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Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus Canada Limited Partnership Model BD-500-1A10 and BD-500-1A11 airplanes. This AD was prompted by a design review that found insufficient clearance between fire extinguishing system (FIREX) lines and certain fasteners in the center mid-fuselage area. This AD requires an inspection for positioning and sufficient clearance of certain fasteners in certain fuselage and keel beam areas, an inspection for damage of the fire extinguishing lines, and applicable corrective actions, as specified in a Transport Canada AD, which is incorporated by reference. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective May 2, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of May 2, 2025.
• For Transport Canada material identified in this AD, contact Transport Canada, Transport Canada National Aircraft Certification, 159 Cleopatra Drive, Nepean, Ontario K1A 0N5, Canada; telephone 888-663-3639; email
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at
Yaser Osman, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone 516-228-7300; email
The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Airbus Canada Limited Partnership Model BD-500-1A10 and BD-500-1A11 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require an inspection for positioning and sufficient clearance of certain fasteners in certain fuselage and keel beam areas, an inspection for damage of the fire extinguishing lines, and applicable corrective actions, as specified in Transport Canada AD CF-2023-58. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at
The FAA received a comment from the Air Line Pilots Association, International (ALPA) who supported the NPRM without change.
The FAA received additional comments from Delta Air Lines (Delta). The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
Delta pointed out that with the revisions in paragraphs (h)(1) and (2) of the proposed AD providing up to 24 months after the effective date of the AD, paragraph (h)(3)(ii) of the proposed AD becomes moot.
The FAA disagrees. The compliance time stated in Transport Canada AD CF-2023-58 is within 24 months after the effective date of Transport Canada AD CF-2023-58 or 17,000 total accumulated flight hours since new, whichever occurs first. There is a chance that an airplane could reach 17,000 total flight hours before the effective date of this AD or soon after. In that case, the 90 days stated in paragraph (h)(3)(ii) of this AD provide a grace period to comply with the requirements of this AD without grounding the airplane. The FAA has not revised this AD as a result of this comment.
Delta requested an additional sub-paragraph to paragraph (h) of the proposed AD to provide corrections for incorrect part numbers referenced in a service bulletin.
The FAA agrees that there are typographical errors for certain items
Delta requested an additional exception to address an error in a corrective procedure's steps and references. Delta requested that the erroneous procedure be replaced by a requirement for operators to contact the manufacturer for repair instructions. Delta explained that using the corrective action procedure as detailed in the service information referenced in Transport Canada AD CF-2023-58 would result in an unfilled countersink on the previous head side of the installation. Delta further explained that this is not a condition expected by the aircraft structural repair publication (ASRP) sections referenced for fastener installation. Delta said it contacted Airbus Canada for further information and was told there is no standard repair for that situation and it would need to be addressed on a case-by-case basis.
The FAA acknowledges the commenter's concern and agrees that the commenter will have to contact the manufacturer to obtain instructions for their airplanes. However, the FAA does not consider it appropriate to include provisions in an AD applicable only to an individual airplane or configuration. Once this AD is published, any person may request approval of an alternative method of compliance (AMOC) under the provisions of paragraph (i)(1) of this AD. The FAA has not changed this AD in this regard.
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on this product. Except for minor editorial changes, and any other changes described previously, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.
Transport Canada AD CF-2023-58 specifies procedures for a general visual inspection for positioning and sufficient clearance of Hi-Lite fasteners in certain fuselage and keel beam areas, an inspection for damage (includes rupturing, cracking, or denting) of the FIREX lines, and applicable corrective actions (including fastener replacement, changing the direction of the fastener, oversizing the fastener, and repair of the FIREX lines). This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
The FAA estimates that this AD will affect 50 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to the manufacturer, however, some or all of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected operators.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective May 2, 2025.
None.
This AD applies to Airbus Canada Limited Partnership (Type Certificate previously held by C Series Aircraft Limited Partnership (CSALP); Bombardier, Inc.) Model BD-500-1A10 and BD-500-1A11 airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Transport Canada AD CF-2023-58, dated July 25, 2023 (Transport Canada AD CF-2023-58).
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 26, Fire Protection; 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by a design review that found insufficient clearance between fire extinguishing system (FIREX) lines and certain fasteners in the center mid-fuselage area. The FAA is issuing this AD to address fouling between the FIREX lines and the fasteners, which could lead to a rupture of the line. This would result in a dormant failure of the cargo compartment fire extinguishing system. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in loss of fire extinguishing capability during a cargo compartment fire.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, Transport Canada AD CF-2023-58.
(1) Where Transport Canada AD CF-2023-58 refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.
(2) Where Transport Canada AD CF-2023-58 refers to hours air time, this AD requires using flight hours.
(3) Where the “Compliance” paragraph of Transport Canada AD CF-2023-58 specifies the compliance time to accomplish the actions, for this AD, the compliance time is at the applicable time specified in paragraph (h)(3)(i) or (ii), whichever occurs later.
(i) Within the time specified in the “Compliance” paragraph of Transport Canada AD CF-2023-58.
(ii) Within 90 days after the effective date of this AD.
(4) The figures of the service information referenced in Transport Canada AD CF-2023-58 include certain incorrect bolt numbers; paragraphs (h)(4)(i) through (v) of this AD provide applicable corrections.
(i) “HST110AG6” should be “HST110AG6-5” instead.
(ii) “HST111AG6” should be “HST111AG6-5” instead.
(iii) “HST410AG6” should be “HST410AG6-5” instead.
(iv) “HST411AG6” should be “HST411AG6-5” instead.
(v) “0206003AG6-5” should be “B0206003AG6-5” instead.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
For more information about this AD, contact Yaser Osman, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone 516-228-7300; email
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Transport Canada AD CF-2023-58, dated July 25, 2023.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) For Transport Canada material identified in this AD, contact Transport Canada, Transport Canada National Aircraft Certification, 159 Cleopatra Drive, Nepean, Ontario K1A 0N5, Canada; telephone 888-663-3639; email
(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain ATR—GIE Avions de Transport Régional Model ATR42-500 and ATR72-212A airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report of the possible use of improper material during the manufacturing of vertical stabilizer to horizontal stabilizer junction fittings. This AD requires inspections of affected parts, applicable repairs, and eventual replacement of certain affected parts, as specified in a European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD, which is incorporated by reference. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective May 2, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of May 2, 2025.
• For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at
Shahram Daneshmandi, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 206-231-3220; email
The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain ATR—GIE Avions de Transport Régional Model ATR42-500 and ATR72-212A airplanes. The NPRM published in the
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require inspections of affected parts, applicable repairs, and eventual replacement of certain affected parts, as specified in EASA AD 2024-0171. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at
The FAA received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on this product. Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.
EASA AD 2024-0171 specifies procedures for a special detailed inspection (SDI) (conductivity measurement, hardness test, and X-ray fluorescence (XRF) inspection) to determine the material tolerance of affected vertical to horizontal stabilizer junction fittings installed on group 1 or 2 airplanes; repair of parts not within the tolerances of material AL7075-T73 (except those within the tolerances of material AL7050-T7452); repetitive detailed visual inspections for any damage (including corrosion and dents) of each affected part that is within the tolerances of material AL7050-T7452 or is installed on a group 3 airplane; repair of damaged parts; and eventual replacement of any affected part that is within the tolerances of material AL7050-T7452 or installed on a group 3 airplane. EASA AD 2024-0171 also specifies reporting the inspection results of the SDI to ATR. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
The FAA estimates that this AD affects 36 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
The FAA estimates the following costs to do any necessary on-condition actions that would be required based on the results of any required actions. The FAA has no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these on-condition actions:
The FAA has received no definitive data on which to base the cost estimates for the on-condition repairs specified in this AD.
The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to the manufacturer, however, some or all of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected operators.
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number for this information collection is 2120-0056. Public reporting for this collection of information is estimated to take approximately 1 hour per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information. All responses to this collection of information are mandatory. Send comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden, to: Information Collection Clearance Officer, Federal Aviation Administration, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177-1524.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective May 2, 2025.
None.
This AD applies to ATR—GIE Avions de Transport Régional Model ATR42-500 and ATR72-212A airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2024-0171, dated August 27, 2024 (EASA AD 2024-0171).
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 55, Stabilizers.
This AD was prompted by a report of the possible use of improper material during the manufacturing of vertical stabilizer to horizontal stabilizer junction fittings. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the potential usage of improper material during the manufacturing of vertical stabilizer to horizontal stabilizer junction fittings. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, EASA AD 2024-0171.
(1) Where EASA AD 2024-0171 refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.
(2) Where paragraph (2) of EASA AD 2024-0171 specifies to “accomplish a detailed visual inspection (DVI) of each affected part in accordance with the instructions of ATR Maintenance Procedure (MP) A-55-36-XX-02ZZZ-281Z-A” for this AD replace that text with “accomplish a detailed visual inspection (DVI) for damage of each affected part in accordance with the instructions of ATR Maintenance Procedure (MP) A-55-36-XX-02ZZZ-281Z-A, and before further flight repair any damage using a method approved by the Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA; or EASA; or ATR—GIE Avions de Transport Régional's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA). If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature.”
(3) Where paragraph (4) of EASA AD 2024-0171 specifies to “accomplish a DVI of the affected part in accordance with the instructions of ATR MP A-55-36-XX-02ZZZ-281Z-A” for this AD replace that text with “accomplish a DVI for damage of the affected part in accordance with the instructions of ATR MP A-55-36-XX-02ZZZ-281Z-A, and before further flight repair any damage using a method approved by the Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA; or EASA; or ATR—GIE Avions de Transport Régional's EASA DOA. If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature.”
(4) Paragraph (5) of EASA AD 2024-0171 specifies to report inspection results to ATR within a certain compliance time. For this AD, report inspection results at the applicable time specified in paragraph (h)(4)(i) or (ii) of this AD.
(i) If the inspection was done on or after the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the inspection.
(ii) If the inspection was done before the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the effective date of this AD.
(5) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2024-0171.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
For more information about this AD, contact Shahram Daneshmandi, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: 206-231-3220; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2024-0171, dated August 27, 2024.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email
(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X, FALCON 900EX, and FALCON 2000EX airplanes. This AD was prompted by reported occurrences of swelling of the lithium-polymer internal and external batteries of certain electronic display units (EDUs). This AD requires modifying certain EDUs and prohibits the installation of affected parts, as specified in a European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD, which is proposed for incorporation by reference (IBR). The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective May 2, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of May 2, 2025.
• For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at
Tom Rodriguez, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 206-231-3226; email:
The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X, FALCON 900EX, and FALCON 2000EX airplanes. The NPRM published in the
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require modifying certain EDUs and to prohibit the installation of affected parts, as specified in EASA AD 2024-0072. The FAA is issuing this AD to prevent internal and external battery swelling. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could lead to the thermal runaway of a battery, possibly resulting in the release of heat, smoke, fire, and explosion in the cockpit.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at
The FAA received comments from an individual who supported the NPRM without change. The FAA also received comments from an individual who supported the NPRM and had additional comments.
An individual requested that the FAA provide a phased compliance time to help operators, especially in remote areas, deal with logistical problems and
The FAA disagrees with the commenter's request. In developing an appropriate compliance time for this action, the FAA considered the recommendations of the manufacturer, the urgency associated with the subject unsafe condition, the availability of required parts, and the practical aspect of accomplishing the required modification within a period of time that corresponds to the normal scheduled maintenance for most affected operators. According to the manufacturer, an ample number of required parts will be available to modify the U.S. fleet within the proposed compliance time. However, under the provisions of paragraph (i)(1) of this AD, the FAA will consider requests for approval of an extension of the compliance time if sufficient data are submitted to substantiate that the new compliance time would provide an acceptable level of safety. The FAA has not changed this AD in this regard.
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on this product. Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.
EASA AD 2024-0072 specifies procedures for modifying CMA-1310 EDUs having P/N 100-604073-000 and with current mod-status between 2 and 6 (inclusive) to a mod-status 7 or higher, including a visual inspection of the external removable battery for defects (swelling) and replacement of any defective external removable battery with a new external removable battery, and updating the BIOS/EC firmware. EASA AD 2024-0072 prohibits the installation of CMA-1310 EDU having P/N 100-604073-000 and with a mod status between 2 and 6 (inclusive) on any airplane.
This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
The FAA estimates that this AD affects 719 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
The FAA estimates the following costs to do any necessary on-condition actions that would be required based on the results of any required actions. The FAA has no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these on-condition actions:
The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to the manufacturer, however, some or all the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected operators.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator,
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective May 2, 2025.
None.
This AD applies to Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X, FALCON 900EX, and FALCON 2000EX airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2024-0072, dated March 15, 2024 (EASA AD 2024-0072).
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 46, Information systems.
This AD was prompted by reported occurrences of swelling of the lithium-polymer internal and external batteries of CMA-1310 electronic display units (EDUs) having part number (P/N) 100-604073-000, with a mod-status between 2 and 6 (inclusive). The FAA is proposing this AD to prevent internal and external battery swelling. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could lead to the thermal runaway of a battery, possibly resulting in in the release of heat, smoke, fire, and explosion in the cockpit.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, EASA AD 2024-0072.
(1) Where EASA AD 2024-0072 refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.
(2) Paragraph (1) of EASA AD 2024-0072 specifies to “replace each affected part with a serviceable part. This can be accomplished in accordance with the instructions of the SB.” This AD, however, requires replacing that text with “replace each affected part with a serviceable part in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the SB.”
(3) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2024-0072.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
For more information about this AD, contact Tom Rodriguez, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 206-231-3226; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2024-0072, dated March 15, 2024.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email
(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, -300ER, and 777F series airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report indicating that an airplane experienced a glideslope (G/S) beam anomaly during an instrument landing system (ILS) approach, which resulted in a higher-than-expected descent rate during the final segment of an ILS approach. The flightcrew might follow misleading flight director (F/D) guidance after disconnecting the autopilot, without reference to the other available information and flight deck indications. This AD requires installing new autopilot flight director computer (AFDC) operational program software (OPS) and doing a software configuration check. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective May 2, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of May 2, 2025.
• For Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at
Michael Closson, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3973; email:
The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, -300ER, and 777F series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The FAA received comments from the Air Line Pilots Association, International (ALPA), Boeing, and one individual commenter, who supported the NPRM without change.
The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.
The FAA reviewed Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 777-22A0046 RB, dated October 25, 2022. This material specifies procedures for installing new AFDC OPS, doing a software configuration check, and making sure that the correct software part number is installed in the correct location. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
The FAA estimates that this AD affects 266 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective May 2, 2025.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, -300ER, and 777F series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 777-22A0046 RB, dated October 25, 2022.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 22, Auto flight.
This AD was prompted by a report indicating that an airplane experienced a glideslope (G/S) beam anomaly during an instrument landing system (ILS) approach, which resulted in a higher-than-expected descent rate during the final segment of an ILS approach. The FAA is issuing this AD to address misleading flight director guidance that the flightcrew might follow after disconnecting the autopilot, without reference to the other available information and flight deck indications. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in a late touchdown, a runway excursion, or controlled flight into terrain.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: At the applicable times specified in paragraph 3., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 777-22A0046 RB, dated October 25, 2022, do all applicable actions identified in, and in accordance with, the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 777-22A0046 RB, dated October 25, 2022.
Where the Compliance Time column of the table in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 777-22A0046 RB, dated October 25, 2022, refers to “the Original Issue date of Requirements Bulletin 777-22A0046 RB,” this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.
(1) The Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by The Boeing Company Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Michael Closson, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3973; email:
(2) Material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the address specified in paragraph (k)(3) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 777-22A0046 RB, dated October 25, 2022.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) For Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website
(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8, 787-9, and 787-10 airplanes. This AD was prompted by possible horizontal stabilizer pivot pin lockring, outer pivot pin, and outboard spacer misalignment at final assembly. This AD requires inspection of the left-side and right-side horizontal stabilizer pivot pin assemblies for misalignment and incorrect gapping, and applicable on-condition actions. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective May 2, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of May 2, 2025.
• For Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110 SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at
Joseph Hodgin, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3962; email:
The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8, 787-9, and 787-10 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The FAA received comments from Air Line Pilots Association, International (ALPA), Boeing, United Airlines (United), and Etihad Airways (Etihad). ALPA supported the NPRM and had additional comments. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
Boeing, United, and Etihad requested the proposed AD be revised to clarify an inspection area. The commenters said that flag notes [1] and [3] in Table 1 of Task 5 in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024, state to do a detailed inspection of the right side horizontal stabilizer pivot pin. The commenters stated Task 5 is for the left side horizontal stabilizer pivot pin assembly and the wording “right side” in Task 5, Table 1, Flag Notes [1] and [3] is a typographical error. Etihad stated that Boeing has confirmed this and other errors in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024, and stated that Boeing plans to revise the service information to address these errors. Etihad added that it would not be able to accomplish the proposed requirements without approved deviations.
The FAA agrees with the request to correct the inspection area for the reasons provided. The FAA has added an exception in paragraph (h)(2) of this AD accordingly. Further, the FAA notes that the other errors mentioned by Etihad are addressed in the following comment responses.
Boeing and Etihad requested the proposed AD be revised to correct a part number. The commenters said Step 15 of Table 1 of Task 6 in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024, specifies an incorrect part number for TRAP FITTING,
The FAA agrees with the request to correct a part number for the reasons provided. The FAA has added an exception in paragraph (h)(3) of this AD accordingly.
Boeing, United, and Etihad requested the proposed AD be revised to remove reference to an incorrect part number. The commenters observed that several places in Tasks 5 through 8 in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024, specify an incorrect antirotation plate part number, noting the specified part number is for the trap fitting. United added that the trap fitting part number is not mentioned in other steps and should be removed. Etihad and Boeing noted that the antirotation plate is kept and reinstalled, so specifying a part number is not necessary.
The FAA agrees with the request to remove references to the incorrect antirotation part for the reasons provided. The FAA has added an exception in paragraph (h)(4) of this AD accordingly.
Etihad requested that instructions in Part 4 step (a) and Part 5 step (a) of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024, be corrected to specify that the referenced AMM [Aircraft Maintenance Manual] task is for installation, not removal. The commenter noted that the AMM title is incorrectly listed as being “. . . Assembly—Removal,” when it should be “. . . Assembly—Installation.” Etihad stated that Boeing confirmed the information would be corrected in the next bulletin revision.
The FAA acknowledges the typographical error in the service information. However, those instructions are not in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024. They are only included in the related service bulletin, which, as specified in Note 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD, provides guidance for accomplishing the actions in this AD. Instructions not included in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024, are not required for compliance with this AD. Therefore, the FAA has determined this AD does not need to be changed regarding this issue.
ALPA noted that, based on information provided by an air carrier in the docket for the proposed AD, it appears that Boeing is in the process of updating the service information referenced in the proposed AD. ALPA therefore recommended updating the proposed AD to refer to the latest version of the service information.
The FAA agrees to clarify. A revised version of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024, has not been issued. However, as previously noted, this AD has been revised to address several errors that would otherwise prevent operators from complying with this AD. The FAA might consider additional rulemaking, however, if revised service information is published that requires additional actions to address the unsafe condition. The FAA has not changed this AD in this regard.
United and Etihad requested an extension of the compliance time to 36
The FAA disagrees with the request. In developing an appropriate compliance time for this action, the FAA considered the recommendations of the manufacturer, the urgency associated with the subject unsafe condition, the availability of required parts, and the practical aspect of accomplishing the required actions within a period of time that corresponds to the normal scheduled maintenance for most affected operators. In consideration of these items, the FAA has determined that a 32 month compliance time will ensure an acceptable level of safety. However, under the provisions of paragraph (i) of this AD, the FAA will consider requests for approval of an extension of the compliance time if sufficient data are submitted to substantiate that the new compliance time would provide an acceptable level of safety. The FAA has not changed this AD in this regard.
The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered any comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. Except for minor editorial changes, and any other changes described previously, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.
The FAA reviewed Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024. This material specifies procedures for a detailed inspection of the left-side and right-side horizontal stabilizer pivot pin assemblies for misalignment and incorrect gapping and applicable on-condition actions. On-condition actions include replacement of the left or right horizontal stabilizer pivot pin assembly if any misalignment or incorrect gapping is found. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
The FAA estimates that this AD affects 145 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
The FAA estimates the following costs to do any necessary replacements that would be required based on the results of the inspection. The agency has no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this replacement:
The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to the manufacturer, however, some or all of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected operators.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective May 2, 2025.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 787-8, 787-9, and 787-10 airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 55, Stabilizers.
This AD was prompted by possible misalignment, at final assembly, of the horizontal stabilizer pivot pin lockring, outer pivot pin, and outboard spacer. The FAA is issuing this AD to address a pivot pin outboard spacer that has been found to not be set correctly flush against the horizontal stabilizer pivot bearing and outboard washer due to a misaligned pivot pin lockring. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in decreased lateral load capacity, which could cause the loss of pivot pin retention parts and lead to loss of the horizontal stabilizer and loss of continued safe flight and landing.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as specified by paragraph (h) of this AD: At the applicable times specified in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024, do all applicable actions identified in, and in accordance with, the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024.
(1) Where the Compliance Time columns of the tables in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024, refers to the Issue 001 date of Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.
(2) Where flag notes [1] and [3] of Table 1 of Task 5 in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024, state to do a detailed inspection of the horizontal stabilizer pivot pin “right side,” this AD requires replacing that text with “left side.”
(3) Where Step 15 of Table 1 of Task 6 in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024, specifies to install a trap fitting having part number “182W6405-1,” this AD requires replacing that text with “313Z6455-501.”
(4) Where Tasks 5 to 8 specified in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024, specify a part number for the antirotation plate of “313Z6455-501,” this AD requires replacing that text with “-.”
(1) The Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by The Boeing Company Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Joseph Hodgin, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3962; email:
(2) Material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the address specified in paragraph (k)(3) this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin B787-81205-SB550013-00 RB, Issue 001, dated August 30, 2024.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) For Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website
(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; request for comments.
The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Embraer S.A. Model ERJ 190-300 and ERJ 190-400 airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report of a MAU 3B failure which led to brake fault advisory messages followed by loss of normal braking that was undetected until the brakes were pressed by the pilots. This AD requires revising the existing airplane flight manual (AFM) to incorporate procedures associated with the failure of certain modular avionics
This AD is effective April 14, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of April 14, 2025.
The FAA must receive comments on this AD by May 12, 2025.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
• For ANAC material identified in this AD, contact National Civil Aviation Agency (ANAC), Aeronautical Products Certification Branch (GGCP), Rua Dr. Orlando Feirabend Filho, 230—Centro Empresarial Aquarius—Torre B—Andares 14 a 18, Parque Residencial Aquarius, CEP 12.246-190—São José dos Campos—SP, Brazil; telephone 55 (12) 3203-6600; email
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at
Krista Greer, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3221; email:
The FAA invites you to send any written data, views, or arguments about this final rule. Send your comments to an address listed under the
Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to
CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this AD contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this AD, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this AD. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Krista Greer, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3221; email:
ANAC, which is the aviation authority for Brazil, has issued ANAC AD 2024-08-01, effective August 19, 2024 (ANAC AD 2024-08-01) (also referred to as the MCAI), to correct an unsafe condition for all Embraer S.A. Model ERJ 190-300 and ERJ 190-400 airplanes. The MCAI states a report was received about a failure of the MAU 3B annunciated by the AVNX MAU 3B FAIL caution message associated with BRK LH FAULT and BRK RH FAULT advisory messages. During the landing run, the normal brakes were not available, and the messages BRK LH FAIL, BRK RH FAIL, BRK PEDL LH SEAT FAIL, and BRK PEDL RH SEAT FAIL were also displayed on the engine indicating and crew alerting system (EICAS) only after the pilots pressed the brake pedals. It was discovered certain failures of the MAU 1A and MAU 3B may lead to an undetected loss of normal brakes scenario until the brake pedals are pressed by the pilots. A runway excursion event may occur due to the pilots having only a short time available to respond.
The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at
ANAC AD 2024-08-01 specifies AFM procedures to incorporate modifications associated with “AVIONICS MAU 1A FAILURE” and “AVIONICS MAU 3B FAILURE” messages. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA is issuing this AD after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
This AD requires accomplishing the actions specified in ANAC AD 2024-08-01 described previously, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this AD.
In the FAA's ongoing efforts to improve the efficiency of the AD process, the FAA developed a process to use some civil aviation authority (CAA)
The FAA considers that this AD is an interim action. If final action is later identified, the FAA might consider further rulemaking then.
Section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 551
There are currently no domestic operators of these products. Accordingly, notice and opportunity for prior public comment are unnecessary, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b). In addition, for the foregoing reasons, the FAA finds that good cause exists pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d) for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days.
The requirements of the RFA do not apply when an agency finds good cause pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553 to adopt a rule without prior notice and comment. Because the FAA has determined that it has good cause to adopt this rule without notice and comment, RFA analysis is not required.
Currently, there are no affected U.S.-registered airplanes. If an affected airplane is imported and placed on the U.S. Register in the future, the FAA provides the following cost estimates to comply with this AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866, and
(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective April 14, 2025.
None.
This AD applies to all Embraer S.A. (Type Certificate Previously Held by Yaborã Indústria Aeronáutica S.A.; Embraer S.A.) Model ERJ 190-300 and ERJ 190-400 airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 32, Landing gear.
This AD was prompted by a report of a MAU 3B failure which led to brake fault advisory messages followed by loss of normal braking that was undetected until the brakes were pressed by the pilots. The FAA is issuing this AD to address certain failures of modular avionics units that may lead to an undetected loss of normal brakes scenario until brake pedals are pressed by the pilots. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could lead to a runway excursion, due to the pilots having only a short time available to respond.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, Agência Nacional de Aviação Civil (ANAC) AD 2024-08-01, effective August 19, 2024 (ANAC AD 2024-08-01).
(1) Where ANAC AD 2024-08-01 refers to its “effectivity date,” this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.
(2) This AD does not adopt paragraph (d) of ANAC AD 2024-08-01.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
For more information about this AD, contact Krista Greer, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3221; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Agência Nacional de Aviação Civil (ANAC) AD 2024-08-01, effective August 19, 2024.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) For ANAC material identified in this AD, contact National Civil Aviation Agency (ANAC), Aeronautical Products Certification Branch (GGCP), Rua Dr. Orlando Feirabend Filho, 230—Centro Empresarial Aquarius—Torre B—Andares 14 a 18, Parque Residencial Aquarius, CEP 12.246-190—São José dos Campos—SP, Brazil; telephone 55 (12) 3203-6600; email:
(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Bureau of Industry and Security, Department of Commerce.
Final rule.
In this final rule, the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) amends the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) by adding 70 entities to the Entity List, under the destinations of China, People's Republic of (China) (42); Iran (2); Pakistan (19); South Africa (3); and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) (4). These entities have been determined by the U.S. Government to be acting contrary to the national security or foreign policy interests of the United States. This final rule also modifies four existing entries on the Entity List, consisting of revisions to one entry under France, one entry under Iran, one entry under Senegal, and one entry under the United Kingdom.
This rule is effective March 28, 2025.
Chair, End-User Review Committee, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Export Administration, Bureau of Industry and Security, Department of Commerce, Phone: (202) 482-5991, Email:
The Entity List (supplement no. 4 to part 744 of the EAR (15 CFR parts 730-774)) identifies entities for which there is reasonable cause to believe, based on specific and articulable facts, that the entities have been involved, are involved, or pose a significant risk of being or becoming involved in activities contrary to the national security or foreign policy interests of the United States, pursuant to § 744.11. The EAR impose additional license requirements on, and limit the availability of, most license exceptions for exports, reexports, and transfers (in-country) when a listed entity is a party to the transaction. The license review policy for each listed entity is identified in the “License Review Policy” column on the Entity List, and the impact on the availability of license exceptions is described in the relevant
The End-User Review Committee (ERC), composed of representatives of the Departments of Commerce (Chair), State, Defense, Energy and, where appropriate, the Treasury, makes all decisions regarding additions to, removals from, or other modifications to the Entity List. The ERC makes all decisions to add an entry to the Entity List by majority vote and makes all decisions to remove or modify an entry by unanimous vote.
The ERC determined to add Britlite Engineering Company; Indentech International; IntraLink Incorporated; Proc-Master; Rehman Engineering and Services; and The Sadidians, all under the destination of Pakistan, to the Entity List. The addition of these entities is made on the basis of their contributions to Pakistan's unsafeguarded nuclear activities. This activity is contrary to the national security and foreign policy of the United States under § 744.11 of the EAR. These six entities require a license for all items subject to the EAR.
The ERC determined to add Sine Technologies; Supply Source Co.; Ariston Trade Links; Professional Systems (Pvt) Ltd.; RASTEK Technologies; and NA Enterprises, all under the destination of Pakistan, and Zibo Topred International Trading Company Limited, under the destination of China, to the Entity List. The addition of these entities is made on the basis of their contributions to Pakistan's unsafeguarded nuclear activities. This activity is contrary to the national security and foreign policy of the United States under § 744.11 of the EAR. These seven entities require a license for all items subject to the EAR.
The ERC determined to add Allied Business Concerns (Pvt) Ltd; Global Traders; Linkers Automation (Pvt) Ltd; Otto Manufacturing; Potohar Industrial & Trading Concern; Rachna Supplies (Pvt) Ltd; and Resource Enterprises, all under the destination of Pakistan, to the Entity List. The addition of these entities is made on the basis of their contributions to Pakistan's ballistic missile program. This activity is contrary to the national security and foreign policy of the United States under § 744.11 of the EAR. These entities are added to the Entity List, with a license requirement for all items subject to the EAR. License applications for the seven entities will be reviewed under a presumption of denial.
The ERC determined to add Scikro (Hong Kong) Instruments Limited and Scikro (Shanghai) Instrument Co., Ltd., both under the destination of China, to the Entity List. These entities are added for acquiring and attempting to acquire U.S.-origin items in support of advancing China's quantum technology capabilities, which has serious ramifications for U.S. national security given the military applications of quantum technologies. Both Scikro (Hong Kong) Instruments Limited and Scikro (Shanghai) Instrument Co., Ltd. have a history of supplying dilution refrigerators, which can be used to significantly improve the cooling capabilities of quantum systems, to Chinese parties on the Entity List as well as defense-related Chinese entities. The actions of these entities meet the criteria for inclusion on the Entity List under § 744.11 of the EAR, as there is reasonable cause to believe, based on specific and articulable facts, that these entities have been involved in activities that are contrary to the national security or foreign policy interests of the United States. These entities will be added to the Entity List with a license requirement for all items subject to the EAR and license applications will be reviewed under a presumption of denial.
The ERC determined to add Anhui Kehua Sci-Tech Trading Co., Ltd.; Associated Opto-electronics (Chongqing) Co., Ltd.; Chongqing Southwest Integrated Circuit Design Co., Ltd.; ORICAS Import and Export (Beijing) Corporation; and Physike Technology Co., Ltd., all under the destination of China, to the Entity List. These entities are added for acquiring and attempting to acquire U.S.-origin items in support of advancing China's quantum technology capabilities, which has serious ramifications for U.S. national security given the military applications of quantum technologies. The actions of these entities meet the criteria for inclusion on the Entity List under § 744.11 of the EAR, as there is reasonable cause to believe, based on specific and articulable facts, these entities have been involved in activities that are contrary to the national security or foreign policy interests of the United States. These entities will be added with a license requirement for all items subject to the EAR and license applications will be reviewed under a presumption of denial.
The ERC determined to add Singleton (Suzhou) Electronics Technology Co., Ltd. and Suzhou SIP Hi-Tech Precision Electronics Co., Ltd. under the destination of China, to the Entity List. These entities sell products to Chinese companies who supply Entity List parties, including Huawei and HiSilicon. This activity is contrary to the national security and foreign policy interests of the United States under § 744.11 of the EAR. These entities are added with a license requirement for all items subject to the EAR. License applications for the two entities will be reviewed under a presumption of denial.
The ERC determined to add Aeronautics Computing Technique Research Institute; Aerospace Star Technology Application Co., Ltd.; Air Force Engineering University; Beijing Guoke Tianxun Technology Co., Ltd.; Beijing Graphene Institute Co., Ltd; the Chinese Academy of Sciences Technology and Engineering Center for Space Utilization; Chengdu Aircraft Design and Research Institute; China Academy of Launch Vehicle Technology Beijing Institute of Precision Mechatronics Control Equipment; China Aeronautical Radio Electronics Research Institute; Harbin Aerospace Star Data System Technology Co., Ltd.; Jiangxi Hongdu Aviation Industry Group Co., Ltd.; Nanjing Chunhui Technology Industry Co., Ltd.; Nanjing Fiberglass Research and Design Institute; Nanjing Panda Handa Technology Co., Ltd.; National Inspection and Testing Holding Group Nanjing National Materials Testing Co., Ltd.; Ningbo Institute of Materials Technology and Engineering; Shaanxi Aerospace Science and Technology Co., Ltd.; Shanghai Aviation Electronic Co., Ltd.; Space Star Technology Co., Ltd.; Suzhou Changfeng Avionics Co., Ltd.; Tianjin Aerospace Zhongwei Data System Technology Co., Ltd.; Xi'an Aerospace Automation Co., Ltd.; Xi'an Aerospace Tianhui Data Technology Co., Ltd.; Xi'an Sunward Aeromat Co., Ltd.; Xi'an Xiangteng Microelectronics Technology Co., Ltd.; Xi'an Xiangxun Technology Co., Ltd.; and Zhejiang Aerospace Hengjia Data Technology Co., Ltd., all under the destination of China, to the Entity List. These entities are added for acquiring or attempting to acquire U.S.-origin items in support of China's military modernization. These entities have demonstrable ties to activities of concern, including hypersonic weapons development, the design and modeling of vehicles in hypersonic flight, or using proprietary software to model weapons design and effects, or have otherwise supported China's military-civil fusion efforts. This activity is contrary to the national security and foreign policy interests of the United States under § 744.11 of the EAR. These entities are added with a license requirement for all items subject to the EAR and a license review policy of presumption of denial for all items subject to the EAR.
The ERC determined to add Mohammad Reza Rajabi and his associated company, Silk Road Trading Company Ltd., under the destinations of China and Iran, to the Entity List. These entities are added for using deceptive practices to attempt to circumvent export controls and sanctions to illicitly divert U.S.-origin technology and equipment to Iran and the Government of Iran. Specifically, they attempted to procure U.S-origin items for Iran's defense industry and unmanned aerial vehicle programs. This activity is contrary to the national security and foreign policy interests of the United States under § 744.11 of the EAR. For these two entities, BIS imposes a license requirement for all items subject to the EAR and will review license applications under a presumption of denial.
The ERC determined to add Beijing Foundfresh Technology Co., Ltd.; Gyro Technology Co., Ltd.; and Stratum FT Limited under the destination of China; Ascenso Aviation; Blue Sky Aviation (Pty) Ltd.; and Wingman Concept (Pty) Ltd. under the destination of South Africa; and Astec Astronomy FZCO; Roche Consulting Limited; TFASA Helicopter International; and TG Training 2023 FZCO, under the destination of the United Arab Emirates, to the Entity List because of their links to the Test Flying Academy of South Africa (TFASA) and the training of Chinese military forces using Western and NATO sources. TFASA was added to the Entity List on June 12, 2023 (88 FR 38739, June 14, 2023). This activity is contrary to the national security and foreign policy interests of the United States under § 744.11 of the EAR. For these ten entities, BIS imposes a license requirement for all items subject to the EAR and will review license
For the reasons described above, this final rule adds the following 70 entities including aliases where appropriate, to the Entity List:
• Aeronautics Computing Technique Research Institute;
• Aerospace Star Technology Application Co., Ltd.;
• Air Force Engineering University;
• Anhui Kehua Sci-Tech Trading Co., Ltd.;
• Associated Opto-electronics (Chongqing) Co., Ltd.;
• Beijing Foundfresh Technology Co., Ltd.;
• Beijing Graphene Institute Co., Ltd;
• Beijing Guoke Tianxun Technology Co., Ltd.;
• Chengdu Aircraft Design and Research Institute;
• China Academy of Launch Vehicle Technology Beijing Institute of Precision Mechatronics Control Equipment;
• China Aeronautical Radio Electronics Research Institute;
• Chinese Academy of Sciences Technology and Engineering Center for Space Utilization;
• Chongqing Southwest Integrated Circuit Design Co., Ltd.;
• Gyro Technology Co., Ltd.;
• Harbin Aerospace Star Data System Technology Co., Ltd.;
• Jiangxi Hongdu Aviation Industry Group Co., Ltd.;
• Mohammad Reza Rajabi;
• Nanjing Chunhui Technology Industry Co., Ltd.;
• Nanjing Fiberglass Research and Design Institute;
• Nanjing Panda Handa Technology Co., Ltd.;
• National Inspection and Testing Holding Group Nanjing National Materials Testing Co., Ltd.;
• Ningbo Institute of Materials Technology and Engineering;
• ORICAS Import and Export (Beijing) Corporation;
• Physike Technology Co., Ltd.;
• Scikro (Hong Kong) Instruments Limited;
• Scikro (Shanghai) Instrument Co., Ltd.;
• Shaanxi Aerospace Science and Technology Co., Ltd.;
• Shanghai Aviation Electronic Co., Ltd.;
• Silk Road Trading Company Ltd.;
• Singleton (Suzhou) Electronics Technology Co., Ltd.;
• Space Star Technology Co., Ltd.;
• Stratum FT Limited;
• Suzhou Changfeng Avionics Co., Ltd.;
• Suzhou SIP Hi-Tech Precision Electronics Co., Ltd.;
• Tianjin Aerospace Zhongwei Data System Technology Co., Ltd.;
• Xi'an Aerospace Automation Co., Ltd.;
• Xi'an Aerospace Tianhui Data Technology Co., Ltd.;
• Xi'an Sunward Aeromat Co., Ltd.;
• Xi'an Xiangteng Microelectronics Technology Co., Ltd.;
• Xi'an Xiangxun Technology Co., Ltd.;
• Zhejiang Aerospace Hengjia Data Technology Co., Ltd.;
• Zibo Topred International Trading Company Limited.
• Mohammad Reza Rajabi;
• Silk Road Trading Company Ltd.
• Allied Business Concerns (Pvt) Ltd;
• Ariston Trade Links;
• Britlite Engineering Company;
• Global Traders;
• Indentech International;
• IntraLink Incorporated;
• Linkers Automation (Pvt) Ltd;
• NA Enterprises;
• Otto Manufacturing;
• Potohar Industrial & Trading Concern;
• Proc-Master;
• Professional Systems (Pvt) Ltd.;
• Rachna Supplies (Pvt) Ltd;
• RASTEK Technologies;
• Rehman Engineering and Services;
• Resource Enterprises;
• Sine Technologies;
• Supply Source Co.;
• The Sadidians.
• Ascenso Aviation;
• Blue Sky Aviation (Pty) Ltd.;
• Wingman Concept (Pty) Ltd.
• Astec Astronomy FZCO;
• Roche Consulting Limited;
• TFASA Helicopter International;
• TG Training 2023 FZCO.
The ERC has determined to modify one existing entity, Dart Aviation, under four entries on the Entity List under the destinations of France, Iran, Senegal, and the United Kingdom. These entries are modified by adding two aliases and one address.
For the changes being made in this final rule, shipments of items removed from eligibility for a License Exception or export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) without a license (NLR) as a result of this regulatory action that were en route aboard a carrier to a port of export, reexport, or transfer (in-country), on March 28, 2025, pursuant to actual orders for export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) to or within a foreign destination, may proceed to that destination under the previous eligibility for a License Exception or export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) without a license (NLR) before April 28, 2025. Any such items not actually exported, reexported or transferred (in-country) before midnight, on April 28, 2025, require a license in accordance with this final rule.
On August 13, 2018, the President signed into law the John S. McCain National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2019, which included the Export Control Reform Act of 2018 (ECRA) 50 U.S.C. 4801-4852. ECRA provides the legal basis for BIS's principal authorities and serves as the authority under which BIS issues this rule. In particular, Section 1753 of ECRA 50 U.S.C. 4812 authorizes the regulation of exports, reexports, and transfers (in-country) of items subject to U.S. jurisdiction. Further, Section 1754(a)(1)-(16) of ECRA, 50 U.S.C. 4813(a)(1)-(16), authorizes, inter alia, establishing and maintaining a list of foreign persons and end-uses that are determined to be a threat to the national security and foreign policy of the United States pursuant to the policy set forth in Section 1752(2)(A), and restricting exports, reexports, and in-country transfers of any controlled items to any foreign person or end-use so listed; apprising the public of changes in policy, regulations, and procedures; and any other action necessary to carry out ECRA that is not otherwise prohibited by law. Pursuant to Section 1762(a) of ECRA, 50 U.S.C. 4821(a), these changes can be imposed in a final rule without prior notice and comment.
1. This rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to or be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information, subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501
3. This rule does not contain policies with federalism implications as that term is defined in Executive Order 13132.
4. Pursuant to section 1762 of the Export Control Reform Act of 2018, this action is exempt from the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 553, requirements for notice of proposed rulemaking, opportunity for public participation, and delay in effective date.
5. Because a notice of proposed rulemaking and an opportunity for public comment are not required to be given for this rule by 5 U.S.C. 553, or by any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601,
Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Terrorism.
Accordingly, part 744 of the Export Administration Regulations (15 CFR parts 730-774) is amended as follows:
50 U.S.C. 4801-4852; 50 U.S.C. 4601
a. Under CHINA, PEOPLE'S REPUBLIC OF,
i. Adding in alphabetical order, entries for “Aeronautics Computing Technique Research Institute”; “Aerospace Star Technology Application Co., Ltd.”; “Air Force Engineering University”; “Anhui Kehua Sci-Tech Trading Co., Ltd.”; “Associated Opto-electronics (Chongqing) Co., Ltd.”; “Beijing Foundfresh Technology Co., Ltd.”; “Beijing Graphene Institute Co., Ltd”; “Beijing Guoke Tianxun Technology Co., Ltd.”; “Chengdu Aircraft Design and Research Institute”; “China Academy of Launch Vehicle Technology Beijing Institute of Precision Mechatronics Control Equipment”; “China Aeronautical Radio Electronics Research Institute”; “Chinese Academy of Sciences Technology and Engineering Center for Space Utilization”; “Chongqing Southwest Integrated Circuit Design Co., Ltd.”; “Gyro Technology Co., Ltd.”; “Harbin Aerospace Star Data System Technology Co., Ltd.”; “Jiangxi Hongdu Aviation Industry Group Co., Ltd.”; “Mohammad Reza Rajabi”; “Nanjing Chunhui Technology Industry Co., Ltd.”; “Nanjing Fiberglass Research and Design Institute”; “Nanjing Panda Handa Technology Co., Ltd.”; “National Inspection and Testing Holding Group Nanjing National Materials Testing Co., Ltd.”; “Ningbo Institute of Materials Technology and Engineering”; “ORICAS Import and Export (Beijing) Corporation”; “Physike Technology Co., Ltd.” “Scikro (Hong Kong) Instruments Limited”; “Scikro (Shanghai) Instrument Co., Ltd.”; “Shaanxi Aerospace Science and Technology Co., Ltd.”; “Shanghai Aviation Electronic Co., Ltd.”; “Silk Road Trading Company Ltd.”; “Singleton (Suzhou) Electronics Technology Co., Ltd.”; “Space Star Technology Co., Ltd.”; “Stratum FT Limited”; “Suzhou Changfeng Avionics Co., Ltd.”; “Suzhou SIP Hi-Tech Precision Electronics Co., Ltd.”; “Tianjin Aerospace Zhongwei Data System Technology Co., Ltd.”; “Xi'an Aerospace Automation Co., Ltd.”; “Xi'an Aerospace Tianhui Data Technology Co., Ltd.”; “Xi'an Sunward Aeromat Co., Ltd.”; “Xi'an Xiangteng Microelectronics Technology Co., Ltd.”; “Xi'an Xiangxun Technology Co., Ltd.”; “Zhejiang Aerospace Hengjia Data Technology Co., Ltd.”; and “Zibo Topred International Trading Company Limited”;
b. Under FRANCE, revising the entry for “Dart Aviation”;
c. Under IRAN,
i. Revising the entry for “Dart Aviation”;
ii. Adding, in alphabetical order, the entries for “Mohammad Reza Rajabi” and “Silk Road Trading Company Ltd.”;
d. Under PAKISTAN, adding entries in alphabetical order for “Allied Business Concerns (Pvt) Ltd”; “Ariston Trade Links”; “Britlite Engineering Company”; “Global Traders”; “Indentech International”; “IntraLink Incorporated”; “Linkers Automation (Pvt) Ltd”; “NA Enterprises”; “Otto Manufacturing”; “Potohar Industrial & Trading Concern”; “Proc-Master”; “Professional Systems (Pvt) Ltd.”; “Rachna Supplies (Pvt) Ltd”; “RASTEK Technologies”; “Rehman Engineering and Services”; “Resource Enterprises”; “Sine Technologies”; “Supply Source Co.”; and “The Sadidians”;
e. Under SENEGAL, revising the entry for “Dart Aviation”;
f. Under SOUTH AFRICA, adding entries in alphabetical order for “Ascenso Aviation”; “Blue Sky Aviation (Pty) Ltd.”; and “Wingman Concept (Pty) Ltd.”;
g. Under UNITED ARAB EMIRATES, adding entries in alphabetical order for “Astec Astronomy FZCO”; “Roche Consulting Limited”; “TFASA Helicopter International”; and
h. UNDER UNITED KINGDOM, revising the entry for “Dart Aviation”.
The revision and additions read as follows:
Bureau of Industry and Security, Department of Commerce.
Final rule.
In this rule, the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) amends the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) by adding 12 entities to the Entity List, under the destinations of China, People's Republic of (China) (11) and Taiwan (1). These entities have been determined by the U.S. Government to be acting contrary to the national security or foreign policy interests of the United States.
This rule is effective March 25, 2025.
Chair, End-User Review Committee, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Export Administration, Bureau of Industry and Security, Department of
The Entity List (supplement no. 4 to part 744 of the EAR (15 CFR parts 730-774)) identifies entities for which there is reasonable cause to believe, based on specific and articulable facts, that the entities have been involved, are involved, or pose a significant risk of being or becoming involved in activities contrary to the national security or foreign policy interests of the United States, pursuant to § 744.11(b). The EAR imposes additional license requirements on, and limits the availability of, most license exceptions for exports, reexports, and transfers (in-country) when a listed entity is a party to the transaction. The license review policy for each listing is identified in the “License Review Policy” column on the Entity List, and the impact on the availability of license exceptions is described in the relevant
The End-User Review Committee (ERC), composed of representatives of the Departments of Commerce (Chair), State, Defense, Energy and, where appropriate, the Treasury, makes all decisions regarding additions to, removals from, or other modifications to the Entity List. The ERC makes all decisions to add an entry to the Entity List by majority vote and makes all decisions to remove or modify an entry by unanimous vote.
The ERC determined to add the Beijing Academy of Artificial Intelligence and Beijing Innovation Wisdom Technology Co., Ltd. to the Entity List, under the destination of China. These entities are being added for acquiring and attempting to acquire U.S.-origin items in support of China's military modernization. Specifically, these entities have developed large artificial intelligence (AI) models and advanced computing chips for defense purposes. This activity is contrary to U.S. national security and foreign policy interests under § 744.11 of the EAR. For both of these entities, BIS imposes a license requirement for all items subject to the EAR, and a license review policy of a presumption of denial. They are also given a footnote 4 designation, which means that “items subject to the EAR” for the purpose of these license requirements include foreign-produced items that are subject to the EAR pursuant to § 734.9(e)(2) of the EAR.
The ERC determined to add six entities to the Entity List: Inspur (Beijing) Electronic Information Industry Co., Ltd.; Inspur Electronic Information Industry Co., Ltd.; Inspur Electronic Information (Hong Kong) Co., Ltd.; Inspur (HK) Electronics Co., Ltd.; and Inspur Software Co., Ltd., under the destination of China; and Inspur Taiwan, under the destination of Taiwan. These six entities are subsidiaries of China's leading cloud computing and big data service provider, Inspur Group, which was added to the Entity List on March 2, 2023.
The ERC determined to add Henan Dingxin Information Industry Co., Ltd.; Nettrix Information Industry Co., Ltd.; Suma Technology Co., Ltd.; and Suma-USI Electronics Co., Ltd., under the destination of China, to the Entity List. These entities are being added for their involvement in the development of Chinese exascale supercomputers, which are capable of processing vast amounts of data at very high speeds and conducting large-scale simulations. Furthermore, these entities have provided significant manufacturing capabilities to Sugon, a Chinese high-performance computing server manufacturer added to the Entity List in 2019 for building supercomputers used by military end users and supporting China's destabilizing military modernization efforts.
For the reasons described above, this final rule adds the following 12 entities, including aliases where appropriate, to the Entity List:
• Beijing Academy of Artificial Intelligence;
• Beijing Innovation Wisdom Technology Co., Ltd.;
• Henan Dingxin Information Industry Co., Ltd.;
• Inspur (Beijing) Electronic Information Industry Co., Ltd.;
• Inspur Electronic Information Industry Co., Ltd.;
• Inspur Electronic Information (Hong Kong) Co., Ltd.;
• Inspur (HK) Electronics Co., Ltd.;
• Inspur Software Co., Ltd.;
• Nettrix Information Industry Co., Ltd.;
• Suma Techology Co., Ltd.; and
• Suma-USI Electronics Co., Ltd.
• Inspur Taiwan.
For the changes being made in this final rule, shipments of items removed from eligibility for a License Exception or export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) without a license (NLR) as a result of this regulatory action that were en route aboard a carrier to a port of export, reexport, or transfer (in-country), on March 25, 2025, pursuant to actual orders for export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) to or within a foreign destination, may proceed to that destination under the previous eligibility for a License Exception or export, reexport, or transfer (in-country) without a license (NLR) before April 24,
On August 13, 2018, the President signed into law the John S. McCain National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2019, which included the Export Control Reform Act of 2018 (ECRA) (50 U.S.C. 4801-4852). ECRA provides the legal basis for BIS's principal authorities and serves as the authority under which BIS issues this rule. In particular, Section 1753 of ECRA (50 U.S.C. 4812) authorizes the regulation of exports, reexports, and transfers (in-country) of items subject to U.S. jurisdiction. Further, Section 1754(a)(1)-(16) of ECRA (50 U.S.C. 4813(a)(1)-(16)) authorizes, inter alia, establishing and maintaining a list of foreign persons and end uses that are determined to be a threat to the national security and foreign policy of the United States pursuant to the policy set forth in Section 1752(2)(A), and restricting exports, reexports, and in-country transfers of any controlled items to any foreign person or end use so listed; apprising the public of changes in policy, regulations, and procedures; and any other action necessary to carry out ECRA that is not otherwise prohibited by law. Pursuant to Section 1762(a) of ECRA (50 U.S.C. 4821(a)), these changes can be imposed in a final rule without prior notice and comment.
1. This rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to or be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information, subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501
3. This rule does not contain policies with federalism implications as that term is defined in Executive Order 13132.
4. Pursuant to Section 1762 of ECRA, 50 U.S.C. 4821, this action is exempt from the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) 5 U.S.C. 553 requirements for notice of proposed rulemaking, opportunity for public participation, and delay in effective date.
5. Because a notice of proposed rulemaking and an opportunity for public comment are not required to be given for this rule by 5 U.S.C. 553, or by any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601,
Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Terrorism.
Accordingly, part 744 of the Export Administration Regulations (15 CFR parts 730-774) is amended as follows:
50 U.S.C. 4801-4852; 50 U.S.C. 4601
The additions read as follows:
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone on the navigable waters of the San Francisco Bay, off of Pier 15, in San Francisco, CA in support of fireworks displays on March 22, 2025, March 29, 2025, April 19, 2025, April 26, 2025, and May 3, 2025. This safety zone is necessary to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards created by pyrotechnics. Unauthorized persons or vessels are prohibited from entering into, transiting through, or remaining in the safety zone without the permission of the Captain of the Port, Sector San Francisco or a designated representative.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions about this rule, call or email Lieutenant William K. Harris, U.S. Coast Guard Sector San Francisco, Waterways Management Division; telephone: (415) 399-7443, email:
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary rule under the authority in 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B). This statutory provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” The Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because the Coast Guard did not receive final details for this event until March 3, 2025, and action is needed to protect personnel and vessels from the potential hazards associated with pyrotechnics. It is impracticable to publish an NPRM because we must establish this safety zone by March 22, 2025.
Also, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034. The Captain of the Port, Sector San Francisco (COTP) has determined that potential hazards associated with the scheduled Pier 15 Fireworks displays on March 22, 2025, March 29, 2025, April 19, 2025, April 26, 2025, and May 3, 2025, will be a safety concern for anyone within a 200-yard radius of the fireworks vessel starting approximately
This rule establishes a safety zone from 9:15 p.m. until 10:30 p.m. on March 22, 2025, March 29, 2025, April 19, 2025, April 26, 2025, and May 3, 2025, during the staging of the fireworks vessel and until 30 minutes after the completion of the fireworks display. The fireworks displays are scheduled to start at approximately 9:50 p.m. and end at approximately 10 p.m. on March 22, 2025, March 29, 2025, April 19, 2025, April 26, 2025, and May 3, 2025, off Pier 15 within the San Francisco Bay in San Francisco, CA.
At 9:15 p.m. on the dates listed above, approximately 30 minutes prior to the commencement of the 10-minute fireworks display, the safety zone will encompass the navigable waters around and under the fireworks vessel, from surface to bottom, within an circle formed by connecting all points 200 yards from the circle center at approximate position 37°48′8.45″ N, 122°23′42.26″ W (NAD 83). The safety zone will terminate at 10:30 p.m. on the dates listed above, or as announced via Broadcast Notice to Mariners.
The establishment of this safety zone is needed to ensure the safety of vessels in the navigable waters within 200-yards of the fireworks display. No vessel or person will be permitted to enter the safety zone without obtaining permission from the COTP or a designated representative.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, this rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration, and time of day of the safety zone. Although this rule restricts access to the waters encompassed by the safety zone, the effect of this rule will not be significant because the local waterway users will be notified to ensure the safety zone will result in minimum impact. Mariners will be able to plan and transit outside of the periods of enforcement of the safety zone. The limited duration of the safety zone will mitigate impacts to vessel traffic in the area of the safety zone. The entities most likely affected are commercial vessels and pleasure craft engaged in recreational activities.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please call or email the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have Tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or Tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a safety zone lasting only 1 hour fifteen minutes at a time and cumulatively less than 7
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.3.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) The safety zone is closed to all vessel traffic, except as may be permitted by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
(3) Vessel operators desiring to enter or operate within the safety zone must contact the COTP or the COTP's designated representative to obtain permission to do so. Vessel operators given permission to enter in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative while within the zone. Persons and vessels may request permission to enter the safety zone through the 24-hour Command Center at telephone (415) 399-7330.
(d)
Office of Acquisition Policy, General Services Administration (GSA).
Final rule; postponement of effectiveness.
The General Services Administration is again postponing the effectiveness of amendments that appeared in the
This rule is effective May 26, 2025. As of March 28, 2025, the effectiveness of the amendments to 48 CFR parts 501 and 552 published at 89 FR 105474, December 27, 2024, are postponed until May 26, 2025.
For clarification of content, contact Ms. Adina Torberntsson, Procurement Analyst, at
The General Services Administration is postponing the effectiveness of amendments in the General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation titled “Update to OMB Approval Table,” that appeared in the
Accordingly, GSA is correcting the regulations to provide for an update to the effective date of GSAR provision 552.270-1 from JAN 2025 to MAY 2025.
Government procurement.
Therefore, GSA amends 48 CFR part 552 as set forth below:
40 U.S.C. 121(c).
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
The FAA proposes to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 777-200LR Series and 777-300ER Series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by reports of chafing and arcing damage on the light emitting diode (LED) sidewall wire bundles. This proposed AD would require a general visual inspection (GVI) of the sidewall light for chafing damage and applicable on-condition actions. The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
The FAA must receive comments on this proposed AD by May 12, 2025.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
• For the Boeing material identified in this proposed AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at
Raja Vengadasalam, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3537; email:
The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to
CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Raja Vengadasalam, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3537; email:
The FAA has received reports of chafing and arcing damage on the LED sidewall wire bundles. An operator reported that wire chafing and arcing damage was found on the power cable of the LED sidewall lights during a maintenance check. The damage was caused by the LED sidewall light power connector wire bundle becoming trapped between the sidewall light housing and moisture barrier after maintenance. Relative motion and deflection between the crown and sidewall may mechanically strain the wires in the LED sidewall light power connector wire bundle. The 115-volt alternating current power wire eventually arcs to the electromagnetic interference shield and the communication wires inside the shield, but the circuit breaker may fail to open. This condition, if not addressed, could result in maintenance personnel contact with a live high-voltage electrical cable.
The FAA is issuing this NPRM after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
The FAA reviewed Boeing Special Attention Requirements Bulletin 777-33-0069 RB, dated October 15, 2024. This material specifies procedures for a GVI of the sidewall lights for wire chafing damage and applicable on-condition actions, including repairing the wire chafing damage, replacing the light, adjusting the wire routing, and installing a new wire clip, ringpost, and clamp. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the material already described, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this proposed AD. For information on the procedures, see this material at
The FAA estimates that this AD, if adopted as proposed, would affect 31 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
The FAA estimates the following costs to do any necessary actions that would be required based on the results of the proposed inspection. The agency has no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these actions:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
The FAA determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Would not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Would not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
The FAA must receive comments on this airworthiness directive (AD) by May 12, 2025.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 777-200LR Series and 777-300ER Series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Special Attention Requirements Bulletin 777-33-0069 RB, dated October 15, 2024.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 33, Lights.
This AD was prompted by reports of chafing and arcing damage on the light emitting diode (LED) sidewall wire bundles. The FAA is issuing this AD to prevent and address chafing damage on the LED sidewall wire bundles. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in maintenance personnel contact with a live high-voltage electrical cable.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: At the applicable times specified in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Special Attention Requirements Bulletin 777-33-0069 RB, dated October 15, 2024, do all
Where the “Boeing Recommended Compliance Time” column in the table under the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Special Attention Requirements Bulletin 777-33-0069 RB, dated October 15, 2024, refers to “the Original Issue date of Requirements Bulletin 777-33-0069 RB,” this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.
(1) The Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by The Boeing Company Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Raja Vengadasalam, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3537; email:
(2) Material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the address specified in paragraph (k)(3) this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Special Attention Requirements Bulletin 777-33-0069 RB, dated October 15, 2024.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) For the Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website
(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
The FAA proposes to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all International Aero Engines, LLC (IAE LLC) Model PW1122G-JM, PW1124G-JM, PW1124G1-JM, PW1127G-JM, PW1127G1-JM, PW1127G1A-JM, PW1127G1B-JM, PW1127GA-JM, PW1129G-JM, PW1130G-JM, PW1133G-JM, PW1133GA-JM, PW1428G-JM, PW1428GA-JM, PW1428GH-JM, PW1431G-JM, PW1431GA-JM, and PW1431GH-JM engines. This proposed AD was prompted by a report of six fan blade fracture events due to bird strikes, three of which resulted in an engine under cowl fire or pool fire. This proposed AD would require removal of one loop cushion clamp from the hydraulic fuel pressure fuel oil cooler fuel tube assembly (CP09 tube assembly) and replacement of the thermal management system (TMS) clevis mounts with redesigned TMS clevis mounts. The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
The FAA must receive comments on this proposed AD by May 12, 2025.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
• For Pratt & Whitney (PW) material identified in this proposed AD, contact International Aero Engines, LLC, 400 Main Street, East Hartford, CT 06118; phone: (860) 565-0140; email:
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
Carol Nguyen, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: (781) 238-7655; email:
The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to
CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Carol Nguyen, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198. Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.
The FAA received a report that the IAE LLC PW1100G fleet experienced six fan blade fracture events due to bird strikes, three of which resulted in an engine under cowl fire or pool fire. The manufacturer determined that during the events that resulted in a fire, the loads from the fan-blade-out caused the fracture of clevis mount bolts that attach the TMS manifold to the engine. The clevis mount bolt fracture allowed movement in the TMS manifold, causing the CP09 tube assembly to flex and fracture. The under cowl fire and pool fire events resulted from the ignition of high-pressure fuel released from the fractured CP09 fuel line. Engine fan blade fracture that results in clevis mount bolt fracture, if not addressed, could result in engine fire and damage to the airplane.
The FAA is issuing this NPRM after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
The FAA reviewed the following material:
• PW Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) PW1000G-C-72-00-0214-00A-930A-D, Issue No. 004, dated September 18, 2024, which specifies procedures for replacement of the TMS clevis mounts with redesigned TMS clevis mounts.
• PW ASB PW1000G-C-73-00-0053-00A-930A-D, Issue No. 005, dated September 18, 2024, which specifies procedures for removing one loop cushion clamp from the CP09 tube assembly.
This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information already described.
The FAA considers that this proposed AD would be an interim action. The manufacturer is currently developing a modification to address the unsafe condition identified in this AD. Once this modification is developed, FAA-approved, and available, the FAA might consider additional rulemaking.
The FAA estimates that this AD, if adopted as proposed, would affect 586 engines installed on airplanes of U.S. registry.
The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
The FAA determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Would not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Would not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
The FAA must receive comments on this airworthiness directive (AD) by May 12, 2025.
None.
This AD applies to International Aero Engines, LLC Model PW1122G-JM, PW1124G-JM, PW1124G1-JM, PW1127G-JM, PW1127G1-JM, PW1127G1A-JM, PW1127G1B-JM, PW1127GA-JM, PW1129G-JM, PW1130G-JM, PW1133G-JM, PW1133GA-JM, PW1428G-JM, PW1428GA-JM, PW1428GH-JM, PW1431G-JM, PW1431GA-JM, and PW1431GH-JM engines.
Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 1400, Miscellaneous Hardware.
This AD was prompted by a report of six fan blade fracture events due to bird strikes, three of which resulted in an engine under cowl fire or pool fire. The FAA is issuing this AD to prevent an engine under cowl fire or pool fire. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in engine fire and damage to the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Within 30 days after the effective date of this AD, remove one loop cushion clamp, part number ST1540-06, from the hydraulic fuel pressure fuel oil cooler fuel tube assembly (CP09 tube assembly) in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions, For Engines Installed On Aircraft, paragraph C, or For Engines Not Installed On Aircraft, paragraph A, of Pratt & Whitney (PW) Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) PW1000G-C-73-00-0053-00A-930A-D, Issue No. 005, dated September 18, 2024.
(2) At the next engine shop visit after the effective date of this AD, replace the thermal management system (TMS) clevis mount with redesigned TMS clevis mounts in accordance with paragraphs AJ, AK, and AM through AO of the Accomplishment Instructions of PW ASB PW1000G-C-72-00-0214-00A-930A-D, Issue No. 004, dated September 18, 2024.
The actions specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this AD constitute terminating action for the requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of this AD. This terminating action may be accomplished instead of the actions specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD.
(1) This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD, if done before the effective date of this AD using any of the material specified in paragraph (i)(1)(i) through (iv) of this AD inclusive.
(i) PW ASB PW1000G-C-73-00-0053-00A-930A-D, Issue No. 001, dated October 25, 2022.
(ii) PW ASB PW1000G-C-73-00-0053-00A-930A-D, Issue No. 002, dated November 07, 2022.
(iii) PW ASB PW1000G-C-73-00-0053-00A-930A-D, Issue No. 003, dated November 21, 2022.
(iv) PW ASB PW1000G-C-73-00-0053-00A-930A-D, Issue No. 004, dated March 15, 2024.
(2) This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this AD, if done before the effective date of this AD using any of the material specified in paragraph (i)(2)(i) through (iii) of this AD inclusive.
(i) PW ASB PW1000G-C-72-00-0214-00A-930A-D, Issue No. 001, dated July 19, 2023.
(ii) PW ASB PW1000G-C-72-00-0214-00A-930A-D, Issue No. 002, dated March 15, 2024.
(iii) PW ASB PW1000G-C-72-00-0214-00A-930A-D, Issue No. 003, dated May 16, 2024.
(1) The Manager, AIR-520 Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of AIR-520 Continued Operational Safety Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k) of this AD and email to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
For more information about this AD, contact Carol Nguyen, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: (781) 238-7655; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Pratt & Whitney (PW) Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) PW1000G-C-72-00-0214-00A-930A-D, Issue No. 004, dated September 18, 2024.
(ii) PW ASB PW1000G-C-73-00-0053-00A-930A-D, Issue No. 005, dated September 18, 2024.
(3) For PW material identified in this AD, contact International Aero Engines, LLC, 400 Main Street, East Hartford, CT 06118; phone: (860) 565-0140; email:
(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the Florida Department of Environmental Protection (FDEP) on August 15, 2023. The revision seeks to remove certain Clean Air Interstate Rule (CAIR)-related definitions, and CAIR-related portions of certain definitions, in the Stationary Sources—General Requirements chapter of the Florida SIP because they have become obsolete. EPA is proposing to approve these changes pursuant to the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act).
Comments must be received on or before April 28, 2025.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2024-0049 at
Mr. Steven Scofield, Multi-Air Pollutant Coordination Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air and Radiation Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW, Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. The telephone number is (404) 562-9034. Mr. Scofield can also be reached via electronic mail at
Under CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I), also called the “good neighbor” provision, states are required to address the interstate transport of air pollution. Specifically, the good neighbor provision requires that each state's implementation plan contain adequate provisions to prohibit air pollutant emissions from within the state that will significantly contribute to nonattainment of the national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS), or that will interfere with maintenance of the NAAQS, in any other state.
In 2005, EPA published CAIR to limit the interstate transport of ozone and fine particulate matter (PM
On October 12, 2007, EPA published a SIP revision for Florida implementing the requirements of CAIR, incorporating former Florida Administrative Code (F.A.C.) Rule 62-296.470,
In response to the D.C. Circuit's remand of CAIR, EPA published the Cross-State Air Pollution Rule (CSAPR) to address the good neighbor provision for the 1997 ozone NAAQS, the 1997 PM
In this proposed action, EPA is proposing to approve the SIP revision submitted by FDEP on August 15, 2023, seeking to remove certain CAIR-related definitions, and CAIR-related portions of certain definitions, from Chapter 62-210,
The following definitions are proposed to be removed from the SIP: 62-210.200(52) “CAIR”; 62-210.200(53) “CAIR NO
These changes to Rule 62-210.200 were state-effective on July 3, 2018, and remove multiple definitions and portions of definitions that are obsolete.
Florida's August 15, 2023, SIP submission, encompasses several changes to Rule 62-210.200,
Florida's August 15, 2023, submission removes or revises several definitions as they are no longer necessary since the removal of the CAIR provisions under State and Federal rules.
The following definitions are being removed entirely: 62-210.200(52) “CAIR”; 62-210.200(53) “CAIR NO
The following definitions are being modified by removing CAIR-related paragraphs but continue to apply to the Acid Rain Program (ARP): 62-210.200(91) “Commence Operation” (removing paragraph (b)); and 62-210.200(115) “Designated Representative” (removing paragraph (b) and moving paragraph (c) to paragraph (b)).
As discussed above, on October 12, 2007, EPA published a SIP revision for Florida implementing the requirements of CAIR.
In this document, EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, and as discussed in Sections I and II of this preamble, EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference Florida Rule 62-210.200,
EPA is proposing to approve the August 15, 2023, Florida SIP revision that removes Rules 62-210.200(52) “CAIR”; 62-210.200(53) “CAIR NO
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a State program;
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA.
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
NMFS proposes revisions to regulations that implement the Pacific Fishery Management Council's (Council) Pacific Coast Salmon Fishery Management Plan (FMP). This proposed action would remove the rebuilding plans for Queets River natural coho salmon (Queets coho salmon) and Strait of Juan de Fuca natural coho salmon (JDF coho salmon) from regulation, as these stocks have been rebuilt and are no longer required to be managed under a rebuilding plan.
Comments on this proposed rule must be received on or before April 28, 2025.
A plain language summary of this proposed rule is available at:
•
Anna Heeter, Fishery Management Specialist, at (971) 361-8895 or
Regulations at 50 CFR part 660, subpart H implement the management of West Coast salmon fisheries under the FMP in the exclusive economic zone (3 to 200 nautical miles (5.6 to 370.4 kilometers)) off the coasts of the States of Washington, Oregon, and California.
In 2018, NMFS determined that the Queets coho salmon and JDF coho salmon stocks were overfished under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery and Conservation Management Act (MSA) (Letter from Barry A. Thom, NMFS West Coast Regional Administrator, to Phil Anderson, Pacific Fishery Management Council Chair, dated June 18, 2018). The MSA requires Councils to develop and implement a rebuilding plan within 2 years of being notified by NMFS that a stock is overfished (16 U.S.C. 1854(e)(3)). The Council transmitted its recommended rebuilding plans to NMFS on October 17, 2019, which were similar to the existing management frameworks, to rebuild Queets coho salmon and JDF coho salmon (Letter from Charles A. Tracy, Pacific Fishery Management Council Executive Director, to Barry A. Thom, NMFS West Coast Regional Administrator, dated October 17, 2019).
The Council determined that the recommended rebuilding plans met the MSA requirement to rebuild the stocks as quickly as possible, taking into account the status and biology of any overfished stock and the needs of fishing communities (50 CFR 600.310(j)(3)(i)). NMFS approved and implemented the Council's recommended rebuilding plans for the Queets coho salmon and JDF coho salmon stocks through a final rule (86 FR 9301, March 15, 2021).
In 2024, NMFS determined that Queets coho salmon and JDF coho salmon met the criteria in the FMP for being rebuilt and notified the Council (Letter from Jennifer Quan, NMFS West Coast Regional Administrator, to Merrick Burden, Pacific Fishery Management Council Executive Director, dated August 1, 2024). A stock is rebuilt when the 3-year geometric mean spawning escapement exceeds the level associated with the maximum sustainable yield (S
When Queets coho salmon was determined to be overfished, the 3-year geometric mean was 4,291 (2014 to 2016). The most recent 3-year geometric
As these stocks are rebuilt, they are no longer required to be managed under rebuilding plans and the Queets coho salmon and JDF coho salmon rebuilding plans should be removed from regulation to avoid confusion regarding the status of these stocks. Additionally, removing these rebuilding plans from regulation will avoid confusion should NMFS make a future determination that these stocks are overfished again, in which case the MSA requires the Council to prepare and implement a rebuilding plan within 2 years of that determination (50 CFR 600.310(j)(2)(ii)). Leaving the current rebuilding plans in regulation could cause confusion as they might be misperceived as being the applicable management measures for Queets coho salmon and JDF coho salmon, which is not the intention of the Council nor of NMFS. Therefore, to avoid confusion, it is necessary to remove the existing rebuilding plans from 50 CFR 660.413(c) and (d).
NMFS is issuing this proposed rule pursuant to section 305(d) of the MSA. This proposed rule is a technical change and would update the regulations governing the salmon fishery by deleting a provision that is no longer necessary. The NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that this proposed rule is consistent with the FMP and other applicable law, subject to further consideration after public comment.
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866. Pursuant to Executive Order 14192, this proposed rule is considered a deregulatory action.
NMFS has determined that a 30-day comment period for this proposed rule is appropriate to allow adequate time for public comment while also allowing for the final rule to be in effect prior to the annual preseason management process for the 2025 fishing season for ocean salmon fisheries, thereby avoiding any confusion about the management status of the Queets coho and JDF coho salmon stocks during that preseason management process. The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration that this proposed rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The factual basis for this determination is as follows.
For purposes of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) analysis, and pursuant to NMFS' December 29, 2015, final rule (80 FR 81194), NMFS' small business size standard for businesses, including their affiliates, whose primary industry is commercial fishing, is $11 million in annual gross receipts. This standard applies to all businesses classified under North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code 11411 for commercial fishing, including all businesses classified as commercial finfish fishing (NAICS 11411), commercial shellfish fishing (NAICS 114112), and other commercial marine fishing (NAICS 114119) businesses (50 CFR 220.2; 13 CFR 121.201).
According to the Socioeconomic Assessment of the 2023 Ocean Salmon Fisheries (Chapter IV) of the Review of 2023 Ocean Salmon Fisheries Stock Assessment and Fishery Evaluation Document for the Pacific Coast Salmon Fishery Management Plan, the most recent year of complete fishing data, 2023, had 93 distinct commercial vessels land fish caught in Washington. These vessels had an average state-level ex-vessel revenue per vessel of $36,100; no vessel met the threshold ($11 million in annual gross receipts) for being a large entity. NMFS does not collect information on the number of small entities who participate in fisheries targeting Queets coho salmon and JDF coho salmon, because participants fishing for salmon generally do not know the salmon stock they are targeting. There were 66,900 ocean angler salmon trips taken on vessels on the Washington coast in 2023. These trips included both charter and private vessels. All of those charter businesses that are impacted are small entities. Because all affected entities are small, these regulation revisions are not expected to place small entities at a significant disadvantage to large entities.
Furthermore, this proposed rule would not change harvest policy or the general management approach. The rebuilding plan provision at 50 CFR 660.413(c) and (d) adopted the FMP's existing harvest control rule and management measures. Upon implementation of this proposed action to delete the rebuilding plan provisions, the FMP's harvest control rule and management measures would apply, and the control rule and management measures have not changed since the addition of the rebuilding plan provisions in 2021. Thus, this proposed rule would have no economic impact on, and would not result in a reduction in the profits of, the regulated small entities. Therefore, this proposed rule, if implemented, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. As a result, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required and none has been prepared.
This proposed rule contains no information collection requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fisheries, Fishing, Recording and reporting requirements.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, NMFS proposes to amend 50 CFR part 660 as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1801
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Notice of public meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS), U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA), is announcing a meeting of the National Organic Standards Board (NOSB). The NOSB assists USDA in the development of standards for substances to be used in organic production and advises the Secretary of Agriculture on any other aspects of the implementation of the Organic Foods Production Act (OFPA).
A virtual meeting will be held April 29-May 1, 2025, from 12:00 p.m. to approximately 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time (ET) each day. The NOSB will hear oral public comments via webinars on Tuesday, April 22 and Thursday, April 24, 2025, from 12:00 p.m. to approximately 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time (ET). The deadline to submit written comments and/or sign up for oral comment at the webinar meeting is 11:59 p.m. ET, April 28, 2025.
The webinars and meeting are virtual and will be accessed via the internet and/or phone. Access information will be available on the AMS website prior to the webinars. Detailed information can be found at
Ms. Michelle Arsenault, Advisory Committee Specialist, National Organic Standards Board, USDA-AMS-NOP, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Room 2642-S, STOP 0268, Washington, DC 20250-0268; Phone: (202) 997-0115; Email:
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. 10, and 7 U.S.C. 6518(e), as amended, AMS is announcing a meeting of the NOSB. The NOSB makes recommendations to USDA about whether substances should be allowed or prohibited in organic production and/or handling, assists in the development of standards for organic production, and advises the Secretary on other aspects of the implementation of the Organic Foods Production Act, 7 U.S.C. 6501,
Equal opportunity practices, in accordance with USDA policies, will be followed in all membership appointments to the Committee.
In accordance with Federal civil rights law and U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) civil rights regulations and policies, the USDA, its Agencies, offices, and employees, and institutions participating in or administering USDA programs are prohibited from discriminating based on race, color, national origin, religion, sex, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, political beliefs, or reprisal or retaliation for prior civil rights activity, in any program or activity conducted or funded by USDA (not all bases apply to all programs). Remedies and complaint filing deadlines vary by program or incident.
This meeting notice is being published late due to additional administrative matters of the USDA Department.
Forest Service, Agriculture (USDA).
Notice of meeting.
The Lassen County Resource Advisory Committee (RAC) will hold a public meeting according to the details shown below. The committee is authorized under the Secure Rural Schools and Community Self-Determination Act (the Act) and operates in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The purpose of the committee is to improve collaborative relationships and to provide advice and recommendations to the Forest Service concerning projects and funding consistent with Title II of the Act, as well as make recommendations on recreation fee proposals for sites on the Lassen National Forest within Lassen County, consistent with the Federal Lands Recreation Enhancement Act.
An in-person and virtual meeting will be held on April 18, 2025, 9 a.m. to 12 p.m.; April 21, 2025, 1 p.m. to 4 p.m.; April 22, 2025, 1 p.m. to 4 p.m.; and April 28, 2025, 5 p.m. to 8 p.m. All meeting times are Pacific Daylight Time.
All committee meetings are subject to cancellation. For status of the meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
This meeting will be held in-person at the Lassen National Forest Supervisor's Office, located at 2550 Riverside Road, Susanville, California 96130. The public may also join the meeting virtually via Microsoft Teams at (202) 650-0123, telephone conference ID: 914 453 175#. Committee information and meeting details can be found at the following website:
Bobette Jones, Designated Federal Officer, by phone at 530-260-6700 or email at
The purpose of the meeting is to:
1. Elect a Chairperson;
2. Hear from Title II project proponents and discuss Title II project proposals;
3. Make funding recommendations on Title II projects;
4. Approve meeting minutes; and
5. Hear public comment.
The agenda will include time for individuals to make oral statements of three minutes or less. Individuals wishing to make an oral statement should make a request in writing at least three days prior to the meeting date to be scheduled on the agenda. Written comments may be submitted to the Forest Service up to 14 days after the meeting date listed under
Please contact the person listed under
Equal opportunity practices, in accordance with USDA policies, will be followed in all membership appointments to the Committee.
In accordance with Federal civil rights law and U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) civil rights regulations and policies, the USDA, its Agencies, offices, and employees, and institutions participating in or administering USDA programs are prohibited from discriminating based on race, color, national origin, religion, sex, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, political beliefs, or reprisal or retaliation for prior civil rights activity, in any program or activity conducted or funded by USDA (not all bases apply to all programs). Remedies and complaint filing deadlines vary by program or incident.
Forest Service, Agriculture (USDA).
Notice of meeting.
The Land Between the Lakes Advisory Board will hold a public meeting according to the details shown below. The board is authorized under the Charter for the Land Between the Lakes Advisory Board and operates in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA). The purpose of the board is to advise the Secretary of Agriculture on means of promoting public participation for the land and resource management plan for the Recreation Area, environmental education, an annual work plan for recreation and environmental education areas in the Recreation Area. This includes the heritage program (with the non-appropriated amounts in the Land Between the Lakes Management Fund), an annual forest management and harvest plan for the Recreation Area and the Land Between the Lakes Management Fund.
An in-person and virtual meeting will be held on April 9, 2025, 9:00 a.m.-4:00 p.m., Central Time.
All board meetings are subject to cancellation. For status of the meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
This meeting will be held in-person and virtually, at the Supervisor's Office, located at 100 Van Morgan Drive, Golden Pond, Kentucky 42211. The public may also join virtually via webcast meeting at:
James McCoy, Designated Federal Officer (DFO), by phone at 870-214-0934 or email at
The purpose of the meeting is to:
The agenda will include time for individuals to make oral statements of three minutes or less. Individuals wishing to make an oral statement should make a request in writing at least 3 days prior to the meeting date to be scheduled on the agenda. Written comments may be submitted to the Forest Service up to 7 days after the meeting date listed under
Please contact the person listed under
Equal opportunity practices, in accordance with USDA policies, will be followed in all membership appointments to the Committee.
In accordance with Federal civil rights law and U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) civil rights regulations and policies, the USDA, its Agencies, offices, and employees, and institutions participating in or administering USDA programs are prohibited from discriminating based on race, color, national origin, religion, sex, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, political beliefs, or reprisal or retaliation for prior civil rights activity, in any program or activity conducted or funded by USDA (not all bases apply to all programs). Remedies and complaint filing deadlines vary by program or incident.
This meeting notice is being published late due to additional administrative matters of the USDA Department.
Forest Service, Agriculture (USDA).
Notice; request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Forest Service is seeking comments from all interested individuals and organizations on the extension with revision of the currently approved information collection, 0596-0225, Timber Sale Contract Operations and Administration.
Comments must be received in writing on or before May 27, 2025 to be assured of consideration. Comments received after that date will be considered to the extent practicable.
Comments concerning this notice should be addressed to Director, Forest Management, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Mail Stop 1103, Washington, DC 20250-0003. Comments also may be submitted via facsimile to 202-205-1045 or by email to
Comments submitted in response to this notice may be made available to the public through relevant websites and upon request. For this reason, please do not include in your comments information of a confidential nature, such as sensitive personal information or proprietary information. If you send an email comment, your email address will be automatically captured and included as part of the comment that is placed in the public docket and made available on the internet. Please note that responses to this public comment request containing any routine notice about the confidentiality of the communication will be treated as public comments that may be made available to the public notwithstanding the inclusion of the routine notice.
The public may inspect the draft supporting statement and/or comments received on the World Wide Web/internet site at:
Kraig Kidwell, Washington Office, Forest Management staff, at 541-961-2614. Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf and hard of hearing (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 711, 24 hours a day, every day of the year, including holidays.
The type and amount of information collected varies depending on the size, complexity, and length of each contract, and external factors such as weather and market conditions. The information collected includes plans, requests, agreements, and notices necessary for operations under the terms of the contracts. Forest Service officers collect the information from contractors who may be individuals, private sector businesses, or other government entities. The information is submitted in a variety of formats including Forest Service forms, Government Standard and/or Common Forms, forms developed by individual contractors, charts, maps, email messages, facsimiles, and letters. Also, to assist small contractors and lessen their burden, individual Contracting Officers may provide optional forms for some of the information collected.
Depending on the purpose of the specific information collection, the information may be submitted by electronic mail, facsimile, conventional mail, document signing software or hand delivery. The information is needed by the Agency for a variety of uses associated with the operations and administration of contracts for the sale of timber and other forest products, in order to: (1) Plan and schedule contract administration workloads, (2) plan and schedule the delivery of government furnished materials needed by contractors, (3) assure the safety of the public in the vicinity of contract work, (4) identify contractor resources that may be used in emergency fire-fighting situations, (5) determine contractor eligibility for additional contract time, (6) determine contractor eligibility for re-determining contract rates, (7) monitor compliance with domestic processing requirements, (8) process agreements and modifications, (9) properly process payment bonds, (10) obtaining purchaser or contractor's consent to conduct business electronically.
• FS-2400-0076 Pre-Award Waiver, Release, and Limitation of Liability Agreement. This form was developed for limited use when the apparent high bidder of a sale that is the subject of litigation requests to have the sale awarded prior to the litigation being resolved.
The following forms are available for optional use by timber sale purchasers and contractors:
• FS-2400-0077 General Plan of Operation. This form may be used to meet the requirements for a general Plan of Operations which outlines the Purchaser's planned periods of operation and methods for meeting contractual requirements by the contract termination date.
• FS-2400-0078 Annual Operating Schedule. This form may be used to meet the requirement to provide a written annual Operating Schedule outlining anticipated major activities before commencing operations.
• FS-2400-0079 Specified Road Schedule of Proposed Progress. May be used for sales that have specified road construction or reconstruction to fulfill the requirements to annually prepare a supplement to the Plan of Operations for road construction activities.
The following forms are for mandatory use when purchaser requests changes to the terms of the contract:
• FS-2400-0009 Agreement to Modify Timber Sale or Integrated Resource Timber Contract. This form is required to be used when a contract is modified under the terms of the contract.
• FS-2400-0010 Agreement to Extend and Modify Timber Sale or Integrated Resource Timber Contract. This form is required to be used when a contract is extended or modified under the terms of the contract.
• FS-2400-0012 Third Party Agreement: Required for use when a Purchaser requests that another party take over operational responsibility for timber sale contract.
• FS-2400-0016 Cooperative Agreement: Required for use when a Purchaser requests Forest Service to assume the Purchaser's obligation to perform work under the contract.
The following forms are for mandatory use when purchaser requests the use of a Payment Bond or Blanket Payment Bond on the contract:
• FS-6500-12 Payment Bond (for Timber Sales and Integrated Resource Timber Contracts). This form is used to guarantee payment by way of an acceptable surety bond for an individual timber sale or Integrated Resource Timber contract.
• FS-6500-12a Blanket Payment Bond. This form is used to guarantee payment by way of an acceptable surety bond for more than one timber sale.
The following form is new and being added to this collection:
• FS-2400-0017 Consent to Conduct Timber Sale or Integrated Resource Timber Contract Business Electronically: It may be used when the purchaser or contractor would like to conduct business electronically. Consent to conduct business electronically is required by the Electronic Signatures in Global and National (ESIGN) Commerce Act of 2000 which authorized the Federal Government to conduct business electronically.
The following forms are not being renewed and will no longer be used:
•
•
•
•
•
Comment is invited on: (1) whether this collection of information is necessary for the stated purposes and the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical or scientific utility; (2) the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including the use of automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
All comments received in response to this notice, including names and addresses when provided, will be a matter of public record. Comments will be summarized and included in the submission request for Office of Management and Budget approval.
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of virtual business meetings.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, that the New Mexico Advisory Committee (Committee) to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a series of business meetings via ZoomGov on the following dates and times listed. The purpose of these meetings is for the Committee to review the latest version of their report on immigrant detention centers in New Mexico.
These business meetings will take place on:
• Tuesday, April 29, 2025, from 12 p.m.-1 p.m. MT.
• Thursday, May 15, 2025, from 12 p.m.-1 p.m. MT.
Tuesday, April 29th,
Thursday, May 15th,
Brooke Peery, Designated Federal Officer, at
Committee meetings are available to the public through the registration link above. Any interested member of the public may listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Per the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Closed captioning will be available for individuals who are deaf, hard of hearing, or who have certain cognitive or learning impairments. To request additional accommodations, please email Angelica Trevino, Support Specialist, at
Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Brooke Peery (DFO) at
Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meetings will be available via
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Notice of virtual meetings.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, that the Louisiana Advisory Committee (Committee) to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a public meetings via Zoom. The purpose of this meeting is for the Committee to review and discuss a project proposal regarding involuntary mental health commitments in Louisiana.
Tuesday, May 6, 2025, from 9 a.m.-10 a.m. Central Time.
This meeting will be held via Zoom.
•
Melissa Wojnaroski, Designated Federal Officer, at
This meeting is available to the public through the registration link above. Any interested members of the public may attend. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make oral statements as time allows. Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at these meetings. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free
Members of the public are entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the scheduled meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Melissa Wojnaroski at
Records generated from these meetings may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after each meeting. Records of the meetings will be available via
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of public briefing.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, that the Guam Advisory Committee (Committee) to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a virtual, public briefing via Zoom at 9:30 a.m. ChST on Thursday, April 10, 2025 (7:30 p.m. ET on Wednesday, April 9, 2025). The purpose of this briefing is to hear testimony on the topic,
Thursday, April 10, 2025, from 9:30 a.m.-11 a.m. ChST (Wednesday, April 9, 2025, from 7:30 p.m.-9 p.m. ET).
The meeting will be held via Zoom Webinar.
Kayla Fajota, DFO, at
This committee meeting is available to the public through the registration link above. Any interested member of the public may listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Per the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Closed captioning will be available by selecting “CC” in the meeting platform. To request additional accommodations, please email
Members of the public are entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Kayla Fajota at
Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via the file sharing website,
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that dioctyl terephthalate (DOTP) from Taiwan is being, or is likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV). The period of investigation (POI) is January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023.
Applicable March 28, 2025.
Brian Smith or Hannah Lee, AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1766 or (202) 482-1216, respectively.
On November 5, 2024, Commerce published the
The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at
The product covered by this investigation is DOTP from Taiwan. For a full description of the scope of this investigation,
We received no comments from interested parties on the scope of the investigation as it appeared in the
As provided in section 782(i) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), in November and December 2024, we conducted verification of the sales and cost information submitted by Nan Ya Plastics Corp. (NYP) for use in our final determination.
The issues raised in case and rebuttal briefs that were submitted by parties in this investigation are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum is attached to this notice at Appendix II.
Based on our analysis of the comments received and our findings at verification, we made changes to NYP's dumping margin. For a discussion of these changes,
As discussed in the
Section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provides that the estimated weighted-average dumping margin for all other producers and exporters not individually examined shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any margins that are zero,
For the final determination of this investigation, NYP was the only individually examined exporter/producer for which Commerce calculated an individual estimated weighted-average dumping margin. Because NYP's dumping margin is the only individually calculated dumping margin that is not zero,
The final estimated weighted-average dumping margins are as follows:
Commerce intends to disclose the calculations performed in connection with this final determination to interested parties within five days of any public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the publication of the notice in the
In accordance with section 735(c)(1)(B) of the Act, Commerce will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to continue to suspend liquidation of all appropriate entries of subject merchandise, as described in Appendix I of this notice, which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after November 5, 2024, the date of publication of the
Pursuant to section 735(c)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(d), where appropriate, Commerce will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin or the estimated all-others rate, as follows: (1) the cash deposit rate for the respondents listed above will be equal to the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin determined in this final determination; (2) if the exporter is not a company identified above but the producer is, then the cash deposit rate will be equal to the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin established for that producer of the subject merchandise; and (3) the cash deposit rate for all other producers and exporters will be equal to the all-others estimated weighted-average dumping margin.
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, Commerce will notify the ITC of the final affirmative determination of sales at LTFV. Because Commerce's final determination is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(2) of the Act, the ITC will make its final determination as to whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports or sales (or the likelihood of sales) for importation of DOTP from Taiwan, no later than 45 days after this final determination. If the ITC determines that such injury does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated, and all cash deposits posted will be refunded and suspension of liquidation will be lifted. If the ITC determines that such injury does exist, Commerce will issue an antidumping duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by Commerce, antidumping duties on all imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation, as discussed above in the “Continuation of Suspension of Liquidation” section.
This notice will serve as a final reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 735(d) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.210(c).
The merchandise covered by this investigation is dioctyl terephthalate (DOTP), regardless of form. DOTP that has been blended with other products is included within this scope when such blends include constituent parts that have not been chemically reacted with each other to produce a different product. For such blends, only the DOTP component of the mixture is covered by the scope of the investigations.
DOTP that is otherwise subject to this investigation is not excluded when commingled with DOTP from sources not subject to this investigation. Commingled refers to the mixing of subject and non-subject DOTP. Only the subject component of such commingled products is covered by the scope of this investigation.
DOTP has the general chemical formulation of C
Subject merchandise is currently classified under subheading 2917.39.2000 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). Subject merchandise may also enter under subheadings 2917.39.7000 or 3812.20.1000 of the HTSUS. While the CAS registry number and HTSUS classifications are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that dioctyl terephthalate (DOTP) from the Republic of Türkiye (Türkiye) is being, or is likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV). The period of investigation is January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023.
Applicable March 28, 2025.
Dennis McClure, AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-5973.
On November 5, 2024, Commerce published in the
The product covered by this investigation is DOTP from Türkiye. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
As discussed in the
Section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provides that the estimated weighted-average dumping margin for all other producers and exporters not individually investigated shall be equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated excluding rates that are zero,
As discussed in the
Commerce determines that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margins exist:
Normally, Commerce discloses to interested parties the calculations performed in connection with a final determination within five days of any public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of the notice of preliminary determination in the
In accordance with section 735(c)(1)(B) of the Act, Commerce will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to continue to suspend liquidation of all appropriate entries of DOTP from Türkiye, as described in the appendix of this notice, which are entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after November 5, 2024, the date of publication of the affirmative
Pursuant to section 735(c)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(d), Commerce will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin or the estimated all-others rate as follows: (1) the cash deposit rate for the respondent listed above will be equal to the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin determined in this final determination; (2) if the exporter is not a respondent identified above but the producer is, then the cash deposit rate will be equal to the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin established for that producer of the subject merchandise; and (3) the cash deposit rate for all other producers and exporters will be equal to the all-others estimated weighted-average dumping margin. These suspension-of-liquidation instructions will remain in effect until further notice.
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, we will notify the ITC of this final affirmative determination of sales at LTFV. Because the final determination in this proceeding is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(2) of the Act, the ITC will make its final determination as to whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports of DOTP from Türkiye no later than 45 days after this final determination. If the ITC determines that material injury, or threat of material injury, does not exist, the proceeding will be terminated, and all cash deposits will be refunded. If the ITC determines that such injury does exist, Commerce will issue an antidumping duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by Commerce, antidumping duties on all imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation, as discussed above in the “Continuation of Suspension of Liquidation” section.
This notice will serve as the final reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.
This determination and this notice are issued and published pursuant to sections 735(d) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.210(c).
The merchandise covered by this investigation is dioctyl terephthalate (DOTP), regardless of form. DOTP that has been blended with other products is included within this scope when such blends include constituent parts that have not been chemically reacted with each other to produce a different product. For such blends, only the DOTP component of the mixture is covered by the scope of the investigations.
DOTP that is otherwise subject to this investigation is not excluded when commingled with DOTP from sources not subject to this investigation. Commingled refers to the mixing of subject and non-subject DOTP. Only the subject component of such commingled products is covered by the scope of this investigation.
DOTP has the general chemical formulation of C
Subject merchandise is currently classified under subheading 2917.39.2000 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). Subject merchandise may also enter under subheadings 2917.39.7000 or 3812.20.1000 of the HTSUS. While the CAS registry number and HTSUS classifications are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
This is a decision pursuant to section 6(c) of the Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Materials Importation Act of 1966 (Pub. L. 89-651, as amended by Pub. L. 106-36; 80 Stat. 897; 15 CFR part 301). On October 29, 2024, the Department of Commerce published a notice in the
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that dioctyl terephthalate (DOTP) from
Applicable March 28, 2025.
Nathan Araya, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3401.
On November 5, 2024, Commerce published in the
The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at
The product covered by this investigation is DOTP from Malaysia. For a full description of the scope of this investigation,
We received no comments from interested parties on the scope of the investigation as it appeared in the
Commerce verified the sales and cost information submitted by UPC Chemicals (Malaysia) Sdn Bhd. (UPC MY) for use in our final determination, consistent with section 782(i) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act).
All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs submitted by interested parties in this investigation are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum is attached to this notice as Appendix II.
We made certain changes to the dumping margin calculation of UPC MY since the
Sections 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provides that the estimated weighted-average dumping margin for all other producers and exporters not individually investigated shall be equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for individually investigated exporters and producers, excluding rates that are zero,
For the final determination of this investigation, UPC MY was the only individually examined exporter/producer for which Commerce calculated an individual estimated weighted average dumping margin. Because UPC MY's dumping margin is the only individually calculated dumping margin that is not zero,
Commerce determines that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margins exist:
Commerce intends to disclose the calculations performed in connection with this final determination to interested parties within five days of any public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of this notice in the
In accordance with section 735(c)(1)(B) of the Act, Commerce will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to continue to suspend liquidation of all appropriate entries of subject merchandise, as described in Appendix I of this notice, which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption, on or after November 5, 2024, the date of publication of the
Pursuant to section 735(c)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(d), where appropriate, Commerce will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin or the estimated all-others rate, as follows: (1) the cash deposit rate for the respondent listed above will be equal to the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin determined in this final determination; (2) if the exporter is not a respondent identified above, but the producer is, then the cash deposit rate will be equal to the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin established for that producer of the subject merchandise; and (3) the cash deposit rate for all other producers and exporters will be equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin for all other producers and exporters.
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, Commerce will notify the ITC of the final affirmative determination of sales at LTFV. Because Commerce's final determination is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(2) of the
This notice will serve as a final reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This determination and notice are issued and published pursuant to sections 735(d) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.210(c).
The merchandise covered by this investigation is dioctyl terephthalate (DOTP), regardless of form. DOTP that has been blended with other products is included within this scope when such blends include constituent parts that have not been chemically reacted with each other to produce a different product. For such blends, only the DOTP component of the mixture is covered by the scope of the investigations.
DOTP that is otherwise subject to this investigation is not excluded when commingled with DOTP from sources not subject to these investigations. Commingled refers to the mixing of subject and non-subject DOTP. Only the subject component of such commingled products is covered by the scope of these investigations.
DOTP has the general chemical formulation of C
Subject merchandise is currently classified under subheading 2917.39.2000 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). Subject merchandise may also enter under subheadings 2917.39.7000 or 3812.20.1000 of the HTSUS. While the CAS registry number and HTSUS classifications are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of ferrosilicon from Malaysia during the period of investigation (POI), January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023.
Applicable March 28, 2025.
Suresh Maniam or Stefan Smith, AD/CVD Operations, Office I, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1603 or (202) 482-4342, respectively.
On September 10, 2024, Commerce published in the
The product covered by this investigation is ferrosilicon from Malaysia. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
No interested party commented on the scope of the investigation as it appeared in the
Commerce conducted verification of the information relied upon in making its final determination in this investigation, in accordance with section 782(i) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Specifically, we conducted on-site verifications of the subsidy information reported by the Government of Malaysia (GOM), OM Materials (Sarawak) Sdn. Bhd (OM Materials), and Pertama Ferroalloys Sdn. Bhd (Pertama) in October 2024 using standard verification procedures,
The subsidy programs under investigation, and the issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs that were submitted by parties in this investigation, are discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. For a list of the issues raised by parties, and to which we responded in the Issues and Decision Memorandum,
Commerce conducted this investigation in accordance with section 701 the Act. For each of the subsidy programs found to be countervailable, Commerce determines that there is a subsidy,
In making this final determination, Commerce relied, in part, on facts available, including adverse facts available (AFA), pursuant to sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act. For a full discussion of our application of AFA,
In accordance with sections 705(a)(2) and 776(a) and 776(b) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206, Commerce finds that critical circumstances exist with respect to imports of ferrosilicon for all other producers and exporters not individually examined. In addition, we find that critical circumstances do not exist with respect to imports of ferrosilicon from Malaysia for OM Materials and Pertama. For a full description of the methodology and results of Commerce's critical circumstances analysis,
Based on our analysis of the information received during verification, for this final determination, we made certain changes to the countervailable subsidy rate calculations for OM Materials, Pertama, and for all other producers/exporters. For a discussion of these changes,
Pursuant to section 705(c)(5)(A)(i) of the Act, Commerce will determine an all-others rate equal to the weighted average countervailable subsidy rates established for those exporters and/or producers individually investigated, excluding any zero and
Commerce determines that the following estimated countervailable subsidy rates exist for the period January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023:
Commerce intends to disclose its calculations and analysis performed to interested parties in this final determination within five days of its public announcement, or if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of this notice in the
As a result of our
Because we now find that critical circumstances do not exist for Pertama, we will direct CBP to terminate the retroactive suspension of liquidation ordered at the
Additionally, as a result of this final affirmative determination of critical circumstances for all other producers and exporters, we are instructing CBP to suspend liquidation of all entries of subject merchandise from those producers and exporters of ferrosilicon from Malaysia, which were entered or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption 90 days prior to the date of publication of the notice of the
If the U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) issues a final affirmative injury determination, we will issue a countervailing duty order, reinstate the suspension of liquidation under section 706(a) of the Act, and require a cash deposit of estimated countervailing duties for such entries of subject merchandise in the amounts indicated above, in accordance with section 706(a) of the Act. If the ITC determines that material injury, or threat of material injury, does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated, and all estimated duties deposited or securities posted as a result of the suspension of liquidation will be refunded or canceled.
In accordance with section 705(d) of the Act, Commerce will notify the ITC of its final affirmative determination that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of ferrosilicon from Malaysia. Because the final determination is affirmative, in accordance with section 705(b) of the Act, the ITC will make its final determination as to whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports of ferrosilicon from Malaysia no later than 45 days after this final determination. In addition, we are making available to the ITC all non-privileged and nonproprietary information related to this investigation. We will allow the ITC access to all privileged and business proprietary information in our files, provided the ITC confirms that it will not disclose such information, either publicly or under an administrative protective order (APO), without the written consent of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance. If the ITC determines that material injury or threat of material injury does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated and all cash deposits will be refunded.
If the ITC determines that such injury does exist, Commerce will issue a countervailing duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by Commerce, countervailing duties on all imports of the subject merchandise that are entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation, as discussed above in the “Continuation of Suspension of Liquidation” section.
In the event that the ITC issues a final negative injury determination, this notice will serve as the only reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.
This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 705(d) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.210(c).
The scope of this investigation covers all forms and sizes of ferrosilicon, regardless of grade, including ferrosilicon briquettes. Ferrosilicon is a ferroalloy containing by weight four percent or more iron, more than eight percent but not more than 96 percent silicon, three percent or less phosphorus, 30 percent or less manganese, less than three percent magnesium, and 10 percent or less of any other element. The merchandise covered also includes product described as slag, if the product meets these specifications.
Subject merchandise includes material matching the above description that has been finished, packaged, or otherwise processed in a third country, including by performing any grinding or any other finishing, packaging, or processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of the investigation if performed in the country of manufacture of the ferrosilicon.
Ferrosilicon is currently classifiable under subheadings 7202.21.1000, 7202.21.5000, 7202.21.7500, 7202.21.9000, 7202.29.0010, and 7202.29.0050 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). While the HTSUS numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope remains dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that imports of ferrosilicon from Kazakhstan are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV) for the period of investigation (POI) January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023.
Applicable March 28, 2025.
Mira Warrier, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-8031
On November 6, 2024, Commerce published the
The product covered by this investigation is ferrosilicon. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
No interested party commented on the scope of the investigation as it appeared in the
We continue to find that critical circumstances do not exist for YDD Corporation LLP; Asia FerroAlloys LLP; and KazSilicon Metallurgical Combine LLP (collectively, the YDD Single Entity), TNC Kazchrome JSC (Kazchrome), and all other companies not individually examined pursuant to section 733(e)(1)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act) and 19 CFR 351.206. For a discussion of Commerce's critical circumstance analysis,
Commerce conducted verification of the information relied upon in making its final determination in this investigation, in accordance with section 782(i) of the Act. Specifically, Commerce conducted on-site verifications of YDD Corporation LLP; Asia FerroAlloys LLP; and KazSilicon Metallurgical Combine LLP (collectively, the YDD Single Entity)
All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs submitted by interested parties in this investigation are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum is attached to this notice as Appendix II.
Based on a review of the record and comments received from interested parties regarding our
Section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provides that the estimated weighted-average dumping margin for all other producers and exporters not individually investigated shall be equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding rates that are zero,
In this investigation, Commerce calculated estimated weighted-average dumping margins for Kazchrome and the YDD Single Entity that are not zero,
Commerce determines that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margins exist:
Commerce intends to disclose the calculations and analysis performed in connection with this final determination to interested parties within five days of any public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the publication date of this notice in the
In accordance with section 735(c)(1)(B) of the Act, Commerce will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to continue to suspend liquidation of entries of subject merchandise, as described in Appendix I of this notice, which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption, on or after November 6, 2024, the date of publication of the
Pursuant to section 735(c)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(d), upon the publication of this notice, we will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit for estimated antidumping duties for such entries as follows: (1) the cash deposit rates for the companies listed in the table above are the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margins determined in this final determination; (2) if the exporter is not a respondent listed in the table above, but the producer is, then the cash deposit rate is the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin established for that producer of the subject merchandise; and (3) the cash deposit rate for all other producers and exporters is the all-others estimated weighted-average dumping margin listed in the table above. These suspension of liquidation instructions will remain in effect until further notice.
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, Commerce will notify the ITC of its final affirmative determination of sales at LTFV. Because Commerce's final determination is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(2) of the Act, the ITC will make its final determination as to whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports or sales (or the likelihood of sales) for importation of ferrosilicon from Kazakhstan, no later than 45 days after this final determination. If the ITC determines that such injury does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated, all cash deposits posted will be refunded, and suspension of liquidation will be lifted. If the ITC determines that such injury does exist, Commerce will issue an antidumping duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by Commerce, antidumping duties on all imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation, as discussed in the “Continuation of Suspension of Liquidation” section above.
This notice will serve as a final reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 735(d) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.210(c).
The scope of this investigation covers all forms and sizes of ferrosilicon, regardless of grade, including ferrosilicon briquettes. Ferrosilicon is a ferroalloy containing by weight four percent or more iron, more than eight percent but not more than 96 percent silicon, three percent or less phosphorus, 30 percent or less manganese, less than three percent magnesium, and 10 percent or less of any other element. The merchandise covered also includes product described as slag, if the product meets these specifications.
Subject merchandise includes material matching the above description that has been finished, packaged, or otherwise processed in a third country, including by performing any grinding or any other finishing, packaging, or processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of the investigation if performed in the country of manufacture of the ferrosilicon.
Ferrosilicon is currently classifiable under subheadings 7202.21.1000, 7202.21.5000, 7202.21.7500, 7202.21.9000, 7202.29.0010, and 7202.29.0050 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). While the HTSUS numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope remains dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily finds that polyester textured yarn (yarn) from India was not sold at less than
Applicable March 28, 2025.
Mira Warrier, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-8031.
On January 10, 2020, Commerce published in the
On July 22, 2024, Commerce tolled certain deadlines in this administrative proceeding by seven days.
The merchandise covered by the scope of the
Commerce is conducting this review in accordance with sections 751(a)(1)(B) and (2) of the Act. Export price is calculated in accordance with section 772 of the Act. NV is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act.
For a full description of the methodology underlying these preliminary results,
Commerce preliminarily determines that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margin exists for the period January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023:
Commerce intends to disclose the calculations and analysis performed to interested parties for these preliminary results within five days after public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days after the date of publication of this notice in the
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance. Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.309(c)(1)(ii), we have modified the deadline for interested parties to submit case briefs to Commerce to no later than 21 days after the date of the publication of this notice.
As provided under 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2) and (d)(2), in prior proceedings we have encouraged interested parties to provide an executive summary of their brief that should be limited to five pages total, including footnotes. In this administrative review, we instead request that interested parties provide at the beginning of their briefs a public executive summary for each issue raised in their briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, filed electronically via ACCESS. Hearing requests should contain: (1) the party's name, address, and telephone number; (2) the number of participants and whether any participant is a foreign national; and (3) a list of issues to be discussed. Issues raised in the hearing will be limited to issues raised in the respective case briefs.
Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(A) of the Act, upon completion of the final results of this administrative review, Commerce shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise covered by this review.
For entries of subject merchandise during the POR produced by AYM for which it did not know that the merchandise was destined for the United States, we intend to instruct CBP to liquidate those entries at the all-others rate in the original less-than-fair-value (LTFV) investigation (
The final results of this administrative review shall be the basis for the assessment of antidumping duties on entries of merchandise covered by the final results of this review and for future deposits of estimated duties, where applicable.
Commerce intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of the final results of this review in the
The following deposit requirements will be effective upon publication in the
Unless the deadline is otherwise extended, Commerce intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of issues raised by interested parties in the written comments, within 120 days after the date of publication of these preliminary results in the
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping and/or countervailing duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in Commerce's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping and/or countervailing duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties, and/or an increase in the amount of antidumping duties by the amount of countervailing duties.
We are issuing and publishing these preliminary results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) has received requests to conduct administrative reviews of various antidumping duty (AD) and countervailing duty (CVD) orders with February anniversary dates. In accordance with Commerce's regulations, we are initiating those administrative reviews.
Applicable March 28, 2025.
Brenda E. Brown, AD/CVD Operations, Customs Liaison Unit, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230, telephone: (202) 482-4735.
Commerce has received timely requests, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(b), for administrative reviews of various AD and CVD orders with February anniversary dates.
All deadlines for the submission of various types of information, certifications, comments, or actions by Commerce discussed below refer to the number of calendar days from the applicable starting time.
In the event that Commerce limits the number of respondents for individual examination for administrative reviews initiated pursuant to requests made for the orders identified below, Commerce intends to select respondents based either on U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) data for U.S. imports during the period of review (POR) or questionnaires in which we request the quantity and value (Q&V) of sales, shipments, or exports during the POR. Where Commerce selects respondents based on CBP data, we intend to place the CBP data on the record within five days of publication of the initiation notice. Where Commerce selects respondents based on Q&V data, Commerce intends to place the Q&V questionnaire on the record of the review within five days of publication of the initiation notice. In either case, we intend to make our decision regarding respondent selection within 35 days of publication of the initiation notice in the
In the event that Commerce decides it is necessary to limit individual examination of respondents and conduct respondent selection under section 777A(c)(2) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), the following guidelines regarding collapsing of companies for purposes of respondent selection will apply. In general, Commerce has found that determinations concerning whether particular companies should be “collapsed” (
Parties are requested to (a) identify which companies subject to review previously were collapsed, and (b) provide a citation to the proceeding in which they were collapsed. Further, if companies are requested to complete the Q&V questionnaire for purposes of respondent selection, in general, each company must report volume and value data separately for itself. Parties should not include data for any other party, even if they believe they should be treated as a single entity with that other party. If a company was collapsed with another company or companies in the most recently completed segment of the proceeding where Commerce considered collapsing that entity, complete Q&V data for that collapsed entity must be submitted.
With respect to AD administrative reviews, we intend to rescind the review where there are no suspended entries for a company or entity under review and/or where there are no suspended entries under the company-specific case number for that company or entity. Where there may be suspended entries, if a producer or exporter named in this notice of initiation had no exports, sales, or entries during the POR, it may notify Commerce of this fact within 30 days of publication of this initiation notice in the
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), a party that has requested a review may withdraw that request within 90 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. The regulation provides that Commerce may extend this time if it is reasonable to do so. Determinations by Commerce to extend the 90-day deadline will be made on a case-by-case basis.
Section 504 of the Trade Preferences Extension Act of 2015 amended the Act by adding the concept of a particular market situation (PMS) for purposes of constructed value under section 773(e) of the Act.
Neither section 773(e) of the Act nor 19 CFR 351.301(c)(2)(v) set a deadline for the submission of PMS allegations and supporting factual information. However, in order to administer section 773(e) of the Act, Commerce must receive PMS allegations and supporting factual information with enough time to consider the submission. Thus, should an interested party wish to submit a PMS allegation and supporting new factual information pursuant to section 773(e) of the Act, it must do so no later than 20 days after submission of initial responses to section D of the questionnaire.
In proceedings involving non-market economy (NME) countries, Commerce begins with a rebuttable presumption that all companies within the country are subject to government control and, thus, should be assigned a single AD deposit rate. It is Commerce's policy to assign all exporters of merchandise subject to an administrative review in
To establish whether a firm is sufficiently independent from government control of its export activities to be entitled to a separate rate, Commerce analyzes each entity exporting the subject merchandise. In accordance with the separate rates criteria, Commerce assigns separate rates to companies in NME cases only if respondents can demonstrate the absence of both
All firms listed below that wish to qualify for separate rate status in the administrative reviews involving NME countries must complete, as appropriate, either a Separate Rate Application or Certification, as described below. In addition, all firms that wish to qualify for separate rate status in the administrative reviews of AD orders in which a Q&V questionnaire is issued must complete, as appropriate, either a Separate Rate Application or Certification, and respond to the Q&V questionnaire.
For these administrative reviews, in order to demonstrate separate rate eligibility, Commerce requires entities for whom a review was requested, that were assigned a separate rate in the most recent segment of this proceeding in which they participated, to certify that they continue to meet the criteria for obtaining a separate rate. The Separate Rate Certification form will be available on Commerce's website at
Entities that currently do not have a separate rate from a completed segment of the proceeding
Exporters and producers must file a timely Separate Rate Application or Certification if they want to be considered for individual examination. Furthermore, exporters and producers who submit a Separate Rate Application or Certification and subsequently are selected as mandatory respondents will no longer be eligible for separate rate status unless they respond to all parts of the questionnaire as mandatory respondents.
Commerce may establish a certification process for companies whose exports to the United States could contain both subject and non-subject merchandise. Companies under review that were deemed to not be eligible to participate in the certification program of that proceeding may submit a Certification Eligibility Application to establish that they maintain the necessary systems to track their sales to the United States of subject and non-subject goods.
All firms listed below that are not currently eligible to certify but wish to establish certification eligibility are required to submit a Certification Eligibility Application. The Certification Eligibility Application will be available on Commerce's website at
Exporters and producers that are not currently eligible to certify, who submit a Certification Eligibility Application, and are subsequently selected as mandatory respondents must respond to all parts of the questionnaire as mandatory respondents for Commerce to consider their Certification Eligibility Application.
In accordance with 19 CFR 351.221(c)(1)(i), we are initiating administrative reviews of the following AD and CVD orders and findings. We intend to issue the final results of these reviews not later than February 28, 2026.
None.
During any administrative review covering all or part of a period falling between the first and second or third and fourth anniversary of the publication of an AD order under 19 CFR 351.211 or a determination under 19 CFR 351.218(f)(4) to continue an order or suspended investigation (after sunset review), Commerce, if requested by a domestic interested party within 30 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation of the review, will determine whether antidumping duties have been absorbed by an exporter or producer subject to the review if the subject merchandise is sold in the United States through an importer that is affiliated with such exporter or producer. The request must include the name(s) of the exporter or producer for which the inquiry is requested.
For the first administrative review of any order, there will be no assessment of antidumping or countervailing duties on entries of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption during the relevant “gap” period of the order (
Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under administrative protective orders in accordance with the procedures outlined in Commerce's regulations at 19 CFR 351.305. Those procedures apply to administrative reviews included in this notice of initiation. Parties wishing to participate in any of these administrative reviews should ensure that they meet the requirements of these procedures (
Commerce's regulations identify five categories of factual information in 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21), which are summarized as follows: (i) evidence submitted in response to questionnaires; (ii) evidence submitted in support of allegations; (iii) publicly available information to value factors under 19 CFR 351.408(c) or to measure the adequacy of remuneration under 19 CFR 351.511(a)(2); (iv) evidence placed on the record by Commerce; and (v) evidence other than factual information described in (i)-(iv). These regulations require any party, when submitting factual information, to specify under which subsection of 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) the information is being submitted and, if the information is submitted to rebut, clarify, or correct factual information already on the record, to provide an explanation identifying the information already on the record that the factual information seeks to rebut, clarify, or correct. The regulations, at 19 CFR 351.301, also
Any party submitting factual information in an AD or CVD proceeding must certify to the accuracy and completeness of that information using the formats provided at the end of the
Section 351.301(c) of Commerce's regulations states that during a proceeding, Commerce may issue to any person questionnaires, which includes both and initial and supplemental questionnaires. For all administrative review segments initiated after January 15, 2025, the following time limits apply:
(i) Initial questionnaire responses are due 30 days from the date of receipt of such questionnaire. The time limit for response to individual sections of the questionnaire, if Commerce requests a separate response to such sections, may be less than the 30 days allotted for response to the full questionnaire. In general, the date of receipt will be considered to be seven days from the date on which the initial questionnaire was transmitted.
(ii) Supplemental questionnaire responses are due on the date specified by Commerce.
(iii) A notification by an interested party, under section 782(c)(1) of the Act, of difficulties in submitting information in response to a questionnaire issued by Commerce is to be submitted in writing within 14 days after the date of the questionnaire or, if the questionnaire is due in 14 days or less, within the time specified by Commerce.
(iv) A respondent interested party may request in writing that Commerce conduct a questionnaire presentation. Commerce may conduct a questionnaire presentation if Commerce notifies the government of the affected country and that government does not object.
(v) Factual information submitted to rebut, clarify, or correct questionnaire responses. Within 14 days after an initial questionnaire response and within 10 days after a supplemental questionnaire response has been filed with Commerce, an interested party other than the original submitter is permitted one opportunity to submit factual information to rebut, clarify, or correct factual information contained in the questionnaire response. Within seven days of the filing of such rebuttal, clarification, or correction to a questionnaire response, the original submitter of the questionnaire response is permitted one opportunity to submit factual information to rebut, clarify, or correct factual information submitted in the interested party's rebuttal, clarification or correction. Commerce will reject any untimely filed rebuttal, clarification, or correction submission and provide, to the extent practicable, written notice stating the reasons for rejection. If insufficient time remains before the due date for the final determination or final results of review, Commerce may specify shorter deadlines under this section.
Parties may request an extension of time limits before a time limit established under Part 351 expires, or as otherwise specified by Commerce.
These initiations and this notice are in accordance with section 751(a) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675(a)) and 19 CFR 351.221(c)(1)(i).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that imports of ferrosilicon from Malaysia are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV) for the period of investigation (POI) January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023.
Applicable March 28, 2025.
Jacob Waddell or Carolyn Adie, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone:
On November 6, 2024, Commerce published the
For a summary of the events that followed the
The product covered by this investigation is ferrosilicon from Malaysia. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
No interested party commented on the scope of the investigation as it appeared in the
We continue to find that critical circumstances do not exist for imports of ferrosilicon from Malaysia for all producers and exporters pursuant to section 733(e)(1)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), and 19 CFR 351.206. For a discussion of Commerce's critical circumstance analysis,
Commerce conducted verification of the information relied upon in making its final determination in this investigation, in accordance with section 782(i) of the Act. Specifically, Commerce conducted on-site verifications of the sales and cost information submitted by OM Materials (Sarawak) Sdn. Bhd. (OMSA) and Pertama Ferroalloys Sdn. Bhd (Pertama) for use in our final determination.
All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs submitted by interested parties in this investigation are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum is attached to this notice as Appendix II.
Based on our verification findings, a review of the record, and the comments received from interested parties regarding the
Section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provides that the estimated weighted-average dumping margin for all other producers and exporters not individually investigated shall be equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for individually investigated exporters and producers, excluding rates that are zero,
For the final determination of this investigation, Commerce calculated estimated weighted-average dumping margins for OMSA and Pertama that are not zero,
Commerce determines that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margins exist:
Commerce intends to disclose the calculations and analysis performed in connection with this final determination to interested parties within five days of any public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the publication date of this notice in the
In accordance with section 735(c)(1)(B) of the Act, Commerce will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to continue to suspend liquidation of all entries of subject merchandise, as described in Appendix I of this notice, which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption, on or after November 6, 2024, the date of publication of the
Pursuant to section 735(c)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(d), upon the publication of this notice, we will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit for estimated antidumping duties for such entries as follows: (1) the cash deposit rate for the respondents listed in the table above is the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margins listed for the respondents in the table; (2) if the exporter is not a respondent listed in the table above, but the producer is, then the cash deposit rate is the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margins listed for the producer of the subject merchandise in the table above; and (3) the cash deposit rate for all other producers and exporters is the all-others estimated weighted-average dumping margins listed in the table above.
To determine the cash deposit rate, Commerce normally adjusts the estimated weighted-average dumping margin by the amount of export subsidies countervailed in a companion countervailing duty (CVD) proceeding, when CVD provisional measures are in effect. Accordingly, where Commerce has made a final affirmative determination for countervailable export subsidies, Commerce offsets the estimated weighted-average dumping margin by the appropriate CVD rate. Commerce has continued to adjust the cash deposit rate for export subsidies in the companion CVD investigation by the appropriate export subsidy rate as indicated in the above chart. However, suspension of liquidation of provisional measures in the companion CVD case has been discontinued;
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, Commerce will notify the ITC of its final affirmative determination of sales at LTFV. Because Commerce's final determination is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(2) of the Act, the ITC will make its final determination as to whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports or sales (or the likelihood of sales) for importation of ferrosilicon no later than 45 days after this final determination. If the ITC determines that such injury does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated, all cash deposits posted will be refunded, and suspension of liquidation will be lifted. If the ITC determines that such injury does exist, Commerce will issue an antidumping duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by Commerce, antidumping duties on all imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation, as discussed in the “Continuation of Suspension of Liquidation” section above.
This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This final determination and notice are issued and published in accordance with sections 735(d) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.210(c).
The scope of this investigation covers all forms and sizes of ferrosilicon, regardless of grade, including ferrosilicon briquettes. Ferrosilicon is a ferroalloy containing by weight four percent or more iron, more than eight percent but not more than 96 percent silicon, three percent or less phosphorus, 30 percent or less manganese, less than three percent magnesium, and 10 percent or less any other element. The merchandise covered also includes product described as slag, if the product meets these specifications.
Subject merchandise includes material matching the above description that has been finished, packaged, or otherwise processed in a third country, including by performing any grinding or any other finishing, packaging, or processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of the investigation if performed in the country of manufacture of the ferrosilicon.
Ferrosilicon is currently classifiable under subheadings 7202.21.1000, 7202.21.5000, 7202.21.7500, 7202.21.9000, 7202.29.0010, and 7202.29.0050 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). While the HTSUS numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope remains dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of ferrosilicon from the Republic of Kazakhstan (Kazakhstan). The period of investigation (POI) is January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023.
Applicable March 28, 2025.
Peter Shaw or Jose Rivera, AD/CVD Operations, Office OVII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-0697 or (202) 482-0842, respectively.
On September 10, 2024, Commerce published the
The product covered by this investigation is ferrosilicon from Kazakhstan. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
No interested party commented on the scope of the investigation as it appeared in the
Commerce conducted verification of the information relied upon in making its final determination in this investigation, in accordance with section 782(i) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Specifically, we conducted on-site verifications between September 9 and September 20, 2024, of the subsidy information reported by the Government of the Republic of Kazakhstan (GOK), YDD Corporation LLP (YDD), and TNC Kazchrome JSC (Kazchrome).
The subsidy programs under investigation and the issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs by parties are discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. For a list of topics discussed, and the issues raised by parties to which we responded in the Issues and Decision Memorandum,
Commerce conducted this investigation in accordance with section 701 of the Tariff Act of 1920, as amended (the Act). For each of the subsidy programs found to be countervailable, Commerce determines that there is a subsidy,
In making this final determination, Commerce relied, in part, on facts otherwise available, including adverse facts available (AFA), pursuant to sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act. For a full discussion of our application of AFA,
Based on our review and analysis of the information received during verification and comments received from parties, for this final determination, we made certain changes to the countervailable subsidy rate calculations for YDD, Kazchrome, and for all other producers/exporters. For a discussion of these changes,
Pursuant to section 705(c)(5)(A)(i) of the Act, Commerce will determine an all-others rate equal to the weighted average countervailable subsidy rates
Commerce determines that the following estimated countervailable subsidy rates exist for the period of January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023:
Commerce intends to disclose its calculations and analysis performed to interested parties in this final determination within five days of its public announcement, or if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of this notice in the
As a result of our
Additionally, pursuant to section 705(c)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(d), where appropriate, Commerce will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit equal to the estimated individual countervailable subsidy rate or the estimated all-others rate, as indicated in the chart above, effective on the date of publication of this final determination.
If the U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) issues a final affirmative injury determination, we will issue a countervailing duty order and require a cash deposit of estimated countervailing duties for such entries of subject merchandise in the amounts indicated above, in accordance with section 706(a) of the Act. If the ITC determines that material injury, or threat of material injury, does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated, and all estimated duties deposited or securities posted as a result of the suspension of liquidation will be refunded or canceled.
In accordance with section 705(d) of the Act, we will notify the ITC of our final affirmative determination that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of ferrosilicon from Kazakhstan. Because the final determination is affirmative, in accordance with section 705(b) of the Act, the ITC will make its final determination as to whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports of ferrosilicon from Kazakhstan no later than 45 days after our final determination. In addition, we are making available to the ITC all non-privileged and nonproprietary information related to this investigation. We will allow the ITC access to all privileged and business proprietary information in our files, provided the ITC confirms that it will not disclose such information, either publicly or under an administrative protective order (APO), without the written consent of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance. If the ITC determines that material injury or threat of material injury does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated and all cash deposits will be refunded.
If the ITC determines that such injury does exist, Commerce will issue a countervailing duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by Commerce, countervailing duties on all imports of the subject merchandise that are entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation, as discussed above in the “Continuation of Suspension of Liquidation” section.
In the event that the ITC issues a final negative injury determination, this notice will serve as the only reminder to parties subject to the APO of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.
This final determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 705(d) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.210(c).
The scope of this investigation covers all forms and sizes of ferrosilicon, regardless of grade, including ferrosilicon briquettes. Ferrosilicon is a ferroalloy containing by weight four percent or more iron, more than eight percent but not more than 96 percent silicon, three percent or less phosphorus, 30 percent or less manganese, less than three percent magnesium, and 10 percent or less of any other element. The merchandise covered also includes product described as slag, if the product meets these specifications.
Subject merchandise includes material matching the above description that has been finished, packaged, or otherwise processed in a third country, including by performing any
Ferrosilicon is currently classifiable under subheadings 7202.21.1000, 7202.21.5000, 7202.21.7500, 7202.21.9000, 7202.29.0010, and 7202.29.0050 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). While the HTSUS numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope remains dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of paper file folders from the Kingdom of Cambodia (Cambodia). The period of investigation (POI) is January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023. Interested parties are invited to comment on this preliminary determination.
Applicable March 28, 2025.
Shane Subler or Brandon James, AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6241 and (202) 482-7472, respectively.
This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 703(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Commerce published the notice of initiation of this investigation on November 19, 2024.
For a complete description of the events that followed the initiation of this investigation,
The products covered by this investigation are paper file folders from Cambodia. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
In accordance with the
Commerce is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 701 of the Act. For each of the subsidy programs found to be countervailable, Commerce preliminarily determines that there is a subsidy,
As noted in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum, in accordance with section 705(a)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(b)(4), Commerce is aligning the final CVD determination with the final determination in the companion antidumping duty (AD) investigation of paper file folders from Cambodia based on a request made by the petitioner.
Sections 703(d) and 705(c)(5)(A) of the Act state that in the preliminary determination, Commerce shall determine an estimated all-others rate for companies not individually examined. Section 705(c)(5)(A)(i) of the Act states that for companies not individually investigated, Commerce will determine an “all-others” rate equal to the weighted average countervailable subsidy rates established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any zero and
In this investigation, Commerce preliminarily calculated an individual estimated countervailable subsidy rate for Three Color Stone Stationery (Cambodia) Co., Ltd. (Three Color), the only individually examined exporter/producer in this investigation. Because the only individually calculated rate is not zero,
Commerce preliminarily determines that the following estimated countervailable subsidy rates exist:
In accordance with sections 703(d)(1)(B) and (d)(2) of the Act, Commerce will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of entries of subject merchandise as described in Appendix I to this notice entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of the publication of this notice in the
Commerce intends to disclose its calculations and analysis performed to interested parties in this preliminary determination within five days of its public announcement, or if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
Consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(e), Commerce will analyze and, if appropriate, correct any timely allegations of significant ministerial errors by amending the preliminary determination. However, consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(d), Commerce will not consider incomplete allegations that do not address the significance standard under 19 CFR 351.224(g) following the preliminary determination. Instead, Commerce will address such allegations in the final determination together with issues raised in the case briefs or other written comments.
As provided in section 782(i)(1) of the Act, Commerce intends to verify the information relied upon in making its final determination.
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than seven days after the date on which the last verification report is issued in this investigation.
As provided under 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2) and (d)(2), in prior proceedings we have encouraged interested parties to provide an executive summary of their brief that should be limited to five pages total, including footnotes. In this investigation, we instead request that interested parties provide at the beginning of their briefs a public, executive summary for each issue raised in their briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain the party's name, address, and telephone number, the number of participants, whether any participant is a foreign national, and a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, Commerce intends to hold the hearing at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
In accordance with section 703(f) of the Act, Commerce will notify the U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) of its determination. If the final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after the final determination whether imports of paper file folders from Cambodia are materially injuring, or threaten material injury to, the U.S. industry.
This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 703(f) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
The products within the scope of this investigation are file folders consisting primarily of paper, paperboard, pressboard,
Subject folders have the following dimensions in their folded and closed position: lengths and widths of at least 8 inches and no greater than 17 inches, regardless of depth.
The scope covers all varieties of folders, including but not limited to manila folders, hanging folders, fastener folders, classification folders, expanding folders, pockets, jackets, and wallets.
Excluded from the scope are:
• mailing envelopes with a flap bearing one or more adhesive strips that can be used permanently to seal the entire length of a side such that, when sealed, the folder is closed on all four sides;
• binders, with two or more rings to hold documents in place, made of paperboard or pressboard encased entirely in plastic;
• binders consisting of a front cover, back cover, and spine, with or without a flap; to be excluded, a mechanism with two or more metal rings must be included on or adjacent to the interior spine;
• non-expanding folders with a depth exceeding 2.5 inches and that are closed or closeable on the top, bottom, and all four sides (
• expanding folders that have: (1) 13 or more pockets; (2) a flap covering the top; (3) a latching mechanism made of plastic and/or metal to close the flap; and (4) an affixed plastic or metal carry handle;
• folders that have an outer surface (other than the gusset, handles, and/or closing mechanisms, if any) that is covered entirely with fabric, leather, and/or faux leather;
• fashion folders, which are defined as folders with all of the following characteristics: (1) plastic lamination covering the entire exterior of the folder; (2) printing, foil stamping, embossing (
• portfolios, which are folders having: (1) a width of at least 16 inches when open flat; (2) no tabs or dividers; and (3) one or more pockets that are suitable for holding letter size documents and that cover at least 15 percent of the surface area of the relevant interior side or sides; and
• report covers, which are folders having: (1) no tabs, dividers, or pockets; and (2) one or more fasteners or clips, each of which is permanently affixed to the center fold, to hold papers securely in place.
Imports of the subject merchandise are provided for under Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) category 4820.30.0040. Subject imports may also enter under other HTSUS classifications. While the HTSUS subheading is provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that imports of ferrosilicon from Brazil are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV) for the period of investigation January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023.
Applicable March 28, 2025.
Jaron Moore or Noah Wetzel, AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3640 or (202) 482-7466, respectively.
On November 6, 2024, Commerce published the
The product covered by this investigation is ferrosilicon from Brazil. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
No interested party commented on the scope of the investigation as it appeared in the
Commerce conducted verification of the information relied upon in making its final determination in this investigation, in accordance with section 782(i) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Specifically, Commerce conducted on-site verifications of the cost and sales information submitted by Companhia de Ferro Ligas da Bahia S.A. (Ferbasa) and Minasligas S.A. (Minasligas).
All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs submitted by interested parties in this investigation are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum is attached to this notice at Appendix II.
Based on our verification findings, a review of the record, and the comments received from interested parties regarding the
Commerce assigned a dumping margin to Ligas de Aluminio S.A. (LIASA) on the basis of AFA, pursuant to sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act in the
Section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provides that the estimated weighted-average dumping margin for all other producers and exporters not individually examined shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any rates that are zero,
For the final determination of this investigation, Commerce calculated an estimated weighted-average dumping margin of 0.78 percent (
Commerce determines that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margins exist:
Commerce intends to disclose the calculations and analysis performed in connection with this final determination to interested parties within five days of any public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the publication date of this notice in the
In accordance with section 735(c)(1)(B) of the Act, Commerce will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to continue to suspend liquidation of entries of subject merchandise, as described in Appendix I of this notice, which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption, on or after November 6, 2024, the date of publication of the
Pursuant to section 735(c)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(d), upon the publication of this notice, Commerce will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit for estimated antidumping duties for such entries as follows: (1) the cash deposit rate for the respondents listed above (except Minasligas) will be equal to the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin determined in this final determination; (2) if the exporter is not a respondent identified above but the producer is, then the cash deposit rate will be equal to the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin established for that producer of the subject merchandise; and (3) the cash deposit rate for all other producers and exporters will be equal to the all-others estimated weighted-average dumping margin listed in the table above.
Because the estimated weighted-average dumping margin for Minasligas is
Further, because the estimated weighted-average dumping margin is
To determine the cash deposit rate, Commerce normally adjusts the estimated weighted-average dumping margin by the amount of export subsidies countervailed in a companion countervailing duty (CVD) proceeding, when CVD provisional measures are in effect. Accordingly, where Commerce has made a final affirmative determination for countervailable export subsidies, Commerce offsets the estimated weighted-average dumping margin by the appropriate CVD rate. Commerce has continued to adjust the cash deposit rate for export subsidies in the companion CVD investigation by the appropriate export subsidy rate as indicated in the above chart. However, suspension of liquidation of provisional measures in the companion CVD case has been discontinued;
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, Commerce will notify the ITC of its final affirmative determination of sales at LTFV. Because Commerce's final determination is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(2) of the Act, the ITC will make its final determination as to whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports or sales (or the likelihood of sales) for importation of ferrosilicon from Brazil, no later than 45 days after this final determination. If the ITC determines that such injury does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated, all cash deposits posted will be refunded, and suspension of liquidation will be lifted. If the ITC determines that such injury does exist, Commerce will issue an antidumping duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by Commerce, antidumping duties on all imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation, as discussed above in the “Continuation of Suspension of Liquidation” section above.
This notice will serve as a final reminder to the parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 735(d) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.210(c).
The scope of this investigation covers all forms and sizes of ferrosilicon, regardless of grade, including ferrosilicon briquettes. Ferrosilicon is a ferroalloy containing by weight four percent or more iron, more than eight percent but not more than 96 percent silicon, three percent or less phosphorus, 30 percent or less manganese, less than three percent magnesium, and 10 percent or less of any other element. The merchandise covered also includes product described as slag, if the product meets these specifications.
Subject merchandise includes material matching the above description that has been finished, packaged, or otherwise processed in a third country, including by performing any grinding or any other finishing, packaging, or processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of the investigation if performed in the country of manufacture of the ferrosilicon.
Ferrosilicon is currently classifiable under subheadings 7202.21.1000, 7202.21.5000, 7202.21.7500, 7202.21.9000, 7202.29.0010, and 7202.29.0050 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). While the HTSUS numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope remains dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of ferrosilicon from Brazil. The period of investigation (POI) is January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023.
Applicable March 28, 2025.
Bob Palmer or Laurel Smalley, AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-9068 or (202) 482-3456, respectively.
On September 10, 2024, Commerce published the
The product covered by this investigation is ferrosilicon. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
No interested party commented on the scope of the investigation as it appeared in the
Commerce conducted verification of the information relied upon in making its final determination in this investigation, in accordance with section 782(i) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Specifically, we conducted on-site verifications of the subsidy information reported by the Government of Brazil (GOB), Companhia de Ferro Ligas da Bahia—FERBASA (Ferbasa), and Minasligas S.A. (Minasligas) in October 2024 using standard verification procedures, including an examination of relevant sales and accounting records, and original source documents provided by the GOB, Ferbasa, and Minasligas.
The subsidy programs under investigation, and the issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs that were submitted by parties in this investigation, are discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. For a list of the issues raised by parties, and to which we responded in the Issues and Decision Memorandum,
Commerce conducted this investigation in accordance with section 701 of the Act. For each of the subsidy programs found to be countervailable, Commerce determines that there is a subsidy,
In making this final determination, Commerce relied, in part, on facts available and, because it finds that one or more respondents did not act to the best of its ability to respond to Commerce's requests for information, Commerce has drawn an adverse inference where appropriate in selecting from among the facts otherwise available.
In accordance with sections 703(e)(1) and 776(a) and 776(b) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206, Commerce continues to find that critical circumstances exist with respect to imports of ferrosilicon from Minasligas, and Ligas de Aluminio S.A. (LIASA), but do not exist with respect to Ferbasa and all other exporters or producers not individually examined. For a full description of the methodology and results of Commerce's critical circumstances analysis,
Based on our findings at verification and our review and analysis of the comments received from parties, for this final determination, we made certain changes to the countervailable subsidy rate calculations for Ferbasa and for all other producers/exporters. We also updated the data supporting our critical circumstances analysis. For a discussion of these changes,
Pursuant to section 705(c)(5)(A)(i) of the Act, Commerce will determine an all-others rate equal to the weighted-average countervailable subsidy rates established for exporters and/or producers individually investigated, excluding any zero and
Commerce determines that the following estimated countervailable subsidy rates exist for the period January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023:
Commerce intends to disclose its calculations and analysis performed to interested parties in this final determination within five days of any public announcement, or if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of the publication of this notice in the
As a result of our
In accordance with section 703(d) of the Act, on January 8, 2025, we instructed CBP to discontinue the suspension of liquidation of all entries of subject merchandise entered or withdrawn from warehouse on or after January 8, 2025, but to continue the suspension of liquidation of all entries of subject merchandise on or after June 12, 2024, for the examined respondents, and on or after September 10, 2024, for all other companies, to, on, or before January 7, 2025.
If the U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) issues a final affirmative injury determination, we will issue a countervailing duty order, reinstate the suspension of liquidation under section 706(a) of the Act, and require a cash deposit of estimated countervailing duties for such entries of subject merchandise in the amounts indicated above, in accordance with section 706(a) of the Act. If the ITC determines that material injury, or threat of material injury, does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated, and all estimated duties deposited or securities posted as a result of the suspension of liquidation will be refunded or canceled.
In accordance with section 705(d) of the Act, Commerce will notify the ITC of its final affirmative determination that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of ferrosilicon from Brazil. Because the final determination is affirmative, in accordance with section 705(b) of the Act, the ITC will make its final determination as to whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports of ferrosilicon from Brazil no later than 45 days after this final determination. In addition, we are making available to the ITC all non-privileged and non-proprietary information related to this investigation. We will allow the ITC access to all privileged and business proprietary information in our files, provided the ITC confirms that it will not disclose such information, either publicly or under an administrative protective order (APO), without the written consent of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance. If the ITC determines that material injury does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated and all cash deposits will be refunded.
If the ITC determines that such injury does exist, Commerce will issue a countervailing duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by Commerce, countervailing duties on all imports of the subject merchandise that are entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation, as discussed above in the “Continuation of Suspension of Liquidation” section.
In the event that the ITC issues a final negative injury determination, this notice will serve as the only reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.
This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 705(d) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.210(c).
The scope of this investigation covers all forms and sizes of ferrosilicon, regardless of grade, including ferrosilicon briquettes. Ferrosilicon is a ferroalloy containing by weight four percent or more iron, more than eight percent but not more than 96 percent silicon, three percent or less phosphorus, 30 percent or less manganese, less than three percent magnesium, and 10 percent or less of any other element. The merchandise covered also includes product described as slag, if the product meets these specifications.
Subject merchandise includes material matching the above description that has been finished, packaged, or otherwise processed in a third country, including by performing any grinding or any other finishing, packaging, or processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of the investigation if performed in the country of manufacture of the ferrosilicon.
Ferrosilicon is currently classifiable under subheadings 7202.21.1000, 7202.21.5000, 7202.21.7500, 7202.21.9000, 7202.29.0010, and 7202.29.0050 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). While the HTSUS numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope remains dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that dioctyl terephthalate (DOTP) from Poland is being, or is likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV). The period of investigation is January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023.
Applicable March 28, 2025.
Eliza Delong, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3878.
On November 5, 2024, Commerce published in the
The product covered by this investigation is DOTP from Poland. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
We received no comments from interested parties on the scope of the investigation as it appeared in the
As discussed in the
Section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provides that the estimated weighted-average dumping margin for all other producers and exporters not individually investigated shall be equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated excluding rates that are zero,
In the
The final estimated weighted-average dumping margin is as follows:
Normally, Commerce discloses to interested parties the calculations performed in connection with a final determination within five days of any public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of the notice of preliminary determination in the
In accordance with section 735(c)(1)(B) of the Act, we will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to continue to suspend liquidation of all appropriate entries of DOTP from Poland, as described in the appendix of this notice, which are entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after November 5, 2024, which is the date of publication of the affirmative
Pursuant to section 735(c)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(d), Commerce will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin or the estimated all-others rate as follows: (1) the cash deposit rate for the respondent listed above will be equal to the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin determined in this final determination; (2) if the exporter is not a respondent identified above but the producer is, then the cash deposit rate will be equal to the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin established for that producer of the subject merchandise; and (3) the cash deposit rate for all other producers and exporters will be equal to the all-others estimated weighted-average dumping margin. These suspension of liquidation instructions will remain in effect until further notice.
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, we will notify the ITC of this final affirmative determination of sales at LTFV. Because the final determination in this proceeding is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(2) of the Act, the ITC will make its final determination as to whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports of DOTP from Poland no later than 45 days after this final determination. If the ITC determines that material injury, or threat of material injury, does not exist, the proceeding will be terminated, and
This notice will serve as the final reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.
This determination and this notice are issued and published pursuant to sections 735(d) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.210(c).
The merchandise covered by this investigation is dioctyl terephthalate (DOTP) regardless of form. DOTP that has been blended with other products is included within this scope when such blends include constituent parts that have not been chemically reacted with each other to produce a different product. For such blends, only the DOTP component of the mixture is covered by the scope of this investigation.
DOTP that is otherwise subject to this investigation is not excluded when commingled with DOTP from sources not subject to this investigation. Commingled refers to the mixing of subject and non-subject DOTP. Only the subject component of such commingled products is covered by the scope of this investigation.
DOTP has the general chemical formulation of C6H4 (C8H17COO)2 and a chemical name of “bis (2-ethylhexyl) terephthalate” and has a Chemical Abstract Service (CAS) registry number of 6422-86-2. Regardless of the label, all DOTP is covered by this investigation.
Subject merchandise is currently classified under subheading 2917.39.2000 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). Subject merchandise may also enter under subheadings 2917.39.7000 or 3812.20.1000 of the HTSUS. While the CAS registry number and HTSUS classifications are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; receipt of application for permit amendment.
Notice is hereby given that The University of Alaska Southeast, 1332 Seward Ave, Sitka, AK 99835 (Responsible Party: Jan Straley), has applied for an amendment to scientific research Permit No. 24378-01.
Written comments must be received on or before April 28, 2025.
The application and related documents are available for review by selecting “Records Open for Public Comment” from the “Features” box on the Applications and Permits for Protected Species home page,
Written comments on this application should be submitted via email to
Those individuals requesting a public hearing should submit a written request via email to
Shannon Bent, or Courtney Smith, Ph.D., (301) 427-8401.
The subject amendment to Permit No. 24378-01 is requested under the authority of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1361
Permit No. 24378-01, issued on April 28, 2023 (87 FR 80527, December 30, 2022), authorizes the permit holder to conduct research on 18 species of cetaceans in Alaska, focusing on gray (
The permit holder is requesting the permit be amended to include authorization for an increase in annual take numbers of gray whales from 250 to 1,000 for activities that may cause Level B harassment. The purpose of the requested amendment is to account for an unanticipated increase in observed gray whale numbers in Sitka Sound, and to allow researchers to continue their efforts to better understand their population dynamics, demographics, body condition, and foraging strategies. The amendment would not change the permit duration; the permit will expire on April 30, 2026.
In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
Concurrent with the publication of this notice in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; request for comments.
On August 21, 2024, NMFS received an application pursuant to section 120(f) of the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) from the Oregon Department of Fish and Wildlife, the Washington Department of Fish and Wildlife, the Idaho Department of Fish and Game, on behalf of their respective states; the Nez Perce Tribe, the Confederated Tribes of the Umatilla Indian Reservation, the Confederated Tribes of the Warm Springs Reservation of Oregon, the Confederated Tribes and Bands of the Yakama Nation; and the Willamette Committee (hereafter “eligible entities”). In their application, the eligible entities requested that NMFS renew their August 14, 2020, MMPA section 120(f) permit (which expires on August 14, 2025) for an additional five years to intentionally take, by lethal methods, individually identifiable California sea lions (CSL) (
Comments must be received by May 12, 2025.
You may submit comments, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2024-0100, by any of the following methods:
Robert Anderson, NMFS West Coast Region, (503) 231-2226.
The application is available via the internet at the following address:
Section 120(b)(1) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361,
Section 120(b)(2) requires that any such application shall include a means of identifying the individual pinniped or pinnipeds, and shall include a detailed description of the problem interaction and expected benefits of the taking.
Section 120(c)(1) requires the Secretary to determine whether an application has produced sufficient evidence to warrant establishing a Pinniped-Fishery Interaction Task Force (hereafter “Task Force”) to address the situation described in the application. The Task Force makes recommendations to the Secretary, including whether to approve or deny the application. The Secretary considers the recommendations of the Task Force along with the factors outlined in section 120(d) in determining whether to approve or deny an application.
The Endangered Salmon Predation Prevention Act of 2018 (Pub. L. 115-329) amended section 120(f) of the MMPA to provide authority for NMFS to issue permits to specific entities allowing the intentional lethal taking of individually identifiable sea lions for the purpose of protecting species of lamprey or sturgeon that are not listed as endangered or threatened but are listed as a species of concern by the state of Oregon (Oregon Administrative Rule 635-100-0400) (hereafter collectively referred to “at-risk fish species”) in the Columbia River basin. Under section 120(f)(7) and section 120(f)(8), sea lions
On June 13, 2019, NMFS received an application pursuant to section 120(f)
On June 18, 2019, NMFS provided the above-mentioned eligible entities a letter, consistent with section 120(c)(1) of the MMPA, acknowledging receipt of their application and a determination that the application produced sufficient evidence of the problem interaction to warrant establishing a Task Force. On August 30, 2019, NMFS published a notice in the
On May 12, 2020, NMFS established and convened a Task Force to provide NMFS with a recommendation to either approve or deny the eligible entities' June 13, 2019, application. In establishing the Task Force, NMFS also provided the Task Force a copy of the public comments it received on the eligible entities' June 13, 2019, application in making a recommendation to the Secretary whether to approve or deny the proposed intentional lethal taking of the pinniped or pinnipeds. The Task Force recommended approving, with certain terms and conditions, the eligible entities' application requesting authorization for lethal removal.
On August 14, 2020, NMFS, approved the eligible entities' application to intentionally take, by lethal methods, individually identifiable CSL and SSL that are located in the mainstem of the Columbia River between river mile 112 (I-205 bridge) and river mile 292 (McNary Dam), or in any tributary to the Columbia River that includes spawning habitat of threatened or endangered salmon or steelhead for a five-year period beginning on that date.
On March 7, 2024, NMFS convened the Task Force to evaluate the effectiveness of the MMPA section 120(f) removal program over the past 42-month period. This program evaluation is consistent with section 120(c)(5) of the MMPA, which requires, after implementation of an approved application, the Task Force to evaluate the effectiveness of the permitted intentional lethal taking. At this meeting, the Task Force was presented with information on the pinniped removal operations within the geographic area; sea lion-salmonid interactions; an overview of key population parameters for at-risk fish species by means of a population viability analysis or equivalent method to estimate the effectiveness of permanent removal of predatory sea lions at reducing or eliminate mortality of at-risk fish species and reducing extinction risk; a review of the Task Force recommendations, as specified in the August 14, 2020, permit including a benefits analysis of the removal program; and a summary of the Army Corps of Engineers' pinniped monitoring and evaluation program at Bonneville Dam. The Task Force did not recommend any additional actions to improve the eligible entities' effectiveness in eliminating the problem interaction through the permitted intentional lethal taking of individually identifiable CSL and SSL that are located in the mainstem of the Columbia River between river mile 112 (I-205 bridge) and river mile 292 (McNary Dam), or in any tributary to the Columbia River that includes spawning habitat of threatened or endangered salmon or steelhead.
On August 21, 2024, NMFS received an application pursuant to section 120(f) from the eligible entities requesting NMFS renew their MMPA section 120(f) permit for a five-year period that would begin on the date of issuance of the permit. According to the information in the application, sea lion predation within the geographic area continues to have a significant negative impact on the recovery on species of salmon, steelhead, and eulachon that are listed as endangered or threatened species under the ESA; and species of lamprey or sturgeon that are listed as at-risk fish species).
On September 3, 2024, NMFS provided the above-mentioned eligible entities a letter, consistent with section 120(c)(1) of the MMPA, acknowledging receipt of their application and a determination that the application produced sufficient evidence of the problem interaction to warrant convening the Task Force to provide a recommendation to the Secretary whether to approve or deny the eligible entities' application. The eligible entities are requesting authorization to intentionally take, by lethal methods, individually identifiable CSL and SSL that are located in the mainstem of the Columbia River between river mile 112 (I-205 bridge) and McNary Dam (river mile 292), or in any tributary to the Columbia River that includes spawning habitat of threatened or endangered salmon or steelhead (
The August 14, 2020, permit authorized the eligible entities to remove up to 540 CSL and 176 SSL in the geographic area.
For the purpose of the request to renew the existing MMPA section 120(f) permit for an additional five years, NMFS will consider the August 21, 2024, application and any relevant additional information, including the eligible entities' July 13, 2019, application.
Based on the information in the August 21, 2024, application, the eligible entities have removed 60 CSL (11.1 percent of authorized take) and 78 SSL (44.3 percent of authorized take) in the in the geographic area.
Despite removing only 11.1 percent and 44.3 percent of the authorized take of CSL and SSL, respectively, in the first 42 months of permit implementation, the eligible entities estimated that the removal of these sea lions has saved (fish that otherwise would have been lost to sea lion predation) an estimated 16,211 to 44,974 adult salmonids.
Nonetheless, according to the information at the March 7, 2024, program review and in the application, within the geographic area, sea lion predation continues to have a significant negative impact on the recovery of salmon, steelhead, and eulachon that are listed as endangered species or threatened species under the ESA; and species of lamprey and sturgeon that are not so listed as endangered or threatened but are listed as a species of concern by the state of Oregon.
Thus, to continue to manage CSL and SSL predation on ESA-listed species in the Columbia River basin, the eligible entities, consistent with section 120(f)(2)(D) of the MMPA, ask NMFS to consider their request to renew the duration of their August 14, 2020, permit for an additional five years. Additionally, the application states that removal of sea lions is also intended to protect species of lamprey or sturgeon that may not be listed as endangered or threatened but are listed as a species of concern by the state of Oregon.
The number of sea lions NMFS authorized for removal in the eligible entities' August 14, 2020, permit is 540 CSL and 176 SSL. If NMFS approves the eligible entities' request to renew the duration their MMPA section 120(f) permit for an additional five years, the eligible entities would be authorized to remove the remaining balance of sea lions originally authorized for removal in their August 14, 2020, permit from the date of issuance of the renewed permit.
In convening the Task Force, NMFS will ask the Task Force to consider the information in the eligible entities' August 21, 2024, application; the information presented to the Task force at the March 7, 2024, program evaluation; public comments received on the proposed action; and any relevant additional information, e.g., the eligible entities July 13, 2019, MMPA section 120(f) application, in making a recommendation to the Secretary whether to approve or deny the eligible entities' request to renew the duration of their August 14, 2020, MMPA section 120(f) permit for an additional five years to intentionally take, by lethal methods, individually identifiable CSL and SSL that are located in the main stem of the Columbia River between river mile 112 (I-205 bridge) and McNary Dam (river mile 292), or in any tributary to the Columbia River that includes spawning habitat of threatened or endangered salmon or steelhead.
NMFS solicits public comments on the eligible entities' application to renew their MMPA section 120(f) permit for an additional five years, and any relevant additional information that should be considered by the Task Force in making its recommendation, or by NMFS in making its determination whether to approve or deny the eligible entities' application. NMFS is particularly interested in receiving additional information on the impact of sea lion predation within the geographic area on the above-mentioned ESA-listed fish species and species of concern.
NMFS requests that comments be specific. In particular, we request information regarding: (1) observations of sea lion predation activity on salmonids, eulachon, lamprey, and sturgeon within the geographic area; (2) information on areas where sea lions are concentrated within the geographic area, including number of sea lions, and resting/haul out sites where sea lions have been repeatedly observed taking salmonids, eulachon, sturgeon, and lamprey; and (3) dates when sea lions have been observed within the geographic area.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; receipt of application.
Notice is hereby given that Charted Marine Consulting, 536 Fairfax Ave., Norfolk, VA 23507 (Responsible Party: Kristi Fazioli), has applied in due form for a permit to conduct research on bottlenose dolphins (
Written comments must be received on or before April 28, 2025.
The application and related documents are available for review by selecting “Records Open for Public Comment” from the “Features” box on the Applications and Permits for Protected Species home page,
Written comments on this application should be submitted via email to
Those individuals requesting a public hearing should submit a written request via email to
Amy Hapeman or Shannon Bent, (301) 427-8401.
The subject permit is requested under the authority of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (MMPA; 16 U.S.C. 1361
The applicant proposes to conduct research on bottlenose dolphins in the bays, sounds, estuaries, and near-shore coastal waters of Texas in the northwestern Gulf of America. The purpose of the research is to: (1) develop and maintain photo-identification catalogs; (2) characterize fine-scale population structure and dynamics; (3) establish baseline patterns of distribution, habitat use, health, and survival; (4) evaluate dolphin behavior in relation to anthropogenic activities; and (5) identify potential risks to the population. Researchers would take up to 8,670 dolphins annually during vessel surveys for counts, photo-identification, behavioral observation and passive acoustic recordings. A subset of animals would also be biopsy sampled or observed for photogrammetry and blow sampling via
In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
Concurrent with the publication of this notice in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of a public meeting.
The South Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council) will hold a meeting of the Dolphin Wahoo Advisory Panel (AP) on April 22-23, 2025.
The Dolphin Wahoo Advisory Panel meeting will be held April 22, 2025, from 1 p.m. until 5 p.m., EDT and April 23, 2025, from 8:30 a.m. until 12 p.m., EDT.
The meeting will also be available via webinar. Registration is required. Webinar registration, an online public comment form, and briefing book materials will be available two weeks prior to the meeting at:
John Hadley, Economist, SAFMC; phone: (843) 571-4366 or toll free: (866) SAFMC-10; fax: (843) 769-4520; email:
The Dolphin Wahoo AP will review Regulatory Amendment 3 to the Dolphin Wahoo Fishery Management Plan (minimum size limit and recreational retention limits for dolphin), the For-Hire Electronic Reporting Improvement Amendment, the topic of for-hire limited entry, and the Council's Research Plan. The Dolphin Wahoo AP will also receive updates on the management strategy evaluation for dolphin being conducted by the NMFS Southeast Fisheries Science Center, recent Council actions, the Council's Citizen Science Program, Best Fishing Practices Program, and the Council's Lines of Communication initiative. The AP will provide input on other topics as needed.
These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for auxiliary aid should be directed to the Council office (see
The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; issuance of permit.
Notice is hereby given that the Puerto Rico Department of Natural and Environmental Resources (PRDNER), San José Industrial Park, 1375 Ave. Ponce de León, San Juan, PR 00926 (Responsible Party: Nilda Jimenez-Marrero, Ph.D.) has been issued a permit to take pillar coral (
The permit and related documents are available for review upon written request via email to
Amy Hapeman or Erin Markin, Ph.D., (301) 427-8401.
On October 24, 2024, notice was published in the
The 10-year permit authorizes the PRDNER to conduct restoration activities for pillar coral in Puerto Rico to preserve the genetic diversity of the species and increase its population numbers in coral reefs in the wild. Restoration practitioners may collect colonies or parts of colonies from coral reefs in the waters of Puerto Rico and transport them to in situ and ex situ nurseries for maintenance and propagation. Colonies may be outplanted to the wild from nurseries. Additional colonies or parts of colonies may be collected from the wild as part of emergency response due to catastrophic events, such as a vessel grounding or storm. These colonies may be reattached or stabilized in the wild (in the same location or at a new location) or transported to a nursery.
Issuance of this permit, as required by the ESA, was based on a finding that such permit (1) was applied for in good faith, (2) will not operate to the disadvantage of such endangered or threatened species, and (3) is consistent with the purposes and policies set forth in section 2 of the ESA.
The Department of Commerce will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. We invite the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed and continuing information collections, which helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. Public comments were previously requested via the
This collection will generate information essential for the expansion of existing industry-collaborative groundfish research surveys in untrawlable habitats along the Pacific Coast. Survey expansion will close spatial gaps in existing survey coverage and provide information for the monitoring, assessment, and management of ecologically and economically important groundfish stocks including quillback rockfish (
NMFS will generate a spreadsheet template that will be distributed on a voluntary basis to members of the recreational and fishing communities along the Pacific Coast to solicit information about the most appropriate sampling locations to include in potential survey expansion as well as the role habitat, gear type, and vessel platform may play when targeting different species. Specifically, NMFS requests GPS coordinates and depths for potential survey sampling locations as well as the habitat type and target species associated with a particular location, and the most appropriate gear type for each location. Primary respondents will be identified by collaborating with existing industry representatives and liaisons along the coast to ensure broad spatial coverage, however, NMFS plans to place no restrictions on broader, voluntary distributions by primary respondents to other knowledgeable members of the fishing community. The information generated through this collection will inform the expansion of existing surveys including the specific gear type(s), target species, and sampling locations of the expansion areas.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website
The Department of Commerce will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. We invite the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed, and continuing information collections, which helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. Public comments were previously requested via the
NMFS AKR manages the groundfish fisheries in the exclusive economic zone of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands management area under the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP). The Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1801
Amendment 82 to the FMP established a framework for the management of the Aleutian Islands subarea (AI) directed pollock fishery. Amendment 82 implemented a provision of the Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2004 (Pub. L. 108-199, Sec. 803) that requires the AI directed pollock fishery be allocated to The Aleut Corporation for the purpose of economic development in Adak, Alaska. The Aleut Corporation is identified in Public Law 108-199 as a business incorporated pursuant to the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. 1601
The purpose of this collection is for NMFS to obtain the list of vessels and processors selected by The Aleut Corporation to harvest and process its annual AI pollock allocation. NMFS uses this information to manage the AI pollock fishery. Without this information, NMFS would not know the participants selected by The Aleut Corporation and could not determine harvest rates, which may result in allocations being exceeded.
The Aleut Corporation is required by Federal regulations at 50 CFR 679.4(m)(2) to provide its selected harvesters and processors to NMFS for approval. The Aleut Corporation must submit its selections to NMFS each year at least 14 days before harvesting pollock or processing pollock in the AI directed pollock fishery. The information submitted by The Aleut Corporation consists of the names of the harvesting vessels and processors it has selected, the Federal fisheries permit numbers or Federal processor permit numbers of these participants, and the fishing year for which approval is requested. No information is submitted in years that the Aleut Corporation will not be harvesting or processing pollock in the AI directed fishery.
On approval, NMFS sends The Aleut Corporation a letter that includes a list of the approved participants. A copy of this letter must be retained on board each participating vessel and on site each shoreside processor at all times.
More information on the AI pollock fishery is provided on the NMFS Alaska Region website at
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website
The Department of Commerce will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. We invite the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed, and continuing information collections, which helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. Public comments were previously requested via the
To ensure that educational activities funded by B-WET are of the highest quality, and efficiently utilize federal resources, B-WET has created an across-region, internal evaluation system to provide ongoing monitoring of program implementation and to identify opportunities for improved program outcomes. The evaluation system is maintained by B-WET staff with assistance from an outside contractor. The evaluation system collects information from B-WET program-funded grantees and project participants.
B-WET awardees of grants or cooperative agreements, and the awardees' teachers who attend professional development programs provided by the awardees, are asked to voluntarily complete online survey forms to provide data for the evaluation system. Information collected from awardees includes program elements such as program duration, format, audience, location, support and/or materials offered, and topics covered. Information collected from teacher professional development participants includes teaching methodologies, program satisfaction, program coverage, suggestions for improvement, and teaching confidence. Information collected from teachers at the end of the school year following their participation in a professional development program includes time spent teaching topics covered in the professional development program, types of activities used with their students, teachers' perceptions of student learning, and teaching practices utilized. One individual from each awardee organization is asked to complete a survey once per year of the award, and the teacher participants are asked to complete one survey at the end of their professional development program and another survey at the end of the following school year. Responses to the survey questions are aggregated and analyzed as part of ongoing evaluation efforts.
Based on a review of evaluation system results, B-WET has made program improvements by adjusting its Federal Notice of Funding Opportunities and program guidelines. On-going data collection enables NOAA to monitor program implementation and outcomes on a regular basis and supports adaptive management of the program.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website
The Department of Commerce will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. We invite the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed, and continuing information collections, which helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. Public comments were previously requested via the
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Additions to and deletions from the Procurement List.
This action adds product(s) to the Procurement List that will be furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities and deletes product(s) and service(s) from the Procurement List previously furnished by such agencies.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 355 E Street SW, Suite 325, Washington, DC 20024.
Michael R. Jurkowski, Telephone: (703) 489-1322, or email
On February 21, 2025 the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled (operating as the U.S. AbilityOne Commission) published an initial notice of proposed additions to the Procurement List. (90 FR 10074). This final notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503(a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3. The Committee has determined that the product listed below are suitable for procurement by the Federal Government and has added this product to the Procurement List. In accordance with 41 CFR 51-5.2, the Committee has authorized the qualified nonprofit agencies described with the product as the authorized source of supply. Additionally, in accordance with 41 CFR 51-2.4, the Committee considered relevant information from the contracting activity that this product requirement is not applicable to other Federal entities and has granted the activity's requested preference for purchase or distribution. This product is not available through the Commission's Commercial Distribution Program, and other Federal entities wishing to purchase this product must contact contracting activity directly for information on purchase availability.
After consideration of the material presented to it concerning capability of qualified nonprofit agencies to provide the products and impact of the additions on the current or most recent contractors, the Committee has determined that the product(s) and service(s) listed below are suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.
I certify that the following action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The major factors considered for this certification were:
1. The action will not result in any additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities other than the small organizations that will furnish the product(s) to the Government.
2. The action will result in authorizing small entities to furnish the product(s) to the Government.
3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the product(s) proposed for addition to the Procurement List.
Accordingly, the following product(s) are added to the Procurement List:
On February 7, 2025 (90 FR 9136) and 2/21/2025 (90 FR 10074), the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled published notice of proposed deletions from the Procurement List. This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503 (a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3.
After consideration of the relevant matter presented, the Committee has determined that the product(s) and service(s) listed below are no longer suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.
I certify that the following action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The major factors considered for this certification were:
1. The action will not result in additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities.
2. The action may result in authorizing small entities to furnish the product(s) and service(s) to the Government.
3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the product(s) and service(s) deleted from the Procurement List.
Accordingly, the following product(s) and service(s) are deleted from the Procurement List:
One comment was received, objecting to the proposed deletion at this time, because the commenter said that the requirement might be procured again in the future. The commenter recommended that the Commission pause its deletion action for at least a year. However, the Commission's research indicates it is unlikely that the previous requirement will be procured by this customer in the foreseeable future. The Commission maintains that contact center and IT help desk support can be suitable for procurement from nonprofit agencies employing individuals who are blind or have significant disabilities. In this case, however, there is no longer a government requirement for contract support, thus there is no potential to create or sustain employment for contract employees with disabilities. Accordingly, this requirement is appropriate for deletion from the Procurement List.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Proposed deletions from the Procurement List.
The Committee is proposing to delete product(s) and service(s) from the Procurement List that were furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.
Comments must be received on or before: April 27, 2025.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 355 E Street SW, Suite 325, Washington, DC 20024.
For further information or to submit comments contact: Michael R. Jurkowski, Telephone: (703) 489-1322, or email
This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503 (a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3. Its purpose is to provide interested persons an opportunity to submit comments on the proposed actions.
The following product(s) and service(s) are proposed for deletion from the Procurement List:
Department of the Air Force, Department of Defense.
Notice of intent.
Pursuant to the Bayh-Dole Act and implementing regulations, the Department of the Air Force hereby gives notice of its intent to grant an exclusive patent license to Trustees of Tufts College, 136 Harrison Avenue, Suite 75K-950, Boston, Massachusetts 02111, USA. Such license is exclusive.
Written objections must be filed no later than fifteen (15) calendar days after the date of publication of this Notice.
Submit written objections to John J. DePinto and Olivia McCormick, Air Force Research Laboratory, Materials and Manufacturing Directorate, AFRL/RX, 2977 Hobson Way, Wright-Patterson Air Force Base, Ohio 45433-7734; or Email:
John J. DePinto and Olivia McCormick, Air Force Research Laboratory, Materials and Manufacturing Directorate, AFRL/RX, 2977 Hobson Way, Wright-Patterson Air Force Base, Ohio 45433-7734; Telephone: (937) 255-2179; (937) 255-3637; or Email:
I. Optical-based microneedle (MN) sensors to detect analytes in dermal interstitial fluid in a minimally invasive manner are described. Compared to electrochemical MN strategies, optical sensing is largely unexplored but has numerous potential benefits, including enhanced shelf-life, avoidance of drift, decreased impact of biofouling, and a smaller form factor when not in active use. This strategy also avoids the considerable challenges associated with both implantable optical sensors and sensors that employ skin interstitial fluid wicking/collection for downstream analysis.
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The Department of the Air Force may grant the prospective license unless a timely objection is received that sufficiently shows the grant of the license would be inconsistent with the Bayh-Dole Act or implementing regulations. A competing application for a patent license agreement, completed in compliance with 37 CFR 404.8 and received by the Air Force within the period for timely objections, will be treated as an objection and may be considered as an alternative to the proposed license.
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
Any person desiring to protest in any the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rule 211 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211) on or before 5 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
On February 18, 2025, the City of North Little Rock, Arkansas (licensee) filed a Request to Reassess Headwater Benefits for the Murray Lock & Dam Project No. 3449.
No motion in opposition to the notice of withdrawal has been filed, and the Commission has taken no action to disallow the withdrawal. Pursuant to Rule 216(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure,
In its
Upon receipt of the agency submissions, the Commission posted the information in eLibrary, and issued, on March 6, 2025, a notice announcing the date for a technical conference to review the submitted costs. On March 20, 2025, the Commission held the technical conference. Technical conference transcripts, submitted cost forms, and detailed supporting documents are all available for review under Docket No. AD25-3. These documents are accessible on-line at
Interested parties may file specific questions and comments on the FY 2024 OFA cost submissions with the Commission under Docket No. AD25-3, no later than April 17, 2025. Once filed, the Commission will forward the questions and comments to the OFAs for response.
Anyone with questions pertaining to the technical conference or this notice should contact Raven A. Rodriguez at (202) 502-6276 (via email at
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following Complaints and Compliance filings in EL Dockets:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and
Take notice that on March 14, 2025, Southern Star Central Gas Pipeline, Inc. (Southern Star), 4700 State Route 56, Owensboro, Kentucky 42301, filed in the above referenced docket, a prior notice request pursuant to sections 157.205, 157.208(b), and 157.210 of the Commission's regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA), and Southern Star's blanket certificate issued in Docket No. CP82-479-000, for authorization to purchase and upgrade two existing rental compressor units at the Nash Compressor Station in Grant County, Oklahoma in order to maintain 40 MMcf per day of existing firm service capacity (Nash Compressor Station Upgrade Project or Project).
In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
Any questions concerning this request should be directed to Jennifer Matthews, Manager, Regulatory, Southern Star Central Gas Pipeline, Inc., 4700 State Route 56, Owensboro, Kentucky 42301, by phone at (270) 316-2972 or by email to
There are three ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project: you can file a protest to the project, you can file a motion to intervene in the proceeding, and you can file comments on the project. There is no fee or cost for filing protests, motions to intervene, or comments. The deadline for filing protests, motions to intervene, and comments is 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on May 23, 2025. How to file protests, motions to intervene, and comments is explained below.
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
Pursuant to section 157.205 of the Commission's regulations under the NGA,
Protests must comply with the requirements specified in section 157.205(e) of the Commission's regulations,
Any person has the option to file a motion to intervene in this proceeding. Only intervenors have the right to request rehearing of Commission orders issued in this proceeding and to subsequently challenge the Commission's orders in the U.S. Circuit Courts of Appeal.
To intervene, you must submit a motion to intervene to the Commission in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure
All timely, unopposed motions to intervene are automatically granted by operation of Rule 214(c)(1). Motions to intervene that are filed after the intervention deadline are untimely and may be denied. Any late-filed motion to intervene must show good cause for being late and must explain why the time limitation should be waived and provide justification by reference to factors set forth in Rule 214(d) of the Commission's Rules and Regulations. A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies (paper or electronic) of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties.
Any person wishing to comment on the project may do so. The Commission considers all comments received about the project in determining the appropriate action to be taken. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments on or before May 23, 2025. The filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. To become a party, you must intervene in the proceeding.
There are two ways to submit protests, motions to intervene, and comments. In both instances, please reference the Project docket number CP25-148-000 in your submission.
(1) You may file your protest, motion to intervene, and comments by using the Commission's eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(2) You can file a paper copy of your submission by mailing it to the address below. Your submission must reference the Project docket number CP25-148-000.
The Commission encourages electronic filing of submissions (option 1 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
Protests and motions to intervene must be served on the applicant either by mail at: Jennifer Matthews, Manager, Regulatory, Southern Star Central Gas Pipeline, Inc., 4700 State Route 56, Owensboro, Kentucky 42301, or by email (with a link to the document) at
Throughout the proceeding, additional information about the project will be available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC website at
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. For more information and to register, go to
On March 17, 2025, 3R Valve filed a notice of intent to construct a qualifying conduit hydropower facility, pursuant to section 30 of the Federal Power Act (FPA). The proposed Aquifer Pumped Hydro Project would have an installed capacity of 50 kilowatts (kW) and would be located at the Willow Springs Water Bank, also know as Antelope Valley Water Storage, near Rosamond, Kern County, California.
A qualifying conduit hydropower facility is one that is determined or deemed to meet all the criteria shown in the table below.
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as comments or motions to intervene, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene and comments using the Commission's eFiling system at
On March 17, 2025, the New York State Department of Environmental Conservation (New York DEC) submitted to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) notice that it received a request for a Clean Water Act section 401(a)(1) water quality certification as defined in 40 CFR 121.5, from the New York Power Authority, in conjunction with the above captioned project on March 17, 2025. Pursuant to the Commission's regulations,
If New York DEC fails or refuses to act on the water quality certification request on or before the above date, then the certifying authority is deemed waived pursuant to section 401(a)(1) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1341(a)(1).
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) has prepared an environmental assessment (EA) for the Texas Connector Amendment Project (Amendment Project), proposed by Texas Connector Pipeline LLC (Texas Connector) in the above-referenced docket. Texas Connector proposes to amend the Commission's authorization for the Texas Connector Project and to construct and operate the amended project facilities in Jefferson and Orange Counties, Texas.
The Texas Connector Project (Docket No. CP17-21-000), together with the Port Arthur Liquefaction Project (Docket No. CP17-20-000), and the Louisiana Connector Project (Docket No. CP18-7-000), was approved by the Commission on April 18, 2019. On May 25, 2023, the Commission issued an Order in Docket Nos. CP17-21-003, CP23-78-000, and CP23-79-000, authorizing the transfer of the certificated Texas Connector Project from Port Arthur Pipeline, LLC to Texas Connector. Texas Connector
The Amendment Project includes the following modifications to the previously authorized project.
• The Southern Compressor Station would not be constructed, and the original site of the Southern Compressor Station would be utilized for a laydown yard and access road.
• The southern pipeline segment (Southern Segment) would decrease in length from 7.6 miles to 1.4 miles.
• Compression at the Northern Compressor Station (renamed Orangefield Compressor Station) would increase from three natural gas-driven turbine compressors rated at 16,684 horsepower (hp) each, to four compressors rated at approximately 24,009 hp each.
• The footprint and configuration of the Orangefield Compressor Station would shift slightly northwest and increase in size from 40 acres to 82.4 acres.
• The northern pipeline segment (Northern Segment) would increase in length from 26.6 miles to 29.6 miles and include several modifications to the alignment and workspace to accommodate landowner requests and development within the previously authorized right-of-way.
• Texas Connector proposes to use Big Hill Bayou, Taylor Bayou, and South Mansfield Ferry Road Canal as water access routes. Big Hill Bayou would require dredging to facilitate vessel transit.
• The KMPL Meter Station would not be constructed.
The Commission mailed a copy of the
The EA is not a decision document. It presents Commission staff's independent analysis of the environmental issues for the Commission to consider when addressing the merits of all issues in this proceeding. Any person wishing to comment on the EA may do so. Your comments should focus on the EA's disclosure and discussion of potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental impacts. The more specific your comments, the more useful they will be. To ensure that the Commission has the opportunity to consider your comments prior to making its decision on this project, it is important that we receive your comments in Washington, DC, on or before 5 p.m. Eastern Time on April 21, 2025.
For your convenience, there are three methods you can use to file your comments to the Commission. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has staff available to assist you at (866) 208-3676 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the eComment feature on the Commission's website (
(2) You can also file your comments electronically using the eFiling feature on the Commission's website (
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the Commission. Be sure to reference the project docket number (CP24-512) on your letter. Submissions sent via the U.S. Postal Service must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426. Submissions sent via any other carrier must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
Filing environmental comments will not give you intervenor status, but you do not need intervenor status to have your comments considered. Only intervenors have the right to seek rehearing or judicial review of the Commission's decision. At this point in this proceeding, the timeframe for filing timely intervention requests has expired. Any person seeking to become a party to the proceeding must file a motion to intervene out-of-time pursuant to Rule 214(b)(3) and (d) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedures (18 CFR 385.214(b)(3) and (d)) and show good cause why the time limitation should be waived. Motions to intervene are more fully described at
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC website (
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organziations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
On June 26, 2023, Spencer Mountain Hydropower, LLC (Spencer Mountain Hydropower) filed an application to relicense the 0.64-megawatt Spencer Mountain Hydroelectric Project No. 2607. The project is located On the South Fork Catawba River, near the town of Gastonia, in Gaston County, North Carolina.
In accordance with the Commission's regulations, on January 6, 2025, Commission staff issued a notice that the project was ready for environmental analysis (REA notice). Based on the information in the record, including comments filed on the REA Notice, staff does not anticipate that licensing the project would constitute a major federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment. Therefore, staff intends to prepare an environmental assessment (EA) on the application to relicense the project.
The EA will be issued and circulated for review by all interested parties. All comments filed on the EA will be analyzed by staff and considered in the Commission's final licensing decision.
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members, and others to access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
The application will be processed according to the following schedule. The EA will be issued for a 30-day comment period. Revisions to the schedule may be made as appropriate.
Any questions regarding this notice may be directed to David Gandy at 202-502-8560,
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has submitted an information collection request (ICR), NSPS for Municipal Solid Waste Landfills (EPA ICR Number 2498.05, OMB Control Number 2060-0697) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through March 31, 2025. Public comments were previously requested via the
Comments may be submitted on or before April 28, 2025.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0275, to EPA online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Submit written comments and recommendations to OMB for the proposed information collection within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Muntasir Ali, Sector Policies and Program Division, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standard, D243-05, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (919) 541-0833; email address:
This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through March 31, 2025. An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Public comments were previously requested via the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency has submitted an information collection request (ICR), SmartWay Transport Partnership (EPA ICR Number 2265.05, OMB Control Number 2060-0663) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through March 31, 2025. Public comments were previously requested via the
Comments may be submitted on or before April 28, 2025.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0423 online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Submit written comments and recommendations to OMB for the proposed information collection within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Erik Herzog, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 2000 Traverwood Drive, S-72, Ann Arbor, MI 48105; telephone number: 734-214-4487; Fax: 734-214-4906; email address:
This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through March 25, 2025. An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Public comments were previously requested via the
SmartWay is open to organizations that own, operate, or contract with fleet operations, including truck, rail, barge, air and multi-modal carriers, logistics companies, and shippers. Organizations that do not operate fleets, but that are working to strengthen the freight industry, such as industry trade associations, state and local transportation agencies and environmental groups, also may join as SmartWay affiliates. All organizations that join SmartWay are asked to provide EPA with information as part of their SmartWay registration to annually benchmark their transportation-related operations and improve the environmental performance of their freight activities.
A company joins SmartWay when it completes and submits a SmartWay
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is planning to submit an information collection request (ICR), the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's (EPA's) WaterSense® Program (Renewal) (EPA ICR Number 2233.09, OMB Control Number 2040-0272) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). Before doing so, EPA is soliciting public comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection as described below. This is a request for approval of a new collection. This document allows for 60 days for public comments.
Comments must be submitted on or before May 27, 2025.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number EPA-HQ-OW-2025-0125 to EPA online using
Kersey Manliclic, WaterSense Branch, Water Infrastructure Division, Office of Wastewater Management, Office of Water (Mail Code 4204M), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (202) 566-9981; email address:
This is a request for renewal of an existing collection. An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
This document allows 60 days for public comments. Supporting documents, which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting, are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, EPA is soliciting comments and information to enable it to: (i) evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (ii) evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (iii) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (iv) minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate forms of information technology. EPA will consider the comments received and amend the ICR as appropriate. The final ICR package will then be submitted to OMB for review and approval. At that time, EPA will issue another
This ICR will cover a few areas of the program including:
• Product specification development relies on input from consumers and manufacturers;
• Program partners are asked to submit an Annual Reporting Form to inform the EPA of their program-related activities. The EPA uses the information
• Program partners can voluntarily submit additional information to be considered for annual recognition as well as recognition of water conservation achievements, innovations, events, etc. online;
• To assess progress in educating consumers about the WaterSense program, the EPA may conduct a brief Consumer Awareness Survey and/or “Pulse Surveys” of a sample of consumers during the next three years. The purpose of these surveys will be to obtain information at the national level and/or regional level on consumer awareness and the understanding of WaterSense.
All shipment and sales data submitted by WaterSense manufacturer and retailer/distributor partners are collected as CBI. EPA's contractor is currently managing CBI collected on this project using the procedures outlined in the contractor's CBI security plan entitled Security Plan for Handling Confidential Business Information Under the Clean Water Act. Project staff are trained in CBI-handling procedures, as outlined in this plan. Only staff demonstrating their understanding of CBI handling procedures by passing a written test will be permitted access to CBI. EPA will ensure that any future or additional direct contractor will have procedures in place for managing CBI.
• The labor rates were updated and respondent burden hours reflect feedback from this round of ICR consultations.
• WaterSense added a few new forms that require minimal time for respondents to complete—
• An actual consumer awareness survey had been conducted since the last ICR. Insights regarding that burden are reflected in this ICR.
10 a.m., Thursday, April 10, 2025.
You may observe this meeting in person at 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090, or virtually. If you would like to observe, at least 24 hours in advance, visit
This meeting will be open to the public.
The following matters will be considered:
If you need more information or assistance for accessibility reasons, or have questions, contact Ashley Waldron, Secretary to the Board.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The public portions of the applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, if any, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank(s) indicated below and at the offices of the Board of Governors. This information may also be obtained on an expedited basis, upon request, by contacting the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank and from the Board's Freedom of Information Office at
Comments received are subject to public disclosure. In general, comments received will be made available without change and will not be modified to remove personal or business information including confidential, contact, or other identifying information. Comments should not include any information such as confidential information that would not be appropriate for public disclosure.
Comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors, Ann E. Misback, Secretary of the Board, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551-0001, not later than April 28, 2025.
1.
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (“Act”) (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and of the Board's Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.31) to acquire shares of a savings and loan holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the notices are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The public portions of the applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, if any, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank(s) indicated below and at the offices of the Board of Governors. This information may also be obtained on an expedited basis, upon request, by contacting the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank and from the Board's Freedom of Information Office at
Comments received are subject to public disclosure. In general, comments received will be made available without change and will not be modified to remove personal or business information including confidential, contact, or other identifying information. Comments should not include any information such as confidential information that would not be appropriate for public disclosure.
Comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors, Ann E. Misback, Secretary of the Board, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551-0001, not later than April 14, 2025.
1.
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of meetings of the Board of Scientific Counselors, National Cancer Institute. The meeting will be held as a virtual meeting and is partially open to the public as indicated below. Individuals who plan to view the virtual meeting and need special assistance or other reasonable accommodations to view the meeting, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting. The open session will be videocast and can be accessed from the NIH Videocast at the following link:
The meetings will be closed to the public as indicated below in accordance with the provisions set forth in section 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended for the review, discussion, and evaluation of individual intramural programs and projects conducted by the National Cancer Institute, including consideration of personnel qualifications and performance, and the competence of individual investigators, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Deafness and Other Communication Disorders Advisory Council.
This is a virtual meeting and will be open to the public as indicated below. The URL link to this meeting is:
Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person. Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Advisory Council on Aging.
The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Board of Scientific Counselors
The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public as indicated below in accordance with the provisions set forth in section 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended for the review, discussion, and evaluation of individual intramural programs and projects conducted by the
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and cooperative agreement application discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C.,
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences Advisory Council.
The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting. The Open Session may be accessed by the public from the NIH Videocast at the following link:
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice no later than 15 days after the meeting at
In the interest of security, NIH has procedures at
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the National Institute on Aging Special Emphasis Panel, January 23, 2025, 12:00 p.m. to January 23, 2025,
The meeting notice is amended to change the start date of the meeting from 1/23/2025 to 4/18/2025. The meeting is closed to the public.
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The contract proposals and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the contract proposals, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the National Institute on Aging Special Emphasis Panel, January 31, 2025, 10:30 a.m. to May 7, 2025, 01:00 p.m., National Institute on Aging, 5601 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20892 which was published in the
The meeting notice is amended to change the start date from 1/31/2025 to 5/7/2025. The meeting is closed to the public.
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Notice is hereby given of the cancellation of the National Institute on Drug Abuse Special Emphasis Panel, April 03, 2025, 11:00 a.m. to April 03, 2025, 12:30 p.m., National Institutes of Health, National Institute on Drug Abuse, 301 North Stonestreet Avenue, Bethesda, MD, 20892 which was published in the
This meeting has been canceled and will not be rescheduled.
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Deafness and Other Communication Disorders Advisory Council.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The contract proposals and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the contract proposals, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the National Library of Medicine Board of Scientific Counselors, April 30, 2025, 9:00 a.m. to 2:45 p.m., which was published in the
This notice is being amended to announce that the meeting time will be changed to 9:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. and the meeting will be closed. The meeting will be virtual.
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Board of Scientific Counselors, National Human Genome Research Institute.
The meeting will be closed to the public as indicated below in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended for the review, discussion, and evaluation of individual intramural programs and projects conducted by the National Human Genome Research Institute, including consideration of personnel qualifications and performance, and the competence of individual investigators, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Advisory Council on Drug Abuse.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The intramural programs and projects as well as the grant applications and/or contract proposals and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with intramural programs and projects as well as the grant applications and/or contract proposals, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Office of the General Counsel, HUD.
Notice.
Section 106 of the Department of Housing and Urban Development Reform Act of 1989 (the HUD Reform Act) requires HUD to publish quarterly
For general information about this notice, contact Aaron Santa Anna, Associate General Counsel for Legislation and Regulations, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Room 10282, Washington, DC 20410-0500, telephone 202-708-5300 (this is not a toll-free number). HUD welcomes and is prepared to receive calls from individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing, as well as individuals with speech and communication disabilities.
To learn more about how to make an accessible telephone call, please visit please visit:
For information concerning a particular waiver that was granted and for which public notice is provided in this document, contact the person whose name and address follow the description of the waiver granted in the accompanying list of waivers that have been granted in the third quarter of calendar year 2024.
Section 106 of the HUD Reform Act added a new section 7(q) to the Department of Housing and Urban Development Act (42 U.S.C. 3535(q)), which provides that:
1. Any waiver of a regulation must be in writing and must specify the grounds for approving the waiver;
2. Authority to approve a waiver of a regulation may be delegated by the Secretary only to an individual of Assistant Secretary or equivalent rank, and the person to whom authority to waive is delegated must also have authority to issue the particular regulation to be waived;
3. Not less than quarterly, the Secretary must notify the public of all waivers of regulations that HUD has approved, by publishing a notice in the
a. Identify the project, activity, or undertaking involved;
b. Describe the nature of the provision waived and the designation of the provision;
c. Indicate the name and title of the person who granted the waiver request;
d. Describe briefly the grounds for approval of the request; and
e. State how additional information about a particular waiver may be obtained.
Section 106 of the HUD Reform Act also contains requirements applicable to waivers of HUD handbook provisions that are not relevant to the purpose of this notice.
This notice follows procedures provided in HUD's Statement of Policy on Waiver of Regulations and Directives issued on April 22, 1991 (56 FR 16337). In accordance with those procedures and with the requirements of section 106 of the HUD Reform Act, waivers of regulations are granted by the Assistant Secretary with jurisdiction over the regulations for which a waiver was requested. In those cases in which a General Deputy Assistant Secretary granted the waiver, the General Deputy Assistant Secretary was serving in the absence of the Assistant Secretary in accordance with the office's Order of Succession.
This notice covers waivers of regulations granted by HUD from July 1, 2024 through September 30, 2024. For ease of reference, the waivers granted by HUD are listed by HUD program office (for example, the Office of Community Planning and Development, the Office of Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity, the Office of Housing, and the Office of Public and Indian Housing, etc.). Within each program office grouping, the waivers are listed sequentially by the regulatory section of title 24 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) that is being waived. For example, a waiver of a provision in 24 CFR part 58 would be listed before a waiver of a provision in 24 CFR part 570.
Where more than one regulatory provision is involved in the grant of a particular waiver request, the action is listed under the section number of the first regulatory requirement that appears in 24 CFR and that is being waived. For example, a waiver of both § 58.73 and § 58.74 would appear sequentially in the listing under § 58.73.
Waiver of regulations that involve the same initial regulatory citation are in time sequence beginning with the earliest-dated regulatory waiver.
Should HUD receive additional information about waivers granted during the period covered by this report (the third quarter of calendar year 2024) before the next report is published (the fourth quarter of calendar year 2024), HUD will include any additional waivers granted for the third quarter in the next report. Accordingly, information about approved waiver requests pertaining to HUD regulations
The regulatory waivers granted appear in the following order:
For further information about the following regulatory waivers, please see the name of the contact person that immediately follows the description of the waiver granted.
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The requirement in 24 CFR 92.209(e) that the start date of a TBRA contract begin on the first day of the term of a tenant's lease is waived for TBRA contracts a participating jurisdiction executes for persons or families displaced by the disaster, as evidenced by the tenant's FEMA registration or other relevant documentation acceptable to the PJ, for a period of 24 months after the date the participating jurisdiction notifies HUD of its intent to use this waiver. The other requirements in 24 CFR 92.209(e) are not waived. The provision of 24 CFR 92.209(h)(1) imposing the maximum amount of TBRA assistance a participating jurisdiction may provide to a family under HOME TBRA is waived for TBRA recipients who are displaced by the disaster, as evidenced by the family's FEMA registration, for a period of 24 months after the date the participating jurisdiction notifies HUD of its intent to use this waiver. The other provisions of 24 CFR 92.209(h) are not waived.
The waiver of the housing quality standards requirements at 24 CFR 92.209(i) applies to units leased by TBRA recipients who were displaced by the disaster, as evidenced by the recipient's FEMA registration, and are being assisted through a HOME TBRA program funded by the participating jurisdiction for a period of 24 months after the date the participating jurisdiction notifies HUD of its intent to use this waiver. Units must meet any applicable State and local health and safety codes and requirements. The lead safe housing requirements of 24 CFR part 35, subpart M, made applicable to units leased by recipients of HOME TBRA by the HOME regulation at 24 CFR 92.355, are not waived.
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For further information about the following regulatory waivers, please see the name of the contact person that immediately follows the description of the waiver granted.
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The waiver is necessary and appropriate in this case, as a large majority of the debt-to-be-refinanced met HUD's definition of Capital Debt. Overall, the amount of ineligible debt is small compared to the size of the Authority. Further, supporting the Authority with a Section 223(f) refinancing meets the mission of the program to provide affordable refinancing opportunities to hospitals that have difficulty obtaining cost-effective financing options from other sources.
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Multi-dwelling-unit manufactured home designs, without a waiver of regulations 24 CFR 3282.14(b) and 3282.8(l), could not be approved for design and construction because the homes would have more than one separate living area. The Industry-Wide AC letter, published on September 11, 2024, provided the terms and conditions for interested manufacturers to gain approval of a multi-dwelling-unit manufactured home designs immediately.
For further information about the following regulatory waivers, please see the name of the contact person that immediately follows the description of the waiver granted.
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○ These waivers would allow easier access to the people experiencing homelessness to utilize affordable housing options.
○ The waiting list for the GFHA's HCV program when it opened in March of 2024 received 489 applicants in 5 days, of which 127 met the definition of homeless and they were given a preference on the GFHA's waitlist. This is over 25 percent of the GFHA's applicants.
○ The 2024 annual Point in Time (PIT) count data for the GFHA's Continuum of Care (CoC) area was 529, a rise of nearly 60 percent (59.3 percent) from 2023's PIT count of 332.
○ This population experiences great difficulty obtaining necessary documents like birth certificate, social security cards, and income verification due to various hurdles such as cost to obtain, lack of public transportation, lack of available social workers or case workers in the community to assist them with obtaining documentation.
○ Getting this documentation takes people experiencing homelessness a significant amount of time, up to several months, due to the same hurdles listed above, and is the main barrier for this population to access the GFHA's HCV program.
○ The people experiencing homelessness will continue to battle with the hurdles listed above.
○ The GFHA's leasing success will decline.
○ The area's homeless population may continue to grow.
HUD has found these reasons to be good cause and has granted the aforementioned waivers.
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○ In 2022, there were a total of 2,095 individuals in Salt Lake County (281 unsheltered and 1,814 sheltered homeless individuals).
○ In 2023, that number increased to 2,297 (435 unsheltered and 1,862 sheltered).
○ In the 2023 Point-in-Time count, Salt Lake County saw a 21% increase in the number of individuals experiencing chronic homelessness when compared to 2022 (753 in 2023 compared to 567 in 2022).
○ The HASLC administers 99 emergency housing vouchers (EHVs), over 100 project-based vouchers with a homeless requirement, and over 200 HUD-VASH vouchers. Homeless families also apply through HASLC's other programs. Approximately 24 percent of applicants on the regular, tenant-based HCV waitlist report being in shelter or living on the street. Another 50 percent of applicants report being at risk of losing their current housing. The HASLC has found that applicants experiencing homelessness take longer to complete the verification process, as many do not have the documentation needed for verification readily available. The waivers available with the EHV program have been very helpful in expediting the timeframe to get homeless families housed.
○ When disability status verification is required, there can be significant delays for applicants experiencing homelessness. These delays include obtaining a Social Security Disability Insurance letter if lost/misplaced, lack of transportation, communication (can be especially difficult for unhoused families), and changes of the applicant's phone number without notifying the HASLC. The timeframes vary for obtaining the verification. As an example, the SSDI letter can take two weeks to receive, however the timeline can be longer if the family is no longer in the shelter, or the address provided to the Social Security Administration has changed. Most homeless families do not have an online account to request the letter online. Many homeless individuals have a disability that may require assistance in obtaining the documentation. Lack of transportation to the HASLC's office to provide the letter (or lack of access to email or cost to mail) can add to the delays as well.
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○ As of June 30, 2024, these waivers have been used to expedite housing assistance for 1,075 families.
○ 46 percent of new admissions for HCV and PBV families experiencing homelessness benefited by removing or reducing programmatic, regulatory, and other barriers that systematically delay or deny access to housing for households with the highest need.
○ Results of the 2024 point-in-time homeless count released Friday, June 28, 2024, show a 2.2 percent drop in the population of unhoused people living in the city of Los Angeles, from 46,260 in 2023 to 45,252. It is noteworthy considering that the 2023 figure was up 10 percent from 41,980 in 2022.
The 2024 Greater Los Angeles Homeless Count for the City of Los Angeles reports the following:
○ 45,252 people experiencing homelessness (12,977 sheltered and 29,275 unsheltered).
○ 40,507 households experiencing homelessness (12,295 sheltered and 28,112 unsheltered).
Of these households, 1704 sheltered and 514 unsheltered households have at least one child under the age of 18 years old.
○ 18,936 are chronically homeless, which is defined as a household with any member who has a long-term disabling condition and has been homeless for 12 months or more within the past 3 years as specified by HUD.
On December 12, 2022, the Mayor of the City of Los Angeles declared a state of emergency on homelessness. There are more than 4,000 HCV and PBV units available within the HACLA's allocation for individuals and families experiencing homelessness within the City of Los Angeles that will benefit from the Department's approval of alternative requirements that the HACLA can implement to respond to the homelessness emergency declaration. Approval of these waivers to expedite and facilitate the leasing process of individuals experiencing homelessness during the City of Los Angeles homeless declaration will assist the HACLA on setting a path to end homelessness in line with United States Interagency Council on Homelessness' (USICH) strategic plan. HUD finds this to be good cause and has granted the aforementioned waivers.
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○ The Metro Denver Homeless Initiative Point-in-Time Count shows there are over 5,000 people experiencing homelessness in the City and County of Denver on any given night.
○ Over 300 individuals passed away in 2023 while homeless.
• The process of securing a birth certificate can take approximately 6-8 weeks (assuming the individual was born in Colorado; securing an out of state birth certificate is an even longer process) and securing a Colorado identification takes roughly 2 weeks from the point of getting an appointment—a process with its own time and capacity limitations.
○ Verification of disability also can significantly slow down the process of moving an individual into housing. As different individuals may have different health providers, identifying the correct partner to provide a verification of disability can be a challenge. In addition, in cases where a disabled individual cannot easily get to a medical provider to receive verification due to a physical limitation, this can delay the verification process for months.
○ The DHA has dedicated over 20 percent of its vouchers to project-basing specifically to developers who have dedicated housing to the homeless population, of which approximately 85 percent are leased.
○ Overall, DHA's leasing is not optimal for the population in most need of housing (homeless). Initial admission flexibilities around document verification are some of the DHA's biggest concerns.
HUD finds this to be good cause and has granted the aforementioned waivers.
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○ Homelessness in Los Angeles County is at crisis levels as of the last regional homeless count conducted in early 2024 by the Los Angeles Homeless Services Authority. As of the 2024 Los Angeles
○ The Mayor of the City of Los Angeles and the Los Angeles County Board of Supervisors both proclaimed states of emergency on homelessness for their jurisdictions to expand the availability of resources and accelerate the process of transitioning persons experiencing homelessness into safe and stable housing.
○ According to a study conducted by the U.S. Government Accountability Office in February 2024, “homeless individuals often lack a reliably safe place to store identification cards and other important personal documents, making these items subject to loss, destruction by the elements, and theft.” A recent Supreme Court ruling regarding homeless encampments has motivated the Governor of California to issue an Executive 2 Order (N-1-24), which orders state agencies to remove homeless encampments from public property. As a result, Los Angeles County is under pressure to swiftly address and remove the homeless encampments across the county. The LACDA respectfully requests these waivers in anticipation of sweeping removals of the homeless encampments when local law enforcement or sanitary departments remove these homeless individuals and their belongings from an area. Further, the safe removal of homeless encampments located along freeways is expected to drive many unsheltered individuals into the county area. Once documents are lost, replacing them can be especially difficult as they are often coupled with long wait times or can be financially burdensome.
○ The LACDA's case managers found that during the Emergency Housing Voucher (EHV) eligibility determination, the self-certification of income flexibility provided relief to families and individuals experiencing homelessness since many were alleviated of the barrier to providing current and consecutive computer-generated documentation. The self-certification of income flexibility through the EHV program permitted the LACDA to render program eligibility decisions within an average of 90-days, whereas, under normal HCV program rules and operations, program eligibility decisions are determined more than 90-days. The requested flexibilities related to the self-certification of income for individuals experiencing homelessness would assist LACDA in expediting HCV rental assistance eligibility.
• For the PBV Program, the average time for processing applications for a homeless applicant is up to 60 days from the date the PBV program staff receive the application. Non-homeless families with no social barriers range from 21 to 30 days.
HUD finds this to be good cause and has granted the aforementioned waivers.
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○ The state of Kentucky and Jefferson County have a substantial population of individuals experiencing homelessness within the PHA's jurisdiction. Over the past decade, Kentucky has witnessed a 30 percent increase in homelessness, as indicated by the Pointin-Time count. Jefferson County, the largest county in the state, has experienced a 40 percent increase in homelessness over the last five years.
○ The current requirement for documents such as an unexpired photo identification cards or birth certificates as proof of age presents time and cost barriers due to the need for multiple verification documents, which can take approximately 30 days and up to $30 to obtain.
○ Transit Authority of River City, Louisville Metro/Jefferson County's public transportation system, plans to reduce routes and services by 2025, further limiting access to community partners and necessary services for homeless populations.
○ Community partners are struggling with caseloads 75 percent greater than ideal due to outdated budgets. Homelessness in Kentucky has increased by 30 percent statewide and 2 40 percent in Jefferson County over recent years, and the number of professional case workers to assist persons experiencing homelessness is limited.
○ Approval of the requested waivers will allow the LMHA to reduce wait times and provide housing sooner, offering more reliable and healthy living environments.
○ With this waiver approval, individuals can begin the housing process while awaiting final identification documents, reducing delays.
○ Approval can reduce barriers at the identification and verification level, easing intake processing and alleviating some burden on community partners.
HUD finds this to be good cause and has granted the aforementioned waivers.
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○ The 2024 Point-in-Time count for Polk County shows a significant population in the jurisdiction is experiencing homelessness. The data shows there are 921 households who are considered homeless. There is a total of 1,300 people experiencing homelessness in the area. This is comprised of 339 people who are under 18 years old and 93 people who are 65 years of age or older. The LHA's jurisdiction has 230 households in emergency status, which is about 25 percent of the total amount of households experiencing homelessness.
○ The LHA offers the homeless preference on the waiting list. Due to the PHA's expedited processing for the homeless preference, the LHA can start the eligibility process within 3-5 days versus the average 15-day timeframe for other applicants. However, a barrier to progressing further exists once an applicant experiencing homelessness is selected from the waiting list as they have trouble providing required documents, because the documents may have been stolen while in a shelter or lost while moving from place to place.
○ The percentage of applicants experiencing homelessness that do not have income or other documentation is over 50 percent. In some cases, applicants may need identification 2 cards and other forms of documentation and may not have the money to obtain their supporting documents. Lack of income and transportation are other major barriers. Emergency Housing Voucher participants have access to public transportation, but many do not have personal transportation that may be necessary to access documentation.
○ The LHA has a Continuum of Care Program with the Homeless Coalition of Polk County. Due to the challenges the community faces such as the lack of affordable housing, obtaining such housing with a history of evictions, poor credit, and/or criminal records is nearly impossible. However, with the flexibilities the waivers offer, the LHA believes the community will thrive in helping people experiencing homelessness with less burden.
HUD finds this to be good cause and has granted the aforementioned waivers.
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Office of the Assistant Secretary for Public and Indian Housing, HUD.
Notice.
This notice advises the public of HUD's final determination on the Bear River Band of the Rohnerville Rancheria's request to expand its formula area under the Indian Housing Block Grant (IHBG) program. Consistent with IHBG program regulations, HUD is announcing its final determination to expand the Bear River Band of the Rohnerville Rancheria's formula area to include the balance of Humboldt County, in the State of California, for fiscal year 2025.
HUD's final determination is effective March 28, 2025.
Rebecca Halloran, Acting Director, Office of Grants Management, Office of Native American Programs, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 Seventh Street SW, Room 4108, Washington, DC 20410, telephone 202-401-7914 (this is not a toll-free number). HUD welcomes and is prepared to receive calls from individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing, as well as individuals with speech or communication disabilities. To learn more about how to make an accessible telephone call, please visit:
The IHBG program allocation formula is authorized by section 302 of the Native American Housing Assistance and Self Determination Act of 1996 (25 U.S.C. 4101
On August 1, 2024, the Bear River Band of the Rohnerville Rancheria requested that its formula area be expanded to cover the balance of Humboldt County in the State of California based on the Department of the Interior's Near Reservation Service Area Designation as listed in the
Whenever Tribes have overlapping formula areas, the Needs data for all the individual areas for all Tribes are combined and then apportioned among the Tribes in the overlap as outlined in 24 CFR 1000.326. Consistent with 24 CFR 1000.302, HUD is required to notify the affected Indian Tribes by certified mail and provide the Tribes with opportunity to comment for a period of not less than 90 days. HUD met this requirement with its September 3, 2024 letter to the Fort Bidwell Indian Community, Karuk Tribe, Quartz Valley Indian Community, Tolowa Dee-ni' Nation (Smith River Rancheria), Yurok Tribe, Confederated Tribes of the Coos, Lower Umpqua, and Siuslaw Indians, Coquille Indian Tribe, Cow Creek Band of Umpqua Tribe, Confederated Tribes of the Grand Ronde Community, Klamath Tribes, and the Confederated Tribes of Siletz Indians.
Consistent with 24 CFR 1000.302, HUD must consider all comments received on its preliminary determination and publish the notice of final determination in the
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Policy Development and Research, Department of Housing and Urban Development, HUD.
Notice of revised fiscal year (FY) 2025 Fair Market Rents (FMRs).
This notice updates the FY 2025 FMRs for several areas based on new survey data.
The revised FY 2025 FMRs are effective on April 28, 2025.
Adam Bibler, telephone 202-402-6057. Questions related to the use of FMRs or voucher payment standards should be directed to the respective local HUD program staff. For technical information on the methodology used to develop FMRs or a listing of all FMRs, please call the HUD USER information line at 800-245-2691 (toll-free), email the Program Parameters and Research Division at
On August 14, 2024, HUD published in the
The updated FY 2025 FMRs appear in the following table. The FMRs are based on surveys conducted by the area public housing agencies (PHAs) and reflect the estimated 40th percentile rent levels trended to FY 2025.
The FMRs for the affected areas are revised as follows:
HUD has published these revised FMR values on the HUD USER website at:
This notice involves the establishment of Fair Market Rent schedules and does not constitute a development decision affecting the physical condition of specific project areas or building sites. Accordingly, under 24 CFR 50.19(c)(6), this notice is categorically excluded from environmental review under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321).
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that on March 21, 2025, the presiding administrative law judge (“ALJ”) issued an Initial Determination on Violation of Section 337. The ALJ also issued a Recommended Determination on remedy and bonding should a violation be found in the above-captioned investigation. The Commission is soliciting submissions on public interest issues raised by the recommended relief should the Commission find a violation. This notice is soliciting comments from the public and interested government agencies only.
Edward S. Jou, Esq., Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-3316. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at
Section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 provides that, if the Commission finds a violation, it shall exclude the articles concerned from the United States unless, after considering the effect of such exclusion upon the public health and welfare, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, and United States consumers, it finds that such articles should not be excluded from entry. (19 U.S.C. 1337(d)(1)). A similar provision applies to cease and desist orders. (19 U.S.C. 1337(f)(1)).
The Commission is soliciting submissions on public interest issues raised by the recommended relief should the Commission find a violation, specifically: a limited exclusion order directed to certain liquid coolers for electronic components in computers,
The Commission is interested in further development of the record on the public interest in this investigation. Accordingly, members of the public and interested government agencies are invited to file submissions of no more than five (5) pages, inclusive of attachments, concerning the public interest in light of the ALJ's Recommended Determination on Remedy and Bonding issued in this investigation on March 21, 2025. Comments should address whether issuance of the recommended remedial orders in this investigation, should the Commission find a violation, would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.
In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:
(i) explain how the articles potentially subject to the recommended remedial orders are used in the United States;
(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the recommended orders;
(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;
(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third-party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the recommended orders within a commercially reasonable time; and
(v) explain how the recommended orders would impact consumers in the United States.
Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business on April 23, 2025.
Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above pursuant to 19 CFR 210.4(f). Submissions should refer to the investigation number (“Inv. No. 337-TA-1394”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment by marking each document with a header indicating that the document contains confidential information. This marking will be deemed to satisfy the request procedure set forth in Rules 201.6(b) and 210.5(e)(2) (19 CFR 201.6(b) & 210.5(e)(2)). Documents for which confidential treatment by the Commission is properly sought will be treated accordingly. Any non-party wishing to submit comments containing confidential information must serve those comments on the parties to the investigation pursuant to the applicable Administrative Protective Order. A redacted non-confidential version of the document must also be filed simultaneously with any confidential filing and must be served in accordance with Commission Rule 210.4(f)(7)(ii)(A) (19 CFR 210.4(f)(7)(ii)(A)). All information, including confidential business information and documents for which confidential treatment is properly sought, submitted to the Commission for purposes of this investigation may be disclosed to and used: (i) by the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. Government employees and contract personnel, solely for cybersecurity purposes. All contract personnel will sign appropriate nondisclosure agreements. All nonconfidential written submissions will be available for public inspection on EDIS.
This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).
By order of the Commission.
Federal Bureau of Investigation, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Department of Justice (DOJ), will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 30 days until April 28, 2025.
If you have comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact: Edward L. Abraham, Unit Chief, Crime and Law Enforcement Statistics Unit, FBI, CJIS Division, Module D-2, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, West Virginia 26306. Phone: 304-625-4830; email:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Written comments and recommendations for this information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website
DOJ seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOJ notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.
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If additional information is required, contact: Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, Policy and Planning Staff, Justice Management Division, United States Department of Justice, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218 Washington, DC 20530.
Office on Violence Against Women, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Office on Violence Against Women, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 30 days until April 28, 2025.
If you have comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact: Catherine Poston, Office on Violence Against Women, at 202-514-5430 or
The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Written comments and recommendations for this information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website
DOJ seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOJ notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.
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7. The total annual hour burden to complete the data collection forms is 54,000 hours, that is 1800 applicants completing a form once a year with an estimated completion time for the form being 30 hours.
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9. Total Burden Hours
If additional information is required contact: Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street, NE, 4W-218, Washington, DC.
Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Division, Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The CJIS Division, FBI, DOJ, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 30 days until April 28, 2025.
If you have comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact: Brian A. Cain, Management and Program Analyst, FBI, CJIS, Criminal History Information and Policy Unit, BTC-3, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, WV 26306; phone: 304-625-5590 or email
The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Written comments and recommendations for this information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website
DOJ seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOJ notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.
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If additional information is required, contact: Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, Policy and Planning Staff, Justice Management Division, United States Department of Justice, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218 Washington, DC 20530.
Office on Violence Against Women, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Office on Violence Against Women, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 30 days until April 28, 2025.
If you have comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact: Catherine Poston, Office on Violence Against Women, at 202-514-5430 or
The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Written comments and recommendations for this information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website
DOJ seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOJ notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.
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3. The agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department sponsoring the collection: 1122-0012.
4. Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as the obligation to respond: The affected public includes the approximately 18 grantees of the Disability Grant Program. Grantees include states, units of local government, Indian tribal governments or tribal organizations and non-
5. An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond: It is estimated that it will take the approximately 18 respondents (grantees from the Disability Grant Program) approximately one hour to complete a semiannual progress report. The semiannual progress report is divided into sections that pertain to the different types of grantee activities.
6. An estimate of the total annual burden (in hours) associated with the collection: The total annual hour burden to complete the data collection forms is 36 hours, that is 18 grantees completing a form twice a year with an estimated completion time for the form being one hour.
7. The total annual hour burden to complete the data collection forms is 36 hours, that is 18 grantees completing a form twice a year with an estimated completion time for the form being one hour.
8. An estimate of the total annual cost burden associated with the collection, if applicable: The annualized costs to the Federal Government resulting from the OVW staff review of the progress reports submitted by grantees are estimated to be $2016.
9. Total Burden Hours
Office on Violence Against Women, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Office on Violence Against Women, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 30 days until April 28, 2025.
If you have comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact: Catherine Poston, Office on Violence Against Women, at 202-514-5430 or
The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Written comments and recommendations for this information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website
DOJ seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOJ notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.
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Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting this Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA)-sponsored information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that the agency receives on or before April 28, 2025.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Michael Howell by telephone at 202-693-6782, or by email at
Prohibited Transaction Exemption (PTE) 97-41 permits an employee benefit plan to purchase shares of a registered open-end investment company (mutual fund) in exchange for plan assets transferred in-kind from a collective investment fund (CIF) maintained by a bank or plan adviser, even though the bank or plan adviser, or an affiliate thereof, is the investment adviser for the mutual fund and also serves as a fiduciary for the plan, provided that the purchase and transfer is in connection with a complete withdrawal of the plan's investment in the CIF and certain other conditions are met.
Among other conditions, the exemption requires the bank or plan adviser to provide an independent fiduciary of the plan with advance written notice of the proposed transfer and full written disclosure of information concerning the mutual fund, including the current prospectus; disclosure of the fees to be charged to, or paid by the plan and funds to the bank or plan adviser, including the nature and extent of any differential between the rates of the fees; the reasons why the bank or plan adviser considers the in-kind transfers appropriate for the plan; and a statement of whether there are any limitations applicable to the bank or plan adviser with respect to which plan assets may be invested in shares of the mutual fund and, if so, the nature of such limitations; and the identity of securities that will have to be valued for the transfer. The independent fiduciary must give prior written approval of the transfer (and written approval of any electronic transmission of subsequent confirmations from the bank or plan adviser, if the independent fiduciary elects to receive such statements in that form); and the bank or adviser must send written (or electronic, if approved) confirmation of the transfer. Subsequent to a transfer, the bank or plan adviser must provide the independent fiduciary of the plan with updated prospectuses at least annually for mutual funds in which the plan remains invested; the bank or plan adviser must also provide, upon the independent fiduciary's request, a report or statement of all fees paid by the mutual fund to the bank or plan adviser, which may be in the form of the most recent financial report. For
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid OMB Control Number.
DOL seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOL notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting this Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA)-sponsored information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that the agency receives on or before April 28, 2025.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Michael Howell by telephone at 202-693-6782, or by email at
Prohibited Transaction Exemption 2004-07 permits an individual account pension plan sponsored by a real estate investment trust (REIT) within the meaning of Code section 856 that is organized as a trust under applicable law (Trust REIT), or by its affiliates, to purchase, hold and sell publicly traded shares of beneficial interest in the Trust REIT at the direction of the participant or an independent fiduciary. The relief also covers contributions in kind of REIT shares. Such purchases, holdings, and sales would otherwise be prohibited under ERISA section 406 and Code section 4975.
The class exemption requires, among other conditions, that the Trust REIT (or its agent) provide the person who has authority to direct acquisition or sale of REIT shares with the most recent prospectus, quarterly report, and annual report concerning the Trust REIT prior to or immediately after an initial investment in the Trust REIT. The person with such authority may be, under the terms of the plan, either an independent fiduciary or a participant exercising investment rights pertaining to his or her individual account under the plan. Updated versions of the reports must be provided to the directing person as published. The exemption further requires the plan to maintain records concerning investments in a Trust REIT for a period of six years and make them available to interested persons including the Department, Internal Revenue Service, fiduciary or authorized representative of the plan, and participants and beneficiaries. The exemption requires confidentiality procedures, which must be designed to protect against the possibility that an employer may exert undue influence on participants regarding share-related transactions, and the participants and beneficiaries of the plan must be provided with a statement describing the confidentiality procedures in place and the fiduciary responsible for monitoring these procedures. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Comments are invited on: (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimates of the burden and cost of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid OMB Control Number.
DOL seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOL notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting this Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA)-sponsored information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that the agency receives on or before April 28, 2025.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Michael Howell by telephone at 202-693-6782, or by email at
Prohibited Transaction Exemption (PTE) 2002-12 permits private-sector pension plans and the Federal Thrift Savings Plan to buy and sell securities between certain types of investment funds that participate in passive or model-driven “cross-trading” programs pursuant to objective criteria specified in the exemption. The exemption extends only to crossing-trading conducted according to index- or model-driven programs that meet the specific requirements of the exemption, which generally seeks to create objective criteria sufficient to confine or eliminate the manager's discretion to affect the identity or amount of securities to be cross-traded and the timing of cross-trades. The exemption also covers cross-trades among such funds and certain large accounts that engage managers to carry out a specific portfolio restructuring program in order to convert the large account into a fund, or to otherwise act as a “trading adviser” for such a restructuring program.
The information collection requirements that are conditions for reliance on the class exemption include third-party disclosures and recordkeeping. The exemption does not require any reporting or filing with the Federal government, but the designated records must be made available to specified parties, including the Department and the IRS, upon request. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Comments are invited on: (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimates of the burden and cost of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid OMB Control Number.
DOL seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOL notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting this Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA)-sponsored information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that the agency receives on or before April 28, 2025.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Michael Howell by telephone at 202-693-6782, or by email at
Prohibited Transaction Class Exemption (PTE) 91-38 provides an exemption from the restrictions of sections 406(a), 406(b)(2) and 407(a) of ERISA and the taxes imposed by section 4975(a) and (b) of the Code by reason of section 4975(c)(1)(A), (B), (C), or (D) of the Code for certain transactions between a bank collective investment fund in which an employee benefit plan has invested assets and persons who are parties in interest to the employee benefit plan, as long as the interest of the plan together with the interests of any other plans maintained by the same employer or employee organization in the collective investment fund does not exceed 10% of the total assets in the collective investment fund. In addition, the bank managing the common investment fund must not itself be a party in interest to the participating plan, the terms of the transaction must be at least as favorable to the collective investment fund as those available in an arm's length transaction with an unrelated party, and the bank must maintain records of the transactions for six years and make the records available for inspection to specified interested persons (including the Department and the Internal Revenue Service). For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid OMB Control Number.
DOL seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOL notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.
Bureau of Labor Statistics, Department of Labor.
Notice of information collection; request for comment.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This program helps to ensure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. The Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) is soliciting comments concerning the proposed extension without change of the “American Time Use Survey.” A copy of the proposed information collection request can be obtained by contacting the individual listed below in the Addresses section of this notice.
Written comments must be submitted to the office listed in the Addresses section of this notice on or before May 27, 2025.
Send comments to Erin Good, BLS Clearance Officer, Division of Management Systems, Bureau of Labor Statistics by email to
Erin Good, BLS Clearance Officer, at 202-691-7628 (this is not a toll-free number). (See
The ATUS is the Nation's first federally administered, continuous survey on time use in the United States. It measures, for example, time spent providing childcare and eldercare, working, doing household chores, and spent in leisure activities. In the United States, several existing Federal surveys collect income and wage data for individuals and families, and analysts often use such measures of material prosperity as proxies for quality of life. Time-use data substantially augment these quality-of-life measures. The data also can be used in conjunction with wage data to evaluate the contribution of non-market work to national economies. This enables comparisons of production between nations that have different mixes of market and non-market activities.
The ATUS develops nationally representative estimates of how people spend their time. Respondents also report who was with them during activities, where they were, how long each activity lasted, and if they were paid. All of this information has numerous practical applications for sociologists, economists, educators, government officials, businesspersons, health researchers, and others, answering questions such as:
• Do the ways people use their time vary across demographic and labor force characteristics, such as age, sex, race, ethnicity, employment status, earnings, and education?
• How much time do parents spend in the company of their children, either actively providing care or being with them while socializing, or doing other things? How has this changed over time?
• How are earnings related to leisure time—do those with higher earnings
• How much time do people spend working at their workplaces and in their homes?
The ATUS data are collected on an ongoing basis nearly every day of the year, allowing analysts to identify changes in how people spend their time.
Office of Management and Budget clearance is being sought for the American Time Use Survey (ATUS). This survey collects information on how individuals in the United States use their time. Collection is done on a continuous basis with the sample drawn monthly. The survey sample is drawn from households completing their 8th month of interviews for the Current Population Survey (CPS). Households are selected to ensure a nationally-representative demographic sample, and one individual from each household is selected to take part in one Computer Assisted Telephone Interview. Interviewers ask respondents to report all of their activities for one pre-assigned 24-hour day, the day prior to the interview. A short series of summary questions and CPS updates follows the core time diary collection. After each full year of collection, annual national estimates of time use for an average day, weekday, and weekend day are published.
Because the ATUS sample is a subset of households completing interviews for the CPS, the same demographic information collected from that survey is available for ATUS respondents. Comparisons of activity patterns across characteristics such as sex, race, age, and education of the respondent, as well as the presence of children and the number of adults living in the respondent's household, are possible.
The Bureau of Labor Statistics is particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they also will become a matter of public record.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning the proposal to extend the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Benzene Standard.
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by May 27, 2025.
For further information on submitting comments, see the “Public Participation” heading in the section of this notice titled
Seleda Perryman, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor; telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of the continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
The following section describes who uses the information collected under each requirement, as well as how they use it. The purpose of these requirements is to protect workers from the adverse health effects that may result from occupational exposure to benzene.
The major information collection requirements in the Standard include conducting worker exposure monitoring, notifying workers of the benzene exposure, implementing a written compliance program, implementing medical surveillance for workers, providing examining physicians with the specific information, ensuring that workers receive a copy of their medical surveillance records, and providing access to these records by OSHA, the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, the worker who is the subject of the records, the worker's representative, and other designated parties.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the agency's functions to protect workers, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information, and transmission techniques.
OSHA is requesting that OMB extend the approval of the information collection requirements contained in the Benzene Standard. The agency is requesting an adjustment decrease in burden from 114,598 to 114,146 hours, a difference of 452 hours. The adjustment decrease is due to a decrease in the number of workers exposed above the action level going from 69,742 to 65,499 workers even though the current number of establishments increased. The total number of responses went from 241,371 to 241,005, a decrease of 366. The capital cost for maintenance and operation increased from $10,958,889 to $12,067,635, a difference of $1,108,746.
OSHA will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice and will include this summary in the request to OMB to extend the approval of the information collection requirements.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) electronically at
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
Scott C. Ketcham, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
The National Science Board's Committee on Strategy hereby gives notice of the scheduling of a teleconference for the transaction of National Science Board business pursuant to the NSF Act and the Government in the Sunshine Act.
Friday, March 28, 2025, from 2:00-3:00 p.m. Eastern.
This meeting will be via videoconference through the National Science Foundation, 2415 Eisenhower Avenue, Alexandria, VA 22314.
Closed.
The agenda is: Chair's remarks about the agenda; discussion of NSB high-level principles and priorities under hypothetical budget scenarios.
Point of contact for this meeting is: Chris Blair,
Weeks of March 31, April 7, 14, 21, 28 and May 5, 2025. The schedule for Commission meetings is subject to change on short notice. The NRC Commission Meeting Schedule can be found on the internet at:
The NRC provides reasonable accommodation to individuals with
Public.
Members of the public may request to receive the information in these notices electronically. If you would like to be added to the distribution, please contact the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of the Secretary, Washington, DC 20555, at 301-415-1969, or by email at
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of March 31, 2025.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of April 14, 2025.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of April 21, 2025.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of April 28, 2025.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of May 5, 2025.
For more information or to verify the status of meetings, contact Chris Markley at 301-415-6293 or via email at
The NRC is holding the meetings under the authority of the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission.
Annual notice.
Notice is given of the appointment of members to the Performance Review Board (PRB) of the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission.
Membership is effective on March 28, 2025.
Michelle Huffman, Human Resources Specialist, U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission, 1120 20th Street NW—Ninth Floor, Washington, DC 20036-3457, (202) 606-5393.
The Review Commission, as required by 5 U.S.C. 4314(c)(1) through (5), has established a Senior Executive Service PRB. The PRB reviews and evaluates the initial appraisal of a senior executive's performance by the supervisor and makes recommendations to the Chairman of the Review Commission regarding performance ratings, performance awards, and pay-for-performance adjustments. Members of the PRB serve for a period of 24 months. In the case of an appraisal of a career appointee, more than half of the members shall consist of career appointees, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 4314(c)(5). The names and titles of the PRB members are as follows:
• Fred B. Jacob, Solicitor, National Labor Relations Board;
• Susan Harthill, Associate Director of Appellate Review Programs, Office of Federal Operations, Equal Employment Opportunity Commission;
• Reggie James, Associate Director, Court Services and Offender Supervision Agency.
The name and title of the alternate PRB member is as follows:
• Jebby Rasputnis, Deputy Director of Programs, U.S. Railroad Retirement Board.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning a negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405, the Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to Competitive negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition of a negotiated service agreement from the Competitive product list or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the Competitive product list.
The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's website (
Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, that will be reviewed in a public proceeding as defined by 39 CFR 3010.101(p), the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each such request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 and 39 CFR 3000.114 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each such request.
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) identified in Section II, if any, are consistent with the policies of title 39. Applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3035, and 39 CFR part 3041. Comment deadline(s) for each such request, if any, appear in Section II.
Section III identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, to add a standardized distinct product to the Competitive product list or to amend a standardized distinct product, the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. Standardized distinct products are negotiated service agreements that are variations of one or more Competitive products, and for which financial models, minimum rates, and classification criteria have undergone advance Commission review.
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None.
This Notice will be published in the
The RRB invites comments on the proposed collections of information to determine (1) the practical utility of the collections; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the collections; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information that is the subject of collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of collections on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Comments to the RRB or OIRA must contain the OMB control number of the ICR. For proper consideration of your comments, it is best if the RRB and OIRA receive them within 30 days of the publication date.
Under Section 7(d) of the Railroad Retirement Act (RRA) (45 U.S.C. 231f), the Railroad Retirement Board (RRB) administers the Medicare program for persons covered by the railroad retirement system. The RRB uses Form AA-6,
The RRB will use new Form AA-23,
The RRB will use new Form AA-24,
One response is requested of each respondent.
• Form AA-6
○ Added “OR SOCIAL SECURITY ADMINISTRATION NUMBER” and “OR BIC” to Question 2,
○ Removed “COUNTY” from Question 4 due to this data no longer being in use,
○ Added “U.S. Space Force” to the list of military service options to Question 13,
○ Added the following clarifying language to Section 4:
“Initial Enrollment Period (IEP) is the 7-month period when you are first eligible for Medicare. This period begins 3 months before you turn 65, includes the month you turn 65, and ends 3 months after you turn 65. Coverage begins the month after you signs up during your IEP.
You are eligible for a Special Enrollment period (SEP) enrollment if you are age 65 or older, or under age 65 and disabled, and did not select to be enrolled in Medicare Part B coverage when you became eligible and are covered under an employer group health plan based on your own or your spouse's current employment.
The General Enrollment Period (GEP) is the time period every year from January 1 to March 31 when you can enroll in Medicare Part B for the first time if you missed your Initial Enrollment Period (IEP) and do not qualify for the Part B Special Enrollment Period (SEP).”,
○ Added “GEP” as an option to Question 19 to allow for all potential options, and
○ Added attestation section for individual to provide additional details pertaining their enrollment.
• Form AA-7
○ Added “OR SOCIAL SECURITY ADMINISTRATION NUMBER” and “OR BIC” in Question 2,
○ Removed “COUNTY” from Question 5 due to this data no longer being in use,
○ Added “U.S. Space Force” to the list of military service options to Question 18,
○ Added the clarifying language to Section 5:
“Initial Enrollment Period (IEP) is the 7-month period when you are first eligible for Medicare. This period begins 3 months before you turn 65, includes the month you turn 65, and ends 3 months after you turn 65. Coverage begins the month after you signs up during your IEP.
You are eligible for a Special Enrollment period (SEP) enrollment if you are age 65 or older, or under age 65 and disabled, and did not select to be enrolled in Medicare Part B coverage when you became eligible and are covered under an employer group health plan based on your own or your spouse's current employment.
The General Enrollment Period (GEP) is the time period every year from January 1 to March 31 when you can enroll in Medicare Part B for the first time if you missed your Initial Enrollment Period (IEP) and do not qualify for the Part B Special Enrollment Period (SEP).”,
○ Added “GEP” as an option to Question 27 to allow for all potential options, and
○ Added “Attestation Section” for individual to provide additional details pertaining their enrollment.
• Form AA-8
○ Updated Section 1 to reflect 2024 in the data example,
○ Added “OR SOCIAL SECURITY ADMINISTRATION NUMBER” and “OR BIC” to Question 2,
○ Removed “COUNTY” from Question 5 due to this data no longer being in use, and
○ Added “Attestation Section” for individual to provide additional details pertaining their enrollment.
• Form RL-311-F
○ Added the option to return the form by facsimile,
○ Added a note to Question 3 advising to include previous coverage dates if healthcare providers were changed during the beneficiary's employment,
○ Changed Question 4 to replace “working with employed” with “an employment start date for the employee”,
○ Changed Question 4 from “see below for additional information” to “see page 2 for additional information.”,
○ Changed “Medicare Part B (Medical Insurance)” to “Medicare Medical Insurance (Part B)” and replaced “is entitled” with “is eligible” in the form's introductory paragraph,
○ Updated gender pronouns to reflect gender neutral `they' designations instead of male and female pronouns in page 2 disclaimer in Question 4, and
○ Added “Attestation Section” for individual to provide additional details pertaining their enrollment.
• Added Form AA-23 to the collection.
• Added Form AA-24 to the collection.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice of Small Business Investment Company (SBIC) Licenses.
Pursuant to the authority granted to the United States Small Business Administration under section 301(c) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958, as amended, to grant Small Business Investment Company licenses under the Small Business Investment Company Program, this notice satisfies the requirement effective August 17, 2023 under 13 CFR 107.501(a) to publish in the
The Department of State is publishing the names of one or more persons that have been placed on the Department of Treasury's List of Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons (SDN List) administered by the Office of Foreign Asset Control (OFAC) based on the Department of State's determination, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, that one or more applicable legal criteria of the Executive Order reimposing certain sanctions with respect to Iran were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these persons are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.
See
Aaron P. Forsberg, Director, Office of Economic Sanctions Policy and Implementation, Bureau of Economic and Business Affairs, Department of State, Washington, DC 20520, tel.: (202) 647-7677, email:
The SDN List and additional information concerning sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website,
On March 13, 2025, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.
1. PT. BINTANG SAMUDRA UTAMA, Jl. Let Jend. Suprapto No. 30 Komplek Ruko Cempaka Mas Blok B-28 Kel. Sumur Batu, Kec. Kemayoran Kota Administrasi, Jakarta Pusat 10630, Indonesia; Executive Order 13846 information: BLOCKING PROPERTY AND INTERESTS IN PROPERTY. Sec. 5(a)(iv); Tax ID No. 0018164418027000 (Indonesia); Identification Number IMO 5596048 [IRAN-EO13846].
Designated pursuant to section 3(a)(ii) of Executive Order 13846, “Reimposing Certain Sanctions With Respect to Iran” (E.O. 13846), for knowingly engaging in a significant transaction for the
2. SHIPLOAD MARITIME PTE. LTD., 6001 Beach Road #21-01 Golden Mile Tower, Singapore 199589, Singapore; Executive Order 13846 information: BLOCKING PROPERTY AND INTERESTS IN PROPERTY. Sec. 5(a)(iv); Identification Number IMO 5837979; Business Registration Number 200512603G (Singapore) [IRAN-EO13846].
Designated pursuant to section 3(a)(ii) of E.O. 13846 for knowingly engaging in a significant transaction for the purchase, acquisition, sale, transport, or marketing of petroleum or petroleum products from Iran.
3. PT. GIANIRA ADHINUSA SENATAMA, Meisterstadt Pollux Habibie Business Complex Blok D Nomor 03, Batam, Riau Islands, Indonesia; Executive Order 13846 information: BLOCKING PROPERTY AND INTERESTS IN PROPERTY. Sec. 5(a)(iv); Identification Number IMO 6505181; Business Registration Number 1340535 (Indonesia) [IRAN-EO13846].
Designated pursuant to section 3(a)(ii) of E.O. 13846 for knowingly engaging in a significant transaction for the purchase, acquisition, sale, transport, or marketing of petroleum or petroleum products from Iran.
1. MARINA VISION (YDA3415) Tug Indonesia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8106109; MMSI 525010379 (vessel) [IRAN-EO13846] (Linked To: PT. GIANIRA ADHINUSA SENATAMA).
Identified as property in which PT. GIANIRA ADHINUSA SENATAMA, an entity designated pursuant to E.O. 13846, has an interest.
2. CELEBES (YDA3301) Tug Indonesia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 8710730; MMSI 525018077 (vessel) [IRAN-EO13846] (Linked To: PT. BINTANG SAMUDRA UTAMA).
Identified as property in which PT. BINTANG SAMUDRA UTAMA, an entity designated pursuant to E.O. 13846, has an interest.
3. MALILI (YBEN) Tug Indonesia flag; Vessel Registration Identification IMO 9179921; MMSI 525018442 (vessel) [IRAN-EO13846] (Linked To: SHIPLOAD MARITIME PTE. LTD.).
Identified as property in which SHIPLOAD MARITIME PTE. LTD., an entity designated pursuant to E.O. 13846, has an interest.
The Department of State is publishing the names of one or more persons that have been placed on the Department of Treasury's List of Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons (SDN List) administered by the Office of Foreign Asset Control (OFAC) based on the Department of State's determination, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, that one or more applicable legal criteria of the Executive Order reimposing certain sanctions with respect to Iran were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these persons are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.
See
Aaron P. Forsberg, Director, Office of Economic Sanctions Policy and Implementation, Bureau of Economic and Business Affairs, Department of State, Washington, DC 20520, tel.: (202) 647 7677, email:
The SDN List and additional information concerning sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website,
On March 20, 2025, the Department of State, in consultation with other departments, as appropriate, determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following person is blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.
HUAYING HUIZHOU DAYA BAY PETROCHEMICAL TERMINAL STORAGE CO., LTD (a.k.a. HAUYING HUIZHOU DAYA BAY PETROCHEMICAL TERMINAL WAREHOUSING CO., LTD.), No. 131 Seafood Street, Aotou Street, Daya Bay District, Huizhou, Guangdong 516200, China; Additional Sanctions Information—Subject to Secondary Sanctions; Unified Social Credit Code (USCC) 9144130055556327XA (China) [IRAN-EO13846].
Designated pursuant to section 3(a)(ii) of Executive Order 13846, “Reimposing Certain Sanctions with Respect to Iran” (E.O. 13846), for knowingly engaging in a significant transaction for the purchase, acquisition, sale, transport, or marketing of petroleum or petroleum products from Iran.
St. Lawrence & Atlantic Railroad Company (SLR) has filed a verified notice of exemption under 49 CFR part 1152 subpart F—
SLR has certified that: (1) no local traffic has moved over the Line since 2015; (2) there is no overhead traffic to be rerouted over other lines; (3) no formal complaint filed by a user of rail service on the Line (or by a state or local
As a condition to this exemption, any employee adversely affected by the abandonment shall be protected under
Provided no formal expression of intent to file an offer of financial assistance (OFA) has been received,
All pleadings, referring to Docket No. AB 1117 (Sub-No. 1X), must be filed with the Surface Transportation Board either via e-filing on the Board's website or in writing addressed to 395 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20423-0001. In addition, a copy of each pleading must be served on SLR's representative, Justin J. Marks, Clark Hill PLC, 1001 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Suite 1300 South, Washington, DC 20004.
If the verified notice contains false or misleading information, the exemption is void ab initio.
SLR has filed a combined environmental and historic report that addresses the potential effects, if any, of the abandonment on the environment and historic resources. OEA will issue a Draft Environmental Assessment (Draft EA) by April 4, 2025. The Draft EA will be available to interested persons on the Board's website, by writing to OEA, or by calling OEA at (202) 245-0294. If you require an accommodation under the Americans with Disabilities Act, please call (202) 245-0245. Comments on environmental or historic preservation matters must be filed within 15 days after the Draft EA becomes available to the public.
Environmental, historic preservation, public use, or trail use/railbanking conditions will be imposed, where appropriate, in a subsequent decision.
Pursuant to the provisions of 49 CFR 1152.29(e)(2), SLR shall file a notice of consummation with the Board to signify that it has exercised the authority granted and fully abandoned the Line. If consummation has not been effected by SLR's filing of a notice of consummation by March 28, 2026, and there are no legal or regulatory barriers to consummation, the authority to abandon will automatically expire.
Board decisions and notices are available at
By the Board, Nathaniel A. Bawcombe, Acting Director, Office of Proceedings.
Central New York Railroad Corporation (CNY), a Class III railroad, has filed a verified notice of exemption pursuant to 49 CFR 1150.41, to continue to lease from Norfolk Southern Railway Company (NSR) and operate approximately 123.1 miles of rail line between milepost 89.9 at or near Port Jervis, NY, and milepost 213.0 at Binghamton, NY, in Broome, Sullivan, Delaware, and Orange Counties, NY, and Pike and Susquehanna Counties, Pa. (the Line).
CNY states that it has leased the Line from NSR since 2004.
According to the verified notice, the lease contains an existing interchange commitment. CNY has provided additional information regarding the interchange commitment, as required by 49 CFR 1150.43(h).
CNY certifies that its projected annual revenues as a result of this transaction will not exceed $5 million annually and will not result the creation of a Class II or Class I carrier.
The transaction may be consummated on or after April 12, 2025, the effective date of the exemption (30 days after the verified notice was filed).
If the verified notice contains false or misleading information, the exemption is void ab initio. Petitions to revoke the exemption under 49 U.S.C. 10502(d) may be filed at any time. The filing of a petition to revoke will not automatically stay the effectiveness of the exemption. Petitions for stay must be filed no later than April 4, 2025 (at least seven days before the exemption becomes effective).
All pleadings, referring to Docket No. FD 36825, must be filed with the Surface Transportation Board either via e-filing on the Board's website or in writing addressed to 395 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20423-0001. In addition, a copy of each pleading must be served on CNY's representative, Crystal M. Zorbaugh, Mullins Law
According to CNY, this action is categorically excluded from environmental review under 49 CFR 1105.6(c) and from historic preservation reporting requirements under 49 CFR 1105.8(b).
Board decisions and notices are available at
By the Board, Scott M. Zimmerman, Acting Director, Office of Proceedings.
OmniTRAX Holdings Combined, Inc. (OmniTRAX), and HGS Railway Holdings, Inc. (HGS) (collectively, Omni-HGS), both noncarriers, have filed a verified notice of exemption under 49 CFR 1180.2(d)(2) to continue in control of Santa Maria Valley Railroad, LLC (SMVR), a noncarrier currently controlled by OmniTRAX, once SMVR is authorized to commence common carrier operations.
This transaction is related to a verified notice of exemption concurrently filed in
Omni-HGS states that SMRV is currently a noncarrier entity controlled by OmniTRAX and that Omni-HGS will continue to exercise control of SMRV upon SMRV's becoming a Class III rail carrier. According to the verified notice, OmniTRAX and HGS are under joint managerial and operational control.
Omni-HGS represents that: (1) the lines that SMVR seeks to acquire and to operate as a common carrier do not connect with the lines of any of the existing rail carriers within the Omni-HGS corporate family; (2) the proposed transaction is not part of a series of anticipated transactions that would result in such a connection; and (3) the proposed transaction does not involve a Class I rail carrier. Therefore, the proposed transaction is exempt from the prior approval requirements of 49 U.S.C. 11323.
Under 49 U.S.C. 10502(g), the Board may not use its exemption authority to relieve a rail carrier of its statutory obligation to protect the interests of its employees. However, 49 U.S.C. 11326(c) does not provide for labor protection for transactions under 49 U.S.C. 11324 and 11325 that involve only Class III rail carriers. Accordingly, because this transaction involves Class III rail carriers only, the Board may not impose labor protective conditions here.
The effective date of this exemption is April 12, 2025 (30 days after the verified notice was filed). If the verified notice contains false or misleading information, the exemption is void ab initio. Petitions to revoke the exemption under 49 U.S.C. 10502(d) may be filed at any time. The filing of a petition to revoke will not automatically stay the effectiveness of the exemption. Petitions for stay must be filed no later than April 4, 2025 (at least seven days before the exemption becomes effective).
All pleadings, referring to Docket No. FD 36845, must be filed with the Surface Transportation Board either via e-filing on the Board's website or in writing addressed to 395 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20423-0001. In addition, one copy of each pleading must be served on Omni-HGS's representative, Robert A. Wimbish, Fletcher & Sippel LLC, 29 North Wacker Drive, Suite 800, Chicago, IL 60606-3208.
According to Omni-HGS, this action is categorically excluded from environmental review under 49 CFR 1105.6(c) and from historic reporting requirements under 49 CFR 1105.8(b).
Board decisions and notices are available at
By the Board, Scott M. Zimmerman, Acting Director, Office of Proceedings.
Santa Maria Valley Railroad, LLC (SMVR), a noncarrier, has filed a verified notice of exemption under 49 CFR 1150.31 to (1) acquire from Coast Belle Rail, LLC (CBRL), a rail line extending between milepost 3.3 near Guadalupe (Betteravia Junction), Cal., and milepost 9.3 at Santa Maria, Cal., along with the connecting Airbase Branch extending between the wye at milepost 8.5/0.0 at Santa Maria and milepost 3.0 at Santa Maria (the CBRL Line); (2) acquire by assignment from Coast Belle Rail Corp. d/b/a Santa Maria Valley Railroad Company (Coast Belle) its leasehold interest in a rail line owned by Union Pacific Railroad Company (UP), extending between milepost 0.0 at Guadalupe, Cal., and milepost 3.3, along with the Betteravia Branch, extending between milepost 3.3 and milepost 4.8 at Betteravia, Cal. (the UP Line); and (3) replace Coast Belle as the common carrier service provider on the CBRL Line and UP Line (collectively, the Lines),
This transaction is related to a concurrently filed verified notice of exemption in
SMVR certifies that it will not be contractually limited in its ability to interchange traffic with any third-party connecting carrier. SMVR further certifies that its projected annual revenues will not exceed $5 million and will not result in SMVR's becoming a Class I or Class II rail carrier. Under 49 CFR 1150.32(b), a change in operator requires that notice be given to shippers. SMVR states that it has provided notice to all customers on the Lines.
The earliest this transaction may be consummated is April 12, 2025. SMVR states that it expects to consummate its acquisition of, and commence common carrier operations over, the Lines on or after that date.
If the verified notice contains false or misleading information, the exemption is void ab initio. Petitions to revoke the exemption under 49 U.S.C. 10502(d) may be filed at any time. The filing of a petition to revoke will not automatically stay the effectiveness of the exemption. Petitions for stay must be filed no later than April 4, 2025 (at least seven days before the exemption becomes effective).
All pleadings, referring to Docket No. FD 36846, must be filed with the Surface Transportation Board either via e-filing on the Board's website or in writing addressed to 395 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20423-0001. In addition, a copy of each pleading must be served on SMVR's representative, Robert A. Wimbish, Fletcher & Sippel LLC, 29 North Wacker Drive, Suite 800, Chicago, IL 60606-3208.
According to SMVR, this action is categorically excluded from environmental review under 49 CFR 1105.6(c) and from historic preservation reporting requirements under 49 CFR 1105.8(b).
Board decisions and notices are available at
By the Board, Scott M. Zimmerman, Acting Director, Office of Proceedings.
Susquehanna River Basin Commission.
Notice.
The Susquehanna River Basin Commission will hold a public hearing on April 24, 2025. The Commission will hold this hearing in person and telephonically. At this public hearing, the Commission will hear testimony on the projects listed in the
The public hearing will convene on April 24, 2025, at 6:00 p.m. The public hearing will end at 9:00 p.m. or at the conclusion of public testimony, whichever is earlier. The deadline for submitting written comments is Monday, May 5, 2025.
This public hearing will be conducted in person and telephonically. You may attend in person at Susquehanna River Basin Commission, 4423 N Front St., Harrisburg, Pennsylvania, or join by telephone at Toll-Free Number 1-877-304-9269 and then enter the guest passcode 2619070 followed by #.
Jason Oyler, General Counsel and Secretary to the Commission, telephone: (717) 238-0423 or
Information concerning the project applications is available at the Commission's Water Application and Approval Viewer at
The public hearing will cover the following projects:
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Interested parties may appear or call into the hearing to offer comments to the Commission on any business listed above required to be the subject of a public hearing. Given the nature of the meeting, the Commission strongly encourages those members of the public wishing to provide oral comments to pre-register with the Commission by emailing Jason Oyler at
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of application for exemption; request for comments.
The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) requests public comment on the application from Colorado Huntsman Transport, Inc. d.b.a. Huntsman Transport, USDOT 4050798 (“Huntsman Transport”), for an exemption from the commercial motor vehicle (CMV) marking requirements and hours of service prohibition against driving a CMV after accumulating 60 hours of on-duty time within 7 consecutive days.
Comments must be received on or before April 28, 2025.
You may submit comments identified by Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Number FMCSA-2024-0317 by any of the following methods:
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Each submission must include the Agency name and the docket number (FMCSA-2024-0317) for this notice. Note that DOT posts all comments received without change to
Bernadette Walker, Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards, FMCSA; (202) 385-2415;
FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (FMCSA-2024-0317), indicate the specific section of this document to which the comment applies, and provide a reason for suggestions or recommendations. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8
FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Comments received after the comment closing date will be filed in the public docket and will be considered to the extent practicable.
CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to the notice contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to the notice, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission that constitutes CBI as “PROPIN” to indicate it contains proprietary information. FMCSA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the Freedom of Information Act, and they will not be placed in the public docket of the notice. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Brian Dahlin, Chief, Regulatory Evaluation Division, Office of Policy, FMCSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001 or
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its regulatory process. DOT posts these comments, including any personal information the commenter provides, to
FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b) to grant exemptions from Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the
The Agency reviews safety analyses and public comments submitted and determines whether granting the exemption would likely maintain a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by the current regulation (49 CFR 381.305(a)). The Agency must publish its decision in the
Huntsman Transport seeks an exemption from the requirement in 49 CFR 390.21 that CMVs must be marked with the legal name or single trade name and USDOT number of the motor carrier. The applicant also requests a customized HOS framework under 49 CFR part 395 to allow employees to accumulate up to 80 hours of on duty time within a 7-day period, from Sunday to Saturday, before driving is prohibited and incorporate team driving without a sleeper berth.
Under 49 CFR 395.5(b), passenger carrying CMV drivers may not drive after having been on duty 60 hours in any 7 consecutive days if the motor carrier does not operate CMVs every day of the week or after having been on duty 70 hours in any period of 8 consecutive days if the employing motor carrier operates CMVs every day of the week. Huntsman Transport is a third-party organization that partners with Federal, State, and Local law enforcement agencies to provide prisoner transportation services.
The applicant requests an exemption from the CMV marking requirements due to the sensitive and high-risk nature of its operations and the potential for interference with its routes by individuals who may seek to disrupt its operations. In addition, the applicant requests an exemption from the maximum driving time limits due to the unpredictable schedules of prisons. The applicant states that longer transit times
The applicant states further that if the exemption is not granted, law enforcement and the people who pay for these vital services—transport partners and taxpayers—will be subjected to a greater burden. This growth of expenses will also affect their business, putting a strain on their budget and making it difficult to pay for essential operating expenses.
Huntsman Transport believes the exemption would not compromise safety because it requires all inmate transports that last longer than two days to use two agents. This makes it possible for efficient driver rotations that lessen fatigue by guaranteeing that each driver has a committed companion who can relax in the passenger seat. Depending on operational requirements, the applicant encourages drivers to switch every three to five hours, which encourages necessary breaks and improves overall road safety and efficiency. In addition, each employee may drive individually for no more than 8 hours per day and must spend at least 8 hours off duty in a hotel environment.
Lastly, the applicant has implemented a policy that restricts agents' driving responsibilities to no more than three weeks in any four-week month or four weeks in any five-week month, to guarantee that both drivers have enough time to rest. The applicant usually has a two-week driving schedule with a week off in between. This enables Huntsman Transport agents to take 16 weeks off each year before using their paid time off. The applicant believes that granting the exemption would not jeopardize safety; instead, it would improve its ability to protect its drivers, prisoners in their custody, and the general public from potential threats.
A copy of Huntsman Transport's application for exemption is available for review in the docket for this notice.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b), FMCSA requests public comment on Huntsman Transport's application from the vehicle marking requirements in 49 CFR 390.21 and the 60- and 70-hour limits in 49 CFR 395.5(b). All comments received before the close of business on the comment closing date will be considered and will be available for examination in the docket at the location listed under the
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice and request for comments on the extension of a previously approved collection of information.
The Department of Transportation (DOT) invites public comments about our intention to request approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for an extension of a currently approved information collection. Before a federal agency can collect certain information from the public, it must receive approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Under procedures established by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, before seeking OMB approval, Federal agencies must solicit public comment on proposed collections of information, including extension and reinstatement of previously approved collections. This document describes a collection of information for which NHTSA intends to seek OMB approval titled “National Driver Register (NDR).”
Comments must be received on or before May 27, 2025.
You may submit comments [identified by Docket No. DOT-NHTSA-2025-0018] through one of the following methods:
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For additional information or access to background documents, contact Miriam Chege, NHTSA, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W55-210, NSA-200, Washington, DC 20590.
Mrs. Chege's telephone number is (202) 366-4800. Please identify the relevant collection of information by referring to its OMB Control Number.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The National Driver Register Act of 1982, Title 49 U.S.C., Subtitle VI, Part A, Chapter 303 (as amended) requires the Secretary of Transportation (NHTSA by delegation) to maintain a National Driver Register (NDR) to assist the State chief driver licensing officials in the exchange of information about the motor vehicle driving records of individuals. The chief driver licensing official of a participating State must report to the NDR identification information regarding any individual who is denied a motor vehicle operator's license for cause, whose motor vehicle operator's license is withdrawn for cause, or who is convicted of certain serious motor vehicle related offenses (specified in the Act at 49 U.S.C. 30304) or comparable offenses. (23 U.S.C. 30304(a); 23 CFR 1327, Appendix A). Participating States are required to submit an inquiry to the NDR on all applicants for driver's licenses before issuing a license to the applicant. In addition, when requested by other authorized users (
The NDR maintains the computerized database known as the Problem Driver Pointer System (PDPS) which contains information on individuals whose privilege to operate a motor vehicle has been revoked, suspended, canceled, or denied or who have been convicted of serious traffic-related offenses. The records maintained at the NDR consist of identification information including name, date of birth, sex, driver license number, and reporting State which is collected on a daily basis.
States use interactive communication for their routine transactions with the NDR which allows them to submit the required information automatically at the same time the individual's information is entered into the State's system. Specifically, when an individual applies for a driver's license, an inquiry is automatically transmitted to the NDR when the driver's application is entered into the State's system. Likewise, when a State records license actions that have been taken against an individual that require reporting to the NDR, a transaction submitting the individual's identification information is automatically generated and transmitted to the NDR.
The purpose of the information collection is to improve traffic and transportation safety by assisting States in keeping problem drivers off the nation's highways. The NDR was established to serve as the central repository of information on problem drivers to promote information sharing among States, eliminating the need for States to contact each of the other 50 jurisdictions, and the District of Columbia individually. The information collected is used by State driver licensing agencies to identify problem drivers prior to issuing a driver's license and to develop and implement driver improvement programs. The following groups are also authorized to receive information upon inquiry to a State driver licensing agency for transportation safety purposes:
a. Employers of motor vehicle operators,
b. Employers of locomotive operators,
c. Federal Aviation Administration regarding applications for or holders of airman's certificates,
d. U.S. Coast Guard regarding applicants for or holders of licenses, certificates of registry, or merchant mariner's documents, and for Coast Guard crew members,
e. National Transportation Safety Board and Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration in connection with accident investigations,
f. Air carriers regarding individuals seeking employment as pilots, and
g. Individuals who have or are seeking access to national security information for purposes under E.O. 12968 or who are being investigated for Federal employment.
States use routine electronic interactive communication for transactions with the NDR, which allows the States to submit the required information automatically at the same time the information is entered into the State's own system. Although States are required to report and check for a problem driver when issuing a driver's license, no burden hours are incurred for these queries for this information collection because the State's computer systems automatically transmit the information that is entered as a part of normal business practice. Therefore, the estimated hour burden is based on the States' PDPS IT infrastructure maintenance and States' participation in the optional Clean File process.
To estimate the annual maintenance and infrastructure burden to report and check for problem drivers, NDR asked a small sample of States for information about their annual burden. NDR received formatted estimates from two States which included the maintenance and infrastructure labor hours and cost used to send and maintain information to PDPS. Together, the burden from these two States was 530 hours and the associated labor cost was $17,400. Using these estimates, NHTSA calculates an average of 265 hours per State, with an annual labor cost of $8,700. There are 51 respondents per year (the 50 States and the District of Columbia). Therefore, total annual burden hours for maintenance and infrastructure is estimated to be 13,515 hours (51 respondents × 265 hours). The total annual maintenance and infrastructure labor cost per year is estimated to be $443,700 ($8,700 × 51).
To ensure that the information contained in the NDR is accurate, States sometimes submit a “clean file” which
Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, FinCEN invites comments on the proposed renewal, without change, of certain existing information collection requirements found in Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) regulations. Specifically, the regulations require that upon receiving a written request from FinCEN, a bank located within the United States that maintains a correspondent account for a specified foreign bank must ask the foreign bank, and report to FinCEN, about transactions or other financial services provided by that foreign bank to Iranian-linked financial institutions designated under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) and Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC)-linked persons designated under IEEPA. This request for comments is made pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments are welcome and must be received on or before May 27, 2025.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
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Please submit comments by one method only. Comments will be reviewed consistent with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and applicable OMB regulations and guidance. All comments submitted in response to this notice will become a matter of public record. Therefore, you should submit only information that you wish to make publicly available.
FinCEN's Regulatory Support Section by submitting an inquiry at
The legislative framework generally referred to as the BSA consists of the Currency and Financial Transactions Reporting Act of 1970, as amended by the Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate Tools Required to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism Act of 2001 (USA PATRIOT Act),
The BSA authorizes the Secretary of the Treasury (Secretary) to,
The Comprehensive Iran Sanctions, Accountability, and Divestment Act of 2010
Upon receiving a CISADA Request, a U.S. bank that maintains a correspondent account for a specified foreign bank is required to make certain inquiries and provide a report to FinCEN (CISADA Report) of: (i) any correspondent account maintained by such foreign bank for an Iranian-linked financial institution designated under IEEPA (Iranian-linked financial institution);
Upon receiving a CISADA Request, a U.S. bank that maintains a correspondent account for a specified foreign bank has a duty to inquire and request that a specified foreign bank certify whether the foreign bank: (i) maintains a correspondent account for an Iranian-linked financial institution; (ii) has processed one or more transfers of funds within the preceding 90 calendar days, for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, an Iranian-linked financial institution, other than through a correspondent account; (iii) has processed one or more transfer of funds within the preceding 90 calendar days, for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, an IRGC-linked person. Upon such inquiry, a U.S. bank shall request that the foreign bank agree to notify the U.S. bank if the foreign bank subsequently establishes a new correspondent account for an Iranian-linked financial institution at any time within 365 calendar days from the date of the foreign bank's initial response to the U.S. bank.
There is an optional CISADA certification form U.S. banks may use to obtain the necessary information from specified foreign banks.
Upon receiving a CISADA Request, a U.S. bank is required to report to FinCEN certain information for any specified foreign bank for which the U.S. bank maintains correspondent accounts:
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a. The name of any foreign bank that certifies to the U.S. bank that the foreign bank maintains a correspondent account for an Iranian-linked financial institution, and the following related information: (i) the name of the Iranian-linked financial institution; (ii) the full name(s) on the correspondent account and the correspondent account number(s); (iii) any information regarding whether the correspondent account has been blocked or restricted; (iv) other applicable identifying information for the correspondent account; and (v) the approximate value in U.S. dollars of transactions processed through the correspondent account within the preceding 90 calendar days;
b. The name of any foreign bank that certifies to the U.S. bank that the foreign bank has processed one or more transfers of funds within the preceding 90 calendar days for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, an Iranian-linked financial institution, other than through a correspondent account, and the following related information: (i) the name of the Iranian-linked financial institution; (ii) the identity of the system or means by which such transfer(s) of funds was processed; (iii) the full name
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a. The name of any foreign bank that certifies to the U.S. bank that the foreign bank has processed one or more transfers of funds within the preceding 90 calendar days for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, an IRGC-linked person, and the following related information: (i) the name of the IRGC-linked person; (ii) the identity of the system or means by which such transfer(s) of funds was processed; (iii) the full name on the account(s) and the account number(s), if applicable; (iv) other applicable identifying information for such transfer(s) of funds; and (v) the approximate value in U.S. dollars of such transfer(s) of funds processed within the preceding 90 calendar days;
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a. The name of any specified foreign bank that certifies to the U.S. bank that: (i) the foreign bank does not maintain a correspondent account for an Iranian-linked financial institution; (ii) to the knowledge of the foreign bank, the foreign bank has not processed one or more transfers of funds within the preceding 90 calendar days for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, an Iranian-linked financial institution, other than through a correspondent account; and/or (ii) to the knowledge of the foreign bank, the foreign bank has not processed one or more transfers of funds within the preceding 90 calendar days for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, an IRGC-linked person;
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a. The name of any specified foreign bank for which the U.S. bank is unable to determine if the foreign bank: (i) does not maintain a correspondent account for an Iranian-linked financial institution; (ii) has not processed one or more transfers of funds within the preceding 90 calendar days for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, an Iranian-linked financial institution, other than through a correspondent account; and/or (iii) has not processed one or more transfers of funds within the preceding 90 calendar days for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly an IRGC-linked person.
b. The U.S. bank must also include the reason(s) the U.S. bank cannot make these determinations, such as the failure of the foreign bank to respond, or the U.S. bank has information inconsistent with the foreign bank's certification;
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a. The name of any specified foreign bank that notifies the U.S. bank that the foreign bank has established a new correspondent account for an Iranian-linked financial institution at any time within 365 calendar days from the date of the foreign bank's initial response to the U.S. bank's request for the foreign bank's certification;
b. (i) the name of the Iranian-linked financial institution; (ii) the full name(s) on the correspondent account and the correspondent account number(s); (iii) applicable information regarding whether the correspondent account has been blocked or restricted; and (iv) other applicable identifying information for the correspondent account;
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a. If applicable, confirmation that the U.S. bank does not maintain a correspondent account for the foreign bank(s) specified in the CISADA Request, but only in instances in which FinCEN specifically requests that the U.S. bank report such information;
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a. If applicable, the name of any foreign bank that provides a certification to the U.S. bank more than 45 calendar days after the date of the CISADA Request, along with all applicable related information associated with that certification.
A U.S. bank must report the requested CISADA information within 45 calendar days of receipt of a CISADA Request.
A U.S. bank must maintain a copy of any CISADA Report and the original or any business record equivalent of any supporting documentation for a CISADA Report, including a foreign bank certification or other responses to an inquiry for a period five years.
Nothing under 31 CFR 1060.300 shall be construed to require a U.S. bank to take any action, or to decline to take any action, other than the requirements identified in 31 CFR 1060.300, with respect to an account established for, or a transaction engaged in with, a foreign bank. A U.S. bank subject to a CISADA Request remains subject to any applicable program, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements under the BSA and FinCEN's implementing regulations in 31 CFR chapter X.
The types of banks covered by this notice are “banks” as defined in 31 CFR 1010.100(d), which includes each agent, agency, branch or office within the United States of any person doing business in one or more of the capacities listed below:
(1) a commercial bank or trust company organized under the laws of any State or of the United States;
(2) a private bank;
(3) a savings and loan association or a building and loan association organized under the laws of any State or of the United States;
(4) an insured institution as defined in section 401 of the National Housing Act;
(5) a savings bank, industrial bank or other thrift institution;
(6) A credit union organized under the law of any State or of the United States;
(7) any other organization (except a money services business) chartered under the banking laws of any state and subject to the supervision of the bank supervisory authorities of a State;
(8) a bank organized under foreign law;
(9) any national banking association or corporation acting under the provisions of section 25(a) of the Federal Reserve Act of Dec. 23, 1913, as added by the Edge Act of Dec. 24, 1919, ch. 18, 41 Stat. 378, as amended (12 U.S.C. 611-32).
FinCEN notes that these banks, as defined in 31 CFR 1010.100(d), are subject to the
FinCEN intends to continue to send CISADA Requests directly to U.S. banks that, based on all available information, it has reason to believe may maintain correspondent accounts for a specified foreign bank. Therefore, while the regulation applies to all U.S. banks, a CISADA request should, in practice, only impose reporting and recordkeeping costs on select U.S. banks with indicia of past, ongoing, or foreseeable future relationships with a specified foreign bank. For purposes of assessing potential PRA burden, FinCEN, in the agency's view, is making a conservative estimate with respect to the number of U.S. banks that may maintain a correspondent account for a specified foreign bank in a CISADA Request by assuming that any U.S. bank that maintains a correspondent account for any foreign bank could be an affected bank under the rule. Table 2 presents an estimate of this subpopulation of U.S. banks below based on available data from the third quarter of the most recently ended calendar year (2024).
Historically, since the CISADA regulations were implemented in 2011, FinCEN has used this authority in limited circumstances for a variety of reasons that has, in turn, limited the number of U.S. banks that have received a CISADA Request. Moreover, prior to issuing a CISADA Request, FinCEN evaluates and relies on, to the extent possible, information available to the Department of the Treasury (Treasury), or publicly available, to further identify and narrow the list of U.S. banks likely to maintain a correspondent account with a specified foreign bank. Both low historical volumes of CISADA Requests and other practices that limit the number of U.S. banks receiving a CISADA Request support FinCEN conservative estimates of a lower number of affected U.S. banks. For those reasons, FinCEN finds it unlikely that many of the 72 banks identified in table 2 would receive a CISADA Request. Thus, FinCEN assumes that each of the maximum number of U.S. banks estimated to receive a CISADA Request (expected respondents) would not receive more than one CISADA Request every three years, which is a time frame based on the PRA requirement to renew this OMB control number (1506-0066) every three years. This approach equates to an average maximum of 24 expected respondents per year.
As described above, a CISADA Request issued by FinCEN may pertain to one or more specified foreign bank(s), thereby engendering the need for a U.S. bank to provide one or more CISADA Report(s), responsively. Additionally, CISADA Reports associated with the same CISADA Request may vary in length and detail. For example, in certain instances, FinCEN may request that if a U.S. bank receives a CISADA Request, and the U.S. bank does not maintain a correspondent account for a specified foreign bank, the U.S. bank may still be required to report this information to FinCEN.
Because FinCEN has used its authority to make CISADA Requests in limited circumstances and given its data from previous CISADA Requests, FinCEN estimates that it will make CISADA Requests to U.S. banks that include no more than approximately three foreign banks per year, on average, in each CISADA Request. Thus, if up to 24 U.S. banks, which may maintain correspondent accounts for specified foreign banks are required to respond to CISADA Requests that identify on average three specified foreign banks annually, FinCEN would expect to receive up to 72 CISADA Reports per year, on average.
Each time a U.S. bank receives a CISADA Request for which the U.S. bank maintains a correspondent account for a specified foreign bank, FinCEN has historically estimated that the U.S. bank
• 31 CFR 1060.300(b)—one hour per U.S. bank to inquire of a foreign bank, because the U.S. bank can send the optional certification form to the foreign bank;
• 31 CFR 1060.300(c)—one hour per U.S. bank to report to FinCEN the foreign bank's response to the U.S. bank's inquiry, because the U.S. bank can submit the response from the foreign bank to FinCEN electronically; and
• 31 CFR 1060.300(d)—one hour per U.S. bank to maintain a record of its report to FinCEN and any supporting documentation for the report, including a foreign bank certification or other response to the U.S. bank's inquiry.
These estimates result in a total estimated average burden of three hours for each CISADA Report submitted by a U.S. bank that maintains a correspondent account for a specific foreign bank.
FinCEN has historically estimated that the average reporting burden for a U.S. bank that does not maintain a correspondent account for a specified foreign bank will be approximately 30 minutes per report responsive to a CISADA Request. This estimate is based
To determine the total annual PRA burden associated with 24 CISADA Requests,
FinCEN's estimate of the annual PRA burden, therefore, is 156 hours, as detailed in table 3 below:
To estimate the costs associated with the annual PRA burden hours, FinCEN is utilizing a fully loaded composite hourly wage rate of $120.07, or, rounded to the nearest dollar, $120.00.
Under the PRA, FinCEN as a Federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Records required to be retained under the BSA must be retained for five years.
(1) To what extent do estimates that exclude the reporting and recordkeeping burdens on foreign banks potentially underestimate the full PRA burden associated with this control number?
(2) Should FinCEN revise its PRA burden estimates to account for the burden on affected foreign banks? Why or why not? If so, please suggest sources or provide data that would facilitate this update.
(3) Please provide comment, preferably including, or with reference to, the data relied upon to make such comments, on FinCEN's estimates of banks that maintain correspondent accounts for foreign banks. In particular, FinCEN invites public feedback on:
(a) The general accuracy of its population estimates.
(b) Further information about the distribution of potentially affected U.S. Banks, such as meaningful differences in size or ability to incur the reporting and recordkeeping requirements associated with FinCEN regulation.
Departmental Offices, U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. The public is invited to submit comments on these requests.
Comments should be received on or before April 28, 2025 to be assured of consideration.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Copies of the submissions may be obtained from Melody Braswell by emailing
Internal Revenue Service (IRS)
Form 8957, Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) Registration, information is to be used by a foreign financial institution to apply for status as a foreign financial institution (FFI) as defined in IRC 1471(b)(2). Form 8966, FATCA Report, is used by a responsible officer of a foreign institution to report information with respect to U.S. accounts or persons based on their IRC chapter 4 status. Form 8966-C is used to authenticate the paper-filed Forms 8966 and to ensure the ability to identify discrepancies between the number of forms received versus those claimed to have been sent by the filer. Taxpayers use Form 8508-I to request a waiver from filing Form 8966 electronically. Form 8809-I is used to request an initial or additional extension of time to file 8966 for the current year. IRS Notice 2023-11 and IRS Notice 2024-78 allow FFIs to obtain temporary relief from reporting missing required U.S. taxpayer identification numbers for certain preexisting accounts, when they comply with the procedures described within each notice. Publication 5124 provides directions on how Model 1 Intergovernmental Agreements report information directly to the IRS.
Departmental Offices, U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. The public is invited to submit comments on these requests.
Comments should be received on or before April 28, 2025 to be assured of consideration.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Copies of the submissions may be obtained from Melody Braswell by emailing
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(b) The Office of Management and Budget shall identify all Government goods, property, material, and services, including Sensitive Compartmented Information Facilities, provided for the benefit of Jenner. The heads of agencies providing such material or services shall, to the extent permitted by law, expeditiously cease such provision.
(b) The heads of agencies shall review all contracts with Jenner or with entities that disclose doing business with Jenner under subsection (a) of this section. To the extent permitted by law, the heads of agencies shall:
(b) Agency officials shall, to the extent permitted by law, refrain from hiring employees of Jenner, including but not limited to Andrew Weissmann, absent a waiver from the head of the agency, made in consultation with the Director of the Office of Personnel Management, that such hire will not threaten the national security of the United States.
(b) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
(c) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
(b) All executive departments and agencies (agencies) shall comply with this directive by transitioning to EFT methods, including direct deposit, prepaid card accounts, and other digital payment options, and take all steps necessary to enroll recipients in EFT payments, except as specified in section 4 of this order.
(c) As soon as practicable, and to the extent permitted by law, all payments made to the Federal Government shall be processed electronically, except as specified in section 4 of this order.
(d) The Secretary of State, the Secretary of the Treasury, the Secretary of Health and Human Services, the Secretary of Education, the Secretary of Veterans Affairs, and the Secretary of Homeland Security shall take appropriate action to eliminate the need for the Department of the Treasury's physical lockbox services and expedite requirements to receive the payment of Federal receipts, including fees, fines, loans, and taxes, through electronic means except as specified in section 4 of this order.
(e) The Secretary of the Treasury shall support agencies' transition to digital payment methods, including by providing access through the Department of the Treasury's centralized payment systems to:
(b) Individuals or entities qualifying for an exception under this section or other applicable law shall be provided alternative payment options.
(b) Agencies shall coordinate with the Department of the Treasury to facilitate a smooth transition to digital payments, ensuring that affected individuals and entities receive adequate support.
(c) The Secretary of the Treasury shall work with financial institutions, consumer groups, and other stakeholders to address financial access for unbanked and underbanked populations.
(d) The Secretary of the Treasury and the heads of agencies shall take all necessary steps to protect classified information and systems, as well as personally identifiable information and tax return information, through the implementation of this order.
(b) The Secretary of the Treasury shall submit an implementation report to the President through the Assistant to the President for Economic Policy within 180 days of the date of this order detailing progress on the matters set forth in this order.
(b) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
(c) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
(a)(i) Within 30 days of the date of this order, the Election Assistance Commission shall take appropriate action to require, in its national mail voter registration form issued under 52 U.S.C. 20508:
(A) documentary proof of United States citizenship, consistent with 52 U.S.C. 20508(b)(3); and
(B) a State or local official to record on the form the type of document that the applicant presented as documentary proof of United States citizenship, including the date of the document's issuance, the date of the document's expiration (if any), the office that issued the document, and any unique identification number associated with the document as required by the criteria in 52 U.S.C. 21083(a)(5)(A), while taking appropriate measures to ensure information security.
(A) a United States passport;
(B) an identification document compliant with the requirements of the REAL ID Act of 2005 (Pub. L. 109-13, Div. B) that indicates the applicant is a citizen of the United States;
(C) an official military identification card that indicates the applicant is a citizen of the United States; or
(D) a valid Federal or State government-issued photo identification if such identification indicates that the applicant is a United States citizen or if such identification is otherwise accompanied by proof of United States citizenship.
(b) To identify unqualified voters registered in the States:
(c) Within 90 days of the date of this order, the Secretary of Homeland Security shall, consistent with applicable law, provide to the Attorney General complete information on all foreign nationals who have indicated on any immigration form that they have registered or voted in a Federal, State, or local election, and shall also take all appropriate action to submit to relevant State or local election officials such information.
(d) The head of each Federal voter registration executive department or agency (agency) under the National Voter Registration Act, 52 U.S.C. 20506(a), shall assess citizenship prior to providing a Federal voter registration form to enrollees of public assistance programs.
(e) The Attorney General shall prioritize enforcement of 18 U.S.C. 611 and 1015(f) and similar laws that restrict non-citizens from registering to vote or voting, including through use of:
(f) The Attorney General shall, consistent with applicable laws, coordinate with State attorneys general to assist with State-level review and prosecution of aliens unlawfully registered to vote or casting votes.
(a) The Commissioner of Social Security shall take all appropriate action to make available the Social Security Number Verification Service, the Death Master File, and any other Federal databases containing relevant information to all State and local election officials engaged in verifying the eligibility of individuals registering to vote or who are already registered. In determining and taking such action, the Commissioner of Social Security shall ensure compliance with applicable privacy and data security laws and regulations.
(b) The Attorney General shall ensure compliance with the requirements of 52 U.S.C. 20507(g).
(c) The Attorney General shall take appropriate action with respect to States that fail to comply with the list maintenance requirements of the National Voter Registration Act and the Help America Vote Act contained in 52 U.S.C. 20507 and 52 U.S.C. 21083.
(d) The Secretary of Defense shall update the Federal Post Card Application, pursuant to the Uniformed and Overseas Citizens Absentee Voting Act, 52 U.S.C. 20301, to require:
(b)(i) The Election Assistance Commission shall initiate appropriate action to amend the Voluntary Voting System Guidelines 2.0 and issue other appropriate guidance establishing standards for voting systems to protect election
(c) Following an audit of Help America Vote Act fund expenditures conducted pursuant to 52 U.S.C. 21142, the Election Assistance Commission shall report any discrepancies or issues with an audited State's certifications of compliance with Federal law to the Department of Justice for appropriate enforcement action.
(d) The Secretary of Homeland Security and the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency, consistent with applicable law, shall in considering the provision of funding for State or local election offices or administrators through the Homeland Security Grant Programs, 6 U.S.C. 603
(a) The Attorney General shall take all appropriate action to enter into information-sharing agreements, to the maximum extent possible, with the chief State election official or multi-member agency of each State. These agreements shall aim to provide the Department of Justice with detailed information on all suspected violations of State and Federal election laws discovered by State officials, including information on individuals who:
(b) To the extent that any States are unwilling to enter into such an information sharing agreement or refuse to cooperate in investigations and prosecutions of election crimes, the Attorney General shall:
(c) The Attorney General shall take all appropriate action to align the Department of Justice's litigation positions with the purpose and policy of this order.
(a) The Attorney General and the Secretary of Homeland Security shall take all appropriate actions to the extent permitted by 42 U.S.C. 5195c
(b) The Secretary of Homeland Security shall, in coordination with the Election Assistance Commission and to the maximum extent possible, review and report on the security of all electronic systems used in the voter registration and voting process. The Secretary of Homeland Security, as the head of the designated Sector Risk Management Agency under 6 U.S.C. 652a, in coordination with the Election Assistance Commission, shall assess the security of all such systems to the extent they are connected to, or integrated into, the Internet and report on the risk of such systems being compromised through malicious software and unauthorized intrusions into the system.
(a) The Attorney General shall take all necessary action to enforce 2 U.S.C. 7 and 3 U.S.C. 1 against States that violate these provisions by including absentee or mail-in ballots received after Election Day in the final tabulation of votes for the appointment of Presidential electors and the election of members of the United States Senate and House of Representatives.
(b) Consistent with 52 U.S.C. 21001(b) and other applicable law, the Election Assistance Commission shall condition any available funding to a State on that State's compliance with the requirement in 52 U.S.C. 21081(a)(6) that each State adopt uniform and nondiscriminatory standards within that State that define what constitutes a vote and what will be counted as a vote, including that, as prescribed in 2 U.S.C. 7 and 3 U.S.C. 1, there be a uniform and nondiscriminatory ballot receipt deadline of Election Day for all methods of voting, excluding ballots cast in accordance with 52 U.S.C. 20301
(b) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
(c) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
(b) In accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3354, the heads of all agencies shall cooperate with the Secretary of the Treasury to fulfill their obligations to determine payment or award eligibility through pre-certification and pre-award procedures, as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury, including pursuant to subsection (a) of this section and section 4 of this order to prevent fraud and improper payments.
(c) The Secretary of the Treasury is directed to minimize administrative barriers to accessing and using data to prevent fraud and improper payments by exercising the authority in 31 U.S.C. 3351
(d) Within 90 days of the date of this order, agency heads shall review and modify, as applicable, their relevant system of records notices under the Privacy Act of 1974 to include a “routine use” that allows for the disclosure of records to the Department of the Treasury for the purposes of identifying, preventing, or recouping fraud and improper payments, to the extent permissible by law.
(e) The Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the OMB Director, shall issue guidance to agency heads on the circumstances in which agency heads, to the extent permissible by law, may provide the Secretary of the Treasury with access to data necessary for the purposes of detecting and preventing fraud and improper payments, as well as data for payment information verification (and not, for example, data such as health records).
(b) The Secretary of the Treasury shall consider, as appropriate, issuing instructions to agencies to enforce the following pre-certification criteria for disbursement requests submitted by COs (Vouchers) before they are certified for payment by the CO:
(c) Agency heads shall submit payment files other than with respect to same-day payments to the Secretary of the Treasury or the Secretary's designee with sufficient lead time prior to the date of disbursement as determined by the Department of the Treasury and provided in the requirements and instructions issued pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of this section, to allow for fraud and improper payment screening, to the extent permissible by law. With respect to same-day payments, agency heads shall submit payment files to the Secretary of the Treasury or the Secretary's designee as much in advance as reasonably practicable.
(d) In issuing requirements and instructions pursuant to subsection (a) of this section, the Secretary of the Treasury shall consider whether it would be appropriate to provide that the Department of the Treasury's Chief Disbursing Officer return to the relevant agency for reconciliation any payments that do not pass the pre-certification verification processes established pursuant to section 3(a) of this order and notify the designated CO.
(e) The Secretary of the Treasury shall include in the guidance issued pursuant to subsection (a) of this section, or in other regulations or guidance, a transparent process for agencies to request exemptions from some or all of the payment verification requirements for specific payments or categories of payments.
(b) As soon as practicable, but not later than 180 days of the date of this order, the OMB Director, in consultation with the Secretary of the Treasury, shall issue guidance directing all non-CFO Act agencies to consolidate transactional financial management services under a single provider approved by the Department of the Treasury.
(c) As soon as practicable, all heads of CFO Act agencies shall use standard financial management solutions available through the Financial Management
(d) Agency heads shall ensure that core financial systems comply with Federal accounting and financial reporting standards and relevant regulations, orders, guidance documents, policy statements, and other agency actions published by the Department of the Treasury from time to time.
(b) The heads of agencies with disbursing authority under 31 U.S.C. 3321(c), including the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of Homeland Security, and the Attorney General (but excluding, for the avoidance of doubt, the Supreme Court and other entities of the Federal Government outside the Executive Branch) will work with the Secretary of the Treasury to delegate the performance of their disbursing activities, other than with respect to classified payments, to the Department of the Treasury's Chief Disbursing Officer in accordance with applicable law.
(c) Notwithstanding subsections (a) or (b) of this section, the Secretary of the Treasury may continue to delegate disbursing authority to NTDOs at other agencies when doing so would align with significant Government priorities. Any remaining NTDOs are required to report daily to the Department of the Treasury's centralized accounting and reporting system in accordance with then-current Department of the Treasury guidance and applicable law.
(d) The Secretary of the Treasury shall develop a plan to centralize and manage all payments previously disbursed by NTDOs, ensuring seamless continuity of Government payments.
(e) The Secretary of the Treasury, in coordination with agency heads, shall establish a transition plan for agencies currently operating as NTDOs, including staffing adjustments, system integrations, and legal or regulatory modifications necessary for full consolidation.
(f) The heads of agencies with disbursing authority delegated to the agency under 33 U.S.C. 3321(b) shall decommission all internal payment systems and use the Department of the Treasury's disbursement systems, except and to the extent authorized by the Department of the Treasury or otherwise required by applicable law.
(b) The Secretary of the Treasury shall submit an implementation report to the President through the Assistant to the President for Economic Policy within 180 days of the date of this order detailing progress on the matters set forth in this order.
(c) The Secretary of the Treasury and agency heads shall take all necessary steps to protect classified information and systems, as well as personally
(b) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
(c) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.