and retractable landing gear, FAA proposed, and adopts herein, § 61.331(a)(1) and (b)(1), relieving a pilot with a complex airplane endorsement from the requirement to obtain an additional endorsement under § 61.331 when seeking to operate an airplane with manual controllable pitch 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35114"/>
                        propellers or retractable landing gear. In addition, as stated in the NPRM,
                        <SU>136</SU>
                         if the person has experience in an airplane with manual controllable pitch propellers or aircraft with retractable landing gear but does not have a complex endorsement to meet § 61.331(a)(1) or (b)(1), FAA will accept previous flight experience acquired in an airplane with a controllable pitch propeller or an aircraft with a retractable landing gear obtained before or after this final rule publishes. The pilot time must be properly documented in the pilot's logbook or flight record and otherwise satisfies the experience requirements provided in § 61.331. However, the requirement to obtain a flight instructor endorsement validating proficiency is still applicable to account for any possible passage of time since the previous flight experience.
                    </P>
                    <P>Some commenters raised concerns that permitting controllable pitch propellers and retractable landing gear may cause insurance premiums to increase. FAA cannot speculate nor does FAA regulate based on insurance company response.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters opposed expanding sport pilot privileges to operating airplanes with a retractable landing gear, except for gliders or for aircraft that can take off and land both on land and in water (sometimes colloquially referred to as amphibious aircraft), for various reasons. One commenter suggested FAA not expand sport pilot privileges to variable pitch propellers, unless it is a single-lever power control with no independent pilot control of pitch, but did not provide differentiation for consideration as to the handling characteristics.</P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed, commenters are correct that this final rule permits sport pilots to operate all propellers (automated and manual) but requires pilots of airplanes with manual controllable pitch propellers and aircraft with a retractable landing gear to receive additional training and an instructor qualifying endorsement. FAA notes the final rule is not reducing the minimum flight experience requirements for a sport pilot certificate and will require the training and proficiency validating endorsement to facilitate the expansion of privileges in a safe manner. FAAs notes the expansion of operational privileges to aircraft with a retractable landing gear and a controllable pitch propeller after obtaining additional training and a qualifying flight instructor endorsement is not novel. Since 2007, FAA has permitted sport pilots to operate seaplanes or gliders with a retractable landing gear and finds this privilege can extend to all category and class privileges available to sport pilots with additional training for the reasons explained in the NPRM and herein.
                        <SU>137</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Relatedly, two commenters stated it is illogical to require a controllable pitch propeller endorsement for a fixed-pitch propeller aircraft if that aircraft has previously equipped with a controllable pitch propeller. FAA explains the training and qualifying flight instructor endorsement required to operate an airplane with an adjustable pitch propeller is only applicable if the existing configuration of the aircraft a sport pilot intends to operate has an adjustable pitch propeller.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Model-Specific Endorsement for Aircraft Certificated With a Simplified Flight Controls Designation (§§ 61.9, 61.31, 61.415, and 61.429)</HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA proposed to establish (and adopts in this final rule) a simplified flight controls designation in § 22.180 (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         aircraft without primary flight controls available to the pilot). Because FAA does not currently have a regulatory mechanism to facilitate training and a proficiency validation, and FAA anticipates varying simplified flight controls designs from aircraft to aircraft,
                        <SU>138</SU>
                         the NPRM proposed to require all pilots operating aircraft designed and certificated with simplified flight controls to obtain make and model specific training and an instructor endorsement validating competency in that unique design. In addition, FAA proposed that applicants seeking an initial category and class rating or privilege in an aircraft with simplified flight controls must successfully pass a practical test. FAA received comments on this framework, as discussed in the following section, but adopts the framework as proposed and explained herein.
                    </P>
                    <P>Therefore, new § 61.31(l) will contain the qualification requirements for persons seeking to act as PIC of an aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation. Specifically, a pilot will be required to obtain model-specific training in paragraph (l)(1) and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor in (l)(2)). FAA notes there are no prescriptive training hour requirements to retain flexibility and deference to an authorized instructor's expertise in determining when a person is sufficiently proficient in the aircraft operation, further reducing any barrier due to an overly prescriptive burden.</P>
                    <P>The authorized instructor may be a subpart H instructor or a subpart K sport pilot instructor but, regardless of the instructor's qualifications, the instructor will be required to first receive the model-specific training and the accompanying endorsement to validate that the instructor is proficient in the operation of the aircraft. This final rule will add new § 61.415(m) to expressly limit a subpart K sport pilot instructor from providing training in an aircraft with simplified flight controls designation unless the sport pilot instructor has received the model-specific training and endorsement required under proposed § 61.31(l) from an authorized instructor. Similarly, the addition of § 61.429(d) will expressly limit a subpart K instructor seeking to exercise the privileges of their flight instructor certificate in a model-specific aircraft that has a simplified flight controls designation from providing training in an aircraft with simplified flight controls designation unless the person has received the training and endorsement requirements specified in proposed § 61.31(l).</P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed in the NPRM, FAA recognized that because this is a new training requirement, no pilot will have received the training or endorsement necessary to act as PIC. FAA expects the first cadre of instructors will be qualified by instructor pilots employed by manufacturers of aircraft with simplified flight controls, and the availability of authorized instructors will expand accordingly. FAA did not receive any feedback expressing concern with the availability of instructors during the comment period and maintains this framework will not create an access barrier for pilots or prospective pilots. New § 61.195(n) (which was proposed as paragraph (m)) will permit instructor pilots who are employed or used by a manufacturer of aircraft with the simplified flight controls designation to provide training and endorsements to the initial cadre of authorized instructors and pilot examiners.
                        <SU>139</SU>
                         FAA notes that only subpart H instructors with the appropriate category and class will be permitted to receive training from these manufacturer instructor pilots to establish the initial cadre of § 61.31(l) authorized instructors (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         other subpart H instructors and subpart K flight instructors). The training requirements largely mirror those set forth in § 61.31(l): have received and logged model specific training in that aircraft from an instructor pilot for the manufacturer of the aircraft and receive an endorsement validating proficiency. In sum, the manufacturer instructor pilots may train subpart H flight instructors (§ 61.195(n)); subpart H flight instructors may train other 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35115"/>
                        subpart H flight instructors and subpart K flight instructors (§ 61.415(n)); and subpart K flight instructors can train other subpart K flight instructors, sport pilots, and sport pilot applicants (§ 61.31(l)).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Aeronautical experience obtained in an aircraft with simplified flight controls is not equal to the aeronautical experience obtained in aircraft with conventional controls.
                        <SU>140</SU>
                         For example, a person seeking a commercial pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category helicopter class rating should not be able to use pilot time acquired in a helicopter with simplified flight control designation to meet the PIC flight time experience requirement in § 61.129(c)(2)(i), which requires 35 hours of PIC flight time in a helicopter due to the differing operational characteristics between the flight controls. To restrict the possibility and safety risk of a pilot building time in a more simplistic aircraft with simplified flight controls and then seeking a higher certificate or rating in an aircraft with conventional flight controls, FAA proposed, and this final rule adopts, new § 61.9. FAA finds this safety mitigation necessary to account for the vast differences in the handling characteristics of the designs and breadth of aircraft generally available to a pilot after receiving a class rating.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Therefore, pilot time acquired while operating an airplane or helicopter with a simplified flight controls designation will not be permitted to satisfy certain time for a private, commercial, or airline transport pilot, except for private pilot applicants who present an aircraft with the simplified flight controls designation to conduct the practical test. This exception will not be permitted at higher-grade certificates because higher-grade pilot certificates require greater aeronautical knowledge, skills, experience, and afford greater operational privileges, which include carrying passengers for compensation or hire, higher on the safety continuum (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         necessitating greater risk mitigation). Experience gained by piloting an aircraft with simplified flight controls is not equal to the experience necessary for traditional control operations due to the reliance on significant automation. After FAA obtains more experience and data concerning the use of these aircraft with simplified flight controls, FAA may consider additional pilot time credit for experience in aircraft with simplified flight controls in future rulemaking.  
                    </P>
                    <P>ALPA and Reliable Robotics Corporation generally supported FAA's proposal to require training and endorsements for pilots and flight instructors seeking to act as PIC of aircraft certificated with a simplified flight controls designation. ALPA also supported requirements for standardized training programs that issue type ratings or category and class ratings upon successful completion of a training course largely comprised of flying the actual aircraft in the NAS and practical tests ensuring competence by the Airman Certification Standards (ACS); however, ALPA expressed concern that performance-based standards for pilot qualifications will increase risk and reduce safety, including related to human factors. ALPA suggested that minimum hourly training requirements, instructor endorsements on pilot proficiency, and the pilot demonstration of competency will create a safe, competent, and proficient system. ALPA also suggested that requiring only a logbook endorsement for authorizations is insufficient and puts responsibility on instructors instead of FAA.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA acknowledges ALPA's concerns but asserts the principles of its suggestions are already present in the mandatory training, certification, and instructor endorsement regulatory framework and is not persuaded to change the use of endorsements by authorized instructors as a proficiency validation. First, the pilot will already hold a pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class ratings, validating the aircraft category and class fundamental and foundational level of knowledge, skill and proficiency when they successfully complete a practical test in accordance with the applicable ACS or PTS. In the case of someone seeking an initial certificate with a new category and class rating in an aircraft with simplified flight controls, the person will be required, similarly, to successfully complete a practical test in accordance with the applicable ACS or PTS, which is discussed in section IV.H.2 of this preamble. Authorized instructors are trained and qualified to evaluate pilots and validate proficiency for privileges that are within that category and class of aircraft. Flight instructors have a long history of ensuring pilot competency when providing flight training, recommendations for testing, and validating pilot proficiency for various aircraft authorizations that fall within the associated category and class ratings.
                        <SU>141</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Pivotal.aero recommended requiring a simplified flight controls system-specific endorsement, based on the design of the simplified flight controls system, rather than based on the make and model of the aircraft. Pivotal.aero stated this alternate endorsement requirement would allow a manufacturer or a consensus standard to define a version of a simplified flight controls system, permitting system-specific endorsements to apply to multiple makes and models.</P>
                    <P>FAA disagrees with a simplified flight controls “system specific” endorsement because the aircraft manufacturing industry has not yet produced a standardized simplified flight controls system design recognized or accepted by FAA; therefore, FAA has little data to evaluate such a flight training efficiency that may present a safety risk or otherwise validate that a system performs identically in each aircraft. Specifically, standardized simplified flight controls may have unique operating characteristics for each make and model of aircraft; in other words, the same system may be installed on two aircraft, but the drastically differing operating and handling characteristics of the two aircraft may inherently modify the system once installed, necessitating additional training. Until simplified flight controls standardization has come to maturity and meets a recognized standard for aircraft certification, FAA maintains that it is necessary to utilize a specific make and model training and instructor endorsement qualification to ensure a pilot is competent and proficient with the use of each make and model aircraft with a simplified flight control system.</P>
                    <P>
                        USUA contended the proposed simplified flight controls training and endorsement is overly prescriptive, stating some aircraft equipped with certain simplified flight controls may not need specific training with an authorized instructor endorsement. USUA stated the proposal makes it more difficult for pilots and potential pilots to access qualified flight instructors using aircraft equipped with simplified flight controls and takes the failed approach of the original 2004 rule that mandated make and model endorsements for each model of light sport aircraft that a sport pilot wanted to fly. USUA recommended creating an “aircraft with Simplified Controls” rating and the manufacturer would stipulate whether the aircraft needs specific make-model training.
                        <SU>142</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Safari Helicopter also opposed a simplified flight controls designation and the associated training requirements, specifically for helicopters sport pilots can operate, and asserted that helicopters with conventional controls are easy to operate and understand. Safari Helicopter stated, if FAA's proposal is to encourage fly-by-wire systems in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35116"/>
                        helicopters, this proposal will add a layer of complexity rather than simplifying. It further explained that pilots acclimated to operating helicopters that can “almost” fly themselves will become reliant on simplified flight controls systems. Many of Safari Helicopter's other comments were not specific to simplified flight controls and instead discussed the use of traditional flight controls, drones, financial concerns, and flight training considerations.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA notes the novelty of aircraft with simplified flight controls and general lack of data and empirical evidence to substantiate widespread operational necessity. Consequently, this rulemaking intends to take a measured approach to integrating these aircraft into the NAS. While conservative in requiring defined training and instructor endorsements for each aircraft make and model, this is a first step of integration as it pertains to pilot training and certification. Until there is clear, safety-based operational data for simplified flight controls evidencing opportunity for relaxed standards in the NAS, FAA finds the make and model specific endorsement approach will satisfactorily ensure the pilot is proficient in the operation of each unique simplified flight controls system installed in a given make and model of aircraft. Helicopters with conventional flight controls are significantly more demanding than operating those with simplified flight controls. For example, a pilot must provide continuous flight control inputs using the cyclic stick, collective lever, and antitorque pedals to maintain control and stability compared to the operation of a helicopter with simplified flight controls. This preamble further discusses simplified flight controls considerations specific to helicopters in section IV.H.2.</P>
                    <P>
                        USUA is correct that the 2004 rulemaking did prescribe a make and model endorsement requirement for aircraft that a sport pilot can operate; FAA removed that requirement in 2010 after industry and aircraft further developed, leading to recognition of design and operation similarity of each category and class aircraft.
                        <SU>143</SU>
                         However, since simplified flight control systems do not have a standard design, which may vary from one category and class to another, FAA determined that make and model specific training and instructor endorsements are necessary to validate pilot proficiency to ensure safe flight operations. This rulemaking does not foreclose FAA from similar standardization and streamlining to account for operational similarities at a later time, much like the 2010 rule, once industry and FAA garner more information and data available on simplified flight controls.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Further, this final rule does not implement a simplified flight controls “rating.” The training and endorsement model aligns with other specialty characteristics of aircraft already integrated within part 61; for example, operation of a high-performance airplane and a complex airplane both require training and an endorsement.
                        <SU>144</SU>
                         FAA finds no compelling reason at this time to introduce further complexity in treating aircraft designed and designated with simplified flight controls differently from the framework already integrated into § 61.31 by creating a brand new rating that was not proposed in the NPRM.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, this final rule is not necessarily intended to encourage use of fly-by-wire systems; this rulemaking is intended to leverage training and an instructor endorsement to integrate aircraft (including helicopters) that have a simplified flight controls system design that allows the use of a simple to operate flight control system, compared to conventional flight controls, into the NAS. In response to Safari Helicopter's concern that pilots will become reliant on simplified flight controls, this concern is the reason training and an instructor endorsement will be required for each make and model aircraft to validate proficiency. In addition, as discussed in section IV.H.4 of this preamble, if a pilot seeks to operate an aircraft with conventional flight controls, that person will be required to accomplish a practical test in that category and class of aircraft equipped with conventional flight controls.
                        <SU>145</SU>
                          
                    </P>
                    <P>AUVSI commented on the inapplicability of simplified flight controls aircraft experience credit beyond the private pilot certificate level under new § 61.9. AUVSI stated training in aircraft with significant supporting autonomy may not be applicable to ratings in aircraft with conventional flight controls but questioned the general private pilot credit limitation. AUVSI suggested systems thinking, airspace integration, decision-making, and other relevant experience should continue to accumulate past the private pilot level in both aircraft with simplified flight controls, and in aircraft with conventional controls, or both.</P>
                    <P>Reliable Robotics also recommended FAA continue collaboration with stakeholders on competency-based training programs to identify pathways for applying credit hours when operating aircraft with simplified flight controls under part 61 requirements for higher-grade pilot certificates. FAA will continue to collaborate with stakeholders concerning training, credit, and use of aircraft with simplified flight controls as industry develops these aircraft.</P>
                    <P>AIR VEV supported FAA's proposal to limit credit toward the operational experience requirements for higher grades of pilot certificates, citing the reduced level of pilot input for direct aircraft trajectory control. However, AIR VEV recommended amending the language under § 61.9 to expand the limitation applicability to all aircraft, rather than only airplanes and helicopters, and further specifying the systems as “highly automated.”</P>
                    <P>FAA contends the rule text, as proposed and now adopted, appropriately limits simplified flight controls pilot time experience credit to account for the anticipated differences in knowledge and skills required to operate aircraft with simplified flight control designs. The unique character of each make and model is expected to result in significant differences in pilot skills required for their operation. Consequently, PIC flight time gained in an aircraft with simplified flight controls is inapplicable for use in satisfying aeronautical experience requirements from higher grades of pilot certificates with traditional flight controls. This mitigation is necessary because PIC experience gained in an aircraft with simplified flight controls may not provide the equivalent knowledge and skills expected for those higher grades of certificates.</P>
                    <P>In addition, FAA intentionally limited the application of § 61.9 in the NPRM by using the terms “airplanes and helicopters” instead of “aircraft.” This is because FAA does not have sufficient information on which to base a decision on how aeronautical experience in other categories of aircraft with simplified flight controls would apply to aircraft with conventional flight controls. Accordingly, at this time, it is not appropriate to expand § 61.9 to apply to aircraft other than airplanes and helicopters. Therefore, FAA will retain specific references to airplane and helicopter categories in the § 61.9 final rule text. The recommendation to revise § 61.9 to refer to “highly automated” systems is also unnecessary, as this automation is already inherent in the simplified flight controls designation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Conducting Practical Tests in an Aircraft Certificated With a Simplified Flight Controls Designation (§ 61.45)</HD>
                    <P>
                        As previously noted, in some instances, a pilot may only need to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35117"/>
                        complete training and the endorsement to operate an aircraft with simplified flight controls and, in other instances, a pilot may need to complete a practical test. FAA proposed § 61.45(h) to set forth the general framework to determine which proficiency event is required, which is adopted in this final rule. Under § 61.45(h)(1), if a person has a category and class rating or privilege with a simplified flight controls limitation and seeks to operate another make and model of aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation in the same category and class, the person will be required to receive training and an endorsement in accordance with § 61.31(l). As discussed in the NPRM,
                        <SU>146</SU>
                         FAA maintains that training and an endorsement is sufficient due to the similarities within category and classes of aircraft. Under § 61.45(h)(2), if a person has a category and class rating or privilege with a make and model simplified flight controls limitation and seeks to operate either (1) a different category and class of aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation as an initial applicant for that category and class rating 
                        <SU>147</SU>
                         or (2) any aircraft without a simplified flight controls designation, the person will be required to successfully complete a practical test for that category and class of aircraft, except as provided in § 61.321(a), as subsequently discussed in section IV.H.6. FAA maintains the design and handling characteristics between different categories and classes and between simplified flight controls and conventional controls, and considering the operational profile for higher grades of certificates than sport pilots, is significant enough to warrant a practical test to ensure pilot proficiency. FAA proposed additions in § 61.45 via new paragraph (g) to address the wide variance of simplified flight control designs and characteristics and ensure the safety of pilots and examiners in these novel aircraft. The additional mitigations in paragraph (g) are adopted in this final rule. Specifically, paragraphs (g)(1), (2), and (3) will require the examiner to: agree to conduct the test; hold the appropriate simplified flight controls model-specific aircraft endorsement and an appropriate FAA designation to conduct the test; and be able to assume control of the aircraft at any time.
                        <SU>148</SU>
                         After successfully completing the practical test, the pilot will receive a simplified flight controls make and model limitation under new § 61.45(g)(4) and (h).
                    </P>
                    <P>In those circumstances where a pilot must take a practical test, FAA recognized in the NPRM that certain aircraft may be incapable of accomplishing all the tasks required during the conduct of a practical test. Traditionally, § 61.45(b)(2) accounts for these operational limitations by permitting an applicant to use the aircraft with the operating limitations for the practical test by issuing the person's pilot certificate with corresponding limitations. This final rule does not make changes to § 61.45(b)(2).</P>
                    <P>In the NPRM, FAA stated it would develop guidance to address aircraft that are not capable of performing all the required tasks in the ACS. In lieu of developing guidance, FAA made changes to paragraph (g) to address this issue. Therefore, § 61.45(b)(2) and (g) serve a similar purpose: limiting the pilot from operating aircraft that may be able to perform tasks and maneuvers that the pilot has not received training or satisfactorily demonstrated during a practical test or proficiency check. FAA proposed paragraph (g) to address the limitations related to aircraft with simplified flight controls. Anyone who uses an aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation for a practical test or proficiency check, irrespective of whether they hold a higher-level pilot certificate, may only operate the specific simplified flight control make and model used for the test. Pilots who hold a higher certificate will receive a make-and model-specific limitation on the person's pilot certificate under new § 61.45(g)(4)(i). Sport pilots will receive a logbook endorsement specific to that make and model aircraft under new § 61.45(g)(4)(ii). As a result of the make and model limitation, it is no longer necessary for FAA to develop guidance for aircraft that are not capable of performing all required tasks in the ACS.</P>
                    <P>Subpart H flight instructors fill a critical role in the NAS because they train pilots toward higher grades of pilot certificates, including commercial and airline transport pilot certificates, and the pilots they train may go on to serve in passenger-carrying operations for compensation. When reviewing proposed § 61.195 pertaining to the limitations for flight instructor applicants who accomplish a practical test in an aircraft with simplified flight controls, FAA recognized the need to ensure a flight instructor is thoroughly qualified to provide effective flight instruction in a conventional aircraft prior to instructing in a simplified flight controls aircraft. Therefore, FAA is amending § 61.195(m) to require flight instructors (subpart H) take their initial flight instructor practical test in an aircraft with conventional controls and then may instruct in an aircraft with simplified flight controls if the instructor has the make and model endorsement in accordance with § 61.31(l).</P>
                    <P>
                        Conversely, subpart K flight instructors with a sport pilot rating may only provide training towards a sport pilot certificate. For example, an applicant seeking a subpart K flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating with rotorcraft-helicopter privileges may accomplish a practical test for an initial flight instructor certificate in a simplified flight controls aircraft, as that is the only helicopter privilege for sport pilots. That pilot will receive a make and model endorsement in their logbook for their flight instructor certificate.
                        <SU>149</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>GAMA suggested the new § 61.45(g)(2) is more restrictive than what is currently required for practical tests and not aligned with FAA policy addressing practical tests in single-control or single-place aircraft. GAMA recommended FAA allow a Designated Pilot Examiner (DPE) to make the decision on whether they are willing to conduct a practical test in an aircraft with simplified flight controls without the specific training and make and model endorsement. GAMA justified this recommendation based on the allowance provided in § 61.45(e)(1) and (2) concerning a single control or single seat aircraft. GAMA further opined that it seems contradictory to require the most experienced instructor pilots to obtain the training and endorsement specific to aircraft with simplified flight controls but not allow the least experienced pilots to apply aeronautical experience obtained in an aircraft with simplified flight controls toward a higher grade of pilot certificate.</P>
                    <P>
                        Operations conducted in single control or single seat aircraft are not an appropriate comparison to and fail to take into consideration the unique operation of aircraft with simplified flight controls. The requirement in § 61.45(g)(2), which will require the examiner to hold the appropriate category and class rating (or privilege), the simplified flight controls model-specific aircraft endorsement, and an appropriate FAA designation, aligns with the expectation that examiners must be appropriately rated and qualified to conduct practical tests to determine applicant proficiency on a practical test. Conversely, a single control or single seat aircraft renders an examiner largely unable to access controls during a practical test, which is a different safety consideration than a practical test with simplified flight 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35118"/>
                        controls. As described in the NPRM, manufacturers do not have standardized design standards for simplified flight controls that might be installed in their aircraft. Consequently, it is critical to require make and model specific training for both flight instructors and examiners operating aircraft with simplified flight controls, as unique knowledge and skills are necessary to operate each specific make and model of aircraft with simplified flight controls and to avoid the risk of improper procedures associated with training and testing, possibly resulting in accidents.
                    </P>
                    <P>In response to GAMA's discussion about training and experience requirements, FAA disagrees that it is contradictory to require experienced instructor pilots to obtain make and model specific training and endorsements in aircraft with simplified flight controls, or to deny less experienced pilots to use aeronautical experience obtained in an aircraft with simplified flight controls towards higher grades of pilot certificate. Experience acquired in an aircraft with simplified flight controls is not equivalent to the experience requirements obtained in an aircraft with conventional controls when seeking private, commercial, or airline transport pilot certificate ratings and privileges, as previously discussed.  </P>
                    <P>
                        USUA suggested there is a shortage of sport pilot examiners and mandating model-specific endorsements would be too prescriptive, unnecessary, and would discourage student pilots from seeking to accomplish a practical test in aircraft with simplified flight controls. USUA recommended FAA remove the requirement for simplified flight controls model-specific aircraft endorsement from § 61.45(g)(2) and only require a category and class rating or privileges (and an appropriate FAA designation to conduct the test). FAA understands the concerns about initial availability of simplified flight control pilot examiners; however, existing flight examiners with the appropriate category and class privilege can obtain the additional simplified flight controls training and endorsement to otherwise qualify to conduct a practical test in an aircraft equipped with simplified flight controls and FAA does not find this safety mitigation (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         ensuring examiners are sufficiently familiar with the controls system such that they can evaluate proficiency or intervene in an emergency) to overcome concerns of designee availability.
                    </P>
                    <P>ALPA supported the § 61.45(b)(2) completion of a practical test in an aircraft with simplified flight controls resulting in a make and model limitation. However, ALPA opposed utilizing a single set of flight controls in aircraft used for flight training or testing, suggesting a single set of controls would prevent the instructor from immediately intervening in flight, leading to a possible unsafe flight condition. As a condition to facilitating use of a simplified flight controls model-specific aircraft test, § 61.45(g)(3) requires an examiner must be able to assume control of the aircraft at any time, which functions to mitigate risk associated with the conduct of a practical test in an aircraft with simplified flight controls. This rulemaking did not propose changes to the existing § 61.45(e) allowance for a practical test to be conducted in an aircraft having a single set of controls, which gives an examiner discretion to conduct a test in an aircraft with a single set of controls. This examiner discretion would extend to practical tests in an aircraft with simplified flight control designations.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA provided a table of various training and qualification scenarios in the NPRM 
                        <SU>150</SU>
                        ; however, since that time, FAA has assembled a number of additional scenarios to serve as instructional. The comprehensive table, Airmen Certification Simplified Flight Controls Requirements, is in the docket for this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. New Rotorcraft-Helicopter Privilege for Sport Pilots and Sport Pilot Instructors</HD>
                    <P>
                        Currently, sport pilots and flight instructors with a sport pilot rating are restricted from obtaining rotorcraft-helicopter (helicopter) privileges because the light sport aircraft definition excludes helicopters in § 1.1. As discussed in the NPRM in the pilot section and the discussion of proposed § 22.180,
                        <SU>151</SU>
                         FAA proposed to facilitate simple-to-fly helicopter designs as light sport category aircraft and, correspondingly, a new helicopter privilege for sport pilots to fly those helicopters that have been certificated with a simplified flight controls designation during aircraft certification. FAA received a number of comments on the proposed expansion of privileges to helicopter operations,
                        <SU>152</SU>
                         but adopts the proposed framework without substantive revisions, as explained herein. In sum, this final rule adopts revisions to several standing regulations, first, to expand sport pilot privileges to helicopters certificated with a simplified flight controls designation (§§ 61.311, 61.313, and 61.316) and, second, to facilitate sport pilot instructors to obtain or add helicopter privileges to their instructor privileges (§§ 61.409 and 61.411).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        First, § 61.316(a)(6) will limit sport pilots to operate only helicopters certificated with a simplified flight controls designation, keeping with the intent of the 2004 final rule and this rulemaking's objective to facilitate the operation of simple-to-fly aircraft. FAA notes this was proposed as § 61.316(a)(8) (inadvertently referred to in the preamble as paragraph (a)(9)) and is adopted as paragraph (a)(6) due to the removal of proposed paragraphs (a)(4) and (5). In turn, this final rule adds “helicopter” in the list of aircraft in the introductory text of § 61.311, which prescribes the flight proficiency requirements to apply for a sport pilot certificate. To account for helicopter-specific areas necessary to attain competency in the aircraft operation (in addition to existing areas of operation and tasks applicable to helicopters), this final rule modifies the listed areas of operations within § 61.311 to include ground and flight training on heliport operations in § 61.311(c) and hovering maneuvers in § 61.311(d).
                        <SU>153</SU>
                         These areas of operation are correspondingly reflected in the Sport Pilot Helicopter ACS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Second, the NPRM proposed in § 61.313(a)(9) that an applicant for a sport pilot certificate who seeks to obtain a rotorcraft category and helicopter class privilege would be required to log at least 30 hours of helicopter flight time, including at least 15 hours of flight training, 5 hours of which must be solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311. Proposed § 61.313(a)(9)(i) through (iv) further delineated flight training requirements (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         minimum solo training, takeoffs and landings, etc.). FAA explained in the NPRM that these minimum experience requirements aligned with the minimum requirements for a recreational pilot certificate for rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating. During the pendency of the rulemaking and while evaluating the general recreational pilot comments (further discussed in section IV.H.8.e. of this preamble), FAA found it necessary to specifically include cross-country training for the sport pilot rotorcraft category and helicopter class privilege training requirements. A certificated recreational pilot is limited to conducting flights within a certain distance (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         50 nautical miles) 
                        <SU>154</SU>
                        ; therefore, the lack of cross-country training does not present a safety risk, as there is no operational privilege correlating with the training. However, sport pilots are not limited in cross-country operations. As § 61.313(a)(9) was proposed, an applicant could 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35119"/>
                        receive their privilege and operate in the NAS conducting cross-country flights without ever receiving the training. As a result, FAA finds an amendment to § 61.313(a)(9) necessary to safely facilitate cross-country operations in a helicopter for sport pilots, and that the intended training best corresponds with that for a rotorcraft category and gyroplane class privilege in § 61.313(a)(4). FAA emphasizes that, while these training requirements are changed in paragraph (a)(9)(i) through (iv), the adopted training footprint taken together results in a de minimis revision. The revisions are set forth in the following table:
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 5—Revisions to § 61.313(a)(9)-(iv)</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Proposed dection 61.313(a)(9)(i)-(iv)</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Adopted dection 61.313(a)(9)(i)-(iv)</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Adopted training delta</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2 hours of flight training en route to an airport that is located more than 25 nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 hours of cross-country flight training</ENT>
                            <ENT>Flights must be in accordance with cross-country parameters set forth in the § 61.1 definition of cross-country for purposes of a sport pilot certificate.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3 takeoffs and landings at the airport located more than 25 nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains</ENT>
                            <ENT>10 takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport</ENT>
                            <ENT>Additional 7 landings, no requirement for airport distance.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3 hours of solo flying in the aircraft for the privilege sought, on the areas of operation listed in § 61.98 that apply to the aircraft category and class privilege sought</ENT>
                            <ENT>One solo cross-country flight of at least 50 nautical miles total distance, with a full-stop landing at a minimum of two points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations</ENT>
                            <ENT>Reduced flight training hourly requirement, additional cross-country nautical mile minimums and take off and landings.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test</ENT>
                            <ENT>Reduced flight training in the preceding 2 calendar months by one hour.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        These experience levels are commensurate to the experience levels required for sport pilot operational privileges for other categories and classes of aircraft set forth in § 61.313 and those operational regimes expected for rotorcraft category and helicopter class flights.
                        <SU>155</SU>
                          
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Third, FAA is likewise adopting the proposed flight proficiency requirements to allow sport pilot instructors to obtain or add helicopter privileges to their flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, which will mirror those aeronautical experience requirements for instructional privileges in an airplane for those reasons discussed in the NPRM.
                        <SU>156</SU>
                         Much like the revisions to the areas of operation in § 61.311 and for the same reasons, this final rule will add helicopter specific areas of operation within § 61.409 to prescribe the ground and flight training areas of operation in § 61.409(e), (f), and (q) (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         heliport operations, hovering maneuvers, and special operations, all of which align with the Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Helicopter ACS, subsequently discussed in this preamble) and except helicopters from those inapplicable areas of operation in § 61.409(l) and (m).
                        <SU>157</SU>
                         New § 61.411(h)(1) will require an applicant for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating seeking a helicopter privilege (only available if that helicopter is certificated under § 21.190 and obtains the simplified flight controls designation) to complete at least 150 hours of flight time consisting of at least: 100 hours of flight time as PIC in powered aircraft, 50 hours of flight time in a helicopter, 25 hours of cross-country flight time, 10 hours of cross country flight time in a helicopter, and 15 hours of flight time as PIC in a helicopter.
                    </P>
                    <P>VAI recommended that FAA consider a means for inclusion of conventional rotorcraft that can achieve the performance-based requirements established for “simplified control systems” through approved and installed advanced control augmentation systems. VAI supported the new rotorcraft-helicopter privilege for sport pilots in addition to the proposed privileges for new rotorcraft with designed-in simplified control systems. VAI stated it recognized there are unique aeronautical skills necessary to operate any aircraft, including rotorcraft. To that end, VAI expressed concern the proposed rule unduly prevents sport pilots from operating rotorcraft with conventional flight controls. VAI (and one individual who cited the identical aeronautical experience requirements) referenced recreational pilots who can obtain a helicopter rating without simplified flight controls, contending that sport pilots could also be trained to safely operate light-sport category rotorcraft with conventional flight controls. Therefore, VAI recommended FAA include training requirements in the rule that would allow sport pilots to operate light-sport rotorcraft with conventional flight controls.</P>
                    <P>
                        Likewise, AOPA, EAA, NATA, NBAA supported adding helicopter operating privileges to the sport pilot certificate but questioned restricting sport pilots to helicopters with simplified flight controls and aircraft holding a light-sport category special airworthiness certificate. They stated airmen can be safely trained to operate helicopters with conventional controls in an appropriately scaled sport pilot curriculum. They also describe that “simplified flight controls” only appear in the regulatory language in the context of what helicopters a sport pilot may operate. AOPA, EAA, NATA, and NBAA asserted helicopters do not merit this unique classification and suggested training and standards can be developed for helicopters with conventional controls, describing a history of existing curriculum and training standards for the recreational helicopter pilot certificate that do not require a “simplified flight controls” designation. They described that the only difference is that a recreational pilot must hold an FAA medical certificate or BasicMed, but a medical certificate does not add any more to the operation of a helicopter than it would for any other class of aircraft (within the operational constraints of a sport pilot certificate). Several commenters, including Cicare USA, LLC, Vertical Aviation Technologies, Inc., and Orlando Helicopter Airways, Inc., also urged 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35120"/>
                        FAA to permit sport pilots to operate helicopters with conventional flight controls for various reasons including certification and operational expenses for helicopters equipped with simplified flight controls, history of conventional helicopters as simple and easy to fly, and limited availability of conventional helicopters at flight schools that sport pilots may operate. One commenter proposed that the requirement for simplified flight controls for helicopters should be removed because it is inconsistent with other categories of aircraft a sport pilot can operate, while another expressed concern about automated system failure. The commenter also suggested the certification of new helicopters with simplified flight controls will be delayed because that technology is still under development, but that ASTM standards for certification could be applied to existing helicopter technology development. Another commenter explained that a requirement for stability augmentation in lieu of a simplified flight controls requirement would be a more practical requirement for light-sport category aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>Multiple individual commenters recommended FAA reconsider the requirement for simplified flight controls for helicopters for various reasons ranging from availability of simplified flight control aircraft, traditional helicopters being simpler and safer to operate, and simplified flight controls introducing additional points of failure with no mechanical backup. Four commenters suggested FAA should allow sport pilots to operate four-seat helicopters with conventional flight controls.</P>
                    <P>
                        This final rule does not permit, nor did the NPRM propose to permit, sport pilots to operate helicopters with conventional flight controls; however, FAA does not find this to be an undue restriction. As stated previously, the operation of helicopters with conventional flight controls is significantly more demanding to operate than any other sport pilot aircraft privilege. Conventional helicopters are more demanding to operate, requiring more skill in hovering, transitioning between forward flight and hovering, and navigating in confined spaces. In addition, helicopters often operate in more challenging and confined environments (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         hovering, low-altitude flight, areas with poor infrastructure, confined area operations, slope operations, rapid deceleration/quick stop, vortex ring state, and autorotations) and, often, more adverse weather conditions, increasing the risk of accidents. Thus, even with simplified flight controls, helicopters have greater risk associated with those types of flight operations. In addition, sport pilots with a helicopter privilege would have greater cross-country operational privileges than recreational pilots, who are limited to a radius of 50 nautical miles from the departure airport.
                        <SU>158</SU>
                         Because of the complex and operational nature of helicopters with standard flight controls and the recognition that loss of control is a concern with helicopter operations, FAA finds that helicopters a sport pilot can operate must have the simplified flight controls designation to fit in the easy-to-operate construct for sport pilot operations. If a person wishes to operate a rotorcraft helicopter with conventional flight controls, the person must seek a higher grade of pilot certificate with a rotorcraft-helicopter rating that ensures appropriate training and proficiency validation for such an operational regime. GAMA requested FAA to clarify the rationale for requiring 30 hours of flight time for sport pilots seeking a rotorcraft-helicopter simplified flight controls privilege. GAMA suggested the same should apply if FAA were to consider a sport pilot powered-lift privilege. Relatedly, one commenter recommended FAA offer the rotorcraft-helicopter privilege for sport pilots with only a minimum of 20 hours of experience to incentivize pilot applicants to seek a rotorcraft-helicopter privilege at the sport pilot level.
                    </P>
                    <P>The minimum flight time training requirements for sport pilots seeking a helicopter privilege is similar to the recreational pilot certificate for a helicopter rating because of the general risk associated with helicopter operations. However, as previously explained, FAA finds the recreational pilot certificate and sport pilot certificate to serve different purposes and operational profiles, therefore necessitating a varied sport pilot training regime within those 30 hours from that for a recreational pilot certificate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor for Rotorcraft-Helicopter; Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                    <P>
                        At the time of the MOSAIC NPRM publication, FAA was engaged in a separate rulemaking to incorporate all ACS and PTS, which contain the required tasks, criteria, and standards for successful completion of a practical test and proficiency check, into parts 61, 63, and 65. In 2024, FAA adopted the ACS IBR final rule, incorporating 30 pilot and flight instructor ACSs and PTSs in part 61 by reference through a centralized IBR section in new § 61.14; 
                        <SU>159</SU>
                         directing compliance on the respective practical tests and proficiency checks with the appropriate ACS and PTS in §§ 61.43, 61.57, 61.58, 61.321, and 61.419, respectively; and adding an appendix to part 61 to set forth which ACS or PTS applies to a certificate or rating sought, or proficiency check.
                    </P>
                    <P>As it pertains to sport pilots and flight instructors with a sport pilot rating, the ACS IBR rulemaking incorporated three sport pilot PTSs into part 61: (1) FAA-S-8081-29A, Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Rating Practical Test Standards for Airplane Category, Gyroplane Rotorcraft Category, and Glider Category, November 2023; (2) FAA-S-8081-30A, Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Rating Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, November 2023; and (3) FAA-S-8081-31A, Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Rating Practical Test Standards for Powered Parachute Category and Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category, November 2023.</P>
                    <P>After the publication of the ACS IBR NPRM, but before the ACS IBR final rule adoption, the MOSAIC NPRM proposed two new PTSs for sport pilots seeking a rotorcraft category, helicopter class privileges to account for the expanded operational privileges proposed in the MOSAIC NPRM: (1) FAA-S-ACS-26, Sport Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Airman Certification Standards, (Sport Pilot Helicopter ACS) and (2) FAA-S-ACS-31, Flight Instructor with a Sport Pilot Rating for Rotorcraft Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Privilege Airman Certification Standards, (Sport Flight Instructor Helicopter ACS). As explained in the ACS IBR NPRM, FAA is continuously working to convert all PTSs to ACSs in collaboration with the Aviation Rulemaking Advisory Committee (ARAC) ACS Working Group; therefore, FAA found it most appropriate to draft ACSs to facilitate certification for the helicopter privileges, as the remainder of the sport pilot PTSs will eventually be converted to ACSs. Because the ACS IBR rulemaking had not been finalized, the MOSAIC NPRM proposed directly incorporating by reference the two new ACSs into §§ 61.307(b) and 61.405(b) for practical tests, while recognizing the simultaneous ACS IBR rulemaking action and stating the rules would be reconciled, as appropriate.</P>
                    <P>
                        As previously stated, the ACS IBR rulemaking adopted the centralized IBR section for all of part 61 in § 61.14. Therefore, rather than independently 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35121"/>
                        incorporating by reference the two ACSs into §§ 61.307 and 61.405 to tether the ACSs to the practical test, as proposed, this final rule will add the two ACSs into § 61.14 and amend appendix A to part 61 to direct which ACS applies to the practical test for the certificate, rating, or privilege sought, aligning the overarching part 61 IBR framework. In other words, the proposals in §§ 61.307(b)(1) and (2) and 61.405(b)(3) and (4) will not be adopted in this final rule because the basic framework of § 61.14 and appendix A already accounts for the general requirement to conduct a practical test in accordance with the applicable ACS or PTS. Adding the two rotorcraft-helicopter ACSs to those provisions in this final rule will align with the existing framework, specifically new § 61.14(b)(13) and (17),
                        <SU>160</SU>
                         rendering the proposals in §§ 61.307(b)(1) and (2) and 61.405(3) and (4) duplicative. In addition, FAA will add two rows to the part 61, appendix A table to clearly delineate the applicability of each ACS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, the MOSAIC NPRM proposed to retain the proficiency check language in § 61.321(b) (adopted herein as §§ 61.321(a)(2)) and 61.419(b) that simply stated (in pertinent part) that a person had to complete a proficiency check in accordance with the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas in §§ 61.311 or 61.409 for the additional category and class privileges sought. After the publication of the MOSAIC NPRM, the ACS IBR final rule revised both §§ 61.321 and 61.419. Under current § 61.321, if a person holds a sport pilot certificate and seeks to operate an additional category or class of aircraft, the person (in pertinent part) must successfully complete a proficiency check consisting of the tasks in the appropriate areas of operation contained in the applicable incorporated by reference PTS, as listed in appendix A, for the additional light-sport aircraft privilege sought. Similarly, under current § 61.419(b), if a person holds a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating and seeks to provide training in an additional category or class of aircraft, the person (in pertinent part) must successfully complete a proficiency check consisting of the tasks in the appropriate areas of operation contained in the applicable incorporated by reference PTS, as listed in appendix A, for the additional category and class flight instructor privilege sought. From a practical perspective, these revisions adopted by the ACS IBR final rule did not include substantive changes to the tasks required to be conducted in the proficiency check to add additional sport pilot privileges; rather, the ACS IBR final rule legally and appropriately tethered the applicable PTSs. This MOSAIC final rule retains the current language of both § 61.321(b) (redesignated herein as §§ 61.321(a)(2)) and 61.419(b) 
                        <SU>161</SU>
                         that was already published in the ACS IBR final rule (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         previously went out for notice and comment and FAA responded to comments in that preamble). Section IV.H.6. of this preamble further discusses the proposed exception language within adopted §§ 61.321(b) and 61.419(b).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In sum, the NPRM proposed to incorporate the two ACSs in §§ 61.307(b)(1) and (2) and 61.405(b)(3) and (b)(4); this final rule is relocating those ACSs to be incorporated by reference into § 61.14 and cross-referenced in appendix A to part 61. Each ACS establishes the aeronautical knowledge, risk management, and flight proficiency standards for sport pilot practical tests and flight instructor proficiency checks for light-sport category aircraft in the rotorcraft-helicopter class for sport pilots and for sport pilots with a flight instructor rating. The Sport Pilot Helicopter ACS contains the following areas of operation: preflight preparation; preflight procedures; airport and heliport operations; hovering maneuvers; takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; performance maneuvers; navigation; emergency operations; and post-flight procedures. Similarly, the Sport Flight Instructor for Helicopter contains the following areas of operation: fundamentals of instructing; technical subject areas; preflight preparation; preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; preflight procedures; airport and heliport operations; hovering maneuvers; takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; fundamentals of flight; performance maneuvers; emergency operations; special operations; and postflight procedures. Each ACS published with the NPRM, providing the public with notice of the contents and an opportunity to comment. FAA did not receive any comments on the content of the two proposed ACS drafts but made a number of editorial changes during the pendency of the rulemaking to conform with the already adopted ACSs and PTSs (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         as an outgrowth of the ACS IBR Final Rule). The table at the end of this section inventories the changes as adopted in the ACSs herein.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Incorporation by reference is a mechanism that allows Federal agencies to comply with the requirements of the APA to publish rules in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         and the CFR by referring to material published elsewhere.
                        <SU>162</SU>
                         See sections IV.H.5 and IV.I.4 for detailed summaries of the IBR material to be incorporated by reference. Material that is incorporated by reference has the same legal status as if it were published in full in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51,
                        <SU>163</SU>
                         FAA makes both of the Sport Pilot ACSs for Rotorcraft-Helicopter reasonably available to interested parties by providing free online public access to view on FAA Training and Testing website at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/training_testing.</E>
                         The ACS is available for download, free of charge, at the provided web address. FAA will continue to provide the ACS to interested parties in this manner. For further information, contact the Training and Certification Group at 202-267-1100, 
                        <E T="03">acsptsinquiries@faa.gov,</E>
                         or 800 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20591. In addition, both adopted ACSs are contained in the docket for this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA recognizes there may be conforming amendments necessary to the three Sport Pilot PTSs currently incorporated by reference in § 61.14 and appendix A.
                        <SU>164</SU>
                         FAA is actively reviewing these three PTSs and will make any conforming revisions through proper notice and comment rulemaking procedures.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,r250">
                        <TTITLE>Table 6—Record of Changes to ACSs</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Document</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Change</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">FAA-S-ACS-26B, Sport Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Privilege Airman Certification Standards</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                1. Title: Changed to better align with the other ACS titles in 14 CFR Section 61.14.
                                <LI>2. SH.I.D.K1: Updated to align language with other ACSs for this Task.</LI>
                                <LI>3. SH.II.D.R2: Inserted new element “Unexpected or unclear clearances from ATC, if applicable.” to align with other ACSs.</LI>
                                <LI>4. SH.II.D.R3: Inserted new element “Hazardous effects of downwash” to align with other ACSs.</LI>
                                <LI>5. SH.V.A.S3: Updated to align language with other ACSs for this Task.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="35122"/>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                6. AOO VI. Performance Maneuvers: editorial changed noted: added single-engine helicopter-simplified flight controls.
                                <LI>7. SH.VII.A.R3: Changed from Unplanned fuel consumption, as applicable, to Unplanned fuel/power consumption, as applicable.</LI>
                                <LI>8. Appendix 1: Changed knowledge test code to “SHF” to align with test matrix.</LI>
                                <LI>9. Appendix 1. Paragraph “Eligibility Requirements for a Sport Pilot Certificate”: Updated to align with regulatory requirements.</LI>
                                <LI>10. Appendix 1. Paragraph “Sport Pilot for Helicopter-Simplified Flight Controls Airman Knowledge Test Table”: Removed Number of Questions, Age, Allotted Time, and Passing Score from the table to ensure accurate knowledge testing requirements do not conflict. Added website hyperlink for current testing matrix requirements.</LI>
                                <LI>11. Appendix 1: The entire evaluator responsibilities section was updated to align with published ACS documents.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                12. Appendix 1. Table “Sport Pilot for Helicopter-Simplified Flight Controls Privilege to an Existing Pilot Certificate”: Added asterisk to Balloon and Glider under Area of Operation VII to align with the other ACSs.
                                <LI>13. Appendix 1. Table “Addition of a Sport Pilot Privilege for Helicopter-Simplified Flight Controls to an Existing Sport Pilot Certificate”: changed the title of the table to “Existing Sport Pilot Certificate and Privilege(s) Held” by inserting the word Privilege to align with the rule.</LI>
                                <LI>14. Appendix 1. Table “Sport Pilot Privilege for Helicopter-Simplified Flight Controls to an Existing Sport Pilot Certificate”: Added asterisk to Balloon and Glider under Area of Operation VII to align with the other ACSs.</LI>
                                <LI>15. Appendix 2. Paragraph “Single-Seat Aircraft Practical Test”: Changed title of ACS in paragraph to match the title of the document.</LI>
                                <LI>16. Appendix 2. Paragraph “Single-Seat Aircraft Practical Test”: Replaced “Examiner” with “Evaluator” to align with other ACSs.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">FAA-S-ACS-31B, Flight Instructor with a Sport Pilot Rating for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Privilege Airman Certification Standards</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                1. Title: Changed to better align with the other ACS titles in 14 CFR 61.14.
                                <LI>2. F.II.I.R5: Changed element from at the discretion of the evaluator, use the autopilot to make appropriate course intercepts, if installed, to use of an electronic flight bag (EFB), if used.</LI>
                                <LI>3. FH.II.J.K1. Updated to align language with other ACSs for this Task.</LI>
                                <LI>4. FH.V.A.K2: Editorial change to align with other ACSs. Added the word appropriate.</LI>
                                <LI>5. FH.V.D.R3: Inserted new element “Hazardous effects of downwash” to align with other ACSs.</LI>
                                <LI>6. FH.VII.A.R3: Removed “as applicable” to align with other ACSs.</LI>
                                <LI>7. AOO VIII: Second note: Changed to “must” to align with the other ACSs.</LI>
                                <LI>8. AOO X. Performance Maneuvers: editorial changed noted: added single-engine helicopter-simplified flight controls.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                9. AOO X, Task B Objective: Added “in a single-engine helicopter-simplified flight controls”.
                                <LI>10. FH.X.B.S12: Added “or to the surface” to align with task in other helicopter CFI ACS.</LI>
                                <LI>11. Added Risk element. FH.X.C.R14 Main rotor (Nr) speed.</LI>
                                <LI>12. FH.XI.B.R9 Removed “as applicable” to align with other ACSs.</LI>
                                <LI>13. FH.XI.C.S1: Added powerplant(s).</LI>
                                <LI>14. FH.XI.J.K1: Removed “as applicable” to align with other ACSs.</LI>
                                <LI>15. FH.XIII.A.S4-S6: Editorial change to make the list number sequentially.</LI>
                                <LI>16. Appendix 1: Changed knowledge test code to “IHF” to align with test matrix.</LI>
                                <LI>17. Appendix 1, paragraph “Flight Instructor for Helicopter-Simplified Flight Controls Airman Knowledge Test Table”: Removed Number of Questions, Age, Allotted Time, and Passing Score from the table to ensure accurate knowledge testing requirements do not conflict. Added website hyperlink for current testing matrix requirements.</LI>
                                <LI>18. Appendix 1: The entire evaluator responsibilities section was updated to align with published ACS documents.</LI>
                                <LI>19. Appendix 1, additional privilege task table: Replaced the title with “Addition of a Flight Instructor with a Sport Pilot Rating for Helicopter-Simplified Flight Controls Privilege to an Existing Flight Instructor Certificate”.</LI>
                                <LI>20. Appendix 1, table “Ratings Held“: updated title to “Flight Instructor Certificate and Rating(s) Held“.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="35123"/>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                21. Appendix 1, additional privilege task table: Replaced “Privileges” in the additional privileges table with “Flight Instructor with a Sport and Privilege(s) Held” to align with the 14 CFR part 61 terminology.
                                <LI>22. Appendix 1, Flight Instructor Renewal/Reinstatement table: Changed the description above the box from “In accordance with 14 CFR part 61, section 61.199(a) or 61.427, the renewal or reinstatement of a Flight Instructor Certificate, or one rating on a Flight Instructor Certificate, renews or reinstates all privileges existing on that certificate.” to “In accordance with 14 CFR part 61, section 61.197(b)(1), 61.425, 61.199(a)(2) or 61.427(b), a practical test for one of the ratings listed on the flight instructor certificate, or for an additional flight instructor rating, establishes flight instructor recent experience or reinstates all privileges existing on that certificate, as applicable.”</LI>
                                <LI>23. Appendix 2: Changed “Simulated Powerplant Failure Considerations (Single and Multiengine Helicopters)” to “Simulated Powerplant Failure Considerations (Single and Multiengine Helicopters-Simplified Flight Controls)”.</LI>
                                <LI>24. Appendix 2: Changed “Autorotations in a Single-Engine Helicopter” to “Autorotations in a Single-Engine Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls” to align with other ACSs.</LI>
                                <LI>25. Appendix 2: Changed “Helicopter—Touchdown Autorotation Endorsement” to “Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Touchdown Autorotation Endorsement” to align with other ACSs.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                26. Appendix 2: Replaced paragraph “In lieu of testing the touchdown portion of the Tasks listed below, the evaluator has the discretion to accept a logbook endorsement from a current certificated flight instructor with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating who meets the requirements of 14 CFR 61.195(h)(2). The endorsement must attest that the applicant received touchdown autorotation training and is competent in the instruction of the elements, performance, common errors, and correction of common errors related to straight-in autorotation and autorotation with turns” with “In lieu of testing the touchdown portion of the Tasks listed below, the evaluator has the discretion to accept a logbook endorsement from a current certificated flight instructor with a sport pilot rating rotorcraft helicopter-simplified flight controls privilege for the specific make and model being evaluated. The endorsement must attest that the applicant received touchdown autorotation training and is competent in the instruction of the elements, performance, common errors, and correction of common errors related to straight-in autorotation and autorotation with turns for the specific make and model helicopter-simplified flight controls” to align with other ACSs.
                                <LI>27. Appendix 3: Inserted after paragraph X. Performance Maneuvers: Task C. Autorotation with Turns in a Single-Engine Helicopter-Simplified Flight Controls. The minimum entry altitude must be above 700 feet AGL or a suitable higher entry altitude in strong wind conditions. At least two 90 degree turns in the same direction, or one continuous 180-degree turn must be performed. The 180-degree turn refers to a change in direction with respect to ground track, and not an exact reciprocal heading. If the applicant does not roll out of the turn by 300 feet AGL then the evaluator must direct the applicant to perform a power recovery and initiate a go-around, and the Task is considered unsatisfactory to align with other ACSs.</LI>
                                <LI>28. Appendix 3, Task E Low Rotor Revolutions Per Minute (RPM) Recognition and Recovery: Added Simplified Flight Controls after the word Helicopter to align the term within part 61.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Both ACSs</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                1. Editorial changes throughout, such as, changing “rotor(s)” to “rotor” and inserted or deleted “as applicable” or “as appropriate” where appropriate.
                                <LI>
                                    2. Forward: Editorial update. Updating to align with the rest of the ACSs. Also, updated email address inserted 
                                    <E T="03">acsptsinquiries@faa.gov</E>
                                    .
                                </LI>
                                <LI>3. Inserted Helicopter Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-21) into task references as an editorial update to align with other ACSs.</LI>
                                <LI>4. Introduction: modified to align with other published ACS documents.</LI>
                                <LI>5. Editorial and grammatical changes throughout, such as, aligning language to match the title of the ACS, etc.</LI>
                                <LI>6. Appendix 3, Use of Flight Simulation Training Devices (FSTD) paragraph: replace ratings with privilege to align with rule terminology.</LI>
                                <LI>7. Appendix 3, Use of Aviation Training Device (ATD) paragraph: replaced ratings with privilege to align with rule terminology. Also, replace the hyperlink to the correct link due to changes in ATD approvals.</LI>
                                <LI>8. Removed “as applicable” or “if applicable” after H/V diagram throughout as it is always applicable.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Require Sport Pilots and Flight Instructors With a Sport Pilot Rating Seeking To Add an Airplane or Helicopter Privilege To Accomplish a Practical Test</HD>
                    <P>
                        Currently, sport pilots and flight instructors may obtain an additional category and class privilege by passing a proficiency check from an authorized instructor,
                        <SU>165</SU>
                         rather than completing a practical test with a designated FAA examiner.
                        <SU>166</SU>
                         In the NPRM, FAA explained that, because of the significant expansion of privileges associated specifically with an airplane or rotorcraft-helicopter privilege, a proficiency check with an authorized instructor would not be sufficient to validate competency of sport pilots or flight instructors with a sport pilot rating when adding those privileges to their existing certificate.
                        <SU>167</SU>
                         Due to the proposed expansion under this rulemaking, FAA proposed in § 61.321(e) (adopted herein as § 61.321(b)) that certificated pilots (other than student pilots) seeking to add a sport pilot airplane single-engine land or sea or rotorcraft helicopter privilege be required to successfully accomplish both a knowledge and practical test.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA received several comments opposing the transition from a proficiency check to a knowledge and practical test. LAMA opposed the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35124"/>
                        proposed framework, stating the NPRM did not provide evidence that the current system of transitioning between light sport categories via a proficiency check is not sufficiently effective or safe. Another commenter echoed a lack of evidence to suggest that a practical test is necessary due to the proposed expansion of privilege, stating that DPE-administered tests are not considered more rigorous than a proficiency check and questioning emphasis on airplane and helicopter testing, specifically. Similarly, some commenters pointed out perceived similarities between a proficiency check and a practical test based on the applicable PTS. Two commenters generally asserted that a proficiency check is sufficient to add a sport pilot privilege, stating the instructor providing the proficiency check must utilize the PTS when administering the check.
                    </P>
                    <P>Some commenters expressed concern about a possible strain on DPEs because of the proposed change. One commenter who supported the continued use of proficiency checks explained that applicants must meet the same practical test standards with a flight instructor taking a proficiency check as they would with a DPE, and sport pilot DPEs are in critically short supply in small communities. Another commenter referenced the limited availability of examiners and stated Congress mandated reforms to FAA's DPE procedures in FAA Reauthorization Act of 2018 (P.L. 115-254), section 319 (Designated Pilot Examiner Reforms), which the commenter suggested FAA has yet to implement. Another commenter described that the practical test requirement places an extra burden on existing flight instructors and examiners specifically in the case of light-sport gyroplanes due to the limited number of qualified examiners for gyroplanes and further stated the cost will result in a training barrier, driving many pilots away from becoming gyroplane sport pilots. One commenter explained a proficiency check is supposed to be the same as a practical test for a new pilot, but that the commenter has been told by many CFIs that it is not necessary to conduct the entire practical test and described that they can omit tasks already covered on the original airplane practical test. The commenter then recommended that the proficiency check should be done by a sport pilot examiner who is trained on how to administer the practical test.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA disagrees with commenters' suggestions to retain the proficiency check as an acceptable method to add an airplane or helicopter privilege on a person's sport pilot certificate (or flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating) and maintains the requirement to take a practical test to add an airplane or helicopter privilege in this final rule. The significant expansion of operational privileges associated with obtaining an airplane or helicopter privilege and the lack of a minimum experience or training requirements justifies the requirement for the successful completion of a practical test. Commenters are correct that, pursuant to current §§ 61.321(b) and 61.419(b), proficiency checks are conducted in accordance with the applicable PTS. However, assertions that it is unnecessary to conduct the entire practical test and CFI's can omit tasks already covered on an original practical test is inaccurate. A proficiency check or a practical test should inherently ensure a candidate meets the same set of standards. Both designated pilot examiners and flight instructors are required to develop a plan of action, use the applicable testing standards, and evaluate applicants in all tasks included in each area of operation, regardless of whether they are conducting a practical test or proficiency check.
                        <SU>168</SU>
                         However, flight instructors do not receive the same training and oversight as a DPE who has the added responsibility of certification. Unlike flight instructors, DPEs are trained, qualified, and authorized by FAA to ensure practical tests are conducted properly, including the validation of the applicant's knowledge and proficiency in accordance with the applicable testing standards.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, FAA notes the requirement to successfully pass a practical test for an added privilege will only apply to the addition of an airplane single-engine land or sea, or rotorcraft helicopter privileges.
                        <SU>169</SU>
                         Operational risks associated with operating an airplane or helicopter in the NAS, particularly with the expanded aircraft design and performance limitations facilitated by this final rule, include flight operations at notably higher speeds, altitudes, increased weights and capacities, pilot skills, and complex airspace operations, which differ from the other sport pilot privileges such as gliders, powered parachutes, weight shift control, gyroplanes, balloons, and airships. FAA also recognizes that the minimum experience requirements for an initial sport pilot certificate seeking an airplane or helicopter privilege do not apply when adding a privilege to an existing sport pilot certificate. For example, if a sport pilot holds a glider privilege and seeks to add an additional airplane single-engine land category and class privilege to their sport pilot certificate, the requirements of § 61.321 would apply. This requires the sport pilot to receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor to certify they have met the aeronautical knowledge and flight proficiency requirements for the additional privilege. The pilot must then successfully complete a practical test because they are seeking an airplane single-engine land privilege. In this example, the sport pilot adding the additional category and class privilege would not need to obtain the aeronautical experience of § 61.313(a)(1).
                        <SU>170</SU>
                         This elevates the importance of the evaluation event validating proficiency of a sport pilot seeking to add an airplane or helicopter privilege.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Therefore, this final rule retains the proposed requirement of § 61.321(e), adopted as new §§ 61.321(b), and 61.419(e) for the successful completion of a practical test for both the sport pilot and flight instructor certificate, respectively, when adding an airplane single-engine or rotorcraft helicopter privilege. FAA notes the proficiency check framework continues to be a process that can be used to add a sport pilot privilege other than an airplane single-engine land or sea class privilege or a rotorcraft category, helicopter class privilege (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         glider category privileges, rotorcraft category and gyroplane class privileges, lighter-than-air category and airship class privileges, lighter-than-air category and balloon class privileges, powered parachute category land or sea class privileges, and weight shift control aircraft category and land or sea class privileges). Requiring a practical test when a sport pilot is adding an airplane single-engine or rotorcraft helicopter privilege is not overly burdensome, as applicants are intended to be evaluated on all tasks included in each area of operation, regardless of whether they are conducting a practical test or proficiency check. However, a practical test requires a DPE to conduct the evaluation as opposed to a flight instructor. As previously discussed, DPEs receive training, approval, and oversight from FAA that flight instructors who conduct proficiency checks do not receive. Thus, FAA considers a DPE conducting a practical test as a necessary mitigation in thoroughly validating an applicant for an airplane single-engine land or sea, or a rotorcraft helicopter, privilege.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding commenters' concerns about the new requirement's potential strain on the DPE community, FAA has been intentional in its continual efforts to support and supplement the DPE 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35125"/>
                        community nationwide while maintaining safety standards. In light of this continued action, as well as the absence of evidence indicating a future shortage as it pertains to the sport pilot community, FAA does not find that this rule will strain the DPE population. FAA first notes the agency has fulfilled the statutory mandates under section 319 of FAA Reauthorization Act of 2018. This section required FAA to assign to the ARAC the task of reviewing all regulations and policies related to part 183-appointed DPEs and provide recommendations to the agency to ensure an adequate number of DPEs are deployed and available to perform their duties. Further, the section requires FAA to take such action as the Administrator considers appropriate to those recommendations. FAA notes the final recommendation report was issued in 2021,
                        <SU>171</SU>
                         and FAA has taken several steps to continuously supplement the DPE population, including expanding the minimum qualifications for DPE applicants (including military service) and removing the geographical boundaries limiting DPEs to only the designated area overseen by their managing Flight Standards District Office (FSDO). DPEs who currently have the authority to conduct practical tests in a helicopter, or any other aircraft with the simplified flight controls designation, will need to obtain the new make and model specific endorsement to qualify to conduct practical tests in helicopters or other aircraft with the simplified flight controls designation. If a DPE receives their initial designee authorization to conduct practical tests in a helicopter or any other aircraft with simplified control privileges, all initial qualification criteria will need to be met.
                        <SU>172</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Relatedly, FAA does not find a requirement that a proficiency check be conducted by a sport pilot examiner as practical or necessary. The commenter's recommendation would otherwise require all proficiency checks be conducted by a DPE. FAA maintains that an authorized instructor can effectively conduct proficiency checks to facilitate additional sport pilot privileges for other than an airplane or helicopter privilege. FAA notes proficiency checks have proven successful since the 2004 introduction of the sport pilot certificate. As previously discussed, due to the expanded operational capabilities of aircraft a sport pilot may operate within the airplane category or the newly added helicopter with simplified flight controls class, FAA finds it necessary to require a practical test when adding those privileges. Conversely, the other categories and classes of sport pilot privileges are not significantly expanded in this final rule and, therefore, the existing proficiency check requirements remain suitable when adding these privileges, given the foundational knowledge a certificated sport pilot or flight instructor with a sport pilot rating will possess.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters questioned the concept of requiring a knowledge test to add a privilege as contrary to § 61.63(b)(4) and (c)(4), which provide relief from the requirement to complete a knowledge test when adding a rating to an existing pilot certificate, other than for an airline transport pilot certificate. LAMA emphasized there is no knowledge test requirement to add an airplane category or rotorcraft category, helicopter class rating at the private or commercial level and recommended eliminating the requirement to take a new knowledge test when adding the airplane or helicopter privilege. Similarly, USUA stated requiring additional knowledge tests runs counter to traditional sport pilot and private pilot transition training and knowledge specific to those privileges would be covered in a practical test. It also stated knowledge testing for an added privilege does not increase the safety of pilot applicants since most of the material has already been tested in previous knowledge and practical tests and most of the questions for different categories are drawn from the same pool of knowledge test questions.</P>
                    <P>After evaluation as to the intent and content of a knowledge test, FAA agrees an additional knowledge test for an added airplane or helicopter privileges would add only a negligible level of safety assurance and may be perceived as inconsistent with § 61.63(b)(4) and (c)(4), which do not require knowledge tests for pilots seeking additional aircraft ratings. A pilot who possesses a category or class privilege or rating has already validated the fundamental aeronautical knowledge required across different aircraft categories and classes, and competency in a new category and or class will be adequately addressed through instructor training, qualifying endorsements and completion of a practical test.</P>
                    <P>In addition, conducting a practical test requires a demonstration of aeronautical knowledge and skill by validating that an applicant has the appropriate aeronautical knowledge specific to the additional category and class privilege the pilot or flight instructor is seeking to add to their certificate. The oral examination portion of the practical test is individualized to the applicant by the applicant's flight instructor and the DPE evaluating the applicant's existing privileges or ratings and comparing those to the privilege or rating sought, and validating the applicant has that necessary knowledge. The applicant must demonstrate to both the flight instructor and the DPE conducting the practical test that the applicant has the necessary knowledge of the additional rating that would have been covered during a knowledge test for that rating. This ensures any potential knowledge gaps that may have arisen due to not taking the knowledge test for the rating sought are addressed.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter stated § 61.63 is not applicable to sport pilots and is requesting a permanent change to denote this. FAA disagrees that § 61.63 needs to be modified to explicitly state it is inapplicable to sport pilots seeking additional category or class privileges. Section 61.63 is applicable to pilot certificates that are issued category and class ratings. However, sport pilots are issued privileges to operate categories or classes of aircraft, not ratings, and the requirements for adding privileges to operate an additional category or class of aircraft are found in § 61.321.
                        <SU>173</SU>
                         Therefore, the regulation does not need alteration.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As such, FAA is modifying adopted § 61.321(b) to remove the requirement to take a knowledge test, which will align proficiency validation for sport pilots adding an airplane single-engine or rotorcraft helicopter privilege to their existing pilot certificate via an endorsement provided in their pilot logbook or record to the § 61.63(b)(4) and (c)(4) allowances for adding an aircraft category or class, respectively, without requiring a knowledge test. On the same basis, FAA is also modifying § 61.419(e) to remove the requirement to take a knowledge test for flight instructors with a sport pilot rating adding an airplane single-engine or rotorcraft helicopter privilege. These sections retain the practical test requirement because FAA determined the practical test sufficiently validates that a sport pilot or flight instructor with a sport pilot rating seeking to add an airplane single-engine or rotorcraft helicopter privilege to an existing certificate by evaluating both the knowledge and skill of the applicant in the oral examination part of the practical test. This final rule also makes one discrete editorial amendment by amending § 61.321(a)(4) to state “authorized instructor” to conform this subsection to other references of authorized instructor within this section.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35126"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Aviation Training Device or Flight Simulation Training Device Credit, Removal of Certain Light-Sport Aircraft References, and Other Amendments</HD>
                    <P>
                        Currently, FAA does not permit the use of a flight simulation training device (FSTD) or an aviation training device (ATD) to meet sport pilot experience requirements for a certificate or rating. FAA proposed to permit sport pilots to obtain pilot time credit in a FAA-approved ATD or FAA-qualified FSTD 
                        <SU>174</SU>
                         to meet the minimum experience requirements for sport pilot certificate, consistent with FAA's long-standing, and expanding, allowance to credit simulation training in certain circumstances. Specifically, FAA proposed sport pilots could credit up to a total of two and a half hours of training in an FSTD or ATD (or a combination) representing the appropriate category and class of aircraft to meet the experience requirements of part 61 in new § 61.313(b). FAA received four comments, generally supporting the provision and subsequently adjudicated, and adopts § 61.313(b) as proposed, with a minor grammatical revision.
                    </P>
                    <P>ALPA stated if an FSTD is used for an evaluation facilitating a type rating or a category and class rating, the training should be accomplished in a full flight simulator (FFS) with six degrees of motion and sufficient training accomplished in advance of the evaluation. ALPA further stated, if any new forms of training like virtual or mixed reality were to be used, it should only be after the qualification standards have been established and should not replace in-aircraft training.</P>
                    <P>
                        FSTDs are approved under part 60, which sets forth qualification requirements and would include any new types of simulators yet to be developed, such as virtual reality designs. In addition, all FSTDs must be sponsored by the holder of a certificate under parts 119, 141 or 142 
                        <SU>175</SU>
                         and may only be used within an FAA-approved training program. Use of an FFS with motion for pilot evaluations or testing is under the supervision of an FAA aviation safety inspector who will evaluate the training device and approve the use of qualified FFS within a FAA-approved training program. FAA notes that flight schools and individuals providing instruction under part 61 do not hold a part 119, 141, or 142 certificate or have an FAA-approved training program and are not eligible to provide training in an FSTD to meet aeronautical experience requirements of a certificate or rating. However, these part 61 training providers may provide training in an FAA-approved ATD as specified in that ATD's FAA-issued letter of authorization.
                    </P>
                    <P>Specific to ALPA's concern, FAA notes the training in an FSTD or ATD that may be credited towards a sport pilot certificate under § 61.313(b) is not applicable to pilot type ratings because type ratings are not issued at the sport pilot certificate level. Furthermore, FAA notes the maximum 2.5-hour aeronautical experience credit in an FSTD or ATD comprises 12.5% of the minimum 20 hours total aeronautical experience requirements for airplane category or 8.3% for helicopters with simplified flight controls. As such, FAA does not consider this FSTD or ATD credit to be a safety risk because an applicant for a sport pilot certificate or privilege will still obtain the vast majority of their aeronautical experience in an aircraft.</P>
                    <P>Two commentors are in favor of the 2.5 hours of credit time in an ATD for sport pilots. In addition, Pivotal Aero stated it agrees with the adoption of the 2.5 hours in an ATD. However, it suggested that FAA should allow additional simulation pilot time credit above the 2.5 hours for aircraft with simplified flight controls. It stated there is a high degree of similarity between aircraft and the ATD.</P>
                    <P>ATDs or FSTDs may represent aircraft with a simplified flight controls system; however, FAA finds no reason to provide more credit for such ATDs or FSTDs just because it represents an aircraft with a simplified flight controls system, especially where this is a new class of aircraft introduced into sport pilot privileges. After FAA collects more data regarding aircraft equipped with simplified flight controls and simulators that represent those same aircraft, as well as consideration of the expanded type of aircraft a sport pilot may become certificated to operate, FAA may consider additional pilot time credit in future rulemakings for simplified flight controls aircraft or aircraft, generally. FAA notes it does not limit the number of instructional training hours logged in an FAA-qualified FSTD or FAA-approved ATD but does establish the maximum allowable time that may be credited for a certificate or rating. In other words, should an applicant feel additional training is needed, that applicant is free to seek training in an FSTD or ATD, but only 2.5 hours will be credited toward the aeronautical experience requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">8. Miscellaneous Comments</HD>
                    <P>These are comments that did not fit in other sections but pertain to the rulemaking.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Standing Minimum Experience Requirements in § 61.313</HD>
                    <P>
                        Currently, § 61.313(a) requires a person applying for a sport pilot certificate with an airplane category and single-engine land or sea class privileges to log at least 20 hours of flight time, including certain flight training time minimums, cross-country flight training, and takeoffs and landings. The NPRM did not propose revisions to these standing aeronautical experience requirements. However, several commenters raised concerns about the minimum 20 hours of flight time for airplane category privilege and suggested FAA should increase the flight training requirements for new sport pilots to 30 or 40 hours of flight time to parallel recreational pilots (30 hours) or private pilots (40 hours). Commenters asserted that sport pilots, recreational pilots, and private pilots can operate many of the same aircraft with relatively minor differences in privileges and limitations. Commenters specifically suggested increasing the minimum flight hours commensurate with expanded privileges through a gradual process to retain the basic sport pilot privileges as previously available since the 2004 final rule (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the 20 hours of flight time to obtain a sport pilot certificate with airplane privileges).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        However, this final rule does not increase the minimum experience requirements for a sport pilot certificate for airplane category, single-engine class privileges. The 2004 final rule adopted the minimum hours of experience for the sport pilot certificate. In that rule, FAA explained it expected that the 20-hour minimum flight time requirement for all aircraft (except gliders, balloons, and powered parachutes) to be adequate to train a person to exercise the privileges of a sport pilot given the limited types of aircraft sport pilots may operate and operations they are authorized to conduct. In addition, FAA noted the applicant for a sport pilot certificate must receive a recommendation by an authorized instructor who endorses the applicant's logbook indicating readiness to take and pass the practical test; pass a knowledge test on the general knowledge requirements necessary to exercise sport pilot privileges and operate light sport aircraft in the NAS; and demonstrate to FAA (or FAA-designated examiner) that the practical test standards can be met.
                        <SU>176</SU>
                         No evidence or data has been provided to suggest those minimum experience requirements need to be changed.
                        <SU>177</SU>
                        <PRTPAGE P="35127"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA did not propose changing the minimum experience requirements set forth in current § 61.313(a) through (h) for a sport pilot certificate and making any changes to those minimum experience requirements would require an additional public notice and comment. Furthermore, authorized flight instructors are responsible for ensuring an applicant for a pilot certificate rating or privilege is proficient in the areas of knowledge, skill, and proficiency listed in part 61 and FAA practical test standards for a sport pilot certificate before providing a recommendation to take a practical test in accordance with § 61.39(a)(6) or to provide a proficiency check. The minimum experience requirement does not eliminate the need to meet these testing standards and applicants often exceed the minimum hourly experience and training requirements to ensure pilot proficiency.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter stated the proposed reduction of flight hour requirements for sport pilots raises the risk of these pilots making uneducated decisions and actions in the cockpit and urges FAA to reconsider. FAA notes the NPRM did not propose to, nor does this final rule, reduce the overall flight hour requirements for sport pilots. While a sport pilot certificate requires reduced flight hours for certificate eligibility, compared to higher grades of certificates, FAA maintains the sport pilot training framework adequately addresses the operational regime facilitated by a sport pilot certificate (as largely discussed herein).</P>
                    <P>In addition, a commentor requested changes to the aeronautical experience requirements for weight-shift control, specifically tuck/tumble awareness and spiral recovery training. Upon review of the sport pilot PTS, those tasks are already included in the emergency operations area of operation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Safety Pilots</HD>
                    <P>A few commenters, including Fly Eagle Sport, suggested FAA permit sport pilots to act as a safety pilot. Another commenter stated permitting sport pilots to act as a safety pilot would allow a sport pilot to log flight time, add utility to a sport pilot certificate, help aspiring professional pilots build pilot time, and improve safety by encouraging two qualified pilots to fly together. One commenter recommended FAA clarify that private pilots exercising sport pilot privileges are not restricted from acting as safety pilot because instrument rated pilots practicing under simulated conditions enhances safety. The commenter also suggested that § 91.109(c)(1) should be retained for private pilots exercising sport pilot privileges.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 91.109(c) requires a safety pilot for operations in simulated instrument flight. A private pilot exercising sport pilot privileges cannot act as a safety pilot because a sport pilot is restricted from serving as a required flight crewmember on any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by the regulation under which the flight is conducted (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         § 91.109(c)).
                        <SU>178</SU>
                         A person who seeks to act as a safety pilot must satisfy the minimum pilot certificate requirements listed in § 91.109(c)(1), which limits persons acting as safety pilots to pilots with a private pilot certificate or a higher grade of pilot certificate 
                        <SU>179</SU>
                         because of the expected responsibilities associated with acting as a safety pilot. For example, safety pilots take on a quasi-supervisory role to ensure safety of the flight when the PIC is accomplishing and executing instrument procedures and associated communications with ATC in simulated instrument conditions, including aircraft separation and crew coordination responsibilities. Sport pilots are not permitted to act as a safety pilot because the risk associated with serving as a safety pilot is inconsistent with the level of training and experience required by sport pilots. Specifically, private pilots require more aeronautical experience than sport pilots, including some experience sport pilots do not receive. For example, private pilots are tested in areas that sport pilots are not, including navigation systems and radar services, which includes the use of onboard navigation systems to determine the aircraft's position. The role of safety pilot inherently involves monitoring another pilot's maneuvering of an airplane solely by reference to instruments and relies upon the use of navigation systems and radar services. Due to sport pilots' lack of this additional training and experience in these areas, FAA finds it necessary to retain the existing § 91.109(c)(1) requirement for a safety pilot to hold at least a private pilot certificate.
                    </P>
                    <P>Because sport pilots may not act as a safety pilot, as discussed above, therefore suggestions regarding the logging of sport pilot flight time as a safety pilot are beyond the scope of this rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. General Comments Regarding Aircraft Sport Pilots May Operate</HD>
                    <P>The United States Hang Gliding &amp; Paragliding Association (USHPA) commented in support of the stated justifications for the proposed amendments. Specifically, it expressed support of the expansion of sport pilot privileges as defined in the proposal, noting that in some cases, the expansion of sport pilot privileges will require additional training and a flight instructor qualifying endorsement and additional experience.</P>
                    <P>One commenter suggested FAA should permit sport pilots to operate three-seat powered parachutes due to the safety record of powered parachutes. Because the commenter did not provide safety data comparing the operation of two-seat vs. three-seat powered parachutes, or a specific safety reason or justification to permit sport pilots to operate powered parachutes, FAA is not expanding the seat limitation for powered parachutes.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter stated prior to the 2004 final rule, unlicensed pilots were allowed to tow hang glider pilots who were rated by USHPA. The commenter requested FAA consider further expanding sport pilot privileges to include towing hang gliders. FAA did not consider allowing the expansion of sport pilot privileges for the towing of hang gliders due to the minimal aeronautical experience required to obtain a sport pilot certificate. FAA continues to support the 2004 final rule, which affirmed a person must possess at least a private pilot certificate or higher to conduct towing operations as specified in § 61.69, including any associated private pilot qualifications and a minimum 100 hours of PIC experience. FAA considers this necessary to mitigate risks of towing operations, which are higher due to the inherent involvement of multiple aircraft and pilots. Similarly, FAA notes towing privileges were also not extended to recreational pilots. Therefore, this final rule does not expand operational privileges to include glider and unpowered ultralight vehicle (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         hang glider) towing.
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter recommended FAA permit a private pilot with a glider rating who is seeking a sport pilot airplane privilege have reduced minimum experience requirements under § 61.313 to qualify because the areas of operation on the practical test are almost identical for airplane and glider.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA notes that a pilot who holds a higher grade of pilot certificate, including private pilot, may add an additional sport pilot category or class privilege to their existing certificate, in accordance with § 61.321, without meeting the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.313 for that additional category or class. However, § 61.321 does not explicitly state that it applies to holders of either a sport pilot 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35128"/>
                        certificate or a higher-grade certificate, which may have contributed to the commenter's misunderstanding. Consequently, this final rule amends § 61.321 to clearly state that it applies to holders of a sport pilot or higher-grade certificate seeking privileges to operate an additional category or class of aircraft at the sport pilot level. For similar reasons, this final rule also amends § 61.419 to clarify that it applies to holders of flight instructor certificates issued under subpart H or flight instructor certificates with a sport pilot rating seeking privileges to provide training under subpart K in an additional category or class of aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Powered-Lift</HD>
                    <P>
                        The § 1.1 definition of light-sport aircraft excludes powered-lift from being a light-sport aircraft. While the NPRM proposed to allow airworthiness certification of powered-lift as light-sport category aircraft under § 21.190, FAA did not consider powered-lift privileges for sport pilots, nor did FAA consider expanding powered-lift privileges for sport pilots in the recent Integration of Powered-Lift final rule. FAA noted in both rules that this is due to the complexity and ongoing development of powered-lift designs and associated pilot certifications and operational rules.
                        <SU>180</SU>
                         ALPA supported FAA's decision not to consider a powered-lift privilege for sport pilots. In contrast, Doroni Aerospace, AIR VEV, and GAMA requested FAA to reconsider its position on sport pilot privileges for powered-lift. Doroni Aerospace and AIR VEV suggested enabling sport pilot powered-lift privileges is similar to permitting sport pilots to operate helicopters.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA notes the long history of experience with helicopters, which have been widely produced, and operated for decades. Though helicopters with simplified flight controls will change how a pilot operates these helicopters, the underlying knowledge and skills necessary to safely operate this longstanding category and class of aircraft within the NAS is well understood. In contrast, powered-lift are still largely under development. As a result, FAA and industry do not have data or operational experience on the integration of powered-lift aircraft in the NAS. Without this data and experience, FAA cannot accurately reassess the minimum pilot standards for powered-lift aircraft to consider sport pilot operations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        e. Recreational Pilot Certificate 
                        <SU>181</SU>
                    </HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA did not propose any changes concerning recreational pilot certificate experience, ratings, or privileges. Several commenters opined on the proposed sport pilot operational privileges and limitations and compared to those experience requirements, privileges, and limitations with those of higher-grade certificates, including recreational pilot certificates. Commenters suggested FAA revise the recreational pilot privileges and limitations or remove the recreational pilot certificate and include those pilots in the sport pilot category. One commenter recommended revisions to § 61.303(a)(2)(ii) to relieve pilots who hold a higher grade of pilot certificate seeking to exercise sport pilot privileges to be exempt from the training and endorsement requirements of § 61.315(c)(14)(i), specific to aircraft with a V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         greater than 87 knots CAS, or § 61.315(c)(14)(ii), specific to operating aircraft with a V
                        <E T="52">H</E>
                         less than or equal to 87 knots CAS. This includes training and endorsement requirements specified in § 61.327(b). One commenter recommended that the sport pilot certificate should become the “de facto” initial pilot certificate, including testing by a DPE, with the ability to upgrade to a private pilot certificate using additional training and endorsements and a phasing out of the recreational pilot certificate.
                    </P>
                    <P>In response to the recommendation to revise recreational pilot operating privileges, or to remove the recreational pilot certificate and then provide recreational pilots with a sport pilot certificate, such a significant rule amendment would require additional public notice and comment because it was not proposed in the MOSAIC NPRM. Due to the differences in operational limitations for a recreational pilot certificate, removing the recreational pilot certificate and replacing it with a sport pilot certificate or revising the recreational pilot operating privileges and limitations would require additional consideration and analysis of the safety risks, benefits, and impact of such a change on existing certificate holders as well as other users of the NAS. Such a change would be out of scope for this final rule, because FAA did not provide notice of the potential for such a change and an opportunity for comment. FAA notes a recreational pilot or higher-grade certificate can currently obtain sport pilot privileges by accomplishing a proficiency check or practical test; however the limitations of the recreational pilot must still be adhered to. In response to the recommendation that pilots with a higher grade of pilot certificate exercising sport pilot privileges should be excluded from the endorsement requirements of § 61.315(c)(14)(i) and (ii) and § 61.327(b), FAA contends these sport pilot training and endorsement requirements remain necessary to ensure competency for pilots who may not have experience in aircraft with those specific performance parameters.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Out of Scope Comments</HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA received multiple comments that were considered out of scope. Some of these comments included special flight authorizations and aerial task privileges for commercial pilots. These comments are wholly outside the scope of this final rule, but FAA may consider changes in future rulemaking.
                        <SU>182</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter stated they hold a TCCA Recreational Pilot Permit and would like to see a reciprocal agreement between FAA and TCCA to allow FAA sport pilot certificate holders to operate within Canada and TCCA Recreational Pilot Permit holders to operate in the United States. FAA notes that bilateral or multilateral agreements with foreign Civil Aviation Authorities were not addressed within the scope of this rulemaking; however this does not preclude new or updated agreements in the future, following the standard agreement process.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">g. General Comments Pertaining to the NPRM</HD>
                    <P>Aviation Impacted Communities Alliance (AICA) expressed concern that the proposed MOSAIC rule increases operating privileges, rendering the sport pilot the default certificate for flight training. While this final rule does increase various operating privileges of sport pilots, FAA does not share AICA's concern that the effect of the increase in the operating privileges will result in the sport pilot certificate becoming the default certificate for flight training. FAA notes the certificate chosen is the applicant's choice and the applicants still may choose sport, recreational, or private certification when seeking initial flight training.</P>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter suggested eliminating the requirement for sport pilots to carry a logbook while in flight to mirror private pilot requirements. Section 61.51(i)(3) requires a sport pilot to carry his or her logbook or other evidence of required authorized instructor endorsements on all flights. FAA declines to remove this requirement because, unlike private pilots, a sport pilot does not carry ratings listed on their certificate as evidence of his or her qualification to act as PIC of a particular aircraft using sport pilot privileges. Instead, a sport pilot's privileges are documented 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35129"/>
                        through logbook endorsements. FAA also notes that, under the regulation, sport pilots may choose to carry other evidence of the required authorized endorsements instead of the logbook.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter stated complex aircraft and technically advanced airplanes (TAAs) should require additional training and an instructor endorsement for sport pilots. A sport pilot seeking to operate a complex airplane must receive training and a qualifying flight instructor endorsement, in accordance with § 61.31(e). However, FAA does not recognize, nor was provided with documentation of, additional risk for sport pilots to mandate additional training and flight instructor endorsements for pilots who wish to operate a complex airplane or TAA. Furthermore, FAA does not require additional training and an instructor endorsement to operate a TAA for any pilot, regardless of their grade of pilot certificate. However, FAA does recommend that any pilot who intends to operate an aircraft with avionics systems they are not familiar with consider seeking avionics familiarization training with an authorized instructor.</P>
                    <P>GFTA stated FAA's proposal would permit the use of turbine powerplant technology in light-sport category aircraft and recommended eliminating the type rating requirement for operators of turbojet powered light-sport aircraft. Desert Aerospace, LLC and Sonex Aircraft suggested FAA remove type rating requirements for turbojet-powered light-sport category airplanes and recommended a logbook endorsement to operate those airplanes.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA notes that a person who acts as PIC of certain aircraft, pursuant to § 61.31, must hold a type rating for that aircraft, which includes turbojet powered airplanes.
                        <SU>183</SU>
                         FAA did not propose revising this requirement, which applies to all aircraft at all certificate levels (including sport pilots). FAA is retaining the type rating requirement for pilots who seek to operate turbojet-powered aircraft due to the complexity associated operating those aircraft. However, it was not the intention of FAA to allow a sport pilot to operate an aircraft that requires a pilot to hold a type rating due to the complexity associated with operating those aircraft and the training footprint of sport pilots. FAA has long maintained that the performance, environment, and operating characteristics of turbojet-powered airplanes require the PIC to demonstrate proficiency operating that specific airplane 
                        <SU>184</SU>
                         and FAA does not find a compelling reason to lift the type rating requirement for all aircraft. However, this final rule amends § 61.315 to specifically state that a sport pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft that requires a pilot to hold a type rating in accordance with § 61.31(a). FAA notes Desert Aerospace's reference to turbine powered aircraft is a broad term that includes both turbojet and turboprop powerplants, but the type rating requirement only applies to “turbojet” powered aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, Desert Aerospace recommended modifying § 61.58(a) to exclude gliders and turbine powered light-sport category aircraft or light-sport category aircraft equivalent airplanes. Sonex also recommended removing the § 61.58 requirements for a yearly pilot proficiency check to carry a passenger in a turbojet-powered light sport airplane.</P>
                    <P>FAA notes that § 61.58(a) sets forth the PIC proficiency check requirements for the operation of an aircraft that requires more than one pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered. As previously discussed, this final rule amends § 61.315(c) to specifically state that a sport pilot may not act as PIC of an aircraft that requires a type rating in accordance with § 61.31(a). Consequently, the § 61.58 requirements are inapplicable to aircraft that may be operated under sport pilot privileges. FAA further notes that the self-launching, turbojet-powered gliders that Desert Aerospace refers to have operating limitations that require an FAA-issued authorization to act as PIC. In these circumstances, the existing requirements for meeting the aircraft operating limitations and FAA authorization remain applicable and may require compliance with § 61.58. This rulemaking does not change the existing requirements for these aircraft.</P>
                    <P>One commenter suggested that multiengine airplanes would be an acceptable privilege for sport pilots and requested clarification on whether a sport pilot can seek privileges to operate a multiengine airplane with a single-engine class privilege. In addition, GFTA asked for clarification on whether a light-sport aircraft with more than a single powerplant would require a sport pilot multiengine rating and asked if this would be analogous to flying a light-sport aircraft seaplane without a seaplane rating.</P>
                    <P>FAA did not propose a new airplane category “multiengine class” privilege for sport pilots. The multiengine reference is specific to the rotorcraft category, multiengine helicopters, which may include helicopters with more than one engine or multi-rotor designs. Under the permissible category and class privileges available to sport pilots outlined in § 61.313, helicopters may have more than one engine or rotor and still be operated by a sport pilot with a rotorcraft-helicopter privilege. In addition, sport pilots who intend to operate a seaplane must obtain an airplane category and single-engine sea class privilege to operate single-engine seaplanes.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter opposed the proposed § 22.100(a)(4),
                        <SU>185</SU>
                         which indirectly allows sport pilots to operate light-sport category aircraft at an increased maximum speed of 250 knots CAS. The commenter asserted that sport pilots cannot safely operate at that speed without additional training and higher grade of pilot certificate. Accordingly, the commenter suggested a maximum CAS of 200 knots as a sport pilot certificate limitation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As explained in the NPRM, a maximum speed of 250 knots CAS was intended to provide an upper limit appropriate for a category of aircraft intended for recreation and flight training for sport pilots to operate.
                        <SU>186</SU>
                         However, FAA did not propose to impose a speed limitation on the sport pilot certificate. Therefore, this comment is out of scope for this final rule. In addition, FAA does not have a safety concern with this change in light-sport aircraft certification because aircraft that may be operated under sport pilot privileges are limited by § 61.316 performance and design limitations. Specifically, the stall speed limitation in § 61.316(a)(1) indirectly limits the maximum cruise speed of the aircraft that may be operated under sport pilot privileges.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter asked hypothetical questions regarding specific operational privileges. Specifically, the commenter asked whether a person could travel to their job in an airplane under the provisions of this rule or do non-passenger carrying commercial work. The commenter further asked for justification and data if FAA did not permit these operations.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA notes that subpart J of part 61 does not prohibit sport pilots from using an aircraft for personal use or travel. Section 61.315 provides the privileges and limitations of a sport pilot certificate, and a sport pilot determines whether his or her operation is characterized by any of the limitations prior to operation. With respect to the commenter's question regarding whether sports pilots are allowed to conduct non-passenger carrying commercial work, § 61.315(c)(2) prohibits a person from acting as PIC of a light sport aircraft for compensation or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35130"/>
                        hire, and FAA did not propose any revisions to that specific limitation in the NPRM. Therefore, a sport pilot would not be permitted to conduct non-passenger commercial work if the sport pilot were to receive compensation for it. FAA notes that what constitutes compensation is not limited to profit, profit motive, or the actual payment of funds, but is the receipt of anything of value that is contingent on the pilot operating the aircraft.
                        <SU>187</SU>
                         GAMA recommended changing the section heading from “design requirements” to “parameters,” stating that “design requirements” appears to be blurring the lines between aircraft certification and pilot privileges/limitations. GAMA stated the section is intended to prescribe requirements that establish the parameters and performance limitations for the aircraft in which a sport pilot may act as pilot in command. Though understanding GAMA's suggestion, FAA declines to change the terminology used because § 61.316 is meant to define aircraft design criteria allowed for sport pilots to operate.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter recommended FAA permit sport and private pilots to log flight time as second in command (SIC) by acting as copilot. The commenter also suggested that allowing a sport pilot to act as SIC would facilitate safety with a two-pilot flight deck and provide an additional pathway to meet recency and log additional pilot time for advanced certifications.</P>
                    <P>
                        Currently, in accordance with § 61.55, FAA does not permit sport pilots to serve as SIC. As a result, a sport pilot cannot log flight time as SIC in aircraft that only requires one pilot under the type certification of the aircraft to operate as pilot in command.
                        <SU>188</SU>
                         If a private pilot complies with § 61.55, they may log SIC time. FAA did not consider amending § 61.55 to include the sport pilot certificate, as a sport pilot certificate was created for recreational purposes and not intended to fulfill a safety-sensitive role such as safety pilot, which essentially amounts to a two-pilot flight crew operation. Therefore, changes to the requirements for logging second-in-command flight time for a sport pilot are outside the scope of this rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter recommended revising § 61.109(i) to permit student pilots seeking a private pilot certificate to credit training from a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating (subpart K) to normalize the inclusion of aircraft with more than one seat and avoid disenfranchising the employment of subpart K instructors training sport pilots at flight schools that already have subpart H instructors employed. Training from a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating (subpart K) can be credited to the experience requirements for a private pilot certificate; however, a student pilot receiving training from the subpart K flight instructor must have obtained their sport pilot certificate before that training time can be used as pilot time credit toward a private pilot certificate.
                        <SU>189</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter suggested that a private pilot certificate appears to have twice the requirements as a sport pilot certificate, but that the difference is much smaller in practice, and recommended FAA allow sport pilots to obtain private pilot privileges after obtaining a certain number of flight hours. This commenter also contends research shows that experience is part of increased safety, but did not provide the source of the research referenced. A sport pilot can obtain additional training and experience leading to the issuance of a private pilot certificate. However, because of the expanded privileges associated with a higher grade of pilot certificate, an applicant still would need to meet all the additional experience requirements and medical qualifications for that certificate.</P>
                    <P>One commenter suggested allowing a private pilot who is flying under sport pilot privileges without a valid medical be allowed to operate at VFR minimums and VFR-on-top, because such pilots have already demonstrated proficiency. A pilot must comply with the privileges and limitations of the certificate that he or she is exercising. Therefore, even though the private pilot would have demonstrated proficiency at the private pilot level, the pilot would be exercising sport pilot privileges and would be subject to those privileges and limitations. Section 61.315 does not allow for the operations suggested by the commenter, and FAA did not consider amending § 61.315 to permit these types of operations.</P>
                    <P>NAFI requested that FAA should provide outreach via advisory circulars and social media to help foster a clear understanding of the new rules. It is FAA's intent to implement the rule to the public by way of communications, webinars, and published guidance.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">9. Conforming Amendments</HD>
                    <P>This final rule makes conforming amendments to replace “a light-sport aircraft” with “an aircraft” in the following sections: §§ 61.1(ii), 61.89(c)(5), 61.113(h), 61.327, 61.412; 61.415(e), 61.415(f), 61.415(g), 61.423(a)(2)(iii)(C), and 61.423(a)(2)(iii)(D). Similarly, this final rule makes conforming amendments to replace “a light-sport aircraft” and with “an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316” in the following sections: §§ 61.23(c)(1)(i), (ii), (iii), and (iv); 61.23(c)(2)(iv); 61.89(c)(1); 61.325; 61.327(a); 61.327(b); 61.411(a)(1)(v), (b)(1), (c)(1)(v), (d)(1)(v), (e)(1)(iii), (f)(1)(v), and (g)(1)(v). Finally, this final rule makes conforming amendments to remove “light-sport” from the following sections: §§ 61.45; 61.313; 61.317; 61.321; 61.321(a)(1), (2), and (4); 61.325; 61.327(a)(2) and (b)(2); 61.403(b); 61.417; 61.423(a)(2)(iii)(A), (a)(2)(iv), and (b). The removal of the reference to light-sport aircraft in subpart J is consistent with FAA's removal of the definition for these aircraft in § 1.1. Where appropriate, FAA has removed the reference to light-sport aircraft and replaced it with a reference to new § 61.316, which sets forth the performance limitations for the aircraft a sport pilot may operate. As explained in section IV.H.1 of this preamble, this change in terminology is accompanied by broadening some of the limitations that currently exist in the definition of light-sport aircraft in § 1.1.</P>
                    <P>Section 61.3 speaks to pilot certificates, ratings, and authorizations that are required to operate aircraft in the United States. Currently, the privileges provided in § 61.313 are not codified in § 61.3. In the NPRM, FAA also proposed a conforming amendment to § 61.3 that adds a new paragraph requiring that a sport pilot exercising the privileges listed in § 61.313 receives a qualifying logbook endorsement for the appropriate category and class privilege, as applicable. This clarification to § 61.3 is required because sport pilots do not obtain a rating issued on a sport pilot certificate, but instead they receive an endorsement in their logbook facilitating the appropriate category and class “privilege,” as referenced in § 61.317. FAA did not receive comments on this proposal and adopts this conforming amendment as proposed.</P>
                    <P>Finally, in the NPRM, FAA noted § 61.305 is improperly formatted as it sets forth a paragraph (a) but no corresponding paragraph (b) and proposed to redesignate existing paragraph (a) as introductory text, existing paragraph (a)(1) as new paragraph (a), and existing paragraph (a)(2) as new paragraph (b). No substantive changes were proposed for this section and no comments were received. Therefore, this final rule reformats § 61.305 as proposed.</P>
                    <P>
                        Additional conforming amendments are throughout the regulatory instructions as they are changed along with other regulatory changes. FAA 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35131"/>
                        received no public comments on these conforming amendments.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Repairman Certificates (Light-Sport)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Part 65 provides the requirements for certification of airmen other than flight crewmembers, including certification of a repairman in subpart E. In the NPRM, FAA described the existing regulations prescribing eligibility requirements, privileges, and limitations of the repairman (light-sport aircraft) certificate 
                        <SU>190</SU>
                         and discussed several proposed amendments related to certification, privileges, and limitations of light-sport repairmen. FAA received approximately 400 comments overall on the proposals related to light-sport repairmen training, certificates, and privileges, from approximately 230 different commenters. This section discusses the adopted provisions and adjudicates the received comments. Throughout this section, FAA will refer to repairman certificate (light-sport) holders as “light-sport repairman” and “repairman certificate (light-sport)” as “light-sport repairman certificate” for readability.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Revisions to Terminology</HD>
                    <P>In the NPRM, FAA proposed several amendments to part 65 terminology to conform to other substantive proposals made in the NPRM.</P>
                    <P>
                        First, FAA proposed to change the certificate title of “repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft)” to “repairman certificate (light-sport)” to align with the removal of the § 1.1 definition of “light-sport aircraft” and future aircraft certification in the light-sport category.
                        <SU>191</SU>
                         One commenter asked how to request a replacement certificate with the new title. It is not necessary for a repairman with a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) to replace their certificate with a certificate displaying the new certificate title. As discussed in the NPRM, light-sport repairman certificates issued before a final rule effective date will remain valid, as FAA did not propose or adopt changes to existing privileges or limitations to ratings on a repairman certificate. However, an airman can request a replacement certificate through FAA's Airmen Online Services.
                        <SU>192</SU>
                         After the applicable effective date of this final rule, a replacement or amended certificate will display the new certificate title. Advisory Circular AC 65-32B, Certification of Repairmen (Light-Sport) provides additional information on the procedures for requesting a replacement or amended certificate.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter asked that FAA consider leaving the certificate title as-is, stating that changing the title will only cause confusion. As discussed in the NPRM, FAA considered the impact the certificate title change would have when developing the proposal. FAA maintains that changing the certificate title will be beneficial over the long-term, reducing confusion between currently designated “light-sport aircraft” under the § 1.1 definition, which will be removed on July 24, 2026, and future light-sport category aircraft. During analysis of the comment, FAA noted changing the certificate title to repairman certificate (light-sport) in part 65 would inadvertently result in the certificates issued before this final rule takes effect unrecognized in part 65, since the adopted regulations will solely refer to “repairman certificate (light-sport).” To address this discrepancy, this final rule adds language under new § 65.107(f), which is discussed further in section IV.I.2.d of this preamble.</P>
                    <P>Therefore, FAA adopts the certificate title change to “repairman certificate (light-sport),” as proposed, in § 65.107 and new § 65.109. The NPRM proposed a conforming amendment in § 91.327(c)(1) to reflect the certificate title change, and subsequently identified conforming amendments are necessary in § 91.327(b)(1) and (b)(2) and § 91.319(g)(1). FAA makes these conforming amendments in §§ 91.319(g)(1), 91.327(b)(1) and (2), and 91.327(c)(1).</P>
                    <P>Second, FAA proposed removing the term “light-sport aircraft” in §§ 65.107 and 65.109 when defining what aircraft are included in the light-sport repairman certificate privileges. Instead, when defining aircraft privileges, § 65.109 would directly cross-reference the applicable aircraft, as defined by the airworthiness certificate issued for the aircraft under part 21. FAA did not receive comments on this terminology change and adopts the removal and cross-references.</P>
                    <P>
                        Third, FAA proposed to replace references to “class” of aircraft with “category” of aircraft in amended § 65.107 and new § 65.109. In the NPRM, FAA discussed that § 1.1 defines those terms differently depending on whether the term is being used in the context of either aircraft certification or airman certification. With respect to airman certification, “category” refers to a broad classification of aircraft 
                        <SU>193</SU>
                         and “class” refers to a classification of aircraft within a category having similar operating characteristics.
                        <SU>194</SU>
                         Consistent with these definitions, part 65 does not establish repairman certificate privileges and limitations by aircraft operating characteristics; rather, privileges and limitations are defined by a broad classification of aircraft. FAA finds the use of “category” to be the correct term to describe light-sport repairman certificate privileges. FAA did not receive comments on this editorial correction and adopts the proposal to replace the term “class” with “category” throughout § 65.107 and new § 65.109.
                        <SU>195</SU>
                         However, FAA may issue light-sport repairman certificates with aircraft category privileges that are limited to a class within the category (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         rotorcraft category, helicopter class). To facilitate aircraft class limitations for training course content and subsequent class limitations within category privileges on a repairman certificate, this final rule adds class applicability to §§ 65.107(c), 65.107(d), 65.107(e)(3)(iv), 65.109(a)(3), and 65.109(b)(3). This preamble provides additional discussion on training courses designed for a class within a category in section IV.I.7.d and on limiting light-sport repairman certificate privileges to a class within a category in sections IV.I.8 and IV.I.10.a.
                    </P>
                    <P>This final rule also makes a conforming change to § 65.109(a)(2) and (b)(2) by changing “experimental certificate” to “experimental airworthiness certificate” to remain consistent with the terminology of § 21.191 and the explanation in section IV.I.2 of the NPRM that experimental certificates are experimental airworthiness certificates. FAA did not receive any comments on this terminology change for § 21.191.</P>
                    <P>In addition, as discussed in the NPRM, FAA finds the modifier of “particular” to “class” in current § 65.107(a)(2)(ii) and (a)(3)(ii) superfluous, as there is no related distinction established in § 1.1 definitions. FAA did not receive comments on this editorial revision and removes the term “particular” as a modifier of “class” in adopted §§ 65.107(c) and 65.107(d) from this section.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, in the NPRM, FAA explained that the language “approve and return to service” is not accurate in the context of repairman and mechanic certificate privileges because these certificate holders do not “return” aircraft to service. FAA proposed to use the language “approve for return to service” in §§ 65.81(a), 65.85(a) and (b), 65.87(a) and (b), and new 65.109(b)(1) (formerly § 65.107(c)(1)) to align with the privileges provided in part 65 and to be consistent with part 43 maintenance regulations. FAA received one comment on this proposed change from AEA/ARSA, which stated the proposed changes to § 65.81 are unrelated to the MOSAIC rulemaking and, as such, FAA 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35132"/>
                        has not provided appropriate notice as required by the APA with regard to the intended applicability of this change and persons affected by this proposal.
                    </P>
                    <P>The language “approve and return to service” is inaccurate because an aircraft is not “in service” until it is flown or operated. The holder of a repairman or mechanic certificate cannot “return” the aircraft to service under the privileges of that certificate as flying an aircraft is not a privilege bestowed by any regulation in part 65. Rather, the certificated mechanic or repairman approves the aircraft for its return into service. Further, FAA finds that the public was provided sufficient notice of this proposed amendment to change the regulatory language to “approve for return to service,” FAA exercised appropriate discretion in including this amendment under this rulemaking given its relation to part 65 repairmen certificates, and would have considered all comments received regarding this amendment. However, FAA did not receive any other comment on this revision and maintains the amendment is a nonsubstantive revision for accuracy; this final rule adopts the regulatory language to “approve for return to service” in §§ 65.81(a), 65.85(a) and (b), and 65.87(a) and (b), 65.109(b)(1) (formerly § 65.107(c)(1)), and 65.109(c) (formerly § 65.107(d)) to more accurately capture the intended privileges of the certificate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Repairman Certificate (Light-Sport) Eligibility</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. General</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 65.107, prior to the applicable effective date of this final rule, sets forth the eligibility, privileges, and limits to a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) to include a table establishing the general eligibility requirements to obtain a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft), as well as the specific requirements to obtain an inspection rating and a maintenance rating on the repairman certificate. In the NPRM, FAA proposed to reorganize previous § 65.107 into two sections to improve readability and understanding of the requirements. Specifically, FAA proposed to amend, first, § 65.107 to include only the certificate eligibility and training course requirements for the repairman certificate (light-sport) and, second, to add new § 65.109 to set forth the certificate and rating (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         inspection, maintenance) privileges and limitations. FAA did not receive any comments regarding the proposed reorganization of the table into paragraphs and therefore the reorganization is adopted in the final rule. To note, the reorganization of § 65.107 will not, by itself, substantively change the eligibility requirements or process to obtain a light-sport repairman certificate.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As noted in the NPRM, § 65.107(a)(1)(ii), prior to the applicable effective date of this final rule, allows that, if a person is prevented from reading, speaking, writing, or understanding English due to a medical reason, FAA may place a limitation on the repairman certificate, as necessary, to ensure safe performance of the actions authorized by the certificate and rating.
                        <SU>196</SU>
                         FAA explained that, in practice, this limitation is issued via an exemption in conjunction with the application and temporary airman certificate, as other part 65 certificates are treated; therefore, FAA proposed the removal of the limitation from restructured § 65.107 (specifically, § 65.107(b)(2) setting forth the language requirements). FAA did not receive comments on this change, therefore, in the final rule, FAA is adopting § 65.107(b)(2) as proposed.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Citizenship</HD>
                    <P>In the NPRM, FAA proposed to move the repairman applicant citizenship requirements from § 65.107(a)(1)(iv) to § 65.107(b)(3). FAA received two comments stating concerns with retaining the requirement that a person must be a U.S. citizen, or a citizen of a foreign country who has been lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States, to be eligible for a light-sport repairman certificate. One of the commenters stated the requirement excludes persons who are legitimately in the United States on non-immigrant visas and who have a lawful reason to work. Both commenters suggested it is within the purview of U.S. immigration laws to provide pathways for individuals to legally work in the United States. In addition, both commenters stated requiring U.S. citizenship or permanent residency is inconsistent with the regulations for pilot, aircraft dispatcher, parachute rigger, and mechanic certificate eligibility and that such a requirement prevents qualified and otherwise eligible individuals from obtaining a light-sport repairman certificate.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA agrees with commenters and finds removing the citizenship requirement appropriate for the privileges associated with light-sport repairman certificates. As stated by commenters, an applicant for a mechanic certificate does not have a similar requirement for citizenship or permanent residency.
                        <SU>197</SU>
                         Neither the 2004 final rule, nor the 2002 NPRM, that initially adopted the citizenship requirement for light-sport repairman applicants provided a rationale for adopting a citizenship requirement, nor does FAA find a safety basis for preventing this possible pool of repairman from becoming certificated. FAA notes that, while this final rule removes U.S. citizenship or lawful permanent residency as an eligibility requirement for a light-sport repairman certificate, all light-sport repairman must exercise the privileges of the certificate in compliance with all applicable laws and regulations of the United States. Therefore, in this final rule, FAA is removing the citizenship requirement in § 65.107 for repairman certificate (light-sport) eligibility.
                        <SU>198</SU>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Demonstration of Requisite Skill</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, FAA proposed to retain the requirement in § 65.107(a)(1)(iii) prior to the applicable effective date of this final rule, for a light-sport repairman certificate applicant to demonstrate the requisite skill to determine whether the aircraft is in a condition for safe operation, in proposed § 65.107(b)(4). Upon further review, FAA found this requirement to be unclear as to what satisfies a demonstration of skill requirement. In current practice and consistent with FAA guidance,
                        <SU>199</SU>
                         a person may accomplish this “demonstration” by presenting the certificate of completion issued by the training course provider. FAA finds no reason to perpetuate unclear “demonstration” in this final rule; rather, FAA finds demonstration of training completion and passing of the course test, is appropriate. Completion of a training course as required prior to the applicable effective date of this final rule,
                        <SU>200</SU>
                         is adopted in this final rule as § 65.107(b)(3).
                        <SU>201</SU>
                         Similarly, FAA proposed to add new § 65.107(b)(6), a requirement for a written test to be administered by the training course provider, as is the practice of training courses prior to the applicable effective date of this final rule,
                        <SU>202</SU>
                         which this final rule adopts as § 65.107(b)(4).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Therefore, this final rule adopts the requirement to present documentary evidence of course completion and passage of the required written test for an applicant to demonstrate the applicant has the requisite skill. FAA also proposed to require training course providers to provide a certificate of completion to each student who completes the training course and passes the course test, in § 65.107(e)(3). A person may utilize this certificate of completion as the documentary evidence, though other documentary evidence, such as transcripts and a letter 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35133"/>
                        from the course provider confirming passage of the required written test, may also be appropriate.
                        <SU>203</SU>
                         This final rule does not adopt proposed § 65.107(b)(4) and, instead, FAA finds an applicant demonstrates they have the requisite skill to determine whether an aircraft is in a condition for safe flight by presenting the documentary evidence of training course completion and passage of the required written test as set forth in § 65.107(b)(5).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Changes to Repairman Certificate Privileges</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, FAA discussed that aircraft class privileges issued prior to, and valid before a final rule takes effect, would be equivalent to category privileges of the same name.
                        <SU>204</SU>
                         FAA received five comments related to the eligibility of existing repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) holders to hold and exercise the privileges of a repairman certificate (light-sport) after the effective date of a final rule. These commenters questioned how a final rule would affect repairman certificates issued before this final rule takes effect.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, FAA explicitly stated should the proposal be adopted, repairman certificates issued before the effective date specified in the final rule would be valid without additional training or reissuance to account for the broader scope of light-sport category aircraft characteristics, which FAA further explained would not result in a reduction in safety.
                        <SU>205</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>As proposed in the NPRM, § 65.107(a) will set forth the ratings that may be issued on a light-sport repairman certificate: inspection and maintenance. The NPRM did not propose any changes to the ratings that may be issued on the certificate. However, as discussed in section IV.I.1 of this final rule, the changed certificate title will inadvertently result in the certificates issued before this final rule's applicable effective date being unrecognized in part 65.</P>
                    <P>
                        While the NPRM explicitly discussed this, FAA finds that regulatory inclusion is needed to address this discrepancy. As such, this final rule adopts a new paragraph specifying that repairman certificates and ratings issued with “repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft)” before this final rule takes effect will remain valid, in § 65.107(f), setting forth certificate issuance and equivalency parameters. This principle was discussed in the NPRM preamble; 
                        <SU>206</SU>
                         however, the plain text of the regulations would not have accounted for these certificates. Under this final rule, § 65.107(f)(2) will state that a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) that was issued before, and was valid on, October 22, 2025 is equivalent to a repairman certificate (light-sport) with the same ratings. New § 65.107(f)(3) will also state that aircraft class privileges issued before, and valid on October 22, 2025 are equivalent to aircraft category privileges, with an exception in § 65.107(f)(4) for certificates with gyroplane class privileges issued before October 22, 2025 (as subsequently discussed). For example, an individual's valid repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with an inspection rating and weight-shift-control class privileges will be recognized under § 65.107(f)(2) and treated equivalently as a repairman certificate (light-sport) with an inspection rating and weight-shift-control category privileges. Similarly, an individual's valid repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with a maintenance rating and airplane class privileges will be recognized under § 65.107(f)(3) and treated equivalently to a repairman certificate (light-sport) with a maintenance rating and airplane category privileges.
                    </P>
                    <P>As discussed in section IV.I.8, a certificate with an inspection rating and gyroplane class privileges issued before the final rule takes effect will have rotorcraft category privileges that are limited to aircraft in the gyroplane class. Therefore, the exception in § 65.107(f)(4) states a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft), with an inspection rating and gyroplane class privileges issued before and valid on October 22, 2025, is equivalent to a repairman certificate (light-sport), with an inspection rating, and rotorcraft category privileges that are limited to aircraft in the gyroplane class.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter stated light-sport repairmen should be grandfathered into the new light-sport aircraft rules as fully functional and authorized mechanics. The commenter stated this would solve the current difficulty in finding mechanics for light-sport aircraft. FAA disagrees with the commenter; neither current nor future light-sport repairman certificate holders meet or will be required to meet the minimum knowledge and skills necessary to obtain a mechanic certificate. Though FAA proposed to use the Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant Mechanic Certification Standards (Mechanic ACS) 
                        <SU>207</SU>
                         as a standard for training light-sport repairmen applicants, the proposed rule only required training that applies to a particular category of aircraft. The breadth and scope of mechanic training and, therefore, the breadth and scope of mechanic certificate privileges are much broader than just work completed on light-sport category aircraft or a single category or class of aircraft. FAA does not find implementing the commenter's suggestion would provide an equivalent level of safety.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Inspection Rating Training Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Section 65.107(a)(2), prior to the applicable effective date of this final rule, sets forth the training requirements for a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with an inspection rating. These requirements include: (1) meeting the general eligibility requirements of the section and (2) completing a 16-hour training course accepted by the Administrator on inspecting the category of experimental aircraft for which the person intends to exercise the privileges of the rating. FAA proposed to retain these training requirements for an inspection rating: the general eligibility requirements were proposed in § 65.107(b), while the training requirements were proposed in § 65.107(c) without revision. FAA received three comments but adopts § 65.107(c) as proposed (with minor editorial revision).</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter stated inspection rating training courses are mostly redundant regardless of aircraft type and proposed that a 4 to 8-hour abbreviated course should be considered for each additional type of aircraft after the 16-hour course has been completed for one specific category of aircraft.
                        <SU>208</SU>
                         Another commenter questioned why 16 hours of training is all that is required and asked how that compares to the requirements to obtain an inspection authorization on a mechanic certificate and perform essentially the same function on a non-light-sport aircraft. One commenter asked that time requirements for courses be removed.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the 2004 final rule preamble,
                        <SU>209</SU>
                         FAA explained the 16-hour inspection rating training course is designed to train an individual owner who does not have background in aviation maintenance or inspection to perform a satisfactory annual condition inspection on their experimental light-sport aircraft and, based on that inspection, make a determination if that aircraft is safe to fly. In the NPRM associated with this rulemaking, FAA did not propose substantive changes to the 16-hour inspection rating course requirement given the limited scope of privileges of the inspection rating (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         condition inspections only) compared to the broad scope of privileges of a maintenance rating (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         all inspections and maintenance), which correspondingly require a broader footprint of training.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35134"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA recognizes that inspection rating training courses may contain content that is applicable to multiple aircraft categories, as the commenter suggests. FAA notes the regulation does not limit how a training course provider structures its training so long as the training course is applicable to the category, and class as applicable,
                        <SU>210</SU>
                         of aircraft for which the person intends to exercise the privileges of the rating.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A training course provider may minimize duplication of course content by structuring its inspection rating courses in modules. For example, a training course provider could design a module on regulations and ASTM consensus standards that applies to all inspection rating courses and other modules with course content that provide training specific to the aircraft category, and class as applicable. In such a scenario, a person could complete a training course accepted by FAA that included the regulations and ASTM module and, if the person sought repairman privileges for another category (or class) of aircraft, could be credited as already completing the regulations and ASTM module for the second training course, if the training course was structured and accepted by FAA in such a manner. When requesting FAA acceptance of the course(s), the course provider will have to define which modules make up an inspection rating training course for a particular aircraft category, and class as applicable, the hours assigned to each module, and the course content of each module. Furthermore, the regulation does not prevent course providers from accepting previously completed, verifiable training hours from an FAA-accepted training course toward the training necessary to add a rating or aircraft category privileges, or class limitations to those category privileges.
                        <SU>211</SU>
                         Therefore, this final rule adopts the parameters for inspection rating training courses in § 65.107(c): the training course must be at least 16 hours and must provide the student with the requisite skill to determine if aircraft in that category, and class as applicable, are in a condition for safe operation. For additional discussion on training course providers using training modules, refer to section IV.I.4e.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The requirements for obtaining an inspection authorization on a mechanic certificate should not be compared with the requirements for a light-sport repairman certificate inspection rating. These privileges are not necessarily comparable: an inspection authorization is only applicable to certain work 
                        <SU>212</SU>
                         done on aircraft holding a standard airworthiness certificate, which is not a privilege afforded to light-sport repairmen. As detailed throughout this rulemaking, light-sport aircraft are placed lower on the safety continuum than aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates. While the scope and detail of the annual and condition inspections may be similar, aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates must have an annual inspection 
                        <SU>213</SU>
                         conducted by the holder of an inspection authorization or an appropriately rated repair station.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA made a minor clarifying revision to the regulatory text from what was proposed in § 65.107(c) to remove “satisfactorily” as the qualifier to completing a 16-hour training course accepted by the Administrator. FAA removed “satisfactorily” because satisfactory completion of the training course is sufficiently determined by completing the training course and passing the written test, as now required in § 65.107(b)(3) and (b)(4).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Maintenance Rating Training Requirements and Incorporation by Reference</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 65.107(a)(3), prior to the applicable effective date of this final rule, sets forth the training requirements for a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with a maintenance rating. These requirements include: (1) meeting the general eligibility requirements of the section and (2) completing a training course acceptable to FAA on maintaining the particular class of light-sport aircraft for which the person intends to exercise the privileges of the rating. Section 65.107(a)(3)(ii) further set forth prescriptive hourly requirements for different aircraft privileges.
                        <SU>214</SU>
                         The maintenance rating training course ensures light-sport repairman certificate applicants have the knowledge and skills necessary to maintain light-sport category and certain experimental aircraft.
                        <SU>215</SU>
                         In the NPRM, FAA proposed to replace the prescriptive hours-based training requirements for obtaining a light-sport repairman certificate maintenance rating with a performance-based requirement in § 65.107(d). As proposed, the performance-based standard would require that the training include appropriate knowledge and skills applicable to the category of aircraft for which privileges are sought.
                        <SU>216</SU>
                         The performance-based standard would require maintenance rating training courses to include, at a minimum, the knowledge, risk management, and skill elements for each subject contained in the Mechanic ACS, as appropriate to the category of aircraft being taught.
                        <SU>217</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>To note, FAA proposed a bifurcated approach to the maintenance training courses to ease the transition from prescriptive hour courses to performance-based courses. As discussed in the NPRM, FAA proposed to delay the compliance requirement for having a training course containing the knowledge, risk management, and skill elements of the Mechanic ACS. The proposal would have allowed for a 6-month compliance timeframe in proposed § 65.107(d)(1). FAA intended that, during that time period, both an hours-based training course (developed under regulations in effect prior to this final rule) or an ACS-based training course (developed under the proposed regulations) would be accepted by FAA for issuance of the maintenance rating on a repairman certificate (light-sport).</P>
                    <P>
                        Instead of adopting the bifurcated approach, FAA adopts a framework providing training course providers additional flexibility as an outgrowth of comments received, which are subsequently discussed. While the means of FAA acceptance for maintenance rating training courses is shifting from an hours-based focus to a performance-based focus in this rulemaking, the content in the hours-based courses previously accepted by FAA continues to be accepted because those courses contained the required content to be accepted after this rulemaking and therefore do not need to be reviewed and accepted after this final rule is published. In addition, because all these training programs will meet the adopted regulations (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the performance-based framework), FAA finds no need to adopt the proposed six-month delayed effective date to allow for training courses (other than glider training courses) to come into compliance with the regulation. Accordingly, proposed § 65.107(d)(1) is not adopted, and proposed § 65.107(d)(2) will be adopted as § 65.107(d).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Specifically, § 65.107(d) will adopt the performance-based training course requirement, requiring a person to complete a training course accepted by the Administrator that includes content on, at a minimum, the knowledge, risk management, and skill elements for each subject contained in the Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant Airman Certification Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 65.23), that are appropriate to the category, and class as applicable, of aircraft for which the person intends to exercise the privileges of the rating. However, rather than permit prescriptive hours for up to six months after the effective date of the rule, as 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35135"/>
                        proposed, FAA finds that courses based on prescriptive hours and accepted by FAA prior to this final rule, with the exception of glider courses, already contain the course content appropriate to the category, and class as applicable, of aircraft for which the training is designed. Section IV.I.5 of this preamble discusses the removal of the proposed § 65.107(d)(1) in the context of glider training courses.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In 2022, the Mechanic ACS was incorporated by reference into part 65 as the testing standard for issuance of a mechanic certificate under part 65, subpart D.
                        <SU>218</SU>
                         Incorporation by reference is a mechanism that allows Federal agencies to comply with the requirements of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) to publish rules in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         and the Code of Federal Regulations by referring to material published elsewhere. Material that is incorporated by reference has the same legal status as if it were published in full in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . Because 5 U.S.C. 552(a) requires the Director of the Federal Register to approve material to be incorporated by reference, incorporation by reference is governed by the Office of the Federal Register and as promulgated in its regulations: 1 CFR 51. Specifically, 1 CFR 51 provides certain requirements that a regulatory incorporation by reference must contain. As a result of the adoption of the Mechanic ACS as a standard under new § 65.107(d), FAA amends § 65.23(a)(3) to add § 65.107 in the referenced regulations for which the incorporation by reference of the Mechanic ACS applies. Section 552(a) of title 5, United States Code, requires that matter incorporated by reference be “reasonably available” as a condition of its eligibility. Further, 1 CFR 51.5(b)(2) requires that agencies seeking to incorporate material by reference discuss in the preamble of the final rule the ways that the material it incorporates by reference are reasonably available to interested parties, and how interested parties can obtain the material. In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR 51, FAA makes the Mechanic ACS reasonably available to interested parties by providing free online public access to view or download the document from the FAA ACS website at: 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/acs.</E>
                         For further information, contact the Training and Certification Group at 202-267-1100, 
                        <E T="03">acsptsinquiries@faa.gov,</E>
                         or 800 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20591.
                    </P>
                    <P>This final rule subsequently summarizes and adjudicates comments received. In summary, FAA adopts proposed § 65.107(d) in the final rule: to obtain a maintenance rating on a repairman certificate (light-sport), a person will be required to complete a training course accepted by the Administrator that includes content on, at a minimum, the knowledge, risk management, and skill elements for each subject contained in the Mechanic ACS that are appropriate to the category, and class as applicable, of aircraft for which the person intends to exercise the privileges of the rating, with three minor additional changes. The changes clarify regulatory text and do not add any requirements not already proposed or intended in the NPRM.</P>
                    <P>
                        First, FAA is adding the language “content on” in the requirement to provide a training course, to clarify that an FAA-accepted training course defines content, and is not simply a copy of applicable knowledge, risk management, and skill elements of the Mechanic ACS verbatim. FAA points out this additional language does not change the intent of the proposed rule because the term, course content, was used in various locations throughout the proposed § 65.107.
                        <SU>219</SU>
                         In addition, the intent of proposed § 65.107(d) for a training course to include course content was set forth in draft AC 65-32B, posted to the rulemaking docket with the NPRM, and evidenced in the sample maintenance rating training course content in appendix B of the Advisory Circular.
                    </P>
                    <P>Second, FAA is adding the words “that are” prior to “appropriate” in § 65.107(d), to facilitate a plain language reading of the requirement for determining what knowledge, risk management, and skill elements of the mechanic ACS must be included in a maintenance rating training course. Specifically, only those elements that are appropriate to the category, and class as applicable, of aircraft for which the person intends to exercise the privileges of the rating must be included in the maintenance rating training course.</P>
                    <P>Third, FAA removed “satisfactorily” as the qualifier to completing the FAA-accepted maintenance training course required in § 65.107(d). FAA removed “satisfactorily” because satisfactory completion of the training course is sufficiently determined by completing the training course and passage of a written test, as specified in § 65.107(b)(3) and (b)(4).</P>
                    <P>In response to the proposed changes to light-sport repairman certificate training requirements, FAA received comments from approximately 150 different associations and individual commenters. Though several commenters provided positive feedback, most comments were against the proposed changes to maintenance rating training courses. Within those comments, FAA identified the following commenter concerns:</P>
                    <P>a. The proposed rule is incomplete, unclear, or otherwise not justified.</P>
                    <P>b. The proposed rule adds time and cost on light-sport repairman applicants.</P>
                    <P>c. The proposed rule does not address the expanding scope of aircraft design that light-sport repairmen could maintain and approve for return to service.</P>
                    <P>d. FAA should use a system of endorsements or aircraft type ratings to further define light-sport repairman certificate privileges.</P>
                    <P>e. Training courses should use modules to deliver required training and for training on design features of more complex light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <P>FAA adjudicates commenters' concerns in the subsequent sections. Nonetheless, this final rule amends the maintenance rating training course standard from the prescriptive hours-based requirement to a performance-based standard based on the Mechanic ACS.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Comments Stating the Proposed Rule Is Incomplete, Unclear, or Otherwise Not Justified</HD>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters stated FAA did not provide a justification of the proposed changes or the proposal was unclear, vague, or not well thought out. FAA disagrees with commenters that the proposed rule was unclear or vague. FAA's review of comments found most of the answers to questions and comments were addressed sufficiently in the NPRM 
                        <SU>220</SU>
                         or in the draft AC 65-32B.
                        <SU>221</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Several commenters stated the proposed changes to maintenance rating training courses are not necessary because the existing training courses already provide the intended outcome of providing the necessary knowledge and skills for working on light-sport category aircraft. Commenters referred to the accident data in the NPRM to argue there is no justification to revise the maintenance training course standard.</P>
                    <P>
                        When drafting the initial repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) regulations for the original light-sport aircraft rulemaking, FAA initially proposed an 80-hour training course for maintenance rating privileges for any class of aircraft.
                        <SU>222</SU>
                         However, in the resulting final rule, FAA implemented varied training hour requirements, depending on aircraft class, after finding different training hours were required to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35136"/>
                        address distinct knowledge elements due to characteristic and performance differences between those classes of aircraft. Though the general reasons for additional course hours for certain classes of aircraft were discussed in the 2004 final rule, no methodology was discussed on how FAA decided on the baseline 80 course hours initially proposed or the specific hours adopted in the 2004 final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In drafting the NPRM, FAA considered recent rulemaking for part 147, which sets forth the regulations governing the training requirements for mechanics. It is important to note that the part 147 rulemaking,
                        <SU>223</SU>
                         which incorporated the Mechanic ACS by reference into the training requirements in § 147.17, was pursuant to a Congressional mandate 
                        <SU>224</SU>
                         requiring the training of mechanics to align with the entire content of the Mechanic ACS. FAA has consistently expected that an applicant must be able to demonstrate a minimum level of knowledge and skill, with respect to the certificate's privileges,
                        <SU>225</SU>
                         to be issued any type of FAA certificate. This intent is, likewise, evident in the 2002 NPRM 
                        <SU>226</SU>
                         and the 2004 final rule preamble that discussed training courses, training course hours, and the skills necessary to maintain the different classes of aircraft. However, the prescriptive requirement, on its face in the regulations, did not accurately reflect the expectation that an applicant be trained and evaluated on knowledge and skills appropriate to the category, and class as applicable, of aircraft for which the person intends to exercise the privileges of the certificate and rating.
                    </P>
                    <P>When drafting the NPRM, FAA decided that rather than continue requiring prescriptive course hours, a performance-based standard for course content based on necessary knowledge and skill would provide an improved training standard. The transition to a performance-based course retains the intent of the prescriptive-hours requirement by ensuring applicants complete course content on the necessary knowledge and skill, while removing the required prescriptive-hours approach. The performance-based approach gives course content providers flexibility to determine the appropriate time necessary to deliver course content to prepare applicants for their duties and privileges under a light-sport repairman certificate with a maintenance rating.</P>
                    <P>The performance-based standard provides applicants and training course providers with a regulatory standard for the knowledge, risk management, and skill elements that will be used to determine the training content an applicant must be taught. Importantly, the standard also requires the training content to be appropriately tailored to the category, and class as applicable, of aircraft for which the applicant is seeking privileges. FAA emphasizes intentional language in the regulation tailoring the training course content an applicant must complete to the elements for each subject appropriate to the category, and class as applicable, of aircraft. Therefore, an applicant must only complete, and a training course provider is only required to provide, content on the knowledge, risk management, and skill elements that apply to the category, and class as applicable, of aircraft privileges sought; in other words, a training provider does not have to provide training on all elements of all subjects within the Mechanic ACS if the element does not apply to that category, and class as applicable, of aircraft. Entire subject areas may not be applicable, while other subject areas may have some or all elements being applicable. For example, for airplane category training, the Mechanic ACS section III. Powerplant, subject area B. Turbine Engines, may not be applicable until there are light-sport category aircraft operating in the NAS with turbine engines. Under the Mechanic ACS Section I. General, subject area F. Ground Operations and Servicing, training courses could exclude those knowledge, risk, and skill elements not typically applicable to light-sport category aircraft operating in the NAS, such as oxygen system servicing, or deicing servicing procedures.</P>
                    <P>
                        The draft AC 65-32B 
                        <SU>227</SU>
                         provided a sample 
                        <SU>228</SU>
                         of training course content that would be acceptable to FAA under the proposed performance-based training requirement. This sample demonstrates that the new regulation will provide training course providers flexibility in tailoring their courses, rather than imposing additional requirements or burden. Importantly, draft AC 65-32B identified the training course content that was used to accept courses under the hours-based training requirement, included in AC 65-32A, to then show what will be acceptable under the performance-based training requirement (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         what the overlapping footprint will be for currently operating training providers). The AC illustrates a method of compliance 
                        <SU>229</SU>
                         for providing the appropriate training course content (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the applicable knowledge, risk management, and skill elements for each subject contained in the Mechanic ACS) that will be acceptable to FAA under adopted § 65.107(d). As demonstrated in the AC, the training course content that was appropriate under the hours-based requirement should substantively correlate to the same content under the ACS-based training standard, except for glider class courses, which are further discussed in section IV.I.5.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA acknowledges commenters' concerns that the term “appropriate” (defining the elements and subject areas applicable to the category of aircraft the person intends to exercise the privileges of the rating) may result in a standard that could be applied differently, especially over time. While the Mechanic ACS is the overarching standard, FAA retains the authority to update the regulations over time as safety demands, which may result in changes to what constitutes “appropriate.” FAA will consider the following three guidelines 
                        <SU>230</SU>
                         when providing training course acceptance,
                        <SU>231</SU>
                         and training course providers should use these guidelines in deciding the appropriate course content, initially based on the Mechanic ACS, for each maintenance rating training course.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        First, appropriate content can only be determined by considering the certificate and certificate privileges for which the training is designed. This means that for any given applicable subject area or element in the Mechanic ACS, the course content must have appropriate information on topics that are relevant to the aircraft for which an applicant seeks a certificate and accompanying privileges. Second, a determination of what constitutes appropriate course content should consider the designs and configurations of aircraft operating in the NAS for which light-sport repairmen will be expected to perform maintenance on and approve for return to service. It would be unreasonable for training course providers to develop course content and train (and repairman applicants to learn) about potential light-sport category aircraft designs that may never exist or never be operated in the NAS. For example, light-sport category aircraft are no longer limited to using a single reciprocating engine; however, it remains to be seen if multi- or turbine engine light-sport category designs will operate in the NAS. As such, light-sport repairman training courses do not need to train on multi- or turbine engine light-sport category aircraft until such time that multi- or turbine engine light-sport category aircraft exist and operate in the NAS. Third, appropriate course content should be based on those tasks that the majority of repairmen will be expected to conduct or that a newly certificated 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35137"/>
                        light-sport repairman would be expected to perform. The knowledge, risk management, and skill elements in the Mechanic ACS set forth the foundational knowledge and skills a mechanic or repairman could encounter while performing aircraft maintenance work. Taken together, with the additional guidance and sample course content provided in the AC, FAA does not find the modifier of “appropriate” to be ambiguous, arbitrary, or burdensome.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter noted that, while FAA's proposal does not directly suggest the maintenance rating training requirement would increase, aligning current courses to the Mechanic ACS would almost certainly require increased training. The commenter further added that, by leaving the range of potentially acceptable training curricula entirely unclear, FAA fails to adhere to the requirement of the APA to allow for comment, as the potential scope of the resulting requirements for the issuance of the certificate are so broad as to inhibit their ability to meaningfully comment.</P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed previously, aircraft owners, operators, the light-sport industry, and FAA cannot foresee exactly which aircraft designs will be viable, produced under these new regulations, and ultimately operate in the NAS in numbers that warrant revisions to light-sport repairman training requirements. As those aircraft increasingly operate in the NAS, the appropriate training should evolve to include those aircraft designs as necessary, and FAA may conduct future rulemaking to address any safety concerns. It is possible that maintenance rating training course content that is appropriate today, and subsequently accepted by FAA, could at some point in the future be found to no longer contain appropriate content and create a substantial safety risk. Should this occur, FAA will work with training course providers to address safety issues and follow its policy 
                        <SU>232</SU>
                         on rescinding its FAA acceptance if those issues are not addressed.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        However, all documents incorporated by reference are regulatory and, therefore, must go through notice and comment rulemaking.
                        <SU>233</SU>
                         FAA finds the regulated community has had two opportunities to comment on the Mechanic ACS. First, FAA incorporated by reference the Mechanic ACS with notice and comment rulemaking during the Aviation Maintenance Technician School (AMTS) interim final rule.
                        <SU>234</SU>
                         In addition, FAA provided notice in the NPRM for this rulemaking through a detailed explanation on the proposed use of the Mechanic ACS in the regulation as a basis for a repairman training course for a maintenance rating. FAA also notes that, in addition to the first comment period (dated July 24, 2023, through October 23, 2023), the NPRM was extended to allow the opportunity for public comment on the NPRM and associated documents in the docket (dated October 23, 2023, through January 22, 2024). FAA provided a draft of AC 65-32 in the docket with the NPRM, so the public had the same opportunity to comment on the illustration and implementation of performance-based course content based on the revised Advisory Circular. As such, FAA has fulfilled its obligations under the APA of providing notice and opportunity to comment specific to the content of the Mechanic ACS and for the use of the Mechanic ACS as the basis for repairman training course content. FAA will continue to adhere to the required notice and comment procedures for any revisions to the Mechanic ACS.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Comments Stating the Proposed Rule Adds Time and Cost for Light-Sport Repairman Applicants</HD>
                    <P>Numerous commenters, including a training course provider with multiple FAA-accepted training courses, stated eliminating the current maintenance rating training course standards would dramatically increase the time and expense needed to obtain a light-sport repairman certificate with a maintenance rating. Some commenters suggested that the proposed changes would disrupt existing training programs or increase time and cost burden, exacerbating the shortage of qualified personnel necessary to maintain and inspect these aircraft and decreasing the safety of the fleet and aviation safety overall. Some commenters asserted the proposed rule would require light-sport repairman applicants to have the same training as a mechanic certificate applicant. In sum, most commenters stated, as evidenced by FAA light-sport category aircraft data, maintenance rating training courses accepted by FAA prior to this rulemaking provided the appropriate training, and these commenters suggested there is no reason to change the training course regulations.</P>
                    <P>FAA agrees a substantial decrease in light-sport repairmen could negatively impact the safety of the aircraft that are inspected or maintained by light-sport repairmen. FAA does not find the final rule will increase the time or cost to applicants for a light-sport repairman certificate; however, FAA understands commenters perceived the proposal as including more stringent requirements. First, FAA will not require light-sport repairman applicants to complete training to the same extent as for mechanic applicants. Second, repairman training courses accepted prior to the applicable effective date of this final rule, with the exception of courses specific to glider category as specified in section IV.I.5, will remain valid following the implementation of this final rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        First, FAA's intent is not to require light-sport repairmen applicants to undergo the same training as mechanic applicants attending a part 147 AMTS. While the Mechanic ACS standard provides a regulatory basis for training content, the actual course content in a repairman course is, and will continue under this final rule to be, less than that required for mechanic training, which corresponds with the spectrum of privileges afforded on each certificate, respectively. A light-sport repairman maintenance rating training course will only be required to teach content on those knowledge, risk, and skill elements that are appropriate to the category, and class as applicable, of aircraft for which privileges are sought. Light-sport repairman certificate privileges and limitations are set forth in § 65.109; therefore, any determination by course providers of “appropriate” Mechanic ACS subjects and elements and resulting course content must consider the overall privileges of the repairman certificate and appropriate 
                        <SU>235</SU>
                         content tailored to the aircraft category or class. Conversely, AMTS course content requires content related to every knowledge, risk, and skill element in the Mechanic ACS be taught in a broad enough manner that reflects the privileges of a mechanic certificate. Therefore, the training footprint for a repairman certificate with maintenance rating will be less than that of the mechanic certificate.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Second, after consideration of comments to the NPRM, FAA agrees with commenters that existing training course content (delivered within prescriptive hours) achieves the necessary knowledge and skill to be issued a light-sport repairman certificate, with the exception of glider training courses accepted prior to this final rule taking effect.
                        <SU>236</SU>
                         As discussed in the NPRM,
                        <SU>237</SU>
                         FAA foresees the hours that maintenance rating course providers are required to design their courses to under the existing regulations will be similar to the hours training course providers would include in new/revised courses because those courses should already be teaching students the necessary information on how to maintain their category, or class as 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35138"/>
                        appropriate, of aircraft. Under this final rule, training course providers will be free to maintain their training course hour minimums; FAA is simply removing the prescriptive hours requirement in recognizing that training course providers are in the best position to determine the appropriate duration of course work to achieve student proficiency. For example, a repairman certificate (light-sport) maintenance rating training course provider with a 120-hour airplane category privilege course may continuing offering the 120-hour course, as long as the course contains the appropriate knowledge, risk management, and skill elements from the Mechanic ACS that pertain to the airplane category privilege. Conversely, the training course provider may determine that these ends can be achieved by removing or adding course hours, which could be facilitated under this final rule with FAA acceptance.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter stated moving to a competency-based process is good news for individuals with significant maintenance, engineering, or building experience outside of formal, traditional hours-based mechanic training. Under this final rule, training course providers will have the ability to increase or decrease the course hours, as long as the course provides the appropriate content; however, FAA clarifies, contrary to this comment, that the standard is not solely a competency-based standard. Applicants for a light-sport repairman certificate are still required to complete an FAA-accepted training course that meets the regulatory parameters specified in § 65.107. Training course providers should not solely contemplate a student's previous knowledge or experience for the purpose of issuing credit toward their FAA-accepted course.</P>
                    <P>In summary, FAA is adopting the performance-based standard for maintenance rating training courses as proposed. FAA disagrees with commenters that replacing the hour-based prescriptive training course standard with a performance-based training course standard will result in an increase in the time or expense necessary to complete a maintenance rating training course and obtain a light-sport repairman certificate compared to the requirements prior to this final rule taking effect. Consequently, FAA does not find a basis to commenters' assertions that the performance-based training course standard will result in less light-sport repairman certificate holders, nor does FAA find any basis for an alleged decrease in safety associated with a decline resulting from increased training burden.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Comments Stating the Proposed Rule Does Not Address the Expanding Scope of Aircraft Design That Light-Sport Repairmen Could Maintain and Approve for Return to Service</HD>
                    <P>AEA/ARSA stated the extensive expansion of size, speed, and complexity of light-sport aircraft and the expanded flight training and aerial work operations of these aircraft as proposed were not considered when the light-sport repairman certificate was established in 2004; however, AEA/ARSA did not recommend any changes or considerations specific to this rulemaking in this context. In developing the proposed changes to light-sport repairmen requirements in this rulemaking, FAA did consider the potential for the expansion of aircraft size, speed, complexity, and operations that this final rule will allow. While most commenters to the light-sport repairman proposal argued the added training burden is not necessary, many of those same commenters suggested that FAA should mandate additional training or experience using ratings or endorsements. These comments suggest that commenters recognized additional training or experience may be necessary for light-sport repairmen before approving for return to service those aircraft having design features of which the certificate holder does not have knowledge or skills.</P>
                    <P>
                        Until such time as aircraft in the new aircraft categories and with new design features are issued light-sport category airworthiness certificates and are operating in the NAS, it would be unreasonable to mandate additional training for all possible design features for obtaining a light-sport repairman certificate. By virtue of defining sets of aircraft based on similar characteristics through category and class, which has long been FAA's framework, it is unreasonable to capture every unique design feature that may vary from aircraft to aircraft. For example, rotorcraft-helicopters are captured under a common class of aircraft without a requirement that a person have specific training on a two-blade rotor system if working on a helicopter with two blades or a three-blade rotor system if working on a helicopter with three blades (etc.). Rather, FAA finds the training framework set forth in the mechanic ACS sufficiently addresses the commonality in design, size, speed, and complexity of the expanded light-sport category aircraft. Further, FAA points to related requirements for both mechanics 
                        <SU>238</SU>
                         and light-sport repairmen with a maintenance rating 
                        <SU>239</SU>
                         that prohibit those certificate holders from exercising the privileges of their certificate if the individual has a lack of knowledge or skill, relative to the work the certificate holder intends to perform. These requirements serve as a safety mitigation to ensure an aircraft may only be approved for return to service by a certificate holder who is not only appropriately rated, but who also has previously done that work satisfactorily.
                        <SU>240</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>AEA/ARSA also asserted the proposed expansion of authority of the light-sport repairman is discriminatory and creates an uneven playing field for aircraft maintenance service technicians. The commenters stated if FAA has determined that the limited knowledge, skills, and abilities as described in draft AC 65-32B, Certification of Repairmen (Light-Sport), are a safety limit considering the size, complexity, and operations of the new light-sport aircraft, then FAA must reconsider the knowledge standards and experience requirements for certification of mechanics under §§ 65.75 and 65.77, Knowledge requirements, and repairman, § 65.101.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA interprets AEA/ARSA's comment to imply that, because the light-sport repairman training standard is now based on the Mechanic ACS, a light-sport repairman can do the same work as a mechanic, and the mechanic certification process unnecessarily requires more training to earn the same privileges a light-sport repairman is permitted. The maintenance rating training course content in AC 65-32B contains examples of minimum course content that would be found acceptable to FAA for light-sport repairman training. While determining appropriate course content is based in part on the privileges and limitations that an airman would have once issued a certificate, that course content does not equate to privileges or limitations of a light-sport repairman certificate. Privileges and limitations are set forth in § 65.109. To be clear, the required training for a light-sport repairman certificate must only be appropriate to the privileges afforded by the certificate. As such, the mechanic training is more comprehensive than training for a light-sport repairman certificate because mechanic certificates afford more privileges. Furthermore, the privileges afforded a light-sport repairman with a maintenance rating in new § 65.109 (§ 65.107 prior to this final rule taking effect), do not limit, and have never limited those certificate holders by the aviation work and tasks that may be performed (with the exception of meeting those additional requirements in § 65.109(c) previously discussed). 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35139"/>
                        Instead, light-sport repairmen are, and always have been, limited based on the airworthiness certificate issued to the aircraft and the category, and class as applicable, of aircraft on which the certificate holder has demonstrated the requisite knowledge and skill. The specific work tasks a light-sport repairman can perform are not limited; rather, light-sport repairmen are limited as to the aircraft on which work can be performed.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter stated the Mechanic ACS was written without light-sport aircraft in mind. FAA disagrees; the purpose of the Mechanic ACS is to ensure mechanic applicants have the broad-scope foundational and essential knowledge and skills necessary to exercise the privileges of a mechanic certificate once certificated. Those certificate privileges include conducting maintenance (including inspections and repairs) and alterations on light-sport category aircraft. FAA maintains that mechanic training designed to meet the Mechanic ACS would be required to include training to support privileges to perform maintenance on light-sport category aircraft, the light-sport repairman certificate simply limits that work to certain kinds of aircraft.</P>
                    <P>To note, the knowledge, risk, and skill elements in the Mechanic ACS may not be equivalent to course content when comparing between a repairman training course and a mechanic training course, largely due to the training footprint required for the associated privileges of each certificate. Some elements in the Mechanic ACS address specific knowledge, and other elements require understanding or skill to a broader degree. As a hypothetical, mechanic applicants would typically learn about airships by way of structures, fabric, engines, (in general) and a light-sport repairman airship training course would contain specific content based on the airship consensus standard (upon inception). Particularly in elements related to certificate privileges and regulations, it is implied in the language of the element that the training would include course content related to light-sport category aircraft. For example, elements AM.I.I.K1 and AM.I.I.K8 require that an applicant must demonstrate understanding of the privileges and limitations of a mechanic certificate and the regulatory framework, including general subject matter of the parts of 14 CFR relevant to aircraft maintenance and mechanics.</P>
                    <P>That said, just because a subject area in the Mechanic ACS uses the term “mechanic,” this does not conclusively mean that it is inapplicable to repairmen. When using the Mechanic ACS as a training course standard for light-sport repairman training, where the Mechanic ACS specifically refers to “mechanics,” it may be appropriate to include that same content in a light-sport repairman training course in the context of light-sport aircraft, as the repairman training course is for a maintenance rating. For example, in the element AM.I.I.K8, it would be appropriate for maintenance rating training courses to include content on the regulatory framework, including general subject matter of the parts of 14 CFR relevant to aircraft maintenance and light-sport repairman certificate holders, even though AM.I.I.K8 specifically states “[t]he regulatory framework, including general subject matter of the parts of 14 CFR relevant to aircraft maintenance and mechanics.”  </P>
                    <P>One commenter recommended FAA develop a separate ACS applicable to light-sport category aircraft. Another commenter suggested that FAA create separate ACS for each endorsement-based training module within the maintenance rating training course. At this time, FAA is not considering developing a separate ACS for light-sport category aircraft. Light-sport repairmen and mechanics perform the exact same work, though light-sport repairmen are limited as to which aircraft that work may be performed on. If FAA were to develop an ACS specific to light-sport category aircraft, such an ACS would be almost identical to the Mechanic ACS with minor exceptions, particularly considering the expanded design and performance specifications that could exist in the various categories (airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, etc.) in light-sport category aircraft under this final rule. Therefore, FAA finds it would be neither efficient nor streamlined to create separate ACSs. Relatedly, FAA did not propose an endorsement based-training option and is not adding regulations to support an endorsement system for light-sport repairman certification. AC 65-32 contains information on the development of training courses, but it is not necessary to create a separate ACS for each training module, and maintains the Mechanic ACS adequately covers the minimum standard required for light-sport repairman certification.</P>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters suggested that when maintenance is performed on a light-sport category aircraft, it is performed differently than the same work done on an aircraft certificated in another category and suggested it would not be appropriate to use the Mechanic ACS as a training standard because the ACS would not apply. FAA disagrees since the maintenance requirements of part 43 apply to light-sport category aircraft, as defined in part 43 and § 91.327. One commenter stated the differences between maintaining light-sport category aircraft and type-certificated aircraft warrant different training standards. FAA assumes the commenter is referring to the consensus standards to which light-sport category aircraft are designed as being the difference in maintaining these aircraft comparative to type-certificated aircraft. Many commenters seemed to equate the consensus standards on which light-sport category are designed with standards for performing maintenance. There could be multiple consensus standards accepted by FAA for the design of a particular category of light-sport aircraft, just as there are many aircraft design standards 
                        <SU>241</SU>
                         for other categories of aircraft. While some elements of the Mechanic ACS focus on knowledge of regulations and the significance of the design standard, the ACS does not require specific knowledge of the design standards themselves. Most of the elements in the Mechanic ACS require knowledge and skill on the techniques for maintenance, inspection, repair, and alteration that will be used to ensure the aircraft will continue to meet that design standard over its operational life. As previously discussed, FAA acknowledges there will be differences in training course content for mechanics and light-sport repairmen applicants. Nonetheless, the Mechanic ACS provides a standard for determining what those course content differences should be and intends to provide repairmen applicants (and mechanic applicants) with foundational knowledge and skill to then apply to different aircraft within a category (and class if applicable).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters stated light-sport aircraft have distinct standards for maintenance manuals, which offer detailed instructions specific to each aircraft, and contrasted the specificity in maintenance manuals with the broad privileges granted by mechanic certificates based on general training. FAA interprets these comments to imply the commenters are stating light-sport repairman certificate training should be different from mechanic training because of maintenance manual standards. Light-sport repairman certificate privileges are not based on an aircraft's maintenance manual content; therefore, maintenance manual standards are not a consideration when determining training requirements. The Mechanic ACS includes knowledge, risk, and skill elements on the use of manufacturer maintenance manuals, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35140"/>
                        which would be requisite training for a light-sport repairman maintenance rating course, under subject area I. Regulations, Maintenance Forms, Records, and Publications.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Comments Stating FAA Should Use a System of Endorsements or Aircraft Type Ratings To Further Define Light-Sport Repairman Certificate Privileges</HD>
                    <P>AEA/ARSA recommended the light-sport repairman certificate maintenance rating be revised to require that a repairman be type-rated on the aircraft the repairman is authorized to maintain. Several other commenters also recommended that FAA establish a certification system involving aircraft type ratings or endorsements, similar to how certificate privileges are identified for pilots, to identify the specific privileges and limitations of a light-sport repairman certificate maintenance rating. Several of these commenters implied that a system of endorsements would be less burdensome than what was proposed in the NPRM.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA disagrees with the commenters that creating a system of endorsement or aircraft type ratings would be less burdensome than what was proposed since this rulemaking does not increase training burden in any way from what was required prior to this final rule taking effect. FAA also disagrees with establishing a system of endorsements for recording a light-sport repairman's experience in performing certain work. Rather, FAA finds a type or endorsement system to be more burdensome, as a person would have to seek training and the endorsement for each specific aircraft they would seek to perform work on rather than have the privilege of performing work on any aircraft within the category (and class if applicable). To develop such an endorsement requirement, FAA would also need to revise the regulations to add a recordkeeping requirement, develop and add an endorsement framework, and establish instructor requirements to provide such training. Again, the maintenance rating limitations formerly in § 65.107(c) have proven effective in ensuring the safety of light-sport category aircraft maintenance where there may be an initial gap in knowledge of an aircraft within the category (and class if applicable) and have been recodified in § 65.109(c).
                        <SU>242</SU>
                         Furthermore, FAA did not consider establishing endorsements for repairman certificates in this rulemaking and such a change (which would require input on the aforementioned regulatory parameters) is therefore outside the scope of this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Comments Stating Training Courses Should Use Modules To Deliver Required Training and for Training on Design Features of More Complex Light-Sport Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>EAA, AOPA, NATA, NBAA, and many other commenters commented that the current maintenance rating training courses can be supplemented by additional modules appropriate to these new aircraft, components, and technologies.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA notes the regulation does not limit how a training course provider structures its training and agrees that training course providers have the option to structure their inspection rating and maintenance rating training courses using modules. However, as proposed and adopted in this final rule, the courses must include the appropriate course content aligned with the Mechanic ACS, as applicable.
                        <SU>243</SU>
                         FAA will only accept an FAA course when the course provider can demonstrate to FAA that the course includes all required training applicable to the rating and category, and class as applicable, as well as privileges for which the course is designed. In the draft AC 65-32B, FAA suggested training course content could be provided in module format if the course provider chose to set the training course up in that manner; however, the draft AC suggested that course providers could choose other course designs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA stated additional training modules could be offered by the original training course provider, the aircraft or component manufacturer, or anyone equipped to offer this training. Under EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA's proposed framework, they stated a light-sport repairman would need to show completion of these course modules before performing maintenance on applicable aircraft. First, FAA agrees that any of these entities listed by the commenters would be able to submit training courses for FAA-acceptance and subsequently deliver training that meets the requirements of § 65.107, as adopted in this final rule. Unlike part 147 AMTS requirements for training on obtaining a mechanic certificate, which require a person to successfully complete a part 147 certificated AMTS curriculum (if not applying for a mechanic certificate on the basis of practical experience), FAA does not place air agency certification requirements on training providers of light-sport repairman training courses. However, the training course must be an entire course, not just an added module by separate providers, as the training course as a whole must be FAA-accepted and deemed to meet the requirements of revised § 65.107 (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         contain the appropriate content from the Mechanic ACS). For example, a person could not take 75% of a training course at one provider and then take individual modules at a second provider to result in an entire training course.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Second, the requirement that inspection and maintenance rating training courses be FAA-accepted does not prevent a training course provider from developing additional training courses on topics beyond the minimum certification standard and offering those courses as add-on training. However, such additional training is not required for an applicant to be eligible for a light-sport repairman certificate and the applicant is not required to show completion of these course modules before performing maintenance on applicable aircraft. While not required for eligibility, attending additional training is always encouraged and may be one way to meet § 65.109(c), depending on the specific training provided.
                        <SU>244</SU>
                          
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter stated there is no discussion in the proposed rule of add-on courses and asked how a current certificate holder would add additional categories of aircraft to their certificate, such as rotorcraft and powered-lift, and how the modular concept would work with these new skill-based courses. Training course providers will be responsible for developing training courses for any new aircraft category, and class as applicable, privileges that would be allowed under this final rule. It is permissible for a training course provider to use existing course modules as a portion of a new FAA-accepted training course. AC 65-32 provides information on how a training course provider could request a new course acceptance using modules that may be included as part of another training course.</P>
                    <P>
                        For example, a training provider could develop a module specific to the certificate privileges of light-sport repairmen, which would be applicable to every FAA-accepted training course the training provider offers. Then, the training course provider could credit a student with previous completion of that training module if the training course provider could verify the student had already completed that training; in this case, the student would then not have to retake that training module. However, the student must still complete and pass a written test administered by the training course provider that covers the contents of the course, to include all course modules 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35141"/>
                        including the module on certificate privileges, before being issued a certificate of completion for that training course.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter emphasized that allowing online course work would help in making additional training available for maintenance topics not covered in the base repairman training. Just as the regulations do not restrict training course providers from providing additional training course content, the regulations do not prescribe a delivery method. Therefore, a training course provider could use online delivery for some of the training within an FAA-accepted courses. Training course providers should review the ACS standards for elements that require students to demonstrate skill, for which training on those skills, with very few limited exceptions, is best suited to hands-on, in-person learning with a qualified instructor.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Training Course Revision for Gliders: Delayed Compliance</HD>
                    <P>
                        As a result of the proposed change to training course standards for the maintenance rating (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         from prescriptive hours to performance based), the NPRM discussed that existing course providers would need to review their existing training courses to determine if those courses include the appropriate knowledge, risk management, and skill elements from the Mechanic ACS. Furthermore, the NPRM discussed that if course revision is necessary, the course provider would have to submit the revised course to FAA for acceptance. To allow for a transition period between the current and proposed training standards, FAA proposed in § 65.107(d)(1) to retain the prescriptive hour requirements for 6 months. The NPRM discussed that during that 6-month timeframe, either an hours-based training course or a performance standard ACS-based training course (developed under the proposed and adopted regulations) would be accepted by FAA for issuance of the maintenance rating on a light-sport repairman certificate.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed in section IV.I.4.a, FAA surveyed the existing FAA-accepted maintenance training courses and determined that each training course, with the exception of the glider courses previously discussed, already include course content that covers the knowledge, risk management, and skill elements contained in the Mechanic ACS appropriate to the category of aircraft on which the training applies.
                        <SU>245</SU>
                         However, upon review of the glider training courses, FAA identified two FAA-accepted glider class training courses, including one 16-hour glider class inspection rating course 
                        <SU>246</SU>
                         and one 80-hour glider class maintenance rating course, that only include content on unpowered gliders.
                        <SU>247</SU>
                         FAA does not distinguish powered and unpowered gliders as different classes of aircraft within the glider category 
                        <SU>248</SU>
                         and does not issue light-sport repairman certificate limitations based on aircraft design features alone. Because the glider category of aircraft includes both powered and unpowered gliders, FAA determined each training course for gliders should cover both powered and unpowered gliders, which will be required via the Mechanic ACS through an applicable powerplant subject area.
                        <SU>249</SU>
                         To ensure training course operators have ample time to add this content, and for FAA to accept the revised training course, this final rule more narrowly scopes the delayed compliance language from that originally proposed into new § 65.107(g), which will only apply to glider training courses. Section 65.107(g) will apply to both the maintenance rating course (as proposed in the NPRM) and adds the inspection rating course for glider category. Further, this final rule extends the proposed 6 month delayed effectivity to a one-year effectivity. Therefore, two glider-specific training courses (accepted by FAA prior to this final rule) will have one year to integrate both powered and unpowered training topics into their course content and all new glider-specific training courses must include applicable course content for both powered and unpowered gliders upon submission for FAA-acceptance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Glider training courses accepted by FAA prior to October 22, 2025, may be offered until July 24, 2026.
                        <SU>250</SU>
                         After that date, the course may not be offered, but individuals who have completed the course prior to that date will still be eligible for a light-sport repairman certificate with glider category privileges if all eligibility requirements in § 65.107 are met because course completion certificates do not expire. At the time of this final rule, there are approximately 11 light-sport repairmen issued an inspection rating and 141 light-sport repairmen issued a maintenance rating, with glider class privileges issued before the publication of this final rule. These repairman certificates were not originally issued with a powered or unpowered differentiation; however, these repairmen hold glider category privileges for both unpowered and powered gliders, consistent with § 65.107(f), Certificate issuance and equivalency, and § 65.109.
                        <SU>251</SU>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Training Course Exams</HD>
                    <P>
                        As mentioned previously, FAA proposed to add a requirement as § 65.107(b)(6) for an applicant for a light-sport repairman certificate, for either an inspection or maintenance rating, to pass a written test administered by the training course provider that covers the content of the training course. Prior to October 22, 2025, FAA guidance specified that training course providers submit a course test, along with their training course, as part of the training course package for FAA review and acceptance.
                        <SU>252</SU>
                         Furthermore, guidance specified that the training course include a final course test, for which the student must achieve an 80 percent or higher to be considered as having successfully completed the course. FAA proposed to codify the requirement that students pass a test on the course content with a minimum passing grade of 70 percent as required by § 65.17. As explained in the NPRM, the proposal aligned with a historical NTSB position, suggesting FAA implement a testing requirement. Further, FAA finds testing is an essential step in the airman certification process as a proficiency determination. Therefore, while FAA received several comments opposing the testing requirement as subsequently discussed, this final rule adopts the requirement for an applicant to pass a written test administered by the training course provider that covers the contents of the maintenance or inspection training course as applicable to the rating sought, in § 65.107(b)(4). As discussed in the NPRM, there is no need to restate a minimum passing grade in § 65.107 because the minimum passing grade requirement (70 percent) specified in § 65.17(b) applies to all tests administered under part 65 and therefore will apply to the written test required by § 65.107(b)(4). FAA will continue to require submission of a course test covering the contents of the course at the time of course acceptance review.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA received a comment submitted jointly by EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA, plus 3 additional comments from individuals, on the topic of a training course test. The joint EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA comment and two individuals stated they do not support codifying the acceptance of tests or prescribing a passing grade in the regulation as described in the NPRM, but did not provide supporting rationale for their perspective. These same commenters stated any exams 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35142"/>
                        related to the training course should continue to be the domain of the individual course curricula and associated policies. While these commenters stated they do not support the codifying of “acceptance” of tests, FAA notes the regulation as proposed would not require FAA acceptance of the course provider's tests. The regulation, as proposed and subsequently adopted, requires the training course to be accepted by FAA, and then further requires that the training course provider administer a written test that covers the contents of the FAA-accepted course. FAA requests a copy of the written test when submitting the training course for FAA-acceptance solely to confirm the course provider has a written test for the course. FAA is not reviewing the written test for FAA-acceptance separate from FAA-acceptance for the training course.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter stated to be issued a certificate, a light-sport repairman applicant should complete oral and practical exams 
                        <SU>253</SU>
                         to ensure sufficiency of training, without further supporting explanation. FAA disagrees with this commenter's assertion that the light-sport repairman certification process should require an oral and practical test in addition to, or in lieu of, the written test already administered. The training and testing requirements to be eligible for a light-sport repairman certificate (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         certification rigor) are consistent with FAA's safety continuum related to light-sport category aircraft, and certificate privileges afforded to a light-sport repairman.
                        <SU>254</SU>
                         For example, to obtain a mechanic certificate with both an airframe and powerplant rating, a person must have either 30 months of practical experience or training by a part 147 certificated AMTS on all subject areas and elements in the Mechanic ACS.
                        <SU>255</SU>
                         FAA testing for a mechanic certificate includes a written test 
                        <SU>256</SU>
                         and oral and practical tests 
                        <SU>257</SU>
                         that cover the subject areas and elements of the Mechanic ACS. During testing, practical demonstrations may be required on any type of aircraft that operates in the NAS. In contrast, repairman training (light-sport) must only include those subject areas and elements of the Mechanic ACS that are applicable to the rating, aircraft category, and class requested; testing is done by course providers, not FAA, and only a written test is required. The certification framework differs between mechanics and light-sport repairman because the privileges afforded each certificate are very different. It would be burdensome to require oral and practical testing of light-sport repairman applicants without any data or supporting evidence that an added layer of proficiency validation is necessary.  
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Basis for Training Course Acceptance</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. FAA Training Course Acceptance</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, FAA noted the agency will continue its current practice of accepting training courses, which involves providing an acceptance letter and assigning a course acceptance number to the course provider. In practice, FAA has issued course acceptance with a 24-month expiration consistent with FAA Order 8000.84B. In addition, FAA would notify a training course provider 60 days before the end of the acceptance period, at which time the training provider was asked to reapply for continuing acceptance to provide the training. The NPRM discussed that, because FAA seeks to align training course content with the ACS, FAA no longer sees a need to assign a date for the expiration of course acceptance. Therefore, a training course that is found acceptable to FAA will no longer include a 24-month expiration date; a training course will continue to be acceptable unless a safety concern or regulatory non-compliance is identified. AC 65-32 discusses FAA regulatory and investigative authority; training course providers must ensure training course compliance with applicable provisions of part 65 (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         §§ 65.17, 65.107(c), 65.107(d), and 65.107(e)).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, in the NPRM, FAA discussed a change in terminology that training courses be “acceptable to” FAA to “accepted by” FAA based on a Notice N8900.444 “Meaning of the Terms `Acceptable to' and `Accepted by' for Use by Aviation Safety Inspectors.
                        <SU>258</SU>
                         FAA noted § 65.107 used the term “acceptable to;” however, in practice, the courses are “accepted by” FAA. Therefore, FAA proposed to align the regulatory terminology with its practice and use the term “accepted by.” This final rule adopts “accepted by” terminology in § 65.107.
                    </P>
                    <P>EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA and one individual stated they disagreed with any notion of FAA acceptance of the light-sport repairman certificate maintenance rating course. The commenters stated it would be a change in policy from today's highly effective and efficient system for certificating these repairmen. The commenters favored adherence to industry and FAA standards by “self-declaration” or “affirmation” of the course provider, and that any such self-declaration would be subject to FAA oversight.</P>
                    <P>This final rule will not be a burdensome change in policy from today's system of training course review and acceptance. The policy and practice in place prior to this final rule did not provide for any “self-declaration” or other such “affirmation” by a training course provider. As discussed in the NPRM and explained herein, FAA has already required in § 65.107(a) light-sport repairman training courses to be determined acceptable to FAA, including courses for both an inspection rating and a maintenance rating. In addition, FAA includes the assigned acceptance number on the training course completion certificate for reference as evidence of eligibility for a light-sport repairman certificate. Further, this final rule revises certain policy to make the acceptance process less burdensome by no longer assigning an expiration date on a training course, thereby not requiring re-submission of training course acceptance materials every 24 months. Therefore, § 65.107 of this final rule will continue to require FAA acceptance of light-sport repairman training courses for both ratings.</P>
                    <P>In response to the NPRM discussion on course acceptance, one commenter asked who accepts training courses and how training courses are accepted. Section 65.107(c) and (d) will set forth the acceptance requirements for a repairman training course with an inspection rating or maintenance rating. As discussed further in this preamble, training course providers must also meet the requirements in § 65.107(e) (appropriate facilities, equipment, and materials to the training course content, appropriately qualified instructors, and provide a certificate of completion). Advisory Circular 65-32, Certification of Repairmen (Light Sport) describes the process for how a training course provider would request FAA acceptance. In addition, appendices A and B of AC 65-32 provide recommended course content for an inspection rating training course and a maintenance rating training course.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Training Course Provider Facilities, Equipment, Materials, and Instructors</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, FAA explained it is crucial to set minimum standards for training course providers and proposed those standards in new § 65.107(e). FAA explained it proposed to simply codify provisions consistent with AC 65-32A, which provides guidance on the acceptability of a training course, and current practice. Specifically, FAA proposed in § 65.107(e) that training course providers deliver the course using facilities, equipment, and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35143"/>
                        materials appropriate 
                        <SU>259</SU>
                         to the training course content being taught and by instructors who are appropriately qualified 
                        <SU>260</SU>
                         to teach the course content. FAA did not receive comments on these provisions. In this final rule, FAA adopts the requirements but separates the requirements for readability. Section 65.107(e)(1) will address facilities, equipment, and materials while § 65.107(e)(2) will address instructors.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Training Course Completion Certificate</HD>
                    <P>In the NPRM, FAA discussed that the current regulatory text lacks the explicit steps between completing the training and receiving the certificate. In turn, this creates a discrepancy between the eligibility element for a repairman certificate applicant to complete a training course and how that person provides proof of completing such a course upon certificate application. Therefore, FAA proposed to require in § 65.107(e) that training course providers issue each student a certificate of completion after the student has completed the training and passed a written test, intended to ensure an applicant has the means to demonstrate to FAA that the applicant has met the requirements for the certificate or rating. As proposed, the training provider would be required to issue a certificate of completion that includes the name of the training provider, FAA course acceptance number, the inspection or maintenance rating applicable to the training course, the aircraft category, and class as applicable, the training was based on, and the date of completion of the training.</P>
                    <P>FAA did not receive any comments regarding § 65.107(e). While FAA proposed this requirement in § 65.107(e), this provision is also separated for readability and is adopted as § 65.107(e)(3).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Training Course Design for a Class Within a Category</HD>
                    <P>As further discussed in section IV.I.8, which details the revisions from the NPRM to this final rule, FAA finds a commenter's arguments that training courses should be category and class specific to be persuasive. In consideration of the commenter's concerns, FAA finds requiring training course content to be specific to a category, and class as applicable, appropriate because class-specific training course content will facilitate tailored training and, and subsequent category privilege limitations by class, for the light-sport repairman applicant. Issuance of category privileges and class-specific limitations on light-sport repairman certificates aligns with the § 1.1 definitions of category and class with respect to airman certification, and, as discussed in section I.V.I.10.a of this preamble, and is based on the training completed by the applicant.</P>
                    <P>However, FAA finds it is not necessary to require or permit separate training courses for certain classes defined in § 1.1, for example, the single vs. multi-engine and land vs. sea classes in the airplane, weight-shift-control aircraft, and powered parachute aircraft categories. From a maintenance perspective, FAA finds it is not necessary to prescribe certificate limitations based on the number of engines or the type of landing gear (floats vs other) an aircraft has because training courses should already be teaching applicable content from the Powerplant section and the Landing Gear subject area of the Mechanic ACS and covering aircraft with single vs. multi-engines and design difference (primarily landing gear) of land vs. sea classes. If FAA were to require separate training courses for these classes, courses would be almost identical in content with very minor differences. Such minor differences could be covered in a category-based training course, rather than require development and acceptance of a class-based training course.</P>
                    <P>In contrast, the rotorcraft classes of gyroplane and helicopter and the lighter-than-air classes of airship and balloon have design differences between classes that would result in substantial training course content differences. For example, gyroplanes and helicopters, while both rotary-wing aircraft, differ primarily in how the rotors generate lift, which results in differences in the transmission and drive systems of each. Helicopters use a main rotor for lift and a tail rotor or other yaw generating system for directional control, while gyroplanes use a propeller for forward thrust, the rotor for lift, and typically incorporate a rudder for directional control in flight. Thus, differences in flight-control systems result in significant training differences. In general, gyroplanes are considered more simplistic in design compared to a helicopter.</P>
                    <P>Similarly, airships and balloons have design differences necessitating significant training differences across the classes in the lighter-than-air category. An airship, while relatively simple compared to an airplane, is considerably more complex in design compared to a balloon. While a balloon design consists of a fabric envelope, basket, burner, and limited instrumentation (if any), an airship adds training complexity related to a passenger carrying fuselage, engines, propellors, and a completely different flight control system, including related instruments.</P>
                    <P>In summary, FAA will require class-specific training for both inspection and maintenance rating training courses for the gyroplane, helicopter, airship and balloon classes, but will not require class-specific training for the single and multi-engine, and land and sea classes for airplanes, weight-shift-control aircraft, and powered parachutes. This is reflected in the regulatory text through use as “class as applicable.”</P>
                    <P>Providing for class-specific training for gyroplane, helicopter, airship, and balloon classes will provide more flexibility for light-sport repairman applicants to select the training course specific to the category and class they want to hold privileges for, rather than requiring training on all classes within a category and thus having to complete training on class(es) for which they do not wish to hold privileges. In addition, training course providers will not be required to design class-specific courses when class differentiation is based on aircraft design that does not result in substantial differences in course content, thus reducing the burden on training course providers to design additional training courses that would provide mostly duplicative training except for minor differences.  </P>
                    <P>
                        In sum, as adopted in § 65.107(c) and (d), training courses and content could be tailored to a category (for example, airplane) or to a single class, as applicable, of aircraft within the category (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         helicopter or gyroplane class within the rotorcraft category), for purposes of obtaining repairman certificate privileges. As discussed in section IV.I.1, FAA is adding “and class as applicable,” to § 65.107(c) and 65.107(d) to require training course content be specific to category and a class within that category, when there is a class within a category for which a light-sport repairman could obtain privileges (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         lighter-than-air category, balloon class and airship class).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">8. Rotorcraft Category Privileges</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM,
                        <SU>261</SU>
                         FAA explained the proposal to expand aircraft certificated under § 21.190 to rotorcraft and powered-lift would facilitate the ability of an airman to obtain a light-sport repairman certificate with privileges in the rotorcraft category and powered-lift category. Because § 21.190 is adopted to include these two categories of aircraft, this final rule makes a corresponding expansion to light-sport repairman 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35144"/>
                        certificate privileges to ensure safe maintenance and inspection of these aircraft. As discussed in section IV.I.1, this final rule aligns the terms category and class as used in §§ 65.107 and 65.109 with their use in § 1.1, as applicable to airman certification. Therefore, light-sport repairman certificates will be issued with privileges for the rotorcraft category, not the gyroplane or helicopter class; however, as subsequently discussed, due to design differences between the gyroplane and helicopter classes, FAA will permit training to be class-specific, and will therefore issue limitations on a light-sport repairman certificate, limited to either gyroplanes or helicopters within the rotorcraft category, depending on the training completed. Before light-sport repairman certificates can be issued with privileges for these categories of aircraft, training course providers will have to develop supporting training courses, submit them to FAA for acceptance, and make that training available to students.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with § 65.107(c)(2) (as written prior to the applicable effective date of this final rule), FAA issues a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with an inspection rating with class privileges for gyroplanes. Between establishing the repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) in 2004 and the publication of this rulemaking, FAA has issued approximately 45 repairman (light-sport aircraft) certificates with an inspection rating and gyroplane class privileges. These repairmen completed an FAA-accepted gyroplane training course at some point in time, though there are no gyroplane training courses currently FAA-accepted. A maintenance rating with gyroplane class privileges was not permitted historically because FAA did not certificate gyroplanes as light-sport category aircraft under § 21.190.
                        <SU>262</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM,
                        <SU>263</SU>
                         FAA discussed that a rotorcraft category training course is sufficient for either helicopter or gyroplane privileges, rather than requiring separate courses because there is not a substantial difference in systems on gyroplanes and helicopters from a maintenance perspective. FAA received one comment regarding the proposal to permit a single rotorcraft training course that covers both gyroplanes and helicopters. The commenter posited there are significant differences between maintenance on helicopter versus gyroplane and, therefore, requiring students to learn both could limit the availability of training for those who only want to work on one aircraft in that category, such as gyroplanes. The commenter further stated these proposed changes are more restrictive than requirements prior to this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>As proposed, FAA would have required training covering all aircraft classes within a category and issue repairman certificates (light-sport) with privileges extending to all aircraft classes in the category. FAA does not find the proposed changes, in general, to be more restrictive, since FAA regulations have not accounted for an inspection rating with helicopter class privileges or for a maintenance rating with privileges for either helicopters or gyroplanes. FAA acknowledges there are substantive differences between gyroplane and helicopter design, and to the commenter's point, those differences, combined with the complexity of helicopter and gyroplane designs, will result in substantial varied course content between those classes of aircraft. As previously discussed in section IV.I.7.d, the substantive differences between helicopters and gyroplanes, despite both being in the rotorcraft category, necessitate separate training courses for these classes of rotorcraft.</P>
                    <P>
                        Therefore, FAA finds training courses providing instruction on both classes would insufficiently train applicants on the design and operational differences between these aircraft. Separate training for the rotorcraft category helicopter class and gyroplane class is necessary to ensure light-sport repairmen are sufficiently trained to perform the duties of their certificate, ratings, and privileges. Similar to the rotorcraft category, the lighter-than-air category training courses must be separated into class-specific training for airship and balloon classes due to the substantial design differences in these classes. Accordingly, FAA has determined training on a single class of aircraft within the rotorcraft and lighter-than-air categories are necessary safety measures to ensure light-sport repairmen are sufficiently trained to perform the privileges on their certificate. Further, allowing certificate limitations based on training would allow repairmen applicants to tailor their training to the ratings and privileges they wish to obtain. FAA expects that helicopters and gyroplanes will have different consensus standards, due to differences in design and operational characteristics, therefore, allowing training by class would support training course development on one class, regardless of whether a consensus standard was created for the other classes within the category.
                        <SU>264</SU>
                         In addition, should future classes of aircraft be added to any category (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         powered-lift 
                        <SU>265</SU>
                        ), FAA could address certificate privileges through these privilege limitations based on training completed by the airman.
                    </P>
                    <P>To date, FAA has issued 40 repairman certificates (light-sport), with an inspection rating and gyroplane class privileges. On October 22, 2025, these light-sport repairmen will hold a certificate that states the repairman has gyroplane class privileges, but for which the regulation provides rotorcraft category privileges limited to gyroplane class. These repairmen had to complete a 16-hour training course that was found acceptable to FAA on inspecting the gyroplane class of experimental light-sport aircraft.</P>
                    <P>After October 22, 2025, a person holding a light-sport repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with an inspection rating and gyroplane class privileges may request a replacement repairman certificate from FAA showing rotorcraft category privileges with a gyroplane class limitation, consistent with § 65.107(f)(3) as adopted in this final rule. Regardless of whether the airman requests a replacement certificate, as outlined in final rule § 65.107(f)(3), on October 22, 2025, a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft), with an inspection rating and gyroplane class privileges, is equivalent to a repairman certificate (light-sport), with an inspection rating and rotorcraft category privileges limited to the gyroplane class.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">9. Duration of Repairman Certificates</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM,
                        <SU>266</SU>
                         FAA proposed to revise § 65.15(a) and (b), which set forth the duration and effectivity of certificates issued under part 65, to reflect the distinction of the effective period of repairman certificates issued under § 65.101 from that of other repairman certificates issued under §§ 65.104 and 65.107. Specifically, employment is a requirement unique to repairman certificates issued under § 65.101, whereas different durations apply to repairman certificates used under §§ 65.104 and 65.107, which include an exception from the employment requirement (and the other general eligibility requirements set forth in § 65.101). As proposed, this revision will retain the existing duration of repairman certificates issued in accordance with § 65.101 to be effective until the repairman is relieved from the duties for which the repairman was employed and certificated (unless the certificate is sooner surrendered, suspended, or revoked). Concurrently, the proposed revision clarifies previous language, which implied the duration of repairman certificates issued under 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35145"/>
                        §§ 65.104 and 65.107 were tied to employment and job duties without enumerated employment requirements. The NPRM also proposed to remove the date reference in § 65.15(d), which specifies that (except for temporary certificates issued under § 65.13) the holder of a paper certificate issued under part 65 may not exercise the privileges of that certificate after March 31, 2013. That date referred to a compliance date that has since passed and, as such, is no longer necessary.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA received one joint comment from AEA/ARSA on the proposed changes to § 65.15. The commenters did not agree with the proposed rule as written based on the Aviation Rulemaking Advisory Committee (ARAC) Repairman Certificate Portability Working Group's (RCPWG) preliminary recommendation report, dated September 22, 2023.
                        <SU>267</SU>
                         In the report, the RCPWG recommended that § 65.15(b) be deleted in its entirety, § 65.101(a)(2) be amended to remove the language relating to employment, and § 65.101(a)(3) be deleted in its entirety. The report recommended these changes to align part 65 subpart E with the revised language of § 145.159, which “revised the certification of repairmen to promote and encourage workforce development” in 2004 amendment no. 145-27.
                        <SU>268</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Revising §§ 65.15 and 65.101 as recommended in the preliminary report from the ARAC Repairman Certificate Portability WG is inconsistent with the purpose of this final rule. As explained in the NPRM, this rulemaking is specific to special airworthiness certification, including increased privileges for repairman, and in the context of § 65.15 the ability of a light-sport repairman to perform maintenance on specified aircraft. The ARAC RCPWG's recommendations referenced by AEA/ARSA pertain to the portability of repairman certificates issued in accordance with § 65.101 specific to employment and an alleged disconnect between part 65 and part 145. The NPRM did not propose revising repairman certificates issued under § 65.101 or any revisions to part 145. The proposed amendments to § 65.15 were intended to correct inaccurate regulatory text related to the duration of repairman certificates issued in accordance with § 65.107 (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         light-sport repairman certificate). To note, the RCPWG report was published after the MOSAIC NPRM published, and FAA continues to analyze the report. These recommendations on parts 65 and 145, which would encompass sections unrelated to this rulemaking, would be more appropriately addressed in an independent action with notice to the regulated community and an opportunity for comment if FAA determined regulatory changes were appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <P>Therefore, in this final rule, FAA is adopting the amendments to § 65.15, as proposed.</P>
                    <P>Relatedly, § 65.103 provides the privileges and limitations for a repairman certificate issued under § 65.101. In the NPRM, FAA proposed to amend § 65.103(c) to state that § 65.103 does not apply to the holder of a repairman certificate issued in accordance with either § 65.104 (experimental aircraft builder) or § 65.107 (light-sport). As explained, § 65.103 indicates that paragraphs (a) and (b) are only applicable to repairman certificates issued in accordance with § 65.101, which is the only repairman certificate type that has requirements relating to employment; however, § 65.103 also does not apply to a repairman certificate issued in accordance with § 65.104 (experimental aircraft builder repairman). No comments were received on this proposal. Accordingly, in this final rule, FAA adopts the amendment to § 65.103(c), as proposed.  </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">10. Repairman Certificate (Light-Sport) Privileges and Limitations</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. General</HD>
                    <P>As previously discussed, light-sport repairmen are issued a repairman certificate with either an inspection or a maintenance rating, based on the rating requested and the aircraft category privileges sought. The certificate and rating are issued only after the applicant has completed training and then passed a test administered by the training course provider, which are specific to both the rating sought and the aircraft category, and class as applicable, for which privileges are requested. As discussed in section IV.I.1, the privileges of a light-sport repairman certificate are limited, depending on the rating(s), to aircraft holding certain airworthiness certificates and operating purposes. One commenter stated the final rule should state explicitly that persons who have completed training for a light-sport repairman certificate be allowed to maintain aircraft approved under the requirements prior to this final rule taking effect. FAA notes training is a requirement for certification, training does not in and of itself provide certificate privileges. In the NPRM, FAA stated existing repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) holders may inspect or maintain aircraft as permitted by privileges and limitations afforded that repairman under this final rule. Consistent with the discussion in section IV.I.7.d, explaining that training courses are to contain training course content in a category, and class as applicable, FAA will issue light-sport repairman certificates with applicable rating and category privileges, and will issue a limitation for the specific class within the rotorcraft and lighter-than-air categories, specific to the class of aircraft for which the applicant completed the training course. For example, if a light-sport repairman applicant completes a 16-hour inspection rating training course for a rotorcraft category, helicopter class, the light-sport repairman would be issued a repairman (light-sport) certificate with an inspection rating in the rotorcraft category limited to helicopter class. As another example, if a light-sport repairman applicant completes a maintenance rating (based on the Mechanic ACS) in the lighter-than-air category, specific to the balloon class, the applicant would be issued a repairman (light-sport) certificate with a maintenance rating in the lighter-than-air category limited to the balloon class.</P>
                    <P>To provide for the issuance of limitations based on a class of aircraft within an aircraft category, this final rule includes a provision in § 65.107(f)(1) stating that an applicant may have a limitation placed on their airman certificate that limits the certificate privileges to a class within the category. The regulation also states the limitations added to a certificate reflect the FAA-accepted training the applicant has completed. A certificate with no class limitations would have privileges on all classes within the category.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM,
                        <SU>269</SU>
                         FAA proposed to move the requirements from § 65.107(b)(2), which sets forth that a person may perform the annual condition inspection if the aircraft has been issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(i), with certain conditions, to new § 65.109 (setting forth a comprehensive section of privileges and limitations). To address a situation where an individual was issued a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with an inspection rating specific for a former light-sport category aircraft (experimental purpose under proposed § 21.191(i)), and the aircraft was later re-certificated as a light-sport category aircraft (special airworthiness certificate under § 21.190), FAA proposed to remove certain language in § 65.107 (adopted as new § 65.109). Specifically, FAA proposed to remove the phrase “been issued” and, as 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35146"/>
                        discussed in section IV.I, this final rule makes a conforming terminology change from “experimental certificate” to “experimental airworthiness certificate” so the text reads “. . . has an experimental airworthiness certificate. . .” This removal will require that, to exercise the privileges of the light-sport repairman certificate inspection rating, the aircraft must have the appropriate experimental airworthiness certificate; the privileges do not extend to an aircraft that had ever “been issued,” at some point in time, an experimental airworthiness certificate for one of the purposes specified in the regulation. No comments were received on this proposed amendment; however, this same language was used in § 65.107(c)(1) and (2). For the same reasons discussed in the NPRM regarding § 65.107(b)(2), FAA is adopting this clarifying change for purposes of the recodification of § 65.107(c)(1) and (2) at § 65.109(b)(1) and (2) of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed a conforming amendment to § 65.109(a)(2) and (b)(2) based on proposed § 21.191, which removed paragraph (i)(3) from § 21.191. The NPRM explained this conforming amendment as necessary because § 65.109(a)(2) and (b)(2) state what aircraft a light-sport repairman is privileged to approve for return to service and refer to § 21.191 regulatory language that was proposed to be amended in the NPRM. However, as discussed in section IV.L, this final rule will retain § 21.191(i)(3) until July 24, 2026. In addition, FAA is adding new § 21.191(l) for issuance of airworthiness certificates for the purpose of operating a former light-sport category aircraft, and new § 21.191(k) for issuance of airworthiness certificates for the purpose of operating a light-sport category kit-built aircraft. FAA intended for light-sport repairmen to be privileged to work on the same aircraft, whether certificated before or after October 22, 2025.</P>
                    <P>Therefore, § 65.109(a)(2) and (b)(2) of this final rule retain the language providing for privileges on aircraft certificated under § 21.191(i) and have also been revised to include aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(l) and (k). In addition, FAA is expanding repairman privileges in § 65.109(a)(2) and (b)(2) to aircraft certificated under § 21.191(g). This expansion in privileges is discussed in detail in the subsequent section.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Expand Repairmen (Light-Sport) Privileges To Include EAB Aircraft Under § 21.191(g)</HD>
                    <P>FAA received approximately 75 comments from commenters who recommended that FAA expand § 65.109 privileges to allow light-sport repairmen to perform a condition inspection on aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(g) for the purpose of operating EAB aircraft. Commenters stated a shortage of FAA-certificated mechanics makes it difficult to find a mechanic to do the condition inspections on EAB aircraft and allowing light-sport repairmen to do the condition inspection on these aircraft would alleviate the demand on mechanics and would create a business case for light-sport repairmen. Commenters also stated increasing the number of certificated persons who are authorized to inspect EAB aircraft would enhance safety.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters implied that condition inspections may not be performed as required by the regulations due to their inability to find a certificated mechanic or repair station. Many commenters who are owners of these aircraft stated, because owners are permitted to do the maintenance on their EAB aircraft, owners are much more knowledgeable on the aircraft than the mechanic who must perform the condition inspection and supported the expansion of privileges to EAB aircraft so they could perform the condition inspections themselves. Commenters also stated the costs associated with having a mechanic or repair station perform the annual condition inspection are overly burdensome due to the lack of available resources to perform this work. Commenters contended that expanding light-sport repairman certificate privileges to EAB aircraft would enhance safety, control costs, keep maintenance/inspections accessible, allow for more and better training of operators and maintainers, and ease the burden on FAA-certificated mechanics. Some commenters also suggested that mechanics worry about unnecessarily increasing their liability in finding these aircraft safe for flight when owners are already liable for these aircraft.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters cited the similarities between light-sport category aircraft and EAB aircraft. In some cases, owners claim to have built EAB aircraft to the same plans and specifications as a factory-built light-sport category aircraft and the only difference is paperwork. FAA notes there may be similarities between EAB and light-sport category aircraft, but design and production standards are an important difference. While many EAB or kit-built aircraft may have an identical design (on paper) to a factory-built aircraft, aircraft certification in the light-sport category includes meeting consensus standards and part 22, which have additional requirements such as training, quality control, etc., that are not applicable to other builders.</P>
                    <P>Currently, operating limitations issued to EAB aircraft provide that an appropriately rated mechanic, a repair station, or the holder of a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) issued in accordance with § 65.104 may perform a condition inspection on an EAB aircraft. Only the primary builder of the EAB aircraft is eligible for a certificate issued under § 65.104, and the certificate is limited to performing the annual condition inspection on that specific aircraft (by aircraft make, model, and serial number). When an EAB aircraft is sold by the original builder, the builder's repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) privileges are still valid for the aircraft (by make, model, and serial number); however, the new owner does not have the option to get a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) because the new owner is not the builder of the aircraft. This results in the new owner lacking eligibility for a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) and having to obtain the services of a certificated mechanic or repair station to perform the required condition inspection on their EAB aircraft.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA agrees with commenters' suggestions and finds there is a safety benefit in permitting additional properly trained and certificated repairmen to perform condition inspections on EAB aircraft because it will be easier for owners to find qualified personnel to conduct required inspections. Therefore, this final rule expands the privileges of a light-sport repairman certificate under § 65.109 to allow a certificate holder, with either rating (inspection or maintenance), to perform the annual condition inspection on an EAB aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(g).
                        <SU>270</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The changes adopted in § 65.109(a) and (b) of this final rule do not impose additional restrictions but rather expand the privileges of a light-sport repairman. Specifically, § 65.107(c) will allow a light-sport repairman with an inspection rating to perform the annual condition inspection on an EAB aircraft that is owned by the repairman and that is in the same category of aircraft for which 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35147"/>
                        the certificate holder was trained.
                        <SU>271</SU>
                         In addition, § 65.109(b) will permit a light-sport repairman with a maintenance rating to perform the annual condition inspection on an EAB aircraft that is in the same category of aircraft for which the certificate holder was trained.
                        <SU>272</SU>
                          
                    </P>
                    <P>To emphasize, this final rule expands light-sport repairman privileges only to aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(g) (operating EAB aircraft) and the condition inspection required on those aircraft; the expanded privileges do not extend to other aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191. Similar to light-sport aircraft, EAB aircraft are typically of simple design. If the complexity of an EAB aircraft exceeds the light-sport repairman's training (for example, large, turbine, or jet-powered aircraft), repairman privileges would not include that aircraft because the operating limitations issued to these aircraft require inspections beyond that of a condition inspection. Depending on the complexity of the aircraft, FAA may prescribe operating limitations under § 91.319(i) that require such aircraft be maintained in accordance with an inspection program meeting the scope and content of § 91.409(f). The inspections referred to in § 91.409(f) are not condition inspections and therefore do not fall under the privileges of a light-sport repairman. Inspections required under § 91.409(f) must be performed by a certificated mechanic or repair station.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA reviewed the historical rulemaking specific to EAB aircraft,
                        <SU>273</SU>
                         and the comments raised during that rulemaking process, because the privileges afforded to a repairman (experimental aircraft builder) under that rulemaking were similar to the privileges recommended by commenters during this rulemaking. The expanded privileges apply to EAB aircraft, which are lower on the safety continuum than light-sport aircraft, and FAA has considered past public comment concerning the performance of condition inspections on EAB aircraft and has considered the history in adopting this change in the final rule. FAA notes this change places no additional requirements onto certificate holders or applicants since these certificate holders are already required to be trained on performing a condition inspection applicable to that aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding FAA's safety continuum concept, EAB aircraft rank lower on the safety continuum than light-sport category aircraft. EAB aircraft are not required to be built to any design or production standard and are not required to be maintained under part 43. This differs from light-sport category aircraft, which have design and production standards and are required to be maintained under part 43. However, under the authority of § 91.319(i),
                        <SU>274</SU>
                         FAA issues operating limitations for EAB aircraft, which are considered a part of the aircraft's airworthiness certificate. One such operating limitation issued to the majority of EAB aircraft 
                        <SU>275</SU>
                         prohibits operation of the aircraft unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months (before the intended operation), the aircraft has had a condition inspection performed per the scope and detail of part 43, appendix D.
                        <SU>276</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Allowing light-sport repairmen to perform the annual condition inspection on EAB aircraft is consistent with the overall safety continuum concept and, as noted by numerous commenters, would expand the opportunity for the required condition to be completed by a certificate holder who is trained in conducting such an inspection. Moreover, FAA notes that light-sport repairman privileges already extend to certain other aircraft issued experimental airworthiness certificates,
                        <SU>277</SU>
                         including aircraft that are not built to a consensus standard, such as aircraft issued an airworthiness certificate in accordance with § 21.191(i)(1).
                        <SU>278</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The issuance of a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) is based on the individual having demonstrated knowledge and skill to FAA.
                        <SU>279</SU>
                         Therefore, FAA finds that completion of a light-sport repairman training course, and passing of a course test, would be another way that an individual could demonstrate the necessary knowledge and skill to perform the condition inspection on an EAB aircraft. Such training is already designed to provide the knowledge and skills necessary to determine if an aircraft is in a condition for safe operation. Under § 65.107(c) of this final rule, training for an inspection rating must include a minimum of 16 hours of training on inspecting the category, and class as applicable, of aircraft for which privileges are sought on the certificate. Under § 65.107(d) of this final rule, training for a maintenance rating must include training on the knowledge, risk management, and skill elements for each subject in the Mechanic ACS that are appropriate to the category, and class as applicable, of aircraft privileges sought on the certificate. This training must include training on the performance of a condition inspection.
                        <SU>280</SU>
                         Training courses differ based on the aircraft category privileges sought. The training must cover a specific aircraft category, and class as applicable (refer to section IV.I.7.d for additional discussion). Therefore, it follows that an individual who is appropriately trained on particular category and applicable class of aircraft and their systems, or trained on performing a condition inspection on a specific category and applicable class of aircraft, and who takes and passes a test on that knowledge, would also have demonstrated to FAA the person has acceptable knowledge to perform a condition inspection on an EAB aircraft that falls in the same aircraft category for which the individual was trained.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The rulemaking 
                        <SU>281</SU>
                         that created the repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) under § 65.104, allows the person who built the major portion of an EAB aircraft to obtain this repairman certificate to perform the required condition inspection on that specific EAB aircraft.
                        <SU>282</SU>
                         During that rulemaking, several commenters suggested that the repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) be made available to all owners of EAB aircraft after the owner demonstrates the required level of knowledge and skill. FAA disagreed with the suggestion because, at the time, there was no method for such persons to demonstrate their knowledge and skill apart from being the person that built the aircraft; however, that is no longer the case. Light-sport repairmen are specifically trained in conducting a condition inspection on a particular category, and class as applicable, of aircraft, and that training can also be applied to conducting a condition inspection on an EAB aircraft in the same category, and class as applicable. Light-sport repairman training courses can provide those owners of EAB aircraft, who did not build the major portion, with an alternate method of demonstrating the necessary knowledge and skill to perform the required condition inspection.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Another comment addressed in the 1979 final rule asserted that having built a part of the aircraft does not qualify a person to inspect all of that aircraft. FAA responded that inspection does not require extensive knowledge of systems. This principle and response remain valid, evidenced by the different training requirements associated with the inspection and maintenance ratings on a light-sport repairman certificate; discussed in sections IV.I.3 and IV.I.4, respectively. Therefore, under this final rule, while an EAB aircraft builder may only inspect the aircraft the builder has built, a light-sport repairman may inspect any aircraft in the category and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35148"/>
                        applicable class of aircraft on which the repairman was trained.
                    </P>
                    <P>In summary, FAA finds that expanding the privileges of a repairman certificate (light-sport) to allow the holder to conduct the condition inspection on an EAB aircraft aligns with the safety continuum for the aircraft's certification basis, reduces the burden on aircraft owners on finding qualified personnel to inspect their aircraft, and results in a safety benefit. Therefore, this final rule expands the privileges of the light-sport repairman inspection rating in § 65.109(a)(2) to allow a holder of that certificate and rating to conduct an annual condition inspection on an aircraft owned by that repairman, which has an experimental airworthiness certificate for the purpose of operating EAB aircraft, and on which the repairman has completed the prescribed training on the corresponding category and applicable class of aircraft. Furthermore, FAA adopts the same expansion in § 65.109(b)(2) for those holders of a light-sport repairman certificate with a maintenance rating.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Expand Repairmen Certificate (Light-Sport) Privileges to Aircraft Holding Standard Airworthiness Certificates</HD>
                    <P>FAA proposed to move repairman privileges from § 65.107(b) and (c) to new § 65.109(a) and (b), respectively. This final rule adopts this redesignation, which continues to prohibit a light-sport repairman with either rating from performing inspections or maintenance on an aircraft issued a standard airworthiness certificate in accordance with § 21.183. In response to the NPRM, FAA received approximately 27 comments suggesting that FAA expand the privileges of a light-sport repairman certificate to allow the holder of such a certificate to perform maintenance and inspections (to include the annual inspection) on aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates and that meet the performance limits and design requirements in § 61.316 that a sport pilot is authorized to operate.</P>
                    <P>Commenters cited difficulty and costs in finding a mechanic to perform maintenance and an inspection authorization (IA) holder to perform the annual inspection on these aircraft. Other commenters stated there are no differences between aircraft that hold standard category airworthiness certificates and certain light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <P>FAA disagrees with commenters that light-sport repairman certificate privileges should extend to performing work on aircraft that hold standard airworthiness certificates. Though, as commenters mention, there are examples of light-sport category aircraft that look identical to aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates, such aircraft are designed and manufactured to different standards. Aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates are higher on the safety continuum than light-sport category aircraft and meet more rigorous requirements for design, production, and airworthiness certification. The higher placement of aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates on the safety continuum also merits corresponding greater rigor for certification of persons who may inspect and maintain these aircraft in conformity with the applicable type certificate than those of a light-sport repairman. The NPRM did not propose to change regulations relating to the aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates and to allow repairman light-sport certificate holders to do so would likely require increased training requirements to be issued a repairman certificate.</P>
                    <P>
                        It is important to note that aircraft with a standard airworthiness certificate are not light-sport category aircraft, even though some of those aircraft may be operated by a sport pilot.
                        <SU>283</SU>
                         FAA does not agree that just because a pilot can operate certain aircraft that hold standard category airworthiness certificates that those aircraft can be maintained and inspected by someone other than a mechanic or repair station. FAA regulations specify the appropriate airman certificate necessary for performing maintenance and inspections based on the airworthiness certificate issued to the aircraft, which is reflective of the aircraft's placement on the safety continuum. Aircraft that hold standard airworthiness certificates may be used for carriage of people and property for compensation or hire. Though a sport pilot may be authorized to operate this aircraft (based on whether the aircraft meets the parameters set forth in new § 61.316), another appropriately certificated and rated pilot may use that same aircraft for carriage of people or property for compensation or hire. Therefore, at all times, these aircraft must be inspected and maintained by appropriately certificated persons who have met a higher standard of knowledge and skill to preserve conformity with their respective type certificates, reflecting the greater privileges and exposure of the public to risk for operations of type-certificated aircraft.  
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA recognizes that costs associated with the maintenance and inspection requirements of aircraft that hold standard airworthiness certificates are typically higher than that of light-sport category or experimental aircraft. However, those costs are well known to owners, prospective owners, and operators of these aircraft; other options for aircraft ownership and operation are available. FAA prioritizes the safety of higher risk operations above cost. In summary, FAA declines to expand repairman certificate (light-sport) privileges to aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Changes to FAA Policy for Issuance of a Repairman Certificate (Light-Sport) Inspection Rating</HD>
                    <P>FAA will no longer require an applicant for a light-sport repairman certificate to show evidence of aircraft ownership and will not deny a certificate or rating based on whether an applicant owns an aircraft certificated in accordance with § 21.191(g), (i), (k), or (l). Though not discussed in the NPRM, this is a change to internal policy and does not impose new burdens or obligations to the regulated community, nor does this change affect existing or future certificate privileges. Ownership is not a certificate or rating eligibility requirement specified in § 65.107(b); rather, ownership is a requirement to exercise the privileges of an inspection rating, as specified in adopted § 65.109(a). Furthermore, applicants will not be asked to provide, and repairman certificates (light-sport) will not be issued with, aircraft registration number (N-number) and serial number (S/N) information of aircraft owned by the applicant.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, FAA discussed inspection rating privileges and limitations in paragraph F.7.
                        <SU>284</SU>
                         FAA explained that, should the proposal be adopted as a final rule, the language in § 65.107(b)(2) could result in a situation where an individual was issued a repairman certificate with an inspection rating specific for a former light-sport category aircraft (experimental purpose under proposed § 21.191(i)), and the aircraft could later be re-certificated as a light-sport category aircraft (special airworthiness certificate under § 21.190). In this scenario, if the aircraft was then again re-certificated in accordance with § 21.190, that repairman's certificate, which states the aircraft N-number and S/N could lead the repairman to believe they could continue to conduct the annual condition inspection on that aircraft. FAA did not intend to allow for repairmen with an inspection rating to conduct an annual condition inspection on aircraft certificated under § 21.190; rather, § 65.109(a)(2) sets forth the aircraft a light-sport repairman with an 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35149"/>
                        inspection rating may perform the annual condition inspection upon. FAA finds that by not specifying the aircraft N-number and S/N information on the repairman certificate, the scenario described would be unlikely to occur.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">11. Other Comments on Repairman Certificates</HD>
                    <P>
                        Two commenters indicated they understood the proposed regulations to require a light-sport repairman with a maintenance rating to have supervision by a mechanic. FAA disagrees; maintenance rated light-sport repairmen are authorized to maintain and approve for return to service without the supervision of a mechanic, as permitted by § 65.109(b) and (c). This final rule did not narrow the practical application of the privileges of a repairman certificate to require supervision.
                        <SU>285</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter pointed out that the regulations for light-sport repairmen do not authorize a light-sport repairman to supervise non-certificated individuals. The commenter stated the lack of a specific regulation prohibiting the supervision of a non-certificated person by a light-sport repairman has resulted in light-sport aircraft repair companies using non-certificated individuals. The commenter recommended that FAA specifically state whether a light-sport repairman can or cannot supervise non-certificated persons doing work on aircraft.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA disagrees that adding a specific regulation prohibiting light-sport repairmen from supervising non-certificated individuals is necessary. Under § 65.109, light-sport repairmen are not provided broad supervisory privileges over maintenance, preventive maintenance or alteration, such as that provided a mechanic under § 65.81 or a § 65.101 repairman under § 65.103. Supervisory privileges for light-sport repairmen are included in § 65.109(c),
                        <SU>286</SU>
                         but only to the extent of supervising a person already holding a repairman certificate (light-sport).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Though § 43.3(d) specifies that a person (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a non-certificated person) working under the supervision of the holder of a repairman certificate may perform work on aircraft to which part 43 applies, that authority only applies to work the repairman certificate holder is authorized to perform, in accordance with the privileges granted in part 65. Therefore, while light-sport repairmen may supervise other repairmen or mechanic certificate holders in the context of § 65.109(c), light-sport repairmen may not supervise non-certificated persons performing work under § 43.3(d), as permitted for other certificate holders.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter suggested that light-sport repairmen should have currency requirements similar to mechanics as set forth in § 65.83. FAA disagrees that recent experience requirements are necessary for repairmen given the placement of light-sport repairman certificate privileges being lower on the safety continuum and more narrow privileges commensurate to the training and proficiency profile.</P>
                    <P>One commenter expressed concern the requirement in § 65.109(c), to only approve for return to service work that the light-sport repairman has previously performed satisfactorily is not likely to be detected given the oversight requirements of light-sport repairmen by FAA inspectors. Furthermore, the commenter asserted that current policies would likely hinder enforcement if FAA found a light-sport repairman who returned an aircraft to service without documented experience for that work. FAA expects certificated persons to comply with all applicable regulatory requirements, regardless of any perception of FAA's ability to enforce the regulation. There is no requirement for individuals to retain documented evidence of their experience showing § 65.109(c) has been met. The § 65.109(c) restriction has existed in § 65.107 since the inception of the light-sport repairman regulations in 2004, and a similar requirement has existed in § 65.81 for mechanics for a much longer time. Therefore, FAA will not make any amendments related to this comment.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, FAA proposed to recodify the language in § 65.107(d) prohibiting a light-sport repairman with a maintenance rating from approving for return to service any work unless the repairman has previously performed that work satisfactorily, to new § 65.109(c). AEA/ARSA commented that, while they agree with the provision, the regulation should be amended to require recordkeeping to show the person is qualified on a specific task (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a technician logbook). The commenters stated such a change would be consistent with the regulations of § 145.163, as well as international maintenance technician standards. FAA declines to place an additional burden on certificate holders in the form of recordkeeping when existing regulations have not shown an adverse effect on safety.
                    </P>
                    <P>LAMA recommended § 65.109(c) be revised to include language from § 43.13. Specifically, LAMA recommended FAA amend § 65.107 to include that “[t]he holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with a maintenance rating may not approve for return to service any aircraft or part thereof unless that person has successfully completed appropriate training for the work performed and shall use the methods, techniques, and practices prescribed in the current manufacturer's maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness or specific training or instruction prepared by its manufacturer, or other methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Administrator.”</P>
                    <P>The commenter stated § 43.13 Performance rules (general) have provided an acceptable level of safety for traditional airframe and powerplant mechanics and there is no data that suggests applying the same concept to light-sport repairmen would reduce safety. FAA finds it is not necessary to add § 43.13 language to § 65.109(c). Under § 91.327, light-sport category aircraft must be maintained in accordance with part 43, which includes § 43.13; therefore, it is unnecessary to duplicate the § 43.13 requirements in part 65.</P>
                    <P>GAMA requested clarification that training or other acceptable means would address the requirement in § 65.109(c) that only permits a light-sport repairman to approve for return to service when the work has been previously performed satisfactorily. While § 65.109(c) requires the person to have performed the work satisfactorily, the regulation does not prohibit a person from meeting this requirement by performing the work in a training environment.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter is concerned the NPRM leaves significant portions of the proposal undefined, as indicated by the use of asterisks, and is concerned the public will not have opportunity to comment before changes become regulatory. FAA follows the National Archives and Records Administration Document Drafting Handbook (DDH) to draft rulemaking documents for publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . Pursuant to the DDH, asterisks are used to represent text in regulations that is not being changed.
                        <SU>287</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter expressed concern that FAA did not pre-coordinate the proposed rule with manufacturers and the aviation community. Specifically, the commenter found it especially troubling that the repairman training course providers were not asked for input into defining the training requirements for maintenance and inspection considering that course providers have the greatest expertise in this area. The commenter asked that the light-sport repairmen training requirements be reconsidered with a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35150"/>
                        heavy emphasis placed on input from light-sport repairman training course providers. Under 5 U.S.C. 553, the APA requires agencies to provide the public with notice of proposed rulemaking. To satisfy required notice under section 553, agencies afford interested persons a reasonable and meaningful opportunity to participate in the rulemaking process, generally referred to as “an opportunity to comment.” As an agency engaging in the rulemaking process, FAA published the NPRM 
                        <SU>288</SU>
                         for MOSAIC on July 24, 2023. As previously discussed, and stated in the NPRM, the intent of the MOSAIC proposed rule was to provide relief and greater flexibility to repairman training course providers. Therefore, FAA afforded the public reasonable and meaningful opportunity to participate in the rulemaking process through public comment submission in the rulemaking docket, initially through October 23, 2023, and then extended the public comment period by 90 days, to January 22, 2024. FAA received over 1,350 comments, including comments from training course providers. In developing this final rule, FAA considered all comments received on the NPRM, including those provided by training course providers.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">12. Out of Scope Repairman Comments</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Mechanic Certification  </HD>
                    <P>Several commenters expressed concerns about a shortage of certificated mechanics; some suggested the proposed rule will ease the burden caused by this shortage while others suggested the regulations would instead exacerbate the shortage. Some commenters suggested the light-sport repairman training courses could provide a path toward obtaining a mechanic certificate, particularly if the training would count toward the requirements of a mechanic certificate. Multiple commenters stated FAA should develop new regulations to transition from light-sport repairman to mechanic, while others commented that the light-sport regulations should be left alone for the same reason. One commenter recommended amending the mechanic certification regulations to include the use of endorsements. Van's Aircraft commented on the need for additional mechanics and other maintenance personnel and asked that FAA look at the opportunity to credit hours within high school programs toward mechanic certification. Another commenter proposed that FAA redesign the mechanic certification process to allow a person who wished to work on aircraft to be able to do so in steps. AEA/ARSA recommended this rulemaking update the title of a certificated mechanic to certificated aviation maintenance technician.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed rules were not intended to address issues specific to FAA-certificated mechanics and FAA does not believe this rule will significantly impact the number of future mechanics. While light-sport repairman training courses cannot be credited toward meeting § 65.77 requirements for a mechanic certificate or rating applicant, such an applicant may apply practical experience 
                        <SU>289</SU>
                         gained towards meeting the experience requirement in § 65.77(b)(1). Comments suggesting broad changes to mechanic certification rules are outside the scope of this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Mechanic Training</HD>
                    <P>
                        Approximately 55 different commenters asserted FAA-certificated mechanics are not trained or otherwise familiar with performing maintenance on light-sport category aircraft and suggested mechanics should be required to get additional training applicable to light-sport aircraft. As discussed in section IV.I.11, § 65.81 prohibits mechanics from approving work for return to service unless the mechanic has previously performed that work satisfactorily. FAA finds this requirement to sufficiently ensure the person is adequately familiar and proficient on the required work to be performed. Training would be one way a mechanic could meet § 65.81 (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         perform the work satisfactorily in a training environment).
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter stated all mechanic certificates should be a basic certificate with training and endorsements for more complex systems. As previously stated, mechanic certification and training are outside the scope of this rulemaking.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Part 147 AMTS Curriculum</HD>
                    <P>One commenter recommended that part 147 school curriculums be modified to teach more new engine technologies and avionics. Another commenter stated AMTS curricula do not include training mechanics to work on light-sport aircraft and there is little interest in doing so because most mechanics will be working on highly complex aircraft, not light-sport aircraft. Part 147 AMTS curricula are outside of the scope of the MOSAIC rulemaking; however, FAA notes that AMTS curricula must include content on light-sport aircraft, since mechanic certificate privileges include those aircraft. In addition, AMTS can modify their curricula at any time to teach additional content. The requirement for AMTS to align their curriculum with the Mechanic ACS is a minimum standard.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">13. Part 147</HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA notes the final rule includes an amendment to the incorporation by reference (IBR) provision in § 147.17 to update the contact information to Certification Testing Group, 202-267-1100, 
                        <E T="03">ACSPTinquiries@faa.gov.</E>
                         This final rule makes a conforming amendment to § 65.23 in the introductory paragraph to correct the group contact name to “Training and Certification Group” for consistency with § 147.17 IBR and accuracy of contact details.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. Maintenance</HD>
                    <P>Aircraft certificated in the light-sport category are subject to the operating limitations specified in § 91.327, which include requirements related to maintenance, repairs, and alterations. This final rule revises the maintenance requirements for light-sport category aircraft in § 91.327 regarding safety directives, major and minor repairs and alterations, and other limitations. In addition, FAA is adopting conforming changes to §§ 43.1, 65.85, 65.87, and 91.417.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Manufacturer's Safety Directives</HD>
                    <P>In the NPRM, FAA proposed removing the requirement in § 91.327(b)(4) that an owner or operator of a light-sport category aircraft comply with safety directives issued by the aircraft manufacturer. FAA also proposed removing the corresponding requirement to record compliance with manufacturer safety directives in § 91.417(a)(2)(v).</P>
                    <P>FAA received four comments related to the proposed rule to remove the requirement to comply with safety directives issued by the aircraft manufacturer. Two commenters supported the proposed rule, one commenter was unclear as to whether the proposed rule also removed the requirement to record accomplishment of safety directives, and one commenter stated the proposed rule does not enhance safety and questioned FAA's ability to evaluate manufacturers' safety directives and issue airworthiness directives.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed amendment of § 91.327 to remove the requirement to comply with manufacturer's safety directives was accompanied by a corresponding revision to § 91.417 to remove the requirement to record compliance with such safety directives in the aircraft's records. However, there are still regulations prescribing recording requirements in §§ 43.9 and 43.11 that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35151"/>
                        are applicable to maintenance, alterations, and inspections. Therefore, if a safety directive that involves maintenance, alteration, or inspection is complied with, applicable part 43 records must be made.
                    </P>
                    <P>As discussed in the NPRM, aircraft owners are encouraged to continue to comply with manufacturers' safety directives to address safety concerns on their aircraft. A separate regulatory requirement to comply with manufacturers' safety directives is unnecessary because § 91.7 prohibits any person from operating a civil aircraft unless it is in an airworthy condition. Where a safety-of-flight condition exists on an aircraft, that condition would need to be corrected for the aircraft to be considered in an airworthy condition to satisfy the § 91.7 requirement. In addition, safety-of-flight conditions would need to be corrected for the aircraft to be approved for return to service after its annual condition inspection required by § 91.327(b)(2).</P>
                    <P>Compliance with manufacturer-issued safety directives is not required after the effective date of this final rule. This includes safety directives issued prior to this final rule, including those with repetitive requirements, but would not include excusing violations of §§ 91.327(b)(4) or 91.417(a)(2)(v) that occurred prior to the applicable effective date of this final rule. FAA recommends owners, operators, and maintenance providers carefully review all manufacturer safety directives and comply when appropriate. Many safety directives may identify safety of flight or other airworthiness issues. Such issues, if present on the aircraft, would make the aircraft unairworthy. For example, a manufacturer might issue a safety directive that notifies owners of possible cracking in a certain part of the aircraft's primary structure. While the manufacturer safety directives would not be mandatory under the NPRM, if the aircraft structure is found to have the crack that the safety directive highlights, then the aircraft is unairworthy, and the crack must be repaired before the aircraft can be approved for return to service and subsequently operated.</P>
                    <P>Furthermore, § 43.13 requires each person performing maintenance to use methods, techniques, and practices prescribed in the current manufacturer's maintenance manual; Instructions for Continued Airworthiness prepared by its manufacturer; or other methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Administrator. In the previous example, the repair instructions in a manufacturer issued safety directive would be considered an acceptable method to repair the crack; though there may be other methods, techniques, or practices acceptable to the Administrator that could be used to repair the crack. However, if FAA issued an AD regarding the unsafe condition of possible cracking, and the AD refers to repairing any actual crack found per the safety directive, then compliance with the safety directive would be mandatory unless an alternate means of compliance under § 39.19 was approved by FAA and used.  </P>
                    <P>
                        Given these existing and continuing safety-of-flight requirements, FAA has determined there is no degradation in safety from the proposed revision to § 91.327(b)(4). It is important to note that manufacturers of light-sport category aircraft are still required to implement and maintain a documented continued operational safety program that monitors and resolves in-service safety of flight issues. The program must include provisions for the issuance of safety directives and a process for advance notice to FAA and owners of discontinuance of its continued operational safety program or any transfer of the program to another responsible party, per § 21.190(d)(8). Therefore, owners will continue to be notified of safety issues through manufacturer issued safety directives and are responsible to ensure their aircraft are airworthy. FAA notes that though it does not typically issue ADs for non-type-certificated products, FAA policy 
                        <SU>290</SU>
                         includes monitoring and analyzing safety data for light-sport category aircraft to determine if FAA action is required, including the issuance of an FAA AD.
                    </P>
                    <P>Therefore, in this final rule FAA is adopting the NPRM proposal to remove the § 91.327(b)(4) requirement for an owner or operator of a light-sport category aircraft to comply with safety directives issued by the aircraft manufacturer. FAA is also adopting the NPRM proposal to amend § 91.417(a)(2)(v) to remove the corresponding record keeping requirement for manufacturer-issued safety directives.</P>
                    <P>In the NPRM, FAA proposed replacing § 91.327(b)(4) with a requirement that prohibits operation of a light-sport category aircraft unless the aircraft has demonstrated compliance with the applicable requirements of part 36. As discussed in section IV.N, the holder of the airworthiness certificate, rather than the pilot of an aircraft, is fundamentally responsible for ensuring that their aircraft complies with airworthiness requirements. In addition, section IV.N discusses that this final rule makes compliance with part 36 for light-sport category aircraft voluntary. Based upon this, FAA has removed this requirement from § 91.327(b)(4). As a result of the removal of existing language in § 91.327(b)(4), this final rule renumbers the remaining subparagraphs (5), (6), and (7) as (4), (5), and (6).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. TBO/Time Limits/Life Limited Parts</HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA received twelve comments asking for clarification on whether the owner or operator of light-sport category aircraft is required to comply with manufacturer mandated intervals such as engine time-between-overhaul (TBO) intervals or component time-life intervals that have not been explicitly FAA-approved. The NPRM did not make any proposals related to TBO intervals or component time-life intervals. As such, comments that were received requesting clarification of these topics or suggestions of additional regulatory revisions are outside the scope of this rulemaking. FAA has existing guidance that explains the requirements for meeting manufacturer's specified TBOs or other time-life intervals.
                        <SU>291</SU>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Minor Repairs and Minor Alterations</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, FAA proposed to revise § 91.327(b)(5), renumbered to § 91.327(b)(4) in this final rule, to add repairs to the requirement that already included alterations. The proposed amendment to § 91.327(b)(5) was to allow for minor repairs and minor alterations to be accomplished without authorization from the manufacturer or a person acceptable to FAA. In addition, FAA proposed to remove language from § 91.327(b)(5) regarding alterations “accomplished after the aircraft's date of manufacture” because aircraft must have been manufactured to engage in flight operations. Finally, FAA proposed language that repairs and alterations meet FAA-accepted consensus standards that are specified in the manufacturer's statement of compliance that was originally submitted to FAA at the time of aircraft certification.
                        <SU>292</SU>
                         This amended language provides that, though consensus standards may change over time, the aircraft is only required to meet the consensus standards identified on the manufacturer's statement of compliance submitted at the time of original airworthiness certification.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        After additional review, FAA finds the NRPM proposal to include the term “minor” prior to “repair” and “alteration” in proposed § 91.327(b)(5) unnecessary because it implies that the language retained from the existing regulation, regarding meeting the consensus standards identified in the statement of compliance, is not required 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35152"/>
                        for major repairs and major alterations. In accordance with § 21.181(a)(3), a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category is effective as long as the aircraft meets the eligibility criteria for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category specified in § 21.190(b). Therefore, the requirement to comply with the consensus standards identified in the statement of compliance submitted to FAA applies regardless of whether the alteration or repair is major or minor. Removing the word “minor” in the final rule from proposed § 91.327(b)(5) does not change FAA's intent from what was proposed in the NPRM and clarifies that all repairs and alterations must be made in accordance with applicable consensus standards.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA received five comments from nine commenters related to the proposed changes to proposed § 91.327(b)(5), renumbered to § 91.327(b)(4) in this final rule. EAA, AOPA, NATA, NBAA, GAMA, the Light Aircraft Manufacturers Association, and two other commenters are in support of the proposed changes. One commenter is opposed to allowing minor repairs and minor alterations to be accomplished without manufacturer approval.</P>
                    <P>Five of the supporting commenters discussed the need for guidance related to understanding requirements around minor alterations and minor repairs. FAA intends to develop guidance in an Advisory Circular (AC) on the maintenance requirements for light-sport category aircraft, including guidance for understanding and applying requirements concerning minor repairs and minor alterations.  </P>
                    <P>Van's Aircraft commented that the full definition of what is minor and what is major is unclear and the current requirement for manufacturers is that items included within the maintenance manual are minor and those not included in the maintenance manual are major. It asked if there are any conflicts with § 43.1 that need to be resolved and asked for further clarification on the definition of what is minor, and what changes FAA would propose within the ASTM standards to support this.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA disagrees that the definition of major vs. minor is unclear. FAA has long defined these terms in § 1.1. FAA believes Van's Aircraft's description of which items are minor or major is based on, or in line with, terminology definitions contained in consensus standards such as ASTM F2483-18e1.
                        <SU>293</SU>
                         These consensus standard definitions appear to have been made without consideration of the § 1.1 definitions for major and minor repair and major and minor alteration, upon which FAA relies on when using these terms. The definition for “consensus standard” included in § 1.1 prior to this final rule required a consensus standard to include standards for the identification and recording of major repairs and major alterations. However, the definition did not imply that consensus standards should redefine “major” repair or alteration, as FAA has already defined these terms. The language directing “standards for identification and recording of major repairs and alterations” does not extend to redefining the terms themselves. When FAA uses the terms “major repair” or “major alteration,” such as used in the § 1.1 “consensus standard” definition, the regulation refers to what FAA has defined. Though the comment from Van's Aircraft questioned whether there are conflicts with § 43.1, the commenter did not identify specific concerns. FAA has reviewed § 43.1 and believes there are no conflicts in § 43.1 requirements for light-sport aircraft regarding major repairs or major alterations.
                    </P>
                    <P>Finally, Van's Aircraft asked for further clarification on the definition of what is minor, and what changes FAA would propose within the ASTM standards to support this. The above discussion clarifies FAA's position on major vs. minor. FAA declines to recommend ASTM revisions in this preamble as FAA provides comments and recommends changes to ASTM standards when those documents are submitted to FAA for acceptance or approval.</P>
                    <P>While one commenter opposed allowing minor repairs and minor alterations to be accomplished without manufacturer authorization, FAA believes that requiring manufacturer authorization for minor repairs and minor alterations is unnecessary. As pointed out by AEA/ARSA and other commenters, minor alterations and minor repairs do not appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant operations, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness. Thus, there is low safety risk associated with the accomplishment of such alterations or repairs. It is unreasonable to believe that an aircraft will remain exactly as it was when it was manufactured following operation or over a period of time, as aircraft accumulate a certain amount of wear and tear, or other minor defects. Minor repairs and alterations will likely need to be made to all aircraft following commencement of flight operations over time. Allowing minor repairs and alterations to occur without manufacturer authorization parallels requirements currently in place for aircraft designed to CAR 3 and part 23 standards and issued a standard category airworthiness certificate. There is little reason to hold light-sport category aircraft to a different or higher standard for minor repairs and minor alterations when such repairs or alterations, by definition, do not appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant operation, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness of the aircraft.</P>
                    <P>One commenter is concerned that a lack of manufacturer authorization of minor alterations would increase the burden on prospective buyers to find an aircraft that has not been altered other than as authorized by the manufacturer. Section 43.9(a) requires a maintenance record entry be made for all maintenance and alterations, and § 91.417(b) requires those record entries to be retained until the work is repeated or superseded by other work or for 1 year after the work is performed. In many, if not most, instances, though not required by § 91.417(b), maintenance record entries are retained indefinitely as a part of the aircraft's records. Prospective buyers of any aircraft certificated in any category have the burden of determining the extent of maintenance, repairs, and alterations performed on an aircraft prior to purchasing. FAA believes the reduction of burden on actual aircraft owners and operators by not having to obtain manufacturer authorization for minor alterations and repairs outweighs any additional burden potential aircraft owners may have to determine if minor repairs or alterations were made. As previously stated, wear and tear on operational aircraft is to be expected, along with repairs and alterations to maintain the aircraft. In addition, the same requirements apply to aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates and have not resulted in safety issues.</P>
                    <P>FAA is adding the language “or approved” to proposed § 91.327(b)(5), renumbered to § 91.327(b)(4) in this final rule, in reference to the consensus standards that are applicable. This change is to conform with changes in part 22 that reflect that, while most consensus standards are accepted by FAA, some consensus standards are approved by FAA.</P>
                    <P>
                        In summary, this final rule adopts proposed § 91.327(b)(5) as § 91.327(b)(4), with minor changes described previously.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35153"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Major Repairs and Major Alterations</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, FAA proposed to add major repairs to the requirements in § 91.327(b)(6), renumbered to § 91.327(b)(5) in this final rule, which already included major alterations. In addition, the NPRM proposed to remove the language “to an aircraft product produced under a consensus standard.” 
                        <SU>294</SU>
                         In the proposed rule, FAA retained the language that would require major repairs and major alterations to be authorized by the manufacturer (or a person acceptable to FAA) and for major repairs and major alterations to be performed and inspected 
                        <SU>295</SU>
                         in accordance with maintenance and inspection procedures developed by the manufacturer (or a person acceptable to FAA). FAA received one comment from five commenters, including EAA and ARSA, agreeing with the proposed addition of “repairs” to the language in § 91.327(b)(6).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        After additional review, FAA believes it is not appropriate to remove the language “to an aircraft product produced under a consensus standard” from § 91.327(b)(6) as proposed. Though no comments were received on this proposed change, this language differentiates between requirements for light-sport aircraft products produced under a consensus standard versus those products produced under an FAA-approval (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         such as a type-certificate, production certification, parts manufacturer approval (PMA), or technical standard order (TSO)), with respect to the performance and recording of major repairs and major alterations. The existing regulations require that when type-certificated products installed on a light-sport aircraft are subject to a major repair or major alteration, then those products must be repaired or altered in accordance with part 43 requirements applicable to a type-certificated product, to include recording requirements for major repairs and major alterations. This is because such products could be removed from a light-sport category aircraft and subsequently installed on a type-certificated or other aircraft to which all of part 43 applies. In § 43.1(d), light-sport category aircraft are excepted from the recording requirements applicable to other aircraft to which part 43 applies, but only with respect to products not produced under an FAA approval. Specifically, the requirement to use FAA Form 337 (under §§ 43.5(b) and 43.9(d)) and to disposition that form in accordance with appendix B of part 43 does not apply when a major repair or alteration is performed on a light-sport category aircraft or product that was not produced under an FAA approval.
                    </P>
                    <P>In summary, in the final rule FAA is adopting the NPRM proposed amendment to § 91.327(b)(6), renumbered as § 91.327(b)(5), but will retain the language “to an aircraft product produced under a consensus standard.”</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Other Amendments to § 91.327</HD>
                    <P>In the NPRM, FAA proposed a change to § 91.327(b)(1) regarding how maintenance on a light-sport category aircraft must be performed. Specifically, the NPRM replaced the language “a person” acceptable to FAA with “other maintenance and inspection procedures” acceptable to FAA. The intent of that proposal was to align light-sport category maintenance requirements with those found in § 43.13(a), which provides an option of either the manufacturer's instructions or other methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Administrator. However, FAA found the proposed change was not explained in the NPRM preamble and that such a change is not necessary because § 43.13(a) already provides the option for maintenance to be conducted in accordance with either the manufacturer's instructions, or other methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Administrator.</P>
                    <P>FAA received four comments from seven commenters, including AEA/ARSA, regarding this provision. However, the comments were not related to the proposed regulatory text changes. Their comments were directed at existing regulatory language in § 91.327(b)(1) that was not proposed for change, as related to the applicable provisions of part 43. One commenter asked why a type-certificated aircraft can be repaired or maintained with part 43, yet a simple light-sport aircraft cannot. Similarly, another commenter stated the regulations should absolutely allow part 43 for acceptable materials repairs, modifications, parts, etc., since there is no support for repair or modification authorizations if a light-sport manufacturer goes out of business.</P>
                    <P>FAA agrees with commenters that light-sport aircraft should and, in fact, must be repaired or maintained in accordance with applicable provisions of part 43. Section 91.327 specifically requires that a light-sport category aircraft be maintained in accordance with the applicable provisions of part 43; this includes the option to use acceptable methods, techniques, or practices acceptable to the Administrator under § 43.13(a). Section 43.1 explains the applicability of part 43; light-sport category aircraft are excepted from certain requirements related to the recording of major repairs and alterations on products not produced under an FAA approval. However, there are no other exceptions in part 43 related to light-sport category aircraft; therefore, all other provisions of part 43 apply.</P>
                    <P>EAA, AOPA, NATA, NBAA, and GAMA commenters pointed out that it is confusing and inappropriate for the regulation to require compliance with both part 43 and manufacturer maintenance and inspection procedures.</P>
                    <P>FAA disagrees that it is confusing or inappropriate that the regulations require in certain instances compliance with part 43 as well as maintenance and inspection procedures developed by the manufacturer (or a person acceptable to FAA). The regulations must be applied harmoniously, one does not override another. As discussed previously in this section, all part 43 requirements apply to light-sport category aircraft except where specifically stated in § 43.1, Applicability. In addition, § 91.327 includes several requirements for compliance with procedures from the manufacturer or a person acceptable to FAA. Specifically, § 91.327(b)(1) requires compliance with the manufacturer's (or person acceptable to FAA) maintenance and inspection procedures. Section 91.327(b)(2) requires the annual condition inspection be performed in accordance with inspection procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable to FAA. Section 91.327(b)(6), renumbered to § 91.327(b)(5) in this final rule, requires that major repairs and major alterations be performed and inspected in accordance with maintenance and inspection procedures developed by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to FAA. Lastly, § 91.327(c) requires that a 100-hour condition inspection be performed in accordance with inspection procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable to FAA.</P>
                    <P>
                        While § 91.327 specifies when an annual condition inspection (under § 91.327(b)(2)) or a 100-hour inspection (under § 91.327 (c)) must be done, the regulation does not require the aircraft to be inspected using a checklist that meets part 43 appendix D. Rather, § 91.327 requires compliance with manufacturer inspection procedures in terms of the appropriate items that must be inspected. At the same time § 91.327 requires persons performing the inspections to use the manufacturers inspection procedures; there is no other minimum inspection standard for inspections on light-sport category 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35154"/>
                        aircraft, such as the content in appendix D to part 43 applicable to aircraft issued a standard airworthiness certificate. If the regulation omitted the inspection procedures requirement, then the inspections would have no performance requirement (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the inspection must be done, but there would be nothing stating what must be inspected).
                    </P>
                    <P>Similarly, major repairs and major alterations performed on light-sport category aircraft do not require FAA to approve the data for such modifications. Instead, FAA regulations permit the manufacturer (or a person acceptable to FAA) to authorize major repairs and major alterations. Here too, FAA leaves it to the aircraft manufacturer or an FAA acceptable person to define the maintenance and inspection procedures that apply to the major repair or major alteration. The language in § 91.327 subsequently requires that a person must use those maintenance and inspection procedures when performing or inspecting the major repair or major alteration.</P>
                    <P>For all these reasons, the language in § 91.327(b)(1) stating “and inspection and maintenance procedures . . .” is appropriate and clear.</P>
                    <P>AEA/ARSA stated the maintenance and continued airworthiness of light-sport aircraft is the most restrictive requirement in aviation because of how major repairs and alterations are defined and the requirement for the manufacturer's approval. Commenters also point out that standard category aircraft are held to the maintenance performance standards in § 43.13(a), and it is inconsistent for a light-sport category aircraft to be held to a more restrictive maintenance performance standard.</P>
                    <P>
                        The definition of major repairs and major alterations is found in § 1.1. There is no difference in applying these definitions to light-sport category aircraft, and therefore, FAA disagrees that these aircraft are held to a more restrictive standard in this regard.
                        <SU>296</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Further, FAA disagrees that light-sport category aircraft are held to a more restrictive standard for maintenance as stated by the commenter. As previously discussed, light-sport category aircraft must be maintained in accordance with part 43; however, where § 91.327 requires the use of maintenance or inspection procedures developed by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to FAA, then those procedures must be used. These requirements are similar to how the regulations apply to aircraft issued a standard airworthiness certificate, on which inspections must be performed in accordance with the scope and detail of appendix D of part 43. Similarly, where major repairs and major alterations to light-sport category aircraft must be inspected and maintained using maintenance and inspection procedures developed by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to FAA, aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates must be inspected and maintained using the instructions for continued airworthiness that are included as a part of FAA Form 337 approved by the Administrator. In addition, § 91.327 has always allowed major repairs and major alterations on light-sport category aircraft to be authorized by either the manufacturer or a person acceptable to FAA who is not the manufacturer. This is less restrictive than requirements for aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates, which must have FAA approval of the data used for performing major repairs and major alterations.</P>
                    <P>In summary, the final rule is not revising § 91.327(b)(1), except to conform the name of the repairman certificate (light-sport) as discussed in section IV.I.1.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Third-Party Modifications</HD>
                    <P>
                        In response to the NPRM, FAA received seven comments related to the regulatory requirements around the performance of “third-party modifications” on light-sport category aircraft. By “third-party modification,” FAA understands the commenters to mean a major repair or major alteration to the aircraft that was not part of the original manufacturer's design, and which was not authorized by the original manufacturer.
                        <SU>297</SU>
                         Similarly for this discussion, by “third-party modifier,” FAA understands the commenters to mean a person, other than the original aircraft manufacturer, who authorizes a third-party modification. Use of such third-party modifications on aircraft would have to meet the applicable regulatory requirements, including § 91.327(b)(6), renumbered as § 91.327(b)(5) in this final rule, requiring each major repair or major alteration to an aircraft product produced under a consensus standard to be authorized by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to FAA. The term third-party modifier does not refer to maintenance providers such as light-sport repairmen, mechanics, or repair stations solely because that person is performing the work of incorporating a repair or alteration onto the aircraft that a third-party modification consists of, or who are otherwise using authorized inspection or maintenance procedures to perform work.
                    </P>
                    <P>AEA/ARSA stated the maintenance and continued airworthiness of light-sport aircraft is the most restrictive requirement in aviation because of the definition of major repairs and alterations and FAA's delegation of approval to only the original equipment manufacturer. These commenters state that the proposed rule disregards the negative impact on design, certification, and installation of retrofit technologies, as well as the aviation maintenance service industry. Another commenter pointed out that manufacturers may not be available or amenable to minor updates to an aircraft. One other commenter stated the general understanding is that only the original aircraft manufacturer can approve a major modification to a light-sport category aircraft. That commenter further stated, if an aircraft manufacturer refuses to approve a change to an aircraft, the only path forward for the owner/operator to “legally” modify a light-sport category aircraft is to put the aircraft into the experimental category, which in turn has restrictions on certain aircraft operations. Van's Aircraft stated the light-sport industry has a major gap in the area of major repairs and alterations.</P>
                    <P>GAMA commented that currently there is no practical way to support customers who request upgrades or different avionics solutions that are not supported by the original aircraft manufacturer. GAMA believes that the industry needs a practical means for third parties to perform major alterations to LSA and supports the provision for “a person acceptable to FAA” to authorize such alterations. EAA, AOPA, NATA, NBAAA, GAMA, Van's Aircraft, and another commenter encouraged FAA to make greater use of the “a person acceptable to FAA” clause in the regulation to allow greater third-party alterations and repairs to light-sport aircraft when those alterations and repairs meet applicable standards.</P>
                    <P>GAMA stated the original light-sport aircraft rule clarified the intent of the phrase “a person acceptable to FAA” applied only to minor alterations, and stated it is not clear if that same list also applies to major alterations. GAMA further stated a clear path for receiving FAA approval for major repair, alteration, or major change in type design is required to support the life cycle of part 22 aircraft and to afford the ability to add safety enhancing technology or to meet future operational mandates, without reliance upon the manufacturer.</P>
                    <P>
                        Van's Aircraft expressed three main concerns with third-party maintenance from a manufacturer perspective. The first concern stated is that manufacturer liability issues may be caused by 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35155"/>
                        providing an alternate path to manufacturer approval. Van's second concern is the marketability of light sport aircraft to flight schools, and that manufacturers need an alternative path for major repairs and alterations that allows aircraft in a flight school to remain viable indefinitely and independent of the manufacturer. The third concern is that there should be a check gate to ensure that third parties acting independently would be held to the same level of rigor as a manufacturer who signs an FAA form 8130-15, Statement of Conformity. For example, Van's Aircraft asserted that a third-party modifier should need the same training as that required of a manufacturer, should consider all the safety issues related to the current major repair and alteration (MRA) process, should notify a manufacturer, and should maintain a continued operational safety program to maintain their repairs and alterations over time. Van's Aircraft also suggested three ways to address this concern: (1) that a third-party be required to submit an amended statement of compliance form as proposed in § 21.190(e) for aerial work, which would provide a record of the aircraft modification for future reference by a manufacturer or a future third-party planning a subsequent alteration; (2) utilize the existing and ongoing ability of a manufacturer to issue a safety directive against a potential alteration; and (3) that FAA should work with industry to develop a solution within the consensus standard process. Van's Aircraft pointed out that the ASTM F37 committee is currently working on a third-party alteration standard and asked that FAA continue to provide support and pressure as necessary to enable the committee to develop a working solution within the consensus process.
                    </P>
                    <P>In general, the above comments request that FAA provide additional guidance and regulations with respect to third-party modifications and facilitate increased use of the “a person acceptable to FAA” clause in § 91.327. Because § 91.327(b)(5) allows for “a person acceptable to FAA” to authorize major repairs or major alterations in lieu of a manufacturer authorization, FAA believes that the existing regulations are sufficient for allowing third-party modifications. In addition, much of the comments in this regard are outside of what the NPRM proposed or are more general expressions of concern rather than specific recommendations related to the NPRM. The requests for additional rulemaking are outside the scope of this rule and would require separate notice and comment rulemaking. However, FAA agrees that additional guidance would benefit the public. FAA intends to revise existing guidance to provide further information related to third-party modifications. Responses to some specific assertions from the comments are discussed in the following paragraphs.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA disagrees with commenters understanding that only the original manufacturer can authorize major repairs or major alterations to light-sport category aircraft. In the NPRM, FAA referred back to the 2004 final rule,
                        <SU>298</SU>
                         where FAA clarified that “a person acceptable to FAA” includes: (1) the manufacturer that issued the statement of compliance, (2) any person who has assumed, and is properly exercising, the original manufacturer's responsibility for carrying out the continued airworthiness procedures described in the consensus standard, (3) the holder of an FAA-approved TSO authorization, PMA, type certificate (TC), or supplemental type certificate (STC) for a product or part installed on the aircraft, and (4) any person authorized by the manufacturer to produce modification or replacement parts in accordance with the applicable consensus standard addressing “qualification of third-party modification or replacement parts.” FAA finds that there may be other persons acceptable to FAA. FAA intends on developing an Advisory Circular on the maintenance requirements for light-sport category aircraft, which will include further guidance on third-party modification and persons acceptable to FAA as used in § 91.327.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding GAMA's comment that the original light-sport aircraft rule clarified the intent of this phrase “a person acceptable to FAA” only applied to minor alterations, FAA points out that, prior to this final rule, § 91.327(b)(5) applied to all alterations (minor and major), while § 91.327(b)(6) applied to major (not minor) alterations. Under this final rule, § 91.327(b)(5) and (6) were renumbered to § 91.327(b)(4) and (5) and do not require that minor repairs and minor alterations have authorization by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to FAA, nor are minor repairs and minor alterations required to be performed and inspected in accordance with maintenance procedures developed by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to FAA.
                        <SU>299</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, the suggestion from Van's Aircraft to add regulations requiring a third-party to submit an amended statement of compliance form, similar to that proposed in § 21.190(e) for aerial work, cannot be implemented without additional notice and comment rulemaking.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Owner-Pilot Preventive Maintenance</HD>
                    <P>The proposed rule and existing regulations allow a sport-pilot to perform preventive maintenance on light-sport category aircraft owned or operated by that sport pilot. However, the regulations do not allow sport-pilots to perform preventive maintenance on aircraft issued a standard airworthiness certificate, but which a sport pilot is permitted to operate in accordance with § 61.316.</P>
                    <P>In response to the NPRM, FAA received eleven comments related to pilots and aircraft owners performing preventive maintenance on aircraft that a sport-pilot is permitted to operate. Commenters request that sport-pilots be permitted to perform preventive maintenance tasks on all aircraft that a sport-pilot is permitted to operate, including aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates that meet the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316. In general, commenters would like FAA to revise § 43.3(g), to allow sport pilots to perform preventive maintenance on any aircraft the sport-pilot owns or operates.</P>
                    <P>One of the eleven commenters is against allowing owners to perform their own maintenance and stated some owners are not mechanically aware enough to notice a future problem. Four commenters noted the difference in what a private pilot is permitted to do compared to a sport pilot. One of these commenters stated he has a lot of maintenance experience but is not permitted to do maintenance tasks on his aircraft that a private pilot with zero maintenance skills can do; that commenter further stated the only difference between himself and a private pilot is the medical. Another commenter points out there is no difference in training between sport pilots and private pilots and states the medical is not justification to limit ground maintenance. Three commenters suggest establishing an endorsement process to be allowed to perform maintenance tasks on aircraft owned by the pilot. Another three commenters suggest allowing pilots to perform maintenance after the pilot has had training, such as an owner maintenance course. One commenter mentions the economic burden placed on him to have oil and tire changes completed by a certificated mechanic.</P>
                    <P>
                        When the sport-pilot certificate was created in 2004, FAA discussed that the decision to prohibit sport pilots from performing maintenance on type-
                        <PRTPAGE P="35156"/>
                        certificated aircraft is because those pilots do not have the same level of experience as persons who currently perform preventive maintenance on type-certificated aircraft. This is evidenced in the differences between, for example, the current private pilot airplane ACS 
                        <SU>300</SU>
                         and the PTS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Amending § 43.3(g) to allow sport pilots to perform preventive maintenance on type-certificated aircraft is outside the scope of this rulemaking. Such a change was not proposed in the NPRM, and considering such changes would require notice and the opportunity for comment and would delay the issuance of this final rule and the realization of its intended benefits. Therefore, this final rule does not make changes related to pilot preventive maintenance privileges contained in part 43.
                        <SU>301</SU>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">8. Downgrades of Type-Certificated Aircraft to Light-Sport</HD>
                    <P>FAA received comments and questions from several commenters who refer in one way or another to an aircraft that was originally certificated with a standard airworthiness certificate (§ 21.183) and subsequently recertificated as a light-sport category aircraft (§ 21.190) or experimental operating light-sport category (§ 21.191). Commenters questioned equipment installation eligibility and maintenance and inspection requirements on a former standard classification aircraft that was downgraded to the light-sport category. Other commenters suggest such a recertification be allowed so light-sport repairmen could then perform the required maintenance and inspection on those aircraft. GAMA specifically proposed that FAA allow legacy certified aircraft (Part 23 or Civil Aviation Regulation (CAR) part 3) that fall within light-sport aircraft guidelines to be changed to an experimental light-sport aircraft. GAMA contended that allowing owners to obtain this level of airworthiness certificate would create a path for owners to keep these older aircraft functional and updated with modern avionics or other parts that may no longer be available. GAMA further stated it would also reduce operating costs by allowing owner maintenance after taking a light-sport repairman training course.</P>
                    <P>
                        As more fully discussed in section IV.F.6, under current § 21.190(b)(2), now relocated to § 22.100(a)(6) in this final rule, aircraft that were previously issued a standard airworthiness certificate are not eligible for certification as light-sport category aircraft. Similarly, aircraft with a standard airworthiness certificate are not eligible to be issued an experimental airworthiness certificate for the purpose of operating light sport aircraft since eligibility for that experimental airworthiness certificate is limited to aircraft that were previously issued a special airworthiness certificate under § 21.190. While the comments cite various rationales in support of such airworthiness certificate changes, these rationales do not speak to the underlying basis for the different categories, or to the specific experimental purposes. To be issued any experimental airworthiness certificate for any purpose, an aircraft must meet the applicable requirements of § 21.191. In addition, as explained in the 2004 final rule for current § 21.190(b)(2), allowing aircraft with a standard or primary category airworthiness certificate to obtain a light-sport category airworthiness certificate was seen as an unnecessary burden on manufacturers, operators, and FAA.
                        <SU>302</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        While GAMA suggested that allowing aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates to be recertificated with an experimental airworthiness certificate for operating light-sport aircraft would allow owners to make these aircraft functional, there is no evidence that safety would be either increased or maintained at current levels. As previously mentioned, experimental aircraft are not required to be maintained in accordance with part 43, would only require an annual condition inspection,
                        <SU>303</SU>
                         and would no longer be required to meet any design standards at all. FAA has recognized the challenges that owners and operators of vintage aircraft face and provides guidance for substantiating parts or materials substitutions in multiple documents.
                        <SU>304</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Aircraft holding a standard airworthiness certificate, such as the legacy aircraft that commenters are referring to, are higher on the safety continuum than a light-sport category aircraft. Therefore, FAA does not agree with the commenters' recommendations to allow legacy aircraft holding a standard airworthiness certificate to be recertificated with a “lower” light-sport category or experimental operating light-sport airworthiness certificate, as suggested by commenters.</P>
                    <P>Finally, the NPRM did not propose any changes to part 21 regulations for the purpose of allowing aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates to downgrade into the light-sport category or the experimental purpose for operating light-sport aircraft. Any new changes would be out of scope of this rule and should be accomplished with appropriate notice and opportunity to comment.</P>
                    <P>Based upon these reasons, FAA disagrees with commenters' recommendations to allow an aircraft that was originally certificated with a standard airworthiness certificate to be subsequently recertificated as either a light-sport category aircraft under § 21.190 or experimental operating light-sport category aircraft under § 21.191.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">9. Changes to Certificated Mechanic Privileges</HD>
                    <P>In the NPRM, FAA discussed that language in §§ 65.85(b) and 65.87(b) did not align with the proposed § 91.327(b)(6), renumbered as § 91.327(b)(5) in this final rule. This misalignment was because current §§ 65.85(b) and 65.87(b) did not require a mechanic to verify that a major repair or alteration was authorized by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to FAA before approving an airframe or powerplant for return to service. Performing the major repair or major alteration in accordance with instructions developed by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to FAA may not sufficiently verify the aircraft or engine meet the requirement for the major repair or major alteration to be authorized by the manufacturer (or a person acceptable to FAA). Therefore, in the final rule FAA is adopting the NPRM proposed amendments to §§ 65.85(b) and 65.87(b).</P>
                    <P>One commenter noticed that the proposed changes to § 65.87(a) failed to correct “approve and return it to service” with “approve for return to service” as described in the NPRM. In this final rule, FAA has corrected the clerical error to § 65.87(a) and adopted the language change proposed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">10. Conforming Amendments and Other Comments</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Conforming Amendment to § 43.1</HD>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM proposed a conforming amendment to § 43.1 based on proposed § 21.191, which removed paragraph (i)(3) of § 21.191 in its entirety. The NPRM conforming amendment was necessary because § 43.1(b) states what aircraft to which part 43 does not apply and refers to § 21.191 regulatory language that was being amended in the NPRM. However, as discussed in section IV.L, this final rule will retain § 21.191(i)(3) but will not issue airworthiness certificates under that regulation after July 24, 2026. In addition, FAA is adding new § 21.191(l) for issuance of airworthiness certificates to operate a former light-sport category aircraft. Just as part 43 does not apply 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35157"/>
                        to former light-sport category aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(i)(3), part 43 does not apply to former light-sport category aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under new § 21.191(l). The titles and requirements of the § 21.191(l) experimental purpose remain unchanged from the NPRM; the only difference being its new paragraph in § 21.191 for this final rule. Therefore, in this final rule, § 43.1(b)(2) will retain the exception for aircraft for which FAA has issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under the provisions of § 21.191(i)(3) and is amended to exclude aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(l) from part 43 requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>This final rule also makes a conforming change to § 43.1(b)(1) and (2) by changing “experimental certificate” to “experimental airworthiness certificate” to remain consistent with the terminology of § 21.191 and the explanation in section IV.I.2 of the NPRM that experimental certificates are experimental airworthiness certificates. FAA did not receive any comment on this terminology change for § 21.191.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Other Comments and Changes Related to Maintenance</HD>
                    <P>NAVAIR noted the title of part 43 contained a spelling error in the NPRM; the word “preventitive” should be “preventive.” FAA did not intend to change the title of part 43 and this was a clerical error in the NPRM. FAA agrees with the commenter and has corrected this error in the final rule.</P>
                    <P>One commenter pointed out that the proposed language in § 43.13(a) changed from “shall” to “must” with no explanation for the change. FAA agrees with the commenter and has corrected the final rule language to retain “shall” as used in § 43.13(a) prior to this final rule.</P>
                    <P>In the NPRM, FAA proposed to remove the paragraph title from § 43.13(c) to ensure consistency with § 43.13(a) and (b), which do not use headings. In addition, minor language changes were proposed to appropriately cross reference to parts 121, 135, and 129 of title 14, chapter I. No comments were received on the proposed changes; therefore, the changes are adopted in this final rule.</P>
                    <P>Van's Aircraft commented that a light-sport repairman, appropriately rated mechanic, or an appropriately rated repair station would be able to perform minor repairs and alterations on light-sport category aircraft and asked what training has been put in place to ensure that mechanics and repair stations understand the consensus standards. Van's Aircraft also stated a concern related to Letters of Authorization (LOAs) being used for major alterations when consensus standards use Major Repair and Alterations (MRA) forms. Van's Aircraft questioned that if an LOA is erroneously used for a major alteration, how will FAA ensure mechanics and repair stations understand the consensus standards.</P>
                    <P>The Mechanic ACS is the standard for both mechanic and light-sport repairmen (with a maintenance rating) training content. The Mechanic ACS includes subject I. Regulations, Maintenance Forms, Records and Publications. Element AM.I.I.K8 requires mechanics and light-sport repairmen know the regulatory framework, including general subject matter of the parts of 14 CFR relevant to aircraft maintenance and mechanics. Therefore, these certificate holders are expected to know the regulatory framework, which includes the regulatory framework around consensus standards related to performing maintenance on light-sport category aircraft. For example, a mechanic must understand that some aircraft are built to design standards in part 23. The expectation is not for mechanics to memorize each subparagraph of part 23, but to understand how it relates to aircraft design and maintenance overall. Similarly, FAA expects mechanics to understand that light-sport aircraft must comply with part 22, which requires that the aircraft be designed to meet a consensus standard accepted by FAA.</P>
                    <P>Once a person is a certificated mechanic or light-sport repairman, FAA notes that the regulations provide ongoing requirements that these certificated persons must meet to exercise the privileges of their certificate. Specifically, §§ 65.81(a), (b) and 65.109(c) prohibit supervision or approval for return to service unless the certificate holder has satisfactorily performed the work before at an earlier date, and unless the certificate holder understands the current instructions of the manufacturer, and the maintenance manuals, for the specific operation concerned. The regulations put responsibility on the certificate holder to ensure they are qualified to perform specific tasks, but the regulations do not mandate specific training. In addition, while a consensus standard can indicate recommended training for a task, the consensus standard cannot mandate additional training requirements that are beyond what applicable 14 CFR regulations require. However, manufacturer recommended training would be one way a certificate holder could meet the requirements of §§ 65.81 or 65.109(c) to exercise the approval for return to service privileges of their certificate.</P>
                    <P>An appropriately rated part 145 repair station performing work on light-sport category aircraft must comply with regulations that include training requirements for their personnel. Specifically, § 145.151(c) requires each certificated repair station to ensure it has enough employees with the training or knowledge and experience in the performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations authorized by its repair station certificate and operations specifications to ensure all work is performed in accordance with part 43. In addition, § 145.163 requires a repair station to have an employee training program approved by FAA that ensures each employee assigned to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, and inspection functions can perform assigned tasks. Therefore, training requirements are already in place in part 145 for an appropriately rated repair station performing work on light-sport category aircraft to include pertinent training material that would ensure an understanding of the consensus standards specific to the work the repair station performs. The expectation is that a repair station will develop or revise its training program, as appropriate, for the work performed under the repair station's ratings.</P>
                    <P>One commenter wanted to continue to allow experimental aircraft builders to do their own condition inspections, maintenance, etc., and recommended initiating and promoting training and certification programs to facilitate the same. FAA notes that inspection and maintenance requirements for aircraft that hold an experimental airworthiness certificate for the purpose of operating amateur-built aircraft (in accordance with § 21.191) remain unchanged and were not a part of this rulemaking. The repairman certification requirements and process for repairmen certificated in accordance with § 65.104 (Repairman certificate—experimental aircraft builder) also remain unchanged. As such, these recommendations are outside the scope of this rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>
                        AEA/ARSA commented that aircraft that are used in commercial operations to include flight training and aerial work must not be exempt from § 43.1(d), but failed to provide any reason, rationale, data or other information to justify or support their recommendation. Section 43.1(d) only exempts light-sport category aircraft from the recording requirements related 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35158"/>
                        to FAA form 337, and only when the major repair or major alteration did not involve a product produced under an FAA approval. Section 43.1(d) does not exempt any aircraft based on the type of operations it is conducting. The NPRM did not propose any changes to the applicability of § 43.1(d) and any new change should be accomplished with appropriate notice and comment. Given this, FAA disagrees with implementing this recommendation in this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Definition of “Current” as it Relates to ASTM Standards</HD>
                    <P>One commenter stated while it has been longstanding FAA policy that aircraft only have to be maintained to the standards that were in force at the time of certification, the commenter has encountered issues in the field with maintaining foreign-manufactured aircraft whose manufacturers assume that subsequently approved ASTM standards are retroactive. The commenter suggested that this policy should be codified, or at least placed in an advisory circular, clearly stating policy specifically in regard to light-sport category aircraft to eliminate confusion.</P>
                    <P>The final rule adopts § 91.327(b)(5), renumbered as § 91.327(b)(4) in this final rule. This language clarifies that repairs and alterations to an aircraft must meet the applicable and current FAA-accepted or approved consensus standards specified in the aircraft manufacturer's statement of compliance that was submitted with the application for the original airworthiness certificate for that aircraft.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">11. Out of Scope Maintenance Comments</HD>
                    <P>Two commenters suggested that FAA allow EAB aircraft to be certificated in the experimental light-sport category, to allow owners to take the 2-day repairman certificate (light-sport) inspection rating course and conduct their own condition inspections. An EAB aircraft is not eligible for an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(i), (k) (kit-built light-sport aircraft) or (l) (former light-sport category aircraft) because those aircraft do not meet the requirements to hold those airworthiness certificates. However, as discussed in section IV.I.10.b, FAA is expanding the privileges of light sport repairman certificate holders to include conducting the condition inspection on an EAB aircraft certificated under § 21.191(g). For example, a person who meets § 65.107(b), which requires completion of a 16-hour inspection rating training course, would be eligible for a repairman certificate (light-sport) with privileges to conduct the condition inspection on an EAB aircraft owned by the certificate holder and that is in the category of aircraft for which the certificate holder was trained.</P>
                    <P>One commenter suggested that FAA allow experimental engines to be put on part 23 aircraft and added that requiring those experimental engines to meet industry consensus standards would be acceptable. The commenter asserted this would create newer, safer powerplants for legacy aircraft, add much needed competition, and keep costs from getting exorbitant. As the NPRM did not propose rules concerning allowing experimental engines to be put on part 23 aircraft, this comment is outside the scope of this rulemaking and proposals of this nature would require appropriate notice to the public and opportunity for comment.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">K. Operations</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Operating Limitations for Light-Sport Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Aerial Work</HD>
                    <P>As proposed in the NPRM, this final rule adds a new paragraph to § 91.327(a) to allow certain light-sport category aircraft to conduct aerial work operations for compensation or hire. To be able to operate under this amendment, a light-sport category aircraft must meet the applicable airworthiness certification requirements in § 21.190 relating to aerial work. Specifically, the new § 91.327(a)(3) permits certain light-sport category aircraft to conduct aerial work operations if such operations are designated by the manufacturer and specified in the aircraft's pilot operating handbook or operating limitations, as applicable, and in the manufacturer's statement of compliance for the aircraft in accordance with § 21.190.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters welcomed the proposed rule to allow aerial work operations for certain light-sport category aircraft. These commenters stated this operational expansion of light-sport category aircraft would enhance the industry. However, FAA received several comments requesting FAA define “aerial work” and requesting clarity on the types of aircraft and operations subject to the exception. For the reasons discussed subsequently, this final rule adopts § 91.327(a)(3), as proposed in the NPRM, with one minor editorial amendment to change the phrase “aircraft's statement of compliance” to “manufacturer's statement of compliance for the aircraft” for clarity and to align with the terminology used in § 21.190. In addition, as proposed in the NPRM, this final rule changes one word in the title of § 91.327 from “having” to “issued” in order to align this section with the terminology used in §§ 21.190 and 21.191.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Defining Aerial Work</HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA received several comments regarding the definition of “aerial work” and what types of operations should be considered aerial work. USUA, NCE Inc., SkyRunner, LLC, Doroni Aerospace, and 3F organizations as well an individual commenter recommended that aerial work operations should be broadened and defined in § 1.1. In addition, these commenters offered suggestions on how aerial work should be defined, such as including specific operational requirements, an FAA-approved comprehensive list of operations, and a delineation from commercial flights based on the purpose of the flight (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         for transportation or local work). USUA specifically proposed FAA define aerial work as VFR flights for compensation or hire that take off and land at the same location.
                    </P>
                    <P>Doroni Aerospace agreed that the scope of allowable aerial work should be determined by the capability of the aircraft design and defined by ASTM consensus standards, but it suggested expanding aerial work to allow additional opportunities for manufacturers and operators, such as by including the carriage of persons or property. 3F suggested that aerial work operations include ride-sharing operations, and one individual commenter similarly suggested FAA extend the definition of aerial work to encompass the carrying of cargo for hire.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA has consistently interpreted the term “aerial work” to mean work done from the air with the same departure and destination points, while no property of another is carried on the aircraft, and only persons essential to the operation are carried on board the aircraft. Though there is a list of some aerial work operations in § 119.1(e)(4), this list is not exhaustive or comprehensive.
                        <SU>305</SU>
                         As proposed in the NPRM, certain aerial work operations for aircraft that meet the applicable consensus standard for that operation, based on the manufacturer's designation, will be permitted. Accordingly, to permit future innovation, FAA declines to create a strict regulatory definition for aerial work and is instead providing a path for a risk-based assessment of current and future aerial tasks through the use of consensus standards.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35159"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Specifically in response to Doroni Aerospace's and 3F's comments regarding the carriage of persons or property for hire, as noted previously, FAA generally does not consider aerial work to include the carriage of passengers or property.
                        <SU>306</SU>
                         The carriage of property of another or persons not essential to the operation is outside the scope of aerial work and does not meet the exception in § 91.327(a)(3). Carriage of persons or property for compensation and hire is reserved, with some limited exceptions, for aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates. This is because standard category aircraft are designed, manufactured, and produced with FAA oversight from inception through certification, to include showing compliance across a broad spectrum of regulatory and design standards, and thus, ensure the highest level of safety for the carriage of persons or property for hire. Therefore, FAA declines to expand the scope of aerial work allowed under § 91.327(a)(3) to include the carriage of non-essential persons or property for hire, and this rule will not allow light-sport category aircraft holding airworthiness certificates issued under § 21.190 to carry non-essential persons or property for compensation or hire.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Accordingly, FAA cautions that any operation that exceeds the bounds of FAA's aerial work interpretation (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         an operation that carries non-essential persons or property, or does not have the same departure and destination points) is not authorized by § 91.327(a)(3). In addition, any operation involving compensation or hire that is beyond the scope of what FAA considers to be aerial work would also not meet the exception in § 119.1(e)(4) and may require a commercial operator or air carrier certificate under part 119.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Aerial Work Does Not Include Air Tours</HD>
                    <P>
                        Lockwood Aircraft Corp, LAMA, SkyRunner, and Fly Eagle Sport requested to broaden the interpretation of aerial work to include sightseeing, air tours, or both. These comments included recommendations on how aerial work air tours could be defined and their operational considerations (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         tours would be limited to unscheduled flights, made under VFR conditions, with commercial certificated pilots, tours beginning and terminating at the same location, and the aircraft used would conform to consensus standards with required inspections).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In response to these organizations' recommendations to include air tours in a broadened definition of aerial work, FAA notes that nonstop commercial air tours have historically been treated as a distinct category of operation from aerial work. A commercial air tour is defined in § 110.2 as a flight conducted for compensation or hire in an airplane, powered-lift, or rotorcraft where a purpose of the flight is sightseeing. This definition inherently includes the carriage of passengers who are not essential or necessary to perform the flight operation 
                        <SU>307</SU>
                         and, therefore, FAA has previously interpreted air tours to be outside the scope of the aerial work exception.
                        <SU>308</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Moreover, nonstop commercial air tours and aerial work are separately itemized as exclusions from part 119 certification requirements in § 119.1(e)(2) and (e)(4), respectively. In accordance with the requirements of § 119.1(e)(2), nonstop commercial air tours are reserved for aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates. As explained herein, the carriage of persons and property for hire is typically reserved for aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates, to ensure the highest level of safety for passengers. As such, commercial air tours must not be conducted with light-sport category aircraft. Thus, this final rule will not be combining these separate kinds of operations and does not authorize light-sport category aircraft to conduct commercial air tours using the exception in § 91.327(a)(3).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">iii. Aerial Work for Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft and Powered Parachutes</HD>
                    <P>USUA and two individual commenters recommended that weight-shift-control aircraft should also be allowed to conduct aerial work operations. They asserted these aircraft are uniquely suited for aerial work operations like low-altitude aerial survey and search and rescue missions. With regard to powered parachutes, one manufacturer and ten individuals commented that powered parachutes should be allowed to conduct aerial work operations for compensation and hire. Their opinion is that powered parachutes, in particular, are well suited for aerial work operations due to slow and stable platforms. Moreover, two commenters stated powered parachute airframes are designed and capable of enduring basic flight training, so they posited that those powered parachutes airframes can easily and safely perform aerial work operations too. The manufacturer further contended that FAA would provide preferential treatment if it allowed some light-sport category aircraft to conduct aerial work and excluded other aircraft like powered parachutes.</P>
                    <P>In response to the comments, FAA states that § 91.327(a)(3) does not specifically exclude any type of aircraft. Accordingly, any new light-sport category aircraft, including weight-shift-control aircraft and powered parachutes, certificated on or after July 24, 2026 may be eligible to conduct aerial work. The aircraft will have to meet the aerial work requirements of part 22 and the specific FAA-accepted consensus standards that act as a means of compliance to those requirements. In addition, the aircraft manufacturer must provide the corresponding documentation requirements in § 21.190(c) and (d).</P>
                    <P>However, a pilot must still have appropriate pilot privileges to conduct aerial work for compensation or hire in these aircraft. The changes to § 91.327(a)(3) do not alter pilot certification requirements. For example, this rule does not amend § 61.315(c)(1) or (2), which prohibit the holder of a sport pilot certificate from carrying a passenger or property for compensation or hire and from operating for compensation or hire, respectively. A further explanation of the changes to pilot certificates and privileges under part 61 can be found in section IV.H, Sport Pilot Certification and Privileges, of this rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">iv. Aerial Work for Gyroplanes</HD>
                    <P>One flight school and a separate individual recommended that FAA allow commercial aerial work operations for gyroplanes. It is their opinion that gyroplanes are ideal for commercial applications, like aerial photography, news reporting, aerial tours, and search and rescue.</P>
                    <P>FAA notes that as proposed in the NPRM, and as adopted in this final rule, on or after July 24, 2026, any class of aircraft, including gyroplanes, is eligible for certification in the light-sport category, provided the aircraft meets the performance-based requirements of part 22 and the eligibility criteria in §§ 21.190 and 22.100.</P>
                    <P>
                        Accordingly, gyroplanes that have been issued special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category are able to conduct commercial aerial work operations as long as the requirements of § 91.327(a)(3) are met. Specifically, the aircraft will have to meet the aerial work requirements of part 22 and the specific FAA-accepted consensus standards that act as a means of compliance to those requirements. And per § 91.327(a)(3), aerial work operations will need to be specified in the aircraft's pilot operating handbook or operating limitations, as applicable, and specified in the manufacturer's 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35160"/>
                        statement of compliance for the aircraft, in accordance with § 21.190.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Towing a Glider or Unpowered Ultralight Vehicle</HD>
                    <P>This final rule maintains the current exception in § 91.327(a)(1) allowing for compensation or hire operations in a light-sport category aircraft to tow a glider or an unpowered ultralight vehicle in accordance with § 91.309. As explained previously, this final rule also adopts a new exception, § 91.327(a)(3), which will allow some light-sport category aircraft to conduct certain aerial work operations.</P>
                    <P>The SSF noted positive support for the broad goals of this NPRM. However, SSF expressed concern that the addition of the aerial work exception in § 91.327(a)(3) may cause confusion regarding glider towing operation because the proposed revisions to § 91.327(a) did not remove or add clarifying text to § 91.327(a)(1). The SSF stated if FAA views glider towing as separate from aerial work, this should be clarified. In addition, the SSF noted the proposed amendments to aircraft certification rules in §§ 21.190(c)(2)(iii), 21.190(e), 21.190(e)(6), 22.120, and 22.195(d) require a manufacturer to identify the kinds of aerial work operations that may be conducted using the aircraft but do not include a similar requirement for glider towing operations. The commenter further stated § 91.327(a)(3) requires manufacturers to document the types of approved aerial work operations in the POH but that there is not a similar requirement in § 91.327(a)(1) for glider towing operations.</P>
                    <P>
                        In response to SSF's comment, FAA is clarifying that the towing of gliders and unpowered ultralight vehicles is not considered aerial work for purposes of § 91.327(a)(3). Since 2004, § 91.327(a)(1) has allowed light-sport category aircraft to tow a glider or an unpowered ultralight vehicle for compensation or hire in accordance with § 91.309. FAA recognizes glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle towing as a specialized operation with its own specific regulations, such as §§ 91.309 and 61.69. These specific regulations require additional safety mitigations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         aircraft equipage, pilot experience and training requirements, towline specifications, and ATC or FAA flight service station coordination), which may not be applicable to typical aerial work operations. Accordingly, this final rule is not intended to change the preexisting exception in § 91.327(a)(1), and, with the revisions to § 91.309(a)(2) adopted by this final rule, FAA is reiterating its intention that all towing of gliders and unpowered ultralight vehicles by aircraft holding a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category be accomplished in accordance with the requirements of § 91.309.
                    </P>
                    <P>With respect to SSF's comment regarding whether glider towing operations conducted under the exception in § 91.327(a)(1) must be specified in the POH, it has always been the position of FAA, since the exception was created by the 2004 final rule, that an aircraft must meet any applicable consensus standards for glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle towing and must be operated in accordance with any towing procedures and limitations outlined in the POH. For example, the annex in ASTM Standard F2245, which is applicable to light-sport category aircraft, includes FAA-accepted consensus standards for the design and performance of airplanes that are used to tow gliders, and this standard specifies that aircraft manufacturers must include operating limitations applicable to towing operations in the POH. Accordingly, the POH for a light-sport category aircraft equipped for towing should already meet the requirements of ASTM Standard F2245, Annex A1.7, and, in turn, any light-sport category aircraft certified to that standard would be required to operate in accordance with those requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        This final rule, as explained previously in section IV.E.2, adds an explicit requirement in § 21.190(c)(2)(iv) that the POH include any instructions or limitations necessary to safely conduct towing operations. This rule also adds a requirement in § 21.190(d)(3) 
                        <SU>309</SU>
                         that the manufacturer's statement of compliance specify any towing operations the manufacturer has determined may be safely conducted. Therefore, in the interest of clarity, and in alignment with these certification standards in this rule, FAA agrees with SSF's suggestion to add language to § 91.327(a)(1) clarifying that, similar to aerial work operations, towing operations conducted under this exception must be specified in the aircraft's pilot operating handbook or operating limitations, as applicable, and specified in the manufacturer's statement of compliance for the aircraft. And, with respect to the SSF's reference to aircraft certification requirements in § 21.190 and part 22, further discussion of these requirements may be found in sections IV.E.2, IV.E.5.c, IV.F.14, and IV.F.30 of this rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Maximum Occupants in Light-Sport Category Aircraft Operations</HD>
                    <P>This final rule adopts § 91.327(f)(1) and (2) as proposed in the NPRM. FAA anticipates the expansion of aerial work in this rule, along with the other amendments applicable to light-sport category aircraft, may lead to an increased interest in light-sport category aircraft operations that carry a higher number of occupants. The addition of § 91.327(f)(1) and (2) addresses these concerns. The new regulations state that no person may operate an airplane certificated as a light-sport category aircraft when carrying more than four occupants, including the pilot. For light-sport category aircraft other than airplanes, the new language also states that no person may operate such aircraft when carrying more than two occupants, including the pilot.</P>
                    <P>USUA commented favorably about the expansion of airplane seating to four occupants but requested FAA similarly increase the maximum occupancy for other types of light-sport category aircraft. Specifically, USUA proposed amending § 91.327(f)(2) to authorize operation with more than two occupants. Another commenter, similarly, wanted light-sport category airships (lighter-than-air) aircraft to allow for up to ten occupants. Lastly, a self-identified flight instructor opined that three-seated weight-shift-control trikes are as safe as the two-seated trikes as long as the additional occupants are seated in a position that maintains a balanced center of gravity. As such, the flight instructor recommended that private pilots flying weight-shift-controlled trikes should be able to operate with three occupants on board, and suggested FAA revise the proposed regulatory language under § 91.327(f)(2) to allow for a person to operate a weight-shift-control aircraft certificated in the light-sport category with three occupants. In addition to this recommendation, the flight instructor agreed that sport pilots flying weight-shift-controlled trikes should be allowed to carry only one occupant.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA appreciates these commenters' suggestions for a revision to the proposed language § 91.327(f)(2) to allow for a person to operate aircraft other than airplanes certificated in the light-sport category with additional occupants, beyond the two occupants proposed by the rule. Section IV.F.4 of this rule discusses FAA's rationale for retaining a two-seat limit for eligibility for a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category for aircraft other than airplanes. These reasons also support not expanding the number of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35161"/>
                        persons on board a light-sport category aircraft other than an airplane.
                    </P>
                    <P>Accordingly, as explained previously in section IV.F.4, this final rule retains in the certification requirements in § 22.100 the maximum seating capacity of not more than two persons, including the pilot, for all classes of light-sport category aircraft other than airplanes. Therefore, to be eligible for a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category issued under § 21.190, an aircraft other than an airplane can only have seating capacity for two occupants, including the pilot. As a result, any aircraft other than an airplane holding a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category is limited to two seats. In alignment with the certification requirements, this rule will retain the maximum occupancy limit in § 91.327(f) of no more than two persons for classes of light-sport category aircraft other than airplanes, which includes gyroplanes, gliders, weight-shift-control aircraft, powered parachutes, balloons, airships, and new types of light-sport category aircraft such as rotorcraft and powered-lift.</P>
                    <P>FAA may consider future rulemaking to increase the two-occupant limitation for classes of aircraft other than airplanes as FAA's experience with these aircraft increases and consensus standards are developed.</P>
                    <P>FAA also notes that the addition of § 91.327(f)(1) does not change the restriction in part 61 for pilots holding a sport pilot certificate, which does not allow such pilots to carry more than two persons, including the pilot. Pilots holding valid higher grade of certification, such as a private, commercial, or ATP certificate, may operate light-sport category aircraft with the higher number of occupants allowed under the new § 91.327(f)(1). Moreover, even with the addition of § 91.327(f)(1), persons carrying passengers in operations for compensation or hire that do not qualify for an exception in § 119.1(e) must hold an appropriate air carrier or commercial operating certificate as required by part 119.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Operating Limitations for Experimental Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>In the NPRM, FAA proposed to amend § 91.319(c) to allow the Administrator to issue operating limitations to certain aircraft with experimental airworthiness certificates to conduct operations over densely populated areas, in congested airways, or both, for all phases of flight, which includes, but is not limited to, takeoffs and landings. This final rule adopts the amendments to § 91.319(c) as proposed in the NPRM, with a few minor administrative changes. Section 91.319(c) expands the types of operations authorized over densely populated areas or in congested airways for certain aircraft with experimental airworthiness certificates by allowing the Administrator to issue operating limitations that allow such operations for all flight segments. The general prohibition against experimental aircraft operating over densely populated areas or in congested airways continues to apply to all experimental aircraft that do not hold appropriate operating limitations issued by the Administrator.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Section 91.319(c) Regulatory Language</HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA received a few comments on the proposed regulatory language for § 91.319(c). One commenter suggested that FAA provide an official definition of congested airway because they assert the term is vague and is applied in an inconsistent manner by local FSDO inspectors, which causes confusion for pilots about where they can fly. Piper, along with another commenter, requested FAA amend the language of § 91.319(c) to replace “takeoffs and landings” with “approaches and departures,” since many aircraft operations occur within the vicinity of an airport without an actual landing. Piper stated this language change would allow for multiple approaches and certain flight-testing operations that do not require a physical landing and therefore may not be compliant with the “takeoffs and landings” requirement in § 91.319(c). Another commenter proposed new regulatory language that would prohibit prolonged operation over densely populated areas and allow pattern work 
                        <SU>310</SU>
                         as an exception to § 91.319(c). Lastly, one individual requested that FAA remove paragraph (c) from § 91.319 entirely, asserting that most pilots of experimental aircraft are in violation of this regulation as many airports are surrounded by densely populated areas.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In response, FAA declines to define the terms “densely populated areas” or “congested airways” in this final rule. FAA historically applies these terms on a case-by-case basis,
                        <SU>311</SU>
                         which allows for flexibility in its administration of balancing the interests of the pilot's operation and protecting persons and property on the ground. In response to Piper's request, FAA notes the NPRM proposed removing in entirety the “takeoffs and landing” limitation from the regulatory text. While the previous § 91.319(c) only authorized the Administrator to issue special operating limitations to conduct takeoffs and landings, the proposed new § 91.319(c) allows the Administrator to issue operating limitations for all flight segments, which is broad enough to include approaches and departures. Accordingly, it is not necessary to amend the language of § 91.319(c) to include approaches and departures, because the new regulatory language already authorizes the Administrator to issue operating limitations for all phases of flight, which includes allowing approaches and departures to be conducted over densely populated areas and in congested airways.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA declines to remove paragraph (c) from § 91.319 as one commenter requested, as their assertion that most pilots of experimental aircraft are in violation of this regulation due to densely populated areas surrounding many airports is inaccurate. Notwithstanding the general prohibition against experimental aircraft operating over densely populated areas or in congested airways, FAA does not agree with this commenter's assertion that these operations are in violation of § 91.319(c) when the Administrator has issued operating limitations authorizing takeoffs and landings. While this final rule authorizes the issuance of operating limitations that include additional phases of flight, FAA intends to retain the general prohibition on operations over densely populated areas or in congested airways for aircraft that do not hold appropriate operating limitations.</P>
                    <P>With respect to the commenter's proposal for new regulatory language to prohibit prolonged operation over densely populated areas and allow pattern work as an exception, FAA does not agree with changing the proposed regulatory text to codify these exceptions. Some of these operations may be authorized by operating limitations in accordance with the policy and procedures that will be outlined in a future update to FAA Order 8130.2, which the Agency will issue in draft form for public comment. FAA intends to retain the general prohibition on operations over densely populated areas and in congested airways for all experimental aircraft that do not hold appropriate operating limitations allowing such operations. Moreover, “pattern work” is not a recognized phase of flight and is not clearly defined within or by regulation; therefore, its inclusion in this regulation may create more ambiguity.</P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed herein, FAA is adopting as final the language proposed in the NPRM, with two minor changes. First, in the NPRM, FAA inadvertently removed the phrase “congested airway” from the proposed text of § 91.319(c). 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35162"/>
                        FAA did not intend to remove the general prohibition on operations in congested airways, as evidenced by the repeated discussion of “congested airways” in the preamble of the NPRM. In this final rule, FAA is retaining the phrase “over a densely populated area or in a congested airway,” in § 91.319(c), as it read previously. Second, FAA has added the word “airworthiness” after “experimental” in the title of the section and throughout § 91.319 to conform and align the language in this section with the rest of this final rule. Adding the word “airworthiness” is not intended to change the meaning or intent of these paragraphs. Other than these two minor changes, FAA is not making any other modifications to the regulatory text proposed in the NPRM.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Policy Related to the Issuance of Operating Limitations</HD>
                    <P>FAA received several comments on this proposal from industry associations such as EAA, AOPA, NATA, NBAA, GAMA, and the Manufacturers Flight Test Council; from industry manufacturers such as Hartzell Propeller, Bombardier, and Textron; from Contract Air Support providers Tactical Air Support, Inc. and Top Aces Corp; as well as from individual commenters. The commenters were generally supportive of the proposal to amend the language in § 91.319(c) and many requested to collaborate with FAA in developing and expanding the policies related to the issuance of such operating limitations. Most of these comments focused on FAA's internal policies and procedures governing the issuance of operating limitations.</P>
                    <P>Specifically, some commenters expressed concern that FAA may abandon well-accepted, risk-based certification processes for experimental aircraft. Some commenters voiced concern and varying opposition to the NPRM preamble language that detailed FAA's proposed policy to administer this change. In particular, the industry associations objected to the policy proposed in the NPRM that plans-built aircraft or other experimental aircraft be excluded from this operating privilege. Commenters noted FAA Order 8130.2 currently allows FAA to issue operating limitations for these types of aircraft for certain flights over densely populated areas, following risk mitigation through Phase I flight testing. An individual commenter added that if amateur and kit-built aircraft have been issued a special airworthiness certificate and deemed safe for flight, then restrictions on issuing operating limitations should be removed regardless of whether the aircraft is kit or plans-built.</P>
                    <P>One individual opposed the NPRM's proposed policy statement that experimental aircraft having a single point of failure should not be eligible for the proposed operating limitations over densely populated areas or in congested airways. They asserted that because some legacy aircraft that already hold such operating limitations can have single points of failure, such a restriction would inconstantly apply risk mitigation.</P>
                    <P>Textron expressed concerns that the NPRM indicated FAA may further restrict operations of aircraft with ejection seats or detachable external stores to operate over densely populated areas. Textron stated existing prohibitions on external stores are effective and prevent inadvertent detachment while operating in the national airspace system. Textron expressed concern that further restriction would severely hamper new product development with no safety benefit. Textron further stated it is a false assumption to equate ejection seats with increased risk since the probability of a modern defense aircraft suffering a catastrophic failure is equivalent to any other aircraft in that category or class. It asserted that ejection seats are not installed to counteract an unsafe aircraft characteristic. Top Aces Corp, in contrast to Textron's specific concerns for restricted operations for aircraft with ejection seats or detachable external stores, generally requested that all former military aircraft holding experimental airworthiness certificates operating repositioning flights be eligible for operating limitations over densely populated areas.</P>
                    <P>In response, FAA agrees with the commenters' assertions that the preamble is not the appropriate venue for discussion about policy and relative risk, and about which classes, designs, or specific experimental aircraft may or may not be eligible for this operating limitation. Accordingly, and in response to Top Aces Corp's request, FAA will not be publishing exclusionary criteria for any aircraft in this final rule and this preamble does not reference any class, group, or category of aircraft that may be excluded from obtaining certain operating limitations. With respect to commenters' concerns that FAA may be changing or further restricting aircraft equipped with external stores, it is not the intent of FAA to codify any new restrictions on external stores in § 91.319 of this final rule.</P>
                    <P>As explained in the NPRM, FAA will continue to use a risk-based approach when evaluating a given operator's eligibility for an operating limitation allowing operation over a densely populated area or in a congested airway. FAA will utilize follow-on policymaking documents, such as FAA Order 8130.2, to publish policy related to the issuance of operating limitations that allow flight over densely populated areas, in congested airways, or both. FAA intends to publish for public comment a draft policy governing the issuance of operating limitations and a non-exhaustive list of factors FAA intends to consider for eligibility, following the publication of this final rule. FAA will consider the associations', manufacturers', and other commenters' concerns and recommendations discussed above as FAA Order 8130.2 is revised and new procedures relating to operating limitations are developed. The publication process will also allow other interested parties to provide additional feedback on FAA's policy governing the issuance of operating limitations. Following the receipt of public comments, FAA expects a revised FAA Order 8130.2 incorporating these changes to be published prior to the effective date of this final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Conforming Amendments to § 91.319</HD>
                    <P>This final rule makes conforming amendments to § 91.319 to standardize the language used in this section with the rest of the rule. In paragraphs (a) through (g) and paragraph (j), the term “experimental certificate” is replaced with the term “experimental airworthiness certificate.”</P>
                    <P>Additional changes were made to § 91.319(e) and (f) to align these paragraphs with the changes made to §§ 1.1 and 21.191(i). Specifically, as explained subsequently in section IV.L.1.a of this rule, effective October 22, 2025, the airworthiness certification of light-sport category kit aircraft, which previously occurred under § 21.191(i)(2), will occur under the § 21.191(k); and the airworthiness certification of former light-sport category aircraft, currently under § 21.191(i)(3), will occur under the new § 21.191(l). In addition, effective July 24, 2026, the definition of “light-sport aircraft” will be removed from § 1.1.</P>
                    <P>
                        Accordingly, FAA has removed the term “light-sport aircraft” from the introductory language in paragraphs (e) and (f) of § 91.319 and from subparagraph (e)(2), effective July 24, 2026. In tandem with the removal of this term, FAA is adding a reference to “§ 21.191(i), (k), or (l)” in each of these paragraphs to clarify the aircraft to which these paragraphs are applicable. Sections 21.191(i), (k), and (l), as 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35163"/>
                        adopted by this final rule, include the same aircraft as the previous § 21.191(i)(1), (2), and (3). Therefore, these conforming amendments are intended to align and standardize the language used throughout this rule and are not intended to change the applicability or meaning of these paragraphs.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Operating Limitations for Restricted Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>
                        This final rule responds to the evolving needs of restricted category civil aircraft and provides for future growth and innovation without compromising safety by codifying in part 21 previously approved special purposes for restricted category aircraft operations.
                        <SU>312</SU>
                         The NPRM did not propose any corresponding changes to the operational rules for restricted category aircraft in § 91.313. However, as discussed previously in section IV.K.2, the NPRM did propose, and this final rule adopted, changes regarding the issuance of operating limitations for aircraft with experimental airworthiness certificates in § 91.319(c), that allow the Administrator to authorize flight over densely populated areas or in congested areas for all phases of flight and flight segments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        This amendment to § 91.319(c) without a corresponding change to § 91.313(e) may have inadvertently placed restricted category aircraft below experimental aircraft on the safety continuum, which is out of alignment with the way in which these categories of aircraft are typically regulated.
                        <SU>313</SU>
                         To apply a uniform safety continuum throughout the aviation industry, FAA recognizes that acceptable level of risk varies between sectors and implements regulations accordingly. Accordingly, to properly realign restricted category civil aircraft with experimental aircraft within the safety continuum, FAA is clarifying § 91.313(e) to ensure the Administrator is authorized to issue operating limitations to restricted category aircraft using the same risk-based approach as is used to issue operating limitations to experimental aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>Specifically, FAA is amending § 91.313(e) by removing the word “special,” which preceded “operating limitations,” in order to align this paragraph with the language used for experimental aircraft in § 91.319(c). The word “special” in § 91.313(e) may have inadvertently precluded the issuance of operating limitations; and consequently, operating limitations were rarely issued to restricted category aircraft in practice. The removal of the term “special” is intended to eliminate any ambiguity surrounding the Administrator's ability to issue such operating limitations to restricted category aircraft.</P>
                    <P>It is FAA's intention that, with this clarification, certain restricted category aircraft may be issued operating limitations authorizing flight over densely populated areas, in congested airways, or near a busy airport using a similar risk-based approach as is used for experimental aircraft. In addition, § 91.313(e) retains the authority of the Administrator to issue an operator a certificate of waiver.</P>
                    <P>As with the issuance of these operating limitations to experimental aircraft, FAA will use a risk-based approach when evaluating a given operator's eligibility for an operating limitation to certain aircraft holding restricted airworthiness certificates. As explained previously with respect to the issuance of operating limitations for aircraft holding experimental airworthiness certificates, following the publication of this final rule, FAA will be publishing for public comment a draft policy relating to the issuance of operating limitations and a non-exhaustive list of factors FAA considers when considering a given aircraft's eligibility. This process will allow interested parties to provide additional feedback on FAA's policy applicable to the issuance of operating limitations, and those comments provided will be considered in the development of an updated FAA Order 8130.2. FAA expects the revised FAA Order 8130.2 to be published prior to July 24, 2026, the effective date of this final rule applicable to § 91.313.</P>
                    <P>In addition, this final rule makes a minor amendment to § 91.313(b)(3) to allow restricted category aircraft to be relocated for exhibition. Currently under § 91.313(a), a restricted category aircraft cannot be operated for other than the special purpose for which it is certificated, or other than an operation necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated with that special purpose. This final rule retains and does not amend this restriction. Instead, this minor amendment adds “exhibition” to the list in § 91.313(b)(3) of operations that are considered necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated with a special purpose operation. This change allows restricted category aircraft to fly to exhibitions, trade shows, and other events. FAA cautions, however, that while at the exhibition event, operation of the aircraft is still limited to the “special purpose for which [the aircraft] is certificated,” in accordance with § 91.313(a)(2). Therefore, depending on the aircraft's special purpose, an aircraft may be limited to static display at such events.</P>
                    <P>This amendment is intended to realign restricted category civil aircraft within the safety continuum. Both restricted category aircraft and aircraft holding experimental airworthiness certificates are limited in operations to the special purposes for which the aircraft is certificated, with limited exceptions. However, experimental airworthiness certificates can be issued for multiple special purposes, including for the purpose of exhibition, whereas restricted category aircraft cannot. There is no special purpose operation for which restricted category aircraft may be certificated that allows operation for exhibition. This places these aircraft out of alignment on the safety continuum.</P>
                    <P>Accordingly, the minor amendments made to § 91.313(b) and (e) are intended to ensure certain restricted category aircraft, which hold a higher-grade airworthiness certificate than an experimental aircraft, have similar privileges as that of certain experimental aircraft.</P>
                    <P>Though this amendment would allow restricted category aircraft to operate for the purpose of relocating to a trade show or other kind of exhibition, a restricted category aircraft will still need to be issued appropriate operating limitations or a certificate of waiver to operate such a relocation flight over a densely populated area, in a congested airway, or near a busy airport, in accordance with § 91.313(c).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Operating Limitations for Experimental Aircraft Operating Space Support Vehicle Flights</HD>
                    <P>FAA received three comments regarding the new § 91.331 proposed in the NPRM, which codifies section 581 of FAA Reauthorization Act of 2018 (the Act) and 49 U.S.C. 44740. The Act and corresponding statute authorized certain operators of aircraft with special airworthiness certification in the experimental category to conduct space support vehicle flights to simulate space flight conditions carrying persons or property for compensation or hire.</P>
                    <P>
                        First, ALPA suggested FAA codify its space support vehicle regulations in title 14, chapter III, which governs Commercial Space Transportation, rather than in title 14, chapter I, as proposed in the NPRM. ALPA claimed that consolidating the space support vehicle and space support vehicle flight regulations into title 14, chapter III will ensure that all commercial space research, development, and operations approvals are contained in one dedicated set of regulations for commercial space.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35164"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>While FAA appreciates ALPA's goal of consolidation, FAA has determined the proposed regulations related to space support vehicles are appropriately located in part 21 and 91, which are in title 14, chapter I. ALPA's proposed location, title 14, chapter III, “Commercial Space Transportation,” explicitly applies to the procedures and requirements applicable to activities conducted under 51 U.S.C. subtitle V, chapter 509. When an aircraft is operating as a space support vehicle for the purpose of simulating space flight conditions, and not for the purpose of a launch, title 51 is not applicable. Instead, the operation and the aircraft are governed by title 49. Therefore, the regulations proposed in the NPRM to implement the Act, and associated 49 U.S.C. 44740, are appropriately located in title 14, chapter I, which applies generally to all aircraft regulated by FAA operating under title 49.</P>
                    <P>Second, ALPA recommended that FAA develop guidance materials to clarify and expand on the terms and use of space support vehicles. ALPA recommended the guidance provide the public with a better understanding of the dividing line between space support vehicle operations and commercial space launch operations to ensure that there is no operational safety gap between the two types of operations. In response, FAA agrees that guidance materials will be helpful for both the operator and the agency in determining how to implement and apply the new § 91.331. As with the other provisions of this final rule that address operating limitations, FAA anticipates publishing for public comment a draft policy governing the issuance of operating limitations for space support vehicles. FAA will consider the comments submitted in response to the NPRM, as well as any new comments submitted in response to the publication of the draft policy, in formulating its revision to FAA Order 8310.2. FAA anticipates a revised FAA Order 8130.2 incorporating this guidance will be finalized and published prior to the effective date of the new § 91.331.</P>
                    <P>Virgin Galactic also provided similar comments on FAA's proposal in the NPRM. Virgin Galactic supported FAA's proposed regulatory language in § 91.331 because it did not deviate from the straightforward Congressional statutory mandates. However, Virgin Galactic took issue with FAA's suggested policies for implementing the new regulation. Specifically, Virgin Galactic read the NPRM to be proposing a “single use” approval process that would require FAA to review and approve every proposed space support vehicle flight prior to its occurrence, which it viewed as cumbersome. Virgin also raised concerns with the NPRM's proposed fact-intensive policy for reviewing and approving requests for operating limitations and questioned FAA's methodology for and ability to review whether a particular research and development task for a proposed flight requires the unique capabilities of the aircraft and whether a person qualifies as a potential space flight participant, government astronaut, or crew.</P>
                    <P>FAA did not intend to give the impression in the NPRM that every proposed space support vehicle flight would require individual approval. As is current practice, FAA will continue to issue experimental airworthiness certificates for eligible space support vehicles subject to the durations of § 21.181. As described in section IV.G.3, this final rule increases the duration of an experimental airworthiness certificate issued for research and development, showing compliance with regulations, crew training, or market survey. Such certificates will remain effective for three years from the date of issue or renewal unless FAA prescribes a shorter period. Accordingly, repeated space support vehicle flights are permitted under an experimental airworthiness certificate as long as the experimental airworthiness certificate remains in effect and the operation meets the requirements of § 91.331 and any applicable operating limitations.  </P>
                    <P>Regarding Virgin's concern about FAA's proposed policies for implementing § 91.331, FAA is taking Virgin's comments under consideration, and as stated previously, FAA will be publishing for public review and comment proposed policies and guidance for the issuance of operating limitations in FAA Order 8130.2 prior to the effective date of the new § 91.331. FAA has determined that this final rule is not the appropriate place to finalize policies or guidance for the issuance of operating limitations relating to space support vehicles.</P>
                    <P>The intent of this final rule is simply to codify statutory language and ensure that FAA's regulations harmonize and do not conflict with 49 U.S.C. 44740. Regarding the definitions in § 1.1, NPRM proposed adding two new definitions for “space support vehicle” and “space support vehicle flight.” The definitions are consistent with the way these terms are used and defined in 49 U.S.C. 44740 and 51 U.S.C. 50902. The only comment received regarding the definitions noted the definitions were identical to those used in the statutes. Therefore, FAA is adopting these definitions as proposed.</P>
                    <P>FAA did not receive any comments about the regulatory text of § 91.331. Therefore, FAA is adopting § 91.331 as proposed, with one minor clarifying amendment. The NPRM proposed § 91.331(a)(1) to read: “The aircraft has a special airworthiness certificate issued under § 21.191 of this chapter to operate the aircraft for the purpose of conducting a space support vehicle flight.” FAA has determined that the use of the word “purpose” here may be confusing because this final rule explicitly does not create a new experimental purpose under § 21.191 for space support vehicle flights. A plain reading of the proposed § 91.331(a)(1) may give the impression that an operator must obtain a certificate under § 21.191 for the “purpose of conducting a space support vehicle flight,” which does not exist. Instead, as stated in the NPRM, space support vehicles would conduct space support vehicle flights under an existing § 21.191 experimental purpose, such as research and development or crew training. Therefore, FAA is removing this superfluous language, and § 91.331(a)(1) will now read: “The aircraft has a special airworthiness certificate issued under § 21.191 of this chapter.” This minor amendment does not change the application, intent, or meaning of the regulation, as paragraph (a) already limits the applicability of § 91.331 to persons operating an aircraft “to conduct a space support vehicle flight.”</P>
                    <P>Lastly, IAR commented that it is currently authorized to conduct space vehicle launch support operations with its restricted category special airworthiness certificate, and requested FAA refrain from making any regulatory changes or taking other actions that may limit restricted category operators' ability to conduct space vehicle launch support operations. In response, FAA states that the changes to §§ 91.331 and 91.319 regarding space support vehicle flights are solely intended to implement section 581 of the Act and, therefore, only apply to aircraft with special airworthiness certification in the experimental category. This final rule is not intended to impact the ability of any restricted category aircraft to continue to conduct authorized space vehicle launch support operations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Right-of-Way Rules</HD>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM proposed amendments to § 91.113(d)(2) and (3) to expand the categories of aircraft listed in the right-of-way rules. Specifically, the proposed amendments replaced an enumerated listing of aircraft categories with the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35165"/>
                        broader term “powered aircraft” and replaced the term “engine-driven” with the term “powered aircraft” to better convey the inclusion of aircraft that may have non-traditional forms of propulsion, including electric propulsion.
                    </P>
                    <P>As further explained, this final rule adopts the changes as proposed in the NPRM, with one minor clarification in paragraph (d)(3) regarding airships. FAA also notes that after the publication of the NPRM, FAA published the final rule for the Integration of Powered-lift: Pilot Certification and Operations (hereinafter “Powered-Lift Rule”), which added a new paragraph (d)(4) to § 91.113. To align paragraph (d)(4) with the rest of the changes made by this final rule, FAA has also replaced the term “engine-driven” with “powered aircraft” in this paragraph.</P>
                    <P>ALPA was generally supportive of the proposed changes to § 91.113 but raised a concern about powered-lift. Specifically, ALPA asserted that the proposed language explicitly treats powered-lift operating in wing-borne flight mode as fixed-wing aircraft; however, powered-lift operating in vertical-lift flight mode are not equivalent to fixed-wing aircraft, and therefore, should not be treated the same under the proposed regulation.</P>
                    <P>
                        In response to ALPA's concern, FAA notes that after the publication of the MOSAIC NPRM, FAA published the final Powered-Lift Rule.
                        <SU>314</SU>
                         This rule amended § 91.113(d)(2) and (3) by adding “powered-lift” to the types of enumerated aircraft in the regulation. When proposing these changes in the NPRM, the Powered-Lift Rule explicitly proposed that powered-lift, airplanes, and rotorcraft should be grouped in the same right-of-way category and did not distinguish between whether the powered-lift was operating in vertical or wing-borne flight mode. As stated in the Powered-Lift Rule NPRM, if a powered-lift is converging with an airplane, the aircraft to the right would have the right-of-way, regardless of the flight mode in which the powered-lift is operating. Furthermore, the Powered-Lift Rule acknowledged that the MOSAIC rule would subsequently amend § 91.113, and thus the changes were intended to be superseded by the publication of this final rule. Accordingly, the amendments adopted in this final rule are consistent with the Powered-Lift Rule, in that a powered-lift is treated as a “powered aircraft” regardless of the flight mode in which it is operating.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter expressed confusion about the proposed language in § 91.113(d)(3), stating that it was not clear which aircraft has the right-of-way when an airship meets an aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft because under the regulation both have the right-of-way over all other powered aircraft. To address this commenter's concern, FAA has amended the proposed language to clarify that an aircraft towing or refueling always has the right-of-way over all other powered aircraft. Section 91.113(d)(3) will now expressly state that an airship has the right-of-way over all other powered aircraft, except for an aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft; and an aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right-of-way over all other powered aircraft.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA also received several comments regarding UAS operations. AURA Network Systems, Inc. (AURA), DroneUp LLC (DroneUp), AUVSI, CDA, and Reliable Robotics Corporation's comments were generally supportive of the NPRM's proposed amendments to § 91.113(d)(2) and (3), but they requested amendments to § 91.113(b) as well. AURA specifically expressed that the NPRM was a logical update to address the ever-expanding complexity of aircraft operating in the NAS, including right-of-way rules. However, AURA suggested that FAA needs to address the concern that UAS operations are not able to comply with the general provision in § 91.113(b) as currently written. AURA posited that the use of the word “see” in this section requires a pilot to use unaided vision to see other aircraft in the vicinity. AURA and CDA submitted that revising § 91.113(b) to include “detect” in addition to seeing and avoiding other aircraft may reduce the UAS industry's regulatory burden by eliminating the need for a certificate of waiver or authorization with respect to right-of-way rules for UAS flights not subject to part 107 and possibly reduce FAA's administrative burden of processing certificate of wavier or authorization requests. Reliable Robotics Corporation similarly recommended the addition of “or detect using a means approved by the Administrator” to § 91.113(b) and AUVSI added that including the term “detect” in § 91.113(b) is consistent with collision avoidance language in ICAO's UAS publication in 2011.
                        <SU>315</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>Generally, each of these commenters wanted pilots to see or detect and avoid other aircraft. They posited that advancements in Detect and Avoid (DAA) technology allows light-sport category aircraft pilots the ability to detect and track all aircraft traffic without human vision, even those without a transponder. Moreover, the commenters maintained that DAA technology and the requested amended language to § 91.113(b) have the potential to improve safety by reducing midair collisions with unmanned aircraft as well as manned aircraft.</P>
                    <P>In response, FAA declines to amend § 91.113(b) as requested by these commenters. FAA deems this request beyond the scope of the MOSAIC rulemaking because FAA did not propose any amendments to § 91.113(b) in the NPRM. Though FAA shares the commenters' mission for improving safety within the NAS by reducing midair collisions with unmanned and manned aircraft, DAA technology is not addressed within this final rule. DAA technology will not be included in this rulemaking for many reasons, which include, but not limited to: (1) additional rulemaking approval and a separate public comment period; (2) additional costs on operators created by equipage issues; (3) additional training and pilot certification requirements; and (4) additional development of a performance standard for its incorporation, each of which are well beyond the scope of the changes proposed by the NPRM. However, the recommendations of AURA, DroneUp, AUVSI, CDA, and Reliable Robotics Corporation may be considered for future rulemaking.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Operations at Airports in Class G Airspace  </HD>
                    <P>This final rule makes two changes to § 91.126(b) that differ from what was proposed in the NPRM. First, with respect to (b)(1), FAA removed the phrase “and powered-lift aircraft operating in wing-borne flight mode.” In the period between the publication of the NPRM and this final rule, FAA published the Powered-Lift Rule. Section 194.302(e) and (f) of the Powered-Lift Rule applied § 91.126(b)(1) to powered-lift operating in wing-borne flight mode and applied and (b)(2) to powered-lift operating in vertical-lift flight mode. Accordingly, the proposed language in § 91.126(b)(1) regarding powered-lift is redundant, as powered-lift operating in wing-borne flight mode are already required to comply with (b)(1). Therefore, FAA removed the language in § 91.126(b)(1) specific to powered-lift.</P>
                    <P>
                        Secondly, with respect to § 91.126(b)(2), FAA received one comment noting that the proposed language was confusing in its applicability to non-powered gliders and gyroplanes, because it required non-powered gliders as well as gyroplanes to avoid the powered fixed-winged traffic pattern, which is a departure from the current practice. Another comment 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35166"/>
                        similarly noted the proposed regulation was silent on non-powered gliders, which are currently allowed to fly within the same traffic pattern as powered aircraft if circumstances permit. The commenter also stated this regulation conflicts with the right-of-way rules in § 91.113(d)(2), because it implies that non-powered gliders must give way to powered, fixed-wing aircraft even though, under § 91.113(d)(2), a glider has the right of way over powered aircraft. Accordingly, the commenter noted the change, as worded, is ambiguous and is counter to current safe practices, producing unexpected traffic conflicts.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA agrees with the commenters that the proposed text was ambiguous with respect to non-powered aircraft. The final rule clarifies paragraph (b)(2) in this final rule by adding the word “powered” before “aircraft,” such that (b)(2) now applies to “any other powered aircraft.” This minor language addition remedies the commenter's concerns regarding non-powered gliders. Consistent with the guidance in AC-90-66C, Non-Towered Flight Operations, if both airplanes and gliders use the same runway, the glider traffic pattern should be inside the pattern of powered aircraft. Gliders may fly the same direction traffic pattern as powered aircraft in certain wind conditions and may use a separate, opposing direction traffic pattern in other wind conditions.</P>
                    <P>With respect to one commenter's statement that proposed § 91.126(b)(2) conflicted with § 91.113, FAA disagrees. It has always been FAA's position that the right-of-way rules in § 91.113 are still in effect throughout the traffic pattern and when landing, even at uncontrolled airports in Class G airspace. This means that all pilots operating at a non-towered airport have the general responsibility to see and avoid under § 91.113(b) and that, per § 91.113(d), when two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way. Specifically, the right-of-way rules in § 91.113(d) apply when aircraft are converging. Therefore, it was not FAA's intention with the proposed changes to § 91.126(b)(2) to suggest that non-powered aircraft, including gliders, must give way to powered aircraft in all circumstances. The revised language adopted in this final rule is intended to remedy that confusion.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Section 91.309</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, FAA proposed to amend § 91.309(a)(2) to correct an oversight in the allowable process to attach a tow hook to eligible light-sport category aircraft.
                        <SU>316</SU>
                         FAA received several comments on the proposed amendment. The Soaring Society of Boulder requested FAA treat light-sport category aircraft equal to standard airworthiness certificated aircraft with respect to towing of gliders and permit installation of a glider tow-hitch in the same manner as standard certificated aircraft. Fly Eagle Sport commented specifically with respect to light-sport category aircraft and stated FAA should clarify in the rule that a tow-hitch approved by the manufacturer can be used. Seven individual commenters asked that § 91.309 allow for light-sport category aircraft towing privileges equivalent to standard category aircraft. Several commenters also suggested that the rule needs to remove “Administrator Approval” requirements for tow hooks for light-sport category aircraft and allow alternate methods of attachment.
                    </P>
                    <P>As explained in the NPRM, § 91.309(a)(2) is amended to remedy an oversight in the 2004 final rule, which required a towing aircraft to be equipped with a tow-hitch “approved by the Administrator” and installed in a manner “approved by the Administrator.” This language was unworkable for light-sport category aircraft and inadvertently precluded such aircraft from towing gliders and unpowered ultralight vehicles, because, in practice, FAA does not routinely approve a tow-hitch or tow-hitch installation on a light sport-category aircraft, since the aircraft itself is not approved (rather, the aircraft must meet industry consensus standards). Accordingly, FAA's final revised § 91.309(a)(2) language applicable to light-sport category aircraft uses the terms “approved by the Administrator,” or “acceptable to the Administrator” with respect to the kind of tow-hitch and “acceptable to FAA” with respect to the manner of installation. The proposed language allows light-sport category aircraft the option to install a tow-hitch that is acceptable to FAA but does not have FAA approval because the aircraft itself was never subject to an FAA approval process. It also allows the use of an “acceptable” method of installation.</P>
                    <P>In contrast, aircraft holding a standard airworthiness certificate must use an FAA-approved tow-hitch and install it in a manner approved by the Administrator, which is more restrictive than the options now available to light-sport category aircraft under the new § 91.309(a)(2). Though several commenters requested light-sport category aircraft be treated equally to standard category aircraft, FAA's intention with the revised § 91.309(a)(2) language was to allow light-sport category aircraft more flexibility than standard aircraft with respect to the kind of tow hooks that can be installed because they can be both “approved” and “acceptable” and may be installed in an “acceptable” rather than “approved” manner.</P>
                    <P>
                        With respect to Fly Eagle Sport's comment regarding light-sport category aircraft, a tow-hitch that is part of the original equipment and therefore part of the manufacturer's authorized design would be considered acceptable to FAA. Section 91.309(a)(2)(iii) would therefore allow a light-sport category aircraft to use and install such an item if it is installed in a manner acceptable to FAA. In addition, § 91.327(b)(5) permits certain persons, other than the manufacturer, who are acceptable to FAA, to authorize alterations to a light-sport category aircraft (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         third-party alteration), and such alterations involving an acceptable tow-hitch would also be acceptable to FAA under § 91.309(a)(2)(iii). FAA adopted § 91.309 in the final rule, as proposed in the NPRM, without any changes.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">8. Section 91.409 Clarifying Amendment</HD>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM proposed to make minor clarifying amendments to § 91.409(c)(1) by removing the first “or” and adding the words “airworthiness certificate” following the word “light-sport” within the list of special airworthiness certificates. In the NPRM, FAA stated the amendments were intended to clarify that an aircraft that carries a special flight permit, a current experimental airworthiness certificate, a light-sport category airworthiness certificate, or a provisional airworthiness certificate is excepted from the requirements in § 91.409(a) and (b). Inadvertently, the words “airworthiness certificate” following “light-sport” were not included in the proposed regulatory text of the NPRM. In this final rule, FAA is effectuating the intent of the NPRM by adding these words. In addition, to conform with the terminology used throughout the rest of this final rule, FAA is changing the term “light-sport airworthiness certificate” to “a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category.” For the same reason, FAA is adding the word “airworthiness” in-between “experimental” and “certificate.” Paragraph (c)(1), as adopted, now reads as follows: “An aircraft that carries a special flight permit, a current experimental airworthiness certificate, a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category, or provisional 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35167"/>
                        airworthiness certificate.” As noted in the NPRM, these amendments are intended to provide better clarity, readability, and understanding for the operator for proper use of the exception.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA received two comments on this language, from AEA/ARSA, which were both supportive of the minor technical amendments to paragraph (c)(1). However, AEA/ARSA's comments suggested that aircraft meeting light-sport performance criteria should also be exempt from the inspection requirement in § 91.409(a)(1). These associations proposed that standard airworthiness certificated aircraft that meet the performance requirements of light-sport and primary category aircraft be allowed to receive an annual condition inspection rather than an annual inspection as is currently required by § 91.409(a). The associations asserted that this revision would standardize inspection criteria and permit certificated mechanics without inspection authorizations to conduct these inspections.</P>
                    <P>In addition to these comments concerning § 91.409(a), two commenters addressed inspections for former military aircraft under § 91.409(f)(3), for which there were no amendments proposed in the NPRM. Specifically, contract air service providers, MSM and Top Aces Corp, recommended including language relating to North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) military service inspection programs in this final rule's preamble. Specifically, they noted under a previous version of FAA Order 8130.2J, which has been superseded by a newer version, Top Aces Corp's guidance allowed military contractors operating former military aircraft to comply with § 91.409(f)(3) by selecting an inspection program recommended by the manufacturer or NATO military service. MSM and Top Aces Corp requested we add clarifying language to this rule regarding this change to FAA Order 8130.2J.</P>
                    <P>In response to AEA/ARSA's comments, FAA will not be adopting any changes to proposed § 91.409(a) in the final rule. The commenters' proposed change is not in the interest of safety, as this change would standardize the yearly inspection criterion for all aircraft below 2,700 pounds regardless of the type of airworthiness certificate held. FAA disagrees with this approach to maintaining continued airworthiness. According to part 43, a qualified mechanic must maintain and inspect normal category aircraft with a standard airworthiness certificate. A mechanic with an inspection authorization is required to inspect these aircraft at least once every 12 calendar months. These heightened requirements for maintenance and inspection are consistent with where standard airworthiness certificated aircraft fall on the safety continuum. Standard airworthiness certificated aircraft fall higher on the safety continuum than light-sport category or experimental aircraft because they are approved for air carrier operations, which involve higher risks to public safety. Accordingly, these aircraft have more stringent requirements than light-sport category aircraft. For these reasons, FAA finds AEA/ARSA's suggestions outside the scope of the MOSAIC rule. FAA declines to change the inspection requirements for aircraft holding a standard airworthiness certificate, regardless of whether an aircraft meets the light-sport performance criteria that would allow operation by a pilot holding a sport pilot certificate.</P>
                    <P>With respect to MSM's and Top Aces Corp's comments, FAA notes these comments are similarly beyond the scope of the MOSAIC rulemaking. FAA did not propose any changes to § 91.409(f)(3) in the NPRM and will not be making any changes to this section in the final rule. Accordingly, this preamble, which does not otherwise address § 91.409(f)(3), is not the appropriate platform for an interpretation of or policy discussion about this regulation.  </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">9. Other Comments on Operations</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. ADS-B and DAA</HD>
                    <P>Several individuals commented on requirements pertaining to the installation of Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) technology and other equipment requirements, which are beyond the scope of the regulatory changes proposed by the NPRM. For example, one commenter expressed concern that certain aircraft such as gliders and balloons are excepted by § 91.225 and are not required to be equipped with ADS-B technology. Another expressed concern about the lack of electronic visibility of ultralights and gliders and suggested that all aircraft, including part 103 ultralight operations, be equipped with ADS-B. Another commenter opined that the MOSAIC proposal failed to require DAA technology in new light-sport category aircraft. Similarly, ALPA recommended that if light-sport category aircraft are to be authorized to operate under IFR, they should be required to comply with all the applicable instrument and equipment requirements for aircraft holding standard airworthiness certificates in § 91.205.</P>
                    <P>These comments are beyond the scope of this final rule because FAA did not propose any amendments to §§ 91.113(b), 91.205, 91.215, or 91.225 in the NPRM. Though FAA shares the commenters' mission for improving safety within the NAS by reducing midair collisions with unmanned and manned aircraft, ADS-B and DAA technology was not contemplated by this rule. Accordingly, new aircraft equipage requirements and DAA technology will not be included in this final rule, as it may require the development of a TSO performance standard for incorporation of DAA technology and the complicated subject matter would require a separate notice and public comment period. In addition, the inclusion of new equipment requirements may impose added costs on operators and may create additional training and pilot certification requirements not contemplated by this rule.</P>
                    <P>Regarding the comment from ALPA addressing aircraft equipage for certain IFR operations conducted in the NAS, FAA notes there are substantial regulations, performance standards, and equipage requirements governing IFR flight operations. As stated in the NPRM, certain light-sport category aircraft equipped for flight at night or under IFR may be issued an operating limitation stating that the aircraft must comply with the applicable instrument and equipment requirements of § 91.205. Flights under IFR in IMC would therefore have to be authorized by the manufacturer in the POH, and the aircraft would be subject to appropriate operating limitations. Section 91.327(g) allows FAA to prescribe additional limitations that it considers necessary for aircraft holding a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category. Accordingly, FAA will, as it does presently with other aircraft holding special airworthiness certificates, issue operating limitations allowing IFR flight for certain aircraft, using a risk-based approach that evaluates a given operator's eligibility for an operating limitation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Flight Tests</HD>
                    <P>
                        Bombardier suggested that § 91.305 is too narrowly scoped, and it should be modified along with the changes to § 91.319(c) to allow for certain flight test exceptions. Specifically, Bombardier suggested that § 91.305 be modified to allow the Administrator to issue operating limitations permitting flight test operations in areas other than over open water, or sparsely populated areas having light air traffic, similar to the authorizations under § 91.319(c). In 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35168"/>
                        response, FAA notes that changes to § 91.305 were not proposed in this rulemaking because its applicability is narrowly tailored to allow flight for aircraft that have not yet demonstrated the ability to hold certain operating limitations. It is thus different than the scope of aircraft and operations covered by § 91.319(c). For § 91.319(c), FAA uses a risk-based approach when evaluating a given operator's eligibility to obtain certain operating limitations allowing operation over a densely populated area or in a congested airway, in accordance with the published guidance in FAA Order 8130.2. However, as a general matter, the risk to persons and property associated with allowing provisionally certificated aircraft to operate over densely populated areas is much greater than the risks associated with an aircraft holding an experimental airworthiness certificate. Because this change was not proposed in the NPRM, FAA is not addressing Bombardier's proposal in this final rule but may take this comment into consideration for future rulemaking actions.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">L. Experimental Airworthiness Certificates</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Issuance of Experimental Airworthiness Certificates (§ 21.191)</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Operating Kit-Built and Former Light-Sport Category Aircraft (§ 21.191(i), (k), &amp; (l))</HD>
                    <P>In the NPRM, FAA proposed to remove the current § 21.191(i) experimental purpose of operating light-sport aircraft and replace it with the proposed experimental purpose of operating former light-sport category aircraft. EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA opposed the removal of the existing requirements of § 21.191(i) citing undesirable unintended consequences of not providing a “regulatory home” for these aircraft. Based upon the concerns raised by the commenters, FAA agrees and will keep the experimental purpose of operating light-sport aircraft as § 21.191(i). By doing so, a “regulatory home” will exist for aircraft certificated for this experimental purpose that may need a replacement certificate at a later date. However, upon the first effective date of this rule, October 22, 2025, experimental airworthiness certificates will no longer be issued for this purpose and § 21.191(i)(2) and (i)(3) will be revised accordingly to reflect this. FAA notes that experimental airworthiness certificates have not been issued under § 21.191(i)(1) since January 31, 2008. Also, on October 22, 2025, the reference to § 21.193 will be removed in § 21.191(i)(2) since it is an application requirement and application for original certification is no longer available for this purpose. The final rule also makes a conforming change to § 21.191(i)(1), adding the word “airworthiness” to the middle of “experimental certificate” for clarity and standardization with the phrase “experimental airworthiness certificate” in § 21.191 of this rule. Section IV.I.2 of the NPRM explained that the purpose of this terminology change is to clarify that experimental certificates are airworthiness certificates. FAA did not receive any comment on this topic. The revisions in § 21.191(i)(2) and (i)(3) also cite “experimental airworthiness certificate.”</P>
                    <P>On or after October 22, 2025, the airworthiness certification of light-sport category kit aircraft will occur under the § 21.191(k) experimental purpose of operating light-sport category kit-built aircraft. Likewise, the airworthiness certification of former light-sport category aircraft, currently under § 21.191(i)(3), will occur under the § 21.191(l) experimental purpose of operating former light-sport category aircraft. The titles and requirements of the § 21.191(k) and (l) experimental purposes remain unchanged from the NPRM, the only difference being their new paragraphs in § 21.191 for this final rule.</P>
                    <P>The changes in § 21.191 for these two experimental purposes were necessary because, on July 24, 2026, significant changes occur, such as the implementation of part 22 and the removal of the light-sport aircraft definition from § 1.1. Accordingly, without a light-sport aircraft definition, it would no longer be appropriate to issue experimental airworthiness certificates under the “operating a light-sport aircraft” purpose. However, rather than waiting for the second effective date, this rule transitions experimental kit-built and former light-sport category aircraft to § 21.191(k) and (l), respectively, at the first effective date to accommodate repairmen requirements. See section IV.I. for further discussion. Though the light-sport aircraft definition will still be in effect in § 1.1 on and after this date of transition to § 21.191(k) and (l), these experimental aircraft were previously, or are based on a model of, a certificated light-sport category aircraft under § 21.190. Accordingly, it is acceptable to use § 21.191(k) and (l) at the first effective date of this rule rather than waiting for the second effective date.</P>
                    <P>Because of these changes, the § 21.191(k) and (l) experimental purposes have been added to § 45.29(b)(1)(iii) to enable the continuity of allowing marks at least 3 inches high for former and kit-built light-sport category aircraft with a maximum cruising speed not in excess of 180 knots CAS. The § 21.191(i) reference will remain. In addition, this final rule makes a conforming change to § 45.29(b)(1)(iii) by changing “experimental certificate” to “experimental airworthiness certificate” to remain consistent with the terminology of § 21.191 and the explanation in section IV.I.2 of the NPRM that experimental certificates are experimental airworthiness certificates. FAA did not receive any comment on this terminology change for § 21.191.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Weight of Experimental Kit-Built and Former Light-Sport Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>Manufacturers of light-sport category aircraft may sell kits of their aircraft models that have already received airworthiness certification in the light-sport category; however, these kits are issued experimental airworthiness certificates. If certificated prior to October 22, 2025, the applicable experimental purpose is operating a light-sport aircraft per § 21.191(i)(2). On or after October 22, 2025, original issuance of experimental airworthiness certificates will no longer be under § 21.191(i)(2). Instead, all original certifications of light-sport category kit aircraft thereafter will be for the experimental purpose of operating light-sport category kit-built aircraft under § 21.191(k).</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter, building a kit aircraft with a 1,450 pounds design gross weight, favored removing weight limits for the light-sport category so their aircraft can exceed the existing 1,320 pounds weight limit applicable in the light-sport aircraft definition. FAA is concerned this commenter has misunderstood the provisions of this rule as proposed in the NPRM. First, as explained in the preceding paragraph, this commenter's kit aircraft would not be eligible for airworthiness certification in the light-sport category. Instead, it would be certificated for an experimental purpose under § 21.191(i)(2) or (k) depending if certification occurs before, or on or after October 22, 2025. Second, though this rule will not impose a maximum takeoff weight restriction for light-sport category aircraft, it does not mean that a weight limit no longer applies to kits sold prior to July 24, 2026 but certificated on or after this date. In this instance, the manufacturer's statement of compliance that accompanied the commenter's kit specified a maximum takeoff weight of 1,320 pounds or less and this weight limit must be complied with, especially since some of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35169"/>
                        performance data and limitations in the aircraft's POH are based on this gross weight.
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter asked about the ability to change the gross weight of experimental light-sport category aircraft. Though there is no regulatory requirement for former or kit-built experimental light-sport category aircraft to maintain the same configuration and gross weight limitations as the light-sport category model upon which the experimental aircraft is designed after, it is unsafe for owners of experimental light-sport category aircraft to exceed the manufacturer's maximum weight limits or any other design limit that is published in the aircraft's POH.  </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Operating Former Military Aircraft (§ 21.191(j))</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM included a new provision § 21.191(k) for issuance of an experimental airworthiness certificate to former military aircraft to improve alignment between certain operations of former military aircraft and the experimental airworthiness certificates which authorize their operation. FAA received comments from 11 commenters, nine supportive and two opposed. Of the nine supportive commenters, eight proposed changes to this proposal.</P>
                    <P>NAVAIR generally concurred with this proposal to facilitate civil operations of former military aircraft that also engage in public aircraft operations but recommends several changes. First, NAVAIR recommended that FAA consider deleting § 21.191(k)(1) to enable inclusion of unmanned aircraft in § 21.191(k) as former military aircraft. Due to the significant airworthiness and operational differences between unmanned and manned aircraft, FAA excludes unmanned aircraft certification from this rulemaking. Such a change would require much broader consideration and amendment of 14 CFR requirements than the intended scope of this rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>NAVAIR provided the following comments concerning what aircraft would be considered former military aircraft under § 21.191(k)(2) and, therefore, eligible for a U.S. airworthiness certificate under this section. NAVAIR commented that the proposed rule lacks sufficient clarity in whether the phrase “under contract by the U.S. Armed Forces or a foreign military” applies to manufacture, purchase, and modification or only to modification. FAA agrees that use and placement of the phrase, “under contract,” may be unclear. FAA intends for this purpose for issuing experimental airworthiness certificates for operating former-military aircraft to include aircraft manufactured, purchased, or modified by the U.S. Armed Forces or a foreign military, whether the military entity performed any of these actions itself or via a contract. Since a military can be said to have accomplished any of these actions in either case, the phrase, “under contract” is unnecessary. The final rule text is amended to delete the phrase, “under contract” for clarity. This revision does not change the intent of the provision.</P>
                    <P>NAVAIR also commented that the provision does not explicitly allow ownership or registration by a military as an additional method to be considered for establishing the eligibility status of a former military aircraft. NAVAIR recommended modifying § 21.191(k)(2) to add the option of the aircraft being on the registry of the U.S. Armed Forces or a foreign military or using “accepted for use by” language like that in § 21.25(a)(2). As discussed in the previous paragraph, since the proposed rule was intended to include aircraft “purchased by the U.S. Armed Forces or a foreign military,” this proposal would include aircraft owned by a U.S. Armed Force or foreign military. Similarly, FAA considers former registration by a military entity to represent an acceptable means of establishing an aircraft as a former military aircraft and amended the text to include this as another option. To qualify as a former military aircraft, the aircraft must have first been a military aircraft. In FAA's view, former registration by a military entity represents a firmer relationship of the military with the aircraft than simply via “acceptance for use by” the military. Accordingly, FAA will revise the proposed language to delete the first “or” before “modified” and add “, or on the registry of” before “the U.S. Armed Forces.”</P>
                    <P>NAVAIR also recommended clarification to affirm that former military aircraft that are subsequently modified by a civilian operator for use under a contract with the U.S. Armed Forces be considered former military aircraft under § 21.191(k)(2). FAA notes that contract air services provided by a civilian organization for a military entity using former military aircraft would not negate the former military status of such aircraft.</P>
                    <P>NAVAIR also recommended adding a definition of “former military aircraft” to 14 CFR. With clarifications of the intent and amendments of this text as recommended, FAA has determined the resultant text is sufficient to enable issuance of airworthiness certificates for former military aircraft under this section without the added complication of creating a new definition of the term, “former military aircraft.”</P>
                    <P>NAVAIR commented there are civil aircraft with no prior military pedigree that have been modified by the owner/operator to support contracted public aircraft operations for the U.S. government and asked FAA to consider repositioning provisions like those of § 21.191(k)(3)(iii). This proposed rule centered on creating a new experimental purpose for former military aircraft. Since this proposed rule did not address civil aircraft with no prior military pedigree, this NAVAIR recommendation exceeds the scope of this rulemaking. As such, FAA will not consider this recommendation under this final rule.</P>
                    <P>NAVAIR and IAR recommended increasing the scope of repositioning flights under § 21.191(k)(3)(iii). NAVAIR recommended changing the proposed rule from repositioning the aircraft for use under contract “with the U.S. Armed Forces” to “for a public aircraft operation.” This would allow repositioning flights of former military aircraft for other public aircraft operations with other U.S. government agencies, such as the National Aeronautics and Space Administration or the Department of Agriculture. FAA recognizes that former military aircraft are suitable for and perform valuable public services in a wide variety of operations for a wide variety of U.S. government organizations. As such, FAA agrees this provision should not be limited to enabling public aircraft operations under contract with the U.S. Armed Forces. Accordingly, this rule will broaden the proposed rule to enable the reposition of former military aircraft for any public aircraft operation. IAR recommended revising this text to allow repositioning flights for any purpose. IAR did not provide, and FAA is not aware of, a safety case for an unlimited provision for repositioning former military aircraft. Accordingly, FAA will not amend the text to create an unlimited provision for repositioning former military aircraft.</P>
                    <P>
                        NAVAIR, Draken International, MSM, and IAR recommended expanding § 21.191(k)(3) to include other operating purposes. NAVAIR and Draken International recommended increasing the scope of § 21.191(k)(3) to enable operations following repair, alterations, or maintenance. FAA notes that check flights following a repair, alteration, and maintenance are required under § 91.407 when tests and inspections on the ground are insufficient to find that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35170"/>
                        a repair, alteration, or maintenance have not appreciably changed the flight characteristics or substantially affected the flight operation of the aircraft. Accordingly, FAA agrees that § 21.191(k)(3) should be amended to specifically allow check flights following a repair, alteration, or maintenance.
                    </P>
                    <P>Draken International and MSM recommended increasing the scope of § 21.191(k)(3) to include flight training and another commenter recommended including pilot proficiency and exhibition. In response, FAA concludes these changes are unnecessary since experimental purposes for flight training and exhibition already exist under § 21.191(c) and (d), respectively. An applicant for a U.S. airworthiness certificate may apply for multiple experimental airworthiness certificates or a single, multi-purpose certificate under one application. Regarding the pilot proficiency recommendation, of all the experimental purposes under § 21.191, only exhibition and air racing include provisions for “maintenance of exhibition flight proficiency” and “practicing for such air races” under § 21.191(d) and (e), respectively, reflecting the unique operating characteristics of an exhibition or race that warrant practice above and beyond fundamental flight operations. Since the new experimental purpose of operating former military aircraft simply enables relocation of certain aircraft under certain conditions, these operations involve the most fundamental of pilot skills that are most appropriately developed and maintained under the experimental purpose of crew training under § 21.191(c). Proficiency operations are feasible under the experimental purpose of crew training and will not be enabled under the new experimental purpose of operating former military aircraft.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter stated all amendments concerning experimental and restricted category certification of former military aircraft should be removed from this rule and addressed separately from rulemaking concerning the light-sport sector. The original rules 
                        <SU>317</SU>
                         establishing the restricted category in 1950 included provisions for military aircraft. As discussed in the NPRM, FAA is already issuing experimental airworthiness certificates to former military aircraft. That is, civil registration, certification, and operation of former military aircraft has been occurring for nearly 75 years. This rule merely clarifies a longstanding provision in § 21.25 and establishes a new experimental purpose under § 21.191 to better align the purpose of the certificate with the intended operation. FAA, therefore, does not find merit with the commenter's recommendation for removing these changes for separate rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter opposed this proposal for several reasons. First, the commenter asserted that FAA would exceed its responsibilities for civil aviation in enabling operation of former military aircraft that engage part-time in public aircraft operations for the Department of Defense (DoD). This is incorrect. The FAA airworthiness certificate would apply to civil aircraft operations only and would not be in effect when the aircraft is operating as a public aircraft.</P>
                    <P>Second, the commenter asserted FAA allows operators of former military aircraft to operate some aircraft beyond their military design life limits, asserting this is very risky as the Armed Forces took them out of service because of such life limits. This is incorrect. Per § 91.319(i), FAA may prescribe additional operating limitations for experimental aircraft that it considers necessary. As such, an operating limitation issued with experimental airworthiness certificates per appendix D of FAA Order 8130.2, Airworthiness Certification of Aircraft, requires compliance with applicable life limits. Furthermore, FAA only issues an experimental airworthiness certificate for a former military after reviewing aircraft records, inspecting the aircraft, identifying appropriate operating limitations, and making a finding the aircraft is in a condition for safe operation; this process may result in requirements to remove or disable some systems to establish conditions for safe operation for the intended use.</P>
                    <P>Third, the commenter asserted that operations of these aircraft involve additional risk related to the availability of replacement parts. FAA notes that each owner of a civil aircraft is required to maintain its aircraft in a condition for safe operation for its airworthiness certificate to remain valid.</P>
                    <P>Fourth, the commenter asserted that FAA is exceeding its authority in enabling training of warfighters with civil aircraft. This is incorrect. An aircraft may be operated alternately in civil and public aircraft operations. FAA has no responsibility for, or involvement with, public aircraft operations. The civil airworthiness certificate is not in effect during public aircraft operations. EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA jointly expressed support for this proposal while noting it would not impact historic former military aircraft flown for display (“warbirds”) under § 21.191(d).</P>
                    <P>Lastly, the final rule revises the paragraph numbering for this section from § 21.191(k) (proposed) to § 21.191(j).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Application for Special Airworthiness Certificates Issued for Experimental Purposes (§ 21.193)</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Experimental Purpose Change in § 21.193(e)  </HD>
                    <P>To align with the start of the operating light-sport category kit-built aircraft (§ 21.191(k)) experimental purpose and the cessation of the issuance of original certificates under § 21.191(i)(2) on October 22, 2025, § 21.191(k) will replace § 21.191(i)(2) in the current § 21.193(e) requirement.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Comments on Program Letters</HD>
                    <P>The provisions in § 21.193 require applicants for an experimental airworthiness certificate to provide the necessary details to FAA so that it can understand the purpose and scope of an applicant's experiment and operations. These details will allow FAA to ensure an airworthiness certificate is being issued for the appropriate experimental purpose and duration and create or apply appropriate operating limitations for safe operations.</P>
                    <P>GAMA, Manufacturers Flight Test Council, and Textron asked if the changes to § 21.193 will affect the current program letter process and expressed that program letter updates can be burdensome, especially in a flight test environment.</P>
                    <P>
                        The policies and procedures for program letters are in FAA Order 8130.2, Airworthiness Certification of Aircraft. The provisions in § 21.193 of this final rule will not change the program letter process. Applicants will still use program letters to provide the information in § 21.193 to FAA's certificating office when applying for an experimental airworthiness certificate. While preparing a program letter can take time and divert resources from a flight test program, FAA uses program letter information to create appropriate operating limitations. These operating limitations mitigate the risks of experimental aircraft and developmental flight test activities and serve to protect the general public. Since § 21.181 of this rule expands the certificate duration of certain experimental purposes from one year to three years, unless FAA prescribes a shorter period, it is imperative that applicants provide FAA with the necessary information for the desired duration of the experimental airworthiness certificate. Providing this necessary information will reduce the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35171"/>
                        need for amendments to program letters, amendments to operating limitations, and potential impacts to flight testing schedules.
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter similarly stated the annual letter for experimental gliders is an onerous task that is a waste of time for FAA personnel and such letter is unnecessary if the glider is well maintained. Though not specified by the commenter, the comment likely refers to the annual program letter for the experimental purpose of exhibition. Unlike other experimental airworthiness certificates with unlimited duration, owners of any aircraft operated for the experimental purpose of exhibition or air racing must submit an annual program letter to FAA per the assigned operating limitation. The applicant provides a list of events at which the aircraft will be exhibited over the upcoming year. FAA disagrees with the commenter as this annual program letter is necessary to show FAA that the aircraft will be operated for the purpose for which the experimental airworthiness certificate was issued per § 91.319(a).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Light-Sport Kit Aircraft Application Information (§ 21.193(h))</HD>
                    <P>EAA, AOPA, NATA, and NBAA opposed the proposed move of special airworthiness application requirements for light-sport category kit-built aircraft from § 21.193 to the proposed § 21.191 experimental purpose of operating light-sport category kit-built aircraft. The commenters found this change unnecessary and confusing and recommended that these application requirements remain in § 21.193. Upon further consideration of the comments received, FAA agrees it is unnecessary to put application requirements in a section that describes experimental purposes. This rule will retain the application requirements for light-sport category kit-built aircraft in § 21.193. However, proposed § 21.193(h), which concerns evidence of compliance with applicable noise limits in part 36, has been omitted since noise compliance for experimental kit and former light-sport category aircraft is voluntary in this final rule.</P>
                    <P>Hartzell Propeller cited a situation where a kit builder may have started their light-sport category kit aircraft prior to the effective date of this rule and completed it afterwards. With the implementation of voluntary part 36 noise requirements in this final rule and the omission of proposed § 21.193(h), this comment is no longer relevant since kit aircraft are not subject to mandatory noise compliance.</P>
                    <P>In this final rule, a correction was made to proposed § 21.191(j)(4), which the final rule relocates to § 21.193(h)(4). In the NPRM, this section incorrectly cited § 22.175 (noise) when § 22.195 (ground and flight testing) should have been cited. The NPRM preamble correctly explained that light-sport kits do not have to be ground and flight tested by the manufacturer in accordance with production acceptance test procedures. This is because the kits are assembled away from the manufacturer's facilities by amateur or contract builders. This correction aligns with the existing requirement in § 21.193(e)(4).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Experimental Purpose of Market Survey, Sales Demonstrations, Customer Crew Training (§ 21.195)</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed amendments to clarify § 21.195. No comments were submitted to the docket concerning this proposal. For the final rule, “airworthiness” was added to the NPRM proposed § 21.195 to change references to “experimental certificate” to “experimental airworthiness certificate” in the title and subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) of § 21.195. This was a conforming change to retain consistent use of “experimental airworthiness certificate” throughout this rule. In discussing this terminology change in § 21.191, NPRM section IV.I.2 explained this change was to clarify that experimental certificates are airworthiness certificates. This final rule amends this section to make such changes as are necessary to advance the intent of the rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Duration of Experimental Airworthiness Certificates (§ 21.181(a)(4) and (a)(5))</HD>
                    <P>In § 21.181(a)(4), the NPRM proposed to extend the duration of an experimental airworthiness certificate issued for certain experimental purposes from one to three years from the date of issue or renewal unless FAA prescribes a shorter period. With the retention of the § 21.191(i) experimental purpose, “operating light-sport aircraft,” discussed in section IV.L.1.a, this final rule adds this purpose to § 21.181(a)(5). The certificate duration of the § 21.191(i) purpose will be maintained in this rule. No comments were submitted to the docket concerning the § 21.181(a)(4) proposal or the duration of the operating light-sport aircraft experimental purpose.</P>
                    <P>This final rule adds “airworthiness” to references to “experimental certificate” in proposed § 21.181(a)(4) and (a)(5) to clarify these durations are for experimental airworthiness certificates and to retain consistent terminology throughout this rule. The basis for this terminology change was discussed in section IV.I.2 of the NPRM, and FAA did not receive any comment on changing this terminology. In addition, the sequence of the experimental purposes in proposed § 21.181(a)(5) was changed to align with their sequence in § 21.191. This final rule will retain § 21.181(a)(4) as proposed, except for the addition of “airworthiness,” and has added “operating light-sport aircraft” and “airworthiness” to § 21.181(a)(5).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Other Comments on Experimental Airworthiness Certificates</HD>
                    <P>Several commenters asked if a particular legacy aircraft could be operated under an experimental airworthiness certificate for one of the experimental purposes related to light-sport category aircraft. In response, FAA notes that eligibility regulations in current § 21.190 and final rule § 22.100 prohibit aircraft previously issued a standard, primary, restricted, limited, or provisional airworthiness certificate, or an equivalent airworthiness certificate issued by a foreign civil aviation authority, from obtaining a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category. The experimental purposes related to light-sport category aircraft require either prior airworthiness certification under § 21.190 or be based on a make and model that was previously certificated under § 21.190. Therefore, legacy aircraft could not operate under the experimental purpose related to light-sport category aircraft in § 21.191(i), (k), or (l).</P>
                    <P>GAMA asked for additional clarification regarding the airworthiness certification procedures for aircraft manufactured outside the U.S., in particular, clarification on how an aircraft gains airworthiness in the U.S. if it already has an existing airworthiness certificate from another regulatory entity.</P>
                    <P>
                        For airworthiness certification in the light-sport category, aircraft manufactured outside the U.S. that meet the eligibility requirements of § 21.190 (current) or § 22.100 on or after July 24, 2026, may apply for a special airworthiness certificate for the light-sport category. As previously mentioned, aircraft that have previously been issued a standard, primary, restricted, limited, or provisional airworthiness certificate, or an equivalent airworthiness certificate issued by a foreign civil aviation authority, would not be eligible for airworthiness certification under 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35172"/>
                        § 21.190. Accordingly, these aircraft would also not be eligible for the experimental purposes, § 21.191(i), (k), or (l), since these purposes require the aircraft to have either previously held an airworthiness certificate issued under § 21.190 or be based on a previously certificated light-sport category aircraft make and model. In addition, for a light-sport category aircraft or kit manufactured outside the U.S., §§ 22.100 and 21.193 require that the aircraft or kit, respectively, would have to be manufactured in a country with which the U.S. has a Bilateral Airworthiness Agreement concerning airplanes or a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement with associated Implementation Procedures for Airworthiness concerning airplanes, or an equivalent airworthiness agreement.
                    </P>
                    <P>ANAC suggested that FAA consider replacing the term “experimental” with the term “flight permit.” It stated the adoption of this term may help in acknowledging the inherent risks involved and convey the idea that the approval of flight conditions is not related to the safety of the design. FAA disagrees with this suggestion as the term “experimental” has been used with the registration or airworthiness certification of U.S. aircraft for nearly the past century. Because of this long history and the widely accepted use and understanding of “experimental,” FAA will continue to use the term for airworthiness certificates issued under § 21.191. The “experimental” marking requirements of § 45.23 and the § 91.319 requirement that each person carried be advised of the experimental nature of the aircraft are in place to bring crew and passenger awareness that the design may not conform to more rigorous airworthiness requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">M. Restricted Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Amendments of Special Purpose Operations (§ 21.25)</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM included amendments to § 21.25 to clarify text, exclude aircraft previously certificated in the light-sport or primary categories from eligibility for type certification in the restricted category, and to add special purpose operations. Comments were submitted on multiple aspects of § 21.25.</P>
                    <P>IAR raised several concerns related to restricted category aircraft. Several other commenters supported all the comments submitted by IAR. IAR commented that the agency must consider prior correspondence it submitted to the agency. IAR submitted the correspondence prior to, and outside of, the NPRM comment process, asserted that the correspondence contained proprietary and confidential business information, and requested that FAA contact IAR if the agency could not find it.  </P>
                    <P>
                        As a general matter in responding to comments, the agency considers the information actually submitted in a comment. While the NPRM provided that “FAA will consider all comments it receives on or before the closing date for comments,” FAA only considers information it receives as part of the comments submitted to the NPRM.
                        <SU>318</SU>
                         Public comments on the docket available for all to see better enable transparency in what information the government considered in reaching the final rule. In addition, to separately to seek out this additional information would both be unfair to other commenters that similarly referenced or requested that FAA seek out information they failed to submit to the docket and would likely represent ex parte communications, which would then implicate the need to reopen the comment process to offer similar opportunities to other commenters, adding further delays to issuing this final rule and realizing the benefits it will generate, and would potentially create a perception that the government was favoring a commenter by seeking out additional information from it. Based upon the above, FAA did not seek out these correspondences.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        IAR also commented that the NPRM provided inadequate notice to the public and that IAR believes many restricted category aircraft operators may not be aware of the MOSAIC rulemaking or its scope. IAR recommended that the changes to the restricted category should be done in a separate rulemaking. Similarly, another commenter stated changes to the restricted category should be done separately from these light-sport category regulations. FAA disagrees that the public received inadequate notice of the NPRM. FAA notes that a restricted category aircraft that meets the requirements of § 21.185 is issued a special airworthiness certificate. As such, the title of this proposal, “Modernization of Special Airworthiness Certification,” indicates applicability to restricted category aircraft. The summary paragraph on the first page of the NPRM includes discussion of amendments concerning restricted category aircraft. In addition, the table of contents on the first page of the NPRM shows that supplemental information for amendments related to the restricted category is included in section IV.J of the NPRM. That is, the restricted category is referenced or discussed three times on the first page of the NPRM and discussed at length in section IV.J of the NPRM. The initial comment period for this proposal closed 90 days after its publication on October 23, 2023. Based on a request from multiple commenters, FAA extended the comment period by 90 days to January 22, 2024. Finally, pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 1507, publishing the NPRM in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         constituted constructive notice to the public. It is incumbent on the public to review and respond to that notice.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In summary, there was clear indication that the NPRM addressed the restricted category, the public was provided six months to submit comments to the docket, and FAA fulfilled its statutory obligations to publish proposed rules in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . FAA has discretion in choosing which amendments it combines under a given rulemaking action. This rulemaking is a combination of many different proposals related to special airworthiness certification, and this change concerning type-certification of restricted category aircraft is well within the scope of these proposals since restricted category aircraft are issued special airworthiness certificates. Accordingly, FAA finds the public was provided sufficient notice of proposed amendments concerning restricted category aircraft, FAA exercised appropriate discretion for combining amendments under this rulemaking, and, except for changes as discussed herein, FAA will proceed with final rulemaking as proposed concerning restricted category aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>MSM and Top Aces Corp recommended that eligibility for restricted category type certification be expanded to include U.S. military aircraft that have been accepted by foreign militaries. FAA notes the proposed amendments in the NPRM concerning eligibility for restricted category type certification were clarifications only, not substantive changes. The NPRM did not consider or discuss expanding eligibility to military aircraft from other than the U.S. Armed Forces. As such, FAA disagrees with this recommendation for this final rule as it would be a substantive change that exceeds the scope of this rulemaking and would require appropriate notice to the public and opportunity for comment.</P>
                    <P>
                        NAVAIR requested clarification of the phrase “accepted for use by” in § 21.25(a)(2)(i) concerning aircraft accepted for use by the U.S. Armed Forces. NAVAIR was uncertain whether this phrase means an aircraft type “operated by” or “on the registry of” the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35173"/>
                        U.S. Armed Forces. NAVAIR stated this difference may affect the eligibility of certain military aircraft types the U.S. Armed Forces acquires for foreign military sales. FAA specifically avoided requirements in this section for establishing specific documentation, registration requirements, bailing arrangements, and such for establishing whether an aircraft was accepted for use and operated by a U.S. Armed Force, especially since those methods and records may not be standardized across all U.S. Armed Forces and may be subject to change. Each applicant for restricted category type certification under this section will be responsible for showing evidence that the aircraft type was accepted for use by the U.S. Armed Forces to be eligible for type certification in restricted category.
                    </P>
                    <P>NAVAIR requested clarification of the requirement in § 21.25(a)(2)(ii) that the “aircraft is of a type that has a service history with the U.S. Armed Forces acceptable to FAA.” Specifically, NAVAIR asked whether service history concerns an individual aircraft or an aircraft type. FAA notes that § 21.25(a)(2) intentionally uses the word “type” to highlight that this is not referring to individual aircraft, just as a type certificate in the restricted category is not issued to individual aircraft. FAA extends eligibility for restricted category type certification to certain aircraft that were manufactured in accordance with the requirements of and accepted for use by the U.S. Armed Forces. In issuing restricted category type certificates under § 21.25(a)(2), FAA relies on the collective rigor of military development, design, test, manufacture, operations, and continued operational safety through service experience to attain the level of safety intended for the restricted category. For example, FAA would be concerned with finding compliance for restricted category type certification for a military aircraft type that was cancelled before accruing some minimally acceptable service history to identify and correct unsafe conditions.</P>
                    <P>NAVAIR recommended replacing the term “U.S Armed Forces” with “a U.S. Armed Force” in § 21.25(a)(2)(i) and (a)(2)(ii). Section 1.1 defines “Armed Forces” and the rules of construction in § 1.3(a)(2) state that, “Words importing the plural include the singular.” FAA prefers using a defined term as permitted by this rule of construction. Accordingly, this final rule retains the term, “U.S. Armed Forces.”</P>
                    <P>IAR commented that FAA's “petition process” for approval of a new special purpose operation is “cumbersome, time consuming, and lengthy,” the public comment required by the petition process can dissuade companies from pursuing new special purposes, and that FAA failed to act on some requests. IAR, therefore, recommended replacing the list of special purpose operations in § 21.25(b) with a provision to permit any aerial work operations as long as the aircraft meets § 21.185(b). IAR commented that this approach would eliminate individual approvals for each type of aerial work operation. Alternatively, IAR recommended adding aerial work along with approximately 10 other special purpose operations to § 21.25(b). Similarly, two other commenters requested new special purpose operations. NAAA recommended adding “any agricultural aircraft operations under part 137” to § 21.25(b)(1). NAVAIR recommended adding “patrolling of waterways” and “patrolling of oceans” as additional special purpose operations.</P>
                    <P>As to IAR's concerns with the petition process for approval of a new special purpose operation, FAA does not agree with IAR's characterizations of the petition process. FAA is unaware of failures to act on requests submitted using its process, and no specific information on such asserted failures was provided in the comment. Public notice of, and public comment on, requests for new special purpose operations is a valuable process that provides transparency to the public and an opportunity for the public to provide information and its comments and thoughts on such requests.</P>
                    <P>Regarding IAR's recommendation to replace the list of special purpose operations in § 21.25(b) with an “aerial work” provision for aircraft that meet § 21.185(b), IAR's proposal is internally inconsistent in that the requirements of § 21.185(b) include a requirement that aircraft be type certificated in the restricted category. Furthermore, § 21.25(a) affirms that a type certificate in the restricted category is issued for one or more special purpose operations. That is, an aircraft inspection for issuance of an airworthiness certificate under § 21.185(b) cannot circumvent regulatory requirements for issuance of restricted category type certificate for one or more special purpose operations. As such, this comment does not explain how replacing the list of special purpose operations with a single aerial work provision would meet the § 21.25 requirement that an applicant for a restricted category type certificate “shows that no feature or characteristic of the aircraft makes it unsafe when it is operated under the limitations prescribed for its intended use” as reflected in the issuance of a type certificate of that special purpose operation. Finally, the NPRM did not consider or discuss such a proposal. As such, it would be a substantive change that exceeds the scope of this rulemaking and would require appropriate notice to the public and opportunity for comment. Based upon all the above, FAA disagrees with this recommendation for this final rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        As to the recommendations proposed above to add new special purpose operations, petitioning FAA for consideration of a new special operating purposes under the authority in § 21.25(b)(7) can be done using the process in FAA Order 8110.56, Restricted Category Type Certification. The Order advises applicants to provide information, views, and arguments to support the proposed special purpose operation and the petition process includes FAA seeking public comment in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . FAA updates FAA Order 8110.56 with any newly approved special purpose operations. Because FAA has an established process for considering such petitions and such process provides for appropriate public notice of such petitions and opportunity for public comment, FAA deems it more appropriate to consider such recommendations through that established process.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        IAR commented that the proposed list of special purpose operations does not reflect the agency's commitment to performance-based regulations. IAR asserted that rather than generalizing common operations, the rule, for example, unnecessarily prescribes multiple types of special purpose operations for patrolling and aerial surveying. Though FAA embraces performance-based regulations, 14 CFR rules are comprised of many legacy rules that are more prescriptive in nature. During rulemaking, FAA makes challenging decisions of whether to make simpler amendments of legacy, prescriptive rules or more fundamentally amend such rules using performance-based concepts. For § 21.25, the proposed rule was limited in nature and did not fundamentally amend provisions concerning the issuance of type certificates for restricted category aircraft. As such, the NPRM did not propose or discuss eliminating the list of special purpose operations in § 21.25(b) in favor of a more performance-based approach, which would be significantly different than the more limited changes in this final rule. Consideration of such a new approach to special purpose operations would require appropriate notice to the public and opportunity for comment. As such, this recommendation to revamp FAA's approach to special purpose 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35174"/>
                        operations exceeds the scope of this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <P>GAMA, NAAA, and Air Tractor commented that the addition of the word “crop” to § 21.25(b)(1)(i) may exclude currently approved agricultural special purpose operations that do not treat a specific crop. FAA did not intend for the proposed rule to limit current operations in any way but recognizes that the addition of the word “crop” could have that unintended effect on agricultural special purpose operations. Accordingly, this final rule eliminates the word “crop” from the § 21.25(b)(1)(i) that was proposed in the NPRM.</P>
                    <P>GAMA, NAAA, and Air Tractor asked which special purpose operations an applicant would be approved under § 21.25 for a previously issued type certificate that includes multiple special purpose operations and other uses for which the special purpose operation is not specified. Operators may continue to perform approved operations without updating the TCDS or airworthiness certificate. Since 2006, FAA specifies approved special purpose operations on the TCDS for restricted category aircraft. For a TCDS issued before 2006, future revisions of that TCDS may clarify the approved special purpose operations. For questions about which special purpose operations are approved under a type certificate for a restricted category aircraft, contact the issuing office for that type certificate.</P>
                    <P>
                        IAR commented that it opposes any change that would limit the ability of restricted category aircraft to support space vehicle launches. FAA approved the special purpose operation of space vehicle launching using the process in FAA Order 8110.56, including notification in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                        <SU>319</SU>
                         The proposed rule intended to merely codify this previously approved special purpose operation without change but added the word “support” in error. Correcting this error affirms that no change is intended in the use of this special purpose operation as approved. FAA therefore adopts § 21.25(b)(7)(viii) as proposed but deletes the word “support.”  
                    </P>
                    <P>ALPA also expressed concern with the proposed amendment to § 21.25 to codify space support vehicle and space support vehicle flights, but ALPA did not specify what the concern was, and § 21.25 does not use these terms.</P>
                    <P>Concerning approval of new special purpose operations under § 21.25(b)(7), IAR commented that uses should be allowed unless the aircraft cannot satisfy § 21.185. This comment incorrectly conflates the requirements for issuance of a restricted category type certificate under § 21.25 with requirements for issuance of an airworthiness certificate for restricted category aircraft under § 21.185. Section 21.25 contains the requirements for type certification in the restricted category.</P>
                    <P>GAMA and NAAA recommended modification of § 21.25(a)(2)(i) to clarify that an aircraft produced under an FAA type and production certificate, modified, and accepted for use by a U.S. Armed Force would be eligible for a restricted category type certificate under this section. FAA finds the language in § 21.25 is sufficiently broad to accommodate the scenario described by the commenter. An aircraft that was produced under an FAA type or production certificate and then entered service with a U.S. Armed Force is eligible to be type-certificated in the restricted category by complying with § 21.25(a)(2). Alternatively, the aircraft may be able to be conformed to its standard classification type certificate. No changes to this paragraph are necessary.</P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs disagreed with the exclusion of primary and light-sport category aircraft from eligibility for type certification in the restricted category and commented that the NPRM does not include a supporting safety argument for this proposal. Also, Streamline Designs asserted that if a light-sport category aircraft may conduct the same operation as a restricted category aircraft, it would be limiting to exclude that aircraft from eligibility for certification in the restricted category. NPRM paragraph IV.J.1 discussed the safety argument for excluding primary and light-sport category aircraft from eligibility for type certification in the restricted category. Also, FAA notes several types of operations are common among various aircraft categories. For example, operations for sport, recreation, personal travel, flight training, and towing may be conducted with experimental, light-sport category, primary category, and normal category aircraft. Regardless, certain shared operating privileges do not render an aircraft that was certificated in one category eligible for certification in a higher category on the safety continuum. Similarly, just because light-sport and restricted category aircraft may share similar operating privileges for certain aerial work does not mean that light-sport category aircraft should be eligible for certification in the restricted category. Its higher placement on the safety continuum means the rigor of certification standards and procedures for restricted category aircraft are greater than aircraft lower on the safety continuum, including light-sport and primary category aircraft. Accordingly, FAA affirms its position that light-sport and primary category aircraft are not eligible for certification in the restricted category.</P>
                    <P>FAA made a technical correction to § 21.25(b)(4)(i) through (vi) in the final rule by omitting “patrolling of” in the special purpose operations since the lead-in statement already included “patrolling” and “patrolling of” was redundant. This technical correction does not change the intent of the provision.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Corrections to Issuance of Restricted Category Airworthiness Certificates (§ 21.185)</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed amendments to § 21.185 to standardize terminology concerning special purpose operations and to correct § 21.185(a) by removing “original issue of” because “original” specifies compliance with the applicable requirements of § 21.183 only for the original issuance of a restricted category airworthiness certificate. This causes confusion in situations wherein a restricted category aircraft's airworthiness certificate must be re-issued. The public submitted multiple comments concerning § 21.185.</P>
                    <P>After issuance of the NPRM, FAA noticed that in removing “original issue of” to clarify the applicability of § 21.185(a) for the issuance of recurrent airworthiness certificates for used aircraft, this change did not correctly apply the statutory requirements for issuance of an airworthiness certificate for such aircraft. As written, the proposed rule would have the unintended effect of expanding the scope of the reference in this paragraph to § 21.183 to include inspections under § 21.183(d) for used restricted category aircraft. Such inspections have not been required under § 21.185, were not intended or described in the proposed rule, and would constitute an unintended expansion of the scope of requirements under § 21.185(a). Therefore, this final rule amends § 21.185(a) to refer only to paragraphs § 21.183(a) and (b) as applicable rather than all of § 21.183. Also, 49 U.S.C. 44704(d)(1) mandates that, “(t)he Administrator shall issue an airworthiness certificate when the Administrator finds that the aircraft conforms to its type certificate and, after inspection, is in condition for safe operation.” Therefore, this final rule corrects § 21.185(a) to align with the statute and require that a used aircraft conform to its type certificate and be in a condition for safe operation.</P>
                    <P>
                        IAR commented that the NPRM proposes a significant new requirement that an aircraft be type certificated for a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35175"/>
                        special purpose operation to be eligible for issuance of a special airworthiness certificate under § 21.185, including an aircraft that is in a good state of preservation and repair, in a condition for safe operation, and capable of conducting that special purpose operation. IAR also commented that design changes to enable certain special purpose operations do not always specify the intended special purpose operation. IAR strongly recommended removal of this proposal for consideration under separate rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA notes that prior to the NPRM, § 21.185(b) applied to “An applicant for a restricted category airworthiness certificate for an aircraft type certificated in the restricted category,” and § 21.25(a) entitled an applicant to a type certificate for an aircraft in the restricted category for special purpose operations. That is, currently §§ 21.185(b) and 21.25(a) require type certification in the restricted category, and for specific special purpose operations, respectively. Furthermore, 49 U.S.C. 44704(d) requires, in part, that FAA “shall issue an airworthiness certificate when the Administrator finds that the aircraft conforms to its type certificate. . . .” Conformity to a restricted category type certificate includes conformity to requirements applicable to the approved special purpose operation. Contrary to IAR's comment that the NPRM proposes a significant modification and a new requirement for § 21.185(b)(1), that proposal does not add anything new to what was previously required. As described in the NPRM, amendments of § 21.185(b)(1) merely clarify current requirements.</P>
                    <P>FAA notes that a type certificate includes changes to a type certificate approved under subpart D of part 21. Such changes may include a supplemental type certificate or a minor change in type design under § 21.95. When the modification is not a major design change, other FAA-approved data may take the place of the restricted supplemental type certificate (STC). In this case, an FAA aviation safety inspector (ASI) can issue the restricted category airworthiness certification based on review of applicable aircraft records and an aircraft inspection. Regardless, any design change that adds a new special purpose operation for an aircraft would require an amendment of the airworthiness certificate to include that special purpose operation. Neither the NPRM nor this final rule changes these requirements. In summary, the proposed rule clarifies existing requirements. As such, FAA disagrees with the commenter's recommendation to withdraw this proposed rule for separate rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>One commenter stated §§ 21.25 and 21.185 seem to indicate that FAA may issue a special airworthiness certificate for restricted category aircraft based on an aircraft inspection without finding that the aircraft conforms to a type certificate that includes the applicable special purpose operation. FAA notes even before the NPRM, § 21.185(a), (b), and (c) included requirements for type certification in the restricted category as conditions for issuance of airworthiness certificates under this section. Furthermore, the entitlement for issuance of a type certificate in the restricted category under § 21.25(a) is for specific special purpose operations. That is, issuance of a restricted category type certificate, including an STC, for a special purpose operation is a prerequisite for issuance of an airworthiness certificate under this section for that special purpose operation. Lastly, if a modification is not a major design change, other FAA-approved data may take the place of the restricted STC. In this case, an FAA ASI can issue the restricted category airworthiness certificate based on review of applicable aircraft records and an aircraft inspection. The NPRM and this final rule clarify but do not substantively amend these requirements. FAA is also clarifying related implementing policies and procedures for FAA inspectors and designees.</P>
                    <P>One commenter requested clarification on the meaning of “good state of preservation and repair” in § 21.185(b)(3). This phrase already exists in § 21.185(b) and is not defined elsewhere in 14 CFR. This rule merely relocates this language within § 21.185 but does not change it. This language will continue to have the same meaning it had prior to this final rule. However, FAA recommends that the commenter consider following the directive feedback process of appendix K of FAA Order 8130.2, Airworthiness Certification of Aircraft, to request clarification of this phrase.</P>
                    <P>Streamline Designs commented that the parenthetical phrase “other than primary category or light-sport category” in NPRM proposed § 21.185(b)(2)(ii) incorrectly implies that light-sport category aircraft are type certificated. Accordingly, Streamline Designs recommends deleting this parenthetical phrase. On further review, FAA finds that this parenthetical phrase is unnecessary since § 21.25 already excludes light-sport and primary category aircraft from type certification in the restricted category. FAA also agrees that the text as written incorrectly implies that light-sport category aircraft are type-certificated. Accordingly, the final rule omits the parenthetical phrase, “other than primary category or light-sport category” in the revision to § 21.185(b)(2)(ii).</P>
                    <P>NAVAIR submitted several comments concerning § 21.185. NAVAIR recommended in § 21.185(b)(2)(i) replacing the term “U.S Armed Forces,” clarification of the phrase “accepted for use by,” and clarification of the requirement that the “aircraft is of a type that has a service history with the U.S. Armed Forces acceptable to FAA.” NAVAIR submitted, and FAA addressed, these same comments in section IV.M.1 concerning issuance of restricted category type certificates. Those dispositions apply to § 21.185.  </P>
                    <P>This final rule amends this section to make such changes as are necessary to advance the intent of the rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Issuance of Multiple Airworthiness Certificates for Restricted Category Aircraft (§ 21.187)</HD>
                    <P>
                        This rule revises the heading of § 21.187 by adding “for restricted category aircraft” to clarify this section applies only to restricted category aircraft. One commenter requested clarification on whether FAA issues experimental airworthiness certificates under this section. In response, FAA notes that § 21.187 sets forth requirements for an applicant for an airworthiness certificate in the restricted category and another category. From the establishment of the restricted category in 1950, FAA policy has limited the issuance of airworthiness certificates under this section to categories as defined via type certification.
                        <SU>320</SU>
                         That is, for the purposes of this section, FAA does not view experimental aircraft as a category since an experimental aircraft has not been found to conform to a type certificate. Accordingly, longstanding FAA policy excludes the issuance of experimental airworthiness certificates under § 21.187.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">N. Noise Certification of Aircraft That Do Not Conform to a Type Certificate</HD>
                    <P>
                        In a change from the NPRM, the final rule does not require noise certification of aircraft that do not conform to a type certificate. This is consistent with the Administrator's discretionary authority to prescribe “as he deems necessary . . . regulations to control and abate aircraft noise,” 49 U.S.C. 44715, and it conforms to executive branch policy of being “prudent and financially responsible in the expenditure of funds, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35176"/>
                        from both public and private sources, and to alleviate unnecessary regulatory burdens placed on the American people,” E.O. 14192 (January 31, 2025). When exercising that discretionary authority, 49 U.S.C. 44715 requires the Administrator to consider several factors, including relevant information about noise, economic reasonableness, and appropriateness for the applicable aircraft. Considering LSA, despite broad growth in the sector, remain a small portion of the GA fleet, as well as the comments received and data at his disposal, the Administrator has declined at this time to exercise this authority to require noise certification of aircraft that do not conform to a type certificate.
                    </P>
                    <P>The final rule amends part 36 to provide a voluntary means for aircraft owners and manufacturers of aircraft that do not conform to a type certificate to demonstrate compliance with part 36 noise levels for their aircraft. This rule permits the use of industry consensus standards as a means of compliance with part 36 for the first time and permits the use of a statement of compliance (SOC) as a method of showing compliance. This rule does not create new noise limits, nor does it apply to aircraft that conform to a type certificate.</P>
                    <P>By providing a voluntary means of compliance, FAA allows those who wish to comply to utilize flexible, cost-effective procedures, requiring far fewer resources than traditional part 36 noise testing for type-certificated aircraft. FAA also intends to gather data on the effectiveness of a voluntary approach to compliance with part 36 for non-type-certificated aircraft, as well as provide a means for those who wish to demonstrate compliance for their own purposes, such as preparing aircraft for international export or showing efforts to be a good neighbor to noise-sensitive communities, to do so.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Authority To Regulate Aircraft Noise</HD>
                    <P>The Administrator has authority to prescribe noise standards and regulation “as he deems necessary . . . to control and abate aircraft noise and sonic boom” under 49 U.S.C. 44715. Through this provision, Congress provided broad discretionary authority for the Administrator to prescribe noise regulations for any aircraft. In 1968, with the addition of 49 U.S.C. 44715(a)(3), Congress mandated noise testing when the agency issues type certificates. In addition to consultation with appropriate Federal agencies and State authorities, 49 U.S.C. 44715(b) directs the Administrator to consider four items when prescribing noise regulation: (1) relevant information related to aircraft noise, (2) whether the standard or regulation is consistent with the highest degree of safety in air transportation or air commerce in the public interest, (3) whether the standard or regulation is economically reasonable, technologically practicable, and appropriate for the applicable aircraft, aircraft engine, appliance, or certificate, and (4) the extent to which the standard or regulation will carry out the purposes of the section. Through these provisions Congress directed the Administrator to regulate aircraft noise for type certificated aircraft, which he did through the promulgation of part 36, and gave the Administrator broad authority to regulate aircraft noise “as he deems necessary” for aircraft not conforming to a type certificate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Noise Certification Background</HD>
                    <P>The primary means of controlling aircraft noise for type certificated aircraft is assessing noise at its source, the aircraft itself, against the noise limits in part 36 during the type certification process. This process uses measurement procedures and methods that are relevant to day-to-day operations to ensure designs meet the noise limits. Noise limits are set based on weight, design, and means of propulsion. Measurement procedures are based on leading scientific practices for noise measurement. Part 36 has noise limits and measurement procedures for fixed wing small airplanes, jets, helicopters, and tiltrotor aircraft. Historically, as new aircraft types develop, FAA gathers the appropriate data to determine the acceptable level of noise and proper measurement procedures. If the aircraft is sufficiently new and novel that it does not fit into an existing category, FAA can develop an ad-hoc noise certification basis for that specific aircraft with specific means and methods of compliance.  </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        3. Means and Methods of Compliance 
                        <SU>321</SU>
                    </HD>
                    <P>There are four means of compliance contemplated under this rule. The use of industry consensus standards, the conventional means of compliance available in part 36 for type certificated aircraft, the use of a means of compliance developed for a same or sufficiently similar type-certificated aircraft, or the development of an ad-hoc noise compliance basis. Industry consensus standards for noise would be developed by a consensus standards body and contain means and methods of compliance approved by FAA. This consensus standards-based approach would provide industry with unprecedented flexibility to develop lower cost ways to demonstrate compliance than the noise testing required for type certificated aircraft. For example, consensus standards may allow the use of prediction models as a method of compliance rather than require the extensive testing that is necessary for type certificated aircraft. FAA anticipates that most persons who choose to comply with part 36 will demonstrate compliance with this rule through adherence to consensus standards when these standards are completed and approved by FAA.</P>
                    <P>Conventional standards for type certificated aircraft in part 36 also serve as an option if a person seeking to comply so chooses or no consensus standard exists. If conventional standards for part 36 are utilized to demonstrate compliance, the aircraft must fit into one of the categories in part 36 (fixed wing small airplane, transport category large airplane, jet, helicopter, or tiltrotor). If FAA has determined, for noise purposes, that an aircraft is the same or sufficiently similar to a type certificated aircraft, compliance can be demonstrated by using the same testing requirements and noise levels of that type-certificated aircraft. If FAA finds that an aircraft is sufficiently new and novel that it does not fit into a part 36 category, the agency can create an ad-hoc noise compliance basis by modifying the certification basis of an aircraft that is type certificated or utilize some combination of part 36 and other standards. This could involve using parts of current regulations in part 36, regulations in part 36 that are no longer used for new certifications, accepted noise compliance standards that are not published in part 36 (such as those applicable to a single aircraft model), and portions of FAA-approved noise consensus standards. This provision, § 36.0(d)(2), which the final rule renumbers to § 36.0(b)(3)(ii), is intended to allow the agency maximum flexibility to find an appropriate combination of requirements.</P>
                    <P>Persons who choose to seek compliance with part 36 for their aircraft will need to show that they meet the noise limits of that part and submit an SOC to FAA to state they are in compliance. A person who submits such an SOC to FAA may share that SOC with other interested stakeholders. Manufacturers of light-sport category aircraft may use FAA Form 8130-15 for this SOC.</P>
                    <P>
                        By providing a variety of options, FAA hopes to incentivize voluntary compliance with part 36 by minimizing 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35177"/>
                        the cost of compliance for those who wish to do so.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Summary of Changes Between the NPRM and the Final Rule</HD>
                    <P>FAA has made the following modifications and clarifications to the final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Compliance With Part 36 Noise Limits Voluntary for Non-Type-Certificated Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>
                        The NPRM proposed expanding part 36 applicability to non-type certificated aircraft “at application for a first airworthiness certificate, or when an aircraft previously issued an airworthiness certificate incorporates an alteration that would result in an acoustic change.” 
                        <SU>322</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>As previously discussed, the Administrator has the authority to regulate aircraft noise for non-type certificated aircraft at his discretion. The statute that grants him this authority, 49 U.S.C. 44715, also requires him to consider “relevant information related to aircraft noise,” and whether a potential “standard or regulation is economically reasonable, technologically practicable, and appropriate for the applicable aircraft.” In addition, while FAA anticipated in the NPRM that most aircraft owners and manufacturers would utilize consensus standards to demonstrate compliance with part 36, these standards are not yet developed or approved by FAA. Given this is the first time a consensus standards-based approach is being taken toward demonstration of noise compliance, the risk of not having standards in place prior to the effective date of this rule is elevated. The preliminary Regulatory Impact Analysis for this rule concluded that if these standards were not in place, it could cost up to $20,000 per aircraft per model for compliance that would impose a significant cost on aircraft owners and manufacturers.</P>
                    <P>On January 31, 2025, President Trump signed E.O. 14192 “Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation.” In this order, the President declared it the policy of the Executive Branch to “. . . be prudent and financially responsible in the expenditure of funds, from both public and private sources, and to alleviate unnecessary regulatory burdens placed on the American people.”</P>
                    <P>Considering the potential for additional cost burden on the public and administration policy regarding reducing regulatory burden, the Administrator cannot justify mandatory regulation of LSA noise at this time.</P>
                    <P>Therefore, consistent with the requirements in 49 U.S.C. 44715 and executive branch policy outlined in E.O. 14192, the Administrator has chosen not to impose compliance with part 36 for aircraft not conforming to a type certificate. FAA remains committed to reducing public exposure to aircraft noise where appropriate and anticipates using data gathered from voluntary compliance with part 36 under this final rule to evaluate the effectiveness of this voluntary approach, as well as the use of consensus standards for non-type certificated aircraft to demonstrate compliance with part 36. The Administrator reserves the right to promulgate future regulation under the authority of 49 U.S.C. 44715 if necessary. FAA believes this approach minimizes the burden on those seeking airworthiness certification while still providing a means to comply for those who may want to demonstrate compliance with part 36. Meanwhile, this approach eliminates the potential burden on the public if consensus standards are not in place by the effective date of this rule and maintains compliance with E.O. 14192's requirement to limit regulatory burden. In addition, FAA will be able to gather data on the effectiveness of voluntary consensus standards for aircraft not conforming to a type certificate to demonstrate noise compliance.</P>
                    <P>Under this rule, altering an aircraft in a manner that increases aircraft noise would invalidate a previously issued SOC, and noise compliance would need to be reevaluated if a person wishes to show or state compliance with part 36 for the altered aircraft.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Removal of Noise Provisions From §§ 91.319(l) and 91.327(b)(4)</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed to apply 14 CFR part 36 noise requirements to some light-sport category aircraft and, accordingly, proposed to amend §§ 91.327(b)(4) and 91.319(l) to prohibit a person from operating an aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(i) or (j), or a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category, respectively, unless the aircraft demonstrated compliance with the applicable requirements of part 36.</P>
                    <P>Commenters, including Hartzell Propeller, expressed concern with placing responsibility on pilots for knowing whether their aircraft complied with part 36. Specifically, Hartzell Propeller stated the proposed amendments may pose an issue for pilots, because there would be no statement in flight manuals, logbooks, or similar documents indicating whether part 36 is applicable to a particular aircraft and, if so, whether the requirements of part 36 have been met. Hartzell Propeller questioned whether it should be the pilot's responsibility to determine the applicability of part 36 to a given aircraft and stated the noise provisions should not be enforced at the pilot operating level.</P>
                    <P>FAA agrees that placing the responsibility on the pilot as stated in the NPRM would not have been appropriate, and responsibility would have better been placed on the aircraft owner. However, in removing the requirement for mandatory compliance with part 36 for alterations of light-sport category and experimental light-sport kit-built aircraft, the proposed operating limitations in §§ 91.327(b)(4) and 91.319(l) are no longer relevant and are removed in this final rule. Any persons seeking to voluntarily comply with part 36 under this rule must submit a statement of compliance to FAA per § 36.0.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Agriculture and Firefighting Aircraft Remain Exempt From Part 36</HD>
                    <P>FAA requested comment on whether any other categories of aircraft should or should not be subject to part 36 noise requirements. NAAA and GAMA expressed concern that agricultural and firefighting aircraft not conforming to a type certificate would be required to comply with part 36 under this rule.</P>
                    <P>In removing the requirement for mandatory compliance with part 36 for all non-type-certificated aircraft, exempting non-type-certificated aircraft that have been designated exclusively for agricultural or firefighting aircraft operations is unnecessary. Persons seeking to voluntarily comply with part 36, including for aircraft designated for agricultural or firefighting aircraft operations, may opt to demonstrate compliance with part 36 under this rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Modification of the Factors for Evaluating Noise Consensus Standards</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the preamble to the NPRM, FAA articulated a set of factors that it anticipated using to evaluate noise consensus standards. Many commenters argued that these factors were too strict and impractical to follow. In response, FAA has modified these factors. Specifically, the factor that “The noise levels generated from using the standard must be within 90 percent of confidence limits and must be within +/−2 decibels A (dBA) when compared to results from using the full noise measurement procedures in the corresponding appendix of part 36” has been modified to “within +/−3dB,” and the 90 percent confidence limits 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35178"/>
                        requirement has been removed. These changes simplify the criteria and make it easier to balance the rigor of the methods with ease of use.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, FAA made a minor modification in a factor for clarification. The factor “The standard must consider developments in other associated fields (such as research programs into quantification and control of aircraft noise) and participation by stakeholders” was modified to add “in the development of the standard” following “stakeholders” to clarify that FAA expects to consider the degree to which stakeholders participated in the standard development process.</P>
                    <P>The remaining factors remain unchanged as they were outlined in the NPRM. FAA, therefore, now expects to consider the following four factors when evaluating new noise consensus standards to evaluate compliance:</P>
                    <P>(1) The methods in the standard, whether based in physical noise testing or through validated and/or generally accepted noise prediction methods, must be environmentally responsible, economically reasonable, technologically practicable, and appropriate for the aircraft to which it would apply;</P>
                    <P>(2) The standard must consider developments in other associated fields (such as research programs into quantification and control of aircraft noise) and participation by stakeholders in the development of the standard;</P>
                    <P>(3) The noise levels generated from using the standard must be within +/−3 decibels A (dBA) when compared to results from using the full noise measurement procedures in the corresponding appendix of part 36; and  </P>
                    <P>(4) The standard must clearly document all assumptions used in the development, validation, results, and limitations of the methods presented.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Technical Corrections</HD>
                    <P>FAA made several revisions to part 36 to conform to the changes discussed in this preamble. Section § 36.0 has been retitled to “Applicability and statements of compliance for aircraft that do not conform to a type certificate.” to reflect the nature of the section. Throughout § 36.0 regulatory text has been modified to reflect that “persons” may voluntarily seek to demonstrate part 36 compliance, rather than reflecting “applicants” are required to apply for noise certification as proposed in the NPRM. In addition, the entirety of § 36.0 has been reorganized for clarity. The citations below reflect the location of the relevant text in the final rule.</P>
                    <P>Section 36.0(a) has been modified to reflect that the section applies to persons seeking to show compliance with noise standards for aircraft not conforming to a type certificate described in §§ 21.190, 21.191(k), or 21.191(l), of this chapter. The NPRM proposed including all aircraft certificated under § 21.191. This change clarifies that § 36.0 is only applicable to experimental aircraft that are operating light-sport category kit-built aircraft (§ 21.191(k)) and operating former light-sport category aircraft (§ 21.191(l)). In addition, the final rule omits § 21.193(h) and part 22 from § 36.0(a) as redundant as §§ 21.190, 21.191(k), and 21.191(l) are sufficient to cover the aircraft intended by this rule.</P>
                    <P>Section 36.0(b)(1) and (b)(3) have been modified to reference aircraft described under § 36.0(a) rather than aircraft that do not conform to a type certificate to more accurately reference the aircraft these provisions apply to.</P>
                    <P>Section 36.0(b)(1)(ii) has been modified to remove “and applicable to the aircraft's specific design” as FAA determining the appropriateness for the aircraft includes determining if the consensus standard is appropriate for the “aircraft's specific design.”</P>
                    <P>Section 36.0(b)(3)(i)(A) has been modified to clarify that a person seeking to demonstrate compliance with part 36 for an aircraft for which § 36.0(a) applies may use the same testing requirements as a type-certificated aircraft if FAA determines for noise purposes the two aircraft are substantially similar.</P>
                    <P>Section 36.0(b)(3)(i)(B) has been modified to remove “to the aircraft when the aircraft has not been altered to result in an acoustical change.” This reflects that when an aircraft is type certificated, it includes compliance with part 36. Therefore, this text is unnecessary. Section 36.0(b)(3)(i)(B) has also been modified to clarify that FAA is determining for noise purposes whether the type-certificated aircraft is the same or sufficiently similar in design.</P>
                    <P>Section 36.0(b)(3)(ii) has been modified to replace the word “an applicant” with “a person” as the entity that can seek noise compliance for conformity with the remainder of § 36.0.</P>
                    <P>FAA has also split § 36.1501(a) into two sub-paragraphs, § 36.1501(a)(1) and (2), to differentiate between aircraft with and without type certificates. These modifications do not change the substance of this requirement for aircraft with type certificates. For aircraft without type certificates, given compliance with part 36 is now voluntary, the final rule in § 36.1501(a)(2) revises the NPRM proposed requirement to include noise levels in the POH to instead require that all procedures, weights, configurations, and other information or data employed for obtaining noise levels, including equivalent procedures used for flight testing and analysis must be provided by the applicant to FAA. This change was made to maintain consistency with the SOC requirements.</P>
                    <P>This final rule relocates the substance of proposed § 36.1581(h)(1), (2), and (3) to § 36.0(c)(1)(i), (ii), and (iii), respectively. Section 36.0(c)(1)(i) has been modified to add “the applicable provisions of” to narrow the SOC to the applicable provisions of part 36. Section 36.0(c)(1)(ii) has been modified to add “, and procedures, aircraft configurations, aircraft weights, and other information employed for obtaining the noise levels” to maintain consistence with the SOC requirements. Section 36.0(c)(1)(iii) has been revised to add “or unacceptable” to match the statement currently required in § 36.1581(c). This language was inadvertently omitted from the NPRM proposal. The remainder of proposed § 36.1581(h) is removed completely as voluntary noise compliance is documented by an SOC and is not as specified in §§ 21.190(d) or 21.191.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Discussion of Comments</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Suitability of Noise Limits to Light-Sport Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>Industry commenters including GAMA, Van's Aircraft, and Hartzell Propeller, as well as some individuals, expressed concern about or opposed adding noise requirements to light-sport category aircraft.</P>
                    <P>The commenters stated light-sport category aircraft are limited in size and already have a reduced noise profile. In addition, Van's Aircraft and Hartzell Propeller stated they reviewed EASA and FAA noise databases and stated light-sport category aircraft fall well below the maximum noise level limits. Van's Aircraft also commented that most of its light-sport category aircraft would easily meet existing noise requirements; specifically, stating the company's RV models built in Europe must demonstrate noise compliance for EASA certification. Van's Aircraft also stated noise certification requirements could lead to a detrimental decrease in safety-enhancing aircraft performance.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA disagrees with the claim that the NPRM would have required design changes, compromises, or performance reductions that could negatively impact safety. Since multiple industry commenters have stated most light-sport category aircraft are already quiet and likely meet the noise requirements, there would have been minimal need for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35179"/>
                        design changes. In addition, Van's Aircraft stated in its comments that its aircraft are already required to comply with EASA's noise certification requirements, which are more stringent than those proposed under the NPRM. Even if design changes would have been necessary to meet proposed noise requirements of the NPRM, aircraft would have still needed to meet airworthiness requirements that ensure the aircraft is safe for flight.
                    </P>
                    <P>As previously stated, the Administrator has chosen not to mandate part 36 for aircraft not conforming to a type certificate. This change was made, in part, due to feedback from individuals, manufacturers, and associations on the proposal to mandate noise requirements.</P>
                    <P>As stated previously, this final rule retains requirements and procedures applicable to certain non-type-certificated aircraft should a person or manufacturer choose to demonstrate compliance with part 36. Specifically, this final rule revises proposed § 36.0 to (1) state this provision applies to light-sport category aircraft and light-sport category kit-built aircraft that do not conform to a type certificate, (2) clarify the voluntary provision for a person to comply with part 36 and to document that compliance with an SOC, (3) relocate the information for documenting compliance to this section from § 36.1581(h), and (4) delete paragraph (e) since listing exceptions is no longer applicable for a voluntary provision.</P>
                    <P>The United States Ultralight Association (USUA) recommended that FAA remove noise requirements from the final rule. USUA argued the justification for the noise requirements was a “ `just in case' argument” and sought to remind FAA that “if a problem manifests itself with `obsolete, overly loud technology' being introduced into the fleet that the agency will still have the ability to create regulations and policies to address real problems.” Comment from United States Ultralight Association (USUA), FAA-2023-1377-1302 (quoting from the NPRM).</P>
                    <P>FAA acknowledged in the NPRM there are existing noise concerns, and these concerns along with the potential growth of LSA aircraft led the agency to propose regulation of noise to limit the future adverse impact of LSA noise. Following review of public comments and assessing the potential costs of noise compliance, along with the fact that current policy of the United States is to avoid regulatory burden wherever possible, FAA is proceeding with a voluntary program for those who wish to comply. As USUA suggests, this data-gathering will help FAA regulate noise from non-type-certificated aircraft if the Administrator deems it necessary at a future date.</P>
                    <P>Hartzell Propeller stated FAA did not provide any rationale for the expected cost of compliance with part 36. It asserted FAA should prepare more details, including timelines and the potential opportunity cost of lost sales, for several different project scenarios, as well as including the costs use of professional services such as Designated Engineering Representatives (DERs). Van's aircraft expressed concern about the backlog of testing that could occur if LSA were required to be tested to certify part 36 compliance as well as the high costs if testing were required.</P>
                    <P>In the preliminary Regulatory Impact Analysis (RIA) for this rule, FAA provided a lower bound cost estimate based on the use of industry consensus standards that may rely on prediction methods as a means of compliance. In the case of the prediction-based approach, the cost of estimating aircraft noise levels was anticipated to be de minimis. The preliminary RIA also included an upper bound estimate using noise type certification testing for an average of $20,000 per LSA model. This upper-bound estimate considers flight testing and the use of a professional service such as acoustic DER. See the preliminary RIA on the docket for more information. While FAA anticipates most persons seeking voluntary compliance to part 36 to utilize the prediction-based approach based on consensus standards, the upper bound cost estimate serves as a “worst case scenario” based on established data and methods. Because consensus standards are not yet in place, the agency considered this “worst case scenario” when assessing potential burden on the public to avoid underestimating the impact.</P>
                    <P>Because the mandatory noise certification had the potential to add costs and burden to the public, and given the administration policy regarding reducing regulatory burden, FAA decided the potential noise mitigation did not justify the cost of mandatory noise certification of aircraft not conforming to a type certificate.  </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Suitability of Applying Noise Limits to Some Experimental Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>GAMA, EAA, and some individual and industry commenters expressed concerns with applying noise requirements to some experimental aircraft and stated it would burden individual aircraft owners without clear benefits. Commenters also said the new noise requirements may stifle experimentation, especially for EAB aircraft.</P>
                    <P>As compliance with part 36 for aircraft without type certificates under this rule is now voluntary, individual aircraft owners and manufacturers are free to make whatever decisions they deem appropriate, within the boundaries of 14 CFR. FAA notes, however, that Congress granted it statutory authority and responsibility to regulate aircraft noise to protect the public health and welfare. As illustrated by FAA's regular noise reviews and noise-based litigation, this is an issue that greatly animates the public. FAA does not agree, as some commentors insinuated, that noise certification lacks value entirely.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Suitability of Applying Consensus Standards to Powered-Lift Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>EASA had concerns about the suitability of noise consensus standards for powered-lift aircraft, because there is limited noise measurement data available for them. Hartzell Propeller commented that some novel aircraft designs are yet to be well defined and are not covered by the aircraft categories shown in part 36, so applying noise requirements to those aircraft would be detrimental to the industry.</P>
                    <P>FAA agrees with EASA and anticipates that development of consensus noise standards would focus on aircraft that already have sufficient noise data available. FAA notes this rule does not create new noise limits but rather uses the noise limits already included in part 36.</P>
                    <P>Further, FAA works with other regulatory authorities and industry and has been actively engaged in the International Civil Aviation Organization Committee of Aviation Environmental Protection Working Group 1 (ICAO CAEP WG1) to develop future noise standards for powered lift aircraft.</P>
                    <P>For novel aircraft, including some powered lift aircraft, voluntary noise compliance could be demonstrated through proposed § 36.0(d)(2), which the final rule renumbers to § 36.0(b)(3)(ii), even when there are no industry consensus standards and an aircraft does not fit into an existing part 36 category. This approach was adopted to provide flexibility to persons who choose to seek part 36 noise certification.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Use of Consensus Standards</HD>
                    <P>
                        Industry associations and individual commenters generally supported the use of industry consensus standards in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35180"/>
                        noise certification of light-sport category aircraft but expressed concern about the resources required to develop the standards and the technical challenge in developing consensus standards. Several commenters including Hartzell Propeller, GAMA, EASA, EAA, and individuals wondered why FAA would “approve” noise consensus standards while FAA “accepts” safety-based airworthiness standards.
                    </P>
                    <P>Hartzell Propeller cited challenges in developing industry consensus standards, such as balancing technical rigor with ease of use, considering that manufacturers or owners of aircraft may not have experience in noise certification. It also cited the need for accessing FAA's aircraft noise data to support standard development. In addition, Hartzell Propeller expressed concern about whether the noise consensus standards would be available in time for the effective date of the rule and if the standards would be able to cover all the aircraft design types covered by this rule.</P>
                    <P>EASA indicated a need to maintain a sufficient level of regulatory oversight in terms of approval of the consensus standards and methods used in demonstrating compliance, citing the need for harmonization between the two regulatory bodies. EASA stated it currently applies the same noise requirements to light-sport category aircraft as it does to type certificated aircraft, that is, noise flight testing to demonstrate compliance.</P>
                    <P>EASA and Hartzell Propeller sought clarification about the criteria used in validating industry consensus standards. Hartzell Propeller indicated +/−2 decibels might be too narrow a range for prediction-based methods.</P>
                    <P>FAA is requiring approval of noise consensus standards in this rule because the use of consensus standards for noise certification is new for both government and industry, and it believes approval is necessary to ensure the process accomplishes the intended goals. FAA's approval process of noise consensus standards for aircraft not conforming to a type certificate is similar to FAA's approval process for equivalent noise testing procedures used for type-certificated aircraft. The factors that describe how FAA will evaluate these consensus standards are given above, in section IV.N.5.d, and those factors have been broadened beyond +/−2 decibels. Utilizing a proven process is important for both supporting industry and working with international partners.</P>
                    <P>FAA agrees with the commenters that there is no guarantee that consensus standards will be complete by the effective date of this rule. The agency is willing to support consensus standard development by sharing noise data and by providing input to standard development organizations on an “as-needed” basis and will do so consistent with the requirements and procedures found in OMB Circular No. A-119. FAA expects industry will take a leading role in the development of noise consensus standards, as it has with airworthiness standards.</P>
                    <P>FAA acknowledges the Hartzell Propeller comment regarding balancing technical rigor with ease of use and can provide input on specific topics on an as-needed basis. FAA expects standard-setting committees to balance this to the best of their knowledge and engineering judgement. In evaluating noise consensus standards for approval, FAA will focus on the factors described in section IV.N.5.d of this rule.</P>
                    <P>FAA already works with EASA and other authorities to harmonize the practices used in noise certification for type certificated aircraft and expects to do the same for non-type certificated aircraft going forward.</P>
                    <P>FAA also notes that if an aircraft not conforming to a type certificate is of the same design as an aircraft that has already received noise certification from EASA in accordance with ICAO Annex 16 Volume 1, the manufacturer can use the noise data from its EASA certification to demonstrate compliance with the voluntary noise requirements of this rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Demonstration of Compliance</HD>
                    <P>Industry commenters including GAMA, Hartzell Propeller, EAA, and many individuals sought clarification about the level of oversight FAA will require to demonstrate compliance. They expressed concerns that if the level of oversight required would be similar to that of noise certification of type certificated aircraft, it would delay projects and cause resource constraints for both FAA and the industry. Many suggested the use of a self-declaration process to show compliance with part 36. GAMA commented that § 36.1581(h) is not necessary for special light-sport category aircraft (S-LSA) because if noise compliance is required, it may be enforced elsewhere rather than at the pilot operating level. Hartzell Propeller further commented that requiring an airworthiness change for an experimental light-sport category aircraft (E-LSA) from one experimental category to a different experimental category for the purposes of testing a modification accomplishes little.</P>
                    <P>As discussed earlier in this preamble, FAA has provided several means of compliance that the agency believes provides a flexible approach to demonstrate compliance with part 36. Through use of a voluntary approach, FAA can gather information on the effectiveness of voluntary compliance with part 36 for non-type certificated aircraft. The statement of compliance process utilized by this rule is self-declarative in nature and will not require the level of FAA oversight required for type certification projects.</P>
                    <P>Since this final rule makes compliance with part 36 voluntary for non-type-certificated aircraft, this final rule also removes from part 21 corresponding requirements for an SOC to part 36. Similarly, this final rule deletes from the last sentence of proposed § 36.1501(a), “noise levels achieved during airworthiness certification must be included in the Pilot's Operating Handbook,” and deletes the second sentence of proposed § 36.1851(h), “Noise compliance with this part must be documented as specified in § 21.190(ed) or 21.191 of this chapter, as applicable.” This final rule relocates the substance of proposed § 36.1581(h)(1), (2), and (3) to § 36.0(c)(1). As stated earlier in this preamble, manufacturers and persons seeking voluntary compliance with part 36 may display the SOC in a manner of their choosing.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Other Comments on Certification Processes and Standards</HD>
                    <P>EASA and Hartzell Propeller had questions and concerns related to the applicability of part 36 appendix F to noise certification under this rule. EASA sought clarification as to whether the use of appendix F would be exclusively for compliance demonstration. EASA, Hartzell Propeller, and individuals also commented that the requirements for testing in appendix F are not necessarily simpler than appendix G, as asserted in the NPRM.</P>
                    <P>FAA notes that use of appendix F was offered as an example of a method that could serve as the basis of a consensus noise standard, not necessarily a means or method of compliance that should be undertaken for noise certification. This example was offered because appendix F uses an A-weighted maximum noise level (Lamax) while appendix G requires measurement of sound exposure level (SEL). If a prediction model is to be used for propeller driven aircraft, it is generally easier to predict Lamax than SEL. This final rule does not require appendix F flight testing procedures or correction of noise levels from appendix F to appendix G.</P>
                    <P>
                        Hartzell Propeller commented that the noise requirements for propeller-driven 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35181"/>
                        aircraft in part 36 create a “tilted playing field” with respect to aircraft age and weight, and the noise limit curve penalizes newer and lighter aircraft, discouraging aircraft turnover. Van's Aircraft also questioned the reason for the weight-based approach to noise classification. FAA notes the noise limits in part 36 are identical to the globally recognized ICAO standards and are based on extensive collaboration and coordination among aviation authorities of ICAO member states and industry representatives worldwide. ICAO recognizes that larger, heavier aircraft yield greater utility and thus should be allowed to generate more noise. This concept serves as the basis for these standards.
                    </P>
                    <P>Hartzell Propeller suggested that FAA continue to issue airworthiness certificates to LSA based on designs in production prior to the effective date, even if those newly constructed aircraft do not comply with part 36.</P>
                    <P>On or after July 24, 2026, FAA will only issue an airworthiness certificate for a light-sport category aircraft if the applicant meets the requirements of this final rule. See related discussion in sections IV.L.2.e and IV.Q. As previously discussed throughout section IV.N, this final rule does not require compliance with part 36 for non-type-certificated aircraft.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">g. Community Noise Concerns  </HD>
                    <P>FAA received 13 comments on the MOSAIC NPRM from community groups and individuals expressing concern about the impacts of noise from expanded MOSAIC provisions.</P>
                    <P>AICA stated noise impacts of the NPRM are difficult to determine by impacted communities, insufficient information was shared by FAA, and the rule will result in increased levels of high-performance aircraft. It also stated part 36 noise limits referenced in the rule are difficult for communities to understand, let alone evaluate.</P>
                    <P>
                        Several individuals who commented expressed concerns, stating that FAA has failed to address worsening aircraft noise, particularly from general aviation, as well as the impact of noise on public health, environmental quality, and community welfare. Commenters stated they believed the MOSAIC rule could potentially exacerbate these issues by introducing more aircraft and pilots without adequately balancing the resulting noise and environmental effects. In addition, commenters referenced FAA's recent Noise Policy Review (NPR), which received thousands of submissions documenting noise impacts from general aviation. Commenters urged FAA to prioritize compliance with its obligations under 49 U.S.C. 44715 to protect public health and welfare from aircraft noise before advancing the MOSAIC rule.
                        <SU>323</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA recognizes that aircraft noise is a concern for many stakeholders. The agency's Neighborhood Environmental Survey (NES) and ongoing NPR reflect FAA's ongoing commitment to understand aircraft noise across all aircraft. As discussed earlier, under 49 U.S.C. 44715, the Administrator has full discretionary authority over when to prescribe regulations to control and abate aircraft noise for non type-certificated aircraft. Among the considerations when exercising this authority are relevant information related to aircraft noise, consistency with the highest degree of safety in air transportation or air commerce in the public interest, and economic reasonableness. In addition, under E.O. 14192, it is the policy of the executive branch to “alleviate unnecessary regulatory burdens placed on the American people.” After giving due consideration to the factors outlined in 49 U.S.C. 44715, and consistent with current executive branch policy under E.O. 14192, the Administrator has decided not to exercise his authority at this time.</P>
                    <P>The Programmatic Environmental Assessment (PEA) discloses the potential environmental impacts associated with this rule and its implementation, including noise impacts. A draft PEA for this rule based on policy in the NPRM was issued on May 27, 2025, for public comment. A final PEA based on policy included in this final rule is described in section V.G and is available on this rule's docket. In general, both PEAs and the associated noise technical studies demonstrate this final rule would not result in significant adverse noise impacts. Please refer to the final PEA for further information on noise impacts.</P>
                    <P>FAA believes that by establishing a process for non-type certificated aircraft to voluntarily demonstrate compliance with part 36, the agency has provided an option for those who wish to do so, while also providing a method to determine the effectiveness of voluntary standards for aircraft not conforming to a type certificate. This voluntary program may also provide useful data should future policy changes be necessary.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">h. General Comments</HD>
                    <P>GAMA, VAI, EAA, AOPA, NATA, NBAA, and many individuals commented on the following sentences in the NPRM: “In the past two decades, the reality of the number of aircraft operating that do not conform to a type certificate has overtaken those historical presumptions. There are now tens of thousands of aircraft that do not conform to type certificates, many of them nearly identical.”</P>
                    <P>Commenters disputed this, saying that while many experimental aircraft may indeed appear “nearly identical,” engines, propellers, and exhaust systems vary widely even among similar airframes.</P>
                    <P>FAA intended to describe models of aircraft not conforming to a type certificate that are similar to specific type certificated general aviation aircraft. The agency acknowledges there are similar models and airframes with significantly different noise profiles due to variations among engines, propellers, exhaust, and other systems.</P>
                    <P>Hartzell Propeller expressed concern that the proposed part 36 requirements would apply to existing aircraft types for which there are no FAA deﬁned or accepted procedures or limits for noise compliance in part 36; namely gyroplanes, weight shift control vehicles, and powered parachutes. Hartzell Propeller further stated the industry cannot deﬁne a consensus standard for these vehicles for the same reason.</P>
                    <P>FAA reiterates that balloons, gyroplanes, weight shift control vehicles, and powered parachutes, which have no or limited noise sources and do not readily fit into categories with noise measurement standards defined in part 36 appendices, were excepted from the requirement to demonstrate compliance with part 36 under § 36.0(e)(2) in the NPRM. Regardless, under this final rule, compliance with part 36 is voluntary for all light-sport category aircraft and light-sport category kit-built aircraft that are not type-certificated.</P>
                    <P>
                        Hartzell Propeller questioned the organization of the noise requirements added to multiple sections of the CFR, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         in parts 21, 22, 36 and 91, and suggested consolidation of those references. Further, the commenter argued that the manner in which part 36 compliance was applied to all experimental categories and then exempted all but light sport was problematic, because it could possibly imply some future rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed previously, under this final rule compliance with part 36 is voluntary for all light-sport category aircraft and light-sport category kit-built aircraft that do not conform to a type-certificate. As such, corresponding requirements in parts 21, 22, and 91 no longer apply and are removed.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35182"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">O. Import and Export of Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed to amend § 21.183(d)(2) to enable acceptance of an inspection performed by a foreign maintenance organization to support imports of used aircraft from countries with which the U.S. has a bilateral agreement that includes acceptance of imported aircraft. That proposal was intended to align regulatory text with the intent expressed in the preamble when § 21.183(d)(2) was last amended. No comments were submitted to the docket concerning this proposal. This final rule adopts this section as proposed.</P>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed revising § 21.327 to require that an applicant for an export certificate of airworthiness for an aircraft be an owner of that aircraft and the aircraft must be registered in the U.S. This proposal would preclude persons from exporting aircraft for which they are neither the owner nor the owner's agent. Furthermore, by requiring the aircraft to be registered in the U.S., this proposal would allow the aircraft to be under the regulatory authority of the U.S. before export. FAA received two comments related to this proposal.</P>
                    <P>One commenter asked if an owner's agent would be able to apply for an export certificate of airworthiness for an aircraft. As discussed in the preamble of the NPRM, an owner's agent would be able to sign and submit this application. The final rule amends this section to add, “(or the agent of the owner)” for clarity.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter stated an amendment concerning importing or exporting aircraft should be addressed in separate rulemaking. FAA has full latitude for managing its rulemaking activities, including whether to bundle proposals within one rulemaking action or address such proposals in separate rulemaking actions. The NPRM was a combination of many different proposals related to special airworthiness certification, and this change concerning exports was well within the scope of these proposals, especially for export of type-certificated aircraft that are issued special airworthiness certificates. Also, FAA notes that the table of contents on the cover page of the NPRM showed a section of the NPRM for amendments concerning import and export of aircraft, clearly indicating inclusion of this subject matter on the first page of the NPRM. Accordingly, given that FAA acted rationally and within its authority for combining proposals within a given rulemaking action, FAA disagrees with the commenter that this matter should be addressed in separate rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>This final rule adopts § 21.327 as proposed, except for the addition regarding agents discussed above.</P>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed revising § 21.329(a)(1) requirements for the issuance of an export certificate of airworthiness to remove the word “airworthiness,” clarifying that a new or used aircraft manufactured under subpart F or G of the part would need to meet all applicable requirements under subpart H of the part—not just those requirements that may apply to airworthiness. Subpart H contains requirements for items other than airworthiness, such as requirements for aircraft registration and identification. No comments were submitted to the docket concerning this proposal. This final rule adopts this section as proposed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">P. Other Out of Scope Comments</HD>
                    <P>
                        MFTC and GAMA commented that this NPRM only covers FAA-issued experimental flight permits and requested that this NPRM apply to FAA-issued special flight authorizations (SFA) also. MFTC noted Bombardier's flight test vehicles are Canadian-built and registered and have TCCA experimental flight permits with FAA SFAs and operate in the U.S. (
                        <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                         Bombardier at Wichita Airport).
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA did not address SFAs in the NPRM and there were no proposed changes to SFA-related regulations in the NPRM. In addition, it is unclear specifically what parts of the NPRM are being requested apply to SFAs and what the rationales or justifications would be for expanding applicability to SFAs for each part, as none is offered in the comment. As such, FAA disagrees with this recommendation for this final rule as it lacks sufficient clarity to appropriately consider the recommendation, and it may be a substantive change that exceeds the scope of this rulemaking. Such a proposal would likely require appropriate notice to the public and opportunity for comment.</P>
                    <P>One commenter stated the MOSAIC proposal does not address the kit aircraft community under the current “fifty-one percent” rule under § 21.191(g). The commenter recommended either eliminating the “fifty-one percent” rule or modifying the “fifty-one percent” rule to remove “substantially.” FAA notes the “fifty-one percent” rule is a common reference to the requirements to obtain an experimental airworthiness certificate for the purpose of operating amateur-built aircraft. Specifically, § 21.191(g) requires that the major portion of the aircraft has been fabricated and assembled by persons who undertook the construction project solely for their own education or recreation. As noted in the comment, the NPRM did not address kit aircraft in terms of the “fifty-one percent” rule. FAA disagrees with this recommendation as it is outside the scope of this rulemaking. Such a proposal would require appropriate notice to the public and opportunity for comment.</P>
                    <P>One commenter stated, in reference to aircraft parts and components, that manufacturers provide parts but may not have them in stock or in some cases the company may cease to exist. This can leave aircraft owners with needlessly grounded aircraft. The commenter encouraged FAA to collaborate with the industry to ﬁnd a solution to this “checkmate” situation and stated perhaps there can be a way to provide a “field approval” of sorts to allow parts fabrication. Revising regulations related to parts fabrication is out of scope of this rulemaking and would require appropriate notice to the public and opportunity for comment.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Q. Effective and Compliance Dates</HD>
                    <P>The NPRM proposed requiring compliance with the rule based upon two staggered effective dates. The NPRM proposed an effective date of two months after publication of the final rule for provisions that do not depend on the creation or revision of industry consensus standards. For proposals that depend on the creation or revision of industry consensus standards, the NPRM proposed an effective date of six months after the final rule to allow organizations that are currently developing industry consensus standards to finalize its consensus standards based on the final rule; FAA review and acceptance or approval of such consensus standards; notice of availability of such standards; and sufficient time to allow manufacturers to design, retool, obtain supplies, subcontract, train employees, produce parts, assemble, conduct flight and ground testing, and create required documentation. Section IV.L of the NPRM discussed and listed the proposed rules for which this proposed six-month effective date would apply.</P>
                    <P>
                        As proposed in the NPRM, after the effective date of six months after publishing the final rule, manufacturers of light-sport category aircraft would be unable to deliver new aircraft until all required consensus standards for the applicable class of aircraft have been revised and accepted or approved by 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35183"/>
                        FAA, and that are non-compliant with new requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>Since the delayed effective date of six months is intended to accommodate industry responsibilities for compliance with the final rule, the NPRM requested comment on whether six months appropriately balances enabling compliance as soon as practical with the need for additional time to prepare for compliance with the final rule.</P>
                    <P>Following publication of the NPRM, FAA identified other proposed amendments that would be impacted by the availability of new or revised consensus standards related to the light-sport sector. In addition, as part of its proposed amendment to § 91.319, FAA committed to developing procedures concerning operating limitations for operations over densely populated areas and in congested airways that it would provide to the public for comment prior to adoption. Those procedures impact issuance of experimental airworthiness certificates. Similarly, this final rule amends operating limitations for restricted category aircraft under § 91.313 and creates new operating limitations for experimental aircraft conducting space support vehicle flights in § 91.331. Development of procedures concerning the issuance of these operating limitations for public review and comment merits application of a longer effective date for §§ 91.313, 91.319, and 91.331.</P>
                    <P>FAA received 14 comments related to effective dates. Streamline Designs commented with respect to § 21.190(d)(6), that an effective date of at least 12 months is required to prevent a situation in which manufacturers are unable to deliver aircraft by allowing sufficient time for completion and FAA-acceptance of supporting consensus standards and for manufacturers to revise compliance documentation. FAA notes that no class of light-sport category aircraft will meet part 22 without new or revised consensus standards. Because consensus standards are a means of compliance to the final rule's requirements, they cannot be finalized until after publication of the final rule. Based on the time for industry to revise consensus standards to meet the requirements of the final rule; for FAA to review, accept or approve, and publish notices of availability for those consensus standards; for manufacturers to revise their compliance documentation; and for manufacturer compliance, FAA agrees with the commenter that an effective date of approximately a year is necessary for any provision that depends on the creation or revision of industry consensus standards.</P>
                    <P>One commenter stated at least one year is required to promulgate guidance, allow the public time to understand the changes, and for FAA to fulfill its responsibilities. Similarly, another commenter argued that a minimum of six months is required for all proposals, given the massive scope of proposals.</P>
                    <P>FAA agrees that more time is required than provided for with the proposed first effective date of two months after publication of the final rule to promulgate draft guidance and directives with the final rule for public comment, revise those documents based on public comment, and publish final documents to support the first effective date. This rule, therefore, will apply an effective date of 90 days after publication of this final rule for provisions that do not depend on the creation or revision of industry consensus standards or new procedures for establishing operating limitations under §§ 91.313, 91.319, and 91.331.</P>
                    <P>Regarding the comment concerning the scope of the NPRM, the scope of the whole rule is not the sole factor for implementing parts of the rule. Other factors include whether a particular element of the rule is relieving, enabling, ready to implement, dependent on new or revised consensus standards and such. Some parts of the rule are clearly relieving, enabling, ready to implement, or not dependent on revised consensus standards. As such, their implementation may be quicker to enable the public to benefit sooner. Other parts of the rule require more steps for implementation and thus require more time to prepare for implementation.</P>
                    <P>The estimated time needed to implement the MOSAIC final rule is the basis for establishing the two delayed effective dates described in this rule. Accordingly, FAA will implement some rules sooner and others later, as described for individual amendments throughout this preamble.</P>
                    <P>Hartzell Propeller doubted that two months from the final rule would be sufficient time for FAA to manage and complete projects and for FAA-accepted consensus standards to be available. The NPRM addressed this concern with a longer proposed effective date to enable completion and acceptance of new or revised consensus standards and for manufacturer compliance with those standards. As discussed previously in this section, FAA agrees that more time is required than provided for with the proposed first effective date of two months after publication of the final rule to promulgate draft guidance and directives with the final rule for public comment, revise those documents based on public comment, and publish final documents to support the first effective date.</P>
                    <P>Hartzell Propeller also commented about the effective date of the final rule as it relates to kit-built, light-sport category aircraft. Hartzell Propeller described that the process of procurement of kits and components, assembling, testing, and certification often occurs over many years. Accordingly, builders who started such projects before this final rule should not be subject to the new requirements. FAA understands and agrees with this argument. Requirements of the final rule applicable to kit-built light-sport category aircraft will apply to light-sport aircraft kits purchased on or after the applicable effective date of this rule.</P>
                    <P>Van's Aircraft requested a provision to allow existing light-sport aircraft to be produced for some period after publication of the final rule. The delayed effective date in the final rule is intended for this purpose. Van's Aircraft did not offer comment on the sufficiency of the proposed effective date of six months for this purpose. Van's Aircraft also requested provision to allow an “overlap” of unspecified duration during which manufacturers could produce under the regulations in existence prior to the final rule or those regulations as amended by the final rule. The NPRM did not propose such an overlap provision. An overlap would require retaining both the pre-amended and as-amended text of the regulations. As described in the NPRM, the proposed rule includes deleting a definition of light sport aircraft in part 1 that is applied in multiple 14 CFR parts, the creation of part 22, and the establishment of separate eligibility requirements for aircraft, sport pilot, and light-sport repairman certification. Providing an overlap of current and proposed requirements, therefore, would require overly complex regulatory text, implementing policies and guidance, and likely cause confusion among stakeholders. FAA does not agree with changing the proposed rule to provide this overlap. Instead, the final rule applies a delayed effective date to provide sufficient time for industry to transition to compliance with the requirements of the final rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        Nine other commenters recommended that FAA should implement the final rule as expeditiously as possible to enable the public to benefit sooner from these proposals. FAA will establish an effective date no longer than necessary to provide those with responsibilities for compliance with new requirements sufficient time for fulfilling those responsibilities.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35184"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>Though FAA proposed effective dates of two and six months for this final rule, FAA recognizes the public comments on the proposed effective date given the public's responsibilities for compliance with these rules. In particular, FAA finds the comments of Streamline Designs, the former chair and current co-chair of the ASTM Committee F37 on Light Sport Aircraft, significant and compelling concerning the minimum timeline to complete industry consensus standards necessary for establishing means of compliance to many of these rules. In addition, procedures for establishing operating limitations in issuance of experimental airworthiness certifications require public review and comment following this rulemaking as discussed in the NPRM. Accordingly, for provisions that depend on the creation or revision of industry consensus standards or new procedures for establishing operating limitations under subpart D of part 91, this action will apply an effective date of 365 days after publication of the final rule. This will allow time for organizations, such as ASTM, that are developing industry consensus standards to revise consensus standards to meet the requirements of the final rule; FAA to review, accept or approve, and publish notices of availability for those consensus standards; manufacturers to revise their compliance documentation; and compliance by light-sport manufacturers. This will also allow FAA to develop and publish draft procedures and operating limitations authorizing certain operations of experimental aircraft and restricted category aircraft; for the public to review and comment on those draft procedures and operating limitations; and for FAA to disposition public comments and publish the final procedures and operating limitations.</P>
                    <P>The effective dates for each amendment are included in the dates and amendment sections of this final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">R. Benefits and Costs</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Summary of Comments</HD>
                    <P>The AEA asserted newer, larger, more complex light-sport aircraft will compete with type certificated aircraft and the agency must consider the significant technical, administrative, and financial impact on the small businesses that support the aviation certification process under other provisions of part 21. Sonex expected a positive economic impact for its manufacturing business and foresees positive safety impacts and lower costs. It concluded that the rule will facilitate the entrance of new aircraft benefiting consumers, manufacturers, maintainers, and airports.</P>
                    <P>An individual asked how fewer regulations of affected aircraft contributes to aviation safety and stated this assertion was not supported by data. The individual also questioned why FAA is concerned with recreational values. Another individual stated retractable gear, variable pitch propellors, two empty seats, and night operations do not make an airplane safer to fly. This individual also disputed that the needed changes to training courses, including the addition of retractable landing gear and variable pitch propellors, represent only a minor rewrite expense.</P>
                    <P>One individual stated FAA did not consider the recertification work for the ASI when aircraft move from one category to the expanded light-sport category. Another commented on the cost of purchasing ASTM Standard F2245 from ASTM instead of free availability from FAA. Another individual requested an ASTM standard for parts, engines, etc. so aircraft can be upgraded without imposing burdensome costs on the average aviator.</P>
                    <P>One individual stated several proposals unnecessary and irrelevant for powered parachutes would require extra paperwork from manufacturers, pilots, and repairmen causing a switch from powered parachutes to less safe aircraft. Another individual stated the rule will provide economic incentives to increase the number of active pilots as well as provide them with new affordable aircraft and related technologies, boosting the number of jobs available in the aviation industry. Another individual stated the rule will lower flight training costs for students by increasing the availability of less expensive, more fuel-efficient aircraft for primary flight training. They concluded the rule would help reduce a pilot deficit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. FAA Response</HD>
                    <P>FAA addresses the issue of competition with type-certificated aircraft in section IV.C. As noted in that section, this rule has no impact on airplanes with more than four seats. Further, with safety as its top priority, FAA must consider broader needs and opportunities for improving safety within general aviation that may be achieved by improving the safety of the light-sport category through the expansions in aircraft eligibility, operating privileges, and sport pilot privileges contained in the rule. Though impacts will depend on the extent to which affected entities pursue these opportunities and the specific results, the potential for benefits noted by Sonex exists.</P>
                    <P>Regarding potential safety impacts, FAA addresses the data and rationale that support expanding the types of aircraft and features that can be operated as light-sport aircraft, and operating privileges for sport pilots, generally in section IV.C. Specific discussion on why FAA believes these feature and operating rule changes, such as retractable landing gear, variable pitch propellers, or night operations, do not constitute a change in safety can be found in the respective portions of section IV. Recreational activity is a large component of light-sport aircraft operations. However, FAA acknowledges recreational value is not the motivation for the rule and does not consider it in the benefit-cost analysis.</P>
                    <P>Regarding the rewrite of training courses, for the NPRM, FAA stated providers of training for light-sport repairmen would have to submit their courses to FAA for acceptance within six months after rule publication. However, as described in section IV.I of this preamble, FAA has determined the existing training courses already contain the applicable content. Therefore, there will be no need to review or revise training courses. The exception is two training courses on gliders that will need to be updated to include content on both unpowered and powered gliders for which FAA has provided a one-year compliance period.</P>
                    <P>There would not be recertification activity for ASIs. Airworthiness certificates issued to light-sport category aircraft under § 21.190 and experimental light-sport category aircraft under § 21.191(i) before the effective date of this final rule remain in effect after the effective date of this final rule. Those aircraft do not change categories after the effective date of this final rule. Recertification of those aircraft is not required.</P>
                    <P>
                        Industry consensus standards bodies develop many consensus standards to support certification of various aviation products, articles, and services. ASTM is the only consensus standards body to date that has specifically developed consensus standards for certification of light-sport category aircraft. In the United States, these consensus standards are primarily to help aircraft manufacturers of light-sport category aircraft meet the design, production, and airworthiness requirements of part 22. Though FAA recognizes the commenter's willingness to purchase these consensus standards for greater familiarization with the certification 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35185"/>
                        pedigree of the commenter's aircraft, an owner of a light-sport category aircraft is not required to purchase or be familiar with these consensus standards. ASTM consensus standards concerning light-sport category aircraft include design and manufacture of aircraft engines and parts. The rule expands provisions for alterations of light-sport category aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding powered parachutes, the commenter does not say which proposals will increase costs including extra paperwork and testing. FAA addresses paperwork requirements further in section V.E. FAA agrees with comments regarding the potential for new affordable aircraft and lower flight training costs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Regulatory Notices and Analyses</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Regulatory Impact Analysis</HD>
                    <P>Executive Orders 12866 (“Regulatory Planning and Review”) and 13563 (“Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review”) require agencies to regulate in the “most cost-effective manner,” to make a “reasoned determination that the benefits of the intended regulation justify its costs,” and to develop regulations that “impose the least burden on society.” OMB has determined that this rule is not a significant regulatory action as defined in section (3)(f) of Executive Order 12866.</P>
                    <P>This final rule is considered an E.O. 14192 deregulatory action. Details on the estimated cost savings of this rule can be found in the rule's economic analysis. This section provides FAA's analysis of the regulatory impact of the rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Introduction and Background</HD>
                    <P>This rule modernizes the regulatory approach to light-sport aircraft, incorporating performance-based requirements that reflect advances in technology and use cases for this type of aircraft. FAA designed the rule to respond to the evolving needs of this sector and provide for future growth and innovation without compromising safety. The rule also includes amendments concerning certification and operations of aircraft (other than light-sport aircraft) that hold special airworthiness certificates.</P>
                    <P>
                        An airworthiness certificate is an FAA document that grants authorization to operate an aircraft in flight. A registered owner or owner's agent of an aircraft may apply for an airworthiness certificate. FAA issues two different classifications of airworthiness certificates: standard and special. A standard airworthiness certificate (FAA form 8100-2 displayed in the aircraft) is FAA's official authorization allowing for the operation of type certificated aircraft in the following categories: normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, transport, manned free balloons, and special classes. A special airworthiness certificate (FAA Form 8130-7) is authorization to operate an aircraft, including type certificated,
                        <SU>324</SU>
                         in the U.S. airspace in one or more of the following types shown in Table 7. The rule affects the light-sport and experimental types of special airworthiness certificates shown in Table 7. There are also minor changes affecting the restricted category.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r200">
                        <TTITLE>Table 7—Types of Special Airworthiness Certificates</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Purpose</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Primary</ENT>
                            <ENT>Aircraft flown for pleasure and personal use.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Restricted</ENT>
                            <ENT>Aircraft with a “restricted” type certificate, including: agricultural, forest and wildlife conservation, aerial surveying, patrolling (pipelines, power lines), weather control, aerial advertising, other operations specified by the Administrator.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Multiple</ENT>
                            <ENT>Multiple airworthiness certificates restricted category aircraft.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Limited</ENT>
                            <ENT>Aircraft with a “limited” type certificate.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Light-sport</ENT>
                            <ENT>Operation of a light-sport aircraft.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Experimental</ENT>
                            <ENT>Aircraft flown for research and development, showing compliance with regulations, crew training, exhibition, air racing, market surveys, operating amateur-built aircraft, operating kit-built aircraft, operating light-sport aircraft, unmanned aircraft systems.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Special flight permit</ENT>
                            <ENT>Special-purpose flight of an aircraft that is capable of safe flight.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Provisional</ENT>
                            <ENT>Aircraft with a “provisional” type certificate for special operations and operating limitations.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            Source: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/aircraft/air_cert/airworthiness_certification/sp_awcert.</E>
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Light-Sport Category Aircraft</HD>
                    <P>The rule expands the classes of aircraft that may be certificated using consensus standards as light-sport category aircraft; removes weight limits; increases capacity for passengers, fuel, and cargo; enables electric propulsion; and enables faster, higher-performing aircraft. Table 8 summarizes these changes.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r100,r75">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 8—Summary of Changes for Light-Sport Category Aircraft 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Feature</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Current 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Final rule 
                                <SU>3</SU>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Aircraft class</ENT>
                            <ENT>Airplanes, gliders, lighter-than-air, powered parachute, and weight-shift-control</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not prescribed.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Maximum number of seats</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 seats</ENT>
                            <ENT>4 seats for airplanes, 2 seats for others.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Maximum weight</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,320 pounds for land-based aircraft; 1,430 pounds for amphibious aircraft</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not prescribed.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Maximum stall speed</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                45 knots V
                                <E T="0732">S1</E>
                                 CAS
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                61 knots V
                                <E T="0732">S0</E>
                                 CAS for airplanes, 45 knots V
                                <E T="0732">S0</E>
                                 for glider, Unchanged for others.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Maximum airspeed</ENT>
                            <ENT>120 knots CAS</ENT>
                            <ENT>250 knots CAS.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Engine</ENT>
                            <ENT>Single reciprocating engine</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not prescribed.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Propeller</ENT>
                            <ENT>Fixed or ground-adjustable if powered other than powered glider; fixed or feathering if powered glider</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not prescribed.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Landing gear</ENT>
                            <ENT>Fixed</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not prescribed.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            CAS = calibrated airspeed; V
                            <E T="0732">S0</E>
                             = stall speed with full flap extension; V
                            <E T="0732">S1</E>
                             = stall speed without the use of lift-enhancing devices.
                            <PRTPAGE P="35186"/>
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             14 CFR 21.190.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             Per 14 CFR 1.1 definition of light-sport aircraft.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             3. Per 14 CFR 21.190 eligibility.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Noise Standards</HD>
                    <P>The rule amends part 36 to add a voluntary means for aircraft owners and manufacturers of aircraft that do not conform to a type certificate to demonstrate compliance with part 36 noise levels. Aircraft owners and manufacturers can comply with the noise standards through FAA-approved consensus standards, the applicable part 36 appendix, or the development of an ad-hoc certification basis determined by FAA for new and novel aircraft.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Sport Pilots</HD>
                    <P>The rule expands privileges for sport pilots, including to operate most of the new light-sport category aircraft. There are also new privileges granted to sports pilots for model-specific light-sport category aircraft with simplified flight controls, helicopters, automatic constant-speed and manual controllable pitch propellers, retractable landing gear, unprescribed limit on maximum speed, and night operations. Table 9 summarizes these changes and Table 10 summarizes changes to associated training.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r75,r100">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 9—Summary of Changes to Sport Pilot Privileges 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Current 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Final rule 
                                <SU>3</SU>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Aircraft privileges</ENT>
                            <ENT>Airplanes, gliders, weight-shift-control, powered-parachutes, lighter than air, and gyroplanes</ENT>
                            <ENT>Adds helicopters with simplified flight controls certificated under § 21.190; adds simplified flight controls model-specific privilege for aircraft with simplified flight controls designation.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Maximum seats</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 (2 persons)</ENT>
                            <ENT>4 seats for airplanes (2 persons), 2 seats for others.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Weight</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,320/1,430 pounds</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not prescribed.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Maximum stall speed</ENT>
                            <ENT>45 knots CAS</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                59 knots (V
                                <E T="0732">S1</E>
                                ) CAS for airplanes only, 45 knots CAS for other categories.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Maximum airspeed</ENT>
                            <ENT>120 knots CAS</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not prescribed.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Engine</ENT>
                            <ENT>Single, reciprocating</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not prescribed.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Propeller</ENT>
                            <ENT>Fixed or ground-adjustable (powered other than glider)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Allow airplanes with a manual controllable pitch propeller (with training).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Landing gear</ENT>
                            <ENT>Fixed except glider (fixed or feathering)/water (fixed, retractable, or hull)</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Allow aircraft that have retractable landing gear (with training).
                                <SU>4</SU>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pilot endorsements</ENT>
                            <ENT>NA</ENT>
                            <ENT>For simplified flight control designated aircraft, night operations, controllable pitch propeller, and retractable landing gear.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Sport pilot in command limitation</ENT>
                            <ENT>Privileges and limitations exist</ENT>
                            <ENT>Clarifying an existing limitation that states pilots may not act as PIC of an aircraft requiring a type rating.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Medical certificates</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Daytime operations: valid driver's license; 
                                <SU>5</SU>
                                 Night operations: NA
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Daytime operations: no change; Night operations: BasicMed 
                                <SU>6</SU>
                                 or FAA medical certificate.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>NA = not applicable.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            CAS = calibrated airspeed; V
                            <E T="0732">S1</E>
                             = stall speed without the use of lift-enhancing devices.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Applies to experimental and light-sport category aircraft, and small type- and production-certificated aircraft (14 CFR part 23).
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             14 CFR 1.1 definition of light-sport aircraft.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             Part 61 eligibility criteria.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             The final rule includes a provision to allow pilots with pilot in command experience in aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable gear to continue to operate these aircraft without additional training and endorsement in new § 61.331(c).
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             Applies if most recently issued medical certificate (if the person has held a medical certificate) has not been suspended or revoked or most recent Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate withdrawn.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             BasicMed is an alternate way for pilots to fly without holding an FAA medical certificate as long as they meet certain requirements of § 61.23(c).
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,r100,r100">
                        <TTITLE>Table 10—Summary of Changes to Sport Pilot and Instructor Training</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Current</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Final rule</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Sport pilot certificate, Sport pilot flight instructor certificate</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Training in applicable knowledge and flight operations by authorized instructor; knowledge test and practical test for 1 of 5 aircraft category privileges.
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                 Specified flight experience
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Sport pilot: new helicopter with simplified flight controls privilege available. Sport pilot flight instructor: new training privilege for helicopters with simplified flight controls.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Sport pilot: Add another category and class privilege; Sport pilot flight instructor: Add another category and class training privilege</ENT>
                            <ENT>Training in applicable knowledge and flight operations by authorized instructor; proficiency check with another authorized instructor</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Practical test 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                 for airplane or helicopter with simplified flight controls privilege; no change for other.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Simplified flight controls model-specific endorsement</ENT>
                            <ENT>NA</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Sport pilot: 
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                 flight training in the model-specific aircraft or in a corresponding flight training device or simulator and logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor; New applicant: practical test.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Endorsement for aircraft retractable landing gear, and airplane controllable pitch propeller</ENT>
                            <ENT>NA</ENT>
                            <ENT>Training and certifying logbook endorsement.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="35187"/>
                            <ENT I="01">Flight simulation training device and aviation training device credit</ENT>
                            <ENT>NA</ENT>
                            <ENT>Allow for up to 2.5 hours for training credit in a qualified device representing the appropriate category and class aircraft.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Night operations</ENT>
                            <ENT>NA</ENT>
                            <ENT>Training and certifying endorsement from an authorized instructor.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Flight proficiency requirements for sport pilot and flight instructor with sport pilot</ENT>
                            <ENT>Lists of required tasks for training</ENT>
                            <ENT>Added heliport and hovering maneuvers which apply to helicopters only.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Flight instructor qualifications (Subpart H only)</ENT>
                            <ENT>NA</ENT>
                            <ENT>Training in an aircraft with simplified flight controls requires an instructor to be qualified in category and class prior to adding the make and model limitation.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Flight instructor for new make and model-initial cadre</ENT>
                            <ENT>NA</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                An instructor pilot may serve as a flight instructor for the purposed of initial cadre.
                                <SU>5</SU>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Testing standards for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Privilege</ENT>
                            <ENT>NA</ENT>
                            <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-26, Sport Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Privilege Airman Certification Standards; FAA-S-ACS-31, Flight Instructor with a Sport Pilot Rating for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Privilege Airman Certification Standards.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>NA = not applicable.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Airplane, glider, weight shift control aircraft, powered parachute, or lighter-than-air.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             Compared to a proficiency check, a practical test is a more formal test conducted by an FAA aviation inspector or Designated Examiner.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             Must already hold category and class privilege of the simplified flight controls model-specific aircraft.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             If the model-specific aircraft has operating characteristics precluding completing all the category and class tasks required by airman certification standards, the applicant's certificate will have a model-specific limitation that could be later removed with appropriate additional testing.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             Instructor pilot can be a pilot employed or used by the manufacturer of an aircraft with simplified flight controls designation.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Maintenance and Repairmen</HD>
                    <P>The rule expands light-sport repairmen privileges to align with the expansions of eligibility for certification of light sport category aircraft. The rule also clarifies provisions for persons acceptable to FAA who may perform repairs and alterations of light-sport category aircraft. The rule also removes the requirement for owners/operators of light-sport category aircraft to comply with safety directives issued by the aircraft manufacturer.</P>
                    <P>FAA is also replacing the specified aircraft class training hour requirements with a performance-based standard for light-sport repairman maintenance rating training.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Space Support Vehicles</HD>
                    <P>The rule codifies language in the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2018 (Pub. L. 115-254) that authorized certain operators of aircraft with special airworthiness certification in the experimental category to conduct space support vehicle flights carrying persons or property for compensation or hire to simulate space flight conditions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Operations</HD>
                    <P>The rule updates regulations related to operating limitations for experimental aircraft, restricted category aircraft, and light-sport aircraft. For example, the rule allows the Administrator to issue operating limitations to authorize certain aircraft with experimental airworthiness certificates to operate over densely populated areas and in congested airways for all flight segments, beyond takeoffs and landings.</P>
                    <P>FAA is also allowing some light-sport category aircraft to conduct certain aerial work operations for compensation or hire, which expands the limited exceptions for light sport category aircraft to conduct operations for compensation or hire beyond the flight training and glider towing operations allowed previously.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Need for the Regulation</HD>
                    <P>This section describes the need for the regulation, including a description of the problem, technological changes, market failure, FAA strategic goals, and requirements mandated by Congress.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Description of Problem</HD>
                    <P>FAA must update its regulations periodically to keep pace with technological and industry changes, and to add or remove requirements based on experience. With respect to special airworthiness certificates, updates are warranted to codify provisions FAA has granted in multiple exemptions based on safety considerations. Adopting more performance-based standards provides industry greater latitude for rapid revisions to supporting consensus standards as needed to address emerging safety issues as well as for enabling more rapid innovation. FAA determined that performance-based rather than time-based training for light-sport repairmen is also appropriate. Also, regulations requiring certification to noise standards currently do not apply to aircraft that are not type-certificated and FAA has determined that it is now appropriate to allow for voluntary compliance by manufacturers of these aircraft.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Technological Changes</HD>
                    <P>Current regulations for light-sport aircraft contain a specific weight limit. Changing this limit to a performance limit may improve safety by enabling greater inclusion of safety-enhancing technologies such as parachutes, ADS-B, and AOA displays. Greater weight allowances will also enable sturdier designs that are able to withstand the rigors of a flight training environment and greater utility in extended range and endurance as a personal recreational aircraft. Removing weight restrictions also enables electric powered aircraft to carry more battery weight, which improves the range and performance of electrically powered aircraft. Also, FAA is increasing the maximum airspeed for light-sport aircraft to account for potential advances in technology and manufacturing practices.</P>
                    <P>
                        The rule also permits any type of engine or propeller to be installed on light-sport category aircraft. This change enables performance enhancements beyond the reciprocating engines and fixed-pitch propellers that currently 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35188"/>
                        define light-sport category aircraft. New types of engines could include electric, turbine, compressed natural gas, hydrogen, or solar. For example, electric flight is now available on the market, but currently cannot be flown as a light-sport category aircraft or by a sport pilot.
                        <SU>325</SU>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. FAA Strategic Goals</HD>
                    <P>
                        FAA's 2021 Continued Operational Safety Report for Special Category Light-Sport Aircraft 
                        <SU>326</SU>
                         describes its vision of increasing industry accountability and safety, with a goal of an equivalent or lower fatal accident rate than other segments of “personal” aviation, without requiring FAA type design certification or FAA production oversight. This vision includes supporting a regulatory and policy structure for industry to achieve FAA safety goals through self-declared compliance with industry developed and maintained consensus standards. The rule implements this vision.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Congressional Mandate</HD>
                    <P>This rule also codifies language in the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2018 (Section 581) authorizing certain operators of aircraft with an experimental airworthiness certificate to conduct space support vehicle flights carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. An operator may conduct space support vehicle flights to simulate space flight conditions in support of training for potential space flight participants, government astronauts, or crew; the testing of hardware to be used in space flight; or research and development tasks, which require the unique capabilities of the aircraft conducting the flight.</P>
                    <P>Finally, as stated in section II, this rule addresses section 824 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2024, which requires that FAA issue a final rule not later than 24 months after the date of enactment of that Act, May 16, 2024.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Baseline for the Analysis</HD>
                    <P>The baseline for the analysis of incremental benefits and costs of the rule includes existing regulations and standards, affected entities and the aircraft to which the rule applies, and existing risks including safety and environmental.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Existing Regulations and Standards</HD>
                    <P>The 2004 final rule, Certification of Aircraft and Airman for the Operation of Light-Sport Aircraft (69 FR 44772), established regulations for the manufacture, certification, operation, and maintenance of light-sport aircraft. The 2004 final rule specifies maximum weight, stall speed, airspeed, and seats; engine, propeller, and landing gear types; requirements for maintenance and repairs; and requirements and privileges for sport pilots. These specifications and certification requirements reflect small, simple, easy-to-fly aircraft for sport and recreation with small range. Regulations in 14 CFR 21.191 cover experimental light-sport aircraft, including kit-built, intended for the purposes shown in Table 7.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA also works with industry in developing consensus standards for light-sport category aircraft, which it reviews periodically. Currently, consensus standards for the certification of light-sport category aircraft have been developed by ASTM and accepted for use by FAA.
                        <SU>327</SU>
                         For example, in 2023, FAA reapproved (completed review with no technical changes) ASTM F2724-14, Standard Specification for Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH) for Light Sport Airplane.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regulations in part 23 cover airworthiness standards for normal category airplanes.
                        <SU>328</SU>
                         FAA amended its airworthiness standards for normal, utility, acrobatic, and commuter category airplanes in 2016 by replacing prescriptive design requirements with performance-based airworthiness standards (81 FR 96572). The standards provide risk-based divisions for airplanes with a maximum seating capacity of 19 passengers or less and a maximum takeoff weight of 19,000 pounds or less.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regulations in part 36 establish the applicability, standards, and test methods for aircraft noise. FAA's noise certification process is entirely performance-based; there are no noise-reduction technologies defined in the noise regulations. Applicants are free to choose any methods or technologies that allows their aircraft to pass the noise limits. FAA sets the noise limits in the regulations so that aircraft with current technology pass those noise limits.</P>
                    <P>Currently, noise standards do not apply to previously defined special light-sport aircraft or experimental light-sport aircraft in the United States. Foreign light-sport aircraft manufacturers, however, may already be subject to noise testing and certification requirements. For example, EASA and Australia both require almost all aircraft operating in their airspace, including light-sport aircraft, to comply with the environmental noise protection requirements contained in the Standards of ICAO Annex 16, Volume I. Therefore, any domestic or foreign light-sport aircraft manufacturers in these markets that also export to the United States are already required to comply with accepted standards for noise.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Affected Entities</HD>
                    <P>The rule may affect manufacturers, pilots, and repairmen of light-sport category aircraft and experimental light-sport category aircraft. This section describes these entities. The rule could also provide additional options for entities performing certain types of aerial work and those involved with space support vehicles.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Manufacturers</HD>
                    <P>
                        The rule may affect aircraft, aircraft engine, and aircraft parts manufacturers (North American Industry Classification 33641) to the extent that they design and manufacture the types of aircraft for which performance-based standards apply. For example, FAA maintains a listing of all known make/model combinations that have received, or may be eligible to receive, special airworthiness certificates as light-sport category aircraft.
                        <SU>329</SU>
                         Data from June 2022 show a total of 208 make/model combinations from 70 foreign and 59 US manufacturers. FAA Registry 
                        <SU>330</SU>
                         data provide information to identify which of these models are being produced currently. Table 11 shows these data.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,15,12">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 11—Manufacturers of Light-Sport Category Aircraft 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Manufacturers 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Models 
                                <SU>3</SU>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">US</ENT>
                            <ENT>26</ENT>
                            <ENT>35</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Foreign</ENT>
                            <ENT>28</ENT>
                            <ENT>38</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>54</ENT>
                            <ENT>73</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Source: FAA Registry.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Based on production from 2018-2022.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             Includes manufacturers of previously defined special light-sport aircraft and experimental light-sport aircraft (drop down and kits).
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             Produced since 2020.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <PRTPAGE P="35189"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Pilots</HD>
                    <P>In 2023, there were over 7,000 active sport pilots (Table 12). For comparison, Table 12 also shows the number of pilots in other small aircraft categories.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s200,15">
                        <TTITLE>Table 12—Estimated Active Airmen Certificates Held</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">No.</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Recreational (only)</ENT>
                            <ENT>71</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Sport (only)</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,144</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Private Airplane</ENT>
                            <ENT>167,711</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Rotorcraft (only)</ENT>
                            <ENT>13,428</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Glider (only)</ENT>
                            <ENT>21,292</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            Source: 2023 Active Civil Airman Statistics, Table 1, available at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/data_research/aviation_data_statistics/civil_airmen_statistics.</E>
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>FAA conducts a General Aviation Survey to estimate activity levels. Table 13 shows baseline estimates of hours flown in different aircraft types for recent years.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,15">
                        <TTITLE>Table 13—Estimated Total Hours Flown</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">2022</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">2021</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">2020</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Gliders</ENT>
                            <ENT>75,574</ENT>
                            <ENT>92,002</ENT>
                            <ENT>50,352</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Lighter-than-air</ENT>
                            <ENT>77,090</ENT>
                            <ENT>64,323</ENT>
                            <ENT>35,535</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Experimental—Amateur</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,001,165</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,105,526</ENT>
                            <ENT>943,995</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                Experimental Light-sport 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>138,874</ENT>
                            <ENT>148,963</ENT>
                            <ENT>117,529</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Experimental—Exhibition</ENT>
                            <ENT>73,511</ENT>
                            <ENT>92,588</ENT>
                            <ENT>64,221</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Other Experimental</ENT>
                            <ENT>65,265</ENT>
                            <ENT>46,616</ENT>
                            <ENT>50,177</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Special Light-sport</ENT>
                            <ENT>231,068</ENT>
                            <ENT>245,156</ENT>
                            <ENT>201,615</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Experimental light-sport includes aircraft with experimental airworthiness certification and light-sport aircraft for which airworthiness certificates are not final.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            Source: FAA General Aviation and Part 135 Activity Survey, Table 1.3 and 2.1. Available at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/data_research/aviation_data_statistics/general_aviation.</E>
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">iii. Repairmen</HD>
                    <P>
                        In 2023, there were 283 light-sport aircraft repairmen.
                        <SU>331</SU>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Risks</HD>
                    <P>Existing safety and environmental risks include accidents and noise profiles of light-sport aircraft. Table 14 shows accidents and fatalities involving previously defined special light-sport aircraft. Table 15 shows accidents, fatalities, and serious injuries involving EAB aircraft.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,18">
                        <TTITLE>Table 14—Accidents and Fatalities: Special Light-Sport Category Aircraft</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Fatal accidents</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Fatalities</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Nonfatal accidents</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2023</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>4</ENT>
                            <ENT>53</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2022</ENT>
                            <ENT>9</ENT>
                            <ENT>13</ENT>
                            <ENT>47</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2021</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                            <ENT>54</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2020</ENT>
                            <ENT>4</ENT>
                            <ENT>4</ENT>
                            <ENT>63</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2019</ENT>
                            <ENT>4</ENT>
                            <ENT>7</ENT>
                            <ENT>75</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Source: FAA 2024 data.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,15,18,15,15">
                        <TTITLE>Table 15—Accidents, Fatalities, and Injuries: EAB Aircraft</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Fatal accidents</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Nonfatal accidents</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Fatalities</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Serious injuries</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2023</ENT>
                            <ENT>34</ENT>
                            <ENT>141</ENT>
                            <ENT>39</ENT>
                            <ENT>35</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2022</ENT>
                            <ENT>38</ENT>
                            <ENT>124</ENT>
                            <ENT>55</ENT>
                            <ENT>27</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2021</ENT>
                            <ENT>37</ENT>
                            <ENT>117</ENT>
                            <ENT>46</ENT>
                            <ENT>38</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2020</ENT>
                            <ENT>39</ENT>
                            <ENT>118</ENT>
                            <ENT>49</ENT>
                            <ENT>34</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2019</ENT>
                            <ENT>38</ENT>
                            <ENT>141</ENT>
                            <ENT>47</ENT>
                            <ENT>32</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Source: NTSB, 2024. Case Analysis and Reporting Online (CAROL). Accessed November.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        In 2012, NTSB found there are a disproportionate number of accidents involving EAB aircraft relative both to their proportion of the general aviation fleet and their share of general aviation flight activity. NTSB found the overall accident rate per 1,000 aircraft to be nearly twice that of comparable non-EAB aircraft, and the fatal accident rate between 2.5 and 3 times higher.
                        <SU>332</SU>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FAA does not have data on the baseline noise profiles of light-sport 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35190"/>
                        category aircraft. FAA's noise certification regulations, however, are technology-following. This means that FAA intends to allow aircraft with current noise-reduction technology to successfully meet those requirements, but not aircraft with older or louder technology (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         two-stroke engines, unmuffled exhaust). FAA also intends for its noise certification requirements to provide a basis for comparing aircraft noise levels, but not as a method for determining how the noise of aircraft operations affects people. FAA treats the effects of aircraft noise in part 150 and 161. The rule does not modify or supplant part 150 and 161.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Benefits</HD>
                    <P>The benefits of the rule include the value of changes in safety and environmental risks.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Safety Benefits</HD>
                    <P>The rule could reduce risks associated with light-sport category aircraft to the extent that the relaxation of certain requirements spurs changes that make these aircraft safer to fly. For example, removing the specific weight limit provides greater flexibility for the inclusion of safety-enhancing technologies such as parachutes, ADS-B, and angle of attack displays. The performance-based rules could also enhance safety by enabling appealing alternatives to EAB aircraft that do not meet 14 CFR or consensus standards. FAA determined that removing the requirement to comply with safety directives issued by the aircraft manufacturer would not adversely affect safety because any safety-of-flight condition underlying such directive would need to be corrected for aircraft to be in airworthy condition.</P>
                    <P>
                        For example, as shown in Table 15, in 2023 there were 39 fatalities and 35 serious injuries from 34 fatal and 141 nonfatal accidents involving EAB aircraft. FAA estimates the value of reducing the risk of fatalities and injuries using the value of statistical life (VSL) 
                        <SU>333</SU>
                         and the Maximum Abbreviated Injury Scale (MAIS).
                        <SU>334</SU>
                         For example, reduction in the risk of one fatality generates benefits equal to the VSL (approximately $13.7 million). Reduction in the risk of serious injury generates benefits equal to the fraction of the VSL associated with MAIS level 3 (.105), or approximately $1.4 million (0.105 × $13.7 million; Table 16).
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,15,15">
                        <TTITLE>Table 16—Values Associated With Levels of Injury Severity Based on the VSL</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">MAIS level</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Severity</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Fraction of VSL</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Value 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">MAIS 1</ENT>
                            <ENT>Minor</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.003</ENT>
                            <ENT>$41,100</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">MAIS 2</ENT>
                            <ENT>Moderate</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.047</ENT>
                            <ENT>643,900</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">MAIS 3</ENT>
                            <ENT>Serious</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.105</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,438,500</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">MAIS 4</ENT>
                            <ENT>Severe</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.266</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,644,200</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">MAIS 5</ENT>
                            <ENT>Critical</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.593</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,124,100</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">MAIS 6</ENT>
                            <ENT>Unsurvivable</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>13,700,000</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>VSL = value of statistical life.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Fraction of VSL multiplied by VSL.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Given the number of fatalities and serious injuries, relatively small reductions in risks enabled by the rule could generate substantial benefits (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a 10 percent reduction in fatalities and serious injuries from the 2023 level for amateur-built aircraft would generate undiscounted benefits of $53 million and $5 million, respectively).
                        <SU>335</SU>
                         However, since these types of modifications and developments are yet to be available, FAA is not able to estimate the potential for risk reductions under the rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>The rule will also enable larger light-sport category aircraft and higher airspeeds. However, because the accompanying performance-based design standards require predictable control and maneuverability through all phases of flight without requiring exceptional piloting skill, FAA does not anticipate that the increases will increase safety risks for sport pilots. The adjusted training requirements for sport pilots seeking these privileges, and light-sport repairmen maintaining these planes, also ensure against increased risks. Finally, the rule allows light-sport category aircraft to be used in limited aerial work. FAA determined these limited operations also will not negatively affect safety.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Environmental Benefits</HD>
                    <P>FAA sets noise certification limits so that aircraft with current technology can meet those limits. As a result, FAA expects the rule will likely not lead to significant noise reductions. However, voluntary compliance with the standards could keep new designs and modifications of existing aircraft from increasing noise above the limit. Because FAA cannot predict the amount of increase in noise that would occur in the absence of the rule, and compliance with noise standards is voluntary, it is unable to quantify these benefits.</P>
                    <P>The potential for adoption of new technologies such as electric motors also has the potential to reduce noise levels (as well as aircraft emissions). FAA also does not have an estimate of the extent of adoption of such technology with and without the rule to estimate potential benefits.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Uncertainty</HD>
                    <P>There are several limitations in the analysis of benefits. Table 17 provides the limitations and the likely impact on the potential for benefits.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,12C,r150">
                        <TTITLE>Table 17—Uncertainties in the Analysis of Benefits</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Assumption or uncertainty</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Direction of impact</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Comments</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Voluntary compliance with noise standards</ENT>
                            <ENT>+</ENT>
                            <ENT>There may be trade-offs required between desired performance and noise compliance.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Technological advances improving safety and the environment</ENT>
                            <ENT>+</ENT>
                            <ENT>The potential for benefits may directly relate to specific technological advances, and manufacturer incorporation of such improvements in new or modified designs.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="35191"/>
                            <ENT I="01">Future activity levels</ENT>
                            <ENT>?</ENT>
                            <ENT>Different factors (e.g., unmanned activity, environmental or safety concerns) could influence activity in this sector in different directions.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>`+' = Positive impact on benefits; `?' = uncertain impact on benefits.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Costs</HD>
                    <P>The rule could result in incremental compliance costs for design and production of light-sport category aircraft. The sections below also discuss cost considerations relevant to training and operations provisions, and voluntary compliance with noise certification.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Design and Production</HD>
                    <P>The rule establishes performance-based design and production standards for light-sport category aircraft. As a result, most, if not all, existing consensus standards for the areas in subpart B of part 22 need revision. Manufacturers are not required to take advantage of the expanded design opportunities, but for those that do, the cost of conformance to revised consensus standards will be inherent in the new design.</P>
                    <P>
                        There could be implications for continued production of existing light-sport category aircraft depending on the make and model design. Part 22 standards that may impact manufacturers most include fire protection and emergency evacuation.
                        <SU>336</SU>
                         Since current standards used to demonstrate compliance for current make and model aircraft designs represent minimum requirements, FAA does not have data on those designs that exceed current minimum standards to a degree that will meet revised standards.
                    </P>
                    <P>There may also be opportunity costs (lost production) to the extent it takes longer than 12 months (the effective date of the standards) for industry to revise consensus standards and FAA to accept those standards.</P>
                    <P>The rule also expands the criteria for aircraft that may be certified as light-sport category aircraft through consensus standards. Because obtaining a special airworthiness certificate through conformance with consensus standards may be less costly compared to obtaining type certification under part 23, manufacturers may experience cost savings. FAA does not have data on the incremental difference in design cost under type certification compared to consensus standards.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Noise Certification</HD>
                    <P>Manufacturers of light-sport category aircraft may voluntarily comply with the noise standards in part 36 and provide an SOC for their aircraft. Manufacturers can comply using consensus standards, once developed, in lieu of traditional noise measurement flight tests.</P>
                    <P>FAA expects costs for noise certification to be significantly less (minimal) using consensus standards compared to traditional testing. FAA is researching methods to support the industry in developing these consensus standards. The preliminary investigation shows that existing SAE standards for predicting light propeller-driven aircraft noise have potential for further development into a modeling-based consensus standard tool. Such a tool will also assist manufacturers in making design choices early in the development process.</P>
                    <P>
                        Because consensus standards are not yet available, FAA also estimated an upper bound cost based on using the applicable part 36 appendix. This method entails developing a noise certification test plan, submitting the plan for approval by FAA, conducting the required noise measurements, and submitting the noise certification report for FAA's review and approval. Based on experience with type-certificated airplanes, FAA estimates that noise certification testing costs using Appendices J, G, and F (light helicopters and propeller driven aircraft) to part 36 is at most $20,000 per model.
                        <SU>337</SU>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Sport Pilot Certification and Training</HD>
                    <P>The rule revises the required training for a sport pilot or sport pilot instructor seeking to add another class privilege from training and a proficiency check to training and a practical test. This change is because these two privileges (airplane and helicopters with simplified flight controls) result in the operation of larger and heavier aircraft with speeds up to 250 knots CAS and operation in Class B, C, and D airspace. The rule also adds training requirements to accommodate the expanded privileges (simplified flight controls model-specific endorsement, and endorsements for complex aircraft, night operations, and aircraft with retractable landing gear). FAA is facilitating these operations, which necessitates the endorsements, but these operations are not required and, therefore, do not impose any mandatory costs.</P>
                    <P>The rule does not impose increased training or testing costs on any pilots, though those seeking to add a sport pilot airplane or rotorcraft privilege to an existing pilot certificate will require the practical tests. Those who successfully complete the updated requirements will receive the privileges that were not previously available (though it is possible that some individuals could prefer the current unexpanded category, privileges, and training).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Repairmen Certification and Training</HD>
                    <P>The rule replaces the minimum training course hour requirements for light-sport repairmen with performance-based standards. The rule requires that training courses must, at a minimum, include the knowledge, risk management, and skill elements for each subject contained in the Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant Airman Certification Standards, as appropriate to the category, and class as applicable, of aircraft being taught.</P>
                    <P>
                        Existing light-sport repairman training courses already contain the course content that a light-sport repairman must know to obtain the applicable rating and aircraft category privileges sought.
                        <SU>338</SU>
                         Therefore, these courses already contain and align with the applicable content of the Mechanic ACS. Removing the hours-based requirement may result in some time savings, depending on the course.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Cost Savings From Other Rule Provisions</HD>
                    <P>
                        The rule allows light-sport category aircraft to be used in certain aerial work. Some light-sport category aircraft may be less costly than the aircraft currently being used for this work such that there could be cost savings associated with switching. However, FAA does not have data to estimate the extent the rule will result in a switch to light-sport category aircraft for the limited types of work allowed or associated cost savings.
                        <PRTPAGE P="35192"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Uncertainty</HD>
                    <P>Table 18 provides a summary of key uncertainties and assumptions and the likely direction of impact on the compliance cost estimates.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,12C,r150">
                        <TTITLE>Table 18—Uncertainties in the Analysis of Compliance Costs</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Assumption or uncertainty</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Impact on
                                <LI>costs</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Comments</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Design changes needed for revised consensus standards</ENT>
                            <ENT>+</ENT>
                            <ENT>Some changes may be needed in the areas of fire protection and emergency evacuation for some models. For noise, FAA does not have data concerning the impact of applying part 36 standards to current make and model designs.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Reduced design costs for models that could meet consensus standards rather than be type-certificated</ENT>
                            <ENT>−</ENT>
                            <ENT>The extent to which manufacturers pursue one certification path versus the other is not known.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">No costs associated with aligning and conforming rule changes</ENT>
                            <ENT>?</ENT>
                            <ENT>Changes are largely enabling in nature.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>`+' = positive impact on costs; `−' = negative impact on costs; `?' = uncertain impact on costs.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Summary</HD>
                    <P>The rule largely expands opportunities in the light-sport aircraft sector. As such, benefits and costs depend on the extent to which affected entities pursue these opportunities and the specific results. These expansions may result in safety; there may also be associated design and production costs and cost savings. The rule also amends part 36 to allow for voluntary compliance with noise standards by manufacturers in this sector. FAA expects the cost to comply voluntarily with the noise standards to be minimal using industry consensus standards. FAA does not anticipate more than minimal incremental costs for other provisions of the rule. FAA also does not have data to estimate any cost savings, such as could result from operating certain light-sport category aircraft in aerial work for compensation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                    <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) of 1980, (5 U.S.C. 601-612), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121) and the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-240), requires Federal agencies to consider the effects of the regulatory action on small business and other small entities and to minimize any significant economic impact. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses and not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000.</P>
                    <P>This final rule largely expands opportunities for manufacturers of light-sport category aircraft. FAA does not anticipate more than minimal incremental costs to implement provisions of the rule. Also, compared to the proposed rule, this final rule enables manufacturers to voluntarily comply and state compliance with part 36 noise requirements. Given the voluntary compliance with noise standards, manufacturers will comply under circumstances beneficial to their business.</P>
                    <P>If an agency determines that a rulemaking will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, the head of the agency may so certify under section 605(b) of the RFA. Therefore, as provided in section 605(b) and based on the foregoing, the head of FAA certifies that this rulemaking will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. International Trade Impact Assessment</HD>
                    <P>The Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (Pub. L. 96-39), as amended by the Uruguay Round Agreements Act (Pub. L. 103-465), prohibits Federal agencies from establishing standards or engaging in related activities that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. Pursuant to these Acts, the establishment of standards is not considered an unnecessary obstacle to the foreign commerce of the United States, so long as the standard has a legitimate domestic objective, such as the protection of safety and does not operate in a manner that excludes imports that meet this objective. The statute also requires consideration of international standards and, where appropriate, that they be the basis for U.S. standards. FAA has assessed the potential effect of this proposed rule and determined it would respond to a domestic safety objective and would not be considered an unnecessary obstacle to trade.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Assessment</HD>
                    <P>The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) governs the issuance of Federal regulations that require unfunded mandates. An unfunded mandate is a regulation that requires a State, local, or tribal government or the private sector to incur direct costs without the Federal government having first provided the funds to pay those costs. FAA determined that the rule will not result in the expenditure of $187,000,000 or more ($100,000,000 adjusted for inflation using the most current Implicit Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic Product) by State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or the private sector, in any one year.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) requires that FAA consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. According to the 1995 amendments to the Paperwork Reduction Act (5 CFR 1320.8(b)(2)(vi)), an agency may not collect or sponsor the collection of information, nor may it impose an information collection requirement unless it displays a valid OMB control number.</P>
                    <P>This action contains amendments to the existing information collection requirements approved under OMB Control Numbers 2120-0018, 2120-0022, 2120-0690, and 2120-0730. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)), FAA has submitted these proposed information collection amendments to OMB for its approval.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Summary and Use:</E>
                         FAA is proposing to amend rules for the manufacture, certification, operation, maintenance, and alteration of light-sport category aircraft. Certificate holders required to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35193"/>
                        comply would experience the following conforming revisions to existing information collection activities:
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs45,r200">
                        <TTITLE>Table 19—Summary of Conforming Revisions</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Control No.</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Revisions</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2120-0018</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                FAA Form 8130-6, Application for U.S. Airworthiness Certificate:
                                <LI O="oi3">• Update the “LIGHT-SPORT” field to accommodate any aircraft class.</LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• Update the “RESTRICTED” filed to add newly codified operations.</LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• Update the “EXPERIMENTAL” field to add new purpose for operating former military aircraft.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                FAA Form 8130-15, Light Sport Aircraft Statement of Compliance:
                                <LI O="oi3">• Update the “Check applicable items” field to change the 14 CFR reference for kits, accommodate any aircraft class, and indicate whether the aircraft meets eligibility requirements in part 61 for a sport pilot.</LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• Update the “FAA Applicable Accepted Standard(s)” and corresponding “Manufacturer's Documentation” fields to reflect new requirements for manufacturer's training requirements, optional simplified flight controls, and optional aerial work.</LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• Add a statement concerning acceptable aerial work operations.</LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• Revise statement(s) to remove references to 14 CFR definition of light-sport aircraft and include new statements required by this rule.</LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• Include new requirements of § 21.190(f)(3), (4), and (5) for an amended statement of compliance.</LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• Update the certifying statement field to add training/certification credentials for the person signing the form.</LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• Add provision for the manufacturer of light-sport category aircraft to notify FAA and owners of aircraft it manufactured in advance of discontinuance of its continued operational safety program or transfer of its execution to another responsible party.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2120-0022</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                FAA Form 8610-3, Airman Certificate and/or Rating Application—Repairman:
                                <LI O="oi3">• Change the certificate title from repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) to repairman certificate (light-sport).</LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• Use the term “Aircraft Category” in place of “LSA Class” and list the following aircraft categories: airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air, powered-lift, powered parachute, and weight-shift-control aircraft.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2120-0690</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                FAA Form 8710-11, Airman Certificate and/or Rating Application (previously part of OMB Control Number 2120-0690):
                                <LI O="oi3">• Update the “Application Information” field to accommodate any aircraft class, and to specify whether the aircraft meets requirements for simplified flight controls.</LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• Update the “Record of Pilot Flight Time” field to accommodate any aircraft class.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2120-0730</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                14 CFR 91.417, Maintenance Records—SLSA Safety Directive Recording:
                                <LI O="oi3">• Cancelled (compliance no longer mandatory).</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Public Comments:</E>
                         FAA received three comments concerning FAA Form 8130-6, no comments concerning FAA Form 8130-15, one comment concerning FAA Form 8610-3, no comments concerning FAA Form 8710-11, and no comments concerning § 91.417.
                    </P>
                    <P>Air Tractor, Inc., NAAA, and GAMA asked which uses and special purpose operations may be selected when applying for a special airworthiness certificate for restricted category aircraft. They also asked about the basis for determining eligibility for special purpose operations.</P>
                    <P>FAA notes that, per § 21.185, FAA issues an airworthiness certificate for restricted category aircraft for aircraft that were type certificated in the restricted category and that, per § 21.25(a), FAA issues “a type certificate for an aircraft in the restricted category for special purpose operations.” That is, FAA Form 8130-6 merely reflects the requirements of these regulations. The revised form includes the uses and special purpose operations included in the NPRM and an applicant may select all uses and special purpose operations included on the applicable type certificate, including any design changes approved per subpart D of part 21.</P>
                    <P>As with any application for issuance of an airworthiness certificate, it is incumbent on the applicant to provide evidence of compliance with applicable requirements, including, in this case, eligibility issuance of a special airworthiness certificate for a restricted category aircraft for the special purpose operation under the applicable type certificate. FAA has responsibility for reviewing all such records and inspecting the aircraft to verify that the applicant met applicable requirements and the aircraft is airworthy.</P>
                    <P>One commenter asked if there will be changes to FAA Form 8610-3 related to the repairman certificate (light-sport) changes. As discussed in the NPRM, changes will be made to FAA Form 8610-3, which is a part of information collection 2120-0022, through the OMB approval process.</P>
                    <P>
                        The revisions to the information collection instruments (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         forms) related to this rulemaking do not result in changes to the current OMB approved burden estimates in the affected collections.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Respondents (including number of):</E>
                         No change.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                         No change.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Annual Burden Estimate:</E>
                         Changes to these forms, including those related to the dispositions of public comments, have no impacts on the burden estimates for paperwork burden for these collections.  
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. International Compatibility</HD>
                    <P>In keeping with U.S. obligations under the Convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention), it is FAA policy to conform to International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) standards and recommended practices to the maximum extent practicable. In the event this final rule differs with ICAO standards, the United States can address this issue with ICAO.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA notes that multiple aviation authorities have established provisions for the certification of light-sport category aircraft. Requirements among these authorities share similarities for enabling the certification of small aircraft for recreation. However, the specific eligibility parameters for certification as light-sport category aircraft; design, performance, and production requirements; and certification procedures are not harmonized among these authorities. FAA understands that EASA requires the use of the noise standards in Annex 16 Volume I of the Chicago Convention. This rule would not require the use of Annex 16 Volume I for these aircraft. Regardless of differences among national civil aviation authorities for the certification of light-sport category aircraft, the final rule generally aligns with recent rulemaking in Brazil and the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35194"/>
                        European Community in enabling increased safety and performance of these aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        This final rule will enable specialty air services conducted pursuant to the United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement (USMCA). As required by the Chicago Convention Annex 2, persons conducting specialty air services must comply with the pertinent regulations of both their country of origin and the country in which they are operating.
                        <SU>339</SU>
                         When there is a variance in regulation between the two countries, the more stringent set of regulations controls the specialty air service operation.
                        <SU>340</SU>
                         By reducing the burden that the United States imposes on certain aerial work operations, this rule will enable specialty air services by reducing instances in which more stringent United States regulations impose undue costs on services.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Environmental Analysis</HD>
                    <P>
                        The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321-4336e), requires Federal agencies to consider the environmental impacts of their actions in the decision-making process. NEPA requires Federal agencies to assess the environmental effects of proposed Federal actions prior to making decisions and involve the public in the decision-making process. FAA Order 1050.1F, 
                        <E T="03">Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,</E>
                         establishes FAA's policies and procedures for the evaluation of environmental impacts under NEPA.
                        <SU>341</SU>
                         An environmental assessment (EA) is prepared for an action for which a categorical exclusion is not applicable and is either unlikely to have significant effects or when significance of the action is unknown. The EA is a concise public document that provides sufficient evidence and analysis to determine whether to prepare an environmental impact statement or a finding of no significant impact (FONSI). The EA describes the proposed action, the purpose and need for the action, the alternatives considered, the environmental impacts of the action and alternatives, and a listing of the preparers and agencies and persons consulted. If, after reviewing the EA and public comments if applicable, in response to a draft EA, an agency determines that a proposed action will not have a significant impact on the human or natural environment, it can conclude the NEPA analysis with a FONSI. A programmatic environmental assessment may be used to assess the environmental effects of a program, policy, plan, or national level proposal that may lead to later individual actions.
                    </P>
                    <P>FAA prepared a draft Programmatic Environmental Assessment (draft PEA) to analyze and disclose potential environmental impacts for the NPRM consistent with NEPA and FAA Order 1050.1F. The NPRM amends regulations related to the certification and operation of light-sport category aircraft and other aircraft that hold special airworthiness certificates, establishes requirements for airmen who operate and maintain those aircraft, and provides other supporting rules. The proposed rule responds to the evolving needs of the light-sport sector and increases the availability of safe, modern, and affordable aircraft for recreational aviation, flight training, and certain aerial work.</P>
                    <P>The draft PEA considered the environmental effects of the NPRM and the effects of not issuing the proposed rule (no action alternative). In accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, the draft PEA analyzed relevant environmental impact categories to the proposed action, including noise and noise-compatible land use, air quality, biological resources, children's environmental health and safety risks, Department of Transportation Act section 4(f), farmlands, historical and cultural resources, and visual effects. The draft PEA evaluated the significance of environmental effects for each impact category using the significance thresholds and factors to consider from FAA Order 1050.1F. The draft PEA identifies the personnel and contractors involved in its preparation. FAA did not consult with other agencies or persons in preparing the draft PEA. Based on the analyses in the draft PEA, a draft finding of no significant impact (FONSI) was prepared.</P>
                    <P>
                        FAA provided notice of availability of the draft PEA and draft FONSI for a thirty-day public comment period in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on May 27, 2025.
                        <SU>342</SU>
                         The draft PEA and draft FONSI were posted to the docket for this rulemaking at FAA-2023-1377. After reviewing comments submitted on the draft PEA and draft FONSI, FAA prepared a final PEA, which is provided in the regulatory docket. The final PEA includes revisions to the analysis of noise effects to account for the change in the final rule to not require noise certification of aircraft that do not conform to a type certificate and to allow voluntary compliance with part 36 for non-type certificated aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Comments on Notice of Proposed Rulemaking—Noise and Environmental</HD>
                    <P>The comments submitted on the NPRM focused on noise, air emissions, and other environmental effects.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Noise Effects</HD>
                    <P>Several commenters expressed concern about the impacts of aviation noise, though many of the comments were general in nature and not specifically in reference to the aircraft types covered by the NPRM. One commenter noted GA noise is damaging to humans. Another commenter submitted multiple comments discussing the possible impacts of aviation noise on human health and well-being, including concerns about flight training schools. One person stated FAA's data already shows a substantial increase in the percentage of people who are highly annoyed by aircraft noise over the range of aircraft noise levels considered, including at lower noise levels.</P>
                    <P>A few commenters focused on the MOSAIC rulemaking provisions and discussed whether implementation of the final rule might result in increased aviation noise levels, though these commenters said they could not easily draw conclusions based on the information in the NPRM. Concerned Residents of Palo Alto, AICA, and Groton Ayer Buzz commented that current high-performance aircraft are exceedingly loud. Groton Ayer Buzz noted communities have concerns about the expansion of privileges listed in the proposed rule and whether this could result in more aviation noise. The provisions mentioned include the proposed expansions to certain sport pilot privileges through training and endorsements for aircraft under MOSAIC, and to conduct night operations, in addition to the proposed changes to regulations affecting the privileges and limitations of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating.</P>
                    <P>AICA and Concerned Residents of Palo Alto commented that GA-impacted communities would find the noise impacts of the NPRM difficult to determine and insufficient information was shared in the NPRM. AICA stated the communities find the part 36 noise limits difficult to understand. Concerned Residents of Palo Alto, Groton Ayer Buzz, and AICA expressed concern that the proposed rule increases operating privileges for recreational pilots, which would further impact their communities already impacted by GA operations. Concerned Residents of Palo Alto also commented that FAA's current noise policy is inadequate and does not reflect the actual impacts experienced by residents and the NPRM similarly does not adequately disclose impacts.</P>
                    <P>
                        On the other hand, some commenters stated the NPRM is likely to result in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35195"/>
                        reduced noise levels in the NAS. One commenter stated using LSA would help solve the noise problem at a local municipal airport. Another commenter noted the use of LSA for glider towing under the NPRM would result in less noise emissions because most of the current towplane fleet are older, louder aircraft repurposed from crop-dusting roles. One person stated most LSA are powered by quieter engines.
                    </P>
                    <P>In response to public comments about aviation noise impacts that are beyond the scope of the MOSAIC rulemaking, FAA acknowledges that aviation noise effects are widespread, and noise can impact human health and well-being. FAA maintains a range of programs and initiatives to reduce the impacts from aviation noise emissions, including the promotion and certification of noise-reducing technologies on aircraft, the abatement of high noise levels at noise-sensitive properties around certain airports, and continued implementation of the Noise Complaint Initiative and noise portal. In addition, as mentioned by a few commenters, FAA is currently considering updating its civil aircraft noise policy through the NPR.</P>
                    <P>In response to public comments that focused on the NPRM provisions, including the expanded LSA pilot privileges, FAA highlights that light-sport category aircraft make up approximately one percent of the overall GA fleet in the U.S. While FAA has not measured LSA for noise certification, commenters have provided supporting data that shows LSA typically generate lower noise levels than most other GA aircraft. FAA also reiterates that the final MOSAIC rulemaking will enable the safe implementation of technologies that could reduce noise emissions further, including noise-abatement equipment and electric-propulsion systems.</P>
                    <P>To help address some of the in-scope noise comments, including statements that the noise impacts of the NPRM are difficult to determine based on the NPRM, FAA prepared a Programmatic Environmental Assessment (PEA) analyzing the potential effects to the environment that may result from implementation of the MOSAIC final rule. FAA considered the potential for noise impacts based on the increased operating privileges for LSA pilots, the removal of the LSA definition, and other provisions in the rulemaking that could result in increased noise levels at noise-sensitive properties such as residential, educational, health, and religious structures. Based on the results of the PEA and the associated noise and air emissions technical studies, FAA determined that implementation of the MOSAIC rule provisions would not result in significant environmental impacts.  </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Air Emissions Effects</HD>
                    <P>Two commenters raised concerns about air emissions from aircraft, though not specifically regarding the types of aircraft and regulatory provisions covered by the NPRM. The individual commenters mentioned lead (Pb) as the primary concern, as some GA aircraft use leaded fuel. One commenter stated lead and many other aviation pollutants cause adverse health impacts and reduce educational attainment. The commenter expressed further concerns with exposure to lead and other air pollutants resulting in impacts to health, human development, and behavior. Another commenter noted FAA has not addressed lead pollution as aviation operations have greatly increased.</P>
                    <P>In contrast, other commenters stated the proposed MOSAIC provisions would have a positive effect on air quality, since the rulemaking would enable the adoption of more efficient technologies and modern equipment. One commenter stated the adoption of experimental-grade fuel-injection systems would result in benefits such as cleaner fuel burn and reduced fuel consumption that would benefit the environment and society. Another commenter stated the proposed MOSAIC provision for glider towing will displace the existing towplane fleet that are much older and generate lead pollution. The commenter noted the use of LSA for glider towing in Europe has proven to be a beneficial solution for many soaring groups there and advances in electric propulsion will lead to LSA operations that do not utilize aviation fuel.</P>
                    <P>In response to comments about air emissions, FAA acknowledges aircraft emissions can result in environmental impacts around the NAS, including from the use of leaded fuel. The MOSAIC PEA investigated whether promulgation of the rule has the potential to cause or contribute to any exceedance of emissions of six criteria pollutants covered under the Clean Air Act's National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), including lead. Based on the results of the PEA and associated technical reports, FAA determined that implementation of the final rule would not violate air quality standards and would not result in any significant impacts to air quality, water quality, or ground resources.</P>
                    <P>Regarding lead emissions specifically, it is important to note that FAA, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), and industry are implementing ongoing programs to find a safe replacement for leaded fuel, including the Eliminate Aviation Gasoline Lead Emissions (EAGLE) Initiative and the Piston Aviation Fuel Initiative (PAFI), with the aim of eliminating leaded fuel across the NAS by 2030. FAA also notes that many current LSA are powered by Rotax engines that do not use leaded fuel, and the rule may facilitate other lead-free technologies, such as the development of battery-powered electric aircraft.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Other Environmental Comments</HD>
                    <P>Two individual commenters raised concerns about the potential for adverse impacts to wildlife, though not specifically regarding the NPRM. One commenter urged that any increase in aircraft operations should not be considered and that GA aircraft noise is damaging to humans and wildlife. Another commenter stated a helicopter flight training school has the potential to harm trees, birds, wildlife, and humans. While referencing potential impacts to wildlife that could result from various aviation activities, the commenter did not mention LSA or the specific provisions or activities covered by the NPRM.</P>
                    <P>In response to comments expressing concern with negative impacts to wildlife, FAA emphasizes this rule does not authorize the harassment, harming, or killing of birds, mammals, or ocean-dwelling animals. These types of actions are prohibited by other laws and regulations such as the Migratory Bird Treaty Act (see 16 U.S.C. 703; 50 CFR part 21), the Endangered Species Act (ESA), and the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA). FAA emphasizes that in addition to satisfying the provisions of this rule, LSA pilots will remain subject to all applicable laws, including environmental and wildlife laws. In addition, because the rule covers only a small subset of the overall GA fleet (light-sport category aircraft represent approximately one percent), and because any future growth in LSA operations and fleet size will occur gradually, incrementally, and dispersed across the NAS, FAA determined that implementation of this final rule would have no effect on wildlife populations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Comments on Draft Programmatic Environmental Assessment</HD>
                    <P>
                        One comment was received on the draft PEA and draft FONSI. The comment recommended increasing the clean stall speed from 54 knots to 55 knots to allow the inclusion of Cessna C177 aircraft produced between 1968 
                        <PRTPAGE P="35196"/>
                        and 1978. This comment does not expressly identify environmental effects. The draft PEA and supporting analysis evaluated noise effects using the maximum stall speed that is adopted in the final rule. The revised noise analysis in the final PEA also uses the maximum stall speed that is adopted in the final rule. As described in the draft PEA and the final PEA, there are no significant noise effects associated with the issuance of the MOSAIC rule or its implementation.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Finding of No Significant Impact</HD>
                    <P>Based on FAA's analysis of the MOSAIC rule provisions as described in the final PEA, FAA finds that codification and implementation of this rule will not result in a significant impact to the human environment. A copy of the Finding of No Significant Impact is provided in the regulatory docket.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Regulations Affecting Intrastate Aviation in Alaska</HD>
                    <P>Section 1205 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 1996 (110 Stat. 3213) requires the Administrator, when modifying 14 CFR regulations in a manner affecting intrastate aviation in Alaska, to consider the extent to which Alaska is not served by transportation modes other than aviation, and to establish appropriate regulatory distinctions.</P>
                    <P>Because this final rule will apply to issuance of airworthiness certificates for restricted category aircraft, light-sport category aircraft, and certain experimental aircraft; operating limitations for restricted category aircraft, light-sport category aircraft, and experimental aircraft; and sport pilot limitations and privileges, it could affect intrastate aviation in Alaska once adopted. This rulemaking generally expands privileges for small aircraft with special airworthiness certificates. Small aircraft are important to the economy of Alaska, and FAA anticipates this rule will make small aircraft more readily available to private consumers and small businesses. This rulemaking also codifies special operating purposes for restricted category aircraft that are specific to operations in Alaska, simplifying the issuance of type, production, and airworthiness certificates for those aircraft. Therefore, FAA believes this regulation will have a generally positive impact on aviation in Alaska.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Executive Order Determinations</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Executive Order 13132, Federalism</HD>
                    <P>FAA has analyzed this final rule under the principles and criteria of Executive Order 13132, Federalism. FAA has determined this action will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, or the relationship between the Federal Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, and, therefore, will not have federalism implications.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                    <P>
                        Consistent with Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments,
                        <SU>343</SU>
                         and FAA Order 1210.20, American Indian and Alaska Native Tribal Consultation Policy and Procedures,
                        <SU>344</SU>
                         FAA ensures that Federally Recognized Tribes (Tribes) are given the opportunity to provide meaningful and timely input regarding proposed Federal actions that have the potential to have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal government and Indian tribes; or to affect uniquely or significantly their respective Tribes. At this point, FAA has not identified any unique or significant effects, environmental or otherwise, on tribes resulting from this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Executive Order 13211, Regulations that Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use</HD>
                    <P>FAA analyzed this final rule under Executive Order 13211, Actions Concerning Regulations that Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use (May 18, 2001). FAA has determined that it is not a “significant energy action” under the executive order and is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Executive Order 13609, Promoting International Regulatory Cooperation</HD>
                    <P>Executive Order 13609, Promoting International Regulatory Cooperation, promotes international regulatory cooperation to meet shared challenges involving health, safety, labor, security, environmental, and other issues and to reduce, eliminate, or prevent unnecessary differences in regulatory requirements. FAA has analyzed this action under the policies and agency responsibilities of Executive Order 13609 and has determined this action will have no effect on international regulatory cooperation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Additional Information</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Electronic Access and Filing</HD>
                    <P>
                        A copy of the NPRM, all comments received, this final rule, and all background material may be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         using the docket number listed above. A copy of this final rule will be placed in the docket. Electronic retrieval help and guidelines are available on the website. It is available 24 hours each day, 365 days each year. An electronic copy of this document may also be downloaded from the Office of the Federal Register's website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.federalregister.gov</E>
                         and the Government Publishing Office's website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov.</E>
                         A copy may also be found at FAA's Regulations and Policies website at 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/regulations_policies.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Copies may also be obtained by sending a request to the Federal Aviation Administration, Office of Rulemaking, ARM-1, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591, or by calling (202) 267-9677. Commenters must identify the docket or notice number of this rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>All documents FAA considered in developing this final rule, including economic analyses and technical reports, may be accessed in the electronic docket for this rulemaking.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Incorporation by Reference Material</HD>
                    <P>
                        Approved incorporation by reference material may be viewed online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/training_testing.</E>
                         For further information, contact the Training and Certification Group at 202-267-1100, 
                        <E T="03">acsptsinquiries@faa.gov,</E>
                         or 800 Independence Ave. SW, Washington DC 20591.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA) of 1996 requires FAA to comply with small entity requests for information or advice about compliance with statutes and regulations within its jurisdiction. A small entity with questions regarding this document may contact its local FAA official, or the person listed under the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         heading at the beginning of the preamble. To find out more about SBREFA on the internet, visit 
                        <E T="03">www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/rulemaking/sbre_act/.</E>
                        <PRTPAGE P="35197"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Endnotes</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Light aircraft fatal accident trends are included on the docket at FAA-2023-1377.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             See, 
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             NPRM, 
                            <E T="03">Revision of Airworthiness Standards for Normal, Utility, Acrobatic, and Commuter Category Airplanes,</E>
                             81 FR 13452 (Mar. 14, 2016) (“The FAA's safety continuum philosophy is that one level of safety may not be appropriate for all aviation. FAA accepts higher levels of risk, with correspondingly fewer requirements for the demonstration of compliance, when aircraft are used for personal transportation.”).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             81 FR 13463 (Mar. 14, 2016).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             NPRM, 
                            <E T="03">Modernization of Special Airworthiness Certification,</E>
                             88 FR 47651 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             Light aircraft fatal accident trends are included on the docket at FAA-2023-1377.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             The FAA roadmap can be found at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/sites/faa.gov/files/aircraft/air_cert/design_approvals/small_airplanes/roadmapGAAgingAirplane.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             General Aviation (Tables 28-31); available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/data_research/aviation/aerospace_forecasts.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             See 88 FR 47653 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             Comment from AEA/ARSA, FAA-2023-1377-1238 at 2.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             See Direct final rule, 
                            <E T="03">Changes to the Definition of Certain Light-Sport Aircraft,</E>
                             72 FR 19661 (Apr. 19, 2007).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             MOSAIC Safety Continuum View 07242023, contained in U.S. DOT/FAA—Supplemental Documents, July 24, 2023, FAA-2023-1377-0002.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             Final rule, 
                            <E T="03">Revision of Airworthiness Standards for Normal, Utility, Acrobatic, and Commuter Category Airplanes,</E>
                             81 FR 96572 (Dec. 30, 2016).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             Cirrus SR10, type certificate data sheet number A00021CH for up to 2 passengers. Tecnam P-Mentor, type certificate data sheet number A00067IB for up to 1 passenger. FAA is the certificating authority for the SR10 and the validating authority for the P-Mentor.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             Per 14 CFR 61.315(a) as amended, if you hold a sport pilot certificate, you may act as PIC of a light-sport aircraft, except under the circumstances in 14 CFR 61.315(c).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             After the effective date of 14 CFR 21.190 in this rule, gyroplanes will be eligible for airworthiness certification in the light-sport category under 14 CFR 21.190.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             Data from 2023 Active Civil Airman Statistics (MS Excel), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/data_research/aviation_data_statistics/civil_airmen_statistics.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             These annual reports are available at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/aircraft/gen_av/light_sport.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             Data from FAA's 2022 
                            <E T="03">Special Light-Sport Category Aircraft Continued Operational Safety Report.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             These limitations are contained 14 CFR 91.327 (occupant and aerial work). 14 CFR 91.327 restricts compensation and hire flights to towing gliders and ultralight vehicles, flight instruction, and aerial work operations.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             This rule removes the definition of light-sport aircraft from 14 CFR 1.1 on July 24, 2026. However, the light-sport aircraft requirements in that definition will be moved to 14 CFR 21.181 and continue to apply to aircraft certificated prior to July 24, 2026. The only exception is that the current 14 CFR 1.1 requirement that gyroplane have a fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering, two-blade rotor system was not retained for the reasons discussed in section IV.F.3.g.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             Though this rule allows certain light-sport category aircraft to be used in aerial work operations, weight-shift-control aircraft and powered parachutes will be excluded from conducting aerial work operations because of commercial pilot requirements in 14 CFR 61.127 &amp; 61.129. Flight training is not considered an aerial work operation and may be conducted per 14 CFR 91.327.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             14 CFR 23.2005.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             14 CFR 21.24.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>24</SU>
                             Survivable Accident: An accident in which the forces transmitted to the occupant through the seat and restraint system do not exceed the limits of human tolerance to abrupt accelerations. In addition, the structure in the occupant's immediate environment remains substantially intact to the extent that a livable volume is provided for the occupants throughout the crash sequence. Traditionally, whether or not an accident was survivable was based on an accident investigator's 
                            <E T="03">opinion</E>
                             regarding if the occupants should have survived. Design for crashworthiness places the responsibility on the designer to choose the level of survivability. Source: 
                            <E T="03">Small Airplane Crashworthiness Design Guide;</E>
                             AGATE-WP3.4-034043-036; Released April 12, 2002; available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/document/FAA-2015-1621-0019.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             See Terrafugia, Incorporated, Exemptions No. 16648, May 12, 2016 and 16648A, May 2, 2018.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             Per the FAA Registry as of March 20, 2024, 49 of the 53 primary category aircraft are gyroplanes.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>27</SU>
                             Accident data was from the 2022 
                            <E T="03">Special Light-Sport Category Continued Operational Safety Report.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             Accident data was from the 2022 
                            <E T="03">Special Light-Sport Category Continued Operational Safety Report.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             For airplanes designed without lift-enhancing devices such as flaps, V
                            <E T="52">S1</E>
                             = V
                            <E T="52">S0</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             14 CFR 21.24(a)(1)(i).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             Final rule, 
                            <E T="03">Primary Category,</E>
                             57 FR 41360 (Sept. 9, 1992).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             The historical average adult passenger weights were taken from FAA Advisory Circular 120-27A, 
                            <E T="03">Aircraft Weight and Balance Control</E>
                             (May 14, 1980).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             Applicable to operators that are either required to have an approved weight and balance control program under parts 121 and 125 or that choose to use actual or average aircraft, passenger, or baggage weights when operating under part 91K or part 135.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>34</SU>
                             Though not developed for use with light-sport category airplanes, FAA Advisory Circular, AC 120-27F, 
                            <E T="03">Aircraft Weight and Balance Control</E>
                             (May 6, 2019), uses data derived from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES), conducted by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), to obtain a “standard average passenger weights.” The data is located at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/nchs/fastats/body-measurements.htm</E>
                             and 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/nchs/data/series/sr_03/sr03-046-508.pdf.</E>
                             The standard average passenger weights were obtained in September 2024.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             Advisory Circular 120-27F, 
                            <E T="03">Aircraft Weight and Balance Control,</E>
                             May 6, 2019. Advisory Circular 120-27F states that it would be unsafe for an aircraft operator to use standard average weights in single-engine piston-powered aircraft, multiengine piston-powered aircraft, and turbine-powered single-engine aircraft. Instead, operators of these types of aircraft should obtain and use actual passenger weights (including clothing) when calculating the weight and balance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             Though undefined, the term “legacy aircraft” is commonly used in this context to refer to a type certificated normal category airplane subject to 14 CFR 23 or Civil Airworthiness Regulations (CAR) part 3 airworthiness standards.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>37</SU>
                             A 179.2 pounds difference is obtained by the formula: ((199.8 pounds current male passenger average weight−160 pounds historical passenger weight) + 5 pounds summer clothing) × 4 passengers.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             Avgas weights approximately 6.01 pounds per gallon.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>39</SU>
                             United States accident data based on single reciprocating engine airplanes, available at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ntsb.gov/safety/StatisticalReviews/Pages/CivilAviationDashboard.aspx.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>40</SU>
                             FAA's 
                            <E T="03">Pilot's Operating Handbook,</E>
                             FAA-H-8083-25A, is available at: 
                            <E T="03">https://drs.faa.gov/browse/OTHER_PS_HANDBOOKS/doctypeDetails?modalOpened=true.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>41</SU>
                             Table 27, Defining Event for Accidents in 2022, US General Aviation (Personal Flying), 2003-2022 U.S. Civil Aviation Accident Statistics, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ntsb.gov/safety/Pages/research.aspx.</E>
                             According to the Occurrence Category Definitions, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.intlaviationstandards.org/Documents/OccurrenceCategoryDefinitions.pdf,</E>
                             in-flight turbulence encounter could include clear air, mountain wave, mechanical, and/or cloud-associated turbulence; wake vortex encounters; and turbulence encountered by aircraft when operating around or at buildings, structures, and objects.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>42</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Airworthiness Standards: Normal, Utility, and Acrobatic Category Airplanes [New],</E>
                             29 FR 17955 (Dec. 18, 1964).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>43</SU>
                             Though FAA did not propose any crashworthiness requirements in this rule, FAA encourages consensus standards organizations for light-sport category airplanes to consider consensus standards like those in ASTM Standard F3083/F3083M-20A as a means to mitigate the increased kinetic energy of the 61 knot CAS V
                            <E T="52">S0</E>
                             in emergency landing conditions. 
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>44</SU>
                             For gliders designed without lift-enhancing devices such as flaps, V
                            <E T="52">S1</E>
                             = V
                            <E T="52">S0</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>45</SU>
                             CS-22 can be found at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.easa.europa.eu/en/document-library/certification-specifications/group/cs-22-sailplanes-and-powered-sailplanes#cs-22-sailplanes-and-powered-sailplanes.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>46</SU>
                             TCCA's Chapter 522 Subchapter B is available at: 
                            <E T="03">https://tc.canada.ca/en/corporate-services/acts-regulations/list-regulations/canadian-aviation-regulations-sor-96-433/standards/airworthiness-manual-chapter-522-gliders-powered-gliders/airworthiness-manual-chapter-522-subchapter-b-flight-canadian-aviation-regulations-cars#522_45.</E>
                            <PRTPAGE P="35198"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>47</SU>
                             45 knots = 83.34 km/h and 90 km/h = 48.6 knots.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>48</SU>
                             The V
                            <E T="52">S1</E>
                             limitation in this rule only applies to weight-shift-control aircraft.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>49</SU>
                             These lift-enhancing devices would be considered major alterations because they may appreciably affect the weight, balance, structural strength, performance, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>50</SU>
                             Any stall speed changes as a result of a major alteration, approved by the manufacturer or a third party acceptable to FAA, will be provided in revised POH documentation that accompanies the alteration.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>51</SU>
                             FAA Aviation Safety, Special Airworthiness Information Bulletin 2024-07, 
                            <E T="03">Stall Warning System, Angle of Attack Alerting Systems,</E>
                             December 26, 2024; available at 
                            <E T="03">https://drs.faa.gov/browse/excelExternalWindow/DRSDOCID117071009620241226214236.0001.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>52</SU>
                             DOT/FAA/TC-TN19/11, “A Review of Angle-of-Attack Display Research from 1958-2014,” October 2019, available at: 
                            <E T="03">https://rosap.ntl.bts.gov/view/dot/57876.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>53</SU>
                             NTSB's U.S. Civil Aviation Accident Dashboard: 2008-2022, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ntsb.gov/safety/StatisticalReviews/Pages/CivilAviationDashboard.aspx.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>54</SU>
                             AC 43.13-1, 
                            <E T="03">Acceptable Methods, Techniques, and Practices—Aircraft Inspection and Repair,</E>
                             and 43.13-2, 
                            <E T="03">Acceptable Methods, Techniques, and Practices—Aircraft Alterations,</E>
                             available at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/advisory_circulars/.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>55</SU>
                             Definitions from Merriam-Webster dictionary; available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.merriam-webster.com</E>
                             (last accessed 4 December 2024).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>56</SU>
                             Summarized from FAA's 
                            <E T="03">Airplane Flying Handbook,</E>
                             FAA-H-8083-3C, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/handbooks_manuals/aviation/airplane_handbook.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>57</SU>
                             Applicable to light-sport category aircraft certificated prior to § 21.190 and part 22 in this final rule becoming effective.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>58</SU>
                             FAA Order 8130.2K, 
                            <E T="03">Airworthiness Certification of Aircraft.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>59</SU>
                             Proposed 14 CFR 22.180(a) in the NPRM was written as, “The aircraft allows the pilot to only control the flight path of the aircraft or intervene in its operation without direct manipulation of individual aircraft control surfaces or adjustment of the available power.”
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>60</SU>
                             Consensus standards for fixed and ground-adjustable propellers exist in ASTM Standard F2506-13, 
                            <E T="03">Design and Testing of Fixed-Pitch or Ground Adjustable Propellers.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>61</SU>
                             ASTM Standard F2245, ASTM Standard F2506, ASTM Standard F2746, ASTM Standard F2483, 
                            <E T="03">Standard Practice for Maintenance and the Development of Maintenance Manuals for Light Sport Aircraft,</E>
                             and ASTM Standard F3198, 
                            <E T="03">Standard Specification for Light Sport Aircraft Manufacturer's Continued Operational Safety (COS) Program.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>62</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Issuance of final airworthiness criteria, Airworthiness Criteria: Primary Category Airworthiness Design Criteria for the ICON Aircraft Inc., Model A5-8 Airplane,</E>
                             88 FR 83019 (Nov. 28, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>63</SU>
                             Per § 21.17(f) requirements for type certification of a primary category aircraft.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>64</SU>
                             14 CFR 61.321.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>65</SU>
                             14 CFR 61.413, 61.415. Conversely, a subpart H flight instructor may provide training and endorsements in pursuit of any pilot certificate.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>66</SU>
                             FAA notes new 14 CFR 61.315(c)(21) adopted in this final rule, as discussed in section IV.H.8.g of this preamble; however, this provision simply clarifies an existing limitation rather than making a change to an existing privilege or limitation.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>67</SU>
                             These requirements are currently set forth in paragraphs (10), (9), and (13) respectively, under the 14 CFR 1.1 light-sport aircraft definition.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>68</SU>
                             See section IV.E. of this preamble for additional discussion on FAA's approach to light-sport category aircraft certification.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>69</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 61.321.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>70</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 61.331 &amp; 61.329.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>71</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 61.31(e) &amp; (f).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>72</SU>
                             88 FR 47682 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>73</SU>
                             Final rule, 
                            <E T="03">Public Aircraft Logging of Flight Time, Training in Certain Aircraft Holding Special Airworthiness Certificates, and Flight Instructor Privileges,</E>
                             89 FR 80310 (Oct. 2, 2024).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>74</SU>
                             14 CFR 61.315(c)(4).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>75</SU>
                             See FAA Order 2150.3C, 
                            <E T="03">FAA Compliance and Enforcement Program.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>76</SU>
                             See Final rule, 
                            <E T="03">Certification of Aircraft and Airmen for the Operation of Light-Sport Aircraft,</E>
                             69 FR 44772 (Jul. 27, 2004).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>77</SU>
                             See section IV.H.4 of this preamble for further discussion on the operation of helicopters with simplified flight controls under this rulemaking.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>78</SU>
                             See discussion at IV.G.5.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>79</SU>
                             88 FR 47683 (Jul. 24, 2023). FAA notes that the 14 CFR 61.316(h) reference in this NPRM section was a typographical error, and the correct subsection reference in the NPRM was 14 CFR 61.316(a)(7).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>80</SU>
                             In 14 CFR 61.1 Definitions, “Set of aircraft” means aircraft that share similar performance characteristics, such as similar airspeed and altitude operating envelopes, similar handling characteristics, and the same number and type of propulsion systems.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>81</SU>
                             See Docket ID: FAA-2023-1377, FAA's Office of Accident Investigation &amp; Prevention (AVP), 
                            <E T="03">Analytical Summary of VS1 Stall Related Accident Rates in Support of the Modernization of Special Airworthiness Certification Rule</E>
                             (Apr. 29, 2024). AVP's analysis is published on the docket in tandem with this final rule.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>82</SU>
                             V
                            <E T="52">A</E>
                             means design maneuvering speed. See 14 CFR 1.2.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>83</SU>
                             57 FR 41360 (Sept. 9, 1992).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>84</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ntsb.gov/safety/StatisticalReviews/Pages/CivilAviationDashboard.aspx</E>
                             and 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/newsroom/general-aviation-safety.</E>
                             NTSB and FAA actively track accidents for all pilots; collect data; provide a detailed analysis to determine the cause of those accidents; determine whether regulatory and policy changes are needed to support safety in the NAS; and make that information available to the public.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>85</SU>
                             Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and position error. 
                            <E T="03">Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge (PHAK) Glossary</E>
                             (
                            <E T="03">faa.gov</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>86</SU>
                             88 FR 47657.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>87</SU>
                             14 CFR 61.315(c)(11).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>88</SU>
                             14 CFR 91.211(a).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>89</SU>
                             69 FR 44772 (Jul. 27, 2004).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>90</SU>
                             NPRM, 
                            <E T="03">Certification of Aircraft and Airmen for the Operation of Light-Sport Aircraft; Modifications to Rules for Sport Pilots and Flight Instructors with a Sport Pilot Rating,</E>
                             73 FR 20181 at 20188 (Apr. 15, 2008
                            <E T="03">). Final Rule, Certification of Aircraft and Airmen for the Operation of Light-Sport Aircraft; Modifications to Rules for Sport Pilots and Flight Instructors with a Sport Pilot Rating,</E>
                             75 FR 5209 (Feb. 1, 2010).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>91</SU>
                             FAA guidance recommends pilots to consider using oxygen whenever they are operating above 10,000 feet MSL. See FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) Chapter 8 Section 1. Fitness for Flight, Effects of Altitude 8-1-2a.5.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>92</SU>
                             See FAA-S-8081-29A, 
                            <E T="03">Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Rating Practical Test Standards for Airplane Category, Gyroplane Category, and Glider Category,</E>
                             I. Area of Operation: Preflight Preparation, Task G: Aeromedical Factors (ASEL and ASES), (Nov. 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>93</SU>
                             See FAA-S-ACS-6C, 
                            <E T="03">Private Pilot for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards,</E>
                             Area of Operation I. Preflight Preparation, Task H: Human Factors, (Nov. 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>94</SU>
                             14 CFR 61.3(e)(2) through (4) address when a pilot holds an ATP and the requirements for a glider and airship.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>95</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 61.93(a). 14 CFR 61.93(b) contains exceptions to this requirement.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>96</SU>
                             14 CFR 61.93(e)(8), (f)(8), (g)(8), (h)(8), (i)(8), (j)(8), (k)(8), (l)(8), and (m)(8).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>97</SU>
                             14 CFR 61.93(e)(12).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>98</SU>
                             A person is not required to meet the training and endorsement requirements to operate an airplane with a V
                            <E T="52">H</E>
                             of less than or equal to 87 knots CAS as set forth in 14 CFR 61.327(a) if the person logged flight time as PIC of an airplane with a V
                            <E T="52">H</E>
                             less than or equal to 87 knots CAS prior to April 2, 2010.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>99</SU>
                             14 CFR 61.65(a).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>100</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Private Pilot for Airplane Category ACS,</E>
                             FAA-S-ACS-6C (November 2023), Area of Operation VIII. Basic Instrument Maneuvers. FAA notes that these minimum requirements continue to apply when an applicant concurrently applies for a private pilot certificate with the associated instrument rating.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>101</SU>
                             Aerial work is discussed further in section IV.K.1.a, Operations, Operating Limitations for Light-Sport Category Aircraft, Aerial Work of this rule.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>102</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 119.1(e) and Final Rule, 
                            <E T="03">Public Aircraft Logging of Flight Time, Training in Certain Aircraft Holding Special Airworthiness Certificates, and Flight Instructor Privileges,</E>
                             89 FR 80310 (Dec. 2, 2024).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>103</SU>
                             FAA recognizes that compensation for flight training is also not specifically enumerated in the subpart H flight instructor requirements; however, subpart H flight instructors are required to have an underlying commercial pilot certificate or an ATP certificate with an aircraft category and 
                            <PRTPAGE P="35199"/>
                            class rating appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought for subpart H flight instructor certificate eligibility (§ 61.183). Both a commercial pilot certificate and an ATP certificate facilitate operations for compensation or hire.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>104</SU>
                             Unlike the underlying commercial pilot certificate and ATP certificate that facilitate operations for compensation or hire for a subpart H instructor, the underlying sport pilot certificate specifically restricts compensation and hire. Therefore, FAA finds it necessary to except the restrictions from § 61.413(d).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>105</SU>
                             69 FR 44792 (Jul. 27, 2004).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>106</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">I.e.</E>
                            , pilots trained and endorsed in accordance with proposed 14 CFR 61.331.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>107</SU>
                             FAA notes that ground resonance is addressed in the helicopter simplified controls and PTS for sport pilots. However, FAA notes that helicopters tend to have more stability than gyroplanes and have the ability to timely correct for imbalances that three-blade gyroplanes may not be able to.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>108</SU>
                             14 CFR 1.1 defines “night” as the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac, converted to local time.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>109</SU>
                             To qualify for BasicMed, a person must have held a FAA medical certificate after July 14, 2006, must hold a valid U.S. driver's license, and must also comply with any restrictions associated with that US issued driver's license. 14 CFR 61.23(c)(3). BasicMed qualification requirements include completion of online training course every two years and a physical examination with a state licensed physician every four years.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>110</SU>
                             See Advisory Circular (AC) 68-1A, 
                            <E T="03">BasicMed.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>111</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">E.g.</E>
                            , 14 CFR 61.109.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>112</SU>
                             FAA notes that the night currency requirements specified in 14 CFR 61.57(b) will continue to be applicable for all pilots.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>113</SU>
                             Final rule, 
                            <E T="03">Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards for Airmen; Incorporation by Reference,</E>
                             89 FR 22503 (Apr. 1, 2024).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>114</SU>
                             14 CFR 61.109.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>115</SU>
                             FAA notes that this section primarily discusses medical certificates in the context of third-class, as this is the lowest “grade” of medical certificate in part 67 and FAA did not receive comment on first- or second-class medical considerations.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>116</SU>
                             One commenter generally asserted that operating in a glider can be done safely without a medical certificate. FAA agrees and affirms there is currently no requirement to possess a FAA medical to operate a glider.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>117</SU>
                             FAA has an up-to-date listing of Aviation Medical Examiners searchable on its website, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/pilots/amelocator.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>118</SU>
                             BasicMed requires the pilot to have held a medical certificate issued under part 67 at any point since July 14, 2006.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>119</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">Guide for Aviation Medical Examiners,</E>
                             updated 01/01/2025, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/ame_guide/media/ame_guide.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>120</SU>
                             Final Rule, 
                            <E T="03">Alternative Pilot Physical Examination and Education Requirements,</E>
                             82 FR 3149 (Jan. 11, 2017).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>121</SU>
                             See Section IV.H.1.j.iv for a discussion of medical conditions and risk to night operations.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>122</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge,</E>
                             chapters 13 and 17 for more information about how medical deficiencies affect night vision. 
                            <E T="03">www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/handbooks_manuals/aviation/phak.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>123</SU>
                             14 CFR 61.23(c)(3)(i)(B).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>124</SU>
                             Congress mandated the regulatory framework of Basic Med in the 
                            <E T="03">FAA Extension, Safety, and Security Act of 2016,</E>
                             Pub. L. 114-190, July 15, 2016, section 2307. Congress amended these requirements in the 
                            <E T="03">FAA Reauthorization Act of 2024,</E>
                             Pub. L. 118-63, May 16, 2024, sections 815 and 828.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>125</SU>
                             For example, a private pilot who is exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate would be subject to the restriction of carrying one passenger pursuant to 14 CFR 61.315(c)(4).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>126</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 67.403 &amp; 61.59, which address and restrict falsification, reproduction, alteration, and incorrect statements on applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, or records.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>127</SU>
                             Medical certificate deferral does not, in and of itself, disqualify an airman from meeting BasicMed requirements. See 14 CFR 61.23(c)(3).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>128</SU>
                             As stated in the NPRM, proposed § 61.316 would permit sport pilots to fly an airplane with a fixed or ground-adjustable propeller, but also allow those with an automated controllable-pitch propeller. See 88 FR 47661. FAA notes an inadvertent typographic error on that 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                             page by citing to 14 CFR 61.316(e) instead of 14 CFR 61.316(a)(4).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>129</SU>
                             Hartzell Propellers provided a comment stating that the final rule should not limit the use of propeller automation. This final rule clarification responds to Hartzell's comment.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>130</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 1.1 (2004).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>131</SU>
                             See, 
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             Exemption No. 8823, issued January 17, 2007.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>132</SU>
                             72 FR 19661 (Apr. 19, 2007).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>133</SU>
                             See section IV.C for discussion on retractable landing gear on an aircraft intended for operation on water.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>134</SU>
                             As described in section IV.H.4., FAA re-numbered 14 CFR 61.316(a) as a result of other changes to the proposed language.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>135</SU>
                             As defined in 14 CFR 61.1, a complex airplane means an airplane that has a retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller, including airplanes equipped with an engine control system consisting of a digital computer and associated accessories for controlling the engine and propeller, such as a full authority digital engine control; or, in the case of a seaplane, flaps and a controllable pitch propeller, including seaplanes equipped with an engine control system consisting of a digital computer and associated accessories for controlling the engine and propeller, such as a full authority digital engine control.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>136</SU>
                             See 88 FR 47685 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>137</SU>
                             See 72 FR 19661 (Apr. 19, 2007).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>138</SU>
                             See 88 FR 47685 (Jul. 24 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>139</SU>
                             As discussed at length in the NPRM, instructor pilots generally develop and validate training for an aircraft for the manufacturer. Therefore, the duties of an instructor pilot establish intricate knowledge of the aircraft's systems and components, ensuring they are qualified to create the initial cadre of authorized instructors who may provide training under new 14 CFR 61.31(l). 88 FR 47686.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>140</SU>
                             88 FR 47686 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>141</SU>
                             FAA notes this framework is currently utilized in 14 CFR 61.31 to obtain additional privileges (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             operation of tailwheel airplanes, high performance airplanes, etc.).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>142</SU>
                             USUA detailed the necessary regulatory text revisions necessary under this general framework affecting 14 CFR 61.31(l), 61.45(g)(2), 61.195(n)(2), 61.415(m), and 61.429(d); because this final rule does not implement USUA's recommendation, the regulatory text recommendations are summarized for brevity.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>143</SU>
                             See 69 FR 44772 (Jul. 27, 2004); 75 FR 5204 (Feb. 1, 2010).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>144</SU>
                             14 CFR 61.31(e) and (f).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>145</SU>
                             14 CFR 61.45(h)(2).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>146</SU>
                             88 FR 47687 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>147</SU>
                             This final rule adds the applicability to an initial applicant for that category and class rating to address a potential situation where a person may have two category and class ratings (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             airplane single engine and rotorcraft helicopter) and adds a simplified flight controls privilege in one of those category and classes. Under the proposed regulatory text, the FAA identified ambiguity as to whether the person would be required to only receive training and endorsement to add a simplified flight controls privilege in the other category and class because the person would be seeking a different category and class of aircraft with simplified flight controls. Adding the applicability to initial applicants for that category and class rating serve to make clear that a practical test is only required for a different category and class if the person does not already have the base category and class ratings for the aircraft with simplified flight controls.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>148</SU>
                             FAA notes that the regulatory text adopted (as proposed) will contain an exception for the examiner's ability to assume control if the sport pilot practical test is conducted in an aircraft with a single seat. In this instance, 14 CFR 61.45(f) will control in lieu of 14 CFR 61.45(g)(3), only (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             14 CFR 61.45(g)(1) and (2) will still apply).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>149</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 61.429(d).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>150</SU>
                             See Table 1, 
                            <E T="03">Airman Certification Simplified Flight Controls Requirements,</E>
                             88 FR 47687 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>151</SU>
                             88 FR 47688 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>152</SU>
                             In response to a commenter's recommendation that sport pilots should be permitted to operate helicopters with three blade rotors, FAA notes it does not limit the number of rotor blades for rotorcraft-helicopters that sport pilots may operate under this final rule.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>153</SU>
                             FAA recognizes a number of standing operations are inherently inapplicable to helicopters (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             soaring techniques); this final rule makes conforming amendments to except helicopters from those areas of operation in redesignated 14 CFR 61.311(g), (j), and (k).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>154</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 61.101(b).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>155</SU>
                             To note, FAA also proposed to permit sport pilot applicants to use a qualified FSTD or a FAA-approved ATD (basic or advanced) 
                            <PRTPAGE P="35200"/>
                            to meet some of the experience requirements for a sport pilot certificate. Adoption of that provision is discussed in section IV.H.7. of this preamble and renumbers current § 61.313(a) through (h) as § 61.313(a)(1) through (9).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>156</SU>
                             88 FR 47690 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>157</SU>
                             FAA notes redesignation of current paragraphs 14 CFR 61.409(f) through (p) due to the addition of new paragraph (f), Hovering maneuvers (applicable only to helicopters).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>158</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 61.101, 
                            <E T="03">Recreational pilot privileges and limitations.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>159</SU>
                             89 FR 22482 (May 31, 2024).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>160</SU>
                             FAA notes that the list of ACSs in § 61.14(b) are listed in numerical order by version number; therefore, FAA-S-ACS-26, 
                            <E T="03">Sport Pilot for Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Airman Certification Standards,</E>
                             will be new 14 CFR 61.14(b)(13), which will shift the subsequent numbers by one (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             current paragraph (b)(13) will become (b)(14), current paragraph (b)(14) will become (b)(15), current paragraph (b)(15) will become (b)(16)). FAA-S- FAA-S-ACS-31, 
                            <E T="03">Sport Flight Instructor for Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Airman Certification Standards,</E>
                             will be listed as new § 61.14(b)(17).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>161</SU>
                             FAA notes one conforming amendment in both sections; currently, each section only lists “Practical Test Standards” as applicable to sport pilots; because this final rule adopts two Airman Certification Standards, this final rule revises each paragraph to specify the “applicable Practical Test Standard or Airman Certification Standard.”
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>162</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 552(a), which states, “except to the extent that a person has actual or timely notice of the terms thereof, a person may not in any manner be required to resort to, or be adversely affected by, a matter required to be published in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                             and not so published. For the purpose of this paragraph, matter reasonably available to the class of persons affected thereby is deemed published in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                             when incorporated by reference therein with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register.”
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>163</SU>
                              5 U.S.C. 552(a) requires that matter incorporated by reference be “reasonably available” as a condition of its eligibility. Further, 1 CFR 51.5(a)(2) requires that agencies seeking to incorporate material by reference discuss in the preamble of the proposed rule the ways that the material it proposes to incorporate by reference is reasonably available to interested parties and how interested parties can obtain the material.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>164</SU>
                             FAA-S-8081-29A, FAA-S-8081-30A, and FAA-S-8081-31A.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>165</SU>
                             14 CFR 61.321. Under § 61.321, the person must also receive a logbook endorsement validating they received training on certain aeronautical knowledge and flight proficiency requirements, receive an endorsement certifying they are proficient in the applicable areas of operation and aeronautical knowledge areas, and complete an application. 14 CFR 61.419 contains mirrored requirements for a certificated flight instructor seeking to provide training in an additional category or class of aircraft.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>166</SU>
                             FAA notes, however, that to obtain the initial sport pilot certificate or flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, a person must pass a practical test with an examiner in the category and class of aircraft for the initial privileges for that certificate.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>167</SU>
                             See 88 FR 47691 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>168</SU>
                             See FAA-S-8081-29A, 
                            <E T="03">Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Rating Practical Test Standards for Airplane Category, Gyroplane Category and Glider Category,</E>
                             November 2003 (stating that “[t]he FAA requires that all sport pilot and sport pilot flight instructor practical tests and proficiency checks be conducted in accordance with the appropriate sport pilot practical test standards and the policies set forth in this INTRODUCTION. Applicants must be evaluated in ALL TASKs included in each AREA OF OPERATION of the appropriate practical test standard, unless otherwise noted.”).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>169</SU>
                             One commenter explained the number of weight shift control DPEs is limited and that removing that process would make it difficult to obtain a weight shift control privilege. FAA notes that using a proficiency check to add a weight shift control privilege to an existing sport pilot certificate is still permitted under 14 CFR 61.321.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>170</SU>
                             FAA notes one nonsubstantive amendment in 14 CFR 61.307 adopted in this final rule. 14 CFR 61.307(b) requires a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who provided flight training on the areas of operation specified in 14 CFR 61.309 and 61.311 in preparation for the practical test, later describing the endorsement as certification that a person meets the applicable aeronautical knowledge and experience requirements. While 14 CFR 61.309 sets forth aeronautical knowledge requirements (as referenced),14 CFR 61.311 sets forth flight proficiency requirements, not aeronautical experience. Therefore, this final rule revises 14 CFR 61.307(b) to correctly reference aeronautical knowledge and flight proficiency, aligning with and accurately describing the cross-referenced sections.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>171</SU>
                             See ARAC 
                            <E T="03">DPEWG Final Recommendation Report</E>
                             (June 2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/rulemaking/committees/documents/media/ARAC%20DPEWG%20Final%20Recommendation%20Report%20June%202021.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>172</SU>
                             FAA Order 8000.95 (as amended) contains DPE policy, including initial qualification requirements.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>173</SU>
                             NPRM, 
                            <E T="03">Certification of Aircraft and Airmen for the Operation of Light-Sport Aircraft, 67</E>
                             FR 5368 (Feb. 5, 2002). The NPRM to the 2004 Final Rule explained that the sport pilot certificate would not list aircraft category and class ratings. FAA also noted logbook endorsements that provide sport pilots with additional category and class privileges do not constitute category and class ratings under part 61.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>174</SU>
                             Flight simulation training device includes flight training devices (FTD level 4-7) and full flight simulators (level A-D) as identified under part 60.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>175</SU>
                             14 CFR 60.7.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>176</SU>
                             69 FR 44820 (Jul. 27, 2004).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>177</SU>
                             FAA notes that this final rule separates light-sport aircraft certification from sport pilot certification requirements and privileges. In addition, this final rule does modify sport pilot privileges by allowing operation of certain expanded aircraft design and performance characteristics. However, the expanded aircraft characteristics do not inherently make the aircraft permitted under the rule more complex than what is allowed under the current rule such that a sweeping increase to training hours is required. This final rule accounts for aircraft that may be more advanced by requiring additional training and endorsements when necessary (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             night operations). The additional training and endorsements supplement the checks that are already in place on the minimum experience requirements for a sport pilot. Therefore, FAA determined that changes to the baseline minimum experience requirements are unnecessary.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>178</SU>
                             14 CFR 61.315(c)(19).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>179</SU>
                             For purposes of providing training for a solo cross-country endorsement under 14 CFR 61.93 of this chapter, a safety pilot may possess a flight instructor certificate with an appropriate sport pilot rating and meet the requirements of 14 CFR 61.412 of this chapter. See 14 CFR 91.109(c)(1)(ii).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>180</SU>
                             The 
                            <E T="03">Integration of Powered-Lift</E>
                             final rule also adopted the requirement for a person who acts as PIC to hold a type rating for that powered-lift. 14 CFR 61.31(a)(3). Final rule, 
                            <E T="03">Integration of Powered-Lift: Pilot Certification and Operations; Miscellaneous Amendments Related to Rotorcraft and Airplanes,</E>
                             89 FR 92296 (Nov. 21, 2024).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>181</SU>
                             A discussion related to recreational pilot certificates and helicopters can be found in section IV.H.4.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>182</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 11.63 for information on petitions for rulemaking.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>183</SU>
                             14 CFR 61.31(a)(2).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>184</SU>
                             NPRM, 
                            <E T="03">Pilot Rating Requirements,</E>
                             29 FR 13038 (Sept. 17, 1964). Final rule, 
                            <E T="03">Pilot Rating Requirements,</E>
                             30 FR 11903 (Sep. 17, 1965).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>185</SU>
                             See IV.F.7, Maximum Airspeed at Maximum Continuous Power (V
                            <E T="52">H</E>
                            ), in this final rule for discussion on light-sport category aircraft eligibility criteria in 14 CFR 22.100.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>186</SU>
                             Given that the vast majority of light-sport category aircraft operations would occur below 10,000 feet MSL, where 14 CFR 91.117(a) limits airspeed below 250 knots indicated airspeed, the maximum 250 knot CAS limitation is appropriate for the light-sport category and for operation by sport pilots.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>187</SU>
                             For additional discussion, FAA has issued multiple legal interpretations on what constitutes compensation. These legal interpretations are available by searching the legal interpretations database in the FAA 
                            <E T="03">Dynamic Regulatory System</E>
                             at 
                            <E T="03">https://drs.faa.gov/browse/LEGAL_INTERPRETATIONS/doctypeDetails.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>188</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 61.51(f), 
                            <E T="03">Pilot Logbooks.</E>
                             Logging second-in-command flight time.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>189</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 61.99(b) &amp; 61.109(l).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>190</SU>
                             88 FR 43693.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>191</SU>
                             See section IV.I.3 of this preamble for discussion on the removal of the 14 CFR 1.1 definition of light-sport aircraft.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>192</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://amsrvs.registry.faa.gov/amsrvs/.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>193</SU>
                             As used with respect to certification of airman, “category” examples include: 
                            <PRTPAGE P="35201"/>
                            airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air. See 14 CFR 1.1.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>194</SU>
                             As used with respect to certification of airman, “class” examples include: single engine; multiengine; land; water; gyroplane; helicopter; airship; and free balloon. See 14 CFR 1.1.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>195</SU>
                             See NPRM, 88 FR 47964 for a chart cataloging ”class” and ”category” changes.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>196</SU>
                             See 88 FR 47695 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>197</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 65.71 for mechanic eligibility requirements.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>198</SU>
                             It is incumbent upon the repairman certificate (light-sport) holders who are not citizens of the U.S. to ensure they remain in compliance with all applicable employment, immigration, or related laws necessary to work in the United States.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>199</SU>
                             FAA Order 8900.1, Volume 5, Chapter 5, Section 6.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>200</SU>
                             14 CFR 65.107(a)(2)(ii) and 65.107(a)(3)(ii).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>201</SU>
                             Proposed as 14 CFR 65.107(b)(5).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>202</SU>
                             See Advisory Circular 65-32A, 
                            <E T="03">Certification of Repairmen (Light Sport Aircraft),</E>
                             Sec. 2, Para. 113.f, on guidance on course test; see also FAA Order 8000.84B, paragraphs 7 and 8 for guidance for accepting training courses prior to this final rule.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>203</SU>
                             FAA requires documentary evidence to allow applicants the ability to provide documents other than a course completion certificate to demonstrate completing the training course and passing the written exam, in the event the course completion certificate is lost or not otherwise available for presentation. Documentary evidence should include the required information in 14 CFR 65.107(e)(3).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>204</SU>
                             Gyroplane privileges are an exception; Refer to section IV.I.8.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>205</SU>
                             88 FR 47693 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>206</SU>
                             See 88 FR 47650, 47693 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>207</SU>
                             Incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 65.23(a)(3).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>208</SU>
                             The FAA interprets the commenters use of “type of aircraft” to mean category or class of aircraft.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>209</SU>
                             Final rule, 
                            <E T="03">Certification of Aircraft and Airman for the Operation of Light-Sport Aircraft,</E>
                             69 FR 44772, 44849 (Jul. 27, 2004).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>210</SU>
                             At the time of this final rule, only the Rotorcraft and Lighter-than-Air categories include classes within the category.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>211</SU>
                             Credit for prior training is discussed in AC 65-32B, Chapter 3.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>212</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 65.95(a).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>213</SU>
                             In accordance with 14 CFR 91.409(c), annual inspections do not apply to all aircraft holding a standard airworthiness certificate.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>214</SU>
                             Current 14 CFR 65.107(a)(3)(ii) requires: (A) 120 hours for airplane privileges, (B) 104 hours for weight-shift-control privileges, (C) 104 hours for powered parachute privileges, (D) 80 hours for lighter than air privileges, and (E) 80 hours for glider privileges.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>215</SU>
                             14 CFR 65.109(b), as adopted in this final rule defines the privileges of the maintenance rating, which include performing the annual condition inspection on experimental aircraft issued an airworthiness certificate in accordance with 14 CFR 21.191(g), (i), (k), or (l). Section IV.I.10.b. further discusses the adoption (and expansion) of these privileges.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>216</SU>
                             FAA notes that part 65 designation of category aligns with the aircraft category and classes as defined in 14 CFR 1.1 as applicable to airman certification.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>217</SU>
                             Further discussion regarding replacing the maintenance rating prescriptive hours-based training course with a performance-based training standard using the Mechanic ACS is found in 88 FR 47650, 47693 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>218</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Aviation Maintenance Technician Schools,</E>
                             Interim Final Rule, 87 FR 31391 (May 24, 2022).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>219</SU>
                             See references to course content in 14 CFR 65.107(b)(4), 65.107(c), (d), and (e).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>220</SU>
                             See 88 FR 7650, 47696 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>221</SU>
                             Draft AC 65-32 found in docket, document ID FAA-2023-1377-0002.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>222</SU>
                             67 FR 5368 (Feb. 5, 2002).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>223</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">Aviation Maintenance Technician Schools,</E>
                             87 FR 31391, (May 24, 2022).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>224</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">Consolidated Appropriations Act,</E>
                             2021, Sec. 135, “Promoting Aviation Regulations for Technical Training” Public Law 116-260, 134 Stat. 1182. (Dec. 27, 2020).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>225</SU>
                             As evidenced by pilot, mechanic, and dispatcher practical test standards (PTS) and airman certification standards (ACS) historically and currently used to define knowledge and skills necessary to be issued one of these certificates.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>226</SU>
                             “Certificated repairmen (light-sport aircraft) would—(1) Meet minimum training and testing requirements, which would ensure that repairmen have the necessary skills to inspect (or maintain) light-sport aircraft and certify that they are safe to fly . . .,” 67 FR 5368, 5374 (Feb. 5, 2002).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>227</SU>
                             “Draft AC 65-32 for MOSAIC NPRM Docket_06-26-23” found in Docket FAA-2023-1377, document folder with Document ID: FAA-2023-1377-0002. No comments were received on the draft AC. AC 65-32B is revised to reflect the final rule and is available at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/advisory_circulars/,</E>
                             as well as in the rulemaking docket.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>228</SU>
                             AC 65-32B, appendix B, 
                            <E T="03">Maintenance Rating Training Course Content.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>229</SU>
                             Advisory Circulars provide a method, but not the only method, of compliance a training course provider could use to meet the regulation.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>230</SU>
                             Guidelines and further guidance pertaining to determining “appropriate” training course content may be found in AC 65-32B, Chapter 3.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>231</SU>
                             See section IV.I.7.a of this preamble for further discussion specific to use of “accepted by the FAA.”
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>232</SU>
                             FAA Order 8000.84, 
                            <E T="03">Procedures to Accept Industry-Developed Training for Light-Sport Repairmen.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>233</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 552, 553.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>234</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">Aviation Maintenance Technician Schools,</E>
                             87 FR 31391 (May 24, 2022).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>235</SU>
                             See section IV.I.4.a of this preamble for additional discussion on “appropriate” content.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>236</SU>
                             Glider category training courses must be updated to include content on both unpowered and powered gliders. Refer to adopted 14 CFR 65.107(g) 
                            <E T="03">Delayed Compliance,</E>
                             and related discussion in section IV.I.5 of this preamble.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>237</SU>
                             88 FR 47650, 47695 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>238</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 65.85.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>239</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 65.109(c).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>240</SU>
                             The 14 CFR regulations for operation (
                            <E T="03">e.g.</E>
                             part 91), maintenance/inspection (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             parts 43 and 91), and airman certification (
                            <E T="03">e.g.</E>
                             part 65), together, provide additional risk mitigation. For example, a light-sport category aircraft may only be operated if inspected at prescribed intervals (per 14 CFR 91.327) and discrepancies repaired (per 14 CFR 91.409). These aircraft must be maintained in accordance with 14 CFR 43.13, and meet additional requirements for inspections, repairs, and alterations (required by 14 CFR 91.327). That work may only be approved for return to service by certificated personnel under part 65, who are able to perform that work properly (per 14 CFR 65.81 or 14 CFR 65.109(c)).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>241</SU>
                             Parts 23, 25, 27, and 29 are examples of regulations that set forth design standards for various categories of aircraft. Part 23 permits using a consensus standard as a means of compliance for meeting the requirements of the part, in § 23.2010.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>242</SU>
                             In comparison, 14 CFR 65.81(a) and (b) contain limitations for mechanic certificate holders that are almost identical to the § 65.109(c) limitations. FAA has no evidence to suggest that these regulations are not producing the intended outcome that certificate holders have the knowledge and skill necessary to satisfactorily perform and approve for return to service work on an aircraft.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>243</SU>
                             Appendix B of AC 65-32 provides an example of using a module system to deliver the maintenance rating training courses.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>244</SU>
                             As an example, a training course provider could offer an independent course on ballistic parachute systems; if the training provided actual work experience (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             not just theory), a certificated repairman could complete the additional training offered and, in doing the work satisfactorily, would meet the requirements for adopted § 65.109 and could approve for return to service a ballistic parachute system after performing the specific work.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>245</SU>
                             In reference to how the proposed rule would create pre- and post-final rule training courses, one commenter stated the final rule should explicitly state that training courses approved prior to this rulemaking continue to be sufficient for obtaining a light-sport repairman certificate, and two commenters opined that more than 6 months should be provided for effectivity. FAA trusts this discussion responds to the commenter, as FAA has determined that all pre-final rule training courses, except for glider courses, already meet 14 CFR 65.107(d), as adopted, and no longer need a 6-month delayed effectivity.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>246</SU>
                             Though not considered under the proposed delayed compliance provision, FAA's review of all repairman (light-sport) training courses found the glider-specific inspection rating course also needed a delayed compliance period to update course content to include both powered and unpowered gliders.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>247</SU>
                             While no powered-glider courses exist, FAA found course content separation for glider powerplants was based on a note in guidance materials. FAA is reviewing related guidance materials and intends to update guidance as necessary to align with the regulations adopted in this rulemaking.
                            <PRTPAGE P="35202"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>248</SU>
                             See 14 CFR 1.1 definition of class, as applicable to airman certification.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>249</SU>
                             Glider training courses must include content on both unpowered and powered gliders because powerplants are applicable content, consistent with Mechanic ACS Subject Area III., 
                            <E T="03">Powerplant.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>250</SU>
                             Upon review of FAA guidance materials, FAA found directions to add an expiration date on training courses accepted by the FAA. Expiration dates for courses are not regulatorily supported and therefore are not enforceable and no longer will be added to course acceptances. FAA will review guidance materials and consider amending guidance to address this issue. As such, FAA considers FAA-acceptance of courses to be effective until the course is superseded or otherwise revised.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>251</SU>
                             FAA notes, holders of a repairman (light-sport) certificate with an inspection rating and glider category privileges must still comply with the operating limitations of the glider, issued in accordance with 14 CFR 91.319. These operating limitations require inspections to be performed per the scope and detail of part 43 appendix D, which would include inspecting the powerplants of powered gliders. Similarly, the holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport) with a maintenance rating and glider category privileges must perform inspections in accordance with inspection procedures developed by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA, per 14 CFR 91.327(b)(2) and 91.327(c), which would include inspecting and maintaining the powerplants of powered gliders.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>252</SU>
                             FAA Order 8000.84.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>253</SU>
                             The FAA assumes the commenter is referring to exams such as the FAA-administered oral and practical exams required to be taken by applicants for a mechanic certificate under 14 CFR 65.75 and 65.79.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>254</SU>
                             See 88 FR 47653 (Jul 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>255</SU>
                             14 CFR 65.77.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>256</SU>
                             14 CFR 65.75.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>257</SU>
                             14 CFR 65.79.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>258</SU>
                             That Notice explained that where the term “accepted by the FAA” is used, it means the item at issue must be submitted to the FAA for review and acceptance before use. Where the term “acceptable to the FAA” is used, it means the item is not normally privy to the FAA's active review and acceptance before its use, though the FAA will exercise its oversight responsibilities.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>259</SU>
                             FAA interprets “appropriate” facilities, equipment, and materials to mean those elements are sufficiently suited to instruct in the content the training course offered. In NPRM footnote 104, an illustration of appropriate equipment is provided.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>260</SU>
                             FAA interprets “appropriately qualified” instructors to mean an instructor is demonstrably qualified to teach the course content. This demonstration may include educational credentials, certifications, or practical experience that aligns with the subject matter that the instructor teaches.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>261</SU>
                             See NPRM, 88 FR 47697.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>262</SU>
                             69 FR 44799. Prior to this final rule, 14 CFR 21.190 specifically excluded gyroplanes; therefore, 14 CFR 65.107 excluded gyroplane training course facilitation as unnecessary.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>263</SU>
                             88 FR 47650, 47697-98. (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>264</SU>
                             FAA maintains a list of FAA-accepted or -approved consensus standards at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/aircraft/gen_av/light_sport.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>265</SU>
                             As stated in the 
                            <E T="03">Integration of Powered-Lift</E>
                             Final Rule, FAA found it was infeasible to create classes of powered-lift at that time, but did not foreclose the possibility in the future (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             after the 10 year period of the SFAR) when industry and the FAA could discern groups of similar operating characteristics. See 89 FR 92296.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>266</SU>
                             See 88 FR 47650, 47698 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>267</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">Repairman Certificate Portability Working Group Preliminary Recommendation Report, https://www.faa.gov/media/73451.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>268</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">Repairman Certificate Portability Working Group Recommendation Report,</E>
                             Preliminary Recommendations.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>269</SU>
                             See 88 FR 47650, 47698 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>270</SU>
                             Experimental airworthiness certificate issued with the purpose of “operating amateur-built aircraft.”
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>271</SU>
                             14 CFR 65.107(c).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>272</SU>
                             14 CFR 65.107(d).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>273</SU>
                             Final rule, 
                            <E T="03">Exhibition, Air-Racing, and Amateur-Built Aircraft; Airworthiness Certificate and Repairman Certification</E>
                             (44 FR 46778, Aug. 9, 1979).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>274</SU>
                             The Administrator may prescribe additional limitations that the Administrator considers necessary, including limitations on the persons that may be carried in the aircraft.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>275</SU>
                             Except large aircraft with a 12,500 pounds or more gross takeoff weight, turbine powered airplanes or rotorcraft or powered-lift aircraft.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>276</SU>
                             Refer to FAA Order 8130.2, Table D-1.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>277</SU>
                             For example, aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate in accordance with former 14 CFR 21.191 (i)(2) (new 14 CFR 21.191(k)) and former 14 CFR 21.191(i)(3) (new 14 CFR 21.191(l)).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>278</SU>
                             Aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate in accordance with former 14 CFR 21.191(i)(1) (amended 14 CFR 21.191(i)).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>279</SU>
                             An individual who shows to FAA evidence of building the major portion of an aircraft are eligible to obtain a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder), with privileges limited to the aircraft that person has built. FAA considers these individuals to have demonstrated acceptable knowledge of the aircraft and able to perform a condition inspection because the individual built the major portion of an aircraft that was found safe for flight by FAA and subsequently issued an airworthiness certificate.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>280</SU>
                             14 CFR 65.107(b)(5) requires that the applicant have the requisite sill to determine whether an aircraft is in a condition for safe operation, 
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             perform a condition inspection.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>281</SU>
                             Final rule, 
                            <E T="03">Exhibition, Air-Racing, and Amateur-Built Aircraft; Airworthiness Certificate and Repairman Certification,</E>
                             44 FR 46778 (Aug. 9, 1979).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>282</SU>
                             FAA-certificated mechanics and repair stations are also permitted, in accordance with part 65 subpart D and part 145, respectively, to conduct a condition inspection on an experimental amateur-built aircraft.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>283</SU>
                             This final rule removes the definition of a light-sport aircraft in 14 CFR 1.1 and adopts, new 14 CFR 61.316, which describes the performance limits and design requirements for aircraft that a sport pilot may operate.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>284</SU>
                             88 FR 47698 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>285</SU>
                             While new 14 CFR 65.109(c), in pertinent part, states that if that person has not previously performed work as described in that paragraph, the person may show the ability to do the work by performing it to the satisfaction of the FAA, or by performing it under the direct supervision of a certificated and appropriately rated mechanic, or a certificated repairman, who has had previous experience in the specific operation concerned, that paragraph is simply redesignated (with only editorial revision) from 14 CFR 65.107(d).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>286</SU>
                             14 CFR 65.107(c) was 14 CFR 65.107(d) prior to October 22, 2025.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>287</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">National Archives Document Drafting Handbook,</E>
                             2018 Edition, Paragraph 2.15 Asterisks. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.archives.gov/federal-register/write/ddh.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>288</SU>
                             The NPRM, as the notice to the public, contained the nature of the rulemaking proceedings, the authority under which the rule was proposed, and the terms and substance of the proposed rule, with a description of the subjects and issues involved, as required by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(1)-(3).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>289</SU>
                             14 CFR 65.77(b)(1) requires practical experience with the procedures, practices, materials, tools, machine tools, and equipment generally used in constructing, maintaining, or altering airframes or powerplants.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>290</SU>
                             FAA Order 8110.107, 
                            <E T="03">Monitor Safety/Analyze Data.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>291</SU>
                             Additional discussion regarding how FAA determines mandatory overhaul or maintenance intervals can be found in FAA Order 8900.1, Volume 3, Chapter 15, Section 1, 
                            <E T="03">The Elements of Maintenance,</E>
                             and Section 2, 
                            <E T="03">Common Areas of Confusion in Maintenance.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>292</SU>
                             This is referring to the statement of compliance submitted in accordance with 14 CFR 21.190(c)(1).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>293</SU>
                             F2483-18e1, 
                            <E T="03">Standard Practice for Maintenance and the Development of Maintenance Manuals for Light Sport Aircraft.</E>
                             Paragraphs 3.1.10. and 3.1.12 state that a major repair, alteration, or maintenance is “any repair, alteration, or maintenance for which instructions to complete the task excluded from the maintenance manual(s) supplied to the consumer are considered major”, and that a minor repair, alteration, or maintenance is “any repair, alteration, or maintenance for which instructions provided for in the maintenance manual(s) supplied to the consumer of the product are considered minor.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>294</SU>
                             In discussing the removal of “to an aircraft product produced under a consensus standard” from 14 CFR 91.327(b)(6), the NPRM accidentally omitted the word “product” in the preamble discussion of what language is being removed, but the NPRM proposed regulatory text or reflected the correct revision for 14 CFR 91.327(b)(6).
                            <PRTPAGE P="35203"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>295</SU>
                             In the NPRM and final rule, FAA reworded language to separate the requirement to authorize the major repair or alteration from the performance and inspection requirement. Previous wording implied that the authorization was done in accordance with the maintenance and inspection procedures, which is not accurate. The maintenance and inspection procedures must only address performance and inspection of the major repair or major alteration, not the authorization of such work on an aircraft. No comments were received on the proposed language change therefore, it was adopted in the final rule language.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>296</SU>
                             Refer to section IV.J.3 for additional discussion on 14 CFR 1.1. definitions for major alterations and major repairs.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>297</SU>
                             This definition comports with the description in the 2004 final rule, which stated a third-party modifier included a licensee who built a product or part that was not part of the original design.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>298</SU>
                             69 FR 44854 (Jul. 27, 2004).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>299</SU>
                             Minor repairs and minor alterations are not subject to the additional requirements of 14 CFR 91.327(b)(5) of this final rule; however, the requirements of 14 CFR 91.327(b)(1) (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             maintain the aircraft in accordance with the applicable provisions of part 43) continue to apply.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>300</SU>
                             FAA-S-ACS-6C, 
                            <E T="03">Private Pilot for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards;</E>
                             dated November 2023; 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/acs/private_airplane_acs_6.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>301</SU>
                             FAA-S-8081-29A, 
                            <E T="03">Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Rating Practical Test Standards for Airplane Category, Gyroplane Category, and Glider Category,</E>
                             dated November 2023; 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/acs/sport_airplane_pts_29.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>302</SU>
                             69 FR 44804 (Jul. 27, 2004).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>303</SU>
                             Holding a standard category airworthiness certificate subsequently requires these aircraft to have an annual inspection performed by, at least, a certificated mechanic holding an inspection authorization. In contrast, a condition inspection on an aircraft with an experimental airworthiness certificate can be performed by a mechanic that does not hold an inspection authorization or by the holder of a repairman certificate.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>304</SU>
                             AC 20-62, 
                            <E T="03">Eligibility, Quality, and Identification of Aeronautical Replacement Parts;</E>
                             AC 23-27, 
                            <E T="03">Parts and Materials Substitutions for Vintage Aircrafts,</E>
                             and Work Instruction (WI) Vintage Aircraft Replacements and Modification Article (VARMA) WI-51822.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>305</SU>
                             See, 
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             Interpretation to James Richards (November 20, 2018) (stating “the FAA interprets § 119.1(e)(4) as containing only a partial list of examples of the exceptions meeting the definition of aerial work operations.”); Interpretation to Angelina Shamborska (Feb. 5, 2010) (“While the regulation cites certain examples of aerial work operations, those examples are not all-inclusive.”).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>306</SU>
                             See Interpretation to James Richards (November 20, 2018) (“The FAA has consistently interpreted the term `aerial work' to mean work done from the air with the same departure and destination points, while no property of another is carried on the aircraft, and only persons essential to the operation are carried onboard the aircraft.”); Interpretation to Jeffrey Hill (March 10, 2011) (stating “the aerial work provision of § 119.1(e)(4)(iii) is inapplicable if property “of another” is carried on the aircraft; the operation does not begin and end at the same location; or if passengers who are not essential to the operation are carried on board the airplane”).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>307</SU>
                             See, 
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             Interpretation to Tanabe (May 21, 2010) (explaining that to qualify for the aerial work exception, “each person on board the aircraft must be necessary to perform the operation” and opining that the carriage of passengers on board who are “not required for dispersal of remains” would disqualify the flight from the aerial work exception).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>308</SU>
                             See, 
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             Interpretation to Double Eagle Aviation, May 5, 2015 (“We further note that the exception in § 119.1(e)(4) for certain `aerial work operations,' such as banner towing, aerial photography or survey, and powerline or pipeline patrol, does not extend to air tour operations in which the primary purpose is sightseeing.”).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>309</SU>
                             See IV.E.5.c. in this final rule.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>310</SU>
                             “Pattern work” is a term of art that generally refers to traffic pattern practice for proficiency, training, and competency.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>311</SU>
                             See, 
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             Interpretation to Melvin O. Cintron (Aug. 18, 2012) (“Although these terms are not defined by regulation, there has been a long history stretching back over 40 years of using a case-by-case approach in determining how to apply those terms and how they relate to one another. This approach `is well documented and supported by many legal opinions issued by the FAA, the National Transportation Board (NTSB) and federal courts.'”).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>312</SU>
                             See section IV.M. of this rule for a discussion of the codification of special purpose operations for restricted category aircraft.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>313</SU>
                             As explained in the safety continuum discussion in this document, restricted category civil aircraft have traditionally been placed above aircraft with experimental airworthiness certificates on the safety continuum because they are required to be maintained continuously to meet standards prescribed in a type certificate data sheet (TCDS).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>314</SU>
                             89 FR 92296 (Nov. 21, 2024).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>315</SU>
                             International Civil Aviation Organization. 
                            <E T="03">Unmanned Aircraft Systems (UAS).</E>
                             ICAO Cir 328, 2011, p.15.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>316</SU>
                             69 FR 44880 (Jul. 27, 2004).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>317</SU>
                             Civil Air Regulations, Part 8, 
                            <E T="03">Aircraft Airworthiness Restricted Category,</E>
                             § 8.10(2), effective October 11, 1950.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>318</SU>
                             The NPRM provided the opportunity to submit proprietary or confidential business information in a way so that FAA will not place it on the public docket and will treat it as confidential under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>319</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Proposal for a New Special Purpose Operation in the Restricted Category Under FAR 21.25(b)(7)—Space Vehicle Launching</E>
                             59 FR 2901 (Jan. 19, 1994).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>320</SU>
                             See Civil Aeronautics Manual, § 8.21 
                            <E T="03">Multiple airworthiness certification,</E>
                             which limited eligibility for this provision to normal, utility, acrobatic, transport, and limited categories.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>321</SU>
                             A “Means of Compliance” is a detailed design standard that, if met, accomplishes the intent of the regulation and is used by an applicant to show compliance with the broad requirements of 14 CFR. A means of compliance is one method, but not the only method, to show compliance with a regulatory requirement. A “Method of Compliance” is a description of how compliance will be shown (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             ground test, flight test, analysis, similarity, etc.). The description of the method of compliance should be sufficient to determine that all necessary compliance-related data will be collected, and all findings can be made.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>322</SU>
                             88 FR 47729 (Jul. 24, 2023).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>323</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/FAA-2023-0855/comments.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>324</SU>
                             The fundamental difference between these two classifications of airworthiness certification is that the standard airworthiness certificate includes a finding of compliance to International Civil Aviation Organization airworthiness standards, enabling international air navigation without having to obtain permission before entering another country.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>325</SU>
                             Johnson, Dan and Roy Beisswenger, 2018, 
                            <E T="03">Modernizing Rules for Sport Pilots and Light Sport Aircraft.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>326</SU>
                             The report is available online at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/sites/faa.gov/files/aircraft/gen_av/light_sport/2021_SLSA_COS.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>327</SU>
                             FAA provides a list at: FAA Accepted ASTM Consensus Standards—LSA.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>328</SU>
                             The FAA's noise certification process is entirely performance-based; there are no noise-reduction technologies defined in the noise regulations. Applicants are free to choose any methods or technologies. The FAA sets the noise limits at levels that aircraft with current technology will pass.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>329</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">https://view.officeapps.live.com/op/view.aspx?src=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.faa.gov%2Faircraft%2Fgen_av%2Flight_sport%2Fmedia%2Fslsa_directory.xlsx&amp;wdOrigin=BROWSELINK.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>330</SU>
                             Available at 
                            <E T="03">https://registry.faa.gov/aircraftinquiry/.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>331</SU>
                             See 2023 U.S. Civil Airmen Statistics (
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/data_research/aviation_data_statistics/civil_airmen_statistics</E>
                            ), Table 16.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>332</SU>
                             National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB), 2012, 
                            <E T="03">The Safety of Experimental Amateur-Built Aircraft.</E>
                             NTSB/SS-12/01. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ntsb.gov/investigations/AccidentReports/Reports/SS1201.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>333</SU>
                             U.S. Department of Transportation. 2025. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/office-policy/transportation-policy/revised-departmental-guidance-on-valuation-of-a-statistical-life-in-economic-analysis.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>334</SU>
                             U.S. Department of Transportation. 2021. 
                            <E T="03">Treatment of the Value of Preventing Fatalities and Injuries in Preparing Economic Analyses. https://www.transportation.gov/resources/value-of-a-statistical-life-guidance.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>335</SU>
                             The calculations are 3.9 × $13.7 million and 3.5 × $1.4 million.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>336</SU>
                             For example, 14 CFR 22.155, fire protection, requires incorporating design features to sustain static and dynamic 
                            <PRTPAGE P="35204"/>
                            deceleration loads without structural damage to fuel or electrical system components or their attachments that could leak fuel to an ignition source or allow electrical power to become an ignition source. The consensus standard does not address low wing airplane designs where the fuel is abeam or forward of the occupants if fuel is in tanks built into the leading edge of the wing. 14 CFR 22.165, emergency evacuation, requires all occupants can rapidly conduct an emergency evacuation and to account for all conditions likely to occur following an emergency landing. The consensus standards don't account for all conditions, such as if the aircraft were inverted.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>337</SU>
                             Estimate from an acoustic Designated Engineering Representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>338</SU>
                             As noted in section IV.I.5, two glider-specific training courses will need to be updated to include content covering both unpowered and powered gliders.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>339</SU>
                             See AC 00-60B, § 11(a)(1).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>340</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>341</SU>
                             On June 30, 2025, FAA rescinded FAA Order 1050.1F and issued FAA Order 1050.1G, 
                            <E T="03">FAA National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures,</E>
                             to update FAA's NEPA implementing procedures. See 
                            <E T="03">Notice of Rescission of FAA Order 1050.1F, Availability of FAA Order 1050.1G, Request for Comments,</E>
                             90 FR 29615 (July 3, 2025). The revision to FAA Order 1050.1 does not change the analysis of environmental effects for the issuance and implementation of this rule, and it is appropriate to continue reference to FAA Order 1050.1F in evaluating environmental effects for this rule.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>342</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Notice of Availability of the Draft Programmatic Environmental Assessment and Finding of No Significant Impact for Implementation of the Modernization of Special Airworthiness Certification Rule,</E>
                             90 FR 22437 (May 27, 2025).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>343</SU>
                             65 FR 67249 (Nov. 6, 2000).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>344</SU>
                             FAA Order No. 1210.20 (Jan. 28, 2004), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.faa.gov/documentLibrary/media/1210.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                        <CFR>14 CFR Part 1</CFR>
                        <P>Air transportation.</P>
                        <CFR>14 CFR Part 21</CFR>
                        <P>Aircraft, Aviation safety, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Voluntary standards.</P>
                        <CFR>14 CFR Part 22</CFR>
                        <P>Aircraft, Aviation safety, Voluntary standards.</P>
                        <CFR>14 CFR Part 36</CFR>
                        <P>Agriculture, Aircraft, Noise control.</P>
                        <CFR>14 CFR Part 43</CFR>
                        <P>Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                        <CFR>14 CFR Part 45</CFR>
                        <P>Aircraft, Signs and symbols.</P>
                        <CFR>14 CFR Part 61</CFR>
                        <P>Aircraft, Airmen, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Recreation and recreation areas, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Teachers.</P>
                        <CFR>14 CFR Part 65</CFR>
                        <P>Air traffic controllers, Aircraft, Airmen, Airports, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                        <CFR>14 CFR Part 91</CFR>
                        <P>Air carriers, Air taxis, Air traffic control, Aircraft, Airmen, Airports, Aviation safety, Noise control, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation.</P>
                        <CFR>14 CFR Part 119</CFR>
                        <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Air carriers, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                        <CFR>14 CFR Part 147</CFR>
                        <P>Aircraft, Airmen, Educational facilities, Incorporation by reference, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Schools.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                    <P>In consideration of the forgoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends chapter I of title 14, Code of Federal Regulations as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1—DEFINITIONS AND ABBREVIATIONS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="1">
                        <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 1 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.1</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> [Amended] .</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="1">
                        <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 1.1 by removing the definition for “Consensus standard”.</AMDPAR>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="1">
                        <AMDPAR>3. Effective July 24, 2026, further amend § 1.1 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Removing the definition for “Light-sport aircraft;” and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding the definitions for “Space support vehicle” and “Space support vehicle flight” in alphabetical order.</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The additions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 1.1 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>General definitions.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Space support vehicle</E>
                                 means an aircraft that is a launch vehicle, reentry vehicle, or a component of a launch or reentry vehicle.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Space support vehicle flight</E>
                                 means a flight in the air that is not a launch or reentry, but is conducted by a space support vehicle.
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 21—CERTIFICATION PROCEDURES FOR PRODUCTS AND ARTICLES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>4. The authority citation for part 21 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P> 42 U.S.C. 7572; 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40105, 40113, 44701-44702, 44704, 44707, 44709, 44711, 44713, 44715, 45303; sec. 102, Pub. L. 116-260, 134 Stat. 2309 (49 U.S.C. 44701 note).</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>5. Revise § 21.25 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.25 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Issue of type certificate: restricted category aircraft.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) An applicant is entitled to a type certificate for an aircraft in the restricted category for special purpose operations if the applicant shows compliance with the applicable noise requirements of part 36 of this chapter, and if the applicant shows that no feature or characteristic of the aircraft makes it unsafe when it is operated under the limitations prescribed for its intended use, and that aircraft—</P>
                            <P>(1) Meets the airworthiness requirements of an aircraft category, other than primary category or light-sport category, except those requirements that the FAA finds inappropriate for the special purpose operation for which the aircraft is to be used; or</P>
                            <P>(2) Is of a type that—</P>
                            <P>(i) Has been manufactured in accordance with the requirements of, and accepted for use by, the U.S. Armed Forces;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Has a service history with the U.S. Armed Forces acceptable to the FAA; and</P>
                            <P>(iii) Has been found capable by the FAA of performing, or has been modified to perform, the special purpose operation for which the aircraft is to be used.</P>
                            <P>(b) Restricted category aircraft can be approved for:</P>
                            <P>(1) Agricultural use, for one or more of the following special purpose operations, including—</P>
                            <P>(i) Spraying, dusting, and seeding;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Livestock and predatory animal control;</P>
                            <P>(iii) Insect control;</P>
                            <P>(iv) Dust control; or</P>
                            <P>(v) Fruit drying and frost control.</P>
                            <P>(2) Forest and wildlife conservation, for one or more of the following special purpose operations, including—</P>
                            <P>(i) Aerial dispensing of firefighting materials;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Fish spotting;</P>
                            <P>(iii) Wild animal survey; or</P>
                            <P>(iv) Oil spill response.</P>
                            <P>
                                (3) Aerial surveying, for one or more of the following special purpose operations, including—
                                <PRTPAGE P="35205"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) Aerial imaging and mapping;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Oil, gas, and mineral exploration;</P>
                            <P>(iii) Atmospheric survey and research;</P>
                            <P>(iv) Geophysical and electromagnetic survey;</P>
                            <P>(v) Oceanic survey; or</P>
                            <P>(vi) Airborne measurement of navigation signals.</P>
                            <P>(4) Patrolling, for one or more of the following special purpose operations, including—</P>
                            <P>(i) Pipelines;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Powerlines;</P>
                            <P>(iii) Data transmission lines and towers;</P>
                            <P>(iv) Railroads;</P>
                            <P>(v) Canals; or</P>
                            <P>(vi) Harbors.</P>
                            <P>(5) Weather control, including the special purpose operation of cloud seeding.</P>
                            <P>(6) Aerial advertising, for one or more of the following special purpose operations, including—</P>
                            <P>(i) Skywriting;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Banner towing;</P>
                            <P>(iii) Displaying airborne signs; or</P>
                            <P>(iv) Public address systems.</P>
                            <P>(7) Other special purpose operations, including—</P>
                            <P>(i) Rotorcraft external-load operations conducted under part 133 of this chapter;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Carriage of cargo incidental to the owner's or operator's business;</P>
                            <P>(iii) Target towing;</P>
                            <P>(iv) Search and rescue operations;</P>
                            <P>(v) Glider towing;</P>
                            <P>(vi) Alaskan fuel hauling;</P>
                            <P>(vii) Alaskan fixed-wing external load operations;</P>
                            <P>(viii) Space vehicle launch; or</P>
                            <P>(ix) Any other special purpose operation specified by the FAA.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>6. Revise § 21.175 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.175 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Airworthiness certificates: classification.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) Standard airworthiness certificates are airworthiness certificates issued for aircraft type certificated:</P>
                            <P>(1) In the normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category;</P>
                            <P>(2) As manned free balloons; or</P>
                            <P>(3) As special classes of aircraft.</P>
                            <P>(b) Special airworthiness certificates are airworthiness certificates issued for:</P>
                            <P>(1) Aircraft type-certificated in the primary, restricted, provisional, or limited category;</P>
                            <P>(2) Aircraft certificated in the light-sport category;</P>
                            <P>(3) Aircraft operating for an experimental purpose; or</P>
                            <P>(4) Aircraft operating under a special flight permit.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>7. Amend § 21.181 by revising paragraph (a) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.181 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Duration.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) Unless sooner surrendered, suspended, revoked, or a termination date is otherwise established by the FAA, airworthiness certificates are effective as long as the aircraft is registered in the United States and as follows:</P>
                            <P>(1) Standard airworthiness certificates and special airworthiness certificates issued for aircraft certificated in the primary, restricted, or limited category are effective as long as the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations are performed in accordance with parts 43 and 91 of this chapter.</P>
                            <P>(2) A special flight permit is effective for the period of time specified in the permit.</P>
                            <P>(3) A special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category is effective as long as—</P>
                            <P>(i) The aircraft meets the definition of a light-sport aircraft;</P>
                            <P>(ii) The aircraft conforms to its original configuration, except for those alterations performed in accordance with an applicable consensus standard and authorized by the aircraft's manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA; and</P>
                            <P>(iii) The aircraft has no unsafe condition and is not likely to develop an unsafe condition.</P>
                            <P>(4) The duration of an experimental airworthiness certificate issued for research and development, showing compliance with regulations, crew training, or market survey is effective for 3 years from the date of issue or renewal unless the FAA prescribes a shorter period.</P>
                            <P>(5) The duration of an experimental airworthiness certificate issued for exhibition, air-racing, operating amateur-built aircraft, operating primary kit-built aircraft, operating light-sport aircraft, operating light-sport category kit-built aircraft, operating former light-sport category aircraft is unlimited, unless the FAA establishes a specific period for good cause.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>8. Effective July 24, 2026, further amend § 21.181 by revising paragraph (a) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.181 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Duration.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) Unless sooner surrendered, suspended, revoked, or a termination date is otherwise established by the FAA, airworthiness certificates are effective as long as the aircraft is registered in the United States and as follows:</P>
                            <P>(1) Standard airworthiness certificates and special airworthiness certificates issued for aircraft certificated in the primary, restricted, or limited category are effective as long as the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations are performed in accordance with parts 43 and 91 of this chapter.</P>
                            <P>(2) A special flight permit is effective for the period of time specified in the permit.</P>
                            <P>(3) A special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category is effective as long as all of the following conditions are met.</P>
                            <P>(i) Except as specified in paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section, the aircraft meets the eligibility criteria for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category specified in § 21.190(b).</P>
                            <P>(ii) The aircraft conforms to its original or properly altered configuration.</P>
                            <P>(iii) The aircraft has no unsafe condition and is not likely to develop an unsafe condition.</P>
                            <P>(iv) For aircraft originally certificated prior to July 24, 2026, the aircraft meets all of the following conditions:</P>
                            <P>(A) A maximum takeoff weight of not more than 1,320 pounds (600 kilograms) for aircraft not intended for operation on water or 1,430 pounds (650 kilograms) for an aircraft intended for operation on water.</P>
                            <P>
                                (B) A maximum airspeed in level flight with maximum continuous power (V
                                <E T="52">H</E>
                                ) of not more than 120 knots CAS under standard atmospheric conditions at sea level.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (C) A maximum never-exceed speed (V
                                <E T="52">NE</E>
                                ) of not more than 120 knots CAS for a glider.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (D) A maximum stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed without the use of lift-enhancing devices (V
                                <E T="52">S1</E>
                                ) of not more than 45 knots CAS at the aircraft's maximum certificated takeoff weight and most critical center of gravity.
                            </P>
                            <P>(E) A maximum seating capacity of no more than two persons, including the pilot.</P>
                            <P>(F) A single, reciprocating engine, if powered.</P>
                            <P>(G) A fixed or ground-adjustable propeller if a powered aircraft other than a powered glider.</P>
                            <P>(H) A fixed or feathering propeller system if a powered glider.</P>
                            <P>(I) A nonpressurized cabin, if equipped with a cabin.</P>
                            <P>(J) Fixed landing gear, except for an aircraft intended for operation on water or a glider.</P>
                            <P>(K) Fixed or retractable landing gear, or a hull, for an aircraft intended for operation on water.</P>
                            <P>(L) Fixed or retractable landing gear for a glider.</P>
                            <P>
                                (4) The duration of an experimental airworthiness certificate issued for 
                                <PRTPAGE P="35206"/>
                                research and development, showing compliance with regulations, crew training, or market survey is effective for 3 years from the date of issue or renewal unless the FAA prescribes a shorter period.
                            </P>
                            <P>(5) The duration of an experimental airworthiness certificate issued for exhibition, air-racing, operating amateur-built aircraft, operating primary kit-built aircraft, operating light-sport aircraft, operating light-sport category kit-built aircraft, and operating former light-sport category aircraft, and operating former military aircraft is unlimited, unless the FAA establishes a specific period for good cause.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                      
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>9. Effective July 24, 2026, amend § 21.182 by revising paragraphs (a) and (b)(2) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.182 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Aircraft identification.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each applicant for an airworthiness certificate under this subpart must show that his aircraft is identified as prescribed in § 45.11 of this chapter.</P>
                            <P>(b) * * *</P>
                            <P>(2) An experimental airworthiness certificate issued for the purposes of research and development, showing compliance with regulations, crew training, exhibition, air racing, market surveys, or operating former military aircraft.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>10. Amend § 21.183 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Removing the word “or” at the end of paragraph (d)(2)(iii);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Removing the word “and” and adding “or” in its place at the end of paragraph (d)(2)(iv); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. Adding paragraph (d)(2)(v).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The addition reads as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.183 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Issue of standard airworthiness certificates for normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, and transport category aircraft; manned free balloons; and special classes of aircraft.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(d) * * *</P>
                            <P>(2) * * *</P>
                            <P>(v) A foreign maintenance organization appropriately certificated by an exporting authority with whose country the United States has a bilateral agreement that includes acceptance of this aircraft category by the United States for import. An acceptable inspection must have been completed while the aircraft was operated on the registry of the exporting authority and within 60 days of submitting the application for a United States airworthiness certificate;</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>11. Amend § 21.185 by revising paragraphs (a) and (b) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.185 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Issue of airworthiness certificates for restricted category aircraft.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Aircraft manufactured under a production certificate or type certificate.</E>
                                 An applicant for a restricted category airworthiness certificate for an aircraft type certificated in the restricted category, that was not previously type certificated in any other category, must comply with § 21.183(a) or (b), as applicable. A used aircraft must conform to its type certificate and be in a condition for safe operation.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Other aircraft.</E>
                                 An applicant for an airworthiness certificate in the restricted category is entitled to an airworthiness certificate if—
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) The aircraft is type certificated for a special purpose operation in the restricted category;</P>
                            <P>(2) The aircraft was—</P>
                            <P>(i) Manufactured in accordance with the requirements of, and accepted for use by, the U.S. Armed Forces and has a service history with the U.S. Armed Forces acceptable to the FAA; or</P>
                            <P>(ii) Previously type certificated in another category; and</P>
                            <P>(3) The aircraft has been inspected by the FAA and found by him to be in a good state of preservation and repair and in a condition for safe operation.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 21.187 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Issue of multiple airworthiness certifications for restricted category aircraft.</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>12. Amend § 21.187 by revising the section heading to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.187 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Issue of multiple airworthiness certifications for restricted category aircraft.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>13. Effective July 24, 2026, revise § 21.190 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.190 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Issue of a special airworthiness certificate for a light-sport category aircraft.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Purpose.</E>
                                 The FAA issues a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category to operate an aircraft, other than an unmanned aircraft, that meets the requirements of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Eligibility.</E>
                                 To be eligible for a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category, an aircraft must meet the applicable requirements of § 22.100 of this chapter.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Application for special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category.</E>
                                 Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, an applicant for a special airworthiness certificate under this section must provide the FAA with:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) The manufacturer's statement of compliance as described in paragraph (d) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(2) A pilot's operating handbook that includes:</P>
                            <P>(i) Operating instructions and limitations to safely accommodate all environmental conditions and normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures likely to be encountered in the aircraft's intended operations.</P>
                            <P>(ii) A flight training supplement to enable safe operation of the aircraft within the intended flight envelope under all likely conditions.</P>
                            <P>(iii) A listing of any aerial work operations that may be safely conducted using the aircraft and any instructions and limitations that are necessary to safely conduct those operations.</P>
                            <P>(iv) Any instructions or limitations necessary to safely conduct towing operations.</P>
                            <P>(3) A maintenance and inspection program containing procedures necessary to ensure continued safe operation of the aircraft.</P>
                            <P>
                                (d) 
                                <E T="03">Manufacturer's statement of compliance.</E>
                                 The manufacturer's statement of compliance specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section must—
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Be signed by the manufacturer's authorized representative who is certified and trained on the requirements associated with the issuance of a statement of compliance by an organization that certifies and trains quality assurance staff in accordance with a consensus standard that has been accepted by the FAA;</P>
                            <P>(2) Identify the aircraft by make, model, serial number, class, and date of manufacture;</P>
                            <P>(3) Specify towing and any aerial work operations the manufacturer has determined may be safely conducted, and state that the aircraft has been ground and flight tested to ensure that it can be operated to safely conduct those operations in accordance with the instructions and limitations provided by the manufacturer;</P>
                            <P>(4) State whether the aircraft meets the requirements of § 22.180 of this chapter for simplified flight controls;</P>
                            <P>(5) Specify the consensus standards used to determine the aircraft's compliance with subpart B of part 22 of this chapter and state that the aircraft meets the eligibility, design, production, and airworthiness requirements of subpart B of part 22 in accordance with those consensus standards. The specified consensus standards must be accepted or approved by the FAA for the airworthiness certification of light-sport category aircraft;</P>
                            <P>
                                (6) State that the aircraft conforms to the manufacturer's design data, using 
                                <PRTPAGE P="35207"/>
                                the manufacturer's quality assurance system that meets the specified consensus standard;
                            </P>
                            <P>(7) State that the manufacturer will make available to any interested person the documents specified in paragraph (c) of this section;</P>
                            <P>(8) State that the manufacturer will support the aircraft by implementing and maintaining a documented continued operational safety program that—</P>
                            <P>(i) Addresses monitoring and resolving in-service safety of flight issues;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Includes provisions for the issuance of safety directives;</P>
                            <P>(iii) Includes a process for notifying the FAA and all owners of all safety of flight issues; and</P>
                            <P>(iv) Includes a process for advance notice to the FAA and all owners of a continued operational safety program discontinuance or provider change;</P>
                            <P>(9) State that the manufacturer will monitor and correct safety-of-flight issues through the issuance of safety directives and a continued operational safety program that meets the specified consensus standard;</P>
                            <P>(10) State that at the request of the FAA, the manufacturer will provide unrestricted access to its facilities and to all data necessary to determine compliance with this section or other applicable requirements of this chapter; and</P>
                            <P>(11) State that the manufacturer has established and maintains a quality assurance system that meets the requirements of § 22.185 of this chapter.</P>
                            <P>
                                (e) 
                                <E T="03">Special provisions for aircraft certificated in the light-sport category before July 24, 2026.</E>
                                 The owner of an aircraft issued a light-sport category airworthiness certificate before July 24, 2026, may submit an amended manufacturer's statement of compliance to the FAA listing those aerial work operations that may be conducted using the aircraft. The amended statement of compliance must—
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Identify the aircraft by make, model, serial number, and date of manufacture.</P>
                            <P>(2) Be made by the original manufacturer of the aircraft.</P>
                            <P>(3) Reference and reaffirm the statements made in the original manufacturer's statement of compliance.</P>
                            <P>(4) State that the design and construction of the aircraft provides sufficient structural integrity to enable safe operation of the aircraft during the performance of the specified aerial work operations and that the aircraft is able to withstand any likely flight and ground loads.</P>
                            <P>(5) Specify the FAA-accepted consensus standard used to make the determination required by paragraph (e)(4) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(6) Is accompanied by revisions to the aircraft's operating instructions to indicate those aerial work operations that may be conducted using the aircraft, and any applicable revisions to the aircraft's maintenance and inspection procedures, and flight training supplement.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>14. Amend § 21.191 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revising the section heading, introductory text, and paragraph (i); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding reserved paragraph (j) and paragraphs (k) and (l).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions and additions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.191 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Issue of experimental airworthiness certificates.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Experimental airworthiness certificates are issued for the following experimental purposes:</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (i) 
                                <E T="03">Operating light-sport aircraft.</E>
                                 Operating a light-sport aircraft that—
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Has not been issued a U.S. or foreign airworthiness certificate and does not meet the provisions of § 103.1 of this chapter. An experimental airworthiness certificate will not be issued under this paragraph (i) for these aircraft after January 31, 2008;</P>
                            <P>(2) Has been assembled—</P>
                            <P>(i) From an aircraft kit; and</P>
                            <P>(ii) In accordance with manufacturer's assembly instructions that meet an applicable consensus standard; and</P>
                            <P>(iii) An experimental airworthiness certificate will not be issued under this paragraph (i)(2) for these aircraft after October 22, 2025; or</P>
                            <P>(3) Has been previously issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category under § 21.190. An experimental airworthiness certificate will not be issued under this paragraph for these aircraft after October 22, 2025.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (k) 
                                <E T="03">Operating light-sport category kit-built aircraft.</E>
                                 Operating an aircraft of a type that has been certificated under § 21.190 and assembled from an aircraft kit in accordance with manufacturer's assembly instructions that meet an applicable FAA-accepted consensus standard.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (l) 
                                <E T="03">Operating former light-sport category aircraft.</E>
                                 Operating an aircraft that previously has been issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category under § 21.190. 
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>15. Effective July 24, 2026, further amend § 21.191 by adding paragraph (j) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.191 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Issue of experimental airworthiness certificates.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (j) 
                                <E T="03">Operating former military aircraft.</E>
                                 Operating a former military aircraft that meets the following requirements:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) The aircraft is not an unmanned aircraft.</P>
                            <P>(2) The aircraft was manufactured by, purchased by, modified by, or on the registry of the U.S. Armed Forces or a foreign military.</P>
                            <P>(3) The aircraft is operated for one of the following purposes:</P>
                            <P>(i) Flying the aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations, or maintenance are to be performed and for check flights following those repairs, alterations, or maintenance;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Flying to a point of storage; or</P>
                            <P>(iii) Repositioning the aircraft for operation as a public aircraft. </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>16. Amend § 21.193 by revising the section heading and paragraph (e) introductory text to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.193 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Experimental airworthiness certificates: General.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(e) In the case of a light-sport aircraft assembled from a kit to be certificated in accordance with § 21.191(k), an applicant must provide the following:</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>17. Effective July 24, 2026, revise § 21.193 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.193 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Application for special airworthiness certificates issued for experimental purposes.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>An applicant for an experimental airworthiness certificate must submit the following information in a form and manner prescribed by the FAA:</P>
                            <P>(a) The experimental purpose for which the aircraft is to be used.</P>
                            <P>(b) Enough information to describe the operation, equipment, or test as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(c) The estimated time or number of flights required for the operation, for an applicant seeking issuance of an experimental airworthiness certificate for those experimental purposes specified in § 21.191(a) through (f).</P>
                            <P>(d) The areas over which flights will be conducted.</P>
                            <P>(e) Enough data to identify the aircraft.</P>
                            <P>(f) Except for a previously type certificated aircraft without an appreciable change in its external configuration, three-view drawings or three-view dimensional photographs of the aircraft.</P>
                            <P>
                                (g) Upon inspection of the aircraft, any pertinent information found necessary by the FAA to safeguard the general public.
                                <PRTPAGE P="35208"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(h) In the case of a light-sport category aircraft assembled from a kit to be certificated in accordance with § 21.191(k), an applicant must provide the following:</P>
                            <P>(1) Evidence that an aircraft of the same make and model was manufactured and assembled by the aircraft kit manufacturer and issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category under § 21.190.</P>
                            <P>(2) The pilot's operating handbook that includes a flight training supplement.</P>
                            <P>(3) The aircraft's maintenance and inspection procedures.</P>
                            <P>(4) The manufacturer's statement of compliance for the aircraft kit used in the aircraft assembly that meets the applicable requirements of § 21.190 in effect at the time the aircraft kit was manufactured, except the statement need not indicate compliance with § 22.195 of this chapter. The statement must identify assembly instructions for the aircraft that meet an applicable consensus standard.</P>
                            <P>(5) For an aircraft kit manufactured outside the United States, evidence that the aircraft kit was manufactured in a country with which the United States has a Bilateral Airworthiness Agreement concerning airplanes or a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement with associated Implementation Procedures for Airworthiness concerning airplanes, or an equivalent airworthiness agreement.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>18. Revise § 21.195 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.195 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Experimental airworthiness certificates: Aircraft to be used for market surveys, sales demonstrations, and customer crew training.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) A manufacturer of aircraft manufactured within the United States may apply for an experimental airworthiness certificate for an aircraft that is to be used for market surveys, sales demonstrations, or customer crew training.</P>
                            <P>(b) A manufacturer of an aircraft engine manufactured by him within the United States, that has altered a type certificated aircraft by installing an engine it has manufactured, may apply for an experimental airworthiness certificate for that aircraft to be used for market surveys, sales demonstrations, or customer crew training, if the basic aircraft, before alteration, was type certificated in the normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, transport, primary, or restricted category.</P>
                            <P>(c) A person who has altered the design of a type certificated aircraft may apply for an experimental airworthiness certificate for an altered aircraft to be used for market surveys, sales demonstrations, or customer crew training, if the basic aircraft, before alteration, was type certificated in the normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, transport, primary, or restricted category.</P>
                            <P>(d) An applicant for an experimental airworthiness certificate under paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section is entitled to that certificate if, in addition to meeting the requirements of § 21.193—</P>
                            <P>(1) He has established an inspection and maintenance program for the continued airworthiness of the aircraft; and</P>
                            <P>(2) The applicant shows that the aircraft has been flown for at least 50 hours, or for at least 5 hours if it is a type certificated aircraft which has been altered. FAA may reduce these operational requirements if the applicant provides adequate justification.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>19. Revise § 21.327 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.327 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Application.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) Any owner of a U.S.-registered aircraft (or the agent of the owner) may apply for an export certificate of airworthiness for that aircraft.</P>
                            <P>(b) Any person may apply for an export airworthiness approval for an aircraft engine, propeller, or article.</P>
                            <P>(c) Each applicant must apply in a form and manner prescribed by the FAA.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="21">
                        <AMDPAR>20. Amend § 21.329 by revising paragraph (a)(1) introductory text to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 21.329 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Issuance of export certificates of airworthiness.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) A new or used aircraft manufactured under subpart F or G of this part meets the requirements under subpart H of this part for a—</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="22">
                        <AMDPAR>21. Effective July 24, 2026, add part 22 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <PART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 22—DESIGN, PRODUCTION, AND AIRWORTHINESS REQUIREMENTS FOR NON-TYPE CERTIFICATED AIRCRAFT</HD>
                            <CONTENTS>
                                <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Subpart A—General</HD>
                                <SECTNO>22.1 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Subpart B—Light-Sport Category Aircraft</HD>
                                <SECTNO>22.100 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Eligibility.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.105 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Control and maneuverability.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.110 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Structural integrity.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.115 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Powered-lift: minimum safe speed.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.125 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Environmental conditions.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.130 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Suitability and durability of materials.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.135 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Instruments and equipment.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.140 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Controls and displays.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.145 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Propulsion system.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.150 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Fuel system.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.155 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Fire protection.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.160 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Visibility.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.165 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Emergency evacuation.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.170 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Placards and markings.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.175 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.180 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Special requirements for light-sport category aircraft with simplified flight controls.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.185 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Quality assurance system.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.190 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Finding of compliance by trained compliance staff.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>22.195 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Ground and flight testing.</SUBJECT>
                            </CONTENTS>
                            <AUTH>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                                <P>42 U.S.C. 7572; 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40105, 40113, 44701-44702, 44704, 44707, 44709, 44711, 44713, 44715, 45303.</P>
                            </AUTH>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.1 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, this part prescribes design, production, and airworthiness requirements for the issue of special airworthiness certificates, and changes to those certificates, for non-type certificated aircraft.</P>
                                    <P>(b) Each person who applies under part 21 of this chapter for such a certificate or change must comply with the applicable requirements in this part.</P>
                                    <P>(c) This part does not apply to:</P>
                                    <P>(1) Aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate, except for light-sport category kit-built aircraft;</P>
                                    <P>(2) Aircraft operating under a special flight permit; or</P>
                                    <P>(3) Unmanned aircraft.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Light-Sport Category Aircraft</HD>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.100 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Eligibility.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) To be eligible for a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category issued under § 21.190 of this chapter, an aircraft must—</P>
                                    <P>(1) Except for an airplane, have a maximum seating capacity of not more than two persons, including the pilot.</P>
                                    <P>(2) For an airplane, have a maximum seating capacity of not more than four persons, including the pilot.</P>
                                    <P>
                                        (3) Have a maximum stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at the aircraft's maximum takeoff weight and most critical center of gravity of 61 knots CAS V
                                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                                         for an airplane, 45 knots CAS V
                                        <E T="52">S0</E>
                                         for a glider, or 45 knots CAS without the use of lift-enhancing devices, V
                                        <E T="52">S1</E>
                                        , for a weight-shift-control aircraft.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        (4) Have a maximum speed of 250 knots CAS in level flight with maximum continuous power (V
                                        <E T="52">H</E>
                                        ) under standard atmospheric conditions at sea level.
                                    </P>
                                    <P>
                                        (5) Have a non-pressurized cabin, if equipped with a cabin.
                                        <PRTPAGE P="35209"/>
                                    </P>
                                    <P>(6) Not have been previously issued a standard, primary, restricted, limited, or provisional airworthiness certificate, or an equivalent airworthiness certificate by a foreign civil aviation authority.</P>
                                    <P>(7) Meet the design, production, and airworthiness requirements specified in this subpart using a means of compliance consisting of consensus standards accepted or approved by the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).</P>
                                    <P>(8) Be inspected by the FAA and found to be in a condition for safe operation.</P>
                                    <P>(b) For aircraft manufactured outside the United States, an applicant must also provide the FAA evidence that—</P>
                                    <P>(1) The aircraft was manufactured in a country with which the United States has a Bilateral Airworthiness Agreement concerning airplanes or Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement with associated Implementation Procedures for Airworthiness concerning airplanes, or an equivalent airworthiness agreement; and</P>
                                    <P>(2) The aircraft is eligible for an airworthiness certificate, flight authorization, or other similar certification in its country of manufacture.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.105 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Control and maneuverability.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>A light-sport category aircraft must—</P>
                                    <P>(a) Be consistently and predictably controllable and maneuverable at all loading conditions during all phases of flight; and,</P>
                                    <P>(b) Not have a tendency to inadvertently depart controlled flight or require exceptional piloting skill, alertness, or strength.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.110 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Structural integrity.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) The design and construction of the aircraft must provide sufficient structural integrity to enable safe operations within the aircraft's flight envelope throughout the aircraft's intended life cycle; and</P>
                                    <P>(b) The aircraft must be able to withstand all likely flight and ground loads, including towing and any aerial work operation, when operated within its operational limits.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.115 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Powered-lift: minimum safe speed.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>To be certificated in the light-sport category, powered-lift must have a known minimum safe speed for each flight condition encountered in normal operations, including applicable sources of lift and phases of flight, to maintain controlled safe flight. The minimum safe speed determination must account for the most adverse conditions for each configuration.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.125 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Environmental conditions.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>The aircraft must have design characteristics to safely accommodate all environmental conditions likely to be encountered during its intended operations.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.130 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Suitability and durability of materials.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>The suitability and durability of materials used for products and articles must account for the likely environmental conditions expected in service, the failure of which could prevent continued safe flight and landing.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.135 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Instruments and equipment.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) The aircraft must have all instruments and equipment necessary for safe flight, to include those instruments necessary for systems control and management.</P>
                                    <P>(b) The aircraft must include all instruments and equipment required for the kinds of operations for which it is authorized.</P>
                                    <P>(c) The aircraft's, instruments, equipment, and systems must perform their intended functions under all operating conditions specified in the pilot's operating handbook. Likely failure or malfunction of equipment or a system must not cause loss of control of the aircraft. Equipment and systems must be considered separately and in relation to each other.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.140 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Controls and displays.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>The aircraft must be designed and constructed so that the pilot has the ability to reach controls and displays in a manner that provides for smooth and positive operation of the aircraft.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.145 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Propulsion system.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>The aircraft propulsion system must—</P>
                                    <P>(a) Have controls that are simple, intuitive, and not confusing;</P>
                                    <P>(b) Be designed so that the failure of any product or article does not prevent continued safe flight and landing or, if continued safe flight and landing cannot be ensured, the hazard has been minimized;</P>
                                    <P>(c) Not exceed safe operating limits under normal operating conditions; and</P>
                                    <P>(d) Have the necessary reliability, durability, and endurance for safe flight without failure, malfunction, excessive wear, or other anomalies.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.150 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Fuel system.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>The aircraft fuel system must—</P>
                                    <P>(a) Provide a means to safely remove or isolate the fuel stored in the system from the aircraft; and</P>
                                    <P>(b) Be designed to retain fuel under all likely operating conditions.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.155 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Fire protection.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>The hazards of fuel or electrical fires following a survivable emergency landing must be minimized by incorporating design features to sustain static and dynamic deceleration loads without structural damage to fuel or electrical system components or their attachments that would leak fuel to an ignition source or allow electrical power to become an ignition source.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.160 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Visibility.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>The aircraft must be designed and constructed so that the pilot has—</P>
                                    <P>(a) Sufficient visibility of controls, instruments, equipment, and placards; and</P>
                                    <P>(b) Sufficient visibility outside the aircraft necessary to conduct safe aircraft operations.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.165 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Emergency evacuation.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>(a) The aircraft must be designed and constructed—</P>
                                    <P>(1) So that all occupants have the ability to rapidly conduct an emergency evacuation; and</P>
                                    <P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, to account for conditions likely to occur following an emergency landing.</P>
                                    <P>(b) Aircraft not intended for operation on water are not required to account for ditching in an emergency landing.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.170 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Placards and markings.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>The aircraft must display all placards and instrument markings necessary for safe operation and occupant warning. Markings or graphics must clearly indicate the function of each control, other than primary flight controls.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.175 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.180 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Special requirements for light-sport category aircraft with simplified flight controls.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>An aircraft that meets the following requirements may be designated by the manufacturer as having simplified flight controls—</P>
                                    <P>(a) The aircraft's flight path and available power are automated, allowing the pilot to only intervene without the availability of primary flight controls;</P>
                                    <P>(b) The aircraft is designed to inherently prevent loss of control under likely circumstances, regardless of pilot input; and</P>
                                    <P>(c) The aircraft has a means to enable the pilot to quickly and safely discontinue or alter the flight and prevent any inadvertent activation of these functions.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.185 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Quality assurance system.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>
                                        The aircraft must have been designed, produced, and tested under a 
                                        <PRTPAGE P="35210"/>
                                        documented quality assurance system to ensure each product and article conforms to its design and is in a condition for safe operation.
                                    </P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.190 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Finding of compliance by trained compliance staff.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>The aircraft must have been found compliant with the provisions of the applicable FAA-accepted or approved consensus standards by individuals who have been trained on determining compliance with those consensus standards.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                                <SECTION>
                                    <SECTNO>§ 22.195 </SECTNO>
                                    <SUBJECT>Ground and flight testing.</SUBJECT>
                                    <P>The aircraft must have been ground and flight tested under documented production acceptance test procedures to—</P>
                                    <P>(a) Verify aircraft performance data;</P>
                                    <P>(b) Ensure the aircraft has no hazardous operating characteristics;</P>
                                    <P>(c) Ensure the aircraft is in a condition for safe operation; and</P>
                                    <P>(d) Ensure the aircraft can safely conduct towing and any aerial work operation designated by the manufacturer.</P>
                                </SECTION>
                            </SUBPART>
                        </PART>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 36—NOISE STANDARDS: AIRCRAFT TYPE AND AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATION</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="36">
                        <AMDPAR>22. The authority citation for part 36 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P>
                                 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                                <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                                 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701-44702, 44704, 44715; sec. 305, Pub. L. 96-193, 94 Stat. 50, 57; E.O.11514, 35 FR 4247, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 902.
                            </P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="36">
                        <AMDPAR>23. Effective July 24, 2026, add § 36.0 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 36.0 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Applicability and statements of compliance for aircraft that do not conform to a type certificate.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">General applicability.</E>
                                 This part may be used by persons seeking to show compliance with noise standards for aircraft described in § 21.190, § 21.191(k), or § 21.191(l) of this chapter that do not conform to a type certificate.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Compliance requirements.</E>
                                 A person seeking to comply with this part for an aircraft described in paragraph (a) of this section must meet one of the following requirements.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (1) 
                                <E T="03">Use of a noise consensus standard.</E>
                                 An aircraft described in paragraph (a) of this section may demonstrate compliance using a noise consensus standard that meets the following conditions:
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) The noise consensus standard has been approved by the FAA; and</P>
                            <P>(ii) The noise consensus standard has been determined by the FAA to be appropriate for the aircraft.</P>
                            <P>
                                (2) 
                                <E T="03">Use of noise procedures available for type certificated aircraft.</E>
                                 An aircraft described in paragraph (a) of this section may demonstrate compliance through the procedures available for type certificated aircraft, including:
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) A demonstration that the applicable noise limits specified in this part are not exceeded for any configuration, flight profile, or reference condition required for an aircraft to demonstrate compliance; and,</P>
                            <P>(ii) When applicable, a demonstration that any test procedures and analyses contained in a related appendix to this part have been met for any configuration, flight profile, or reference condition required.</P>
                            <P>
                                (3) 
                                <E T="03">Use of alternative means of compliance.</E>
                                 An aircraft described in paragraph (a) of this section may demonstrate compliance through one of these alternative means:
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (i) 
                                <E T="03">Aircraft similar to a type-certificated aircraft.</E>
                                 An aircraft that is determined by the FAA for noise purposes to be the same as or sufficiently similar in design to a type certificated aircraft described in § 36.1 may demonstrate compliance with this part by:
                            </P>
                            <P>(A) Using the same testing requirements as the type certificated aircraft that FAA has determined for noise purposes is the same or sufficiently similar in design to the aircraft for which a person seeks to show compliance with this part; or</P>
                            <P>(B) Adopting the noise levels of the type certificated aircraft that FAA has determined for noise purposes is the same or sufficiently similar in design.</P>
                            <P>
                                (ii) 
                                <E T="03">Aircraft with no similar type-certificated aircraft.</E>
                                 A person may demonstrate compliance with this part using the noise requirements determined by the FAA to be appropriate for the aircraft.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Statement of compliance.</E>
                                 Persons seeking to show compliance with this part must meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section and must submit a statement of compliance to the agency.
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) The statement of compliance must:</P>
                            <P>(i) State that the aircraft has demonstrated compliance with the applicable provisions of this part;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Include the noise levels of the aircraft, and procedures, aircraft configurations, aircraft weights, and other information employed for obtaining the demonstrated noise levels; and</P>
                            <P>(iii) Include the following statement: “No determination has been made by the Federal Aviation Administration whether the noise levels of this aircraft are or should be acceptable or unacceptable for operation in any location.”</P>
                            <P>(2) After stating compliance with the part per paragraph (c)(1) of this section, any subsequent alteration of the aircraft that increases noise would render invalid any previous statement of compliance to this part for that aircraft.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="36">
                        <AMDPAR>24. Effective July 24, 2026, amend § 36.1 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Adding reserved paragraph (a)(6); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding paragraph (a)(7).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The addition reads as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 36.1 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Applicability and definitions.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>(7) Aircraft that do not conform to a type certificate, in accordance with § 36.0.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="36">
                        <AMDPAR>25. Effective July 24, 2026, revise § 36.3 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 36.3 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Compatibility with airworthiness requirements.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) Each applicant for certification under this part must demonstrate that:</P>
                            <P>(1) For type certificated aircraft, that the aircraft complies with the airworthiness regulations in this chapter that constitute the type certification basis of the aircraft under all conditions in which compliance with this part is shown; or</P>
                            <P>(2) For aircraft without a type certificate, that the aircraft complies with all airworthiness requirements applicable to the design of the aircraft under all conditions in which compliance with this part is shown.</P>
                            <P>(b) Each applicant for certification under this part must show that any procedure used to demonstrate compliance with this part, and any procedure and information for the flight crew developed under this part, are consistent with the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="36">
                        <AMDPAR>26. Effective July 24, 2026, amend § 36.1501 by revising paragraph (a) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 36.1501 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Procedures, noise levels and other information.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) All procedures, weights, configurations, and other information or data employed for obtaining the certified noise levels prescribed by this part, including equivalent procedures used for flight, testing, and analysis, must:</P>
                            <P>
                                (1) For type certificated aircraft, be developed by the applicant and approved by the FAA. Noise levels achieved during type certification must be included in the aircraft's approved flight manual.
                                <PRTPAGE P="35211"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) For aircraft without a type certificate, be provided by the applicant to the FAA.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 43—MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE, REBUILDING, AND ALTERATION</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="43">
                        <AMDPAR>27. The authority citation for part 43 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                            <P>42 U.S.C. 7572; 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40105, 40113, 44701-44702, 44704, 44707, 44709, 44711, 44713, 44715, 45303.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="43">
                        <AMDPAR>28. Amend § 43.1 by revising paragraph (b)(1) and (2) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 43.1 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Applicability.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) Any aircraft for which the FAA has issued an experimental airworthiness certificate, unless the FAA has previously issued a different kind of airworthiness certificate for that aircraft;</P>
                            <P>(2) Any aircraft for which the FAA has issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under the provisions of § 21.191(i)(3) or (l) of this chapter, and the aircraft was previously issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category under the provisions of § 21.190 of this chapter; or</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="43">
                        <AMDPAR>29. Amend § 43.13 by revising paragraphs (a) and (c) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 43.13 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Performance rules (general).</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) Each person performing maintenance, alteration, or preventive maintenance on an aircraft, engine, propeller, or appliance shall use the methods, techniques, and practices prescribed in the current manufacturer's maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness prepared by its manufacturer, or other methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Administrator, except as noted in § 43.16. That person shall use the tools, equipment, and test apparatus necessary to assure completion of the work in accordance with accepted industry practices. If special equipment or test apparatus is recommended by the manufacturer involved, that person must use that equipment or apparatus or its equivalent acceptable to the Administrator.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(c) Unless otherwise notified by the Administrator, the methods, techniques, and practices contained in the maintenance manual or the maintenance part of the manual of the holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate under part 121 or 135 of this chapter and operators under part 129 of this chapter holding operations specifications (that is required by its operating specifications to provide a continuous airworthiness maintenance and inspection program) constitute acceptable means of compliance with this section.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 45—IDENTIFICATION AND REGISTRATION MARKING</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="45">
                        <AMDPAR>30. The authority citation for part 45 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                            <P>49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113-40114, 44101-44105, 44107-44111, 44504, 44701, 44708-44709, 44711-44713, 44725, 45302-45303, 46104, 46304, 46306, 47122.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="45">
                        <AMDPAR>31. Amend § 45.23 by revising paragraph (b) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 45.23 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Display of marks; general.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) Except for unmanned aircraft, when marks include only the Roman capital letter “N” and the registration number is displayed on limited, restricted, experimental, or provisionally certificated aircraft, the operator must also display on that aircraft near each entrance to the cabin, cockpit, or pilot station, in letters not less than 2 inches nor more than 6 inches high, the words “limited,” “restricted,” “experimental,” or “provisional,” as applicable.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="45">
                        <AMDPAR>32. Amend § 45.29 by revising paragraph (b)(1)(iii) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 45.29 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Size of marks.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) * * *</P>
                            <P>(iii) Marks at least 3 inches high may be displayed on an aircraft for which the FAA has issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(d), (g), (i), (k), or (l) of this chapter to operate as an exhibition aircraft, an amateur-built aircraft, or a former or kit-built light-sport category aircraft when the maximum cruising speed of the aircraft does not exceed 180 knots CAS; and</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 61—CERTIFICATION: PILOTS, FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS, AND GROUND INSTRUCTORS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>33. The authority citation for part 61 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 44729, 44903, 45102-45103, 45301-45302; Sec. 2307 Pub. L. 114-190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); sec. 318, Pub. L. 115-254, 132 Stat. 3186 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); sec. 820, Pub. L. 118-63, 138 Stat. 1330 (49 U.S.C. 44939 note); secs. 815 and 828, Pub. L. 118-63, 138 Stat. 1328, 1336 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note).</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>34. Amend § 61.3 by revising the section heading and adding paragraph (m) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.3 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Requirement for certificates, ratings, privileges, and authorizations.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (m) 
                                <E T="03">For a person who possesses a sport pilot certificate.</E>
                                 No person may exercise sport pilot privileges under § 61.313 unless that person receives a qualifying logbook endorsement under § 61.317 or § 61.321 of this part for the appropriate category and class privilege. The requirement in this paragraph (m) does not apply to a person who already holds the appropriate category and class rating on their pilot certificate.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>35. Add § 61.9 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.9</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Inapplicability of simplified flight controls aircraft experience credit.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Notwithstanding the requirements specified in § 61.51(c), any pilot time acquired while operating an airplane or helicopter with a simplified flight controls designation may not be used to satisfy the following aeronautical experience requirements for a private, commercial, or airline transport pilot certificate, except for private pilot applicants who present an aircraft with the simplified flight controls designation to conduct the practical test—</P>
                            <P>(a) The solo flight time requirements in § 61.109(a)(5) or (c)(4);</P>
                            <P>(b) The PIC flight time requirements in § 61.129(a)(2)(i) and (c)(2)(i);</P>
                            <P>(c) The PIC flight time requirements in § 61.159(a)(5); and</P>
                            <P>(d) The PIC flight time requirements in § 61.161(a)(3).</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>36. Amend § 61.14 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Redesignating paragraphs (b)(13) through (b)(15) as paragraphs (b)(14) through (b)(16);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding new paragraphs (b)(13) and (b)(17).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The additions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.14 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Incorporation by Reference.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) * * *</P>
                            <P>(13) FAA-S-ACS-26, Sport Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Privilege Airman Certification Standards, July 2025, IBR approved for §§ 61.43, 61.321, and appendix A to this part.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (17) FAA-S-ACS-31, Flight Instructor with a Sport Pilot Rating for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter—
                                <PRTPAGE P="35212"/>
                                Simplified Flight Controls Privilege Airman Certification Standards, July 2025, IBR approved for §§ 61.43, 61.419, and appendix A to this part.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>37. Amend § 61.23 by redesignating paragraphs (c)(1)(vi) and (vii) as (c)(1)(vii) and (viii) and adding new paragraph (c)(1)(vi) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.23 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Medical certificates: Requirement and duration.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(c)(1)(vi) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), and (b)(6) of this section, exercising the privileges of sport pilot certificate at night under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i);</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>38. Amend § 61.31 by</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Redesignating paragraph (l) as paragraph (m);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding new paragraph (l); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. Revising newly redesignated paragraph (m)(2)(vi).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The addition and revision read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.31 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Type rating requirements, additional training, and authorization requirements.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (l) 
                                <E T="03">Additional aircraft model-specific flight training.</E>
                                 No person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation unless that person has—
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Received and logged model-specific flight training from an authorized instructor in that aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of that model-specific aircraft with the simplified flight controls designation; and</P>
                            <P>(2) Received a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who has found the person proficient in the safe operation of that model-specific aircraft and the associated simplified flight controls.</P>
                            <P>(m) * * *</P>
                            <P>(2) * * *</P>
                            <P>(vi) The holder of a sport pilot certificate when operating an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>39. Amend § 61.45 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraphs (f) introductory text and paragraph (f)(3); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding paragraphs (g) and (h).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions and additions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.45 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Practical tests: Required aircraft and equipment.</SUBJECT>
                            <P> * * *</P>
                            <P>
                                (f) 
                                <E T="03">Conduct of a sport pilot practical test in an aircraft with a single seat.</E>
                                 A practical test for a sport pilot certificate may be conducted in an aircraft having a single seat provided that the—
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(3) Pilot certificate of an applicant successfully passing the test is issued with a limitation “No passenger carriage and flight in a single-seat aircraft only.”</P>
                            <P>
                                (g) 
                                <E T="03">Aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation.</E>
                                 An applicant for a pilot certificate, rating, or privilege may use an aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation for a practical test if—
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) The examiner agrees to conduct the test;</P>
                            <P>(2) The examiner holds the appropriate category and class rating or privilege, the simplified flight controls model-specific aircraft endorsement, and an appropriate FAA designation to conduct the test;</P>
                            <P>(3) The examiner is able to assume control of the aircraft at any time, except if paragraph (f) of this section applies; and</P>
                            <P>(4) Upon successful completion of the practical test, the applicant is issued one of the following:</P>
                            <P>(i) A pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class, and specific make and model limitation in which the pilot is authorized to act as pilot in command; or</P>
                            <P>(ii) A sport pilot certificate with a logbook endorsement for the category and class of aircraft and a model specific limitation in which the pilot is authorized to act as pilot in command.</P>
                            <P>
                                (h) 
                                <E T="03">Simplified flight controls limitation.</E>
                                 A person who receives a category and class rating or privilege with a simplified flight controls limitation may operate only the specified make and model of aircraft set forth by the limitation unless the person satisfies the following requirements, as applicable:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) If seeking to operate another make and model of aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation in the same category and class, the person must receive training and an endorsement in accordance with § 61.31(l).</P>
                            <P>(2) Except as provided in § 61.321(a), if seeking to operate a different category and class of aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation as an initial applicant for that category and class rating or any aircraft without a simplified flight controls designation, the person must successfully complete a practical test for that category and class of aircraft.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>40. Amend § 61.195 by adding paragraphs (m) and (n) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.195 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Flight instructor limitations and qualifications.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (m) 
                                <E T="03">Training in an aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation.</E>
                                 A flight instructor may not conduct instruction in a simplified flight control designation aircraft unless they hold the appropriate category and class rating prior to adding the make and model endorsement required by § 61.31(l).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (n) 
                                <E T="03">Initial cadre training in an aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation.</E>
                                 (1) For purposes of this paragraph (n), instructor pilot means a pilot employed or used by a manufacturer of an aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation to conduct operations of that aircraft for the purpose of providing crew training.
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) A flight instructor may conduct flight training in an aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation without satisfying the training and endorsement requirements under § 61.31(l), provided the flight instructor—</P>
                            <P>(i) Holds a flight instructor certificate with the appropriate aircraft category and class, (if a class is required);</P>
                            <P>(ii) Has received and logged model-specific training in that aircraft from an instructor pilot for the manufacturer of the aircraft; and</P>
                            <P>(iii) Has received a logbook or training record endorsement from the instructor pilot certifying that the flight instructor is proficient in the safe operation of that model-specific aircraft and the associated simplified flight controls.</P>
                            <P>(3) Notwithstanding the requirements in § 61.3(d)(2)(ii), an instructor pilot may provide the training and endorsement specified in paragraph (n)(2) of this section in lieu of an authorized instructor. </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>41. Amend § 61.303 by revising the section heading and paragraphs (a) and (b)(4) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.303 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>If I want to operate an aircraft that satisfies the limitations identified in § 61.316, what operating limits and endorsement requirements in this subpart must I comply with?</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) Use the following table to determine what operating limits and endorsement requirements in this subpart, if any, apply to you when you operate an aircraft that satisfies the limitations identified in § 61.316. The medical certificate specified in this table must be in compliance with § 61.2 in regard to currency and validity. If you hold a recreational pilot certificate, but not a medical certificate, you must comply with cross country requirements in § 61.101(c), even if your flight does not exceed 50 nautical miles from your 
                                <PRTPAGE P="35213"/>
                                departure airport. You must also comply with requirements in other subparts of this part that apply to your certificate and the operation you conduct. In the following table, when the word “aircraft” is used, it refers to aircraft that satisfy the limitations identified in § 61.316.
                            </P>
                            <GPOTABLE COLS="04" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,r90,r90,r100">
                                <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                <BOXHD>
                                    <CHED H="1" O="L">If you hold . . .</CHED>
                                    <CHED H="1" O="L">And you hold . . .</CHED>
                                    <CHED H="1" O="L">Then you may operate . . .</CHED>
                                    <CHED H="1" O="L">And . . .</CHED>
                                </BOXHD>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">(1) A medical certificate</ENT>
                                    <ENT>(i) A sport pilot certificate,</ENT>
                                    <ENT O="xl">Any aircraft for which you hold the endorsements required for its category and class,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>You must hold any other endorsements required by this subpart, and comply with the limitations in § 61.315.</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    <ENT O="xl">(ii) At least a recreational pilot certificate with a category and class rating,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>Any aircraft in that category and class,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>You do not have to hold any of the endorsements required by this subpart, nor do you have to comply with the limitations in § 61.315.</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    <ENT O="xl">(iii) At least a recreational pilot certificate but not a rating for the category and class of the aircraft you operate,</ENT>
                                    <ENT O="xl">That aircraft, only if you hold the endorsements required for § 61.321 for its category and class,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>You must comply with the limitations in § 61.315, except § 61.315(c)(14) and, if a private pilot or higher, § 61.315(c)(7).</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">(2) Only a U.S. driver's license</ENT>
                                    <ENT>(i) A sport pilot certificate,</ENT>
                                    <ENT O="xl">Any aircraft for which you hold the endorsements required for its category and class,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>You must hold any other endorsements required by this subpart, and comply with the limitations in § 61.315.</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    <ENT O="xl">(ii) At least a recreational pilot certificate with a category and class rating,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>Any aircraft in that category and class,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>You do not have to hold any of the endorsements required by this subpart, but you must comply with the limitations in § 61.315.</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    <ENT O="xl">(iii) At least a recreational pilot certificate but not a rating for the category and class of aircraft you operate,</ENT>
                                    <ENT O="xl">That aircraft, only if you hold the endorsements required in § 61.321 for its category and class,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>You must comply with the limitations in § 61.315, except § 61.315(c)(14) and, if a private pilot or higher, § 61.315(c)(7).</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">(3) Neither a medical certificate nor a U.S. driver's license</ENT>
                                    <ENT>(i) A sport pilot certificate,</ENT>
                                    <ENT O="xl">Any glider or balloon for which you hold the endorsements required for its category and class,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>You must hold any other endorsements required by this subpart, and comply with the limitations in § 61.315.</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    <ENT O="xl">(ii) At least a private pilot certificate with a category and class rating for glider or balloon,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>Any glider or balloon in that category and class</ENT>
                                    <ENT>You do not have to hold any of the endorsements required by this subpart, nor do you have to comply with the limitations in § 61.315.</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    <ENT O="xl">(iii) At least a private pilot certificate but not a rating for glider or balloon,</ENT>
                                    <ENT O="xl">Any glider or balloon, only if you hold the endorsements required in § 61.321 for its category and class.</ENT>
                                    <ENT>You must comply with the limitations in § 61.315, except § 61.315(c)(14) and, if a private pilot or higher, § 61.315(c)(7).</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                            </GPOTABLE>
                            <P>(b) * * *</P>
                            <P>(4) Not know or have reason to know of any medical condition that would make that person unable to operate an aircraft in a safe manner.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>42. Revise § 61.305 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.305 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>What are the age and language requirements for a sport pilot certificate?</SUBJECT>
                            <P>To be eligible for a sport pilot certificate you must:</P>
                            <P>(a) Be at least 17 years old (or 16 years old if you are applying to operate a glider or balloon).</P>
                            <P>(b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand English. If you cannot read, speak, write, and understand English because of medical reasons, the FAA may place limits on your certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of an aircraft.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>43. Amend § 61.307 by revising paragraph (b) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.307 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>What tests do I have to take to obtain a sport pilot certificate?</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Practical test.</E>
                                 You must pass a practical test on the applicable areas of operation listed in §§ 61.309 and 61.311. Before you may take the practical test for a sport pilot certificate, you must receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who provided you with flight training on the areas of operation specified in §§ 61.309 and 61.311 in preparation for the practical test. This endorsement certifies that you meet the applicable aeronautical knowledge and flight proficiency requirements and are prepared for the practical test.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>44. Revise § 61.311 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.311 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>What flight proficiency requirements must I meet to apply for a sport pilot certificate?</SUBJECT>
                            <P>To apply for a sport pilot certificate, you must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the following areas of operation, as appropriate, for airplane single-engine land or sea, glider, gyroplane, helicopter, airship, balloon, powered parachute land or sea, weight-shift-control aircraft land or sea privileges:</P>
                            <P>(a) Preflight preparation.</P>
                            <P>(b) Preflight procedures.</P>
                            <P>(c) Airport, heliport, seaplane base, and gliderport operations, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(d) Hovering maneuvers (applicable only to helicopters).</P>
                            <P>(e) Takeoffs (or launches), landings, and go-arounds.</P>
                            <P>(f) Performance maneuvers and, for gliders, performance speeds.</P>
                            <P>(g) Ground reference maneuvers (not applicable to gliders, helicopters, and balloons).</P>
                            <P>(h) Soaring techniques (applicable only to gliders).</P>
                            <P>(i) Navigation.</P>
                            <P>(j) Slow flight (not applicable to lighter-than-air aircraft, helicopters, and powered parachutes).</P>
                            <P>(k) Stalls (not applicable to lighter-than-air aircraft, gyroplanes, helicopters, and powered parachutes).</P>
                            <P>(l) Emergency operations.</P>
                            <P>(m) Post-flight procedures.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>45. Revise § 61.313 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.313 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a sport pilot certificate?</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Aeronautical experience.</E>
                                 Use the following table to determine the aeronautical experience you must have to apply for a sport pilot certificate:
                                <PRTPAGE P="35214"/>
                            </P>
                            <GPOTABLE COLS="03" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="xl100,xl150,r200">
                                <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                <BOXHD>
                                    <CHED H="1" O="L">If you are applying for a sport pilot certificate with . . . </CHED>
                                    <CHED H="1" O="L">Then you must log at least . . . </CHED>
                                    <CHED H="1" O="L">Which must include at least . . . </CHED>
                                </BOXHD>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">(1) Airplane category and single-engine land or sea class privileges,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>20 hours of flight time, including at least 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a single-engine airplane and at least 5 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training;
                                        <LI>(ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport;</LI>
                                        <LI>(iii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 75 nautical miles total distance, with a full-stop landing at a minimum of two points and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and</LI>
                                        <LI>(iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.</LI>
                                    </ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">(2) Glider category privileges, and you have not logged at least 20 hours of flight time in a heavier-than-air aircraft,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>10 hours of flight time in a glider, including 10 flights in a glider receiving flight training from an authorized instructor and at least 2 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        (i) Five solo launches and landings; and
                                        <LI>(ii) at least 3 training flights with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.</LI>
                                    </ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">(3) Glider category privileges, and you have logged at least 20 hours of flight time in a heavier-than-air aircraft,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>3 hours of flight time in a glider, including five flights in a glider while receiving flight training from an authorized instructor and at least 1 hour of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        (i) Three solo launches and landings; and
                                        <LI>(ii) at least 3 training flights with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.</LI>
                                    </ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">(4) Rotorcraft category and gyroplane class privileges,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>20 hours of flight time, including 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a gyroplane and at least 5 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training;
                                        <LI>(ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport;</LI>
                                        <LI>(iii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 50 nautical miles total distance, with a full-stop landing at a minimum of two points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and</LI>
                                        <LI>(iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.</LI>
                                    </ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">(5) Lighter-than-air category and airship class privileges,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>20 hours of flight time, including 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in an airship and at least 3 hours performing the duties of pilot in command in an airship with an authorized instructor in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training;
                                        <LI>(ii) Three takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport;</LI>
                                        <LI>(iii) One cross-country flight of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and</LI>
                                        <LI>(iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.</LI>
                                    </ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">(6) Lighter-than-air category and balloon class privileges,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>7 hours of flight time in a balloon, including three flights with an authorized instructor and one flight performing the duties of pilot in command in a balloon with an authorized instructor in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training; and
                                        <LI>(ii) 1 hour of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.</LI>
                                    </ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">(7) Powered parachute category land or sea class privileges,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>12 hours of flight time in a powered parachute, including 10 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a powered parachute, and at least 2 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        (i) 1 hour of cross-country flight training;
                                        <LI>(ii) 20 takeoffs and landings to a full stop in a powered parachute with each landing involving flight in the traffic pattern at an airport;</LI>
                                        <LI>(iii) 10 solo takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport;</LI>
                                        <LI>(iv) One solo flight with a landing at a different airport and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 10 nautical miles between takeoff and landing locations; and</LI>
                                        <LI>(v) 1 hour of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.</LI>
                                    </ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">(8) Weight-shift-control aircraft category land or sea class privileges,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>20 hours of flight time, including 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a weight-shift-control aircraft and at least 5 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training;
                                        <LI>(ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport;</LI>
                                        <LI>(iii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 50 nautical miles total distance, with a full-stop landing at a minimum of two points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between takeoff and landing locations; and</LI>
                                        <LI>(iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.</LI>
                                    </ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">(9) Rotorcraft category and helicopter class, only if that helicopter is certificated under § 21.190 and obtains the simplified flight controls designation,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>30 hours of helicopter flight time, including at least 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a helicopter, and at least 5 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311, as appropriate,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training;
                                        <LI>(ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport;</LI>
                                        <LI>(iii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 50 nautical miles total distance, with a full-stop landing at a minimum of two points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and</LI>
                                        <LI>(iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.</LI>
                                    </ENT>
                                </ROW>
                            </GPOTABLE>
                            <PRTPAGE P="35215"/>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Flight simulation training device and aviation training device credit.</E>
                                 (1) Sport pilot applicants can use up to 2.5 hours of training credit in a qualified flight simulation training device and aviation training device representing the appropriate category and class of aircraft to meet the experience requirements of this part.
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) The training must be provided by an authorized instructor who possesses the appropriate aircraft rating or privilege sought by the applicant.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>46. Amend § 61.315 by revising paragraphs (a), (c) introductory text, and (c)(5), and adding paragraph (c)(20) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.315 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>What are the privileges and limits of my sport pilot certificate?</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) If you hold a sport pilot certificate you may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that meets the provisions of § 61.316, except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(c) You may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft:</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(5) At night, except as provided in § 61.329.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(20) If the aircraft—</P>
                            <P>(i) Has retractable landing gear, unless you have met the requirements of § 61.331(a); or</P>
                            <P>(ii) Is an airplane with a manual controllable pitch propeller, unless you have met the requirements of § 61.331(b).</P>
                            <P>(21) That requires a pilot to hold a type rating in accordance with § 61.31(a). </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>47. Add § 61.316 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.316 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>What are the performance limits and design requirements for the aircraft that a sport pilot may operate?</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) If you hold a sport pilot certificate, you may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that, since its original certification, meets the following requirements:</P>
                            <P>
                                (1) A maximum stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed without the use of lift-enhancing devices (V
                                <E T="52">S1</E>
                                ) of not more than 45 knots CAS, except for airplanes, which must have a V
                                <E T="52">S1</E>
                                 speed of not more than 59 knots CAS at the aircraft's maximum certificated takeoff weight and most critical center of gravity.
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) A maximum seating capacity of two persons, except for airplanes, which may have a maximum seating capacity of four persons.</P>
                            <P>(3) A non-pressurized cabin, if equipped with a cabin.</P>
                            <P>(4) For gyroplanes, a fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering, two-blade rotor system.</P>
                            <P>(5) For powered aircraft other than balloons or airships, the loss of partial power would not adversely affect directional control of the aircraft and the aircraft design must allow the pilot the capability of establishing a controlled descent in the event of a partial or total powerplant failure.</P>
                            <P>(6) For helicopters, they must be certificated with the simplified flight controls designation.</P>
                            <P>(7) For gliders, fixed or retractable landing gear.</P>
                            <P>(8) For powered-aircraft other than a glider, fixed landing gear except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(9) For powered-aircraft other than a glider, a fixed, ground-adjustable, or an automated controllable pitch propeller except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(b) If you hold a sport pilot certificate, you may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that has retractable landing gear or an airplane with a manual controllable pitch propeller if you have met the training and endorsement requirements specified in § 61.331. </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>48. Revise § 61.321 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.321 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>How do I obtain privileges to operate an additional category or class of aircraft?</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) If you hold a sport pilot or higher grade certificate and seek to operate an additional category or class of aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316 under this subpart, other than an airplane single-engine land or sea or a rotorcraft-helicopter, you must—</P>
                            <P>(1) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who trained you on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas specified in § 61.309 and areas of operation specified in § 61.311. The endorsement certifies you have met the aeronautical knowledge and flight proficiency requirements for the additional aircraft privilege you seek;</P>
                            <P>(2) Successfully complete a proficiency check from an authorized instructor, other than the instructor who trained you, consisting of the tasks in the appropriate areas of operation contained in the applicable Practical Test Standards or Airman Certification Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 61.14) as listed in appendix A of this part for the additional sport pilot privilege you seek;</P>
                            <P>(3) Complete an application for those privileges on a form and in a manner acceptable to the FAA and present this application to the authorized instructor who conducted the proficiency check specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section; and</P>
                            <P>(4) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who conducted the proficiency check specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section certifying you are proficient in the applicable areas of operation and aeronautical knowledge areas, and that you are authorized for the additional category and class aircraft privilege.</P>
                            <P>(b) If you hold a sport pilot or higher grade certificate and seek to operate an airplane single-engine land or sea or a rotorcraft-helicopter meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316, you must successfully accomplish a practical test for that category and class privilege as specified in § 61.307(b).</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>49. Add §§ 61.329 and 61.331 to subpart J to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.329 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>How do I obtain privileges to operate an aircraft at night?</SUBJECT>
                            <P>You may act as pilot in command with a sport pilot certificate during night operations if you:</P>
                            <P>(a) Receive 3 hours of night flight training in the specific category and class from an authorized instructor that includes—</P>
                            <P>(1) Conduct at least one cross-country flight during the flight training under paragraph (a) of this section at night, with a landing at an airport of at least 25 nautical miles from the departure airport, except for powered parachutes; and</P>
                            <P>(2) Accomplish at least 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop at night;</P>
                            <P>(b) Either hold a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter or meet the conditions of § 61.113(i) and the operation is conducted consistent with this section. Where the requirements of § 61.316 conflict with § 61.113(i), a sport pilot must comply with § 61.316; and</P>
                            <P>(c) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that you meet the training requirements in paragraph (a) of this section and are proficient in the operation of the aircraft at night in the category and class which the sport pilot seeks privileges.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.331 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>How do I obtain privileges to operate an aircraft with retractable landing gear or an airplane with a manual controllable pitch propeller?</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) If you hold a sport pilot certificate and seek privileges to operate an aircraft with retractable landing gear, you must either—</P>
                            <P>
                                (1) Satisfy the training and endorsement requirements specified in § 61.31(e), or
                                <PRTPAGE P="35216"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft that has retractable landing gear and receive an endorsement from the instructor certifying that you are proficient to operate the aircraft.</P>
                            <P>(b) If you hold a sport pilot certificate and seek privileges to operate an airplane with a manual controllable pitch propeller, you must either—</P>
                            <P>(1) Satisfy the training and endorsement requirements specified in § 61.31(e), or</P>
                            <P>(2) Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in an airplane that has a manual controllable pitch propeller and receive an endorsement from the instructor certifying that you are proficient to operate the airplane.</P>
                            <P>(c) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (a) of this section is not required for pilots seeking to operate aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear if the person logged pilot-in-command time in such an aircraft before October 22, 2025.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>50. Revise § 61.409 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.409 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>What flight proficiency requirements must I meet to apply for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?</SUBJECT>
                            <P>You must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the following areas of operation for the aircraft category and class in which you seek flight instructor privileges:</P>
                            <P>(a) Technical subject areas.</P>
                            <P>(b) Preflight preparation.</P>
                            <P>(c) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight.</P>
                            <P>(d) Preflight procedures.</P>
                            <P>(e) Airport, heliport, seaplane base, and gliderport operations, as applicable.</P>
                            <P>(f) Hovering maneuvers (applicable only to helicopters).</P>
                            <P>(g) Takeoffs (or launches), landings, and go-arounds.</P>
                            <P>(h) Fundamentals of flight.</P>
                            <P>(i) Performance maneuvers and, for gliders, performance speeds.</P>
                            <P>(j) Ground reference maneuvers (except for gliders, helicopters, and lighter-than-air).</P>
                            <P>(k) Soaring techniques (gliders only).</P>
                            <P>(l) Slow flight (not applicable to lighter-than-air, helicopters, and powered parachutes).</P>
                            <P>(m) Stalls (not applicable to lighter-than-air, powered parachutes, helicopters, and gyroplanes).</P>
                            <P>(n) Spins (applicable to airplanes and gliders).</P>
                            <P>(o) Emergency operations.</P>
                            <P>(p) Tumble entry and avoidance techniques (applicable to weight-shift-control aircraft).</P>
                            <P>(q) Special operations (helicopter only).</P>
                            <P>(r) Post-flight procedures.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>51. Amend § 61.411 by adding paragraph (h) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.411 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L1,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="xl100,r75,r100">
                                <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                <BOXHD>
                                    <CHED H="1" O="L">If you are applying for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating for . . . </CHED>
                                    <CHED H="1" O="L">Then you must log at least . . . </CHED>
                                    <CHED H="1" O="L">Which must include at least . . . </CHED>
                                </BOXHD>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">(h) Rotorcraft category and helicopter class, only if that helicopter is certificated under § 21.190 and obtains the simplified flight controls designation,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>(1) 150 hours of flight time as a pilot,</ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        (i) 100 hours of flight time as pilot in command in powered aircraft;
                                        <LI>(ii) 50 hours of flight time in a helicopter;</LI>
                                        <LI>(iii) 25 hours of cross-country flight time;</LI>
                                        <LI>(iv) 10 hours of cross-country flight time in a helicopter; and</LI>
                                        <LI>(v) 15 hours of flight time as pilot in command in a helicopter.</LI>
                                    </ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    <ENT>(2) [Reserved]</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                            </GPOTABLE>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>52. Amend § 61.413 by adding paragraph (d) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.413 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>What are the privileges of my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(d) Notwithstanding § 61.315(c)(2) and (3), a person who holds a flight instructor certificate issued under this subpart K of this part may receive compensation for providing flight training in accordance with this subpart.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>53. Amend § 61.415 by adding paragraphs (k) through (n) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.415 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>What are the limits of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?</SUBJECT>
                            <P>If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, you may only provide flight training in an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316 and are subject to the following limits:</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(k) You cannot carry more than one person.</P>
                            <P>(l) You may not provide training in an airplane with a manual controllable pitch propeller or an aircraft with a retractable landing gear unless you have received training and an instructor endorsement validating proficiency in the safe operation of these types of aircraft.</P>
                            <P>(m) You may not provide training in an aircraft that has the simplified flight controls designation unless you have received the model-specific flight training and an endorsement from an authorized instructor validating proficiency in the safe operation of these aircraft.</P>
                            <P>(n) You may not provide training in an aircraft at night unless you have completed the night experience and instructor endorsement requirements listed in § 61.329 for the category and class you seek to provide training in. </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>54. Amend § 61.419 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revising the section heading, introductory text, and paragraph (b); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding paragraph (e).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions and addition read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.419 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>How do I obtain privileges to provide training in an additional category or class of aircraft?</SUBJECT>
                            <P>If you hold a flight instructor certificate issued under subpart H of this part or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating and seek privileges to provide training under subpart K in an additional category or class of aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316, you must—</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (b) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, successfully complete a proficiency check from an authorized 
                                <PRTPAGE P="35217"/>
                                instructor, other than the instructor who trained you, consisting of the tasks in the appropriate areas of operation contained in the applicable Practical Test Standards or Airman Certification Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 61.14) as listed in appendix A of this part for the additional category and class flight instructor privilege you seek;
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(e) If you are seeking to add an airplane single-engine land or sea or a rotorcraft-helicopter with simplified flight controls designation privilege to your flight instructor certificate, successfully accomplish a practical test for that category and class privilege as specified in § 61.405. </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>55. Amend § 61.429 by revising paragraph (c) and adding paragraph (d) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 61.429 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>May I exercise the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating if I hold a flight instructor certificate with another rating?</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(c) If you want to exercise the privileges of your flight instructor certificate in a category or class of aircraft for which you are not currently rated, you must meet all applicable requirements to provide training in an additional category or class of aircraft specified in § 61.419.</P>
                            <P>(d) If you want to exercise the privileges of your flight instructor certificate in a model-specific aircraft that has a simplified flight controls designation, you must meet the training and endorsement requirements specified in § 61.31(l) prior to providing any flight training in that aircraft.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>56. Revise appendix A to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix A to Part 61—Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards</HD>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s200,r200">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1" O="L">If you are seeking this certificate, rating, and/or privilege . . .</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1" O="L">Then this ACS/PTS (incorporated by reference, see § 61.14) is applicable:</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Airline Transport Pilot Certificate; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Single-Engine Sea Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Sea Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-11A, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Airline Transport Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-20A, Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Type Rating Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Airline Transport Pilot Certificate; Powered-Lift Category</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-17, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Commercial Pilot Certificate; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Single-Engine Sea Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Sea Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-7B, Commercial Pilot for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Commercial Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-16, Commercial Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Commercial Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-16C, Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane Rating, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Commercial Pilot Certificate; Powered-Lift Category</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-2, Commercial Pilot for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Commercial Pilot Certificate; Glider Category</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-23B, Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards for Glider Category, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Commercial Pilot Certificate; Lighter-Than-Air Category—Airship Rating, Lighter-Than-Air Category—Balloon Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-18A, Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Private Pilot Certificate; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Single-Engine Sea Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Sea Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-6C, Private Pilot for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Private Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-15, Private Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Private Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-15B, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane Rating, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Private Pilot Certificate; Powered-Lift Category</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-13, Private Pilot for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Private Pilot Certificate; Glider Category</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-22A, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Glider Category, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Private Pilot Certificate; Lighter-Than-Air Category—Airship Rating, Lighter-Than-Air Category—Balloon Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-17A, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Private Pilot Certificate; Powered Parachute Category—Land Rating, Powered Parachute Category—Sea Rating, Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category—Land Rating, Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category—Sea Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-32A, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Powered Parachute Category and Weight-Shift-Control Category, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Recreational Pilot Certificate; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Single-Engine Sea Rating, Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Rating, Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-3B, Recreational Pilot Practical Test Standards for Airplane Category and Rotorcraft Category, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Sport Pilot Certificate; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Land Privileges, Airplane Category—Single-Engine Sea Privileges, Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Privileges, Glider Category</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-29A, Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Rating Practical Test Standards for Airplane Category, Rotorcraft Category, and Glider Category, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Flight Instructor Certificate with a Sport Pilot Rating; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Privileges, Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Privileges, Glider Category</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Sport Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Privilege—Simplified Flight Controls</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-26, Sport Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Privilege Airman Certification Standards, July 2025.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Flight Instructor Certificate with a Sport Pilot Rating; Rotorcraft Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-31, Flight Instructor with a Sport Pilot Rating for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Privilege Airman Certification Standards, July 2025.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Sport Pilot Certificate; Lighter-Than-Air Category—Airship Privileges, Lighter-Than-Air Category—Balloon Privileges</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-30A, Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Rating Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Flight Instructor Certificate with a Sport Pilot Rating; Lighter-Than-Air Category—Airship Privileges, Lighter-Than-Air Category—Balloon Privileges</ENT>
                                <ENT/>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Sport Pilot Certificate; Powered Parachute Category—Land Privileges, Powered Parachute Category—Sea Privileges, Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category—Land Privileges, Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category—Sea Privileges</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-31A, Sport Pilot and Sport Pilot Flight Instructor Rating Practical Test Standards for Powered Parachute Category and Weight-Shift-Control Category, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Flight Instructor Certificate with a Sport Pilot Rating; Powered Parachute Category Privileges, Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category Privileges.</ENT>
                                <ENT/>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Instrument Rating—Airplane Instrument Proficiency Check—Airplane</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-8C, Instrument Rating—Airplane Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Instrument Rating—Helicopter Instrument Proficiency Check—Helicopter</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-14, Instrument Rating—Helicopter Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <PRTPAGE P="35218"/>
                                <ENT I="01">Instrument Rating—Powered-Lift Instrument Proficiency Check—Powered-Lift</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-3, Instrument Rating—Powered-Lift Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Flight Instructor Certificate; Airplane Category—Single Engine Rating Airplane Category—Multiengine Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-25, Flight Instructor for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Flight Instructor Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-29, Flight Instructor for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Flight Instructor Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-7C, Flight Instructor Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane Rating, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Flight Instructor Certificate; Powered-lift Category</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-27, Flight Instructor for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Flight Instructor Certificate; Glider Category</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-8C, Flight Instructor Practical Test Standards for Glider Category, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Flight Instructor Certificate; Instrument—Airplane Rating, Instrument—Helicopter Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-9E, Flight Instructor Instrument Practical Test Standards for Airplane Rating and Helicopter Rating, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Flight Instructor Certificate; Instrument—Powered-Lift Rating</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-28, Flight Instructor—Instrument Rating Powered-Lift Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Aircraft Type Rating—Airplane</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-11A, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Aircraft Type Rating—Helicopter</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-20A, Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Type Rating Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Aircraft Type Rating—Powered-Lift</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-17, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Pilot-in-Command Proficiency Check—Airplane</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-11A, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards; November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Pilot-in-Command Proficiency Check—Helicopter</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-8081-20A, Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Type Rating Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Pilot-in-Command Proficiency Check—Powered-Lift</ENT>
                                <ENT>FAA-S-ACS-17, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </REGTEXT>
                      
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="61">
                        <AMDPAR>57. In addition to the preceding, amend part 61 by using the following table and, for each section in the left column, removing the text in the middle column wherever it appears, and adding in its place, the text in the right column:</AMDPAR>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="xl100,xs92,r50">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">14 CFR</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Remove</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Replace</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">
                                    a. § 61.1(b) 
                                    <E T="03">Student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate (ii);</E>
                                     b. § 61.89(c)(5); c. § 61.113(h) introductory text; d. § 61.327 section heading; e. § 61.412 section heading; f. § 61.415(e); g. § 61.415(f); h. § 61.415(g); i. § 61.423(a)(2)(iii)(C); and j. § 61.423(a)(2)(iii)(D); and
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>“a light sport aircraft”</ENT>
                                <ENT>“an aircraft”.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">a. § 61.23(c)(1)(i) through (iv); b. § 61.23(c)(2)(iv); c. § 61.89(c)(1); d. § 61.325 introductory text; e. § 61.327(a) introductory text and (b) introductory text; and f. § 61.411(a)(1)(v), (b)(1), (c)(1)(v), (d)(1)(v), (e)(1)(iii), (f)(1)(v) and (g)(1)(v); and</ENT>
                                <ENT>“a light-sport aircraft”</ENT>
                                <ENT>“an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316”.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">a. § 61.317; b. § 61.325 section heading; c. § 61.327(a)(2) and (b)(2); d. § 61.403(b); e. 61.417; and f. § 61.423(a)(2)(iii)(A), (a)(2)(iv), and (b).</ENT>
                                <ENT>“light-sport”</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 65—CERTIFICATION: AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="65">
                        <AMDPAR>58. The authority citation for part 65 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45302.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="65">
                        <AMDPAR>59. Amend § 65.15 by revising paragraphs (a), (b), and (d) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 65.15 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Duration of certificates.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) Except for repairman certificates issued in accordance with § 65.101, a certificate or rating issued under this part is effective until it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.</P>
                            <P>(b) Unless it is sooner surrendered, suspended, or revoked, a repairman certificate issued in accordance with § 65.101 is effective until the holder is relieved from the duties for which the holder was employed and certificated.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(d) Except for temporary certificates issued under § 65.13, the holder of a paper certificate issued under this part may not exercise the privileges of that certificate.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="65">
                        <AMDPAR>60. Amend § 65.23 by revising the introductory text and paragraph (a)(3) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 65.23 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Incorporation by reference.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. This material is available for inspection at the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact FAA, Training and Certification Group, 202-267-1100, 
                                <E T="03">ACSPTSinquiries@faa.gov.</E>
                                 For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email 
                                <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov,</E>
                                 or go to 
                                <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.</E>
                                 The material may be obtained from the source in the following paragraph of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>(3) FAA-S-ACS-1, Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant Airman Certification Standards, November 1, 2021; IBR approved for §§ 65.75, 65.79, and 65.107.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="65">
                        <AMDPAR>61. Revise § 65.81 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 65.81 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>General privileges and limitations.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) A certificated mechanic may perform or supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance or alteration of an aircraft or appliance, or a part thereof, for which that person is rated (but excluding major repairs to, and major alterations of, propellers, and any repair to, or alteration of, instruments), 
                                <PRTPAGE P="35219"/>
                                and may perform additional duties in accordance with §§ 65.85, 65.87, and 65.95. However, a certificated mechanic may not supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of, or approve for return to service, any aircraft or appliance, or part thereof, for which that person is rated unless that person has satisfactorily performed the work concerned at an earlier date. If that person has not so performed that work at an earlier date, that person may show the ability to do it by performing it to the satisfaction of the Administrator or under the direct supervision of a certificated and appropriately rated mechanic, or a certificated repairman, who has had previous experience in the specific operation concerned.
                            </P>
                            <P>(b) A certificated mechanic may not exercise the privileges of that person's certificate and rating unless that person understands the current instructions of the manufacturer, and the maintenance manuals, for the specific operation concerned.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="65">
                        <AMDPAR>62. Revise § 65.85 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 65.85 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Airframe rating; additional privileges.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a certificated mechanic with an airframe rating may approve for return to service an airframe, or any related part or appliance, after that person has performed, supervised, or inspected its maintenance or alteration (excluding major repairs and major alterations). In addition, a certificated mechanic with an airframe rating may perform the 100-hour inspection required by part 91 of this chapter on an airframe, or any related part or appliance, and approve for return to service.</P>
                            <P>(b) A certificated mechanic with an airframe rating can approve for return to service an airframe, or any related part or appliance, of an aircraft with a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category after performing and inspecting a major repair or major alteration for products that are not produced under an FAA approval provided the major repair or major alteration was authorized by, and performed in accordance with instructions developed by, the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="65">
                        <AMDPAR>63. Revise § 65.87 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 65.87 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Powerplant rating; additional privileges.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating may approve for return to service a powerplant or propeller or any related part or appliance, after that person has performed, supervised, or inspected its maintenance or alteration (excluding major repairs and major alterations). In addition, a certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating may perform the 100-hour inspection required by part 91 of this chapter on a powerplant or propeller, or any part thereof, and approve for return to service.</P>
                            <P>(b) A certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating can approve for return to service a powerplant or propeller, or any related part or appliance, of an aircraft with a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category after performing and inspecting a major repair or major alteration for products that are not produced under an FAA approval, provided the major repair or major alteration was authorized by, and performed in accordance with instructions developed by, the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="65">
                        <AMDPAR>64. Amend § 65.103 by revising paragraph (c) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 65.103 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Repairman certificate: Privileges and limitations.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(c) This section does not apply to the holder of a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) issued in accordance with § 65.104 or to the holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport) issued in accordance with § 65.107, while that repairman is performing work under that certificate.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="65">
                        <AMDPAR>65. Revise § 65.107 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 65.107 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Repairman certificate (light-sport): Eligibility and training courses.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Ratings.</E>
                                 The following ratings may be issued on a repairman certificate (light-sport) under this section:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Inspection rating.</P>
                            <P>(2) Maintenance rating.</P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Eligibility requirements: General.</E>
                                 To be eligible for a repairman certificate (light-sport), a person must:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Be at least 18 years old;</P>
                            <P>(2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand English;</P>
                            <P>(3) Complete a training course pursuant to paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, as applicable to the rating sought;</P>
                            <P>(4) Pass a written test administered by the training course provider that covers the contents of the course pursuant to paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, as applicable to the rating sought; and</P>
                            <P>(5) Present documentary evidence of completion of the FAA-accepted training course required by paragraph (b)(3) of this section and passage of the written test required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section, to the Administrator.</P>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Inspection rating training course.</E>
                                 To obtain an inspection rating on a repairman certificate (light-sport), a person must complete a 16-hour training course accepted by the Administrator on inspecting the category, and class as applicable, of experimental aircraft for which the person intends to exercise the privileges of the rating.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (d) 
                                <E T="03">Maintenance rating training course.</E>
                                 To obtain a maintenance rating on a repairman certificate (light-sport), a person must complete a training course accepted by the Administrator that includes content on, at a minimum, the knowledge, risk management, and skill elements for each subject contained in the Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant Airman Certification Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 65.23), that are appropriate to the category, and class as applicable, of aircraft for which the person intends to exercise the privileges of the rating.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (e) 
                                <E T="03">Training course providers.</E>
                                 Training course providers must:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Deliver the training course described in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section using facilities, equipment, and materials appropriate to the training course content taught;</P>
                            <P>(2) Use instructors that are appropriately qualified to teach the course content; and</P>
                            <P>(3) After a student completes the training course as required by paragraph (b)(3) of this section and passes the written test as required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section, provide a certificate of completion to the student indicating the:</P>
                            <P>(i) Name of the training provider;</P>
                            <P>(ii) FAA course acceptance number;</P>
                            <P>(iii) Rating applicable to the training course;</P>
                            <P>(iv) Aircraft category, and class as applicable, the training was based on; and</P>
                            <P>(v) Date of training completion.</P>
                            <P>
                                (f) 
                                <E T="03">Certificate issuance and equivalency.</E>
                                 (1) A repairman certificate (light-sport) will be issued with category privileges, and may be issued with class limitations within the category sought pursuant to the completed training required by paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) A repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) that was issued before and was valid on October 22, 2025 is equivalent to a repairman certificate (light-sport) with the same ratings.</P>
                            <P>
                                (3) Aircraft class privileges issued on a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) before and valid on October 22, 2025 are equivalent to aircraft category 
                                <PRTPAGE P="35220"/>
                                privileges, except as provided in paragraph (f)(4) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>(4) A repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with an inspection rating and gyroplane class privileges issued before and valid on October 22, 2025 is equivalent to a repairman (light-sport) certificate with an inspection rating and rotorcraft category privileges limited to the gyroplane class.</P>
                            <P>
                                (g) 
                                <E T="03">Delayed compliance.</E>
                                 Inspection and maintenance rating training courses designed for glider class privileges and accepted prior to October 22, 2025 may not be offered by a training course provider after July 24, 2026.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="65">
                        <AMDPAR>66. Add § 65.109 to subpart E to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 65.109 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Repairman certificate (light-sport): Privileges and limitations.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport) with an inspection rating may perform the annual condition inspection on an aircraft:</P>
                            <P>(1) That is owned by the holder;</P>
                            <P>(2) That has an experimental airworthiness certificate issued in accordance with § 21.191(g), (i), (k), or (l) of this chapter; and</P>
                            <P>(3) That is in the same category, and class as applicable, of aircraft for which the holder has completed the training course specified in § 65.107(c).</P>
                            <P>(b) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport) with a maintenance rating may—</P>
                            <P>(1) Approve for return to service an aircraft that has a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category under § 21.190 of this chapter, or any part thereof, after performing or inspecting maintenance (to include the annual condition inspection and the 100-hour inspection required by § 91.327 of this chapter), preventive maintenance, or an alteration (excluding a major repair or a major alteration on a product produced under an FAA approval);</P>
                            <P>(2) Perform the annual condition inspection on an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate issued in accordance with § 21.191(g), (i), (k), or (l) of this chapter; and</P>
                            <P>(3) Only perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and an alteration on an aircraft that is in the same category, and class as applicable, of aircraft for which the holder has completed the training specified in § 65.107(d). Before performing a major repair, the holder must complete additional training acceptable to the FAA and appropriate to the repair performed.</P>
                            <P>(c) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport) with a maintenance rating may not approve for return to service any aircraft or part thereof unless that person has previously performed the work concerned satisfactorily. If that person has not previously performed that work, the person may show the ability to do the work by performing it to the satisfaction of the FAA, or by performing it under the direct supervision of a certificated and appropriately rated mechanic, or a certificated repairman, who has had previous experience in the specific operation concerned. The repairman may not exercise the privileges of the certificate unless the repairman understands the current instructions of the manufacturer and the maintenance manuals for the specific operation concerned.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 91—GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="91">
                        <AMDPAR>67. The authority citation for part 91 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                            <P>49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40101, 40103, 40105, 40113, 40120, 44101, 44111, 44701, 44704, 44709, 44711, 44712, 44715,44716, 44717, 44722, 44740, 46306, 46315, 46316, 46504, 46506-46507, 47122, 47508,47528-47531, 47534; Pub. L. 112-95, 126 Stat. 11; Pub. L. 114-190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); sec. 828, Pub. L. 118-63, 138 Stat. 1330 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); articles 12 and 29 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation, 61 Stat. 1180.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="91">
                        <AMDPAR>68. Amend § 91.113 by revising paragraphs (d)(2) through (4) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.113 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Right-of-way rules: Except water operations.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(d) * * *</P>
                            <P>(2) A glider has the right-of-way over powered aircraft.</P>
                            <P>(3) An airship has the right-of-way over all other powered aircraft, except for an aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft.</P>
                            <P>(4) An aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right-of-way over all other powered aircraft.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="91">
                        <AMDPAR>69. Amend § 91.126 by revising paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.126 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G airspace.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) Each pilot of a powered fixed-wing aircraft must make all turns to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot must make all turns to the right; and</P>
                            <P>(2) Each pilot of any other powered aircraft must avoid the flow of the aircraft specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="91">
                        <AMDPAR>70. Amend § 91.309 by revising paragraph (a)(2) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.309 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Towing: Gliders and unpowered ultralight vehicles.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>(2) The towing aircraft has:</P>
                            <P>(i) A standard airworthiness certificate and is equipped with a tow-hitch of a kind, and installed in a manner, that is approved by the Administrator;</P>
                            <P>(ii) A special airworthiness certificate for which a type certificate has been issued, and is equipped with a tow-hitch of a kind, and installed in a manner, that is approved or otherwise authorized by the Administrator; or</P>
                            <P>(iii) A special airworthiness certificate, for which the aircraft has not been previously issued a type certificate, and is equipped with a tow-hitch of a kind that is approved or otherwise acceptable to, and is installed in a manner acceptable to, the Administrator;</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="91">
                        <AMDPAR>71. Effective July 24, 2026, amend § 91.313 by revising paragraphs (b)(3) and (e) introductory text to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.313 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Restricted category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) * * *</P>
                            <P>(3) Flights conducted to relocate the aircraft for delivery, repositioning, maintenance, or exhibition.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(e) Except when operating in accordance with the terms and conditions of a certificate of waiver or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator in operating limitations, no person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft within the United States—</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="91">
                        <AMDPAR>72. Effective July 24, 2026, amend § 91.319 by revising paragraphs (a) introductory text, (b) introductory text, (c), (d) introductory text, (e), (f) introductory text, and (j), and adding paragraph (k) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.319 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Aircraft having experimental airworthiness certificates: Operating limitations.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section and § 91.326, no 
                                <PRTPAGE P="35221"/>
                                person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate—
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate outside of an area assigned by the Administrator until it is shown that—</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(c) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator in operating limitations, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate issued under § 21.191 of this chapter over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.</P>
                            <P>(d) Each person operating an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate shall—</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(e) No person may operate an aircraft that is issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(i), (k), or (l) of this chapter for compensation or hire, except:</P>
                            <P>(1) A person may operate an aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(i)(1) of this chapter to tow a glider that is a light-sport category aircraft or unpowered ultralight vehicle in accordance with § 91.309; or</P>
                            <P>(2) A person may operate an aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(i), (k), or (l) of this chapter to conduct operations authorized under § 91.326.</P>
                            <P>(f) No person may lease an aircraft that is issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(i), (k), or (l) of this chapter, except—</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(j) No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 61.113(i) of this chapter unless the aircraft is carrying not more than 7 occupants.</P>
                            <P>(k) A person may operate an aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate to conduct a space support vehicle flight carrying persons or property for compensation or hire provided the operation is conducted in accordance with § 91.331. </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="91">
                        <AMDPAR>73. Amend § 91.319 by revising paragraph (g) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.319 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Aircraft having experimental airworthiness certificates: Operating limitations.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(g) No person may operate an aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(i)(1) of this chapter to tow a glider that is a light-sport category aircraft or unpowered ultralight vehicle for compensation or hire or to conduct flight training for compensation or hire in an aircraft which that person provides unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has—</P>
                            <P>(1) Been inspected by a certificated repairman (light-sport) with a maintenance rating, an appropriately rated mechanic, or an appropriately rated repair station in accordance with inspection procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA; or</P>
                            <P>(2) Received an inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in accordance with part 21 of this chapter.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="91">
                        <AMDPAR>74. Amend § 91.327 by revising the section heading and paragraphs (b), (c) introductory text, and (c)(1) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.327 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Aircraft issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category: Operating limitations.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) No person may operate an aircraft that has a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category unless—</P>
                            <P>(1) The aircraft is maintained by a certificated repairman (light-sport) with a maintenance rating, an appropriately rated mechanic, or an appropriately rated repair station in accordance with the applicable provisions of part 43 of this chapter and maintenance and inspection procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA;</P>
                            <P>(2) A condition inspection is performed once every 12 calendar months by a certificated repairman (light-sport) with a maintenance rating, an appropriately rated mechanic, or an appropriately rated repair station in accordance with inspection procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA;</P>
                            <P>(3) The owner or operator complies with all applicable airworthiness directives;</P>
                            <P>(4) Each repair or alteration to an aircraft meets the applicable and current FAA-accepted or approved consensus standards specified in the statement of compliance submitted to the FAA for the aircraft.</P>
                            <P>(5) Each major repair or major alteration to an aircraft product produced under a consensus standard is authorized by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA, and is performed and inspected in accordance with maintenance and inspection procedures developed by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA; and</P>
                            <P>(6) The owner or operator complies with the requirements for the recording of major repairs and major alterations performed on type-certificated products in accordance with § 43.9(d) of this chapter, and with the retention requirements in § 91.417.</P>
                            <P>(c) No person may operate an aircraft issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category to tow a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle for compensation or hire or conduct flight training for compensation or hire in an aircraft which that person provides unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has—</P>
                            <P>(1) Been inspected by a certificated repairman (light-sport) with a maintenance rating, an appropriately rated mechanic, or an appropriately rated repair station in accordance with inspection procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or maintenance and inspection procedures acceptable to the FAA and been approved for return to service in accordance with part 43 of this chapter; or</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="91">
                        <AMDPAR>75. Effective July 24, 2026, amend § 91.327 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraph (a);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Redesignating paragraph (f) as paragraph (g); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. Adding new paragraph (f).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revision and addition reads as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.327 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Aircraft issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category: Operating limitations.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) No person may operate an aircraft that has a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category for compensation or hire except—</P>
                            <P>(1) To conduct any glider or an unpowered ultralight vehicle towing operations in accordance with § 91.309, that are specified in the aircraft's pilot operating handbook or operating limitations, as applicable, and specified in the manufacturer's statement of compliance for the aircraft, in accordance with § 21.190 of this chapter;</P>
                            <P>(2) To conduct flight training, checking, and testing; or</P>
                            <P>(3) To conduct any aerial work operations specified in the aircraft's pilot operating handbook or operating limitations, as applicable, and specified in the manufacturer's statement of compliance for the aircraft, in accordance with § 21.190 of this chapter.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <PRTPAGE P="35222"/>
                            <P>(f) No person may operate an aircraft issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category to carry—</P>
                            <P>(1) More than four occupants, including the pilot, if the aircraft is an airplane; or</P>
                            <P>(2) More than two occupants, including the pilot, if the aircraft is other than an airplane.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="91">
                        <AMDPAR>76. Effective July 24, 2026, add § 91.331 to subpart D to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.331 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Space support vehicle flights: Operating limitations.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) A person may operate an aircraft to conduct a space support vehicle flight carrying persons or property for compensation or hire provided—</P>
                            <P>(1) The aircraft has a special airworthiness certificate issued under § 21.191 of this chapter.</P>
                            <P>(2) The aircraft conducting the space support vehicle flight—</P>
                            <P>(i) Takes flight and lands at a single launch or reentry site that is operated by an entity licensed to operate the launch or reentry site under 51 U.S.C. chapter 509;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Is owned or operated by a launch or reentry vehicle operator licensed under 51 U.S.C. chapter 509, or on behalf of a launch or reentry vehicle operator licensed under 51 U.S.C. chapter 509;</P>
                            <P>(iii) Is a launch vehicle, a reentry vehicle, or a component of a launch or reentry vehicle licensed for operations pursuant to 51 U.S.C. chapter 509; and</P>
                            <P>(iv) Is used only to simulate space flight conditions in support of—</P>
                            <P>(A) Training for potential space flight participants, government astronauts, or crew (as those terms are defined in 51 U.S.C. chapter 509);</P>
                            <P>(B) The testing of hardware to be used in space flight; or</P>
                            <P>(C) Research and development tasks, which require the unique capabilities of the aircraft conducting the flight.</P>
                            <P>(b) The Administrator may prescribe additional operating limitations that the Administrator considers necessary in the interest of safety.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="91">
                        <AMDPAR>77. Amend § 91.409 by revising paragraph (c)(1) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.409 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Inspections</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(c) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) An aircraft that carries a special flight permit, a current experimental airworthiness certificate, a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category, or provisional airworthiness certificate;</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="91">
                        <AMDPAR>78. Amend § 91.417 by revising paragraph (a)(2)(v) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 91.417 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Maintenance records.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>(2) * * *</P>
                            <P>(v) The current status of applicable airworthiness directives (AD) including, for each, the method of compliance, the AD number and revision date. If the AD involves recurring action, the time and date when the next action is required.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 119—CERTIFICATION: AIR CARRIERS AND COMMERCIAL OPERATIONS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="119">
                        <AMDPAR>79. The authority citation for part 119 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                            <P>49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40101, 40102, 40103, 40113, 44105, 44106, 44111, 44701-44717, 44722, 44901, 44903, 44904, 44906, 44912, 44914, 44936, 44938, 46103, 46105; sec. 215, Pub. L. 111-216, 124 Stat. 2348. </P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="119">
                        <AMDPAR>80. Effective July 24, 2026, amend § 119.1 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Removing the word “or” at the end of paragraph (e)(10);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Removing the period at the end of paragraph (e)(11) and adding “; or” in its place; and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. Adding paragraph (e)(12).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The addition reads as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 119.1</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Applicability.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(e) * * *</P>
                            <P>(12) Space support vehicle flights conducted under the provisions of § 91.331 of this chapter.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 147—AVIATION MAINTENANCE TECHNICIAN SCHOOLS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="147">
                        <AMDPAR>81. The authority citation for part 147 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                            <P>49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701-44702, 44707-44709; sec. 135, Pub. L. 116-120, 134 Stat. 1182. </P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="147">
                        <AMDPAR>82. Amend § 147.17 by revising paragraph (b) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 147.17 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Training requirements.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (b) FAA-S-ACS-1, Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant Airman Certification Standards, November 1, 2021, is incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. This material is available for inspection at the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at FAA, contact Training and Certification Group, 202-267-1100, 
                                <E T="03">ACSPTSinquiries@faa.gov.</E>
                                 For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email: 
                                <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov,</E>
                                 or go to 
                                <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.</E>
                                 This material may be obtained from FAA, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591, 866-835-5322, 
                                <E T="03">www.faa.gov/training_testing.</E>
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SIG>
                        <P>Issued under authority provided by 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 44701(a), and 44703 in Washington, DC.</P>
                        <NAME>Bryan K. Bedford,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Administrator.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-13972 Filed 7-23-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
            </RULE>
        </RULES>
    </NEWPART>
</FEDREG>
