Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
National Institutes of Health
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Reclamation Bureau
Federal Aviation Administration
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Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
The FAA is superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2021-09-06, which applied to all The Boeing Company Model 737-600, -700, -700C, -800, -900, and -900ER series airplanes. AD 2021-09-06 required repetitive inspections for cracking of the left- and right-hand outboard chords of certain frame fittings and failsafe straps at a certain station around eight fasteners, and repair if any cracking is found. This AD was prompted by additional reports of cracking in the area and a subsequent determination that additional inspections are needed to address the unsafe condition. This AD requires repetitive detailed and ultrasonic inspections for cracking of the left- and right-hand sides of certain frame fittings and failsafe straps, and repair if any cracking is found. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective May 13, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of May 13, 2025.
• For Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600;
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at
Owen Bley-Male, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone 206-231-3992; email
The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2021-09-06, Amendment 39-21519 (86 FR 23595, May 4, 2021) (AD 2021-09-06). AD 2021-09-06 applied to all The Boeing Company Model 737-600, -700, -700C, -800, -900, and -900ER series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The FAA received comments from four commenters, including Air Line Pilots Association, International (ALPA), Boeing, and two individuals, who supported the NPRM without change.
The FAA received additional comments from five commenters, including American Airlines (American), Aviation Partners Boeing (APB), Southwest Airlines (Southwest), Sun Country Airlines (Sun Country), and United Airlines (United). The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
APB stated that the installation of blended or split scimitar winglets per Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) ST00830SE does not affect the actions specified in the proposed AD.
The FAA concurs with the commenter. The FAA has redesignated paragraph (c) of the proposed AD as paragraph (c)(1) of this AD and added paragraph (c)(2) to this AD to state that installation of STC ST00830SE does not affect the ability to accomplish the actions required by this AD. Therefore, for airplanes on which STC ST00830SE is installed, a “change in product” alternative method of compliance (AMOC) approval request is not necessary to comply with the requirements of 14 CFR 39.17.
APB advised that AMOCs approved by the Boeing Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) in accordance with the process specified in paragraph (i)(3) of the proposed AD would not be valid for airplanes on which STC ST01697SE is installed and which have a split scimitar winglet configuration installed by STC ST00830SE.
The FAA acknowledges and concurs with APB's assertion. However, paragraph (i)(1) of this AD provides a provision for obtaining an AMOC
American, Southwest, Sun Country, and United requested similar changes to the proposed AD to provide credit for accomplishing replacements of the left- and right-side STA 663.75 frame fitting assembly by accepting previously approved AMOCs. American, Southwest, Sun Country, and United noted that they have replaced several cracked fittings using a method approved by FAA Form 8100-9 or the AMOC process for ADs 2021-09-06; 2019-22-10, Amendment 39-19789 (84 FR 61533, November 13, 2019) (AD 2019-22-10); and 2019-20-02, Amendment 39-19755 (84 FR 52754, October 3, 2019) (AD 2019-20-02). In addition to a request to accept AMOCs previously approved for ADs 2021-09-06, 2019-22-10, and 2019-20-02, Southwest requested acceptance of global AMOC letter 782-22-10680 for an extension of certain inspection thresholds required by AD 2021-09-06. Southwest and United stated that the repair instructions they used specified a 30,000-flight-cycle compliance time before the next inspection and requested clarification on how that compliance time in the approved repair fits with flagnote (b) in the tables of the “Compliance” paragraph and Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin 737-53A1414, Revision 1, dated November 20, 2023. Sun Country also expressed concern that flagnote (b)'s reference to repairs approved by Boeing ODAs via FAA Form 8100-9 is “hidden” in the required service bulletin.
The FAA agrees to allow some previously approved AMOCs for AD 2021-09-06, which includes previously approved AMOCs for AD 2019-22-10 and AD 2019-20-02, in this AD. The FAA notes that flagnote (b) in certain tables in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Service Bulletin 737-53A1414, Revision 1, dated November 20, 2023, states that a replaced STA 663.75 frame fitting assembly that was accomplished using instructions approved in FAA Form 8100-9 does not need to be inspected for compliance with this AD. The FAA considers flagnote (b) to address the inspection required by this AD, but flagnote (b) does not apply to follow-on inspections specified in repair instructions. The FAA concurs with that note for the conditions that were identified by Boeing and has not excluded it or modified it in the exceptions identified in paragraph (h) of this AD. It would be impractical to attempt to identify each note or step that could be considered to contain “hidden” information that could be highlighted.
The FAA has added paragraph (h)(3) of this AD to clarify that for airplanes on which the left- and right-side STA 663.75 frame fitting assembly was replaced using instructions approved via FAA Form 8100-9, the airplane is to be considered Configuration 2 of the applicable group identified in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 737-53A1414 RB, Revision 1, dated November 20, 2023.
The FAA has also added paragraph (i)(4) of this AD to provide acceptance for some previously approved AMOCs provided certain conditions are met.
Sun Country requested that a reduced inspection schedule monitor be used in lieu of replacement before further flight if cracking is found on the far fasteners during the required ultrasonic inspection. Sun Country explained that based on its experience with certain inspection procedures in the non-destructive testing manual, inspecting the far fasteners as specified might lead to false cracking indications. Sun Country suggested that cracking at the affected failsafe strap location would become evident when inspections are conducted on a reduced interval.
The FAA does not agree with the request. Generally, the FAA does not allow an airplane to fly with a known crack. The FAA does not have the data in this case to substantiate allowing further flight with a known unsafe condition, on the chance that the required inspection returns a false positive result. However, under the provisions specified in paragraph (i) of this AD, the FAA will consider requests to extend the compliance time for repairs if sufficient data are submitted to substantiate that the new compliance time would provide an acceptable level of safety. This AD has not been changed regarding this issue.
The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered any comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. Except for minor editorial changes, and any other changes described previously, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.
The FAA reviewed Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 737-53A1414 RB, Revision 1, dated November 20, 2023. This material specifies procedures for repetitive internal detailed inspection for cracking of the frame fitting and visible areas of the failsafe strap at STA 663.73 (left- and right-hand sides), repetitive external detailed and ultrasonic inspections for cracking of the failsafe strap at STA 663.75 (left- and right-hand sides), and repair if any cracking is found. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
The FAA estimates that this AD affects 1,911 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
The FAA has received no definitive data on which to base the cost estimates for the on-condition repairs specified in this AD.
The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective May 13, 2025.
This AD replaces AD 2021-09-06, Amendment 39-21519 (86 FR 23595, May 4, 2021) (AD 2021-09-06).
(1) This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model 737-600, -700, -700C, -800, -900, and -900ER series airplanes, certificated in any category.
(2) Installation of Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) ST00830SE does not affect the ability to accomplish the actions required by this AD. Therefore, for airplanes on which STC ST00830SE is installed, a “change in product” alternative method of compliance (AMOC) approval request is not necessary to comply with the requirements of 14 CFR 39.17.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by reports of cracking in the station (STA) 663.75 frame fitting outboard chords and failsafe straps adjacent to the stringer S-18A area and a determination that additional inspections are needed to address the unsafe condition. The FAA is issuing this AD to address cracking in the STA 663.75 frame fitting outboard chords and failsafe straps adjacent to the stringer S-18A straps, which could result in failure of a principal structural element (PSE) to sustain limit load. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could adversely affect the structural integrity of the airplane and result in loss of control of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as specified by paragraph (h) of this AD: At the applicable times specified in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 737-53A1414 RB, Revision 1, dated November 20, 2023, do all applicable actions identified in, and in accordance with, the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 737-53A1414 RB, Revision 1, dated November 20, 2023.
(1) Where the Condition and Compliance Time columns of the tables in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 737-53A1414 RB, Revision 1, dated November 20, 2023, use the phrase “the original issue date of Requirements Bulletin 737-53A1414 RB,” or “the Revision 1 date of Requirements Bulletin 737-53A1414 RB,” this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.
(2) Where Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 737-53A1414 RB, Revision 1, dated November 20, 2023, specifies contacting Boeing for repair instructions: This AD requires doing the repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (i) of this AD.
(3) For airplanes on which the left- and right-side STA 663.75 frame fitting assembly was replaced using instructions approved via FAA Form 8100-9, the airplane is to be considered Configuration 2 of the applicable group as identified in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 737-53A1414 RB, Revision 1, dated November 20, 2023.
(1) The Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by The Boeing Company Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) AMOCs previously approved for replacement of the STA 663.75 frame fitting assembly and related work requirements of AD 2021-09-06 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 737-53A1414 RB, Revision 1, dated November 20, 2023, that are required by paragraph (g) of this AD, except for AMOCs that include any defined initial (also known as `threshold') and repetitive inspections, which must also meet
(i) The inspection areas and methods in figure 1 and figure 2 of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 737-53A1414 RB, Revision 1, dated November 20, 2023, are included in all initial (also known as `threshold') and repetitive inspections.
(ii) The initial (or threshold) inspection is the applicable time specified in paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(A) or (B) of this AD.
(A) For airplanes identified as Group 1 airplanes in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 737-53A1414 RB, Revision 1, dated November 20, 2023: Within 30,000 flight cycles from the date of the applicable FAA Form 8100-9 approval.
(B) For airplanes identified as Group 2 airplanes in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 737-53A1414 RB, Revision 1, dated November 20, 2023: Within 18,000 flight cycles from the date of the applicable FAA Form 8100-9 approval.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Owen Bley-Male, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone 206-231-3992; email
(2) Material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraph (k)(3) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 737-53A1414 RB, Revision 1, dated November 20, 2023.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) For Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600;
(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus SAS Model A350-941 and -1041 airplanes. This AD was prompted by an updated stress analysis on the forward (FWD) cargo door and its attachment piano hinges that revealed a risk of cracking and crack propagation on piano hinges 2 and 3, originating from opening-closing fatigue cycles of the FWD cargo door. This AD requires an inspection of the affected parts, and applicable corrective actions, as specified in a European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD, which is incorporated by reference. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective May 13, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of May 13, 2025.
• For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at
Nathan Weigand, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3531; email:
The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Airbus SAS Model A350-941 and -1041 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require an inspection of the affected parts, and applicable corrective actions, as specified in EASA AD 2024-0129. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at
The FAA received a comment from the Air Line Pilots Association, International (ALPA), who supported the NPRM without change.
The FAA received an additional comment from Delta Air Lines, Inc. (Delta). The following presents the comment received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to the comment.
Delta requested permission to use an alternative approved safety harness manufacturer part number (MPN) to accomplish step 5.3.B.(2) of Airbus Alert Operators Transmission (AOT) A53P17-24 Revision 01, dated June 26, 2024. Delta stated the AOT specifically requires safety harness MPN 98L12003001000 for compliance. Delta stated that based on previously approved alternative methods of compliance (AMOCs), alternative approved safety harness MPNs provide an acceptable level of safety during compliance with the requirements. Delta suggested revising paragraph (h) of the proposed AD to add the statement, “equivalent harness MPN(s) are acceptable.”
The FAA agrees to clarify. As specified in paragraph (i)(3) of this AD, if any material referenced in EASA AD 2024-0129 contains paragraphs that are identified as required for compliance (RC), those paragraphs must be done to comply with this AD; any paragraphs that are not identified as RC are recommended. The instructions in paragraph 5.3, including step 5.3.B.(2), in the Airbus AOT referenced in EASA AD 2024-0129 are not labeled as RC. Therefore, using the safety harness part number specified in the Airbus AOT is not required for compliance with this AD, and operators may use a safety harness with a different part number provided the instructions identified as RC can be done and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition. The FAA has not revised this AD in this regard.
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on this product. Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.
EASA AD 2024-0129 specifies procedures for performing a detailed inspection for cracks and damage (including dents, discoloration, punctures, nicks, and scratches) of the FWD cargo door piano hinges 2 and 3, and obtaining and following instructions for repair of cracks and damage. EASA AD 2024-0129 also specifies procedures for checking the condition and integrity of the temporary protection system (TPS) layer, if installed, removing any damaged TPS layer, and applying a new layer if the TPS layer was damaged, removed, or cleaned. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
The FAA estimates that this AD affects 28 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
The FAA has received no definitive data on which to base the cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective May 13, 2025.
None.
This AD applies to Airbus SAS Model A350-941 and -1041 airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2024-0129, dated July 5, 2024 (EASA AD 2024-0129).
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by an updated stress analysis on the forward (FWD) cargo door and its attachment piano hinges that revealed a risk of cracking and crack propagation on piano hinges 2 and 3, originating from opening-closing fatigue cycles of the FWD cargo door. The FAA is issuing this AD to address potential failure of the piano hinges due to cracking. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in damage to the FWD cargo door surrounding structure and consequent reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, EASA AD 2024-0129.
(1) Where EASA AD 2024-0129 refers to “16 May 2024 [the effective date of EASA AD 2024-0098],” this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.
(2) Where paragraph (2) of EASA AD 2024-0129 specifies “if, during the DET as required by paragraph (1) of this AD, any crack or damage is detected, before next flight, contact Airbus for approved instructions and, within the compliance time specified therein, accomplish those instructions accordingly,” this AD requires replacing that text with “if any crack or damage is detected, the crack or damage must be repaired before further flight using a method approved by the Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus SAS's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA). If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature.”
(3) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2024-0129.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
For more information about this AD, contact Nathan Weigand, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3531; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2024-0129, dated July 5, 2024.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email
(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
The FAA is superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2012-07-06, which applied to certain The Boeing Company Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, -300ER, and 777F series airplanes. AD 2012-07-06 required revising the maintenance program to update inspection requirements to detect fatigue cracking of principal structural elements (PSEs). This AD was prompted by new revisions to the airworthiness limitations of the maintenance planning document and damage tolerance rating check form document. This AD requires revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective May 13, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of May 13, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain other publication listed in this AD as of May 15, 2012 (77 FR 21429, April 10, 2012).
• For Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at
Luis Cortez-Muniz, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3958; email:
The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2012-07-06, Amendment 39-17012 (77 FR 21429, April 10, 2012) (AD 2012-07-06). AD 2012-07-06 applied to certain The Boeing Company Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, -300ER, and 777F series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The FAA issued a issued a supplemental NPRM (SNPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, -300ER, and 777F series airplanes. The SNPRM published in the
The FAA received comments from FedEx Express and three individuals, who supported the SNPRM without change.
The FAA received an additional comment from Boeing. The following presents the comment received on the SNPRM and the FAA's response to the comment.
Boeing requested that the FAA remove the extra words “could result in” from the last sentence of paragraph (e) in the proposed AD (in the SNPRM): “The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in could adversely affect the structural integrity of the airplane.” The extra words “could result in” add confusion and can be omitted.
The FAA agrees and has revised paragraph (e) of this AD accordingly.
The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered any comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. Except for minor editorial changes, and any other changes described previously, this AD is adopted as proposed in the SNPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.
The FAA reviewed Section 9, Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), D622W001-9, Revision April 2023, of the Boeing 777-200/200LR/300/300ER/777F Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document. Subsection B, Airworthiness Limitations-Structural Inspections and Subsection C, Airworthiness Limitations-Structural Safe-Life Limits, of this material contains airworthiness limitations for structural inspections and structural life limits, among other limitations.
The FAA also reviewed Boeing 777-200/200LR/300/300ER/777F Damage Tolerance Rating (DTR) Check Form Document, D622W001-DTR, Revision April 2023. This material provides the DTR check forms and the procedure for their use.
This AD also requires Section 9, “Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs),” D622W001-9, Revision July 2011, of the Boeing 777 Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document, which the Director of the Federal Register approved for incorporation by reference as of May 15, 2012 (77 FR 21429, April 10, 2012).
This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
The FAA estimates that this AD affects 326 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
The FAA estimates the total cost per operator for the retained actions from AD 2012-07-06 to be $7,650 (90 work-hours × $85 per work-hour).
The FAA has determined that revising the existing maintenance or inspection program takes an average of 90 work-hours per operator, although the FAA recognizes that this number may vary from operator to operator. Since operators incorporate maintenance or inspection program changes for their affected fleet(s), the FAA has determined that a per-operator estimate is more accurate than a per-airplane estimate.
The FAA estimates the total cost per operator for the new actions to be $7,650 (90 work-hours × $85 per work-hour).
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number for this information collection is 2120-0056. Public reporting for this collection of information is estimated to take approximately 1 hour per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information. All responses to this collection of information are mandatory. Send comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden to: Information Collection Clearance Officer, Federal Aviation Administration, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177-1524.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective May 13, 2025.
This AD replaces AD 2012-07-06, Amendment 39-17012 (77 FR 21429, April 10, 2012) (AD 2012-07-06).
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, -300ER, and 777F series airplanes, certificated in any category, with an original airworthiness certificate or original export certificate of airworthiness issued before September 5, 2024.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 27, Flight Controls; 28, Fuel; 32, Landing Gear; 52, Doors; 53, Fuselage; 54, Nacelles/Pylons; 55, Stabilizers; 57, Wings.
This AD was prompted by new revisions to the airworthiness limitations of the maintenance planning document and damage tolerance rating check form document. The FAA is issuing this AD to address fatigue cracking of various principal structural elements. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could adversely affect the structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (g) of AD 2012-07-06, with no changes. For airplanes with an original airworthiness certificate or original export certificate of airworthiness issued before September 1, 2010: Comply with the requirements of paragraphs (g)(1) through (3) of this AD. Accomplishing the revision of the existing maintenance or inspection program required by paragraph (i) of this AD terminates the requirements of this paragraph.
(1) Within 12 months after May 15, 2012 (the effective date of AD 2012-07-06), revise the maintenance program by incorporating the information in Subsection B, Airworthiness Limitations-Structural Inspections, of Section 9, “Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs),” D622W001-9, Revision July 2011, of the Boeing 777 Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document, except as provided by paragraph (h) of this AD.
(2) The initial compliance time for the inspections is within the applicable times specified in Subsection B, Airworthiness Limitations-Structural Inspections, of Section 9, of “Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs),” D622W001-9, Revision July 2011, of the Boeing 777 Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document, or within 18 months after May 15, 2012 (the effective date of AD 2012-07-06), whichever occurs later, or within the applicable time specified in Subsection B, Airworthiness Limitations-Structural Inspections, of Section 9, “Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs),” D622W001-9, Revision July 2011, of the Boeing 777 Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document, from the time of installation for new parts.
(3) Reports specified in Section 9, “Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs),” D622W001-9, Revision July 2011, of the Boeing 777 Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document may be submitted within 10 days after the airplane is returned to service, instead of 10 days after each individual finding as specified in this document.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (h) of AD 2012-07-06, with an additional exception. After accomplishing the actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, no alternative inspections or inspection intervals may be used unless the alternative inspection or interval is required by paragraph (i) of this AD or approved as an alternative method of compliance (AMOC) in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (k) of this AD.
(1) Within 12 months after the effective date of this AD, revise the existing maintenance or inspection program by incorporating the information in Subsection B, Airworthiness Limitations-Structural Inspections and Subsection C, Airworthiness Limitations-Structural Safe-Life Limits, of Section 9, Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), D622W001-9, Revision April 2023, of the Boeing 777-200/200LR/300/300ER/777F Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document; and in Boeing 777-200/200LR/300/300ER/777F Damage Tolerance Rating (DTR) Check Form Document, D622W001-DTR, Revision April 2023.
(2) The initial compliance time for the tasks is within the applicable times specified in Subsection B, Airworthiness Limitations-Structural Inspections and Subsection C, Airworthiness Limitations-Structural Safe-Life Limits, of Section 9, Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), D622W001-9, Revision April 2023, of the Boeing 777-200/200LR/300/300ER/777F Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document; and in Boeing 777-200/200LR/300/300ER/777F Damage Tolerance Rating (DTR) Check Form Document, D622W001-DTR, Revision April 2023, or within 12 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later, or within the applicable time specified in Subsection B, Airworthiness Limitations-Structural Inspections, and Subsection C, Airworthiness Limitations-Structural Safe-Life Limits, of Section 9, Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), D622W001-9, Revision April 2023, of the Boeing 777-200/200LR/300/300ER/777F Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document, from the time of installation for new parts.
(3) Reports specified in Boeing 777-200/200LR/300/300ER/777F Damage Tolerance Rating (DTR) Check Form Document, D622W001-DTR, Revision April 2023 may be submitted within 10 days after the airplane is returned to service, instead of 10 days as specified in the document.
After accomplishing the actions required by paragraph (i) of this AD, no alternative inspections or inspection intervals may be used unless the alternative inspection or interval is approved as an AMOC in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (k) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (l) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by The Boeing Company Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) AMOCs approved for AD 2012-07-06 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of paragraph (g) of this AD.
(5) AMOCs approved for repairs and alterations for AD 2012-07-06 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of paragraph (i) of this AD. All other AMOCs approved for AD 2012-07-06 are not approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of paragraph (i) of this AD.
For more information about this AD, contact Luis Cortez-Muniz, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3958; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(3) The following material was approved for IBR on May 13, 2025.
(i) Section 9, Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), D622W001-9, Revision April 2023, of the Boeing 777-200/200LR/300/300ER/777F Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document.
(ii) Boeing 777-200/200LR/300/300ER/777F Damage Tolerance Rating (DTR) Check Form Document, D622W001-DTR, Revision April 2023.
(4) The following material was approved for IBR on May 15, 2012 (77 FR 21429, April 10, 2012).
(i) Section 9, “Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs),” D622W001-9, Revision July 2011, of the Boeing 777 Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document.
(ii) [Reserved]
(5) For Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website
(6) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(7) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
Pursuant to the Federal Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act), the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving revisions to the Texas State Implementation Plan (SIP) submitted to the EPA by the Texas Commission on Environmental Quality (TCEQ or State) on December 18, 2023. The SIP revisions address Control of Air Pollution from Motor Vehicles and establish a Motor Vehicle Inspection and Maintenance (I/M) program for the San Antonio ozone nonattainment area.
This rule is effective on May 8, 2025.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R06-OAR-2023-0647. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Mr. Clovis Steib, EPA Region 6 Office, Infrastructure and Ozone Section, 214-665-7566,
Throughout this document “we,” “us,” and “our” means the EPA.
The background for this action is discussed in detail in our October 11, 2024, proposal (89 FR 82550). In that document we proposed to approve revisions to the Texas SIP at 30 TAC Chapter 114, Subchapter A, Sections 114.1 and Section 114.2, and Subchapter C, Sections 114.50, 114.53, and 114.82), pursuant to section 110 and part D of the CAA. Consistent with the CAA section 182(b)(4) and title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), part 51, subpart S, the revisions expand the State's vehicle I/M program into Bexar County
We received comments on our October 2024 proposal from five commenters, and our responses to the comments follow.
With regard to the commenter's suggestion that commercial and large vehicle operators should also be subject to the State's vehicle I/M program, it is important to note that Texas' vehicle emissions I/M program only applies to gasoline-powered, passenger and light-duty vehicles—those with a gross vehicle weight rating (GVWR) of 14,000 pounds or less. Texas' I/M program is projected to reduce vehicle emissions of oxides of nitrogen and volatile organic compounds, which are precursors to ozone formation.
Heavy-duty commercial vehicles (HDCV)—those greater than 14,000 pounds GVWR such as larger trucks, buses and freight vehicles (both diesel and gasoline-powered), are not subject to the same vehicle emissions inspection requirements under Texas' state program. States generally have limited authority to regulate emissions from HDCVs because these vehicles are often engaged in interstate commerce, which falls under federal jurisdiction. These larger commercial vehicles are, however, subject to federal emissions standards regulated by the EPA,
Texas submits an annual I/M quality assurance report of its Vehicle Emissions Inspection and Maintenance programs to EPA for review and evaluation as to whether their programs are in compliance with all associated data analysis and reporting requirements for all federally mandated I/M programs under 40 CFR 51.366. These state reports cover many aspects of I/M programs, including the number of vehicles tested and the number and percentage of passed, failed, and/or waived vehicles by model year. These reports contain data that can be useful in assessing the effectiveness of an I/M program.
Finally, CAA section 109(d) requires the EPA to review, and revise, if necessary, each of the NAAQS at five-year intervals. The status of EPA's review of each of the NAAQS can be viewed at
While we acknowledge the commenter's Environmental Justice concerns, we note that by Executive Order 14148, “Initial Rescission of Harmful Executive Orders and Actions” (90 FR 8237, January 28, 2025), certain past Executive orders were revoked that specifically pertain to environmental justice policies (E.O. 12898, E.O. 14094). Federal CAA requirements do not require consideration of those past policies as part of EPA's processing of this final action. Under the CAA, the EPA is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations therefore such past policies and E.O.'s are outside the legal scope for consideration.
EPA is approving revisions to the Texas SIP, submitted to the EPA on December 18, 2023. Specifically, we are approving the revisions addressing 30 TAC Chapter 114, Subchapter A, Sections 114.1 and Section 114.2, and Subchapter C, Sections 114.50, 114.53, and 114.82. The submitted revisions describe and demonstrate how CAA requirements for a Basic vehicle I/M program (CAA section 182(b)(4) and 40 CFR part 51, subpart S) meets the requirements for 2015 ozone NAAQS for the San Antonio ozone nonattainment area; and incorporates minor changes for the display of a vehicle's registration insignia. This final action is being taken pursuant to section 110 and part D of the CAA and terminates the EPA's requirement to promulgate a FIP for a Basic I/M program in the San Antonio nonattainment area.
In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference the revisions to the Texas regulations as described in section III of this preamble (Final Action). The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Clean Air Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a state program;
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act.
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
This action is subject to the Congressional Review Act, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by June 9, 2025. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Environmental Protection Agency amends 40 CFR part 52 as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(c) * * *
(e) * * *
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes amending Class D airspace and establishing Class E airspace extending upward from the surface above Little Rock AFB, Little Rock, AR, as the air traffic control tower will shift to part-time operations. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations in the area.
Comments must be received on or before May 23, 2025.
Send comments identified by FAA Docket No. FAA-2025-0433 and Airspace Docket No. 25-ASW-4 using any of the following methods:
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FAA Order JO 7400.11J Airspace Designations and Reporting Points and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
Rachel Cruz, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; Telephone: (404) 305-5571.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority, as it would amend Class D and establish Class E airspace in Little Rock AFB, Little Rock, AR.
The FAA invites interested persons to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should submit only one time if comments are filed electronically, or commenters should send only one copy of written comments if comments are filed in writing.
The FAA will file in the docket all comments it receives, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, the FAA will consider all comments it receives on or before the closing date for comments. The FAA will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. The FAA may change this proposal in light of the comments it receives.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Operations office (see
Class D and Class E airspace designations are published in paragraphs 5000 and 6002 of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document proposes to amend the current version of that
This action proposes an amendment to 14 CFR part 71 to amend Class D airspace for Little Rock AFB, Little Rock, AR, as the air traffic control tower will no longer be full-time. This action also proposes to establish Class E surface airspace over Little Rock AFB, Little Rock, AR. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations in the area.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore, (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under Department of Transportation (DOT) Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” prior to any final regulatory action by the FAA.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 2,800 feet MSL within a 5.6-mile radius of Little Rock AFB airport, excluding that airspace within the Little Rock, Adams Field, AR, Class C airspace area. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 2,800 feet MSL within a 5.6-mile radius of Little Rock AFB airport, excluding that airspace within the Little Rock, Adams Field, AR, Class C airspace area. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface for Blue Hill, ME, by adding airspace for Blue Hill Memorial Hospital Heliport, Blue Hill, ME. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at this heliport.
Comments must be received on or before May 23, 2025.
Send comments identified by FAA Docket No. FAA-2025-0129 and Airspace Docket No. 25-ANE-2 using any of the following methods:
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FAA Order JO 7400.11J Airspace Designations and Reporting Points and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
Robert Scott Stuart, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; Telephone: (404) 305-5926.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority, as it would amend Class E airspace in Blue Hill, ME.
The FAA invites interested persons to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should submit only one time if comments are filed electronically, or commenters should send only one copy of written comments if comments are filed in writing.
The FAA will file in the docket all comments it receives, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, the FAA will consider all comments it receives on or before the closing date for comments. The FAA will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. The FAA may change this proposal in light of the comments it receives.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Operations office (see
Class E airspace designations are published in Paragraph 6005 of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document proposes to amend the current version of that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11J, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated July 31, 2024, and effective September 15, 2024. These updates will be published in the next update to FAA Order JO 7400.11. FAA Order JO 7400.11J is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA proposes an amendment to 14 CFR part 71 to establish Class E airspace by adding airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6-mile radius of the Blue Hill Memorial Hospital Heliport, Blue Hill, ME. The airspace would provide the controlled airspace required to support the new RNAV (GPS) standard instrument approach procedure for instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at the heliport. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of IFR operations in the area.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore, (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under Department of Transportation (DOT) Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” prior to any final regulatory action by the FAA.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6-mile radius of Blue Hill Memorial Hospital Heliport, Blue Hill, ME.
Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Coast Guard is proposing to amend a published safety zone for certain waters of Lake Michigan encompassing the Milwaukee Air and Water Show to include an additional day. This action is necessary to provide for the safety of life on these navigable waters in the vicinity of McKinley Park and Bradford Beach, during this recurring event on the third weekend in July. This proposed rulemaking would prohibit persons and vessels from being in the safety zone unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Sector Lake Michigan or a designated representative. We invite your comments on this proposed rulemaking.
Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard by May 8, 2025.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2025-0270 using the Federal Decision-Making Portal at
If you have questions about this proposed rulemaking, call or email LCDR Jessica Anderson, Sector Lake Michigan Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 414-747-7182, email
The Milwaukee Air and Water Show is a long-standing event that has occurred for 14 years. During that time, there have been numerous requests to establish a safety zone for four days in duration, rather than the three days currently enforced. The Captain of the Port Sector Lake Michigan (COTP) has determined that, due to the repetitive requests, it is pertinent to revise the current safety zone in 33 CFR 165.929, table 4 to § 165.929, line No. 29 for the Milwaukee Air and Water Show to add a fourth day for the event.
The purpose of this rulemaking is to ensure the safety of vessels and the navigable waters within an area approximately 5,000-yards by 1,500-yards before, during, and after the scheduled event, which would require expanding the enforcement period to include four days. The Coast Guard is proposing this rulemaking under authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034.
The COTP is proposing to revise an established safety zone in 33 CFR 165.929, table 4 to § 165.929, line No. 29 for the Milwaukee Air and Water Show by adding a fourth day to the event. The Milwaukee Air and Water Show event is a recurring event held on the third weekend in July from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. The safety zone would continue to cover all navigable waters of Lake Michigan in the vicinity of McKinley Park and Bradford Beach located within an area that is approximately 5,000 yards by 1,500 yards. The expanded duration of the zone is intended to ensure the safety of vessels and these navigable waters before, during, and after the scheduled Milwaukee Air and Water Show. No vessel or person would be permitted to enter the safety zone without obtaining permission from the COTP or a designated representative. The regulatory text we are proposing appears at the end of this document.
We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. This NPRM has not been designated a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the NPRM has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
This regulatory action determination is based on the previous rulemaking and the additional day not substantially altering the previous regulation. Additionally, prior events have included temporary final rules to encompass the four-day timeframe.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, and duration of the safety zone. The regulation will be in effect only during the event listed in this regulation for which the COTP has determined pose risks to the safety of life and property for the maritime public and event participants. The size, location, and duration of the regulation will be limited to the extent necessary to minimize these risks. Moreover, the COTP will make advance notice of the enforcement of the regulation through the Local Notice to Mariners and/or Broadcast Notice to Mariners. This regulation also provides a means for anyone needing to transit through or within the safety zone to seek permission from the COTP.
If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this proposed rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule. If the proposed rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please call or email the person listed in the
This proposed rule would not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132 (Federalism), if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this proposed rule under that order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this proposed rule does not have Tribal implications under Executive Order 13175 (Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments) because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian Tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes. If you believe this proposed rule has implications for federalism or Indian Tribes, please call or email the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or Tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this proposed rule would not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the potential effects of this proposed rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this proposed rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This proposed rule involves expanding a long-standing safety zone from three days to four days. Normally such actions are categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A preliminary Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket. For instructions on locating the docket, see the
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.
We review all comments received, but we will only post comments that address the topic of the proposed rule. We may choose not to post off-topic, inappropriate, or duplicate comments that we receive.
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.3.
Federal Communications Commission.
Petitions for reconsideration; correction.
The Federal Communications Commission is correcting a Petition for Reconsideration (Petitions) that appeared in the
April 8, 2025.
Valerie Barrish, Office of Economics and Analytics, Auctions Division, (202) 418-0660, or
In the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
NMFS is proposing annual management measures for the 2025 non-Tribal directed commercial Pacific halibut fishery that operates south of Point Chehalis, WA, (lat. 46°53.30′ N) in the International Pacific Halibut Commission's (IPHC) regulatory Area 2A off Washington, Oregon, and California. Annual management measures include fishing periods and fishing period limits. NMFS is also proposing to modify permit deadlines for all Area 2A non-Tribal commercial fisheries and modify inseason action announcement procedures for the Area 2A non-Tribal directed commercial fishery. These actions are intended to conserve Pacific halibut and provide fishing opportunity where available.
Comments must be received by May 8, 2025.
A plain language summary of this proposed rule is available at
•
Heather Fitch, West Coast Region, NMFS, (360) 867-8608,
The Northern Pacific Halibut Act of 1982 (16 U.S.C. 773-773k) (Halibut Act) gives the Secretary of Commerce the responsibility of implementing the provisions of the Convention between Canada and the United States for the Preservation of the Halibut Fishery of the North Pacific Ocean and Bering Sea (Convention), signed at Ottawa, Ontario, on March 2, 1953, as amended by a Protocol Amending the Convention (March 29, 1979).
As provided in the Halibut Act at 16 U.S.C. 773b, the Secretary of State, with the concurrence of the Secretary of Commerce, may accept or reject, on behalf of the United States, regulations recommended by the IPHC in accordance with the Convention. Following acceptance by the Secretary of State, the annual management measures promulgated by the IPHC are published in the
The Halibut Act also provides that Regional Fishery Management Councils may develop, and the Secretary of Commerce may implement, regulations governing Pacific halibut fishing in U.S. waters that are in addition to, and not in conflict with, approved IPHC regulations (16 U.S.C. 773c(c)). The Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) developed a catch sharing plan guiding the allocation of halibut across the various sectors for the IPHC's regulatory Area 2A.
At its annual meeting held January 27-31, 2024, the IPHC adopted an Area 2A catch limit, called a fishery constant exploitation yield (FCEY), of 1.53 million pounds (694 metric tons (mt)), net weight (
Fishing periods, often referred to as fishery openers, are the time during the annual commercial halibut season when fishing for non-Tribal directed commercial Pacific halibut in Area 2A is allowed. At its November 2024 meeting, the Council discussed the 2025 directed commercial season structure and recommended that NMFS establish fishing periods similar to those in the previous year. Specifically, the Council recommended that the directed commercial fishery operate as a series of 3-day (58-hour) openings, with the first fishing period beginning at 8 a.m. (0800) Pacific Daylight Time (PDT) on the fourth Tuesday in June and ending at 6 p.m. (1800) PDT on Thursday of that week, and the second fishing period occurring 2 weeks later. The Council also recommended that, if there is a third fishing period, it would aim to be 2 weeks later, but no more than 3 weeks after the second fishing, and that any subsequent fishing periods would occur as soon as possible. In addition, the Council requested that all potential season opening dates be specified at the outset of the fishing season. Based on the Council's recommendations, NMFS is proposing the first 2025 directed commercial fishery fishing period to begin on June 24, 2025, at 8 a.m. PDT and closing on June 26, 2025, at 6 p.m. PDT. The second fishing period would occur 2 weeks later, beginning on July 8, 2025, at 8 a.m. PDT and closing on July 10, 2025, at 6 p.m. PDT. If another fishing period is necessary to reach attainment of the allocation, NMFS is proposing that it would open, by inseason action, a third fishing period occurring 2 weeks after the second fishing period, beginning on July 22, 2025 at 8 a.m. PDT and closing on July 24, 2025 at 6 p.m. PDT. If subsequent fishing periods would be necessary to reach the allocation, they would follow the same pattern, occurring 2 weeks after the previous fishing period, beginning on August 5, August 12, et cetera, as announced by inseason action. If for any reason a fishing period is not opened as scheduled, NMFS would skip a fishing period in order to follow the prescribed schedule.
After each fishing period, NMFS will assess the fishery harvest to date and determine if the fishery has attained the allocation. If harvest estimates indicate the allocation has not been reached, NMFS may determine that subsequent fishing period(s) are necessary to attain the allocation. The third and subsequent fishing periods would be added through inseason action.
Fishing periods may be adjusted inseason consistent with 50 CFR 300.63.
A fishing period limit, also called a vessel catch limit, is the maximum amount of Pacific halibut that may be retained and landed by a vessel during one fishing period. Each vessel may retain no more than the current fishing period limit of Pacific halibut for its vessel class, which is determined by vessel length. NMFS is proposing directed commercial fishing period limits, shown in table 1 below, for the first two fishing periods, based on the 2025 directed fishery allocation, the number of permits issued by vessel size class, and participation and catch rates from prior years, in accordance with 50 CFR 300.63(e)(1)(ii).
For the 2025 fishing season, NMFS received 171 applications across 8 vessel size classes (A-H). Based on this number of permits and past fishery participation, NMFS anticipates similar vessel participation as has occurred in previous years. Therefore, NMFS is proposing that fishing period limits be grouped the same way as was done in previous years.
The directed commercial fishery allocation for 2025 is similar to the allocations adopted for the previous 4 years. The average catch per vessel in 2024 was similar to those in 2021 and 2022, but lower than in 2023. Therefore, given the similar allocations and given that expected participation levels are similar to those in recent years, NMFS is proposing fishing period limits similar to the fishing period limits for 2021 and 2022. These fishing period catch limits are intended to ensure that the Area 2A directed commercial fishery does not exceed its allocation, while also providing fair and equitable access across participants to an attainable amount of harvest.
If NMFS determines that more than two fishing periods are warranted, NMFS will set the fishing period limits for subsequent fishing periods equal across all vessel classes through inseason action. Fishing period limits for the second fishing period may also be adjusted through inseason action, if necessary to avoid exceeding the allocation.
Fishing period limits may be adjusted inseason consistent with 50 CFR 300.63.
Currently, if it is determined necessary to establish additional fishing periods beyond those established through proposed and final rulemaking at the start of the year, then those fishing periods must be announced through inseason actions published in the
Permits are required for all vessels participating in the Area 2A non-Tribal commercial directed and incidental Pacific halibut fisheries. Vessels may not be permitted for both the Pacific halibut fishery incidental to salmon troll and the directed commercial Pacific halibut fishery. NMFS is proposing to move the permit deadline for all Area 2A non-Tribal commercial fisheries from its current date of February 15 to March 15. The current permit deadline occurs before the Council's annual March meeting and, thus, before the annual salmon troll seasons have been discussed. This leaves fishermen forced to choose between participating in the Pacific halibut incidental to salmon troll fishery or the directed commercial fishery before those fishermen have an indication of what the U.S. West Coast salmon season might look like.
Regulations governing the U.S. fisheries for Pacific halibut are developed by the IPHC, the Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council), the North Pacific Fishery Management Council, and the Secretary of Commerce. Section 5 Halibut Act (16 U.S.C. 773c) allows the Regional Council having authority for a particular geographical area to develop regulations governing the allocation and catch of halibut in U.S. Convention waters as long as those regulations do not conflict with IPHC regulations. This action is consistent with the Council's authority to regulate the halibut fishery in the waters in and off Washington, Oregon, and California.
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866 and not a regulatory action under Executive Order 14192.
The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration that this proposed rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, for the following reasons:
For Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) purposes only, NMFS has established a small business size standard for businesses, including their affiliates, whose primary industry is commercial fishing (see 50 CFR 200.2). A business primarily engaged in commercial fishing (North American Industry Classification System code 114111) is classified as a small business if it is independently owned and operated, is not dominant in its field of operation (including its affiliates), and has combined annual receipts not in excess of $11 million for all its affiliated operations worldwide. The entities that would be affected by the proposed action are those vessels that harvest Pacific halibut as part of the non-Tribal directed commercial fisheries and are all considered small businesses under the above size standards.
This proposed rule, if adopted, would implement management measures for the Pacific halibut non-Tribal commercial fisheries in Area 2A. The proposed management measures include: modified inseason announcement procedures, as well as 2025 season dates and catch limits for the directed commercial fishery. This proposed action would also make a non-substantive change to the permit deadline for directed and incidental commercial fisheries.
There are no large entities involved in Pacific halibut fisheries off the West Coast. In 2024, NMFS issued 188 permits to the commercial fishing fleet for the Area 2A non-Tribal directed commercial fishery. Of those 188 vessels that obtained licenses, 46 percent (86 vessels) participated in the fishery. NMFS expects that a similar proportion of vessels will participate in the fishery this year and may be affected by these regulations. Cost data for the harvesting operations of non-Tribal commercial halibut vessels is limited or unavailable. For 2024, the non-Tribal directed commercial fishery allocation was 249,338 pounds (113 mt), of which approximately 237,164 pounds (108 mt) of Pacific halibut were harvested and resulted in a total fishery ex-vessel value of approximately $1.56 million. Therefore, because the entire projected fishery value falls below the limit of one vessel being considered a small business, NMFS considers all vessels affected by this action to be small entities.
The major effect of Pacific halibut management on small entities is from
The Area 2A non-Tribal directed commercial fishery allocation for 2025 is 259,515 pounds (118 mt), net weight, which is 4 percent higher than in 2024. This proposed rule, if adopted, is unlikely to affect overall participation in the directed commercial fishery, as the allocation is similar to allocations in previous years. Profitability is dependent on the total amount of allocation available and market forces independent of this action. It is therefore highly unlikely that this proposed action would limit the fleet's potential profitability from catching halibut compared to last season or recent catch levels, as fishing periods and fishing period catch limits for 2025 are set using similar considerations as in previous years. Accordingly, vessel income from fishing is not expected to be altered as a result of this proposed rule, if adopted, as it compares to recent catches in the fishery, including under the previous season's regulations.
Based on the analysis above, the proposed action, if adopted, will not have adverse economic impact on these small business entities. As a result, an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis is not required, and none has been prepared.
This proposed rule contains no new information collection requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Administrative practice and procedure, Antarctica, Canada, Exports, Fish, Fisheries, Fishing, Imports, Indians, Labeling, Marine resources, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Russian Federation, Transportation, Treaties, Wildlife.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, NMFS proposes to amend 50 CFR part 300, subpart E, as follows:
16 U.S.C. 773-773k.
(d) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) * * *
(A) Applications for permits for the directed commercial fishery in Area 2A must be received by NMFS no later than 2359 PDT on March 15, or by 2359 PDT the next business day in March if March 15 is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.
(B) Applications for permits that allow for incidental catch of Pacific halibut during the salmon troll fishery or the sablefish primary fishery in Area 2A must be received by NMFS no later than 2359 PDT March 15, or by 2359 PDT the next business day in March if March 15 is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.
(e) * * *
(1) * * *
(iii)
(2) * * *
(i) If NMFS determines that the non-Tribal directed commercial fishery has attained its annual allocation or is projected to attain its allocation if additional fishing were to be allowed, the Regional Administrator will take automatic action to close the fishery via email to affected permit holders and announcement in the
United States Commission on Civil Rights.
Notice of Commission business meeting.
Friday, April 11, 2025, 10 a.m. eastern standard time.
Meeting to take place in person and is open to the public.
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 1331 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Suite 1150, Washington, DC 20425.
The meeting will also be livestreamed on the Commission's YouTube page:
Joe Kim: 202-499-0263;
In accordance with the Government in Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b), the Commission on Civil Rights is holding a meeting to discuss the Commission's business for the month of April. This business meeting is open to the public. Computer assisted real-time transcription (CART) will be provided. The web link to access CART (in English) on Friday, April 11, 2025, is
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of business meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the Alabama Advisory Committee (Committee) will hold a business meeting on Wednesday, April 16, 2025 at 11:00 a.m. Central time. The Committee will discuss panelist for their upcoming briefings.
The business meeting will take place on Wednesday April 16, 2025, at 11:00 a.m. Central Time.
David Barreras, DFO, at
Members of the public may listen to this discussion through the above call-in number. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Individuals who are deaf, deafblind and hard of hear hearing may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and confirmation code.
Members of the public are entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Regional Programs Unit, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 230 S Dearborn, Suite 2120, Chicago, IL 60604. They may also be faxed to the Commission at (312) 353-8324 or emailed to Corrine Sanders at
Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via
Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice of partially closed meeting.
The Emerging Technology Technical Advisory Committee (ETTAC) advises and assists the Secretary of Commerce and other Federal officials on matters related to export control policies; the ETTAC will meet to review and discuss these matters. The meeting will be partially closed to the public pursuant to the exemptions under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) and the Government in the Sunshine Act.
The meeting will be held on April 25, 2025, from 9:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. Eastern Time (all times are Eastern Time). The open session will start at 9:00 a.m. and end at approximately 10:00 a.m. The closed session will start at approximately 10:00 a.m. and end no later than 4:00 p.m. Individuals requiring special accommodations to access the open session should contact
The meeting will be held in Room 3884 of the Herbert C. Hoover Building, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC (enter through the Main Entrance on 14th Street between Constitution and Pennsylvania Avenues). The open session will be accessible via teleconference.
Kevin Coyne, Committee Liaison Officer, Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce,
The Emerging Technology Technical Advisory Committee (ETTAC) advises and assists the Secretary of Commerce (Secretary) and other Federal officials and agencies with respect to actions designed to carry out the policy set forth in Section 1752 of the Export Control Reform Act. The purpose of the meeting is to have the ETTAC members and U.S. Government representatives mutually review the updated technical data and policy-driving information that has been gathered.
The open session will include working group reports, open business discussions, and industry presentations. The closed session will include discussion of matters determined to be exempt from the open meeting and public participation requirements found in sections 1009(a)(1) and 1009(a)(3) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) (5 U.S.C. 1001-1014).
The open session will be accessible via teleconference. Registration in advance is required to receive the meeting invite for virtual attendance. Individuals interested in participating virtually should contact
Individuals requiring special accommodations to access the open session should contact
To the extent that time permits during the open session, members of the public may present oral statements to the ETTAC. The public may submit written statements at any time before or after the meeting. However, to facilitate distribution of materials to the ETTAC members, the ETTAC suggests that members of the public forward their materials prior to the meeting via email to
The Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration, performing the non-exclusive functions and duties of the Chief Financial Officer and Assistant Secretary for Administration, with the concurrence of the delegate of the General Counsel, formally determined, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 1009(d), that the portion of the meeting dealing with pre-decisional changes to the Commerce Control List and the U.S. export control policies shall be exempt from the provisions relating to public meetings found in 5 U.S.C. 1009(a)(1) and 1009(a)(3). The remaining portions of the meeting will be open to the public. The exemption is authorized by section 1009(d) of the FACA, which permits the closure of advisory committee meetings, or portions thereof, if the head of the agency to which the advisory committee reports determines such meetings may be closed to the public in accordance with subsection (c) of the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b(c)). In this case, the applicable provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552b(c) are subsection 552b(c)(4), which permits closure to protect trade secrets and commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential, and subsection 552b(c)(9)(B), which permits closure to protect information that would be likely to disclose information the premature disclosure of which would be likely to significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed agency action. The closed session of the meeting will involve committee discussions and guidance regarding U.S. Government strategies and policies.
If the meeting is cancelled, a cancellation notice will be posted on the TAC website at:
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Notice; correction.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) published notice in the
Brenda E. Brown, Office of AD/CVD Operations, Customs Liaison Unit, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401
On January 2, 2025, Commerce published in the
In the
The
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that Iljin Electric Co., Ltd. (Iljin) made sales of large power transformers from the Republic of Korea (Korea) at less than normal value (NV) during the period of review (POR) August 1, 2022, through July 31, 2023. Commerce also continues to determine that HD Hyundai Electric Co., Ltd. (Hyundai) did not make sales of large power transformers from Korea at prices at less than NV during the POR.
Applicable April 8, 2025.
John Drury or Jinny Ahn, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-0195 or (202) 482-0339, respectively.
On September 13, 2024, Commerce published the
The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at
The scope of the
All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs by parties to this administrative review are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. For a list of the issues raised by parties,
Based on our review of the record and comments received from interested parties, we made certain changes to the margin calculations for Iljin for these final results of review.
The Act and Commerce's regulations do not address the establishment of a rate to be applied to companies not selected for individual examination when Commerce limits its examination in an administrative review pursuant to section 777A(c)(2) of the Act. Generally, Commerce looks to section 735(c)(5) of the Act, which provides instructions for calculating the all-others rate in a market economy investigation, for guidance when calculating the rate for companies which were not selected for individual examination in an administrative review. Under section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act, the all-others rate is normally “an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any zero and
For these final results, we continue to calculate a weighted-average dumping margin for Iljin that is not zero,
We determine that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margins exist for the period August 1, 2022, through July 31, 2023:
We intend to disclose the calculations performed to parties in this proceeding within five days after the date of publication in the
Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.212(b)(1), Commerce shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise in accordance with the final results of this review.
For entries of subject merchandise during the POR produced by Hyundai and Iljin for which it did not know its merchandise was destined for the United States, we will instruct CBP to liquidate unreviewed entries at the all-others rate in the less-than-fair-value investigation if there is no rate for the intermediate company(ies) involved in the transaction.
Commerce intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions to CBP no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of the final results of this review in the
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of this notice for all shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication of these final results, as provided by section 751(a)(2) of the Act: (1) the cash deposit rates for the companies subject to this review will be equal to the weighted-average dumping margins established in the final results of this administrative review; (2) for merchandise exported by producers or exporters not covered in this administrative review but covered in a prior segment of the proceeding, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the company specific rate published for the most recently completed segment of this proceeding; (3) if the exporter is not a firm covered in this review, a prior review, or the original investigation, but the producer is, the cash deposit rate will be the rate established for the most recently completed segment of this proceeding for the producer of the subject merchandise; and (4) the cash deposit rate for all other producers or exporters will continue to be 22.00 percent, the all-others rate established in the less-than-fair-value investigation.
This notice also serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during the POR. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in Commerce's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties did occur and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.
This notice also serves as a reminder to parties subject to an administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials, or conversion to judicial protective order, is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
We are issuing and publishing this notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.213(h) and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(5).
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; receipt of application for regulations and a Letter of Authorization; request for comments and information.
NMFS has received a request from 8 Star Alaska, LLC (8 Star Alaska), a subsidiary of the Alaska Gasline Development Corporation (AGDC), for authorization to take small numbers of marine mammals incidental to construction of the Alaska LNG Project in Cook Inlet, Alaska over the course of 5 years beginning on January 1, 2026. Pursuant to regulations implementing the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), NMFS is announcing receipt of 8 Star Alaska's request for the development and implementation of regulations governing the incidental taking of marine mammals and associated Letter of Authorization (LOA). NMFS invites the public to provide information, suggestions, and comments on 8 Star Alaska's application and request.
Comments and information must be received no later than May 8, 2025.
Comments on the applications should be addressed to Jolie Harrison, Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service and should be submitted via email to
An electronic copy of 8 Star Alaska's application may be obtained online at:
Kristy Jacobus, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401.
Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361
An incidental take authorization shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth.
NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.
The MMPA states that the term “take” means to harass, hunt, capture, kill or attempt to harass, hunt, capture, or kill any marine mammal.
Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as: any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance, which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).
On December 5, 2024, NMFS received an application from 8 Star Alaska requesting authorization for take of marine mammals incidental to pile driving and anchor handling activities related to construction of the Alaska LNG Project in Cook Inlet, Alaska. Following NMFS' review of the application, 8 Star Alaska submitted a revised application on April 3, 2025. The application was deemed adequate and complete on April 3, 2025. The requested regulations would be valid for 5 years, from January 1, 2026 through December 31, 2030. 8 Star Alaska plans to conduct necessary work, including impact and vibratory pile driving and anchor handling, to construct facilities and lay pipes for the Alaska LNG Project. AGDC has determined that these activities may result in the take, by Level A and Level B harassment, of marine mammals. Therefore, 8 Star Alaska requests authorization to incidentally take marine mammals.
8 Star Alaska proposes to construct facilities to transport and offload liquefied natural gas (LNG) in Cook Inlet, Alaska for export. The project would include construction of a marine terminal, consisting of a product loading facility and a temporary material offloading facility, on the east side of Cook Inlet near Nikiski, a mainline material offloading facility on the west side of Cook Inlet, and a mainline, a 42-inch (1.1 meter (m)) diameter natural gas pipeline, across Cook Inlet. The marine terminal and mainline material offloading facility would consist of 158 48-inch (1.2 m) steel pipe piles, 73 24-inch (0.6 m) steel pipe piles, 200 60-inch (1.5 m) steel pipe piles, and 6,646 feet (2,025.7 m) of sheet pile installed using impact and vibratory pile driving. This work is expected to occur on 324 days over the 5-year period. The mainline would be laid on the seafloor across Cook Inlet using conventional pipelay vessel methods described in the application. The pipelay vessel would employ anchors to keep it positioned during pipelay and anchor handling attendant tugs would be used to repeatedly reposition the anchors. Anchor handling is expected to occur over approximately 76 days during Years 3 and 4 of the LOA effective period.
Interested persons may submit information, suggestions, and comments concerning 8 Star Alaska's request (see
Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
Notice.
The Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“Commission”) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed renewal of a collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (“PRA”), Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments must be submitted on or before June 9, 2025.
You may submit comments, identified by “OMB Control Number 3038-0087” by any of the following methods:
• The Agency's Website, at
•
•
Please submit your comments using only one method. All comments must be submitted in English, or if not, accompanied by an English translation. Comments will be posted as received to
Catherine Brescia, Attorney Advisor, Market Participants Division, Commodity Futures Trading Commission, (202) 418-6236, email:
Under the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501
With respect to the collection of information, the Commission invites comments on:
• Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information will have a practical use;
• The accuracy of the Commission's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Ways to enhance the quality, usefulness, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology;
You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. If you wish the Commission to consider information that you believe is exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (“FOIA”), a petition for confidential treatment of the exempt information may be submitted according to the procedures established
The Commission reserves the right, but shall have no obligation, to review, pre-screen, filter, redact, refuse or remove any or all of your submission from
There are no capital costs or operating and maintenance costs associated with this collection.
Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
Notice.
The Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“Commission” or “CFTC”) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed renewal of a collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (“PRA”), Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments must be submitted on or before June 9, 2025.
You may submit comments, identified by “OMB Control No. 3038-0080” by any of the following methods:
• The Agency's Website, at
•
Please submit your comments using only one method. All comments must be submitted in English, or if not, accompanied by an English translation. Comments will be posted as received to
Catherine Brescia, Attorney Advisor, Market Participants Division, Commodity Futures Trading Commission, Three Lafayette Centre, 1155 21st Street NW, Washington, DC 20581; (202) 418-6236; email:
Under the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501
The information collection obligations imposed by Commission Regulation 3.3 are essential to ensuring that SDs, MSPs,
With respect to the collection of information, the CFTC invites comments on:
• Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information will have a practical use;
• The accuracy of the Commission's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Ways to enhance the quality, usefulness, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. If you wish the Commission to consider information that you believe is exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (“FOIA”), a petition for confidential treatment of the exempt information may be submitted according to the procedures established in § 145.9 of the Commission's regulations.
The Commission reserves the right, but shall have no obligation, to review, pre-screen, filter, redact, refuse or remove any or all of your submission from
There are no capital costs or operating and maintenance costs associated with this collection.
Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition and Sustainment (OUSD(A&S)), Department of Defense (DoD).
30-Day information collection notice.
The DoD has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Consideration will be given to all comments received by May 8, 2025.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Reginald Lucas, (571) 372-7574,
Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is requesting the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to conduct an emergency review of a revision of a currently approved collection.
The Department requested emergency processing from OMB for this information collection request on March 21, 2025. As a result, the Department is providing the public with the opportunity to comment under the full comment period. Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before June 9, 2025.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Carolyn Rose, (202) 453-5967.
The Department, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. The Department is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Section 493C of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (the HEA), authorizes the Income-Based Repayment (IBR) Plan for borrowers who obtain student loans through the Federal Family Education Loan (FFEL) Program and William D. Ford Federal Direct Loan (Direct Loan) Program. Section 455(d) of the HEA authorizes income-contingent repayment plans for borrowers who obtain student loans through the Direct Loan Program. The regulations that govern the IBR plan are in 34 CFR 682.215 and 685.221. The regulations that govern the income-contingent repayment plans are in 34 CFR 685.209. There are two income-contingent repayment plans: the Pay As You Earn (PAYE) Plan, and the Income-Contingent Repayment (ICR) Plan. These plans are collectively referred to as Income Driven Repayment (IDR) plans. In 2021, the Secretary initiated a negotiated rulemaking process to create a new IDR plan. As a result of these negotiations, a final Rule was published July 10, 2023, introducing the Saving on an Affordable Education (SAVE) Plan as a replacement for the REPAYE Plan and making additional changes to all IDR plans to make them more consistent. An injunction was initially filed on August 9, that prevented the implementation of the provisions specific to the SAVE Plan and on February 18, 2025, the injunction was expanded to enjoin the entirety of the Final Rule that went into effect July 1, 2024, which included provisions that had already been implemented related to the other IDR plans.
Under the statute, a borrower who wishes to repay under an Income Contingent or Income Based repayment plan must annually provide their Adjusted Gross Income (AGI) reported to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS). A borrower must also annually certify their family size.
If a borrower's AGI is not available, or if the borrower believes that their current AGI does not reasonably reflect their current income, regulations allow that they may provide alternative documentation of income for purposes of determining whether they (1) qualify for the repayment plan requested, (2) qualify to continue making income-driven payments, and (3) calculate their monthly payment amount.
The Department is updating the IDR Request Form that is used by a borrower to enroll, recertify, or change their IDR plan to support the provisions identified by the court injunction issued February 18, 2025. Specifically, the form is being updated to remove the SAVE plan as an option for borrowers to select and remove the other early-implemented components of the Final Rule that apply to the other IDR plans (
Office of Environmental Management, Department of Energy.
Notice of open meeting.
This notice announces an in-person/virtual meeting of the Environmental Management Site-Specific Advisory Board (EM SSAB), Hanford. The Federal Advisory Committee Act requires that public notice of this meeting be announced in the
Wednesday, May 7, 2025; 8:15 a.m.-4:30 p.m. PDT.
The Holiday Inn on the River, 802 George Washington Way, Richland, Washington 99352. This hybrid meeting will be held in-person at the Holiday Inn on the River and virtually. To receive the virtual access information, please contact the Deputy Designated Federal Officer, Jennifer Colborn, at the telephone number or email listed below at least two days prior to the meeting.
Jennifer Colborn, Deputy Designated Federal Officer, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Environmental Management; Phone: (509) 376-5840; or Email:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Comment Date: 5 p.m. ET 4/23/25.
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric securities filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
a.
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e.
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k. With this notice, we are soliciting comments on the pre-filing materials listed in paragraph j above, including the draft license application and monitoring plans. All comments should be sent to the address above in paragraph h. In addition, all comments must be filed with the Commission. The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments using the Commission's eFiling system at
l. With this notice, we are approving ORPC's request to be designated as the non-federal representative for section 7 of the ESA and its request to initiate consultation under section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act; and recommending that it begin informal consultation with: (a) the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and NOAA Fisheries as required by section 7 of ESA; and (b) the Alaska State Historic Preservation Officer, as required by section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, and the implementing regulations of the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation at 36 CFR 800.2.
m. With this notice, we also are asking federal, state, local, and tribal agencies with jurisdiction and/or expertise with respect to environmental issues to cooperate with us in the preparation of the environmental document. Agencies who would like to request cooperating status should follow the instructions for filing comments described in paragraph “k” above.
n. This notice does not constitute the Commission's approval of ORPC's request to use the Pilot Project Licensing Procedures. Upon its review of the project's overall characteristics relative to the pilot project criteria, the draft license application contents, and any comments filed, the Commission will determine whether there is adequate information to conclude the pre-filing process.
o.
p. A copy of the draft license application and all pre-filing materials are available for review on the Commission's website (
q. Pre-filing Process Schedule. The pre-filing process will be conducted pursuant to the following tentative schedule. Revisions to the schedule below may be made based on staff's review of the draft application and any comments received.
The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure provide that if a filing deadline falls on a Saturday, Sunday, holiday, or other day when the Commission is closed for business, the filing deadline does not end until the close of business on the next business day. 18 CFR 385.2007(a)(2).
r. Register online at
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595, or at
Take notice that during the month of March 2025, the status of the above-captioned entities as Exempt Wholesale Generators became effective by operation of the Commission's regulations. 18 CFR 366.7(a) (2024).
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
k.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, motions to intervene, and protests using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person whose name appears on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must
l.
m.
n. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
o.
p.
q. The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, Tribal members, and others access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
k.
l.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, motions to intervene, and protests using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person whose name appears on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
m.
n.
o. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
p.
q.
r. The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, Tribal members, and others access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
Take notice that on March 28, 2025, Sabal Trail Transmission, LLC (Sabal Trail) requested that the Commission grant an extension of time, until May 1, 2027, to construct and place into service Phase III of its Sabal Trail Project (Project) located in Dougherty County, Georgia and Suwannee County, Florida, as authorized in the Order Issuing Certificates and Approving Abandonment (Order).
On June 15, 2021, the Commission granted Sabal Trail an extension of time, until May 1, 2023, to complete construction of Phase III of the Project and make it available for service.
Sabal Trail states that it has constructed and placed into service the first two phases of the Project, comprising 999,000 dekatherms per day (Dth/d) of capacity, and that over 94 percent of pipeline capacity has been subscribed under long-term firm contracts. The remaining construction, Phase III of the Project, involves the installation of two compressor units, one each at two existing compressor stations, both of which are located at
This notice establishes a 15-calendar day intervention and comment period deadline. Any person wishing to comment on Sabal Trail's request for an extension of time may do so. No reply comments or answers will be considered. If you wish to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this request, you should, on or before the comment date stated below, file a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA) (18 CFR 157.10).
As a matter of practice, the Commission itself generally acts on requests for extensions of time to complete construction for NGA facilities when such requests are contested before order issuance. For those extension requests that are contested,
In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments in lieu of paper using the “eFile” link at
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
Thirty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 the U.S. Coast Guard is forwarding an Information Collection Request (ICR), abstracted below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting an extension of its approval for the following collection of information: 1625-0029, Self-propelled Liquefied Gas Vessels; without change. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Review and comments by OIRA ensure we only impose paperwork burdens commensurate with our performance of duties.
You may submit comments to the Coast Guard and OIRA on or before May 8, 2025.
Comments to the Coast Guard should be submitted using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the internet at
A.L. Craig, Office of Privacy Management, telephone 202-475-3528, fax 202-372-8405, or email
This notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. 3501
The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) the practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. These comments will help OIRA determine whether to approve the ICR referred to in this Notice.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments to Coast Guard or OIRA must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR. They must also contain the docket number of this request, USCG-2024-0436, and must be received by May 8, 2025.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. Comments we post to
This request provides a 30-day comment period required by OIRA. The Coast Guard published the 60-day notice (89 FR 86832, October 31, 2024) required by 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2). That notice elicited no comments. Accordingly, no changes have been made to the Collection.
Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.
Sixty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the U.S. Coast Guard intends to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting an extension of its approval for the following collection of information: 1625-0094, Ships Carrying Bulk Hazardous Liquids; without change. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Before submitting this ICR to OIRA, the Coast Guard is inviting comments as described below.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard on or before June 9, 2025.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2025-0092] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the internet at
A.L. Craig, Office of Privacy Management, telephone 202-475-3528, fax 202-372-8405, or email
This notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. 3501
The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) the practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
In response to your comments, we may revise this ICR or decide not to seek an extension of approval for the Collection. We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR and the docket number of this request, USCG-2025-0092, and must be received by June 9, 2025.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. Comments we post to
• CG-4602B, Cargo Record Book.
• CG-5148, International Certificate of Fitness for the Carriage of Liquefied Gases in Bulk.
• CG-5148A, Certificate of Fitness for the Carriage of Dangerous Chemicals in Bulk.
• CG-5148B, Certificate of Fitness for the Carriage of Dangerous Chemicals in Bulk.
• CG-5148C, Certificate of Fitness.
• CG-5461, International Pollution Prevention Certificate for the Carriage of Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk.
Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.
Thirty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 the U.S. Coast Guard is forwarding an Information Collection Request (ICR), abstracted below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting an extension of its approval for the following collection of information: 1625-0014, Request for Designation and Exemption of Oceanographic Research Vessels; without change. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Review and comments by OIRA ensure we only impose paperwork burdens commensurate with our performance of duties.
You may submit comments to the Coast Guard and OIRA on or before May 8, 2025.
Comments to the Coast Guard should be submitted using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the internet at
A.L. Craig, Office of Privacy Management, telephone 202-475-3528, fax 202-372-8405, or email
This notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. 3501
The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) the practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. These comments will help OIRA determine whether to approve the ICR referred to in this Notice.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments to Coast Guard or OIRA must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR. They must also contain the docket number of this request, USCG-2024-0785, and must be received by May 8, 2025.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. Comments we post to
This request provides a 30-day comment period required by OIRA. The Coast Guard published the 60-day notice (89 FR 82249, October 10, 2024) required by 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2). That notice elicited no comments. Accordingly, no changes have been made to the Collection.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Sixty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the U.S. Coast Guard intends to submit an
Comments must reach the Coast Guard on or before June 9, 2025.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2025-0043] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the internet at
A.L. Craig, Office of Privacy Management, telephone 202-475-3528, fax 202-372-8405, or email
This notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. 3501
The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) the practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
In response to your comments, we may revise this ICR or decide not to seek an extension of approval for the Collection. We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period.
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR and the docket number of this request, USCG-2025-0043, and must be received by June 9, 2025.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. Comments we post to
Office of the Secretary, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of determination.
The Secretary of Homeland Security has determined, pursuant to law, that it is necessary to waive certain laws, regulations, and other legal requirements in order to ensure the expeditious construction of barriers and roads in the vicinity of the international land border in the state of California.
This determination takes effect on April 8, 2025.
Important mission requirements of the Department of Homeland Security (“DHS”) include border security and the detection and prevention of illegal entry into the United States. Border security is critical to the nation's national security. Recognizing the critical importance of border security, Congress has mandated DHS to achieve and maintain operational control of the international land border. Secure Fence Act of 2006, Public Law 109-367, section 2, 120 Stat. 2638 (Oct. 26, 2006) (8 U.S.C. 1701 note). Congress defined “operational control” as the prevention of all unlawful entries into the United States, including entries by terrorists, other
Congress has provided to the Secretary of Homeland Security a number of authorities necessary to carry out DHS's border security mission. One of those authorities is found at section 102 of the Illegal Immigration Reform and Immigrant Responsibility Act of 1996, as amended (“IIRIRA”). Public Law 104-208, Div. C, 110 Stat. 3009-546, 3009-554 (Sept. 30, 1996) (8 U.S.C. 1103 note), as amended by the REAL ID Act of 2005, Public Law 109-13, Div. B, 119 Stat. 231, 302, 306 (May 11, 2005) (8 U.S.C. 1103 note), as amended by the Secure Fence Act of 2006, Public Law 109-367, section 3, 120 Stat. 2638 (Oct. 26, 2006) (8 U.S.C. 1103 note), as amended by the Department of Homeland Security Appropriations Act, 2008, Public Law 110-161, Div. E, Title V, section 564, 121 Stat. 2090 (Dec. 26, 2007). In section 102(a) of IIRIRA, Congress provided that the Secretary of Homeland Security shall take such actions as may be necessary to install additional physical barriers and roads (including the removal of obstacles to detection of illegal entrants) in the vicinity of the United States border to deter illegal crossings in areas of high illegal entry into the United States. In section 102(b) of IIRIRA, Congress mandated the installation of additional fencing, barriers, roads, lighting, cameras, and sensors on the southwest border. Finally, in section 102(c) of IIRIRA, Congress granted to the Secretary of Homeland Security the authority to waive all legal requirements that I, in my sole discretion, determine necessary to ensure the expeditious construction of barriers and roads authorized by section 102 of IIRIRA.
The United States Border Patrol San Diego Sector is an area of high illegal entry. In fiscal year 2024, the United States Border Patrol (“Border Patrol”) apprehended over 324,000 illegal aliens attempting to enter the United States between border crossings in the San Diego Sector. In that same time period, Border Patrol seized over 120 pounds of marijuana, 2,860 pounds of cocaine, over 60 pounds of heroin, over 4,270 pounds of methamphetamine, and over 780 pounds of fentanyl.
Owing to the high levels of illegal entry within the San Diego Sector, I must use my authority under section 102 of IIRIRA to install additional barriers and roads in the San Diego Sector. Therefore, DHS will take immediate action to construct additional barriers and roads in segments of the border in the San Diego Sector. The segments where such construction will occur are referred to herein as the “project area,” which is more specifically described in Section 2 below.
I determine that the following area in the vicinity of the United States border, located in the State of California within the U.S. Border Patrol San Diego Sector, is an area of high illegal entry (the “project area”):
• Starting approximately four-tenths (0.40) of a mile west of Border Monument 256 and extending approximately two-tenths (0.20) of a mile east;
• Starting at Border Monument 252 and extending east along the border to approximately one and three-quarter (1.75) miles east of Border Monument 251; and
• Starting at Border Monument 235 and extending east for approximately five (5) miles.
There is presently an acute and immediate need to construct additional physical barriers and roads in the vicinity of the border of the United States in order to prevent unlawful entries into the United States in the project area pursuant to section 102(a) of IIRIRA. In order to ensure the expeditious construction of additional physical barriers and roads in the project area, I have determined that it is necessary that I exercise the authority that is vested in me by section 102(c) of IIRIRA.
Accordingly, pursuant to section 102(c) of IIRIRA, I hereby waive in their entirety, with respect to the construction of physical barriers and roads (including, but not limited to, accessing the project areas, creating and using staging areas, the conduct of earthwork, excavation, fill, and site preparation, drainage and erosions control, and installation and upkeep of physical barriers and roads) in the project area, all of the following statutes, including all federal, state, or other laws, regulations, and legal requirements of, deriving from, or related to the subject of, the following statutes, as amended: The National Environmental Policy Act (Pub. L. 91-190, 83 Stat. 852 (Jan. 1, 1970) (42 U.S.C. 4321
This waiver does not revoke or supersede any other waiver determination made pursuant to section 102(c) of IIRIRA. Such waivers shall remain in full force and effect in accordance with their terms. I reserve the authority to execute further waivers from time to time as I may determine to be necessary under section 102 of IIRIRA.
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice of public meeting.
The Bureau of Indian Education (BIE) is announcing that the Advisory Board for Exceptional Children (Advisory Board) will hold a two-day in-person and online meeting. The purpose of the meeting is to meet the mandates of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act of 2004 (IDEA) for Indian children with disabilities.
The Advisory Board meeting will be held Thursday, April 24, 2025, from 8 a.m. to 4 p.m., mountain daylight time (MDT) and Friday, April 25, 2025, from 8 a.m. to 4 p.m., MDT.
The onsite meeting location will be held at the National Indian Programs Training Center (NIPTC), 1011 Indian School Rd., Room 234, Albuquerque, NM 87104. To attend virtually, participants may use this link to register:
Jennifer Davis, Designated Federal Officer, Bureau of Indian Education, 2600 N Central Ave., 12th Floor, Suite 250, Phoenix, AZ 85004,
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. 10), the BIE is announcing the Advisory Board will hold its next meeting in-person and online. The Advisory Board was established under the Individuals with Disabilities Act of 2004 (20 U.S.C. 1400
The following agenda items will be for the April 24-25, 2025, meeting.
• BIE Central Office—Updates and Changes.
• The BIE's Special Education Program Updates.
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• Public Comment Sessions will be opened any time throughout both meeting days to encourage public input.
○ Public comments can be provided verbally via webinar or in writing using the chat box.
○ Public comments can also be emailed to the DFO at
Bureau of Reclamation, Interior.
Notice of contract actions.
Notice is hereby given of contractual actions that have been proposed to the Bureau of Reclamation (Reclamation) and are new, discontinued, or completed since the last publication of this notice. This notice is one of a variety of means used to inform the public about proposed contractual actions for capital recovery and management of project resources and facilities consistent with section 9(f) of the Reclamation Project Act of 1939. Additional announcements of individual contract actions may be published in the
The identity of the approving officer and other information pertaining to a specific contract proposal may be obtained by calling or writing the appropriate regional office at the address and telephone number given
Morgan Raymond, Reclamation Law Administration Division, Bureau of Reclamation, P.O. Box 25007, Denver, Colorado 80225-0007;
Consistent with section 9(f) of the Reclamation Project Act of 1939 and the regulations at 43 CFR 426.22, Reclamation publishes notice of proposed or amendatory contract actions for any contract for the delivery of project water for authorized uses. Notices are published in newspapers of general circulation in the affected area at least 60 days prior to contract execution. Announcements may be in the form of news releases, legal notices, official letters, memorandums, or other forms of written material. Meetings, workshops, and/or hearings may also be used, as appropriate, to provide local publicity.
The public participation procedures do not apply to proposed contracts for the sale of surplus or interim irrigation water for a term of 1 year or less. Either of the contracting parties may invite the public to observe contract proceedings. All public participation procedures will be coordinated with those involved in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act.
Pursuant to the “Final Revised Public Participation Procedures” for water resource-related contract negotiations, published in 47 FR 7763, February 22, 1982, a tabulation is provided of all proposed contractual actions in each of the five Reclamation regions. When contract negotiations are completed, and prior to execution, each proposed contract form must be approved by the Secretary of the Interior, or pursuant to delegated or redelegated authority, the Commissioner of Reclamation or one of the regional directors. In some instances, congressional review and approval of a report, water rate, or other terms and conditions of the contract may be involved.
Public participation in and receipt of comments on contract proposals will be facilitated by adherence to the following procedures:
1. Only persons authorized to act on behalf of the contracting entities may negotiate the terms and conditions of a specific contract proposal.
2. Advance notice of meetings or hearings will be furnished to those parties that have made a timely written request for such notice to the appropriate regional or project office of Reclamation.
3. Written correspondence regarding proposed contracts may be made available to the general public pursuant to the terms and procedures of the Freedom of Information Act, as amended.
4. Written comments on a proposed contract or contract action must be submitted to the appropriate regional officials at the locations and within the time limits set forth in the advance public notices.
5. All written comments received and testimony presented at any public hearings will be reviewed and summarized by the appropriate regional office for use by the contract approving authority.
6. Copies of specific proposed contracts may be obtained from the appropriate regional director or his or her designated public contact as they become available for review and comment.
7. In the event modifications are made in the form of a proposed contract, the appropriate regional director shall determine whether republication of the notice and/or extension of the comment period is necessary.
Factors considered in making such a determination shall include, but are not limited to, (i) the significance of the modification, and (ii) the degree of public interest which has been expressed over the course of the negotiations. At a minimum, the regional director will furnish revised contracts to all parties who requested the contract in response to the initial public notice.
1. Irrigation, M&I, and miscellaneous water users, Colorado, Kansas, Montana, Nebraska, North Dakota, Oklahoma, South Dakota, Texas, and Wyoming: Water service contracts for the sale, conveyance, storage, and exchange of surplus project water and non-project water for irrigation or M&I use to provide up to 10,000 acre-feet of water annually for a term of up to 1 year, or up to 1,000 acre-feet of water annually for a term of up to 40 years.
2. Water user entities responsible for payment of O&M costs for Reclamation projects in Colorado, Kansas, Montana, Nebraska, North Dakota, Oklahoma, South Dakota, Texas, and Wyoming: Contracts for XM funded pursuant to title IX, subtitle G of Public Law 111-11.
3. Green Mountain Reservoir, Colorado-Big Thompson Project, Colorado: Water service contracts for irrigation and M&I; contracts for the sale of water from the marketable yield to water users within the Colorado River Basin of western Colorado.
4. Fryingpan-Arkansas Project, Colorado: Consideration of excess capacity contracting.
5. Colorado-Big Thompson Project, Colorado: Consideration of excess capacity contracting.
6. Milk River Project, Montana: Proposed amendments to contracts to reflect current landownership.
7. Title transfer agreements; Colorado, Kansas, Montana, Nebraska, North Dakota, Oklahoma, South Dakota, Texas, and Wyoming: Potential title transfer agreements pursuant to the John D. Dingell, Jr. Conservation, Management, and Recreation Act of March 12, 2019 (Pub. L. 116-9).
8. Water user entities responsible for payment of reimbursable costs for Reclamation projects in Colorado, Kansas, Montana, Nebraska, North Dakota, Oklahoma, South Dakota, Texas, and Wyoming: Contracts to be executed pursuant to title IX of the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act of November 15, 2021 (Pub. L. 117-58) and/or contracts for XM pursuant to title IX,
9. Garrison Diversion Conservancy District, Garrison Diversion Unit, P-SMBP, North Dakota: Intent to modify long-term water service contract to add irrigated acres.
10. Pitkin County and City of Aurora, Ruedi Reservoir, Fryingpan-Arkansas Project, Colorado: Consideration of excess capacity contract at Ruedi Reservoir.
11. Lugert-Altus ID, W.C. Austin Project, Oklahoma: Consideration for amendment to contract No. Ilr-1375.
12. City of Casper, Kendrick Project, Wyoming: Consideration for renewal of long-term water service contract No. 2-07-70-W0534.
13. Arkansas Valley Conduit, Fryingpan-Arkansas Project, Colorado: Consideration of a repayment contract.
14. 71 Ranch, L.P., Canyon Ferry Unit, P-SMBP, Montana: Consideration for a new long-term contract for an irrigation water supply.
15. Board of Water Works of Pueblo, Fryingpan-Arkansas Project, Colorado: Consideration for amendment to assign contract No. 039E6C0117.
16. Frenchman-Cambridge ID, Frenchman-Cambridge Division, P-SMBP, Nebraska: Consideration to amend contract for change to place of use and point of diversion.
17. Greenfields ID, Sun River Project, Montana: Consideration for Lease of Power Privilege for Pishkun Inlet and additional sites.
18. White Rock Oil & Gas, Lower Yellowstone Project, Montana: Consideration of an excess capacity contract for conveyance of an M&I water supply.
19. Gray Goose ID, Gray Goose Project, P-SMBP, South Dakota: Consideration for amendment to contract No. 0-07-60-W0563 for inclusion of lands.
20. Hillcrest Colony, Inc., Canyon Ferry Unit, P-SMBP, Montana: Consideration for renewal of long-term water service contract No. 149E670110.
21. Pueblo West Metro District, Fryingpan-Arkansas Project, Colorado: Consideration for renewal of long-term water service contract No. 4-07-70-W0692.
22. Crow Creek Sioux Tribe, Crow Creek Irrigation Project, P-SMBP, North Dakota: Consideration for renewal of contract for project use power.
23. City of Dickinson, North Dakota Dickinson Unit, P-SMBP, Eastern Division, North Dakota: Consideration for long-term M&I water service contract.
24. Town of Kirby, Boysen Unit, P-SMBP, Wyoming: Consideration for renewal of long-term water service contract No. 5-07-60-WS173.
25. Central Oklahoma Master Conservancy District, Norman Project, Oklahoma: Consideration for renewal for water service contract No. 219E640007.
26. Black Canyon Hydro, Kendrick Project, Glendo Unit, P-SMBP, Wyoming: Consideration for long-term water service and excess capacity contract.
27. City of Loveland, Colorado, the Northern Colorado Water Conservancy District, and the City of Loveland Colorado Water Enterprise, Colorado-Big Thompson Project, Colorado: Consideration for renewal of long-term contract for conveyance of non-project M&I water.
28. Southeastern Colorado Water Conservancy District, Fryingpan-Arkansas Project, Colorado: Consideration for renewal of contract 9-07-70-W0315.
29. Fort Clark ID, Fort Clark Unit, P-SMBP, North Dakota: Consideration to renew water service contract 209E630059.
1. (11) Fresno Dam, Milk River Project, Montana: Consideration of contract(s) for repayment of SOD costs.
2. (17) Tintina Montana, Inc., Canyon Ferry Unit, P-SMBP, Montana: Consideration for a long-term contract for an M&I mitigation water supply. Completed on December 11, 2024.
3. (24) Axtell Ranches, LLC, Boysen Unit, Wyoming: Renewal of long-term irrigation water service contract No. 049E6A0013. Completed August 19, 2024.
4. (26) Clyde Little, Boysen Unit, P-SMBP, Wyoming: Consideration for renewal of long-term irrigation water service contract No. 039E6A0093, as amended. Completed on January 6, 2025.
5. (30) Elevation NewCo, LLC, East Bench Unit, Helena-Great Falls Division, P-SMBP, Montana: Name re-assignment of contract No. 119E670012. Completed September 30, 2024.
1. Individual irrigators, M&I, and miscellaneous water users, Initial Units, CRSP, Utah, Wyoming, Colorado, and New Mexico: Temporary (interim) water service contracts for surplus project water for irrigation or M&I use to provide up to 10,000 acre-feet of water annually for terms up to 5 years; long-term contracts for similar service for up to 1,000 acre-feet of water annually.
2. Contracts with various water user entities responsible for payment of O&M costs for Reclamation projects in Arizona, Colorado, New Mexico, Texas, Utah, and Wyoming: Contracts for extraordinary maintenance and replacement funded pursuant to title IX, subtitle G of Public Law 111-11 to be executed as project progresses.
3. Middle Rio Grande Project, New Mexico: Reclamation will continue annual leasing of water from various San Juan-Chama Project contractors in 2024 to stabilize flows in a critical reach of the Rio Grande to meet the needs of irrigators and preserve habitat for the silvery minnow. Reclamation leased approximately 7,308 acre-feet of water from San Juan-Chama Project contractors in 2022.
4. South Cache Water Users Association, Hyrum Project, Utah: Reclamation intends to enter into a repayment contract with the South Cache Water Users Association under the Safety of Dams Act for the reimbursable portion of the costs to repair the spillway at Hyrum Dam.
5. Strawberry Valley Project, Utah: The water users on the Strawberry Valley Project have requested to enter into a conversion contract with Reclamation under the Sale of Water for Miscellaneous Purposes Act to convert the project irrigation water to miscellaneous purposes.
6. Seedskadee Project, Wyoming: The Wyoming Water Development Commission (WWDC) desires to enter into a contract with Reclamation to acquire the use of the remaining water in Fontenelle Reservoir under Section 9 of the Reclamation Project Act of 1939. The WWDC also desires to enter into an exchange contract with Reclamation under Section 14 of the Reclamation Projects Act of 1939.
7. Uncompahgre Project, Colorado River Storage Project, Colorado: The Uncompahgre Valley Water Users Association desires to enter into a renewal contract with Reclamation under Section 14 of the Reclamation Project Act of 1939 to exchange water between Taylor Park Reservoir and Blue Mesa Reservoir.
8. Navajo Gallup Project, Arizona: The Navajo Nation desires to enter into a contract with Reclamation under the Contributed Funds Act of 1922 to provide funding to increase the size of certain laterals on the Navajo Gallup Project.
9. Middle Rio Grand Project, New Mexico: The Bureau of Reclamation desires to store native Rio Grande system water and San Juan Chama Project water in Abiquiu Reservoir under existing O&M authorities. This is a five-year agreement with options to extend the terms, if needed.
10. Carlsbad Project, New Mexico: Reclamation is working with the Carlsbad Irrigation District to generate a new or replacement contract which will be compliant with the Federal Acquisition Regulations for the payment of OM&R expenses.
11. Washington County Water Conservancy District, Utah: The District desires to enter into contract with Reclamation to construct, operate and maintain the Regional Reuse Purification System under title XVI of the Reclamation Projects Authorization and Adjustment Act of 1992 (Pub. L. 102-575).
12. Southern Ute Tribe, Animas-La Plata Project, Colorado: Southern Ute Tribe has requested an amendment to its 2016 repayment contract for 38,105 acre-feet of M&I water; contract terms to be consistent with the Colorado Ute Settlement Act Amendments of 2000 (title III of Pub. L. 106-554).
1. (5) Pojoaque Valley ID, San Juan-Chama Project, New Mexico: Amendment to the repayment contract to reflect the changed allocations of the Aamodt Litigation Settlement Act (title VI of the Claims Resolution Act of 2010, Pub. L. 111-291, December 8, 2010, and Article 7 of the Settlement Agreement dated April 19, 2012). Completed May 23, 2023.
2. (12) Navajo-Gallup Water Supply Project, New Mexico: Negotiations for an OM&R transfer contract with the Navajo Tribal Utility Authority pursuant to Public Law 111-11, Section 10602(f) which transfers responsibilities to carry out the OM&R of transferred works of the Project; ensures the continuation of the intended benefits of the Project; distribution of water; and sets forth the allocation and payment of annual OM&R costs of the Project. Completed June 30, 2022.
3. (24) Public Service Company of New Mexico, Navajo-Gallup Water Supply Project, New Mexico: Negotiations for a carriage contract with Public Service Company of New Mexico pursuant to Public Law 111-11, Section 10602(h), which provides conveyance and storage of non-project water through Project facilities and sets forth payment of OM&R costs assignable to the Company for the use of Project facilities. Completed November 7, 2023.
4. (27) Jicarilla Apache Nation, Navajo Project, New Mexico: Water service agreement between the Jicarilla Apache Nation and SIMCOE for delivery of 1,500 acre-feet of M&I water from the Jicarilla's Settlement Water from the Navajo Reservoir Supply. This agreement has a term through December 31, 2026. Completed April 25, 2023.
5. (28) San Juan Water Commission, Public Service Company of New Mexico, and the La Plata Conservancy District, Animas-La Plata Project, New Mexico: Contract for the delivery of 500 acre-feet of M&I water from the Navajo Reservoir supply as supplemented via exchange of Animas-La Plata Project water at the confluence of the San Juan and Animas Rivers. This agreement has a term through December 31, 2032. Completed November 9, 2023.
6. (37) Los Ranchitos Estates, Florida Project, Colorado: Long-term water service contract (25 years) to augment depletions from residential water uses within the subdivision. The contract is for 36 acre-feet of water annually. Completed August 9, 2023.
7. (38) Forrest Groves Estates, Florida Project, Colorado: Long-term water service contract (25 years) to augment depletions from residential water uses within the subdivision. The contract is for 43 acre-feet of water annually. Completed August 9, 2023.
8. (39) Country Aire Estates, Florida Project, Colorado: Long-term water service contract (25 years) to augment depletions from residential water uses within the subdivision. The contract is for 7 acre-feet of water annually. Completed August 9, 2023.
9. (40) Ute Mountain Ute Tribe, Animas-La Plata Project, Colorado: Ute Mountain Ute Tribe has requested a water delivery contract for 16,525 acre-feet of M&I water; contract terms to be consistent with the Colorado Ute Settlement Act Amendments of 2000 (title III of Pub. L. 106-554).
1. (20) Moon Lake Water Users Association, Moon Lake Project, Utah: The Association was interested in installing a small hydro-electric generation plant on the outlet works of Moon Lake Dam.
2. (22). Eden Valley IDD, Eden Project, Wyoming: The Eden Valley IDD proposed to raise the level of Big Sandy Dam to fully perfect its water rights.
3. (25) Enchant Energy Corporation, Navajo-Gallup Water Supply Project, New Mexico (Project): Negotiations for a carriage contract with Enchant Energy Corporation pursuant to Public Law 111-11, Section 10602(h) which provides conveyance and storage of non-project water through Project facilities and sets forth payment of OM&R costs assignable to Enchant Energy for the use of Project facilities.
4. (34) D. E. Shaw Renewable Investments, Navajo-Gallup Water Supply Project, New Mexico: Reclamation received a request for negotiations for a carriage contract with Shaw pursuant to Public Law 111-11, Section 10602(h) which provides conveyance and storage of non-project water through project facilities and sets forth payment of OM&R costs assignable to the Shaw for the use of project facilities.
5. (41) Weber Basin Water Conservancy District, Weber Basin Project, Utah: Contract for the use of return flows from the Weber Basin Project.
6. (42) Albuquerque Bernalillo County Water Utility Authority, San Juan-Chama Project, New Mexico: A two-year extension letter for temporary water storage contract No. 21-WC-40-912 is discontinued.
7. (43) Middle Rio Grande Conservancy District, Middle Rio Grande Project—El Vado, New Mexico: Negotiations for a 20-year repayment contract for XM work on the El Vado Stilling Basin at El Vado Dam. Funding is provided under Section 40901(2) of the Bipartisan Infrastructure Law of 2021 (Pub. L. 117-58, 135 Stat.429, 43 U.S.C. 3201). This contract has been put on hold.
1. Milton and Jean Phillips, BCP, Arizona: Develop a Colorado River water delivery contract for 60 acre-feet of Colorado River water per year, as recommended by the Arizona Department of Water Resources.
2. Ogram Boys Enterprises, Inc., BCP, Arizona: Revise Exhibit A of the contract to change the contract service area and points of diversion and delivery.
3. Gold Dome Mining Corporation and Wellton-Mohawk IDD, Gila Project, Arizona: Terminate contract No. 0-07-30-W0250 pursuant to Articles 11(d) and 11(e).
4. Estates of Anna R. Roy and Edward P. Roy, Gila Project, Arizona: Terminate contract No. 6-07-30-W0124 pursuant to Article 9(c).
5. Desert Lawn Memorial Park Association, Inc., Yuma Auxiliary Project, Arizona: Review of terms of contract No. 14-06-300-2587.
6. Armon Curtis, BCP, Arizona: Amendment and partial assignment of
7. Gary and Barbara Pasquinelli and Pasquinelli, Gary J Trust/90, BCP, Arizona: Amendment and assignment of the water delivery contract for transfer of ownership to Pasquinelli, Gary J Trust/90.
8. Present Perfected Right 30, BCP, California: Offer contracts for delivery of Colorado River water to holders of miscellaneous Present Perfected Rights as described in the 2006 Consolidated Decree in
9. Mohave Water Conservation District and Bullhead City, Arizona; BCP; Arizona: Enter into a proposed contract No. 9-07-30-W0012, assignment of Arizona fourth-priority Colorado River water entitlement of 1,800 acre-feet per year from the District to Bullhead City and amend Bullhead City's Colorado River water delivery contract No. 2-07-30-W0273 to increase its Colorado River water entitlement from 15,210 to 17,010 acre-feet per year and increase the Bullhead City contract service area to include the District's land that previously received Colorado River water pursuant to contract No. 9-07-30-W0012.
10. Gila Monster Farms Partnership, LLC, BCP, Arizona: Proposed partial assignment of contract No. 6-07-30-W0337 providing for the transfer of ownership of 480 acres within the contract service area to Tama Land Pacific, LLC, and transfer of associated Colorado River water in the appropriate quantity and priority associated with the land purchased. Amend Gila Monster Farms Partnership, LLC Colorado River water delivery contract No. 6-07-30-W0337 to decrease its Colorado River water entitlement commensurate with the partial assignment.
11. Milton and Jean Phillips, BCP, Arizona: Develop a Colorado River water delivery contract for 42 acre-feet of Colorado River water per year, in accordance with Present Perfected Right No. 19 as described in the 2006 Consolidated Decree in
12. Water user entities responsible for payment of reimbursable costs for Reclamation projects in Arizona and California: Contracts to be executed pursuant to title IX of the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act of November 15, 2021 (Pub. L. 117-58), and/or contracts for XM pursuant to title IX, subtitle G of Omnibus Public Land Management Act of March 30, 2009 (Pub. L. 111-11). For more information, please see the Reclamation press release at
13. Yuma ID, Gila Project, Arizona: Potential title transfer of an office building and land to the District pursuant to the John D. Dingell, Jr. Conservation, Management, and Recreation Act of March 12, 2019 (Pub. L. 116-9).
14. Kaman, Inc., Yuma Mesa Division, Gila Project, Arizona: Terminate contract No. 14-06-303-1555 pursuant to Article 13.
15. Cibola Sportsman's Club, BCP, Arizona: Realignment of Cibola Sportsman's Club's contract service area under Colorado River water delivery contract No. 21-XX-30-W0717 to include La Paz County Assessor Parcel No. 301-08-009A and exclude this parcel of land from Cibola Valley IDD's contract service area under contract No. 2-07-30-W0028, as amended.
16. Arizona State Land Department, City of Phoenix, Central Arizona Water Conservation District, CAP, Arizona: Proposed transfer of 3,900 acre-feet per year of CAP M&I water under Arizona State Land Department's subcontract No. 07-XX-30-W0503 to the City of Phoenix.
17. Circle City Water Company, LLC, City of Surprise, Central Arizona Water Conservation District, CAP, Arizona: Proposed transfer of 3,932 acre-feet per year of CAP M&I water to Surprise resulting in termination of Circle City's subcontract No. 07-XX-30-W0463 and increasing the water entitlement under Surprise's subcontract No. 07-XX-30-W0505 to 14,181 acre-feet per year of CAP M&I water.
1. (5) ChaCha, LLC, BCP, Arizona: Assignment of the water delivery contract for transfer of ownership of the land within ChaCha LLC's contract service area. Completed on August 26, 2024.
2. (16) GM Gabrych Family Limited Partnership, BCP, Arizona: Proposed assignment of Colorado River water delivery contract No. 17-XX-30-W0628 providing for 4,500 acre-feet of Arizona fourth-priority water for irrigation use and proposed assignment of system conservation implementation agreement No. 23-XX-30-W0774 that provides the terms and conditions for creating system conservation water in calendar years 2023, 2024, and 2025 to Matador Farms, LLC. Completed on October 21, 2024.
3. (17) Department of Defense and Department of the Navy, BCP, Arizona: Terminated interagency agreement No. 6-07-30-W0351 pursuant to Article 4. Contract terminated on September 18, 2024.
4. (24) New Magma IDD and the Tohono O'odham Nation, CAP, Arizona: Agreement for the delivery of the Tohono O'odham Nation's CAP water for water storage at a ground water savings facility, dated January 1, 2023. Contract approved on October 7, 2024.
5. (25) Queen Creek ID and the Tohono O'odham Nation, CAP, Arizona: Approval of agreement for the delivery of the Tohono O'odham Nation's CAP water for water storage at a ground water savings facility, dated August 16, 2024. Contract approved on November 20, 2024.
6. (26) San Carlos Apache Tribe and the Pascua Yaqui Tribe, CAP, Arizona: CAP water lease for calendar year 2024. Completed on September 20, 2024.
7. (22) Ak-Chin Indian Community and Del Webb Corporation, CAP, Arizona: Proposed approval of first amendment to the supplement and restated option and lease agreement. Completed on December 20, 2024.
8. (23) Ak-Chin Indian Community, Del Webb Corporation, Anthem Arizona, LLC, and EPCOR Water Arizona Inc., CAP, Arizona: Proposed approval of fifth amendment to the agreement for Anthem Water/Wastewater Infrastructure. Completed on December 20, 2024.
1. Irrigation, M&I, and Miscellaneous Water Users, Idaho, Oregon, Washington, Montana, and Wyoming: Temporary or interim irrigation and M&I water service, water storage, water right settlement, exchange, miscellaneous use, or water replacement contracts to provide up to 10,000 acre-feet of water annually for terms up to 5 years; long-term contracts for similar service for up to 1,000 acre-feet of water annually.
2. Rogue River Basin Water Users, Rogue River Basin Project, Oregon: Water service contracts; $8 per acre-foot per annum.
3. Willamette Basin Water Users, Willamette Basin Project, Oregon: Water service contracts; $8 per acre-foot per annum.
4. Pioneer Ditch Company, Boise Project Idaho; Clark and Edwards Canal and Irrigation Company, Enterprise Canal Company, Ltd., Lenroot Canal Company, Liberty Park Canal Company, Poplar ID, all in the Minidoka Project, Idaho; and Juniper Flat District Improvement Company, Wapinitia Project, Oregon; Whitestone Reclamation District, Chief Joseph Project, Washington: Amendatory
5. Burley and Minidoka IDs, Minidoka Project, Idaho: Supplemental and amendatory contracts to transfer the O&M of the Main South Side Canal Headworks to the Burley ID and transfer the O&M of the Main North Side Canal Headworks to the Minidoka ID.
6. Clean Water Services and Tualatin Valley ID, Tualatin Project, Oregon: Long-term water service contract that provides for the District to allow Clean Water Services to beneficially use up to 6,000 acre-feet annually of stored water for water quality improvement.
7. Falls ID, Michaud Flats Project, Idaho: Amendment to contract No. 14-06-100-851 to authorize the district to participate in state water rental pool.
8. Roza ID, Yakima Project, Washington: Contract for use of water in dead space of Kachess Reservoir and construction of a pumping plant.
9. Windy River LLC, Umatilla Project, Oregon: Contract for use of project facilities pursuant to the Warren Act.
10. Water user entities responsible for repayment of reimbursable project construction costs in Idaho, Washington, Oregon, Montana, and Wyoming: Contracts for conversion or prepayment executed pursuant to the WIIN Act.
11. Title Transfer Agreements, Idaho, Washington, Oregon, Montana, and Wyoming: Potential title transfer agreements pursuant to the John D. Dingell, Jr. Conservation, Management, and Recreation Act of March 12, 2019 (Pub. L. 116-9).
12. Irrigation WDs, Idaho, Washington, Oregon, Montana, and Wyoming: Temporary Warren Act contracts for terms of up to 5 years providing for use of excess capacity in Reclamation facilities for annual quantities exceeding 10,000 acre-feet.
13. Idaho, Washington, Oregon, Montana, and Wyoming: Aquifer Recharge Flexibility Act (Pub. L. 116-260) contracts that allow the use of excess capacity in Reclamation facilities for aquifer recharge of non-Reclamation project water.
14. Storage Division, Yakima Project, Washington: Contracts with water user entities for the repayment of reimbursable shares of the costs of the SOD program modification for Kachess Dam.
15. Water user entities responsible for payment of reimbursable costs for Reclamation projects in Idaho, Washington, and parts of Montana, Oregon, and Wyoming: Contracts to be executed pursuant to title IX of the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act of November 15, 2021 (Pub. L. 117-58) and/or contracts for XM pursuant to title IX, subtitle G of Omnibus Public Land Management Act of March 30, 2009 (Pub. L. 111-11). For more information regarding the Bipartisan Infrastructure Law go to
16. Columbia Basin Project Water Users, Columbia Basin Project, Washington: M&I water service contracts, $48 per acre-foot, per annum.
17. North Unit ID, Crooked River Project, Oregon: The Crooked River Collaborative Water Security and Jobs Act of 2014 (Pub. L. 113-244) provides that Reclamation may contract up to 10,000 acre-feet of water annually, on the request of the North Unit ID, from Prineville Reservoir pursuant to temporary water service contracts.
18. Okanogan ID, Okanogan Project, Washington: Contract for the repayment of reimbursable share of the costs of the SOD program modification for Conconully Dam.
19. Tualatin Project Water Users, Tualatin Project, Oregon: Contracts with water user entities for the repayment of reimbursable share of the costs of the SOD program modification for Scoggins Dam.
1. Irrigation WDs, individual irrigators, M&I and miscellaneous water users, California, Nevada, and Oregon: Short-term (up to 5 years) water service contracts for available project water for irrigation, M&I, or fish and wildlife purposes providing up to 10,000 acre-feet of water annually; Warren Act contracts for use of excess capacity in project facilities for quantities that could exceed 10,000 acre-feet annually; and contracts for similar services for up to 1,000 acre-feet annually.
2. State of California, Department of Water Resources, CVP, California: Temporary or short-term conveyance agreements for various purposes.
3. Sutter Extension WD, Delano-Earlimart ID, Pixley ID, the State of California Department of Water Resources, and the State of California Department of Fish and Wildlife, CVP, California: Pursuant to Public Law 102-575, agreements with non-Federal entities for the purpose of providing funding for Central Valley Project Improvement Act refuge water conveyance and/or facilities improvement construction to deliver water for certain Federal wildlife refuges, state wildlife areas, and private wetlands.
4. CVP Service Area, California: Temporary water acquisition agreements for purchase of 5,000 to 200,000 acre-feet of water for fish and wildlife purposes as authorized by Public Law 102-575 for terms of up to 5 years.
5. Horsefly, Klamath, Langell Valley, and Tulelake IDs, Klamath Project, Oregon: Repayment contracts for SOD work on Clear Lake Dam. These districts will share in repayment of costs, and each district will have a separate contract.
6. Irrigation WDs, individual irrigators, M&I and miscellaneous water users, CVP, California: Execution of long-term Warren Act contracts (up to 40 years) with various entities for conveyance of non-project water in the CVP.
7. Tuolumne Utilities District (formerly Tuolumne Regional WD), CVP, California: Long-term water service contract for up to 6,000 acre-feet from New Melones Reservoir, and possibly a long-term contract for storage of non-project water in New Melones Reservoir.
8. Pershing County Water Conservation District, Pershing County, State of Nevada, and Lander County, Humboldt Project, Nevada: Title transfer of lands and features of the Humboldt Project.
9. Irrigation contractors, Klamath Project, Oregon: Amendment of repayment contracts or negotiation of new contracts to allow for recovery of additional capital costs.
10. City of Santa Barbara, Cachuma Project, California: Execution of a long-term Warren Act contract with the City for conveyance of non-project water in Cachuma Project facilities.
11. Westlands WD, CVP, California: Negotiation and execution of a long-term repayment contract to provide reimbursement of costs related to the construction of drainage facilities. This action is to satisfy the Federal government's obligation to provide drainage service to certain lands located within the San Luis Unit of the CVP.
12. Contra Costa WD, CVP, California: Amendment to an existing O&M agreement to transfer O&M of the Contra Costa Rock Slough Fish Screen to the District.
13. Sacramento River Division, CVP, California: Administrative assignments of various Sacramento River Settlement contracts.
14. PacifiCorp, Klamath Project, Oregon and California: Transfer of O&M of Link River Dam and associated facilities. Contract will allow for the continued O&M by PacifiCorp.
15. Tulelake ID, Klamath Project, Oregon and California: Transfer of O&M of Station 48 and gate on Drain No. 1, Lost River Diversion Channel.
16. U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Tulelake ID, Klamath Project, Oregon and California: Water service contract for deliveries to Lower Klamath National Wildlife Refuge, including transfer of O&M responsibilities for the P Canal system.
17. Tulelake ID, Klamath Project, Oregon and California: Amendment of repayment contract to eliminate reimbursement for P Canal O&M costs.
18. State of California, Department of Water Resources, CVP, California: Negotiation of a multi-year long-term wheeling agreements with the State of California, Department of Water Resources providing for the conveyance and delivery of CVP water through the State of California's water project facilities to Byron-Bethany ID (Musco Family Olive Company), Del Puerto WD, and the Department of Veteran Affairs, San Joaquin Valley National Veterans Cemetery.
19. Contra Costa WD, CVP, California: Title transfer of lands and features of the Contra Costa Canal System of the CVP.
20. Title transfer agreements, California, Nevada, and Oregon: Potential title transfers agreements pursuant to the John D. Dingell, Jr. Conservation, Management, and Recreation Act of March 12, 2019 (Pub. L. 116-9).
21. CVP, California: Operational agreements, exchange agreements, and contract amendments with non-Federal project entities as required for Federal participation in non-Federal storage projects pursuant to the WIIN Act.
22. San Luis Canal Company, Central California ID, Firebaugh Canal WD, Columbia Canal Company (collectively San Joaquin River Exchange Contractors), CVP, California: Amend 1968 Second Amended Contract for Exchange of Waters.
23. San Juan WD, CVP, California: Long-term Warren Act contract for up to 25,000 acre-feet annually for conveyance through Folsom Reservoir and associated facilities.
24. Klamath County Drainage Services District, Klamath Project, Oregon: Agreement for interim O&M of the 1-C Canal.
25. Fresno Slough WD, CVP, California: Proposed full assignment of up to 4,000 acre-feet of Fresno Slough WD's CVP supply to Angiola WD.
26. Mercy Springs WD, CVP, California: Proposed partial assignment of up to 1,300 acre-feet of Mercy Springs WD's CVP water supply to Angiola WD.
27. Water user entities responsible for payment of reimbursable costs for Reclamation projects in California, Nevada, and Oregon: Contracts to be executed pursuant to title IX of the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act of November 15, 2021 (Pub. L. 117-58), and/or contracts for XM pursuant to title IX, subtitle G of Omnibus Public Land Management Act of March 30, 2009 (Pub. L. 111-11). For more information regarding the Bipartisan Infrastructure Law go to
28. Cachuma Project, California: Negotiation and execution of a repayment contract with the Cachuma Operation and Maintenance Board for SOD projects.
29. Klamath Project, Oregon: Negotiation and execution of repayment contract for Lost River Improvement Channel Pipe Replacement Project.
30. CVP, California: Negotiation and execution of repayment contract with San Luis and Delta-Mendota Water Authority for procurement and installation of two additional pumps at the Delta-Mendota Canal Intertie.
31. CVP, California: Renewal of Memorandums of Understanding with the United States Fish & Wildlife Service, contracts with California Department of Fish and Wildlife, and a contract with Grasslands Water District for a long term water supply for units of the National Wildlife Refuge System in the Central Valley of California, Gray Lodge, Los Banos, Volta, North Grasslands, and Mendota State Wildlife Areas, and Grasslands Resources Conservation District in the Central Valley of California, respectively.
32. Tri-Valley Water District, CVP, California: Proposed partial assignment of 150 acre-feet of Tri-Valley Water District's CVP water supply to Kaweah Delta Water Conservation District.
33. Irrigation water districts, individual irrigators, M&I and miscellaneous water users, CVP, California: Execution of Temporary water service contracts for surplus water under Section 215 of the Reclamation Reform Act of 1982 with various entities for volumes up to 100,000 acre-feet per year per contract.
34. CVP, California. Administrative assignments of various water service/repayment contracts.
36. Stony Creek Water District, CVP, California: Amendment to the existing repayment contract to modify the ratio between base supply and project water to be consistent with the water rights held by district landowners pursuant to the Angle Decree.
1. (14) Irrigation WDs, individual irrigators and M&I water users, CVP, California: Temporary water service contracts for terms not to exceed 1 year for up to 100,000 acre-feet of surplus supplies of CVP water resulting from an unusually large water supply, not otherwise storable for project purposes, or from infrequent and otherwise unmanaged flood flows of short duration.
2. (20) Placer County Water Agency and East Bay Municipal Utility District, CVP, California: Long-term Warren Act contracts for up to 47,000 acre-feet annually with the Agency for storage and conveyance in Folsom Reservoir and with the District for conveyance through Folsom South Canal.
3. (39) CVP, California: Water service contract for fish & wildlife purposes with Contra Costa Water District and/or Los Vaqueros Reservoir Joint Powers Authority pursuant to title XXXIV of the Act of October 30, 1992 (106 Stat. 4706).
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission (“Commission”) has determined not to review an initial determination (“ID”) (Order No. 10) issued by the presiding administrative law judge (“ALJ”) granting an unopposed motion to amend the complaint and notice of investigation (“NOI”) by terminating a current respondent, Hunan Sijiu Electronic Technology Co. (“HSET”), adding a new respondent, HK Sijiu International Share Co. (“HK Sijiu”), and adding allegations of infringement of a new design patent, U.S. Design Patent No. D877,214 (“the 'D214 patent”). The Commission has also determined not to review the ALJ's extension of the target date to May 13, 2026.
Carl Bretscher, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436, telephone 202-205-2382. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in
The Commission instituted this investigation on December 11, 2024, based on a complaint filed on behalf of Cricut, Inc. of South Jordan, Utah (“Cricut”). 89 FR 99905 (Dec. 11, 2024). The complaint, as supplemented, alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337, in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain crafting machines and components thereof by reason of infringement of certain claims of U.S. Patent No. 11,208,758 (“the '758 patent”); U.S. Patent No. 11,905,646 (“the '646 patent”); U.S. Patent No. D893,563 (“the 'D563 patent”); U.S. Patent No. D910,724 (“the 'D724 patent”); U.S. Patent No. D926,237 (“the 'D237 patent”); and U.S. Patent No. D1,029,090 (“the 'D090 patent”).
On January 31, 2025, the Commission partially terminated the investigation as to SainStore based on a consent order stipulation and issued a consent order against SainStore. Order No. 5 (Jan. 8, 2025),
On January 16, 2025, Cricut filed an unopposed motion to amend the complaint and NOI by terminating HSET from the investigation and adding a new respondent, HK Sijiu. On February 4, 2025, Cricut moved to amend the complaint and NOI by adding allegations of infringement of the 'D214 design patent, and to extend the target date by one month. OUII filed a response in support of both of Circuit's motions on February 14, 2025.
On March 6, 2025, the ALJ issued the subject ID (Order No. 10), finding good cause to grant Cricut's motions to terminate the investigation as to the respondent HSET and to add HK Sijiu as a new respondent. Order No. 10 (Mar. 6, 2025). The ALJ also found that there are no agreements, written or oral, express or implied, between the parties concerning the subject matter of the investigation, and that the amendments will not prejudice any of the parties or the public interest. The ALJ also found good cause to add the 'D214 patent to the investigation and to extend the target date by one month, to May 13, 2026.
No petitions to review the subject ID were filed.
The Commission has determined not to review the subject ID. Accordingly, respondent HSET is hereby terminated from this investigation, and HK Sijiu is added as a respondent to this investigation. The 'D214 patent is added to this investigation as well. The target date is extended to May 13, 2026. The deadline for issuing the final initial determination has been extended to January 13, 2026.
The Commission vote for this determination took place on April 3, 2025.
The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).
By order of the Commission.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has received a complaint entitled
Lisa R. Barton, Secretary to the Commission, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. The public version of the complaint can be accessed on the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS) at
General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server at United States International Trade Commission (USITC) at
The Commission has received a complaint and a submission pursuant to § 210.8(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure filed on behalf of BioMarin Pharmaceutical Inc. on April 2, 2025. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1337) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain drug products containing c-type natriuretic peptide variants, and components thereof. The complaint names as respondents: Ascendis Pharma, Inc. of Palo Alto, CA; Ascendis Pharma A/S of Denmark; Ascendis Pharma Growth Disorders A/S of Denmark; and Wacker Biotech GmbH of Germany. The complainant requests that the Commission issue a limited exclusion order, cease and desist orders, and impose a bond upon respondents' alleged infringing articles during the 60-day Presidential review period pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1337(e)(1) and (f)(1).
Proposed respondents, other interested parties, members of the public, and interested government agencies are invited to file comments on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or § 210.8(b) filing. Comments should address whether issuance of the relief specifically requested by the complainant in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the
In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:
(i) explain how the articles potentially subject to the requested remedial orders are used in the United States;
(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the requested remedial orders;
(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;
(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the requested exclusion order and/or a cease and desist order within a commercially reasonable time; and
(v) explain how the requested remedial orders would impact United States consumers.
Written submissions on the public interest must be filed no later than by close of business, eight calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the
Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above. Submissions should refer to the docket number (“Docket No. 3819”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment.
This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and of §§ 201.10 and 210.8(c) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 201.10, 210.8(c)).
By order of the Commission.
Executive Office of the President, Office of Management and Budget.
Notice of availability of the OMB Final Sequestration Report to the President and Congress for FY 2025.
OMB is issuing the
April 4, 2025.
The OMB Sequestration Reports to the President and Congress are available on-line on the OMB home page at:
Thomas Tobasko, 6202 New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503, Email address:
Section 251(e)(2) of the Balanced Budget and Emergency Deficit Control Act of 1985 requires the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to issue a Final Sequestration Report 15 days (excluding weekends and holidays) after the enactment of 2025 appropriations. This report meets that requirement and finds that, for fiscal year 2025, enacted appropriations are at or below the defense and non-defense caps after accounting for cap adjustments. As a result, a sequestration of discretionary budget authority is not required in 2025.
Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation.
Notice of intent to request extension of OMB approval of information collection.
The Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) intends to request that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) extend approval, under the Paperwork Reduction Act, of a collection of information contained in its regulation on Rules for Administrative Review of Agency Decisions. This notice informs the public of PBGC's intent and solicits public comment on the collection of information.
Comments must be submitted on or before June 9, 2025.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Commenters are strongly encouraged to submit public comments electronically. Commenters who submit comments on paper by mail should allow sufficient time for mailed comments to be received before the close of the comment period.
All submissions received must include the agency's name (Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, or PBGC) and refer to OMB control number 1212-0061. All comments received will be posted without change to PBGC's website,
Copies of the collection of information may be obtained without charge by writing to the Disclosure Division, (
Karen Levin (
The Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) intends to request that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) extend approval, under the Paperwork Reduction Act, of a collection of information contained in its regulation on Rules for Administrative Review of Agency Decisions (29 CFR part 4003) (OMB control number 1212-0061; expires July 31, 2025). This notice informs the public of PBGC's intent and solicits public comment on the collection of information.
PBGC's regulation on Rules for Administrative Review of Agency Decisions (29 CFR part 4003) prescribes rules governing the issuance of initial determinations by PBGC and the procedures for requesting and obtaining administrative review of initial determinations. Certain types of initial determinations are subject to administrative appeals, which are covered in subpart D of the regulation. Subpart D prescribes rules on who may file appeals, when and where to file appeals, contents of appeals, and other matters relating to appeals. Most appeals filed with PBGC are filed by individuals (participants, beneficiaries, and alternate payees) in connection with benefit entitlement or amounts. A small number of appeals are filed by companies in connection with other matters, such as plan coverage under section 4021 of ERISA or liability under sections 4062(b)(1), 4063, or 4064. For appeals of benefit determinations, PBGC has optional forms for filing appeals (Form 724) and requests for extensions of time to appeal (Form 723). PBGC needs the required information to resolve matters raised in appeals of PBGC's initial determinations.
PBGC is proposing some minor editorial and formatting changes to Forms 723 and 724. In addition, in the Privacy Act Notice section of both forms, it is fixing an erroneous citation and replacing “Social Security Number” with “Customer Identification Number.”
The collection of information under the regulation has been approved under OMB control number 1212-0061 (expires July 31, 2025). PBGC intends to request that OMB extend its approval for another three years. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
PBGC estimates that each year there will be 103 appeals and 29 requests for extensions filed annually under this regulation. The total estimated annual burden of the collection of information is 105 hours and $9,000.
PBGC is soliciting public comments to—
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodologies and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Issued in Washington, DC.
Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation.
Notice of intent to request extension of OMB approval of information collection.
The Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) intends to request that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) extend approval, under the Paperwork Reduction Act, of a collection of information that is necessary to fulfill various reporting obligations following a cessation of operations at a facility. This notice informs the public of PBGC's intent and solicits public comment on the collection of information.
Comments must be submitted on or before June 9, 2025.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Commenters are strongly encouraged to submit public comments electronically. Commenters who submit comments on paper by mail should allow sufficient time for mailed comments to be received before the close of the comment period.
All submissions received must include the agency's name (Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, or PBGC) and refer to OMB control number 1212-0073. All comments received will be posted without change to PBGC's website,
Copies of the collection of information may be obtained without charge by writing to Disclosure Division (
Monica O'Donnell (
Section 4062(e) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) imposes reporting obligations in the event of a “substantial cessation of operations.” A substantial cessation of operations occurs when a permanent cessation at a facility causes a separation from employment of more than 15 percent of all “eligible employees.” “Eligible employees” are employees eligible to participate in any of the facility's employer's employee pension benefit plans. Following a substantial cessation of operations, the facility's employer is treated, with respect to its single-employer pension plans covered by title IV of ERISA that are covering participants at the facility, as if the employer were a withdrawing substantial employer under a multiple employer plan. Under section 4063(a) of ERISA, the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) must receive notice of the substantial cessation of operations and a request to determine the employer's resulting liability. To fulfill such resulting liability, the employer may elect, under section 4062(e)(4)(A), to make additional contributions annually for seven years to plans covering participants at the facility where the substantial cessation of operations took place. Under sections 4062(e)(4)(E)(i)(I), (II), (III), (IV), and (V) respectively, an employer that is making the election for annual additional contributions must give notice to PBGC of: (1) its decision to make the election, (2) its payment of an annual contribution, (3) its failure to pay an annual contribution, (4) its receipt of a funding waiver from the Internal Revenue Service, and (5) the ending of its obligation to make additional annual contributions.
PBGC is requesting that OMB extend approval of a form series, consisting of Form 4062(e)-01, Form 4062(e)-02, Form 4062(e)-03, and Form 4062(e)-04, that is used to fulfill these reporting obligations. An employer or a plan administrator files Form 4062(e)-01 to notify PBGC of the occurrence of a substantial cessation of operations and request a determination of the employer's liability. An employer files Form 4062(e)-02 to notify PBGC that it made the elections to pay annual additional contributions to a plan. An employer files Form 4062(e)-03 to notify PBGC that it paid an annual additional contribution, received a funding waiver from the Internal Revenue Service, or is no longer obligated to pay additional annual contributions. Finally, an employer files Form 4062(e)-04 to notify PBGC that it failed to pay an additional annual contribution to the plan.
PBGC needs the information requested in the forms and notification (1) to determine an employer's liability to a plan following a substantial cessation of operations and (2) to ensure that an employer that made the election of additional annual contributions is fulfilling its payment obligations.
The collection of information has been approved by OMB under control number 1212-0073 (expires August 31, 2025). PBGC intends to request that OMB extend its approval for another 3 years. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
PBGC estimates that, over the next 3 years, it will receive 3 forms in this series each year. PBGC estimates that these forms will be completed by a combination of plan office staff and outside professionals: attorneys and actuaries. PBGC further estimates that the average burden of this information collection will be 8 hours per filer, with a total burden of 24 hours (8 hours × 3 filers). PBGC also estimates that each filer will spend an average of $8,000 in contractor costs, for an estimated total annual cost burden of $24,000 ($8,000 × 3 filers).
PBGC is soliciting public comments to—
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodologies and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Issued in Washington, DC.
Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation.
Notice of intent to request extension of OMB approval of information collection.
The Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) intends to request that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) extend approval, under the Paperwork Reduction Act of a
Comments must be submitted on or before June 9, 2025.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Commenters are strongly encouraged to submit public comments electronically. Commenters who submit comments on paper by mail should allow sufficient time for mailed comments to be received before the close of the comment period.
All submissions received must include the agency's name (Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, or PBGC) and refer to OMB control number 1212-0063. All comments received will be posted without change to PBGC's website,
Copies of the collection of information may be obtained without charge by writing to the Disclosure Division, (
Karen Levin (
The Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) intends to request that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) extend approval, under the Paperwork Reduction Act, of a collection of information contained in its regulation on Rules for Administrative Review of Agency Decisions (29 CFR part 4003) (OMB control number 1212-0063; expires August 31, 2025). This notice informs the public of PBGC's intent and solicits public comment on the collection of information.
PBGC's regulation on Rules for Administrative Review of Agency Decisions (29 CFR part 4003) prescribes rules governing the issuance of initial determinations by PBGC and the procedures for requesting and obtaining administrative review of initial determinations. Certain types of initial determinations are subject to reconsideration, which are covered in subpart C of the regulation. Subpart C prescribes rules on who may request reconsideration, when to make a reconsideration request, where to submit the request, the form and contents of reconsideration requests, and final decisions on reconsideration requests.
Any person aggrieved by an initial determination of PBGC under § 4003.1(d)(1) (determinations with respect to premiums, interest, and late payment penalties under section 4007 of ERISA), § 4003.1(d)(2) (determinations concerning voluntary terminations), or 4003.1(d)(3) (determinations with respect to penalties under section 4071 of ERISA) may request reconsideration of the initial determination. Most requests for reconsideration have been filed by plan administrators under § 4003.1(d)(1) relating to premiums, interest, and late payment penalties.
Requests for reconsideration must be in writing, be clearly designated as requests for reconsideration, contain a statement of the grounds for reconsideration and the relief sought, and contain or reference all pertinent information. Requests for reconsideration may be filed by hand, mail, commercial delivery service, or email.
The collection of information under the regulation has been approved under OMB control number 1212-0063 (expires August 31, 2025). PBGC intends to request that OMB extend approval for another three years. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
PBGC estimates that an average of 146 persons per year will respond to this collection of information. PBGC further estimates that the average annual burden of this collection of information is about one-half hour and $493 per appellant, with an average total annual burden of approximately 71 hours and about $71,925.
PBGC is soliciting public comments to—
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodologies and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Issued in Washington, DC.
Office of Personnel Management.
30-Day notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, OPM is proposing a reinstatement of an expired information collection request (ICR) with minor edits, Request for Change to Unreduced Annuity, RI 20-120.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until May 8, 2025. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.1.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
For specific questions related to this information collection activity, please contact: Retirement Services Publications Team, Office of Personnel Management, 1900 E Street NW, Room 3316-L, Washington, DC 20415, Attention: Cyrus S. Benson, or via electronic mail at
The Office of Personnel Management, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the public with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Agency assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Agency's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
OPM is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Agency is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Agency; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Agency enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Agency minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
RI 20-120 is designed to collect information the Office of Personnel Management needs to comply with the wishes of the retired Federal employee whose marriage has ended. This form provides an organized way for the retiree to supply all information needed to change to an unreduced annuity (
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning a negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405, the Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to Competitive negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition of a negotiated service agreement from the Competitive product list or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the Competitive product list.
The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's website (
Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, that will be reviewed in a public proceeding as defined by 39 CFR 3010.101(p), the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each such request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 and 39 CFR 3000.114 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each such request.
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) identified in Section II, if any, are consistent with the policies of title 39. Applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3035, and 39 CFR part 3041. Comment deadline(s) for each such request, if any, appear in Section II.
Section III identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, to add a standardized distinct product to the Competitive product list or to amend a standardized distinct product, the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. Standardized distinct products are negotiated service agreements that are variations of one or more Competitive products, and for which financial models, minimum rates, and classification criteria have undergone advance Commission review.
1.
2.
3.
None.
This Notice will be published in the
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on March 31, 2025, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on March 31, 2025, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Friday, April 4, 2025, at 9 a.m. eastern standard time.
Washington, DC, at U.S. Postal Service Headquarters, 475 L'Enfant Plaza, SW.
Closed.
On April 4, 2025, the members of the Board of Governors of the United States Postal Service voted unanimously to hold and to close to public observation a special meeting in Washington, DC. The Board determined that no earlier public notice was practicable. The Board considered the below matters.
1. Administrative Matters.
2. Financial Matters.
3. Executive Session.
4. Personnel Matters.
Michael J. Elston, Secretary of the Board of Governors, U.S. Postal Service, 475 L'Enfant Plaza, SW, Washington, DC 20260-1000. Telephone: (202) 268-4800.
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on March 31, 2025, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a
Sean C. Robinson, 202-268-8405.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on April 1, 2025, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on April 1, 2025, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on April 1, 2025, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on March 31, 2025, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on April 1, 2025, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C.
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on April 2, 2025, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on April 1, 2025, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on April 2, 2025, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on April 2, 2025, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on March 31, 2025, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission” or “SEC”).
Notice.
Notice of application for an order under sections 17(d) and 57(i) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) and rule 17d-1 under the Act to permit certain joint transactions otherwise prohibited by sections 17(d) and 57(a)(4) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act.
Applicants request an order to permit certain business development companies (“BDCs”) and closed-end management investment companies to co-invest in portfolio companies with each other and with certain affiliated investment entities. The requested order includes streamlined terms and conditions as compared to past comparable orders.
FS Credit Opportunities Corp., PA Senior Credit Opportunities Fund, L.P., FS Senior Credit Fund II, L.P., FS Global Advisor, LLC, FS Credit Income Fund, FS Credit Income Advisor, LLC, FS Specialty Lending Fund, FS/EIG ADVISOR, LLC, FS Tactical Opportunities (LOI) Splitter, L.P., FS Tactical Opportunities (SI) Splitter, L.P., FS Tactical Opportunities (LOI) Splitter II, L.P., FS Tactical Opportunities (SI) Splitter II, L.P. and FS Tactical Advisor, LLC.
The application was filed on February 21, 2025, and amended on March 20, 2025, and April 3, 2025.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing on any application by emailing the SEC's Secretary at
The Commission:
Adam Large, Senior Special Counsel, Kieran G. Brown, Senior Counsel, or Daniele Marchesani, Assistant Chief Counsel, at (202) 551-6825 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
For Applicants' representations, legal analysis, and conditions, please refer to Applicants' third amended application, dated April 3, 2025, which may be obtained via the Commission's website by searching for the file number at the top of this document, or for an Applicant using the Company name search field, on the SEC's EDGAR system.
The SEC's EDGAR system may be searched at
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Form 18 (17 CFR 249.218) is a registration form that can be used by a foreign government or political subdivision thereof to register securities for listing on a U.S. exchange. The information collected is intended to provide U.S. investors in relevant foreign government securities with material information concerning those securities and the foreign government registrant so that investors can make informed investment decisions.
We estimate that Form 18 takes approximately 8 hours per response and that approximately 5 responses are made annually. We derived our burden hour estimate by estimating the average number of hours it would take a foreign government or political subdivision thereof to compile the necessary information and data, prepare and review the disclosure, file documents, and retain records. We estimate that 100% of the burden is carried out internally by the foreign government or political subdivision thereof. Based on our estimates, we calculate the total reporting burden to be 40 hours annually ((8 hours per response × 100%) × 5 responses annually).
Written comments are invited on: (a) whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden imposed by the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication by June 9, 2025.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Please direct your written comment to Austin Gerig, Director/Chief Data Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Tanya Ruttenberg, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549 or send an email to:
2 p.m. on Thursday, April 10, 2025.
The meeting will be held via remote means and/or at the Commission's headquarters, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549.
This meeting will be closed to the public.
Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the Commission, and recording secretaries will attend the closed meeting. Certain staff members who have an interest in the matters also may be present. In the event that the time, date, or location of this meeting changes, an announcement of the change, along with the new time, date, and/or place of the meeting will be posted on the Commission's website at
The General Counsel of the Commission, or his designee, has certified that, in his opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3), (5), (6), (7), (8), 9(B) and (10) and 17 CFR 200.402(a)(3), (a)(5), (a)(6), (a)(7), (a)(8), (a)(9)(ii) and (a)(10), permit consideration of the scheduled matters at the closed meeting.
The subject matter of the closed meeting will consist of the following topics:
Institution and settlement of injunctive actions;
Institution and settlement of administrative proceedings;
Resolution of litigation claims; and
Other matters relating to examinations and enforcement proceedings.
At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting agenda items that may consist of adjudicatory, examination, litigation, or regulatory matters.
For further information, please contact Vanessa A. Countryman from the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule of NYSE Texas, Inc. (the “Fee Schedule”) to increase existing credits applicable to certain Exchange members. The Exchange proposes to implement the fee changes effective April 1, 2025. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule to increase existing credits applicable to certain Exchange members. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to amend Section F.2 of the Fee Schedule to increase the Transaction Fee Credit and the Clearing Submission Fee Credit applicable to Clearing Brokers. The Exchange proposes to implement the fee changes effective April 1, 2025.
The Exchange operates in a highly competitive market. The Commission has repeatedly expressed its preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. In Regulation National Market System (“NMS”), the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and Self-Regulatory Organizations (“SRO”) revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.”
While Regulation NMS has enhanced competition, it has also fostered a “fragmented” market structure where trading in a single stock can occur across multiple trading centers. When multiple trading centers compete for order flow in the same stock, the Commission has recognized that “such competition can lead to the fragmentation of order flow in that stock.”
The Exchange believes that the ever-shifting market share among the exchanges from month to month demonstrates that market participants can move order flow, or discontinue or reduce use of certain categories of products. While it is not possible to know a firm's reason for shifting order flow, the Exchange believes that one such reason is because of fee changes at any of the registered exchanges or non-exchange venues to which a firm routes order flow. Accordingly, competitive forces compel the Exchange to use exchange transaction fees and credits because market participants can readily trade on competing venues if they deem pricing levels at those other venues to be more favorable.
Section F.2 of the Fee Schedule currently provides for a Transaction Fee Credit and a Clearing Submission Fee Credit and generally states that the total monthly fees owed by an Exchange-registered Institutional Broker
The Exchange proposes to amend Section F.2 of the Fee Schedule by increasing both the Transaction Fee Credit and the Clearing Submission Fee Credit from 10% to 12%. The Exchange believes that increasing the Transaction Fee Credit and the Clearing Submission Fee Credit, which would result in reduced fees, would increase trading and post-trade activity on the Exchange.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
As discussed above, the Exchange operates in a highly fragmented and competitive market. The Commission has repeatedly expressed its preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. Specifically, in Regulation NMS, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.”
The Exchange believes that increasing the Transaction Fee Credit, which applies to executions effected on the Exchange, and the Clearing Submission Fee Credit, which applies to off-exchange executions cleared on the Exchange, from 10% to 12%, is reasonable because these credits are designed to incent trading, in the case of the Transaction Fee Credit, and clearing activity, in the case of the Clearing Submission Fee Credit, by Institutional Brokers. The Exchange believes increasing these credits, which would result in lower fees, is a reasonable means to further incentivize Institutional Brokers to conduct more of their trading and clearing activity on the Exchange.
The Exchange believes that the proposal represents a reasonable effort to promote enhanced order execution opportunities as well as promote post-trade clearing submissions by Exchange members. The Exchange notes that market participants are free to shift their order flow to competing venues if they believe other markets offer more favorable fees and credits.
On the backdrop of the competitive environment in which the Exchange currently operates, the proposed rule change is a reasonable attempt to attract additional order flow and increase liquidity on the Exchange and improve the Exchange's market share relative to its competitors.
The Exchange believes that the proposed increase to the Transaction Fee Credit and the Clearing Submission Fee Credit equitably allocates its fees and credits among its market participants. The Exchange believes it is equitable to provide Clearing Brokers with increased credits, which would result in lower fees, because the credits would serve to incentivize members to conduct more of their trading and clearing activity on the Exchange.
The Exchange also believes that the proposed increase to the Transaction Fee Credit and the Clearing Submission Fee Credit would encourage Institutional Brokers to conduct more of their trading and post-trade activity on the Exchange.
The Exchange believes that increasing the level of the Transaction Fee Credit and the Clearing Submission Fee Credit is not unfairly discriminatory. The Exchange believes that the proposal does not permit unfair discrimination because the proposed increase to the
In the prevailing competitive environment, Exchange members are free to disfavor the Exchange's pricing if they believe that alternatives offer them better value. Accordingly, no Exchange member already operating on the Exchange would be disadvantaged by the proposed allocation of the Exchange's fees and credits.
Finally, the submission of orders to the Exchange is optional for Exchange members in that they could choose whether to submit orders to the Exchange and, if they do, the extent of its activity in this regard. The Exchange believes that it is subject to significant competitive forces, as described below in the Exchange's statement regarding the burden on competition.
For the foregoing reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act” or “Act”),
This proposed rule change would implement a change in the maximum contingent Operational Loss Fee listed in OCC's schedule of fees in accordance with OCC's Capital Management Policy. Proposed changes to OCC's schedule of fees are included as Exhibit 5 to File Number SR-OCC-2025-004. Material proposed to be added to OCC's schedule of fees as currently in effect is underlined and material proposed to be deleted is marked in strikethrough text. All capitalized terms not defined herein have the same meaning as set forth in the OCC By-Laws and Rules.
In its filing with the Commission, OCC included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. OCC has prepared summaries, set forth in sections (A), (B), and (C) below, of the most significant aspects of these statements.
The purpose of this proposed rule change is to revise OCC's schedule of fees to update the maximum aggregate Operational Loss Fee that OCC would charge Clearing Members in equal shares in the unlikely event that OCC's Liquid Net Assets Funded by Equity (“LNAFBE”)
The proposed fee change is designed to enable OCC to replenish capital to comply with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(15) under the Exchange Act, which requires OCC, in pertinent part, to “hold[ ] [LNAFBE] to the greater of either (x) six months . . . current operating expenses, or (y) the amount determined by the board of directors to be sufficient to ensure a recovery or orderly wind-down of critical operations and service”
OCC's Capital Management Policy includes OCC's replenishment plan. Pursuant to the Capital Management Policy, OCC would charge an Operational Loss Fee in equal shares to Clearing Members to raise additional capital should OCC's LNAFBE fall below certain defined thresholds relative to OCC's Target Capital Requirement (
In the unlikely event those thresholds are breached, OCC would charge an Operational Loss Fee in an amount to raise LNAFBE to 110% of OCC's Target Capital Requirement, up to the maximum Operational Loss Fee identified in OCC's schedule of fees less the amount of any Operational Loss Fees previously charged and not refunded.
The RWD Amount and, in turn, the Adjusted RWD Amount are determined annually based on OCC's corporate budget, the assumptions articulated in the RWD Plan, and OCC's projected effective tax rate.
Since the allocation of the Operational Loss Fee is a function of the number of Clearing Members at the time of the charge, the maximum Operational Loss Fee per Clearing Member is subject to fluctuation during the course of the year. However, if the proposed Operational Loss Fee were charged to 101 Clearing Members, the number of Clearing Members as of December 31, 2024, for example, the maximum Operational Loss Fee per Clearing Member would be approximately $2.09 million.
OCC would also update the schedule of fees to reflect the levels of LNAFBE at which OCC would charge the Operational Loss Fee according to the thresholds defined in the Capital Management Policy, as well as the level of LNAFBE at which OCC would limit the Operational Loss Fee charged, based on OCC's current Target Capital Requirement.
OCC proposes the fee change to be effective immediately upon filing, because the Board approved the Adjusted RWD Amount upon which the Operational Loss Fee is based for 2025. Notwithstanding the immediate effectiveness, OCC would not make the fee change operative until after the time required to self-certify the proposed change with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“CFTC”).
OCC believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act
OCC also believes that the proposed Operational Loss Fee would result in an equitable allocation of fees among its participants because it would be equally applicable to all Clearing Members. As the Commission has recognized, OCC's designation as a SIFMU and its role as the sole covered clearing agency for all listed options contracts in the U.S. makes it an integral part of the national system for clearance and settlement, through which “Clearing Members, their customers, investors, and the markets as a whole derive significant benefit . . . regardless of their specific utilization of that system.”
In addition, OCC believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(15)(iii), which requires that OCC establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to identify, monitor, and manage OCC's general business risk, including by maintaining a viable plan, approved by the Board and updated at least annually, for raising additional equity should its equity fall close to or below the amount required under Rule 17Ad-22(e)(15)(ii).
OCC also believes that the proposed fee change is consistent with Section 19(g)(1) of the Act,
Section 17A(b)(3)(I) of the Act
Written comments were not and are not intended to be solicited with respect to the proposed rule change, and none have been received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All submissions should refer to File Number SR-OCC-2025-004 and should be submitted on or before April 29, 2025.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The title for the collection of information is “Rule 0-2 and Form ADV-NR under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.” Rule 0-2 and Form ADV-NR facilitate service of process on a non-resident investment adviser, and an investment adviser's non-resident general partner and non-resident managing agent. Form ADV-NR designates the Secretary of the Commission, among others, as the non-resident general partner's or non-resident managing agent's agent for service of process. The collection of information is necessary for the Commission to obtain appropriate consent to permit the Commission and other parties to bring actions against non-resident partners and agents for violations of the federal securities laws and to enable the commencement of legal and regulatory actions against investment advisers that are doing business in the United States, but are not residents.
The respondents to this information collection are each non-resident general partner and non-resident managing agent of both SEC-registered investment advisers and exempt reporting advisers. Based on our experience with Form ADV-NR filings, we estimate we will receive 41 Form ADV-NR filings annually, each taking one hour to complete, for an aggregate annual time burden of 41 hours. We estimate no external cost burden.
Rule 0-2 and Form ADV-NR do not require recordkeeping or records retention. The collection of information requirements under the rule and form are mandatory. The information collected pursuant to Rule 0-2 and Form ADV-NR is a filing with the Commission and is not kept confidential.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB Control Number.
Written comments are invited on: (a) whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden imposed by the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The public may view and comment on this information collection request at:
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Like most issuers of securities, when an investment company (“fund”)
Rule 482 contains certain requirements regarding the disclosure that funds are required to provide in qualifying advertisements. These requirements are intended to encourage the provision to investors of information that is balanced and informative, particularly in the area of investment performance. For example, a fund is required to include disclosure advising investors to consider the fund's investment objectives, risks, charges and expenses, and other information described in the fund's prospectus, and highlighting the availability of the fund's prospectus and, if applicable, its summary prospectus. In addition, rule 482 advertisements that include performance data of open-end funds or insurance company separate accounts offering variable annuity contracts are required to include certain standardized performance information, information about any sales loads or other nonrecurring fees, and a legend warning that past performance does not guarantee future results. Such funds including performance information in rule 482 advertisements are also required to make available to investors month-end performance figures via website disclosure or by a toll-free telephone number, and to disclose the availability of the month-end performance data in the advertisement. The rule also sets forth requirements regarding the prominence of certain disclosures, requirements regarding advertisements that make tax representations, requirements regarding advertisements used prior to the effectiveness of the fund's registration statement, requirements regarding the timeliness of performance data, and certain required disclosures by money market funds.
Rule 482 advertisements must be filed with the Commission or, in the alternative, with the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”).
Rule 482 contains requirements that are intended to encourage the provision to investors of information that is balanced and informative, particularly in the area of investment performance. The Commission is concerned that in the absence of such provisions fund investors may be misled by deceptive rule 482 advertisements and may rely on less-than-adequate information when determining in which funds they should invest money. As a result, the Commission believes it is beneficial for funds to provide investors with balanced information in fund advertisements in order to allow investors to make better-informed decisions.
On November 7, 2024, the Commission adopted amendments to rule 482 to correct outdated cross-references and conform the risk statements that money market funds must include in their advertisements and sales literature to the risk statements that money market funds must include in their prospectuses.
We estimate the total annual burden to comply with amended rule 482 to be 577,896 hours, at an average time cost of $213,154,498. The estimate of average burden hours is made solely for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act and is not derived from a comprehensive or even a representative survey or study of the costs of Commission rules and forms. The provision of information under rule 482 is necessary to obtain the benefits of the safe harbor offered by the rule. The information provided under rule 482 will not be kept confidential.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB Control Number.
Written comments are invited on: (a) whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden imposed by the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The public may view and comment on this information collection request at:
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Regulation FD (17 CFR 243.100
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Written comments are invited on: (a) whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden imposed by the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The public may view and comment on this information collection request at:
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(7) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
CFE currently utilizes The Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) as the Derivatives Clearing organization (“DCO”) for all CFE products. CFE plans to begin utilizing Cboe Clear U.S., LLC (“CCUS”) as the DCO for certain CFE products. CCUS is a DCO that is an affiliate of CFE.
The initial products that CFE plans to utilize CCUS to clear are financially-settled bitcoin (“FBT”) and ether (“FET”) futures. FBT and FET futures are not currently listed for trading on CFE. CFE plans to list these two products for trading in the near future. CFE currently plans to continue to utilize OCC to clear the CFE products that are currently listed for trading on CFE.
In the future, CFE may utilize either OCC or CCUS as the DCO for a CFE product, provided that OCC or CCUS is otherwise authorized to act as the DCO for the applicable product. In particular, CFE would not utilize CCUS to clear security futures unless CCUS satisfied the applicable requirements in order to do so. Consistent with proposed amendments to CFE Rules 1603, 1803, and 1903 that are described below, CFE will continue to require OCC clearing of security futures and any change to the clearing entity used for security futures would be done after a proposed change.
The proposed rule change includes rule updates to accommodate the use by CFE of more than one DCO as a Clearing House for CFE products. The scope of this filing is limited solely to the application of the rule amendments to security futures that may be traded on CFE. Although no security futures are currently listed for trading on CFE, CFE may list security futures for trading in the future.
CFE is making the rule amendments included in this proposed rule change in conjunction with other rule amendments being made by CFE in connection with its planned use of more than one Clearing House which are not required to be submitted to the Commission pursuant to Section 19(b)(7) of the Act
CFE is submitting the rule amendments included as part of this proposed rule change to the Commission under Section 19(b)(7) of the Act
The text of the proposed rule change is attached as Exhibit 4 to the filing but is not attached to the publication of this notice.
In its filing with the Commission, CFE included statements concerning the
The proposed rule change includes the following proposed rule amendments:
Paragraphs (b) and (e) of CFE Rule 403 (Order Entry and Maintenance of Front-End Audit Trail Information) currently require that single orders and bulk messages for quote updates submitted to CFE's trading system (“CFE System”) must contain specified information. One item of information that is required to be included with each single order (other than a cancel order or cancel replace/modify order) and with each bulk message is the Clearing Corporation origin code. Paragraphs (b) and (e) of Rule 403 also currently provide that the Clearing Corporation origin codes are C for Customer and F for Firm. The proposed rule change is replacing these references to “Clearing Corporation origin code” in Rule 403(b) and Rule 403(e) with references to “Clearing House origin code”. The term “Clearing House” will accommodate either OCC or CCUS.
CFE plans to continue to require that the submission of the Clearing House origin code be in the format utilized by OCC (which is C for Customer and F for Firm), including for CFE products that are cleared by CCUS. CFE plans to convert these origin codes to the comparable CCUS origin codes (which are 1 for Customer and 2 for House) when CFE submits transactions to CCUS for clearing. Accordingly, there will be no change to what users are currently required to submit to CFE for the Clearing House origin code and CFE will make appropriate adjustments on the back end when submitting Clearing House origin code information to CCUS so that CCUS receives Clearing House origin codes in the CCUS format.
CFE Rule 410A (Reporting Open Interest Information to the Clearing Corporation) currently provides that each Clearing Member shall report to the Clearing Corporation, on each business day, gross position adjustment information as necessary to identify the actual open interest in each Clearing Member account at the Clearing Corporation based on the trading activity for that business day, to the extent required by and in accordance with the rules of the Clearing Corporation. The proposed rule change proposes to amend the title of Rule 410A by replacing the reference to “the Clearing Corporation” in the rule title with reference to “a Clearing House” in order to have the rule title apply with respect to both OCC and CCUS. Similarly, CFE is amending the above provision of Rule 410A by replacing references to “the Clearing Corporation” with references to “a Clearing House” or to “that Clearing House” in order to have this provision apply with respect to both OCC and CCUS without changing the substance of the provision.
Rule 410A also currently provides that gross position adjustment information is not required to be reported to the Clearing Corporation pursuant to this Rule 410A for Market Maker accounts at the Clearing Corporation or for transactions with respect to which a CFE Trading Privilege Holder (“TPH”) has designated as part of the applicable order submission to the Exchange whether the transaction is opening or closing. The proposed rule change proposes to amend this provision by replacing references to “the Clearing Corporation” with references to “OCC” since this provision only applies with respect to OCC and not with respect to CCUS. This provision only applies in relation to OCC and not CCUS given differences between OCC and CCUS functionality with respect to the processing of position adjustment information. Similarly, the proposed rule change also proposes to amend this provision to make clear that it applies solely with respect to market maker accounts at OCC and transactions for clearance by OCC with respect to which a TPH has designated as part of the applicable Order submission to the Exchange whether the transaction is opening or closing. These revisions do not reflect any change to current requirements in relation to CFE products cleared by OCC.
CFE is making two corollary revisions to both Rule 414 (Exchange of Contract for Related Position) and Rule 415 (Block Trades) in relation to the reporting to the Exchange of exchange of contract for related position (“ECRP”) transactions
First, CFE is amending Rule 414(i) and Rule 415(f) to provide that in order for an Authorized Reporter to report block trades or ECRP transactions to CFE on behalf of a TPH in a CFE contract, a Clearing Member that authorizes the Authorized Reporter to report block trades or ECRP transactions on behalf of the TPH must be a Clearing Member of the Clearing House for that CFE contract. Rule 414(i) and Rule 415(f) currently require each TPH that desires to execute ECRP transactions and block trades in CFE products to designate at least one Authorized Reporter that is pre-authorized by a CFE Clearing Member to report ECRP transactions and block trades to the Exchange on behalf of the TPH. The proposed amendments to those provisions make clear that if a TPH desires to execute ECRP transactions and block trades in a CFE contract cleared by OCC, the TPH must utilize an Authorized Reporter that is authorized by an OCC Clearing Member of CFE to report those transactions to CFE on behalf of the TPH. Similarly, the proposed amendments to those provisions make clear that if a TPH desires to execute ECRP transactions and block trades in a CFE contract cleared by CCUS, the TPH must utilize an Authorized Reporter that is authorized by a CCUS Clearing Member of CFE to report those transactions to CFE on behalf of the TPH.
Second, CFE is proposing to align Rule 414(k) and Rule 415(h) with Rule 403 in relation to the current requirements to provide the Clearing Corporation origin code with block trade and ECRP transaction submissions. As with the proposed amendments to Rule 403(b) and Rule 403(e), CFE is proposing to amend Rule 414(k) and Rule 415(h) to replace the
CFE Rule 420 (Transfers of Positions) includes a provision in Rule 420(c) which provides that each Clearing Member that is a party to a transfer of positions must make and retain records stating the nature of the transaction; the date of the transfer; the transfer prices and the date of those prices (including the “as of date,” if applicable); the name of the counter-party Clearing Member; and any other information required by the Clearing Corporation. The proposed rule change proposes to replace the reference to the “Clearing Corporation” in Rule 420(c) with a reference to the “applicable Clearing House” so that this reference encompasses both OCC and CCUS without changing the substance of Rule 420(c).
Paragraph (d) of CFE Rule 503A (Reporting by Futures Commission Merchants and Introducing Brokers) provides that each TPH that is a Futures Commission Merchant and (i) is not Clearing Member or (ii) is a Clearing Member that utilizes another Clearing Member for purposes of clearing Exchange contracts shall, in a form and manner prescribed by the Exchange, provide a report to the Exchange on a daily basis which sets forth the positions, if any, in Exchange contracts of the TPH's customers held by any Clearing Member in the customer range at the Clearing Corporation. The proposed rule change proposes to replace the reference to “the Clearing Corporation” in Rule 503A(d) with a reference to “a Clearing House” so that this reference encompasses both OCC and CCUS without changing the substance of Rule 503A(d).
CFE proposes to amend Rule 601 (Fraudulent Acts) in the same manner as CFE proposes to amend Rule 503A. The first sentence of Rule 601 provides that no TPH, Related Party, or Market Participant shall engage or attempt to engage in any fraudulent act or engage or attempt to engage in any scheme to defraud, deceive or trick, in connection with or related to any trade on or other activity related to the Exchange or the Clearing Corporation. The proposed rule change proposes to replace the reference to “the Clearing Corporation” in the first sentence of Rule 601 with a reference to “a Clearing House” so that this reference encompasses both OCC and CCUS without changing the substance of Rule 601.
The CFE Rulebook currently contains three product rule chapters relating to security futures. These product rule chapters include Chapter 16 relating to Individual Stock Based and Exchange-Traded Fund Based Volatility Index (“Volatility Index”) futures, Chapter 18 relating to Single Stock Futures, and Chapter 19 relating to Narrow-Based Stock Index Futures. CFE does not currently list any security futures for trading under these product rule chapters but may do so in the future. Accordingly, CFE is proposing to amend these product rule chapters to specify the Clearing House for transactions in these products so that the applicable Clearing House is identified in CFE's rules in the event that CFE were to list any security futures for trading under these product rule chapters.
The specific proposed amendments to Chapter 16, Chapter 18, and Chapter 19 include the following proposed revisions:
Chapter 16 includes CFE Rule 1603 entitled “Settlement”. CFE is proposing to provide in Rule 1603 that the Clearing House for transactions in Volatility Index futures is OCC and to amend the title of Rule 1603 to be “Clearance and Settlement” since the rule is now proposed to address clearance of Volatility Index futures by OCC. Rule 1603 also currently includes a paragraph which provides that Clearing Members holding open positions in a Volatility Index futures contract at the termination of trading in that contract shall make payment to or receive payment from the Clearing Corporation. The proposed rule change proposes to replace the reference to the Clearing Corporation in this paragraph with a reference to OCC since OCC would be the Clearing House for a Volatility Index futures contract. Additionally, CFE is proposing to replace a reference to “The Options Clearing Corporation” in the last paragraph of Rule 1603 with a reference to “OCC”, which is the defined term for The Options Clearing Corporation.
Chapter 18 includes CFE Rule 1802 (Contract Specifications). Rule 1802(i) (Contract Adjustments) currently provides that adjustments to Single Stock Futures related to actions or transactions by or affecting the issuer of the underlying securities shall be made under the circumstances and in the manner from time to time prescribed by the Clearing Corporation. Rule 1802(k) (Final Settlement Price) provides that the final settlement price of a Single Stock Future shall be calculated in accordance with Rule 1802(j), unless the final settlement price is fixed in accordance with the Rules and By-Laws of the Clearing Corporation. CFE is proposing to replace the references to “the Clearing Corporation” in both Rule 1802(i) and Rule 1802(k) with references to “OCC” since OCC would be the Clearing House for Single Stock Futures.
Chapter 18 also includes CFE Rule 1803 entitled “Delivery”. CFE is proposing to provide in Rule 1803 that the Clearing House for transactions in Single Stock Futures is OCC and to amend the title of Rule 1803 to be “Clearance and Delivery” since the rule is now proposed to address clearance of Single Stock Futures by OCC. Rule 1803 also currently includes a paragraph which states:
Delivery of the Underlying Securities upon termination of a Single Stock Future, and payment of the price in respect thereof, shall be made in accordance with the Rules of the Clearing Corporation. As promptly as possible after the receipt of a notice of delivery from the Clearing Corporation with respect to a Single Stock Future held by a Trading Privilege Holder or Authorized Trader, such Trading Privilege Holder or Authorized Trader shall require the Customer to deposit the Underlying Security (in the case of a short position) or pay the aggregate price in respect thereof, in full and in cash (in the case of a long position), or in either case, if the transaction is effected in a margin account, to make the required margin deposit in accordance with the applicable regulations of the Federal Reserve Board.
The proposed rule change proposes to replace the reference to “the Clearing Corporation” in the above paragraph with a reference to “OCC” since OCC would be the Clearing House for a Single Stock Future.
Chapter 19 includes CFE Rule 1902 (Contract Specifications). Rule 1902(h) (Contract Adjustments) currently provides that adjustments to Narrow-Based Stock Index Futures related to actions or transactions by or affecting the issuer of the underlying securities shall be made under the circumstances and in the manner from time to time prescribed by the Clearing Corporation. CFE is proposing to replace the reference to “the Clearing Corporation” in Rule 1902(k) with a reference to “OCC” since OCC would be the Clearing House for Narrow-Based Stock Index Futures.
Chapter 19 also includes CFE Rule 1903 entitled “Delivery”. CFE is proposing to make similar amendments to Rule 1903 as CFE is proposing to make to Rule 1803. In particular, CFE is proposing to provide in Rule 1903 that the Clearing House for transactions in
Delivery of the Underlying Securities upon termination of a Narrow-Based Stock Index Future, and payment of the price in respect thereof, shall be made in accordance with the Rules of the Clearing Corporation. As promptly as possible after the receipt of a notice of delivery from the Clearing Corporation with respect to a Narrow-Based Stock Index Future held by a Trading Privilege Holder or Authorized Trader, such Trading Privilege Holder or Authorized Trader shall require such Customer to deposit the Underlying Securities (in the case of a short position) or pay the aggregate price in respect thereof, in full and in cash (in the case of a long position), or in either case, if the transaction is effected in a margin account, to make the required margin deposit in accordance with the applicable regulation of the Federal Reserve Board.
The proposed rule change proposes to replace the reference to “the Clearing Corporation” in the above paragraph with a reference to “OCC” since OCC would be the Clearing House for a Narrow-Based Stock Index Future.
Paragraph C of Policy and Procedure (“P&P”) III (Resolution of Error Trades) of the Policies and Procedures Section of the CFE Rulebook addresses voluntary adjustment of a trade price when an error trade outside the “no bust range” is busted. The first sentence of Item 3 of Paragraph C of P&P III provides that the parties to any adjusted trade under Paragraph C must report that trade to the Clearing Corporation not later than by the close of business on the business day immediately succeeding the day on which the error trade occurred. CFE is proposing to amend this sentence to replace the reference to the “Clearing Corporation” with a reference to the “applicable Clearing House” so that it may apply in relation to either OCC or CCUS without changing the substance of the sentence.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
• to contribute to the ability of the Exchange to enforce compliance by its TPHs and persons associated with its TPHs with the provisions of the rules of the Exchange,
• to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices,
• to promote just and equitable principles of trade,
• to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities,
• to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system,
• and in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change contributes to the Exchange's ability to enforce compliance by its TPHs and persons associated with its TPHs with the provisions of the rules of the Exchange and to carry out the Exchange's responsibilities as a self-regulatory organization in that the proposed rule change facilitates the collection of information that the Exchange may utilize in monitoring for compliance with Exchange rules.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change contributes to the prevention of fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices and to the promotion of just and equitable principles of trade because the proposed rule change proposes to amend Rule 601, which prohibits fraudulent acts, to provide that Rule 601 applies in connection with or related to any activity related to a Clearing House and thus amends Rule 601 to apply with respect to any activity related to either OCC and CCUS.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities in that the proposed rule change provides for the provision of information to the applicable Clearing House, including either OCC or CCUS.
Finally, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change removes impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and in general, protects investors and the public interest by facilitating the use by CFE or more than one Clearing House, which contributes to enhancing the overall market and clearance and settlement process for CFE products.
CFE does not believe that the proposed rule changes will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Specifically, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will not burden intra-market competition because the proposed rule amendments will apply equally to all CFE TPHs, Clearing Members, and Market Participants. The Exchange also believes that the proposed rule change will not burden inter-market competition because the proposed rule change contributes to the ability of the Exchange and its Clearing Houses to enforce compliance with their rules and to carry out their responsibilities as a registered entities by facilitating their collection of information that they may utilize in monitoring for compliance with their rules. Additionally, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change fosters additional competition in relation to clearing services by facilitating the use by the Exchange of more than one Clearing House.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The proposed rule change will become operative on April 7, 2025. At any time within 60 days of the date of effectiveness of the proposed rule change, the Commission, after consultation with the CFTC, may summarily abrogate the proposed rule change and require that the proposed rule change be refiled in accordance with the provisions of Section 19(b)(1) of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The title for the collection of information is “Rule 204A-1 (17 CFR 275.204A-1) under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.” (15 U.S.C. 80b-1
The respondents to this information collection are investment advisers registered with the Commission. The Commission has estimated that compliance with rule 204A-1 imposes a burden of approximately 91 hours per adviser annually based on an average adviser having 63 access persons. Our latest data indicate that there were 15,987 advisers registered with the Commission. Based on this figure, the Commission estimates a total annual burden of 1,449,221 hours for this collection of information.
Rule 204A-1 does not require recordkeeping or record retention. The collection of information requirements under the rule is mandatory. The information collected pursuant to the rule is not filed with the Commission, but rather takes the form of communications between advisers and their supervised persons. Investment advisers use the information collected to control and assess the personal trading activities of their supervised persons. Responses to the reporting requirements will be kept confidential to the extent each investment adviser provides confidentiality under its particular practices and procedures.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB Control Number.
Written comments are invited on: (a) whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden imposed by the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The public may view and comment on this information collection request at:
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Section 12(b) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”)
Rule 12b-1 requires, among other things, that the fund adopt a written plan describing all material aspects of the proposed financing of distribution (“rule 12b-1 plan”).
The rule 12b-1 plan and, in certain instances, any related agreements must incorporate certain specified provisions, including that: (i) the plan or agreement will continue in effect for more than one year only if the board, including the independent directors, approve the continuance at least annually
Rule 12b-1 also prohibits funds from paying for distribution of fund shares with brokerage commissions on their portfolio transactions.
The board and shareholder approval requirements of the rule are designed to ensure that fund shareholders and directors receive adequate information to evaluate and approve a rule 12b-1 plan and, thus, are necessary for investor protection. The provisions that require the board to be provided with quarterly reports and termination authority are designed to ensure that the rule 12b-1 plan continues to benefit the fund and its shareholders. The recordkeeping requirements of the rule are necessary to enable Commission staff to oversee compliance with the rule. The requirement that funds or their advisers implement, and fund boards approve, policies and procedures in order to prevent persons charged with allocating fund brokerage from taking distribution efforts into account is designed to ensure that funds' selection of brokers to effect portfolio securities transactions is not influenced by considerations about the sale of fund shares.
Commission staff estimates that there are approximately 5,246 funds (for purposes of this estimate, registered open-end investment companies or series thereof) that have at least one share class subject to a rule 12b-1 plan and approximately 250 fund families with common boards of directors that have at least one fund with a 12b-1 plan. The Commission further estimates that the annual hour burden for complying with the rule is 425 hours for each fund family with a portfolio that has a rule 12b-1 plan. We therefore estimate that the total hourly burden per year for all funds to comply with current information collection requirements under rule 12b-1 is 106,250 hours. Commission staff estimates that approximately three funds per year prepare a proxy in connection with the adoption or material amendment of a rule 12b-1 plan. The staff further estimates that the cost of each fund's proxy is $30,000. Thus, the total annual cost burden of rule 12b-1 to the fund industry is $90,000.
Estimates of average burden hours and costs are made solely for purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act and are not derived from a comprehensive or even representative survey or study of the costs of Commission rules and forms. The collections of information required by rule 12b-1 are necessary to obtain the benefits of the rule. Notices to the Commission will not be kept confidential.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB Control Number.
Written comments are invited on: (a) whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden imposed by the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The public may view and comment on this information collection request
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Section 902.03 of the NYSE Listed Company Manual (the “Manual”) to specify that during its first five years of listing a class of common equity on the Exchange, an issuer will (i) only be subject to initial and annual listing fees for its primary class of equity securities, and (ii) will be exempt from all other listing fees, including fees for (a) the listing of additional shares of the primary class of equity securities, (b) the listing of an additional class of common stock, preferred stock, warrants or rights, (c) the listing of securities convertible into or exchangeable or exercisable for additional securities of a listed class, (d) applications in connection with a Technical Original Listing
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
Issuers that list equity securities on the Exchange are subject to two primary types of fees: listing fees and annual fees. Listing fees are charged both at the time a primary class of securities is initially listed on the Exchange (the “Initial Listing Fee”), and in connection with the subsequent listing of additional shares of such class (the “Additional Listing Fee”).
Effective, April 1, 2025, the Exchange proposes to amend Section 902.03 of the Manual to provide an exemption from certain fees to issuers during their first five years of listing on the Exchange. Under the proposal, from the date of initial listing until the fifth anniversary thereof, an issuer that lists a primary class of equity securities on the Exchange will only be subject to the Initial Listing Fee and Annual Listing Fee (such Annual Fee calculated on an adjusted basis for any subsequent issuance or corporate action), in each case for such class of primary equity securities and will be exempt from any Additional Listing Fee or Alternative Listing Fee. For the avoidance of doubt, an issuer that does not have a class of common equity securities listed (ex. an issuer that lists only preferred stock) would continue to be subject to fees as set forth in the Manual.
The Exchange proposes to adopt the proposed exemption to give issuers greater predictability with respect to the fees that they will incur in the first years of listing and to mitigate the costs of initially listing on the Exchange.
Under the proposal, a company would benefit from the fee exemption from the date it first lists a class of common equity on the Exchange until the fifth anniversary of such date. The Exchange proposes to provide the fee exemption to any company that initially listed a class of common equity on the Exchange on or after April 1, 2021. For those companies that listed on or after April 1, 2021, they would benefit from the fee exemption for the balance of the five-year period running from April 1, 2025 to the fifth anniversary of a company's listing. For example, if an eligible company initially listed on April 1, 2021, such company would receive the benefit of the proposed exemption for one year until it reached the five-year anniversary of its listing. As of April 1, 2026, such company would be subject to the Exchange's usual fee schedule. For the avoidance of doubt, fees paid and incurred prior to April 1, 2025 will not be altered or refunded.
The Exchange notes that it amended its Initial Listing Fee, effective January 1, 2022, to adopt a flat Initial Listing Fee of $295,000, which has subsequently increased over time.
The revised annual fees will be applied in the same manner to all eligible issuers that initially list a class of common equity securities on the Exchange. In addition, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed fee exemption will have any negative impact on the Exchange's ability to fund or perform its regulatory obligations.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed limited fee exemption is reasonable. In that regard, the Exchange notes that companies incur a variety of expenses in connection with going public and during the first few years of being listed on a national securities exchange. The Exchange believes there is a benefit to encouraging more companies to list their common equity on a national securities exchange. Therefore, the Exchange believes is it reasonable to provide issuers who may be considering a public listing an additional incentive to do so.
The Exchange operates in a highly competitive marketplace for listings. The Commission has repeatedly expressed its preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. Specifically, in Regulation NMS,
The Exchange believes that the ever-shifting market share among the exchanges with respect to new listings
Given this competitive environment, the adoption of the proposed limited fee exemption represents a reasonable attempt to incentivize companies to list their common securities on the Exchange.
The Exchange believes its proposal equitably allocates its fees among its market participants.
The Exchange believes that it is represents an equitable allocation of reasonable fees to amend Section 902.03 of the Manual to specify that during its first five years of listing a class of common equity on the Exchange, an issuer will (i) only be subject to the Initial Listing Fee and Annual Listing Fee for its primary class of equity securities, and (ii) will be exempt from any Additional Listing Fee or Alternative Listing Fee. As discussed above, the Exchange notes that issuers initially listing a class of common equity on the Exchange pay a meaningful Initial Listing Fee. Prior to January 1, 2022, the Exchange's Initial Listing Fee was charged on a tiered basis, calculated based on shares outstanding. Since that date, however, the Exchange has charged a flat Initial Listing Fee that has increased over time. A majority of companies that listed between April 1, 2021 and December 31, 2021 paid the highest Initial Listing Fee charged under the prior tiered structure. Because the substantial majority of companies that has listed a primary class of common equity on the Exchange since April 1, 2021 has paid, or will pay, a meaningful Initial Listing Fee, the Exchange believes it is equitable vis-a-vis other listed issuers (that in many cases paid a lower Initial Listing Fee), to provide such newly listed companies with the proposed limited fee exemption to mitigate some of the costs incurred as a newly public company.
The Exchange believes that the proposal is not unfairly discriminatory. The proposed limited fee exemption is not unfairly discriminatory among issuers electing to list a primary class of common equity on the Exchange after April 1, 2025 because all such issuers will benefit from the proposed fee exemption during their first five years of listing.
For issuers that listed on or after April 1, 2021 but prior to April 1, 2025, the Exchange believes it is not unfairly discriminatory to provide such issuers with the balance of the five-year exemption running from April 1, 2025 to the fifth anniversary of a company's listing because it ensures that all recently listed companies (that listed a primary class of common equity) are eligible for some degree of fee relief. The Exchange's proposal helps ensure that companies that may have listed on different dates within a short period of time (
Further, the Exchange believes that companies that listed before April 1, 2021 are less likely to need the fee relief contemplated by the proposed exemption both because they have had more time to develop as a public company and because in many cases they paid a meaningfully smaller Initial Listing Fee than companies that have listed since April 1, 2021. The Exchange amended its Initial Listing Fee effective January 1, 2022 such that any issuer listing after that date has paid a flat Initial Listing Fee of at least $295,000. Prior to January 1, 2022, the Exchange charged a tiered Initial Listing Fee which resulted in many issuers paying substantially less than the Initial Listing Fee charged in recent years. However, even under the prior tiered structure, a majority of companies that listed between April 1, 2021 and December 31, 2021 also paid the top fee of $295,000. Therefore, the Exchange does not believe it is unfairly discriminatory to provide such issuers with some limited period of fee relief.
The Exchange believes it is not unfairly discriminatory to exclude companies that transfer the listing of their primary class of common equity from another national securities exchange from receiving the limited fee exemption because the purpose of the exemption is to encourage companies to publicly list their shares for the first time and any such transfer company is exempt from paying an Initial Listing Fee to the Exchange. Similarly, other categories of issuers such as closed-end funds, special purpose acquisition companies, and bond or preferred-equity only issuers are subject to separate fee schedules and do not pay the Exchange's meaningful flat Initial Listing Fee and thus it is not unfairly discriminatory to not provide such issuers with the proposed fee relief.
For the foregoing reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is designed to provide a limited fee exemption to companies initially listing a class of common equity on the Exchange. The market for listing services is extremely competitive. Each listing exchange has a different fee schedule that applies to issuers seeking to list securities on its exchange. Issuers have the option to list their securities on these alternative venues based on the fees charged and the value provided by each listing. Because issuers have a choice to list their securities on a different national securities exchange, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed fee changes impose a burden on competition.
The proposed limited fee exemption will be available to all issuers of a primary class of equity securities listing after April 1, 2025 on the same basis. To the extent that an issuer listed prior to the proposed April 1, 2025 effective date (but after April 1, 2021), a pro-rated balance of the fee exemption will be provided from April 1, 2025 to the fifth year anniversary of such issuer's listing. While the period of pro-ration may vary among issuers, it will directly correlate to when an issuer first listed on the Exchange and will be applied on the same terms. For the foregoing reasons,
The Exchange operates in a highly competitive market in which issuers can readily choose to list new securities on other exchanges and transfer listings to other exchanges if they deem fee levels at those other venues to be more favorable. Because competitors are free to modify their own fees, and because issuers may change their chosen listing venue, the Exchange does not believe its proposed fee change can impose any burden on intermarket competition.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend certain rules to permit the Exchange to list and trade options with p.m.-settlement that overlie the S&P 500 Equal Weight Index (based on both the full
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of this proposed rule change is to amend certain rules to permit the Exchange to list and trade SPEQF and SPEQX options that are p.m.-settled. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to (1) amend Rule 4.13, Interpretation and Policy .13 to permit the listing of P.M.-settled
The S&P 500 Equal Weight Index is the equal-dollar weighted version of the S&P 500 Index (which is capitalization-weighted). The S&P 500 Index measures the performance of approximately 500 of the largest capitalization stocks in the United States. The constituents of the S&P 500 Equal Weight Index are the same as those of the S&P 500 Index; the difference between the two indexes is that each constituent is allocated a fixed weight with respect to the S&P 500 Equal Weight Index rather than a capitalization weight as is the case for the S&P 500 Index. Therefore, the index that underlies options on the S&P 500 Index (“SPX options”), as well as the Mini-S&P 500 Index (“XSP options”), for which the Exchange may currently list p.m.-settled options on Expiration Fridays, with Nonstandard Expirations, and as QIXs, is comprised of the same constituents as the underlying index for SPEQF and SPEQX options.
The Exchange currently is permitted to list p.m.-settled series that expire on Expiration Friday, with Nonstandard Expirations, and QIXs for several different broad-based index options, including SPX and XSP options. This proposed rule change would permit the Exchange to list p.m.-settled SPEQF and SPEQX options that expire on Expiration Fridays, with Nonstandard Expirations, and QIXs. The availability of p.m.-settled SPEQF and SPEQX options with these various expirations will provide market participants with opportunities to trade those options in a manner more aligned with specific timing needs and more effectively tailor their investment and hedging strategies related to the S&P 500 Equal Weight Index and manage their portfolios. In particular, the proposed rule change will allow market participants to roll their positions in SPEQF and SPEQX options with regularity and more precision, to spread risk across more trading days, and incorporate daily, weekly, monthly, and quarterly changes in the markets, which may reduce the premium cost of hedging.
In connection with the proposed change to Rule 4.13, Interpretation .13, Exchange also proposes to amend Rule 5.1, which governs trading days and hours, in conjunction with the proposed addition of SPEQF and SPEQX p.m.-settled options that expire on Expiration Friday. Rule 5.1(b)(2)(C) currently provides that on their last trading day, Regular Trading Hours for expiring p.m.-settled SPX, XSP, RUT, MRUT options, as well as Index Options with Nonstandard Expirations and QIXs, may be effected on the Exchange between 9:30 a.m. and 4:00 p.m. Eastern Time
The Exchange notes, as is the case for other p.m.-settled options, that SPEQF and SPEQX options will be aggregated with all other option contracts for those options for purposes of determining compliance with the applicable position (and exercise) limit, as well as determining position limit reporting requirements.
The Exchange has analyzed its capacity and represents that it believes the Exchange has the necessary systems capacity to handle the additional traffic associated with the listing of new series that would result from the introduction of the SPEQF and SPEQX options up to the proposed number of possible p.m.-settled expirations. The Options Price Reporting Authority (“OPRA”) also informed the Exchange it believes it has the necessary systems capacity to handle the additional traffic associated with the listing of new series that would result from this proposed rule change. Because the proposal is limited to p.m.-settled series with respect to two classes, the Exchange believes any additional traffic that would be generated from the introduction of p.m.-settled SPEQF and SPEQX options with the permissible expirations would be manageable.
The S&P 500 Equal Weight Index consists of the same components as the S&P 500 Index, as noted above. Because of the relationship between the S&P 500 Equal Weight Index and the S&P 500 Index, both of which market participants may use as hedging vehicles to meet their investment needs in connection with S&P 500 Index-related products and cash positions, the Exchange believes it is appropriate to permit the same expirations and settlement for SPEQF and SPEQX options as SPX and XSP options. The Exchange understands that investors often use S&P 500 Index-related products to diversify their portfolios and benefit from market trends. The Exchange believes that investors will benefit from the availability of p.m.-settled SPEQF and SPEQX options, as it will expand investing tools offering exposure to the U.S. equities market.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
In particular, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change will remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system and protect investors, because it will provide investors with additional means for additional index options to manage their risk exposures and carry out their investment objectives with more flexibility. By offering SPEQF and SPEQX p.m.-settled options that expire on Expiration Fridays, with Nonstandard Expirations, and QIXs, the proposed rule change will allow market participants to purchase options on additional indexes available for trading on the Exchange in a manner more aligned with specific timing needs and more effectively tailor their investment and hedging strategies related to the S&P 500 Equal Weight Index and manage their portfolios. In particular, the proposed rule change will allow market participants to roll their positions in SPEQF and SPEQX options with more regularity and precision, to spread risk across more trading days, and to incorporate daily, weekly, monthly, and quarterly changes in the markets, which may reduce the premium cost of hedging.
The Exchange further believes the proposed rule change will remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because it will permit the Exchange to make available to investors series with the same expirations and settlement in SPEQF and SPEQX options as are available for SPX and XSP options. As noted above, the constituent stocks of the S&P 500 Index are the exact same as the constituent stocks of the S&P 500 Equal Weight Index. However, the Exchange believes that SPEQF and SPEQX options are designed to provide different, additional opportunities for investors to hedge the market risk associated with this index and to gain directional exposure to the index by listing options directly on this index. The U.S. equity markets have experienced increased levels of concentration in recent years. SPEQF and SPEQX options provide market participants with alternative tools to manage their risk and diversify their exposure to the stocks comprising the S&P 500 Index. Specifically, these options permit market participants to gain broad exposure to these stocks using options that would be less impacted by a shift in concentration and market momentum. Because capitalization-weighted indexes such as the S&P 500 Index are more impacted by larger capitalized stocks, options overlying an equal-weighted index (such as the S&P 500 Equal Weight Index) would permit investors to hedge against potential swings in the largest stocks comprising the S&P 500 Index while maintaining the ability to hedge across the entire span of S&P 500 constituent securities. The Exchange believes the significant liquidity of the components of the S&P 500 Equal Weight Index can withstand any additional trading as a result of listing options on an index comprised of components that also comprise other indexes underlying listed options (including unwinding of options positions into underlying stock positions). The proposed rule change
The Exchange initially listed certain options that were p.m.-settled, including SPX and XSP options, that expire on Expiration Fridays and with Nonstandard Expirations pursuant to pilot programs,
The Exchange further believes the proposed rule change will remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and protect investors, because it will provide investors with additional means for additional index options to manage their risk exposures and carry out their investment objectives. By offering SPEQF and SPEQX p.m.-settled options that expire on Expiration Fridays, with Nonstandard Expirations, and QIXs, the proposed rule change will allow market participants to purchase options on an additional index option available for trading on the Exchange in a manner more aligned with specific timing needs and more effectively tailor their investment and hedging strategies related to the S&P 500 Equal Weight Index and manage their portfolios. In particular, the proposed rule change will allow market participants to roll their positions in SPEQF and SPEQX options with regularity, thus with more precision, to spread risk across trading days, and to incorporate daily, weekly, monthly, and quarterly changes in the markets, which may reduce the premium cost of hedging.
In addition, the Exchange believes that the proposal to end trading at 4:00 p.m. on the last trading day for transactions in expiring SPEQF and SPEQX P.M.-settled options that expire on Expiration Fridays will prevent continued trading on a product after the exercise settlement value has been fixed, thereby mitigating potential investor confusion and the potential for increased costs to investors as a result of potential pricing divergence at the end of the trading day. This is consistent with the trading hours on the last trading day for transactions in other p.m.-settled options, including SPX and XSP options.
The Exchange represents that it has the necessary systems capacity to support the new option series given these proposed specifications. The Exchange believes that its existing surveillance and reporting safeguards (including with respect to p.m.-settled index option series) are designed to deter and detect possible manipulative behavior which might arise from listing and trading p.m.-settled SPEQF and SPEQX options. The Exchange further notes that current Exchange Rules that apply to the trading of other p.m.-settled index options traded on the Exchange, such as SPX and XSP options, would also apply to the trading of p.m.-settled SPEQF and SPEQX options, such as, for example, Exchange Rules governing customer accounts, margin requirements, position limits, and trading halt procedures.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe the proposed
The Exchange neither solicited nor received written comments on the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Form F-80 (17 CFR 239.41) is a registration form used by certain large, publicly traded Canadian issuers to register securities to be issued in an exchange offer or in connection with a business combination requiring the vote of shareholders of the participating companies. The information collected is intended to provide U.S. investors in relevant Canadian securities with material information concerning the registered securities and the Canadian foreign private issuer(s) so that investors can make informed voting and investment decisions.
We estimate that Form F-80 takes approximately 2 hours per response and is filed by approximately 4 respondents annually. The estimated burden of 2 hours per response is based upon the amount of time necessary to compile the registration statement using the existing Canadian disclosure document(s) plus any additional information required by the Commission. We estimate that 100% of the burden is carried by outside professionals retained by the company to assist in the preparation of the form, and thus that 0% of the burden is carried out internally by the company. We estimate a cost of $600 per hour for outside professionals used in connection with public company reporting. Based on our estimates, we
Written comments are invited on: (a) whether this proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden imposed by the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication by June 9, 2025.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Please direct your written comment to Austin Gerig, Director/Chief Data Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Tanya Ruttenberg, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549 or send an email to:
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Amendment 3.
This is an amendment of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of West Virginia (FEMA-4861-DR), dated February 26, 2025.
Issued on April 1, 2025.
Alan Escobar, Office of Disaster Recovery & Resilience, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW, Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416, (202) 205-6734.
The notice of the President's major disaster declaration for the State of West Virginia, dated February 26, 2025, is hereby amended to include the following areas as adversely affected by the disaster:
All other information in the original declaration remains unchanged.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Amendment 1.
This is an amendment of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for Public Assistance Only for the State of West Virginia (FEMA-4861-DR), dated March 19, 2025.
Issued on April 1, 2025.
Alan Escobar, Office of Disaster Recovery & Resilience, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW, Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416, (202) 205-6734.
The notice of the President's major disaster declaration for Private Non-Profit organizations in the State of West Virginia, dated March 19, 2025, is hereby amended to include the following areas as adversely affected by the disaster.
All other information in the original declaration remains unchanged.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a notice of an Administrative declaration of a disaster for the State of Illinois dated April 2, 2025.
Issued on April 2, 2025.
Alan Escobar, Office of Disaster Recovery & Resilience, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW, Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416, (202) 205-6734.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the Administrator's disaster declaration, applications for disaster loans may be submitted online using the MySBA
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 210235 and for economic injury is 210240.
The States which received an EIDL Declaration are Illinois, Indiana.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a notice of an Economic Injury Disaster Loan (EIDL) declaration for the State of New Jersey dated April 2, 2025.
Issued on April 2, 2025.
Alan Escobar, Office of Disaster Recovery & Resilience, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW, Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416, (202) 205-6734.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the Administrator's EIDL declaration, applications for disaster loans may be submitted online using the MySBA Loan Portal
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for economic injury is 210250.
The States which received an EIDL Declaration are New Jersey.
60-Day notice and request for comments.
The Small Business Administration (SBA) intends to request approval, from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for a revision to the collection of information described below. The Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) requires federal agencies to publish a notice in the
Submit comments on or before June 9, 2025.
Send all comments to Gregorius Suryadi, Financial and Loan Specialist, Office of Financial Assistance, Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW, Washington, DC 20416.
Gregorius Suryadi, Financial and Loan Specialist, Office of Financial Assistance, email
SBA is updating its information collection titled “SBA 504 Loan Borrower Information Form. The proposed changes are being made to comply with Administration priorities and Program updates as well as recent Executive Orders including 14159, “Protecting the American People Against Invasion”, issued January 20, 2025, and SBA Policy Notice 5000-865754, “Policy updates to comply with Executive Order 14159 regarding citizenship requirements for obtaining 7(a) and 504 loans”, published March 7, 2025, and to improve the instructional guidance in the form.
SBA is requesting comments on (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the agency to properly perform its functions; (b) whether the burden estimates are accurate; (c) whether there are ways to minimize the burden, including through the use of automated techniques or other forms of information technology; and (d) whether there are ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information.
SBA uses this form to review the eligibility of the SBC for SBA financial assistance, the creditworthiness and repayment ability of the SBC, and the terms and conditions of the 504 loan for which the SBC is applying.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FAA invites public comments about our intention to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval to renew an information collection. The collection involves information collected which will be used by air carriers and by the FAA to adequately target its inspection resources for surveillance and make accurate risk assessments.
Written comments should be submitted by June 9, 2025.
Please send written comments:
Greg Young; by email at:
The FAA has found that, although an air carrier is required to list its maintenance providers and a general description of the work to be done in its maintenance manual, these lists are not always kept up to date, are not always complete, and are not always in a format that is readily useful for FAA oversight and analysis purposes. Without accurate and complete information on the work being performed for air carriers, the FAA cannot adequately target its inspection resources for surveillance and make accurate risk assessments.
This collection of information supports regulatory requirements necessary under 14 CFR part 121 (
This collection also supports the FAA's strategic goal to provide to the next level of safety, by achieving the lowest possible accident rate and always improving safety, so all users of our aviation system can arrive safely at their destinations.
Department of Transportation.
Notice, request for comment.
The United States Department of Transportation, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, is announcing an opportunity for public comment on a proposed extension of a collection of information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit comments on or before: June 9, 2025.
Submit comments identified by Information Collection 2105-0583, Improving Customer Experience (OMB Circular A-11, Section 280 Implementation), by any of the following methods:
•
Requests for additional information should be directed to Karyn Gorman, Chief Privacy Officer, Office of the Chief Information Office, Office of the Secretary, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE, Washington, DC 20590, or via email to
Under the PRA, (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Under the Government Service Delivery Improvement Act
The purpose of this request is to facilitate the agency's ability to collect feedback from the public to continue to improve its services, thereby facilitating its compliance with statutory requirements and general principles of good governance.
The agency will only submit collections if they meet the following criteria.
• The collections are voluntary;
• The collections are low-burden for respondents (based on considerations of total burden hours or burden-hours per respondent) and are low-cost for both the respondents and the Federal Government;
• The collections are non-controversial;
• Any collection is targeted to the solicitation of opinions from respondents who have experience with the program or may have experience with the program in the near future;
• Personally identifiable information (PII) is collected only to the extent necessary and is not retained;
• Information gathered is intended to be used for general service improvement and program management purposes;
• The agency will follow the procedures specified in any relevant OMB guidance for the required reporting to OMB of data from surveys;
Outside of the reporting mentioned in the bullet immediately above, if the agency intends to release journey maps, user personas, reports, or other data-related summaries stemming from this collection, the agency must include appropriate caveats around those summaries, noting that conclusions should not be generalized beyond the sample, considering the sample size and response rates. The agency must submit the data summary itself (
The agency will collect this information by electronic means when possible, as well as by mail, fax, telephone, technical discussions, and in-person interviews. The agency may also utilize observational techniques to collect this information.
The agency invites comments on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 10(a)(2), app. 2, that a meeting will be held at the United States Treasury Department, 15th Street and Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC on April 29, 2025, at 9 a.m., of the following debt management advisory committee:
At this meeting, the Treasury is seeking advice from the Committee on
This notice shall constitute my determination, pursuant to the authority placed in heads of agencies by 5 U.S.C. 10(d), app. 2, and vested in me by Treasury Department Order No. 101-05, that the meeting will consist of discussions and debates of the issues presented to the Committee by the Secretary of the Treasury and the making of recommendations of the Committee to the Secretary, pursuant to Public Law 103-202, section 202(c)(1)(B).
Thus, this information is exempt from disclosure under that provision and 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3)(B). In addition, the meeting is concerned with information that is exempt from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(9)(A). The public interest requires that such meetings be closed to the public because the Treasury Department requires frank and full advice from representatives of the financial community prior to making its final decisions on major financing operations. Historically, this advice has been offered by debt management advisory committees established by the several major segments of the financial community. When so utilized, such a committee is recognized to be an advisory committee under 5 U.S.C. 3, app. 2.
Although the Treasury's final announcement of financing plans may not reflect the recommendations provided in reports of the Committee, premature disclosure of the Committee's deliberations and reports would be likely to lead to significant financial speculation in the securities market. Thus, this meeting falls within the exemption covered by 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(9)(A).
The Office of Debt Management is responsible for maintaining records of debt management advisory committee meetings and for providing annual reports setting forth a summary of Committee activities and such other matters as may be informative to the public consistent with the policy of 5 U.S.C. 552(b). The Designated Federal Officer or other responsible agency official who may be contacted for additional information is Fred Pietrangeli, Director for Office of Debt Management (202) 622-1876.
United States Sentencing Commission.
Notice.
The Commission has decided to establish a Sentence Impact Advisory Group as a standing advisory group to the Commission. Having adopted a formal charter for the Sentence Impact Advisory Group, the Commission is constituting the initial membership of the advisory group under that charter. The Commission hereby invites any individual who is eligible to be appointed to the Sentence Impact Advisory Group to apply by sending a letter of interest and resume to the Commission as indicated in the
Application materials for membership of the Sentence Impact Advisory Group should be received not later than June 6, 2025.
An applicant for membership of the Sentence Impact Advisory Group should apply by sending a letter of interest and resume to the Commission by electronic mail or regular mail. The email address is
Jennifer Dukes, Senior Public Affairs Specialist, (202) 502-4597. More information about the Sentence Impact Advisory Group is available on the Commission's website at
The United States Sentencing Commission is an independent agency in the judicial branch of the United States Government. The Commission promulgates sentencing guidelines and policy statements for federal courts pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 994(a). The Commission also periodically reviews and revises previously promulgated guidelines pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 994(o) and submits guideline amendments to the Congress not later than the first day of May each year pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 994(p).
The Commission recently adopted a formal charter for the Sentence Impact Advisory Group (the “SIAG”). The SIAG is a standing advisory group to the Commission established under 28 U.S.C. 995 and Rule 5.4 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure. Under the charter of the SIAG, the purpose of the advisory group is:
(1) to assist the Commission in carrying out its statutory responsibilities under 28 U.S.C. 994(o);
(2) to provide to the Commission its views on the Commission's activities and work, including proposed priorities and amendments, as they relate to sentenced individuals;
(3) to disseminate information regarding federal sentencing issues to other sentenced individuals, families of sentenced individuals, and advocacy groups, as appropriate;
(4) to provide to the Commission its views on how the Commission may better incorporate into its work the perspectives of individuals affected by federal sentences;
(5) to assist the Commission in determining how it can best fulfill its duty under 28 U.S.C. 994(s) to “give due consideration to any petition filed by a defendant requesting modification of the guidelines utilized in the sentencing of such defendant, on the basis of changed circumstances unrelated to the defendant”; and
(6) to perform any other related functions as the Commission requests.
The SIAG shall consist of no more than nine members. Each member is appointed by the Commission. To be eligible to serve in the SIAG, a member must be (1) an individual sentenced for a federal offense, or (2) a family member of an individual sentenced for a federal offense. For appointment of the initial members of the SIAG and thereafter as vacancies arise, the Commission intends to openly solicit applications for membership from sentenced individuals and their families. The Commission intends that the SIAG membership shall be appointed in a manner that ensures diverse representation in background, demographics, types of offenses that led to sentencing, types of sentences imposed, geographic location, and other unique characteristics. The Commission also intends that the SIAG membership should aim to reflect the many perspectives within the federally sentenced population, including perspectives informed by differences in terms of age, disability, ethnicity,
All members of the SIAG shall serve not more than two consecutive three-year terms. However, the terms of the initial membership shall be staggered so that 3 members serve a term of three years, 3 members serve a term of two years, and 3 members serve a term of one year.
The Commission invites any individual who is eligible to be appointed to the SIAG to apply by sending a letter of interest and a resume to the Commission as indicated in the
United States Sentencing Commission.
Notice.
The Commission has decided to establish the Ad Hoc Advisory Group on Research and Data Practices as an
Application materials for the at-large membership of the Ad Hoc Advisory Group on Research and Data Practices should be received not later than June 6, 2025.
An applicant for the at-large membership of the Ad Hoc Advisory Group on Research and Data Practices should apply by sending a letter of interest and resume to the Commission by electronic mail or regular mail. The email address is
Jennifer Dukes, Senior Public Affairs Specialist, (202) 502-4597. More information about the Ad Hoc Advisory Group on Research and Data Practices is available on the Commission's website at
The United States Sentencing Commission is an independent agency in the judicial branch of the United States Government. The Commission promulgates sentencing guidelines and policy statements for federal courts pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 994(a). The Commission also periodically reviews and revises previously promulgated guidelines pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 994(o) and submits guideline amendments to the Congress not later than the first day of May each year pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 994(p).
The Commission recently adopted a formal charter for the Ad Hoc Advisory Group on Research and Data Practices (the “RDPAG”). The RDPAG is an
(1) to assist the Commission in carrying out its statutory responsibilities under 28 U.S.C. 991(b) and 995(a)(12)-(16);
(2) to study the best practices of other government agencies and nongovernmental organizations (including those that perform tasks or provide services not related to criminal justice) relating to the collection, maintenance, use, analysis, and dissemination of data relevant to the mission of such agencies and organizations, and the development and execution of research agendas;
(3) to report and make recommendations on how the Commission may incorporate any best practice to more effectively carry out its statutory duties and responsibilities under 28 U.S.C. 991(b) and 995(a)(12)-(16), and fulfill its unique role as a clearinghouse for federal sentencing statistics and practices; and
(4) to perform any other related functions as the Commission requests.
The RDPAG shall consist of no more than 15 members. Of those 15 members, one shall be a representative of the Federal Judicial Center with knowledge and expertise in social science research, one shall be a representative of the Administrative Office of the United States Courts with knowledge and expertise in social science research, and not more than 13 shall be at-large members. Each member is appointed by the Commission. To be eligible to serve as an at-large member, an individual must have an extensive and diverse range of knowledge, expertise, or experience in social science research, including (1) social science research design; (2) data collection and maintenance; (3) conducting quantitative and qualitative analysis of data; or (4) public dissemination of social science research. The at-large membership shall be appointed by the Commission based upon open solicitation for applications from eligible individuals, with a preference to applicants with knowledge or experience in research relating to the criminal justice system.
The RDPAG will be established for a period of 18 months from the date of appointment of the Chair of the group. However, the Commission shall have the option, by majority vote of its membership, to extend the term of the group for an additional six months.
The Commission invites any individual who is eligible to be appointed to the at-large membership of the RDPAG to apply by sending a letter of interest and a resume to the Commission as indicated in the